§ 422.1018 Notice and effect of initial determinations.
(a) Notice of initial determination. CMS, as required under 422.756(f)(2), mails notice of an initial determination to the affected party, setting forth the basis or reasons for the determination, the effect of the determination, and the party's right to a hearing, and information about where to file the request for hearing.
(b) Effect of initial determination. An initial determination is binding unless—
(1) The affected party requests a hearing; or
(2) CMS revises its decision.
§ 422.1020 Request for hearing.
(a) Manner and timing of request. (1) An MA organization is entitled to a hearing as specified in 422.1006 and may file a request for a hearing with the Departmental Appeals Board office specified in the initial determination.
(2) The MA organization or its legal representative or other authorized official must file the request, in writing, to the appropriate Departmental Appeals Board office, with a copy to CMS, within 60 calendar days after receipt of the notice of initial determination, to request a hearing before an ALJ to appeal any determination by CMS to impose a civil money penalty.
(b) Content of request for hearing. The request for hearing must—
(1) Identify the specific issues, and the findings of fact and conclusions of law with which the affected party disagrees; and
(2) Specify the basis for each contention that the finding or conclusion of law is incorrect.
[72 FR 68726, Dec. 5, 2007, as amended at 79 FR 29960, May 23, 2014]
§ 422.1022 Parties to the hearing.
The parties to the hearing are the affected party and CMS, as appropriate.
§ 422.1024 Designation of hearing official.
(a) The Chair of the Departmental Appeals Board, or his or her delegate designates an ALJ or a member or members of the Departmental Appeals Board to conduct the hearing.
(b) If appropriate, the Chair or the delegate may substitute another ALJ or another member or other members of the Departmental Appeals Board to conduct the hearing.
(c) As used in this part, “ALJ” includes a member or members of the Departmental Appeals Board who are designated to conduct a hearing.
§ 422.1026 Disqualification of Administrative Law Judge.
(a) An ALJ may not conduct a hearing in a case in which he or she is prejudiced or partial to the affected party or has any interest in the matter pending for decision.
(b) A party that objects to the ALJ designated to conduct the hearing must give notice of its objections at the earliest opportunity.
(c) The ALJ will consider the objections and decide whether to withdraw or proceed with the hearing.
(1) If the ALJ withdraws, another ALJ will be designated to conduct the hearing.
(2) If the ALJ does not withdraw, the objecting party may, after the hearing, present its objections to the Departmental Appeals Board as reasons for changing, modifying, or reversing the ALJ's decision or providing a new hearing before another ALJ.
§ 422.1028 Prehearing conference.
(a) At any time before the hearing, the ALJ may call a prehearing conference for the purpose of delineating the issues in controversy, identifying the evidence and witnesses to be presented at the hearing, and obtaining stipulations accordingly.
(b) On the request of either party or on his or her own motion, the ALJ may adjourn the prehearing conference and reconvene at a later date.
§ 422.1030 Notice of prehearing conference.
(a) Timing of notice. The ALJ will fix a time and place for the prehearing conference and mail written notice to the parties at least 10 calendar days before the scheduled date.
(b) Content of notice. The notice will inform the parties of the purpose of the conference and specify what issues are sought to be resolved, agreed to, or excluded.
(c) Additional issues. Issues other than those set forth in the notice of determination or the request for hearing may be considered at the prehearing conference if—
(1) Either party gives timely notice to that effect to the ALJ and the other party; or
(2) The ALJ raises the issues in the notice of prehearing conference or at the conference.
§ 422.1032 Conduct of prehearing conference.
(a) The prehearing conference is open to the affected party or its representative, to the CMS representatives and their technical advisors, and to any other persons whose presence the ALJ considers necessary or proper.
(b) The ALJ may accept the agreement of the parties as to the following:
(1) Facts that are not in controversy.
(2) Questions that have been resolved favorably to the affected party after the determination in dispute.
(3) Remaining issues to be resolved.
(c) The ALJ may request the parties to indicate the following:
(1) The witnesses that will be present to testify at the hearing.
(2) The qualifications of those witnesses.
(3) The nature of other evidence to be submitted.
§ 422.1034 Record, order, and effect of prehearing conference.
(a) Record of prehearing conference. (1) A record is made of all agreements and stipulations entered into at the prehearing conference.
(2) The record may be transcribed at the request of either party or the ALJ.
(b) Order and opportunity to object. (1) The ALJ issues an order setting forth the results of the prehearing conference, including the agreements made by the parties as to facts not in controversy, the matters to be considered at the hearing, and the issues to be resolved.
(2) Copies of the order are sent to all parties and the parties have 10 calendar days to file objections to the order.
(3) After the 10 calendar days have elapsed, the ALJ settles the order.
(c) Effect of prehearing conference. The agreements and stipulations entered into at the prehearing conference are binding on all parties, unless a party presents facts that, in the opinion of the ALJ, would make an agreement unreasonable or inequitable.
§ 422.1036 Time and place of hearing.
(a) The ALJ fixes a time and place for the hearing and gives the parties written notice at least 10 calendar days before the scheduled date.
(b) The notice informs the parties of the general and specific issues to be resolved at the hearing.
§ 422.1038 Change in time and place of hearing.
(a) The ALJ may change the time and place for the hearing either on his or her own initiative or at the request of a party for good cause shown, or may adjourn or postpone the hearing.
(b) The ALJ may reopen the hearing for receipt of new evidence at any time before mailing the notice of hearing decision.
(c) The ALJ gives the parties reasonable notice of any change in time or place or any adjournment or reopening of the hearing.
§ 422.1040 Joint hearings.
When two or more affected parties have requested hearings and the same or substantially similar matters are at issue, the ALJ may, if all parties agree, fix a single time and place for the prehearing conference or hearing and conduct all proceedings jointly. If joint hearings are held, a single record of the proceedings is made and a separate decision issued with respect to each affected party.
§ 422.1042 Hearing on new issues.
(a) Basic rules. (1) Within the time limits specified in paragraph (b) of this section, the ALJ may, at the request of either party, or on his or her own motion, provide a hearing on new issues that impinge on the rights of the affected party.
(2) The ALJ may consider new issues even if CMS has not made initial determinations on them, and even if they arose after the request for hearing was filed or after a prehearing conference.
(3) The ALJ may give notice of hearing on new issues at any time after the hearing request is filed and before the hearing record is closed.
(b) Notice and conduct of hearing on new issues. (1) Unless the affected party waives its right to appear and present evidence, notice of the time and place of hearing on any new issue will be given to the parties in accordance with 422.1036.
(2) After giving notice, the ALJ will, except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, proceed to hearing on new issues in the same manner as on an issue raised in the request for hearing.
(c) Remand to CMS. At the request of either party, or on his or her own motion, in lieu of a hearing under paragraph (b) of this section, the ALJ may remand the case to CMS for consideration of the new issue and, if appropriate, a determination. If necessary, the ALJ may direct CMS to return the case to the ALJ for further proceedings.
§ 422.1044 Subpoenas.
(a) Basis for issuance. The ALJ, upon his or her own motion or at the request of a party, may issue subpoenas if they are reasonably necessary for the full presentation of a case.
(b) Timing of request by a party. The party must file a written request for a subpoena with the ALJ at least 5 calendar days before the date set for the hearing.
(c) Content of request. The request must:
(1) Identify the witnesses or documents to be produced;
(2) Describe their addresses or location with sufficient particularity to permit them to be found; and
(3) Specify the pertinent facts the party expects to establish by the witnesses or documents, and indicate why those facts could not be established without use of a subpoena.
(d) Method of issuance. Subpoenas are issued in the name of the Secretary.
§ 422.1046 Conduct of hearing.
(a) Participants in the hearing. The hearing is open to the parties and their representatives and technical advisors, and to any other persons whose presence the ALJ considers necessary or proper.
(b) Hearing procedures. (1) The ALJ inquires fully into all of the matters at issue, and receives in evidence the testimony of witnesses and any documents that are relevant and material.
(2) If the ALJ believes that there is relevant and material evidence available which has not been presented at the hearing, he may, at any time before mailing of notice of the decision, reopen the hearing to receive that evidence.
(3) The ALJ decides the order in which the evidence and the arguments of the parties are presented and the conduct of the hearing.
(4) CMS has the burden of coming forward with evidence related to disputed findings that is sufficient (together with any undisputed findings and legal authority) to establish a prima facie case that CMS has a legally sufficient basis for its determination.
(5) The affected party has the burden of coming forward with evidence sufficient to establish the elements of any affirmative argument or defense which it offers.
(6) The affected party bears the ultimate burden of persuasion. To prevail, the affected party must prove by a preponderance of the evidence on the record as a whole that there is no basis for the determination.
(c) Review of the penalty. When an administrative law judge finds that the basis for imposing a civil money penalty exists, as specified in 422.752, the administrative law judge may not—
(1) Set a penalty of zero or reduce a penalty to zero, or
(2) Review the exercise of discretion by CMS to impose a civil money penalty.
§ 422.1048 Evidence.
Evidence may be received at the hearing even though inadmissible under the rules of evidence applicable to court procedure. The ALJ rules on the admissibility of evidence.
§ 422.1050 Witnesses.
Witnesses at the hearing testify under oath or affirmation. The representative of each party is permitted to examine his or her own witnesses subject to interrogation by the representative of the other party. The ALJ may ask any questions that he or she deems necessary. The ALJ rules upon any objection made by either party as to the propriety of any question.
§ 422.1052 Oral and written summation.
The parties to a hearing are allowed a reasonable time to present oral summation and to file briefs or other written statements of proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law. Copies of any briefs or other written statements must be sent in accordance with 422.1016.
§ 422.1054 Record of hearing.
A complete record of the proceedings at the hearing is made and transcribed in all cases.
§ 422.1056 Waiver of right to appear and present evidence.
(a) Waiver procedures. (1) If an affected party wishes to waive its right to appear and present evidence at the hearing, it must file a written waiver with the ALJ.
(2) If the affected party wishes to withdraw a waiver, it may do so, for good cause, at any time before the ALJ mails notice of the hearing decision.
(b) Effect of waiver. If the affected party waives the right to appear and present evidence, the ALJ need not conduct an oral hearing except in one of the following circumstances:
(1) The ALJ believes that the testimony of the affected party or its representatives or other witnesses is necessary to clarify the facts at issue.
(2) CMS shows good cause for requiring the presentation of oral evidence.
(c) Dismissal for failure to appear. If, despite the waiver, the ALJ sends notice of hearing and the affected party fails to appear, or to show good cause for the failure, the ALJ will dismiss the appeal in accordance with 422.1060.
(d) Hearing without oral testimony. When there is no oral testimony, the ALJ will—
(1) Make a record of the relevant written evidence that was considered in making the determination being appealed, and of any additional evidence submitted by the parties;
(2) Furnish to each party copies of the additional evidence submitted by the other party; and
(3) Give both parties a reasonable opportunity for rebuttal.
(e) Handling of briefs and related statements. If the parties submit briefs or other written statements of evidence or proposed findings of facts or conclusions of law, those documents will be handled in accordance with 422.1016.
§ 422.1058 Dismissal of request for hearing.
(a) The ALJ may, at any time before mailing the notice of the decision, dismiss a hearing request if a party withdraws its request for a hearing or the affected party asks that its request be dismissed.
(b) An affected party may request a dismissal by filing a written notice with the ALJ.
§ 422.1060 Dismissal for abandonment.
(a) The ALJ may dismiss a request for hearing if it is abandoned by the party that requested it.
(b) The ALJ may consider a request for hearing to be abandoned if the party or its representative—
(1) Fails to appear at the prehearing conference or hearing without having previously shown good cause for not appearing; and
(2) Fails to respond, within 10 calendar days after the ALJ sends a “show cause” notice, with a showing of good cause.
§ 422.1062 Dismissal for cause.
On his or her own motion, or on the motion of a party to the hearing, the ALJ may dismiss a hearing request either entirely or as to any stated issue, under any of the following circumstances:
(a) Res judicata. There has been a previous determination or decision with respect to the rights of the same affected party on the same facts and law pertinent to the same issue or issues which has become final either by judicial affirmance or, without judicial consideration, because the affected party did not timely request reconsideration, hearing, or review, or commence a civil action with respect to that determination or decision.
(b) No right to hearing. The party requesting a hearing is not a proper party or does not otherwise have a right to a hearing.
(c) Hearing request not timely filed. The affected party did not file a hearing request timely and the time for filing has not been extended.
§ 422.1064 Notice and effect of dismissal and right to request review.
(a) Notice of the ALJ's dismissal action is mailed to the parties. The notice advises the affected party of its right to request that the dismissal be vacated as provided in 422.1066.
(b) The dismissal of a request for hearing is binding unless it is vacated by the ALJ or the Departmental Appeals Board.
§ 422.1066 Vacating a dismissal of request for hearing.
An ALJ may vacate any dismissal of a request for hearing if a party files a request to that effect within 60 calendar days from receipt of the notice of dismissal and shows good cause for vacating the dismissal.
§ 422.1068 Administrative Law Judge's decision.
(a) Timing, basis and content. As soon as practical after the close of the hearing, the ALJ issues a written decision in the case. The decision is based on the evidence of record and contains separate numbered findings of fact and conclusions of law.
(b) Notice and effect. A copy of the decision is mailed to the parties and is binding on them unless—
(1) A party requests review by the Departmental Appeals Board within the time period specified in 422.846, and the Board reviews the case;
(2) The Departmental Appeals Board denies the request for review and the party seeks judicial review by filing an action in a United States District Court or, in the case of a civil money penalty, in a United States Court of Appeals;
(3) The decision is revised by an ALJ or the Departmental Appeals Board; or
(4) The decision is a recommended decision directed to the Board.
§ 422.1070 Removal of hearing to Departmental Appeals Board.
(a) At any time before the ALJ receives oral testimony, the Board may remove to itself any pending request for a hearing.
(b) Notice of removal is mailed to each party.
(c) The Board conducts the hearing in accordance with the rules that apply to ALJ hearings under this subpart.
§ 422.1072 Remand by the Administrative Law Judge.
(a) If CMS requests remand, and the affected party concurs in writing or on the record, the ALJ may remand any case properly before him or her to CMS for a determination satisfactory to the affected party.
(b) The ALJ may remand at any time before notice of hearing decision is mailed.
§ 422.1074 Right to request Departmental Appeals Board review of Administrative Law Judge's decision or dismissal.
Either of the parties has a right to request Departmental Appeals Board review of the ALJ's decision or dismissal order, and the parties are so informed in the notice of the ALJ's action.
§ 422.1076 Request for Departmental Appeals Board review.
(a) Manner and time of filing. (1) Any party that is dissatisfied with an ALJ's decision or dismissal of a hearing request, may file a written request for review by the Departmental Appeals Board.
(2) The requesting party or its representative or other authorized official must file the request with the DAB within 60 calendar days from receipt of the notice of decision or dismissal, unless the Board, for good cause shown by the requesting party, extends the time for filing.
(b) Content of request for review. A request for review of an ALJ decision or dismissal must specify the issues, the findings of fact or conclusions of law with which the party disagrees, and the basis for contending that the findings and conclusions are incorrect.
§ 422.1078 Departmental Appeals Board action on request for review.
(a) Request by CMS. The Departmental Appeals Board may dismiss, deny, or grant a request made by CMS for review of an ALJ decision or dismissal.
(b) Request by the affected party. The Board may deny or grant the affected party's request for review or may dismiss the request for one of the following reasons:
(1) The affected party requests dismissal of its request for review.
(2) The affected party did not file timely or show good cause for late filing.
(3) The affected party does not have a right to review.
(4) A previous determination or decision, based on the same facts and law, and regarding the same issue, has become final through judicial affirmance or because the affected party failed to timely request reconsideration, hearing, Board review, or judicial review, as appropriate.
(c) Effect of dismissal. The dismissal of a request for Departmental Appeals Board review is binding and not subject to further review.
(d) Review panel. If the Board grants a request for review of the ALJ's decision, the review will be conducted by a panel of three members of the Board, designated by the Chair or Deputy Chair.
§ 422.1080 Procedures before the Departmental Appeals Board on review.
The parties are given, upon request, a reasonable opportunity to file briefs or other written statements as to fact and law, and to appear before the Departmental Appeals Board to present evidence or oral arguments. Copies of any brief or other written statement must be sent in accordance with 422.1016.
§ 422.1082 Evidence admissible on review.
(a) The Departmental Appeals Board may admit evidence into the record in addition to the evidence introduced at the ALJ hearing, (or the documents considered by the ALJ if the hearing was waived), if the Board considers that the additional evidence is relevant and material to an issue before it.
(b) If it appears to the Board that additional relevant evidence is available, the Board will require that it be produced.
(c) Before additional evidence is admitted into the record—
(1) Notice is mailed to the parties (unless they have waived notice) stating that evidence will be received regarding specified issues; and
(2) The parties are given a reasonable time to comment and to present other evidence pertinent to the specified issues.
(d) If additional evidence is presented orally to the Board, a transcript is prepared and made available to any party upon request.
§ 422.1084 Decision or remand by the Departmental Appeals Board.
(a) When the Departmental Appeals Board reviews an ALJ's decision or order of dismissal, or receives a case remanded by a court, the Board may either issue a decision or remand the case to an ALJ for a hearing and decision or a recommended decision for final decision by the Board.
(b) In a remanded case, the ALJ initiates additional proceedings and takes other actions as directed by the Board in its order of remand, and may take other action not inconsistent with that order.
(c) Upon completion of all action called for by the remand order and any other consistent action, the ALJ promptly makes a decision or, as specified by the Board, certifies the case to the Board with a recommended decision.
(d) The parties have 20 calendar days from the date of a notice of a recommended decision to submit to the Board any exception, objection, or comment on the findings of fact, conclusions of law, and recommended decision.
(e) After the 20-calendar day period, the Board issues its decision adopting, modifying or rejecting the ALJ's recommended decision.
(f) If the Board does not remand the case to an ALJ, the following rules apply:
(1) The Board's decision—
(i) Is based upon the evidence in the hearing record and any further evidence that the Board receives during its review;
(ii) Is in writing and contains separate numbered findings of fact and conclusions of law; and
(iii) May modify, affirm, or reverse the ALJ's decision.
(2) A copy of the Board's decision is mailed to each party.
§ 422.1086 Effect of Departmental Appeals Board Decision.
(a) General rule. The Board's decision is binding unless—
(1) The affected party has a right to judicial review and timely files a civil action in a United States District Court or, in the case of a civil money penalty, in a United States Court of Appeals; or
(2) The Board reopens and revises its decision in accordance with 422.862.
(b) Right to judicial review. Section 422.1006 specifies the circumstances under which an affected party has a right to seek judicial review.
(c) Special Rules: Civil Money Penalty—Finality of Board's decision. When CMS imposes a civil money penalty, notice of the Board's decision (or denial of review) is the final administrative action that initiates the 60-day period for seeking judicial review.
§ 422.1088 Extension of time for seeking judicial review.
(a) Any affected party that is dissatisfied with a Departmental Appeals Board decision and is entitled to judicial review must commence civil action within 60 calendar days from receipt of the notice of the Board's decision, unless the Board extends the time in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
(b) The request for extension must be filed in writing with the Board before the 60-calendar day period ends.
(c) For good cause shown, the Board may extend the time for commencing civil action.
§ 422.1090 Basis, timing, and authority for reopening an Administrative Law Judge or Board decision.
(a) Basis and timing for reopening. An ALJ of Departmental Appeals Board decision may be reopened, within 60 calendar days from the date of the notice of decision, upon the motion of the ALJ or the Board or upon the petition of either party to the hearing.
(b) Authority to reopen. (1) A decision of the Departmental Appeals Board may be reopened only by the Departmental Appeals Board.
(2) A decision of an ALJ may be reopened by that ALJ, by another ALJ if that one is not available, or by the Departmental Appeals Board. For purposes of this paragraph, an ALJ is considered to be unavailable if the ALJ has died, terminated employment, or been transferred to another duty station, is on leave of absence, or is unable to conduct a hearing because of illness.
§ 422.1092 Revision of reopened decision.
(a) Revision based on new evidence. If a reopened decision is to be revised on the basis of new evidence that was not included in the record of that decision, the ALJ or the Departmental Appeals Board—
(1) Notifies the parties of the proposed revision; and
(2) Unless the parties waive their right to hearing or appearance—
(i) Grants a hearing in the case of an ALJ revision; and
(ii) Grants opportunity to appear in the case of a Board revision.
(b) Basis for revised decision and right to review. (1) If a revised decision is necessary, the ALJ or the Departmental Appeals Board, as appropriate, renders it on the basis of the entire record.
(2) If the decision is revised by an ALJ, the Departmental Appeals Board may review that revised decision at the request of either party or on its own motion.
§ 422.1094 Notice and effect of revised decision.
(a) Notice. The notice mailed to the parties states the basis or reason for the revised decision and informs them of their right to Departmental Appeals Board review of an ALJ revised decision, or to judicial review of a Board reviewed decision.
(b) Effect—(1) ALJ revised decision. An ALJ revised decision is binding unless it is reviewed by the Departmental Appeals Board.
(2) Departmental Appeals Board revised decision. A Board revised decision is binding unless a party files a civil action in a district court of the United States within the time frames specified in 423.1088.
[72 FR 68726, Dec. 5, 2007, as amended at 85 FR 72909, Nov. 16, 2020]
U Subpart U [Reserved]
Subpart V Medicare Advantage Communication Requirements
Source: 73 FR 54220, Sept. 18, 2008, unless otherwise noted.
§ 422.2260 Definitions.
The definitions in this section apply for this subpart unless the context indicates otherwise.
Advertisement (Ad) means a read, written, visual, oral, watched, or heard bid for, or call to attention. Advertisements can be considered communications or marketing based on the intent and content of the message.
Alternate format means a format used to convey information to individuals with visual, speech, physical, hearing, and intellectual disabilities (for example, braille, large print, audio).
Banner means a type of advertisement feature typically used in television ads that is intended to be brief, and flashes limited information across a screen for the sole purpose of enticing a prospective enrollee to contact the MA plan (for example, obtain more information) or to alert the viewer that information is forthcoming.
Banner-like advertisement is an advertisement that uses a banner-like feature, that is typically found in some media other than television (for example, outdoors and on the internet).
Communications means activities and use of materials created or administered by the MA organization or any downstream entity to provide information to current and prospective enrollees. Marketing is a subset of communications.
Marketing means communications materials and activities that meet both the following standards for intent and content:
(1) Intended, as determined under paragraph (1)(ii) of this definition, to do any of the following:
(i)(A) Draw a beneficiary's attention to a MA plan or plans.
(B) Influence a beneficiary's decision-making process when making a MA plan selection.
(C) Influence a beneficiary's decision to stay enrolled in a plan (that is, retention-based marketing).
(ii) In evaluating the intent of an activity or material, CMS will consider objective information including, but not limited to, the audience of the activity or material, other information communicated by the activity or material, timing, and other context of the activity or material and is not limited to the MA organization's stated intent.
(2) Include or address content regarding any of the following:
(i) The plan's benefits, benefits structure, premiums, or cost sharing.
(ii) Measuring or ranking standards (for example, Star Ratings or plan comparisons).
(iii) Rewards and incentives as defined under § 422.134(a).
Outdoor advertising (ODA) means outdoor material intended to capture the attention of a passing audience (for example, billboards, signs attached to transportation vehicles). ODA may be communications or marketing material.
Third-party marketing organization (TPMO) means organizations and individuals, including independent agents and brokers, who are compensated to perform lead generation, marketing, sales, and enrollment related functions as a part of the chain of enrollment (the steps taken by a beneficiary from becoming aware of an MA plan or plans to making an enrollment decision). TPMOs may be a first tier, downstream or related entity (FDRs), as defined under § 422.2, but may also be entities that are not FDRs but provide services to an MA plan or an MA plan's FDR.
[86 FR 6103, Jan. 19, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 27898, May 9, 2022]
§ 422.2261 Submission, review, and distribution of materials.
(a) General requirements. MA organizations must submit all marketing materials, all election forms, and certain designated communications materials for CMS review.
(1) The Health Plan Management System (HPMS) Marketing Module is the primary system of record for the collection, review, and storage of materials that must be submitted for review.
(2) Materials must be submitted to the HPMS Marketing Module by the MA organization or, where materials have been developed by a Third Party Marketing Organization for multiple MA organizations or plans, by a Third Party Marketing Organization with prior review of each MA organization on whose behalf the materials were created or will be used.
(3)(i) MA organizations offering dual eligible special needs plans with exclusively aligned enrollment subject to § 422.107(e) must submit all materials for the contract in HPMS under the MA organization's contract number.
(ii) MA organizations may not submit materials for the contract under the organization's Multi-Contract Entity number and third-party marketing organizations may not submit materials under the Multi-Plan number as described in § 422.2262(d)(2)(i).
(b) CMS review of marketing materials and election forms. MA organizations may not distribute or otherwise make available any marketing materials or election forms unless one of the following occurs:
(1) CMS has reviewed and approved the material.
(2) The material has been deemed approved; that is, CMS has not rendered a disposition for the material within 45 days (or 10 days if using CMS model or standardized marketing materials as outlined in § 422.2267(e) of this chapter) of submission to CMS; or
(3) The material has been accepted under File and Use, as follows:
(i) The MA organization may distribute certain types of marketing materials, designated by CMS based on the material's content, audience, and intended use, as they apply to potential risk to the beneficiary, 5 days following the submission.
(ii) The MA organization must certify that the material meets all applicable CMS communications and marketing requirements in §§ 422.2260 through 422.2267.
(c) CMS review of non-marketing communications materials. CMS does not require submission, or submission and approval, of communications materials prior to use, other than the following exceptions.
(1) Certain designated communications materials that are critical to beneficiaries understanding or accessing their benefits (for example, the Evidence of Coverage (EOC).
(2) Communications materials that, based on feedback such as complaints or data gathered through reviews, warrant additional oversight as determined by CMS, to ensure the information being received by beneficiaries is accurate.
(d) Standards for CMS review. CMS reviews materials to ensure the following:
(1) Compliance with all applicable requirements under §§ 422.2260 through 422.2267.
(2) Benefit and cost information is an accurate reflection of what is contained in the MA organization's bid.
(3) CMS may determine, upon review of such materials, that the materials must be modified, or may no longer be used.
[86 FR 6104, Jan. 19, 2021, as amended at 88 FR 22335, Apr. 12, 2023; 91 FR 17582, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 422.2262 General communications materials and activities requirements.
MA organizations may not mislead, confuse, or provide materially inaccurate information to current or potential enrollees.
(a) General rules. MA organizations must ensure their statements and the terminology used in communications activities and materials adhere to the following requirements:
(1) MA organizations may not do any of the following:
(i) Engage in activities that could mislead or confuse Medicare beneficiaries, or misrepresent the MA organization.
(ii) Engage in any discriminatory activity such as attempting to recruit Medicare beneficiaries from higher income areas without making comparable efforts to enroll Medicare beneficiaries from lower income areas, or vice versa.
(iii) Target potential enrollees based on income levels, unless it is a dual eligible special needs plan or comparable plan as determined by the Secretary.
(iv) Target potential enrollees based on health status, unless it is a special needs plan or comparable plan as determined by the Secretary.
(v) State or imply plans are only available to seniors rather than to all Medicare beneficiaries.
(vi) Employ MA plan names that suggest that a plan is not available to all Medicare beneficiaries, unless it is a special needs plan or comparable plan as determined by the Secretary. This prohibition does not apply to MA plan names in effect prior to July 31, 2000.
(vii) Display the names or logos or both of co-branded network providers on the organization's member identification card, unless the provider names or logos or both are related to the member selection of specific provider organizations (for example, physicians or hospitals).
(viii) Use a plan name that does not include the plan type. The plan type should be included at the end of the plan name, for example, “Super Medicare Advantage (HMO).” MA organizations are not required to repeat the plan type when the plan name is used multiple times in the same material.
(ix) Claim they are recommended or endorsed by CMS, Medicare, the Secretary, or HHS.
(x) Convey that a failure to pay premium will not result in disenrollment, except for factually accurate descriptions of the MA organization's policies adopted in accordance with § 422.74(b)(1) and (d)(1) of this chapter.
(xi) Use the term “free” to describe a $0 premium, any type of reduction in premium, reduction in deductibles or cost sharing, low-income subsidy, or cost sharing pertaining to dual eligible individuals.
(xii) Imply that the plan operates as a supplement to Medicare.
(xiii) State or imply a plan is available only to or is designed for beneficiaries who are dually eligible for Medicare and Medicaid, unless it is a dual-eligible special needs plan or comparable plan as determined by the Secretary.
(xiv) Market a non-dual eligible special needs plan as if it were a dual-eligible special needs plan.
(xv) Target marketing efforts primarily to dual eligible individuals, unless the plan is a dual eligible special needs plan or comparable plan as determined by the Secretary.
(xvi) Claim a relationship with the state Medicaid agency, unless a contract to coordinate Medicaid services for enrollees in that plan is in place.
(xvii) Use the Medicare name, CMS logo, and products or information issued by the Federal Government, including the Medicare card, in a misleading way. Use of the Medicare card image is permitted only with authorization from CMS.
(2) MA organizations may do the following:
(i) State that the MA organization is approved to participate in Medicare programs or is contracted to administer Medicare benefits or both.
(ii) Use the term “Medicare-approved” to describe benefits or services in materials or both.
(iii) Use the term “free” in conjunction with mandatory, supplemental, and preventative benefits provided at a zero cost share for all enrollees.
(b) Product endorsements and testimonials. (1) Product endorsements and testimonials may take any of the following forms:
(i) Television or video ads.
(ii) Radio ads.
(iii) Print ads.
(iv) Social media ads. In cases of social media, the use of a previous post, whether or not associated with or originated by the MA organization, is considered a product endorsement or testimonial.
(v) Other types of ads.
(2) MA organizations may use individuals to endorse the MA organization's product provided the endorsement or testimonial adheres to the following requirements:
(i) The speaker must identify the MA organization's product or company by name.
(ii) Medicare beneficiaries endorsing or promoting the MA organization must have been an enrollee at the time the endorsement or testimonial was created.
(iii) The endorsement or testimonial must clearly state that the individual was paid for the endorsement or testimonial, if applicable.
(iv) If an individual is used (for example, an actor) to portray a real or fictitious situation, the endorsement or testimonial must state that it is an actor portrayal.
(c) Requirements when including certain telephone numbers in materials. (1) MA organizations must adhere to the following requirements for including certain telephone numbers in materials:
(i) When a MA organization includes its customer service number, the hours of operation must be prominently included at least once.
(ii) When a MA organization includes its customer service number, it must provide a toll-free TTY number in conjunction with the customer service number in the same font size.
(iii) On every material where 1-800-MEDICARE or Medicare TTY appears, the MA organization must prominently include, at least once, the hours and days of operation for 1-800-MEDICARE (that is, 24 hours a day/7 days a week).
(2) The following advertisement types are exempt from these requirements:
(i) Outdoor advertising.
(ii) Banners or banner-like ads.
(iii) Radio advertisements and sponsorships.
(d) Standardized material identification (SMID). (1) MA organizations must use a standardized method of identification for oversight and tracking of materials received by beneficiaries.
(2) The SMID consists of the following three parts:
(i) The MA organization contract or Multi-Contract Entity (MCE) number (that is, “H” for MA or Section 1876 Cost Plans, “R” for Regional PPO plans (RPPOs), or “Y” for MCE, a means of identification available for Plans/Part D sponsors that have multiple MA contracts) followed by an underscore, except that the SMID for multi-plan marketing materials must begin with the word “MULTI-PLAN” instead of the MA organization's contract number (for example, H1234_abc123_C or MULTI-PLAN_efg456_M).
(ii) A series of alpha numeric characters (chosen at the MA organization's discretion) unique to the material followed by an underscore.
(iii) An uppercase “C” for communications materials or an uppercase “M” for marketing materials (for example, H1234_abc123_C or H5678_efg456_M).
(3) The SMID is required on all materials except the following:
(i) Membership ID card.
(ii) Envelopes, radio ads, outdoor advertisements, banners, banner-like ads, and social media comments and posts.
(iii) OMB-approved forms/documents, except those materials specified in § 422.2267.
(iv) Corporate notices or forms (that is, not MA/Part D specific) meeting the definition of communications (see § 422.2260) such as privacy notices and authorization to disclose protected health information (PHI).
(v) Agent-developed communications materials that are not marketing.
(4) Non-English and alternate format materials, based on previously created materials, may have the same SMID as the material on which they are based.
[86 FR 6104, Jan. 19, 2021, as amended at 88 FR 22335, Apr. 12, 2023; 91 FR 17583, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 422.2263 General marketing requirements.
Marketing is a subset of communications and therefore must follow the requirements outlined in § 422.2262 as well as this section. Marketing (as defined in § 422.2260) must additionally meet the following requirements:
(a) MA organizations may begin marketing prospective plan year offerings on October 1 of each year for the following contract year. MA organizations may market the current and prospective year simultaneously provided materials clearly indicate what year is being discussed.
(b) In marketing, MA organizations may not do any of the following:
(1) Provide cash or other monetary rebates as an inducement for enrollment or otherwise.
(2) Offer gifts to beneficiaries, unless the gifts are of nominal value (as governed by guidance published by the HHS OIG), are offered to similarly situated beneficiaries without regard to whether or not the beneficiary enrolls, and are not in the form of cash or other monetary rebates.
(3) Provide meals to potential enrollees regardless of value.
(4) Market non-health care related products to prospective enrollees during any MA sales activity or presentation. This is considered cross-selling and is prohibited.
(5) Compare their plan to other plans, unless the information is accurate, not misleading, and can be supported by the MA organization making the comparison.
(6) Display the names or logos or both of provider co-branding partners on marketing materials, unless the materials clearly indicate via a disclaimer or in the body that “Other providers are available in the network.”
(7) Knowingly target or send unsolicited marketing materials to any MA enrollee during the Open Enrollment Period (OEP).
(i) During the OEP, an MA organization may do any of the following:
(A) Conduct marketing activities that focus on other enrollment opportunities, including but not limited to marketing to age-ins (who have not yet made an enrollment decision), marketing by 5-star plans regarding their continuous enrollment special election period (SEP), and marketing to dual-eligible and LIS beneficiaries who, in general, may make changes once per calendar quarter during the first 9 months of the year;
(B) Send marketing materials when a beneficiary makes a proactive request;
(C) At the beneficiary's request, have one-on-one meetings with a sales agent;
(D) At the beneficiary's request, provide information on the OEP through the call center; and
(E) Include educational information, excluding marketing, on the MA organization's website about the existence of OEP.
(ii) During the OEP, an MA organization may not:
(A) Send unsolicited materials advertising the ability or opportunity to make an additional enrollment change or referencing the OEP;
(B) Specifically target beneficiaries who are in the OEP because they made a choice during Annual Enrollment Period (AEP) by purchase of mailing lists or other means of identification;
(C) Engage in or promote agent or broker activities that intend to target the OEP as an opportunity to make further sales; or
(D) Call or otherwise contact former enrollees who have selected a new plan during the AEP.
(8) Advertise benefits that are not available to beneficiaries in the service area(s) where the marketing appears, unless the advertisement is in local media that serves the service area(s) where the benefits are available and reaching beneficiaries who reside in other service areas is unavoidable.
(9) Market any products or plans, benefits, or costs, unless the MA organization or marketing name(s) as listed in HPMS of the entities offering the referenced products or plans, benefits, or costs are identified in the marketing material.
(i) MA organization or marketing names must be in 12-point font in print and may not be in the form of a disclaimer or fine print.
(ii) For television, online, or social media, the MA organization or marketing name(s) must be either read at the same pace as the phone number or must be displayed throughout the entire advertisement in a font size equivalent to the advertised phone number, contact information, or benefits.
(iii) For radio or other voice-based advertisements, MA organization or marketing names must be read at the same pace as the advertised phone numbers or other contact information.
(10) MA organizations may not include information about savings available to potential enrollees that are based on a comparison of typical expenses borne by uninsured individuals, unpaid costs of dually eligible beneficiaries, or other unrealized costs of a Medicare beneficiary.
(c) The following requirements apply to how MA organizations must display CMS-issued Star Ratings:
(1) References to individual Star Rating measure(s) must also include references to the overall Star Rating for MA-PDs and the summary rating for MA-only plans.
(2) May not use an individual underlying category, domain, or measure rating to imply overall higher Star Ratings.
(3) Must be clear that the rating is out of 5 stars.
(4) Must clearly identify the Star Ratings contract year.
(5) May only market the Star Ratings in the service area(s) for which the Star Rating is applicable, unless using Star Ratings to convey overall MA organization performance (for example, “Plan X has achieved 4.5 stars in Montgomery, Chester, and Delaware Counties), in which case the MA organization must do so in a way that is not confusing or misleading.
(6) The following requirements apply to all 5 Star MA contracts:
(i) May not market the 5-star special enrollment period, as defined in § 422.62(b)(15), after November 30 of each year if the contract has not received an overall 5 star for the next contract year.
(ii) May use CMS' 5-star icon or may create their own icon.
(7) The following requirements apply to all Low Performing MA contracts:
(i) The Low Performing Icon must be included on all materials about or referencing the specific contract's Star Ratings.
(ii) Must state the Low Performing Icon means that the MA organization's contract received a summary rating of 2.5 stars or below in Part C or Part D or both for the last 3 years.
(iii) May not attempt to refute or minimize Low Performing Status.
[86 FR 6105, Jan. 19, 2021, as amended at 88 FR 22335, Apr. 12, 2023]
§ 422.2264 Beneficiary contact.
For the purpose of this section, beneficiary contact means any outreach activities to a beneficiary or a beneficiary's caregivers by the MA organization or its agents and brokers.
(a) Unsolicited contact. Subject to the rules for contact for plan business in paragraph (b) of this section, the following rules apply when materials or activities are given or supplied to a beneficiary or their caregiver without prior request:
(1) MA organizations may make unsolicited direct contact by conventional mail and other print media (for example, advertisements and direct mail) or email (provided every email contains an opt-out option).
(2) MA organizations may not do any of the following if unsolicited:
(i) Use door to door solicitation, including leaving information of any kind, except that information may be left when an appointment is pre-scheduled but the beneficiary is not home.
(A) Contact is unsolicited door-to-door contact unless an appointment, at the beneficiary's home at the applicable date and time, was previously scheduled.
(B) [Reserved]
(ii) Approach enrollees in common areas such as parking lots, hallways, and lobbies.
(iii) Send direct messages from social media platforms.
(iv) Use telephone solicitation (that is, cold calling), robocalls, text messages, or voicemail messages, including, but not limited to, the following:
(A) Calls based on referrals.
(B) Calls to former enrollees who have disenrolled or those in the process of disenrolling, except to conduct disenrollment surveys for quality improvement purposes.
(C) Calls to beneficiaries who attended a sales event, unless the beneficiary gave express permission to be contacted.
(D) Calls to prospective enrollees to confirm receipt of mailed information.
(3) Calls are not considered unsolicited if the beneficiary provides consent or initiates contact with the plan. For example, returning phone calls or calling an individual who has completed a business reply card requesting contact is not considered unsolicited.
(b) Contact for plan business. MA organizations may contact current, and to a more limited extent, former members, including those enrolled in other products offered by the parent organization, to discuss plan business, in accordance with the following requirements:
(1) An MA organization may conduct the following activities as plan business:
(i) Call current enrollees, including those in non-Medicare products, to discuss Medicare products. Examples of such calls include, but are not limited to the following:
(A) Enrollees aging into Medicare from commercial products.
(B) Existing enrollees, including Medicaid enrollees, to discuss other Medicare products or plan benefits.
(C) Members in a Part D plan to discuss other Medicare products.
(ii) Call beneficiaries who submit enrollment applications to conduct business related to enrollment.
(iii) With prior CMS approval, call LIS enrollees that a plan is prospectively losing due to reassignment. CMS decisions to approve calls are for limited circumstances based on the following:
(A) The proximity of cost of the losing plan as compared to the national benchmark; and
(B) The selection of plans in the service area that are below the benchmark.
(iv) Agents/brokers calling clients who are enrolled in other products they may sell, such as automotive or home insurance.
(v) MA organizations may not make unsolicited calls about other lines of business as a means of generating leads for Medicare plans.
(2) If the MA organization reaches out to beneficiaries regarding plan business, as outlined in this section, the MA organization must provide notice to all beneficiaries whom the plan contacts as least once annually, in writing, of the individual's ability to opt out of future calls regarding plan business.
(c) Events with beneficiaries. MA organizations and their agents or brokers may hold educational events, marketing or sales events, and personal marketing appointments to meet with Medicare beneficiaries, either face-to-face or virtually. The requirements for each type of event are as follows:
(1) Educational events must be advertised as such and be designed to generally inform beneficiaries about Medicare, including Medicare Advantage, Prescription Drug programs, or any other Medicare program.
(i) At educational events, MA organizations and agents/brokers may not market specific MA plans or benefits.
(ii) MA organizations holding or participating in educational events may do any of the following:
(A) Distribute communications materials.
(B) Answer beneficiary-initiated questions pertaining to MA plans.
(C) Distribute business cards.
(D) Make available and receive beneficiary contact information, including Business Reply Cards and Scope of Appointment forms.
(iii) MA organizations holding or participating in educational events may not conduct sales or marketing presentations or distribute or accept plan applications.
(iv) MA organizations may schedule appointments with residents of long-term care facilities (for example, nursing homes, assisted living facilities, board and care homes) upon a resident's request. If a resident did not request an appointment, any visit by an agent or broker is prohibited as unsolicited door-to-door marketing.
(2) Marketing or sales events are group events that fall within the definition of marketing at § 422.2260.
(i) If a marketing event directly follows an educational event, the beneficiary must be notified that the educational event is ending and a marketing event will begin shortly and be given a sufficient opportunity to leave the educational event prior to the start of the marketing event.
(ii) MA organizations holding or participating in marketing events may do any of the following:
(A) Provide marketing materials.
(B) Distribute and accept plan applications.
(C) Collect Scope of Appointment forms for future personal marketing appointments.
(D) Conduct marketing presentations.
(iii) MA organizations holding or participating in marketing events may not do any of the following:
(A) Require sign-in sheets or require attendees to provide contact information as a prerequisite for attending an event.
(B) Conduct activities, including health screenings, health surveys, or other activities that are used for or could be viewed as being used to target a subset of members (that is, “cherry-picking”).
(C) Use information collected for raffles or drawings for any purpose other than raffles or drawings.
(3) Personal marketing appointments are those appointments that are tailored to an individual or small group (for example, a married couple) for purposes of discussing marketing topics. Personal marketing appointments are not defined by the location.
(i) Prior to the personal marketing appointment, the MA plan (or agent or broker, as applicable) must agree upon and record the Scope of Appointment with the beneficiary(ies). The Scope of Appointment must be in writing for in-person personal marketing appointments.
(ii) MA organizations holding a personal marketing appointment may do any of the following:
(A) Provide marketing materials.
(B) Distribute and accept plan applications.
(C) Conduct marketing presentations.
(D) Review the individual needs of the beneficiary including, but not limited to, health care needs and history, commonly used medications, and financial concerns.
(iii) MA organizations holding a personal marketing appointment may not do any of the following:
(A) Market any health care related product during a marketing appointment beyond the scope agreed upon by the beneficiary, and documented by the plan in a Scope of Appointment, business reply card, or request to receive additional information, which is valid for 12 months following the date of beneficiary's signature date or the date of the beneficiary's initial request for information.
(B) Market additional health related lines of plan business not identified prior to an individual appointment without a separate Scope of Appointment, identifying the additional lines of business to be discussed; such Scope of Appointment is valid for 12 months following the beneficiary's signature date.
(C) Market non-health related products, such as annuities.
[86 FR 6106, Jan. 19, 2021, as amended at 88 FR 22335, Apr. 12, 2023; 91 FR 17583, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 422.2265 Websites.
As required under § 422.111(h)(2), MA organizations must have a website.
(a) General website requirements. (1) MA organization websites must meet all of the following requirements:
(i) Maintain current year contract content through December 31 of each year.
(ii) Notify users when they will leave the MA organization's Medicare site.
(iii) Include or provide access to (for example, through a hyperlink) applicable notices, statements, disclosures, or disclaimers with corresponding content. Overarching disclaimers, such as the Federal Contracting Statement, are not required on every page.
(iv) Reflect the most current information within 30 days of any material change.
(v) Keep MA content separate and distinct from other lines of business, including Medicare Supplemental Plans.
(2) MA organization websites may not do any of the following:
(i) Require beneficiaries to enter any information other than zip code, county, or state for access to non-beneficiary-specific website content.
(ii) Provide links to foreign drug sales, including advertising links.
(iii) State that the MA organization is not responsible for the content of their social media pages or the website of any first tier, downstream, or related entity that provides information on behalf of the MA organization.
(b) Required content. MA organization's websites must include the following content:
(1) A toll-free customer service number, TTY number, and days and hours of operation.
(2) A physical or Post Office Box address.
(3) A PDF or copy of a printable provider directory.
(4) A provider directory searchable by every element required in the model provider directory, such as name, location, specialty.
(5) When applicable, a searchable pharmacy directory combined with a provider directory.
(6) Information on enrollees' and MA organizations' rights and responsibilities upon disenrollment. MA organizations may either post this information or provide specific information on where it is located in the Evidence of Coverage together with a link to that document.
(7) A description of and information on how to file a grievance, request an organization determination, and an appeal.
(8) Prominently displayed link to the Medicare.gov electronic complaint form.
(9) Disaster and emergency policy consistent with § 422.100(m)(5)(iii).
(10) A Notice of Privacy Practices as required under the HIPAA Privacy Rule (45 CFR 164.520).
(11) For PFFS plans, a link to the PFFS Terms and Conditions of Payment.
(12) For MSA plans, the following statements:
(i) “You must file Form 1040, `US Individual Income Tax Return,' along with Form 8853, `Archer MSA and Long-Term Care Insurance Contracts' with the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) for any distributions made from your Medicare MSA account to ensure you aren't taxed on your MSA account withdrawals. You must file these tax forms for any year in which an MSA account withdrawal is made, even if you have no taxable income or other reason for filing a Form 1040. MSA account withdrawals for qualified medical expenses are tax free, while account withdrawals for non-medical expenses are subject to both income tax and a fifty (50) percent tax penalty.”
(ii) “Tax publications are available on the IRS website at http://www.irs.gov or from 1-800-TAX-FORM (1-800-829-3676).”
(13) Instructions on how to appoint a representative including a link to the downloadable version of the CMS Appointment of Representative Form (CMS Form-1696).
(14) Enrollment instructions and forms.
(c) Required posted materials. MA organization's website must provide access to the following materials, in a printable format, within the timeframes specified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section.
(1) The following materials for each plan year must be posted on the website by October 15 prior to the beginning of the plan year:
(i) Evidence of Coverage.
(ii) Annual Notice of Change (for renewing plans).
(iii) Summary of Benefits.
(iv) Provider Directory.
(v) Provider/Pharmacy Directory.
(2) The following materials must be posted on the website throughout the year and be updated as required:
(i) Prior Authorization Forms for physicians and enrollees.
(ii) When applicable, Part D Model Coverage Determination and Redetermination Request Forms.
(iii) Exception request forms for physicians (which must be posted by January 1 for new plans).
(iv) CMS Star Ratings document, which must be posted within 21 days after its release on the Medicare Plan Finder.
[86 FR 6107, Jan. 19, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 27898, May 9, 2022; 88 FR 22336, Apr. 12, 2023]
§ 422.2266 Activities with healthcare providers or in the healthcare setting.
(a) Where marketing is prohibited. The requirements in paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section apply to activities in the health care setting. Marketing activities and materials are not permitted in areas where care is being administered, including but not limited to the following:
(1) Exam rooms.
(2) Hospital patient rooms.
(3) Treatment areas where patients interact with a provider and clinical team (including such areas in dialysis treatment facilities).
(4) Pharmacy counter areas.
(b) Where marketing is permitted. Marketing activities and materials are permitted in common areas within the health care setting, including the following:
(1) Common entryways.
(2) Vestibules.
(3) Waiting rooms.
(4) Hospital or nursing home cafeterias.
(5) Community, recreational, or conference rooms.
(c) Provider-initiated activities. Provider-initiated activities are activities conducted by a provider at the request of the patient, or as a matter of a course of treatment, and occur when meeting with the patient as part of the professional relationship between the provider and patient. Provider-initiated activities do not include activities conducted at the request of the MA organization or pursuant to the network participation agreement between the MA organization and the provider. Provider-initiated activities that meet the definition in this paragraph (c) fall outside of the definition of marketing in § 422.2260. Permissible provider-initiated activities include:
(1) Distributing unaltered, printed materials created by CMS, such as reports from Medicare Plan Finder, the “Medicare & You” handbook, or “Medicare Options Compare” (from https://www.medicare.gov), including in areas where care is delivered.
(2) Providing the names of MA organizations with which they contract or participate or both.
(3) Answering questions or discussing the merits of a MA plan or plans, including cost sharing and benefit information, including in areas where care is delivered.
(4) Referring patients to other sources of information, such as State Health Insurance Assistance Program (SHIP) representatives, plan marketing representatives, State Medicaid Office, local Social Security Offices, CMS' website at https://www.medicare.gov, or 1-800-MEDICARE.
(5) Referring patients to MA plan marketing materials available in common areas;
(6) Providing information and assistance in applying for the LIS.
(7) Announcing new or continuing affiliations with MA organizations, once a contractual agreement is signed. Announcements may be made through any means of distribution.
(d) Plan-initiated provider activities. Plan-initiated provider activities are those activities conducted by a provider at the request of an MA organization. During a plan-initiated provider activity, the provider is acting on behalf of the MA organization. For the purpose of plan-initiated activities, the MA organization is responsible for compliance with all applicable regulatory requirements.
(1) During plan-initiated provider activities, MA organizations must ensure that the provider does not:
(i) Accept or collect Scope of Appointment forms.
(ii) Accept Medicare enrollment applications.
(iii) Make phone calls or direct, urge, or attempt to persuade their patients to enroll in a specific plan based on financial or any other interests of the provider.
(iv) Mail marketing materials on behalf of the MA organization.
(v) Offer inducements to persuade patients to enroll in a particular MA plan or organization.
(vi) Conduct health screenings as a marketing activity.
(vii) Distribute marketing materials or enrollment forms in areas where care is being delivered.
(viii) Offer anything of value to induce enrollees to select the provider.
(ix) Accept compensation from the MA organization for any marketing or enrollment activities performed on behalf of the MA organization.
(2) During plan-initiated provider activities, the provider may do any of the following:
(i) Make available, distribute, and display communications materials, including in areas where care is being delivered.
(ii) Provide or make available marketing materials and enrollment forms in common areas.
(e) MA organization activities in the health care setting. MA organization activities in the health care setting are those activities, including marketing activities that are conducted by MA organization staff or on behalf of the MA organization, or by any downstream entity, but not by a provider. All marketing must comply with the requirements in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. However, during MA organization activities, the following is permitted:
(1) Accepting and collect Scope of Appointment forms.
(2) Accepting enrollment forms.
(3) Making available, distributing, and displaying communications materials, including in areas where care is being delivered.
(f) Activities of Institutional Special Needs Plans (I-SNPs) Serving Long-Term Care Facility Residents (1) Depending on the context of a given situation, I-SNP contracted with a long-term care facility can be viewed as both a provider and a plan.
(2) I-SNPs may use staff operating in a social worker capacity to provide information, including marketing materials (excluding enrollment forms), to residents of a long term care facility.
(3) Social workers of the I-SNP (whether employees, agents, or contracted providers) may not accept or collect a scope of appointment or enrollment form on behalf of the I-SNP.
(4) Unless the beneficiary or the beneficiary's authorized representative initiates additional contact with or by the plan, all other marketing and outreach activities in the beneficiary's room must follow the requirements for beneficiary contact under § 422.2264
(5) All other activities with healthcare providers or in the healthcare setting must comply with §§ 422.2266(a), (b), (c), (d), and (e).
[86 FR 6108, Jan. 19, 2021]
§ 422.2267 Required materials and content.
For information CMS deems to be vital to the beneficiary, including information related to enrollment, benefits, health, and rights, the agency may develop materials or content that are either standardized or provided in a model form. Such materials and content are collectively referred to as required.
(a) Standards for required materials and content. All required materials and content, regardless of categorization as standardized in paragraph (b) of this section or model in paragraph (c) of this section, must meet the following:
(1) Be in a 12pt font, Times New Roman or equivalent.
(2) For markets with a significant non-English speaking population, be in the language of these individuals. Specifically, MA organizations must translate required materials into any non-English language that is the primary language of at least 5 percent of the individuals in a plan benefit package (PBP) service area.
(3) Be provided to enrollees on a standing basis in any non-English language identified in paragraphs (a)(2) and (4) of this section or accessible format upon receiving a request for the materials in a non-English language or accessible format or when otherwise learning of the enrollee's primary language or need for an accessible format. This requirement also applies to the individualized plans of care described in § 422.101(f)(1)(ii) for special needs plan enrollees.
(4) For any fully integrated dual eligible special needs plan or highly integrated dual eligible special needs plan, as defined at § 422.2, or applicable integrated plan, as defined at § 422.561, be translated into the language(s) required by the Medicaid translation standard as specified through their capitated Medicaid managed care contract in addition to the language(s) required by the Medicare translation standard in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
(5) Be provided to the beneficiary within CMS's specified timeframes.
(b) Standardized materials. Standardized materials and content are required materials and content that must be used in the form and manner provided by CMS.
(1) When CMS issues standardized material or content, an MA organization must use the document without alteration except for the following:
(i) Populating variable fields.
(ii) Correcting grammatical errors.
(iii) Adding customer service phone numbers.
(iv) Adding plan name, logo, or both.
(v) Deleting content that does not pertain to the plan type (for example, removing Part D language for a MA-only plan).
(vi) Adding the SMID.
(vii) A Notice of Privacy Practices as required under the HIPAA Privacy Rule (45 CFR 164.520).
(2) The MA organization may develop accompanying language for standardized material or content, provided that language does not conflict with the standardized material or content. For example, CMS may issue standardized content associated with an appeal notification and MA organizations may draft a letter that includes the standardized content in the body of the letter; the remaining language in the letter is at the plan's discretion, provided it does not conflict with the standardized content or other regulatory standards.
(c) Model materials. Model materials and content are those required materials and content created by CMS as an example of how to convey beneficiary information. When drafting required materials or content based on CMS models, MA organizations:
(1) Must accurately convey the vital information in the required material or content to the beneficiary, although the MA organization is not required to use CMS model materials or content verbatim; and
(2) Must follow CMS's specified order of content, when specified.
(d) Delivery of required materials. MA organizations must mail required materials in hard copy or provide them electronically, following the requirements in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section.
(1) For hard copy mailed materials, each enrollee must receive his or her own copy, except in cases of non-beneficiary-specific material(s) where the MA organization has determined multiple enrollees are living in the same household and it has reason to believe the enrollees are related. In that case, the MA organization may mail one copy to the household. The MA organization must provide all enrollees an opt-out process so the enrollees can each receive his or her own copy, instead of a copy to the household. Materials specific to an individual beneficiary must always be mailed to that individual.
(2) Materials may be delivered electronically following the requirements in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section.
(i) Without prior authorization from the enrollee, MA organizations may mail new and current enrollees a notice informing enrollees how to electronically access the following required materials: the Evidence of Coverage, Provider and Pharmacy Directories, and Formulary. The following requirements apply:
(A) The MA organization may mail one notice for all materials or multiple notices.
(B) Notices for prospective year materials may not be mailed prior to September 1 of each year, but must be sent in time for an enrollee to access the specified materials by October 15 of each year.
(C) The MA organization may send the notice throughout the year to new enrollees.
(D) The notice must include the website address to access the materials, the date the materials will be available if not currently available, and a phone number to request that hard-copy materials be mailed.
(E) The notice must provide the enrollee with the option to request hardcopy materials. Requests may be material specific, and must have the option of a one-time request or a permanent request that must stay in place until the enrollee chooses to receive electronic materials again.
(F) Hard copies of requested materials must be sent within three business days of the request.
(ii) With prior authorization from the enrollee, MA organizations may provide any required material or content electronically. To do so, MA organizations must:
(A) Obtain prior consent from the enrollee. The consent must specify both the media type and the specific materials being provided in that media type.
(B) Provide instructions on how and when enrollees can access the materials.
(C) Have a process through which an enrollee can request hard copies be mailed, providing the beneficiary with the option of a one-time request or a permanent request (which must stay in place until the enrollee chooses to receive electronic materials again), and with the option of requesting hard copies for all or a subset of materials. Hard copies must be mailed within three business days of the request.
(D) Have a process for automatic mailing of hard copies when electronic versions or the chosen media type is undeliverable.
(e) CMS required materials and content. The following are required materials that must be provided to current and prospective enrollees, as applicable, in the form and manner outlined in this section. Unless otherwise noted or instructed by CMS and subject to § 422.2263(a) of this chapter, required materials may be sent once a fully executed contract is in place, but no later than the due dates listed for each material in this section.
(1) Evidence of Coverage (EOC). The EOC is a standardized communications material through which certain required information (under § 422.111(b)) must be provided annually and must be provided:
(i) To current enrollees of the plan by October 15, prior to the year to which the EOC applies.
(ii) To new enrollees within 10 calendars days from receipt of CMS confirmation of enrollment or by last day of month prior to effective date, whichever is later.
(2) Part C explanation of benefits (EOB). The EOB is a model communications material through which plans must provide the information required under § 422.111(k). MA organizations may send this monthly or per claim with a quarterly summary.
(3) Annual notice of change (ANOC). The ANOC is a standardized marketing material through which plans must provide the information required under § 422.111(d)(2) annually.
(i) Must send for enrollee receipt no later than September 30 of each year.
(ii) Enrollees with an October 1, November 1, or December 1 effective date must receive within 10 calendar days from receipt of CMS confirmation of enrollment or by last day of month prior to effective date, whichever is later.
(4) Pre-Enrollment checklist (PECL). The PECL is a standardized communications material that plans must provide to prospective enrollees with the enrollment form, so that the enrollees understand important plan benefits and rules. For telephonic enrollments, the contents of the PECL must be reviewed with the prospective enrollee prior to the completion of the enrollment. It references information on the following:
(i) The EOC.
(ii) Provider directory.
(iii) Pharmacy directory.
(iv) Formulary.
(v) Premiums/copayments/coinsurance.
(vi) Emergency/urgent coverage.
(vii) Plan-type rules.
(viii) Effect on current coverage.
(5) Summary of Benefits (SB). MA organizations must disseminate a summary of highly utilized coverage that include benefits and cost sharing to prospective enrollees, known as the SB. The SB is a model marketing material. It must be in a clear and accurate form.
(i) The SB must be provided with an enrollment form as follows:
(A) In hard copy with a paper enrollment form.
(B) For online enrollment, the SB must be made available electronically (for example, via a link) prior to the completion and submission of enrollment request.
(C) For telephonic enrollment, the beneficiary must be verbally told where the SB can be accessed.
(ii) The SB must include the following information:
(A) Information on the following medical benefits, starting in the top half of the first page and in the order as identified in paragraphs (A)(1) through (A)(10), including—
(1) Monthly Plan Premium.
(2) Deductible/Out-of-pocket limits.
(3) Inpatient/Outpatient Hospital coverage.
(4) Ambulatory Surgical Center (ASC).
(5) Doctor Visits (Primary Care Providers and Specialists).
(6) Preventive Care.
(7) Emergency Care/Urgently Needed Services.
(8) Diagnostic Services/Labs/Imaging.
(9) Hearing Services/Dental Services/Vision Services.
(10) Mental Health Services.
(B) Information on prescription drug expenses, including:
(1) Deductible; the initial coverage phase; coverage gap for a year preceding 2025; and catastrophic coverage.
(2) A statement that costs may differ based on pharmacy type or status (for example, preferred/non-preferred, mail order, long-term care (LTC) or home infusion, and 30-or 90-day supply), when applicable.
(C) For Medicare Medical Savings Account Plans (MSAs), the SB must include the following:
(1) The amount Medicare deposits into the beneficiaries MSA account.
(2) A statement that the beneficiary pays nothing once the deductible is met.
(D) For dual eligible special needs plan (D-SNP)s, the SB must identify or describe the Medicaid benefits to prospective enrollees. This may be done by either of the following:
(1) Including the Medicaid benefits in the SB.
(2) Providing a separate document identifying the Medicaid benefits that accompanies the SB.
(E) For D-SNPs open to dually eligible enrollees with differing levels of cost, the SB must:
(1) State how cost sharing and benefits differ depending on the level of Medicaid eligibility.
(2) Describe the Medicaid benefits, if any, provided by the plan.
(F) Fully integrated dual eligible SNPs (FIDE SNPs) and highly integrated D-SNPs, as defined in § 422.2, that provide Medicaid benefits have the option to display integrated Medicare and Medicaid benefits in the SB.
(G) MA organizations may describe or identify other health related benefits in the SB.
(6) Enrollment/Election form. This is a model communications material through which plans must provide the information required under § 422.60(c).
(7) Enrollment Notice. This is a model communications material through which plans must provide the information required under § 422.60(e)(3).
(8) Disenrollment Notice. This is a model communications material through which plans must provide the information required under § 422.74(b).
(9) Mid-Year Change Notification. This is a model communications material through which plans must provide a notice to enrollees when there is a mid-year change in benefits or plan rules, under the following timelines:
(i) Notices of changes in plan rules, unless otherwise addressed elsewhere in this part, must be provided 30 days in advance.
(ii) For National Coverage Determination (NCD) changes announced or finalized less than 30 days before their effective date, a notification is required as soon as possible.
(iii) Mid-year NCD or legislative changes must be provided no later than 30 days after the NCD is announced or the legislative change is effective.
(A) Plans may include the change in next plan mass mailing (for example, newsletter), provided it is within 30 days.
(B) The notice must also appear on the MA organization's website.
(10) Non-renewal Notice. This is a standardized communications material through which plans must provide the information required under § 422.506.
(i) The Non-renewal Notice must be provided at least 90 calendar days before the date on which the nonrenewal is effective. For contracts ending on December 31, the notice must be dated October 2 to ensure national consistency in the application of Medigap Guaranteed Issue (GI) rights to all enrollees, except for those enrollees in special needs plans (SNPs). Information about non-renewals or service area reductions may not be released to the public, including the Non-renewal Notice, until CMS provides notification to the plan.
(ii) The Non-renewal Notice must do all of the following:
(A) Inform the enrollee that the plan will no longer be offered and the date the plan will end.
(B) Provide information about any applicable open enrollment periods or special election periods or both (for example, Medicare open enrollment, non-renewal special election period), including the last day the enrollee has to make a Medicare health plan selection.
(C) Explain what the enrollee must do to continue receiving Medicare coverage and what will happen if the enrollee chooses to do nothing.
(D) As required under § 422.506(a)(2)(ii)(A), provide a CMS-approved written description of alternative MA plan, MA-PD plan, and PDP options available for obtaining qualified Medicare services within the beneficiary's' region in the enrollee's notice.
(E) Specify when coverage will start after a new Medicare plan is chosen.
(F) List 1-800-MEDICARE contact information together with other organizations that may be able to assist with comparing plans (for example, SHIPs).
(G) Explain Medigap to applicable enrollees and the special right to buy a Medigap policy, and include a Medigap fact sheet with the non-renewal notice that explains Medigap coverage, policy, options to compare Medigap policies, and options to buy a Medigap policy.
(H) Include the MA organization's call center telephone number, TTY number, and hours and days of operation.
(11) Provider Directory. This is a model communications material through which plans must provide the information under § 422.111(b)(3). The Provider Directory must:
(i) Be provided to current enrollees of the plan by October 15 of the year prior to the applicable year.
(ii) Be provided to new enrollees within 10 calendar days from receipt of CMS confirmation of enrollment or by last day of month prior to effective date, whichever is later.
(iii) Be provided to current enrollees upon request, within three business days of the request.
(iv) Be updated any time the MA organization becomes aware of changes.
(A) Updates to the online provider directories must be completed within 30 days of receiving information requiring update.
(B)(1) Updates to hardcopy provider directories must be completed within 30 days.
(2) Hard copy directories that include separate updates via addenda are considered up-to-date.
(12) Provider Termination Notice. This is a model communications material through which plans must provide the information required under § 422.111(e).
(i) The written Provider Termination Notice must be provided in hard copy via U.S. mail (first class postage is recommended, but not required).
(ii) The written Provider Termination Notice must do all of the following:
(A) Inform the enrollee that the provider will no longer be in the network and the date the provider will leave the network.
(B) Include names and phone numbers of in-network providers that the enrollee may access for continued care (this information may be supplemented with information for accessing a current provider directory, including both online and direct mail options).
(C) Explain how the enrollee may request a continuation of ongoing medical treatment or therapies with their current provider.
(D) Provide information about the annual coordinated election period and the MA open enrollment period, as well as explain that an enrollee who is impacted by the provider termination may contact 1-800-MEDICARE to request assistance in identifying and switching to other coverage, or to request consideration for a special election period, as specified in § 422.62(b)(26), based on the individual's unique circumstances and consistent with existing parameters for this SEP.
(E) Include the MA organization's call center telephone number, TTY number, and hours and days of operation.
(iii) The telephonic Provider Termination Notice specified in § 422.111(e)(1)(i) must relay the same information as the written Provider Termination Notice as described in paragraph (e)(12)(ii) of this section.
(13) Star Ratings Document. This is a standardized marketing material through which Star Ratings information is conveyed to prospective enrollees.
(i) The Star Ratings Document is generated through HPMS.
(ii) The Star Ratings Document must be provided with an enrollment form, as follows:
(A) In hard copy with a paper enrollment form.
(B) For online enrollment, made available electronically (for example, via a link) prior to the completion and submission of enrollment request.
(C) For telephonic enrollment, the beneficiary must be verbally told where they can access the Star Ratings Document.
(iii) New MA organizations that have no Star Ratings are not required to provide the Star Ratings Document until the following contract year.
(iv) Updated Star Ratings must be used within 21 calendar days of release of updated information on Medicare Plan Finder.
(v) Updated Star Ratings must not be used until CMS releases Star Ratings on Medicare Plan Finder.
(14) Organization Determination Notice. This is a model communications material through which plans must provide the information under § 422.568.
(15) Excluded Provider Notice. This is a model communications material through which plans must notify enrollees when a provider they visit or consult has been excluded from participating in the Medicare program based on an OIG exclusion or the CMS preclusion list.
(16) Notice of Denial of Medical Coverage or Payment (NDMCP) (also known as the Integrated Denial Notice (IDN)). This is a standardized communications material used to convey beneficiary appeal rights when a plan has denied a service as non-covered or excluded from benefits.
(17) Notice of Medicare Non-Coverage (NOMNC). This is a standardized communications material used to convey beneficiary appeal rights when a plan is terminating previously-approved coverage in a Skilled Nursing Facility (SNF), Comprehensive Outpatient Rehabilitation Facility (CORF), or Home Health setting (HHA).
(18) Detailed Explanation of Non-Coverage (DENC). This is a standardized communications material used to convey to a beneficiary why their current Medicare covered SNF, CORF or HHA services should end.
(19) Appointment of Representative (AOR). This is a standardized communications material used to authorize or appoint an individual to act on behalf of a beneficiary for the purpose of a specific appeal, grievance, or organization determination.
(20) An Important Message From Medicare About Your Rights (IM). This is a standardized communications material used to convey a beneficiary's rights as a hospital inpatient and appeal rights when their covered inpatient hospital stay is ending.
(21) Detailed Notice of Discharge Form (DND). This is a standardized communications material, as required under § 422.622(e), used to convey to a beneficiary why their current Medicare covered inpatient hospital stay should end.
(22) Medicare Outpatient Observation Notice (MOON). This is a standardized communications material used to inform a beneficiary that he or she is an outpatient receiving observation services.
(23) Appeal and Grievance Data Form. This is a standardized communications material used to convey organization-specific grievance and appeals data.
(24) Request for Administrative Law Judge (ALJ) Hearing. This is a standardized communications material used to formally request a reconsideration of the independent review entity's determination.
(25) Attorney Adjudicator Review in Lieu of ALJ Hearing. This is a standardized communications material used to request that an attorney adjudicator review a previously determined decision rather than having an ALJ do so.
(26) Notice of Right to an Expedited Grievance. This is a model communications material used to convey a Medicare enrollee's rights to request that a decision be made on a grievance or appeal within a shorter timeframe.
(27) Waiver of Liability Statement. This is a model communications material used by non-contracted providers to waive beneficiary liability for payment for denied services while utilizing the enrollee appeals process under subpart M of part 422.
(28) Notice of Appeal Status. This is a model communications material used to inform a beneficiary of the denial of an appeal and additional appeal rights.
(29) Notice of Dismissal of Appeal. This is a model communications material used to convey the rationale by an MA organization to dismiss beneficiary's appeal.
(30) Member ID card. The member ID card is a model communications material that plans must provide to enrollees as required under § 422.111(i). The member ID card—
(i) Must be provided to new enrollees within ten calendars days from receipt of CMS confirmation of enrollment or by the last day of the month prior to the plan effective date, whichever is later;
(ii) Must include the plan's—
(A) Website address;
(B) Customer service number (the member ID card is excluded from the hours of operations requirement under § 422.2262(c)(1)(i)); and
(C) Contract/PBP number;
(iii) Must include, if issued for a PPO and PFFS plan, the phrase “Medicare limiting charges apply.”;
(iv) May not use a member's Social Security number (SSN), in whole or in part;
(v) Must be updated whenever information on a member's existing card changes; in such cases an updated card must be provided to the member;
(vi) Is excluded from the translation requirement under paragraphs (a)(2) through (4) of this section;
(vii) Is excluded from the 12-point font size requirement under paragraph (a)(1) of this section; and
(viii) For dual eligible special needs plans that are applicable integrated plans, as defined in § 422.561, must be an integrated member ID card that serves as the ID card for both the Medicare and Medicaid plans in which the enrollee is enrolled, beginning no later than contract year 2027.
(31) [Reserved]
(32) Federal Contracting Statement. This is model content through which plans must convey that they have a contract with Medicare and that enrollment in the plan depends on contract renewal.
(i) The Federal Contracting Statement must include all of the following:
(A) Legal or marketing name of the organization.
(B) Type of plan (for example, HMO, HMO SNP, PPO, PFFS, PDP).
(C) A statement that the organization has a contract with Medicare (when applicable, MA organizations may incorporate a statement that the organization has a contract with the state/Medicaid program).
(D) A statement that enrollment depends on contract renewal.
(ii) MA organizations must include the Federal Contracting Statement on all marketing materials with the exception of the following:
(A) Banners and banner-like advertisements.
(B) Outdoor advertisements.
(C) Text messages.
(D) Social media.
(E) Envelopes.
(33) Star Ratings Disclaimer. This is model content through which plans must:
(i) Convey that MA organizations are evaluated yearly by Medicare.
(ii) Convey that the ratings are based on a 5-star rating system.
(iii) Include the model content in disclaimer form or within the material whenever Star Ratings are mentioned in marketing materials, with the exception of when Star Ratings are published on small objects (that is, a give-away items such as a pens or rulers).
(34) SSBCI disclaimer. This is model content and must be used by MA organizations that offer CMS-approved SSBCI as specified in § 422.102(f). In the SSBCI disclaimer, MA organizations must include the information required in paragraphs (i) through (iii) of this section. MA organizations must do all of the following:
(i) Convey the benefits mentioned are a part of special supplemental benefits.
(ii) List the chronic condition(s) the enrollee must have to be eligible for the SSBCI offered by the applicable MA plan(s), in accordance with the following requirements.
(A) The following applies when only one type of SSBCI is mentioned:
(1) If the number of condition(s) is five or fewer, then list all condition(s).
(2) If the number of conditions is more than five, then list the top five conditions, as determined by the MA organization, and convey that there are other eligible conditions not listed.
(B) The following applies when multiple types of SSBCI are mentioned:
(1) If the number of condition(s) is five or fewer, then list all condition(s), and if relevant, state that these conditions may not apply to all types of SSBCI mentioned.
(2) If the number of conditions is more than five, then list the top five conditions, as determined by the MA organization, for which one or more listed SSBCI is available, and convey that there are other eligible conditions not listed.
(iii) Convey that even if the enrollee has a listed chronic condition, the enrollee will not necessarily receive the benefit because coverage of the item or service depends on the enrollee being a “chronically ill enrollee” as defined in § 422.102(f)(1)(i)(A) and on the applicable MA plan's coverage criteria for a specific SSBCI required by § 422.102(f)(4).
(iv) Meet the following requirements for the SSBCI disclaimer in ads:
(A) For television, online, social media, radio, or other voice-based ads, either read the disclaimer at the same pace as, or display the disclaimer in the same font size as, the advertised phone number or other contact information.
(B) For outdoor advertising (as defined in § 422.2260), display the disclaimer in the same font size as the advertised phone number or other contact information.
(v) Include the SSBCI disclaimer in all marketing and communications materials that mention SSBCI.
(35) Accommodations Disclaimer. This is model content through which MA organizations must:
(i) Convey that accommodations for persons with special needs are available.
(ii) Provide a telephone number and TTY number.
(iii) Include the model content in disclaimer form or within the body of the material on any advertisement of invitation to all events described under § 422.2264(c).
(36) Mailing Statements. This is standardized content. It consists of statements on envelopes that MA organizations must include when mailing information to current members, as follows:
(i) MA organizations must include the following statement when mailing information about the enrollee's current plan: “Important [Insert Plan Name] information.”
(ii) MA organizations must include the following statement when mailing health and wellness information: “Health and wellness or prevention information.”
(iii) The MA organization must include the plan name; however, if the plan name is elsewhere on the envelope, the plan name does not need to be repeated in the disclaimer.
(iv) Delegated or sub-contracted entities and downstream entities that conduct mailings on behalf of a multiple MA organizations must also comply with this requirement; however, they do not have to include a plan name.
(37) Promotional Give-Away Disclaimer. This is model content. The disclaimer consists of a statement that must make clear that there is no obligation to enroll in a plan, and must be included when offering a promotional give-away such as a drawing, prizes, or a free gift.
(38) Provider Co-branded Material Disclaimer. This is model content through which MA organizations must:
(i) Convey, as applicable, that other pharmacies, physicians or providers are available in the plan's network.
(ii) Include the model content in disclaimer form or within the material whenever co-branding relationships with network provider are mentioned, unless the co-branding is with a provider network or health system that represents 90 percent or more of the network as a whole.
(39) Out of Network Non-Contracted Provider Disclaimer. This is standardized content. The disclaimer consists of the statement: “Out-of-network/non-contracted providers are under no obligation to treat Plan members, except in emergency situations. Please call our customer service number or see your Evidence of Coverage for more information, including the cost-sharing that applies to out-of-network services,” and must be included whenever materials reference out-of-network/non-contracted providers.
(40) NCQA SNP Approval Statement. This is model content and must be used by SNPs who have received NCQA approval. MA organizations must:
(i) Convey that MA organization has been approved by the National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA) to operate as a Special Needs Plan (SNP).
(ii) Include the last contract year of NCQA approval.
(iii) Convey that the approval is based on a review of [insert Plan Name's] Model of Care.
(iv) Not include numeric SNP approval scores.
(41) Third-party marketing organization disclaimer. This is standardized content. If a TPMO does not sell for all MA organizations in the service area the disclaimer consists of the statement: “We do not offer every plan available in your area. Currently we represent [insert number of organizations] organizations which offer [insert number of plans] products in your area. Please contact Medicare.gov or 1-800-MEDICARE to get information on all of your options.” If the TPMO sells for all MA organizations in the service area the disclaimer consists of the statement: “Currently we represent [insert number of organizations] organizations which offer [insert number of plans] products in your area. You can always contact Medicare.gov or 1-800-MEDICARE for help with plan choices.” The MA organization must ensure that the disclaimer is as follows:
(i) Used by any TPMO, as defined under § 422.2260, that sells plans on behalf of more than one MA organization.
(ii) Verbally conveyed during sales calls prior to the discussion of any benefits.
(iii) Electronically conveyed when communicating with a beneficiary through email, online chat, or other electronic means of communication.
(iv) Prominently displayed on TPMO websites.
(v) Included in any marketing materials, including print materials and television advertisements, developed, used or distributed by the TPMO.
[86 FR 6108, Jan. 19, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 27898, May 9, 2022; 88 FR 22336, Apr. 12, 2023; 88 FR 34780, May 31, 2023; 89 FR 30827, Apr. 23, 2024; 89 FR 63827, Aug. 6, 2024; 90 FR 15911, Apr. 15, 2025; 91 FR 17583, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 422.2272 Licensing of marketing representatives and confirmation of marketing resources.
In its marketing, the MA organization must:
(a) Demonstrate to CMS' satisfaction that marketing resources are allocated to marketing to the disabled Medicare population as well as beneficiaries age 65 and over.
(b) Establish and maintain a system for confirming that enrolled beneficiaries have, in fact, enrolled in the MA plan, and understand the rules applicable under the plan.
(c) Employ as marketing representatives only individuals who are licensed by the State to conduct marketing activities (as defined in the Medicare Marketing Guidelines) in that State, and whom the organization has informed that State it has appointed, consistent with the appointment process provided for under State law.
(d) Report to the State in which the MAO appoints an agent or broker, the termination of any such agent or broker, including the reasons for such termination if State law requires that the reasons for the termination be reported.
(e) Establish and implement an oversight plan that monitors agent and broker activities, identifies non-compliance with CMS requirements, and reports non-compliance to CMS.
[73 FR 54220, Sept. 18, 2008, as amended at 73 FR 54250, Sept. 18, 2008; 76 FR 21569, Apr. 15, 2011; 83 FR 16735, Apr. 16, 2018; 88 FR 22337, Apr. 12, 2023]
§ 422.2274 Agent, broker, and other third-party requirements.
If an MA organization uses agents and brokers to sell its Medicare plans, the requirements in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section are applicable. If an MA organization makes payments to third parties, the requirements in paragraph (f) of this section are applicable.
(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following definitions are applicable:
Compensation. (i) Includes monetary or non-monetary remuneration of any kind relating to the sale, renewal, or services related to a plan or product offered by an MA organization including, but not limited to the following:
(A) Commissions.
(B) Bonuses.
(C) Gifts.
(D) Prizes or awards.
(E) Beginning with contract year 2025, payment of fees to comply with state appointment laws, training, certification, and testing costs.
(F) Beginning with contract year 2025, reimbursement for mileage to, and from, appointments with beneficiaries.
(G) Beginning with contract year 2025, reimbursement for actual costs associated with beneficiary sales appointments such as venue rent, snacks, and materials.
(H) Beginning with contract year 2025, any other payments made to an agent or broker that are tied to enrollment, related to an enrollment in an MA plan or product, or for services conducted as a part of the relationship associated with the enrollment into an MA plan or product.
Fair market value (FMV) means, for purposes of evaluating agent or broker compensation under the requirements of this section only, the amount that CMS determines could reasonably be expected to be paid for an enrollment or continued enrollment into an MA plan. Beginning January 1, 2021, the national FMV is $539, the FMV for Connecticut, Pennsylvania, and the District of Columbia is $607, the FMV for California and New Jersey is $672, and the FMV for Puerto Rico and the U.S. Virgin Islands is $370. For contract year 2025, there will be a one-time increase of $100 to the FMV to account for administrative payments included under the compensation rate. For subsequent years, FMV is calculated by adding the current year FMV and the product of the current year FMV and MA growth percentage for aged and disabled beneficiaries, which is published for each year in the rate announcement issued under § 422.312.
Initial enrollment year means the first year that a beneficiary is enrolled in a plan versus subsequent years (c.f., renewal year) that a beneficiary remains enrolled in a plan.
Like plan type means one of the following:
(i) PDP replaced with another PDP.
(ii) MA or MA-PD replaced with another MA or MA-PD.
(iii) Cost plan replaced with another cost plan.
Plan year and enrollment year mean the year beginning January 1 and ending December 31.
Renewal year means all years following the initial enrollment year in the same plan or in different plan that is a like plan type.
Unlike plan type means one of the following:
(i) An MA or, MA-PD plan to a PDP or Section 1876 Cost Plan.
(ii) A PDP to a Section 1876 Cost Plan or an MA or MA-PD plan.
(iii) A Section 1876 Cost Plan to an MA or MA-PD plan or PDP.
(b) Agent/broker requirements. Agents and brokers who represent MA organizations must follow the requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section. Representation includes selling products (including Medicare Advantage plans, Medicare Advantage-Prescription Drug plans, Medicare Prescription Drug plans, and section 1876 Cost plans) as well as outreach to existing or potential beneficiaries and answering or potentially answering questions from existing or potential beneficiaries.
(1) Be licensed and appointed under State law (if required under applicable State law).
(2) Be trained and tested annually as required under paragraph (c)(4) of this section, and achieve an 85 percent or higher on all forms of testing.
(3) Secure and document a Scope of Appointment prior to a personal marketing appointment.
(c) MA organization oversight. MA organizations must oversee first tier, downstream, and related entities that represent the MA organization to ensure agents and brokers abide by all applicable State and Federal laws, regulations, and requirements. MA organizations must do all of the following:
(1) As required under applicable State law, employ as marketing representatives only individuals who are licensed by the State to conduct marketing (as defined in this subpart) of health insurance in that State, and whom the MA organization has informed that State it has appointed, consistent with the appointment process for agents and brokers provided for under State law.
(2) As required under applicable State law, report the termination of an agent or broker to the State and the reason for termination.
(3) Report to CMS all enrollments made by unlicensed agents or brokers and for-cause terminations of agents or brokers.
(4) On an annual basis, provide training and testing to agents and brokers on Medicare rules and regulations, the plan products that agents and brokers will sell, including any details specific to each plan product, and relevant State and Federal requirements.
(5) On an annual basis for plan years through 2024, by the last Friday in July, report to CMS whether the MA organization intends to use employed, captive, or independent agents or brokers in the upcoming plan year and the specific rates or range of rates the plan will pay independent agents and brokers. Following the reporting deadline, MA organizations may not change their decisions related to agent or broker type, or their compensation rates and ranges, until the next plan year.
(6) On an annual basis by October 1, have in place full compensation structures for the following plan year. The structure must include details on compensation dissemination, including specifying payment amounts for initial enrollment year and renewal year compensation.
(7) Submit agent or broker marketing materials to CMS through HPMS prior to use, following the requirements for marketing materials in this subpart.
(8) Ensure beneficiaries are not charged marketing consulting fees when considering enrollment in MA plans.
(9) Establish and maintain a system for confirming all of the following:
(i) Beneficiaries enrolled by agents or brokers understand the product, including the rules applicable under the plan.
(ii) Agents and brokers appropriately complete Scope of Appointment records for all personal marketing appointments (including telephonic and walk-in).
(10) Demonstrate that marketing resources are allocated to marketing to the disabled Medicare population as well as to Medicare beneficiaries age 65 and over.
(11) Must comply with State requests for information about the performance of a licensed agent or broker as part of a state investigation into the individual's conduct. CMS will establish and maintain a memorandum of understanding (MOU) to share compliance and oversight information with States that agree to the MOU.
(12) Ensure that, prior to an enrollment, CMS' required questions and topics regarding beneficiary needs in a health plan choice are fully discussed. Topics include information regarding primary care providers and specialists (that is, whether or not the beneficiary's current providers are in the plan's network), regarding pharmacies (that is, whether or not the beneficiary's current pharmacy is in the plan's network), prescription drug coverage and costs (including whether or not the beneficiary's current prescriptions are covered), costs of health care services, premiums, benefits, and specific health care needs.
(13) Beginning with contract year 2025, ensure that no provision of a contract with an agent, broker, or other TPMO has a direct or indirect effect of creating an incentive that would reasonably be expected to inhibit an agent or broker's ability to objectively assess and recommend which plan best fits the health care needs of a beneficiary.
(d) Compensation requirements. MA organizations must ensure they meet the requirements in paragraphs (d)(1) through (5) of this section in order to pay compensation. These compensation requirements only apply to independent agents and brokers.
(1) General rules. (i) MA organizations may only pay agents or brokers who meet the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section.
(ii) For contract years through contract year 2024, MA organizations may determine, through their contracts, the amount of compensation to be paid, provided it does not exceed limitations outlined in this section. Beginning with contract year 2025, MA organizations are limited to the compensation amounts outlined in this section.
(iii) MA organizations may determine their payment schedule (for example, monthly or quarterly). Payments (including payments for AEP enrollments) must be made during the year of the beneficiary's enrollment.
(iv) MA organizations may only pay compensation for the number of months a member is enrolled.
(2) Initial enrollment year compensation. For each enrollment in an initial enrollment year for contract years through contract year 2024, MA organizations may pay compensation at or below FMV.
(i) MA organizations may pay either a full or pro-rated initial enrollment year compensation for:
(A) A beneficiary's first year of enrollment in any plan; or
(B) A beneficiary's move from an employer group plan to a non-employer group plan (either within the same parent organization or between parent organizations).
(ii) MA organizations must pay pro-rated initial enrollment year compensation for:
(A) A beneficiary's plan change(s) during their initial enrollment year.
(B) A beneficiary's selection of an “unlike plan type” change. In that case, the new plan would only pay the months that the beneficiary is enrolled, and the previous plan would recoup the months that the beneficiary was not in the plan.
(3) Renewal compensation. For each enrollment in a renewal year for contract years through contract year 2024, MA plans may pay compensation at a rate of up to 50 percent of FMV. For contract years beginning with contract year 2025, for each enrollment in a renewal year, MA organizations may pay compensation at 50 percent of FMV.
(i) MA plans may pay compensation for a renewal year:
(A) In any year following the initial enrollment year the beneficiary remains in the same plan; or
(B) When a beneficiary enrolls in a new “like plan type”.
(ii) [Reserved]
(4) Other compensation scenarios. (i) When a beneficiary enrolls in an MA-PD, MA organizations may pay only the MA compensation (and not compensation for Part D enrollment under § 423.2274 of this chapter).
(ii) When a beneficiary enrolls in both a section 1876 Cost Plan and a stand-alone PDP, the 1876 Cost Plan sponsor may pay compensation for the cost plan enrollment and the Part D sponsor must pay compensation for the Part D enrollment.
(iii) When a beneficiary enrolls in a MA-only plan and a PDP plan, the MA plan sponsor may pay for the MA plan enrollment and the Part D plan may pay for the PDP plan enrollment.
(iv) When a beneficiary changes from two plans (for example, a MA plan and a stand-alone PDP) (dual enrollments) to one plan (MA-PD), the MA organization may only pay compensation at the renewal rate for the MA-PD product.
(5) Additional compensation, payment, and compensation recovery requirements (Charge-backs). (i) MA organizations must retroactively pay or recoup funds for retroactive beneficiary changes for the current and previous calendar years. MA organizations may choose to recoup or pay compensation for years prior to the previous calendar year, but they must do both (recoup amounts owed and pay amounts due) during the same year.
(ii) Compensation recovery is required when:
(A) A beneficiary makes any plan change (regardless of the parent organization) within the first three months of enrollment (known as rapid disenrollment), except as provided in paragraph (d)(5)(iii) of this section.
(B) Any other time period a beneficiary is not enrolled in a plan, but the plan paid compensation based on that time period.
(iii) Rapid disenrollment compensation recovery does not apply when:
(A) A beneficiary enrolls effective October 1, November 1, or December 1 and subsequently uses the Annual Election Period to change plans for an effective date of January 1.
(B) A beneficiary's enrollment change is not in the best interests of the Medicare program, including for the following reasons:
(1) Other creditable coverage (for example, an employer plan).
(2) Moving into or out of an institution.
(3) Gain or loss of employer/union sponsored coverage.
(4) Plan termination, non-renewal, or CMS imposed sanction.
(5) To coordinate with Part D enrollment periods or the State Pharmaceutical Assistance Program.
(6) Becoming LIS or dually eligible for Medicare and Medicaid.
(7) Qualifying for another plan based on special needs.
(8) Due to an auto, facilitated, or passive enrollment.
(9) Death.
(10) Moving out of the service area.
(11) Non-payment of premium.
(12) Loss of entitlement or retroactive notice of entitlement.
(13) Moving into a 5-star plan.
(14) Moving from an LPI plan into a plan with three or more stars.
(iv)(A) When rapid disenrollment compensation recovery applies, the entire compensation must be recovered.
(B) For other compensation recovery, plans must recover a pro-rated amount of compensation (whether paid for an initial enrollment year or renewal year) from an agent or broker equal to the number of months not enrolled.
(1) If a plan has paid full initial compensation, and the enrollee disenrolls prior to the end of the enrollment year, the total number of months not enrolled (including months prior to the effective date of enrollment) must be recovered from the agent or broker.
(2) Example: A beneficiary enrolls upon turning 65 effective April 1 and disenrolls September 30 of the same year. The plan paid full initial enrollment year compensation. Recovery is equal to 6/12ths of the initial enrollment year compensation (for January through March and October through December).
(e) Payments other than compensation (administrative payments). (1) For contract years through contract year 2024, payments made for services other than enrollment of beneficiaries (for example, training, customer service, agent recruitment, operational overhead, or assistance with completion of health risk assessments) must not exceed the value of those services in the marketplace.
(2) Beginning with contract year 2025, administrative payments are included in the calculation of enrollment-based compensation.
(f) Payments for referrals. Payments may be made to individuals for the referral (including a recommendation, provision, or other means of referring beneficiaries) to an agent, broker or other entity for potential enrollment into a plan. The payment may not exceed $100 for a referral into an MA or MA-PD plan and $25 for a referral into a PDP plan.
(g) TPMO oversight. In addition to any applicable FDR requirements under § 422.504(i), when doing business with a TPMO, either directly or indirectly through a downstream entity, MA plans must implement the following as a part of their oversight of TPMOs:
(1) When a TPMO is not otherwise an FDR, the MA organization is responsible for ensuring that the TPMO adheres to any requirements that apply to the MA plan.
(2) Contracts, written arrangements, and agreements between the TPMO and an MA plan, or between the TPMO and an MA plan's FDR, must ensure the TPMO:
(i) Discloses to the MA organization any subcontracted relationships used for marketing, lead generation, and enrollment.
(ii) All marketing and sales calls, including the audio portion of calls conducted via web-based technology, must be recorded and retained in their entirety for a minimum period of 6 years. For the first 3 years of the retention period, records must be maintained in audio format. For years 4, 5, and 6, records may be maintained in either audio format or as complete and accurate transcript recordings.
(iii) Reports to plans monthly any staff disciplinary actions or violations of any requirements that apply to the MA plan associated with beneficiary interaction to the plan.
(iv) Uses the TPMO disclaimer as required under § 422.2267(e)(41).
(3) Ensure that the TPMO, when conducting lead generating activities, either directly or indirectly for an MA organization, must, when applicable:
(i) Disclose to the beneficiary that his or her information will be provided to a licensed agent for future contact. This disclosure must be provided as follows:
(A) Verbally when communicating with a beneficiary through telephone.
(B) In writing when communicating with a beneficiary through mail or other paper.
(C) Electronically when communicating with a beneficiary through email, online chat, or other electronic messaging platform.
(ii) Disclose to the beneficiary that he or she is being transferred to a licensed agent who can enroll him or her into a new plan.
(4) Beginning October 1, 2024, personal beneficiary data collected by a TPMO for marketing or enrolling them into an MA plan may only be shared with another TPMO when prior express written consent is given by the beneficiary. Prior express written consent from the beneficiary to share the data and be contacted for marketing or enrollment purposes must be obtained through a clear and conspicuous disclosure that lists each entity receiving the data and allows the beneficiary to consent or reject to the sharing of their data with each individual TPMO.
[86 FR 6112, Jan. 19, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 27899, May 9, 2022; 88 FR 22337, Apr. 12, 2023; 89 FR 30829, Apr. 23, 2024; 89 FR 63827, Aug. 6, 2024; 91 FR 17583, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 422.2276 Employer group retiree marketing.
MA organizations may develop marketing materials designed for members of an employer group who are eligible for employer-sponsored benefits through the MA organization, and furnish these materials only to the group members. These materials are not subject to CMS prior review and approval.
W Subpart W [Reserved]
Subpart X Requirements for a Minimum Medical Loss Ratio
Source: 78 FR 31307, May 23, 2013, unless otherwise noted.
§ 422.2400 Basis and scope.
This subpart is based on sections 1857(e)(4), 1860D-12(b)(3)(D), and 1106 of the Act, and sets forth medical loss ratio requirements for Medicare Advantage organizations, financial penalties and sanctions against MA organizations when minimum medical loss ratios are not achieved by MA organizations, and release of medical loss ratio data to entities outside of CMS.
[81 FR 80557, Nov. 15, 2016]
§ 422.2401 Definitions.
Non-claims costs means those expenses for administrative services that are not—
(1) Incurred claims (as provided in § 422.2420(b)(2) through (4));
(2) Expenditures on quality improving activities (as provided in § 422.2430);
(3) Licensing and regulatory fees (as provided in § 422.2420(c)(2)(i));
(4) State and Federal taxes and assessments (as provided in § 422.2420(c)(2)(ii) and (iii)).
[78 FR 31307, May 23, 2013; 78 FR 43821, July 22, 2013]
§ 422.2410 General requirements.
(a) For contracts beginning in 2014 or later, an MA organization (defined at § 422.2) is required to report the information required under § 422.2460 for each contract under this part for each contract year.
(b) MLR requirement. If CMS determines for a contract year that an MA organization has an MLR for a contract that is less than 0.85, the MA organization has not met the MLR requirement and must remit to CMS an amount equal to the product of the following:
(1) The total revenue of the MA contract for the contract year.
(2) The difference between 0.85 and the MLR for the contract year.
(c) If CMS determines that an MA organization has an MLR for a contract that is less than 0.85 for 3 or more consecutive contract years, CMS does not permit the enrollment of new enrollees under the contract for coverage during the second succeeding contract year.
(d) If CMS determines that an MA organization has an MLR for a contract that is less than 0.85 for 5 consecutive contract years, CMS terminates the contract per § 422.510(b)(1) and (d) effective as of the second succeeding contract year.
[78 FR 31307, May 23, 2013, as amended at 83 FR 16736, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 422.2420 Calculation of the medical loss ratio.
(a) Determination of MLR. (1) The MLR for each contract under this part is the ratio of the numerator (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section) to the denominator (as defined in paragraph (c) of this section). An MLR may be increased by a credibility adjustment according to the rules at § 422.2440, or subject to an adjustment determined by CMS to be warranted based on exceptional circumstances for areas outside the 50 states and the District of Columbia.
(2) The MLR for an MA contract—
(i) Not offering Medicare prescription drug benefits must only reflect costs and revenues related to the benefits defined at § 422.100(c); and
(ii) That includes MA-PD plans (defined at § 422.2) must also reflect costs and revenues for benefits described at § 423.104(d) through (f) of this chapter.
(b) Determining the MLR numerator. (1) For a contract year, the numerator of the MLR for an MA contract (other than an MSA contract) must equal the sum of paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section, and the numerator of the MLR for an MSA contract must equal the sum of paragraphs (b)(1)(i), (iii), and (iv) of this section. The numerator must be determined in accordance with paragraphs (b)(5) and (6) of this section.
(i) Incurred claims for all enrollees, as defined in paragraphs (b)(2) through (4) of this section.
(ii) The amount of the reduction, if any, in the Part B premium for all MA plan enrollees under the contract for the contract year.
(iii) The expenditures under the contract for activities that improve health care quality, as defined in § 422.2430.
(iv) The amount of the annual deposit into the medical savings account described at § 422.4(a)(2).
(2) Incurred claims for clinical services and prescription drug costs. Incurred claims must include the following:
(i) Amounts that the MA organization pays (including under capitation contracts) for covered services, described at paragraph (a)(2) of this section, provided to all enrollees under the contract.
(ii) For an MA contract that includes MA-PD plans (described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section), drug costs provided to all enrollees under the contract, as defined at § 423.2420(b)(2)(i) of this chapter.
(iii) Unpaid claims reserves for the current contract year, including claims reported in the process of adjustment.
(iv) Percentage withholds from payments made to contracted providers.
(v) Incurred but not reported claims based on past experience, and modified to reflect current conditions such as changes in exposure, claim frequency or severity.
(vi) Changes in other claims-related reserves.
(vii) Claims that are recoverable for anticipated coordination of benefits.
(viii) Claims payments recoveries received as a result of subrogation.
(ix) [Reserved]
(x) Reserves for contingent benefits and the medical claim portion of lawsuits.
(xi) The amount of incentive and bonus payments made to providers.
(3) Adjustments that must be deducted from incurred claims include the following:
(i) Overpayment recoveries received from providers.
(4) Exclusions from incurred claims. The following amounts must not be included in incurred claims:
(i) Non-claims costs, as defined in § 422.2401, which include the following:
(A) Amounts paid to third party vendors for secondary network savings.
(B) Amounts paid to third party vendors for any of the following:
(1) Network development.
(2) Administrative fees.
(3) Claims processing.
(4) Utilization management.
(C) Amounts paid, including amounts paid to a provider, for professional or administrative services that do not represent compensation or reimbursement for covered services provided to an enrollee, such as the following:
(1) Medical record copying costs.
(2) Attorneys' fees.
(3) Subrogation vendor fees.
(4) Bona fide service fees.
(5) Compensation to any of the following:
(i) Paraprofessionals.
(ii) Janitors.
(iii) Quality assurance analysts.
(iv) Administrative supervisors.
(v) Secretaries to medical personnel.
(vi) Medical record clerks.
(D) Unsettled balances from the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan.
(ii) Amounts paid to CMS as a remittance under § 422.2410(b).
(5) Incurred claims under this part for policies issued by one MA organization and later assumed by another entity must be reported by the assuming organizations for the entire MLR reporting year during which the policies were assumed and no incurred claims under this part for that contract year must be reported by the ceding MA organization.
(6) Reinsured incurred claims for a block of business that was subject to indemnity reinsurance and administrative agreements effective before March 23, 2010, for which the assuming entity is responsible for 100 percent of the ceding entity's financial risk and takes on all of the administration of the block, must be reported by the assuming issuer and must not be reported by the ceding issuer.
(c) Determining the MLR denominator. For a contract year, the denominator of the MLR for an MA contract must equal the total revenue under the contract. Total revenue under the contract is as described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, net of deductions described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, taking into account the exclusions described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, and n accordance with paragraphs (c)(4) and (c)(5) of this section.
(1) CMS' payments to the MA organization for all enrollees under a contract, reported on a direct basis, including the following:
(i) Payments under § 422.304(a)(1) through (3) and (c).
(ii) The amount applied to reduce the Part B premium, as provided under § 422.266(b)(3).
(iii) Payments under § 422.304(b)(1), as reconciled per § 423.329(c)(2)(ii) of this chapter.
(iv) All premiums paid by or on behalf of enrollees to the MA organization as a condition of receiving coverage under an MA plan, including CMS' payments for low income premium subsidies under § 422.304(b)(2).
(v) All unpaid premium amounts that an MA organization could have collected from enrollees in the MA plan(s) under the contract.
(vi) All changes in unearned premium reserves.
(vii) Payments under § 423.315(e) of this chapter.
(2) The following amounts must be deducted from total revenue in calculating the MLR:
(i) Licensing and regulatory fees. (A) Statutory assessments to defray the operating expenses of any State or Federal department, such as the “user fee” described in section 1857(e)(2) of the Act.
(B) Examination fees in lieu of premium taxes as specified by State law.
(ii) Federal taxes and assessments. All Federal taxes and assessments allocated to health insurance coverage.
(iii) State taxes and assessments. State taxes and assessments such as the following:
(A) Any industry-wide (or subset) assessments (other than surcharges on specific claims) paid to the State directly.
(B) Guaranty fund assessments.
(C) Assessments of State industrial boards or other boards for operating expenses or for benefits to sick employed persons in connection with disability benefit laws or similar taxes levied by States.
(D) State income, excise, and business taxes other than premium taxes.
(iv) Community benefit expenditures. Community benefit expenditures are payments made by a Federal income tax-exempt MA organization for community benefit expenditures as defined in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(A) of this section, limited to the amount defined in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(B) of this section, and allocated to a contract as required under paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
(A) Community benefit expenditures means expenditures for activities or programs that seek to achieve the objectives of improving access to health services, enhancing public health and relief of government burden.
(B) Such payment may be deducted up to the limit of either 3 percent of total revenue under this part or the highest premium tax rate in the State for which the Part D sponsor is licensed, multiplied by the Part D sponsor's earned premium for the contract.
(3) The following amounts must not be included in total revenue:
(i) The amount of unpaid premiums for which the MA organization can demonstrate to CMS that it made a reasonable effort to collect.
(ii) The following EHR payments and adjustments:
(A) EHR incentive payments for meaningful use of certified electronic health records by qualifying MAOs, MA EPs and MA-affiliated eligible hospitals that are administered under 42 CFR part 495 subpart C.
(B) EHR payment adjustments for a failure to meet meaningful use requirements that are administered under 42 CFR part 495 subpart C.
(iii) Coverage Gap Discount Program payments under § 423.2320 of this chapter.
(4) Total revenue (as defined at § 422.2420(c)) for policies issued by one MA organization and later assumed by another entity must be reported by the assuming entity for the entire MLR reporting year during which the policies were assumed and no revenue under this part for that contract year must be reported by the ceding MA organization.
(5) Total revenue (as defined at § 422.2420(c)) that is reinsured for a block of business that was subject to indemnity reinsurance and administrative agreements effective prior to March 23, 2010, for which the assuming entity is responsible for 100 percent of the ceding entity's financial risk and takes on all of the administration of the block, must be reported by the assuming issuer and must not be reported by the ceding issuer.
(d) Allocation of expense—(1) General requirements. (i) Each expense must be included under only one type of expense, unless a portion of the expense fits under the definition of or criteria for one type of expense and the remainder fits into a different type of expense, in which case the expense must be pro-rated between types of expenses.
(ii) Expenditures that benefit multiple contracts, or contracts other than those being reported, including but not limited to those that are for or benefit self-funded plans, must be reported on a pro rata share.
(2) Description of the methods used to allocate expenses. (i) Allocation to each category must be based on a generally accepted accounting method that is expected to yield the most accurate results. Specific identification of an expense with an activity that is represented by one of the categories in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section will generally be the most accurate method.
(ii) Shared expenses, including expenses under the terms of a management contract, must be apportioned pro rata to the contracts incurring the expense.
(iii)(A) Any basis adopted to apportion expenses must be that which is expected to yield the most accurate results and may result from special studies of employee activities, salary ratios, premium ratios or similar analyses.
(B) Expenses that relate solely to the operations of a reporting entity, such as personnel costs associated with the adjusting and paying of claims, must be borne solely by the reporting entity and are not to be apportioned to other entities within a group.
[78 FR 31307, May 23, 2013; 78 FR 43821, July 22, 2013; 83 FR 16736, Apr. 16, 2018; 85 FR 33908, June 2, 2020; 90 FR 15911, Apr. 15, 2025]
§ 422.2430 Activities that improve health care quality.
(a) Activity requirements. (1) Activities conducted by an MA organization to improve quality must either—
(i) Fall into one of the categories in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and meet all of the requirements in paragraph (a)(3) of this section; or
(ii) Be listed in paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
(2) Categories of quality improving activities. The activity must be designed to achieve one or more of the following:
(i) To improve health outcomes through the implementation of activities such as quality reporting, effective case management, care coordination, chronic disease management, and medication and care compliance initiatives, including through the use of the medical homes model as defined for purposes of section 3602 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, for treatment or services under the plan or coverage.
(ii) To prevent hospital readmissions through a comprehensive program for hospital discharge that includes patient-centered education and counseling, comprehensive discharge planning, and post-discharge reinforcement by an appropriate health care professional.
(iii) To improve patient safety and reduce medical errors through the appropriate use of best clinical practices, evidence-based medicine, and health information technology under the plan or coverage.
(iv) To promote health and wellness.
(v) To enhance the use of health care data to improve quality, transparency, and outcomes and support meaningful use of health information technology. Such activities, such as Health Information Technology (HIT) expenses, are required to accomplish the activities that improve health care quality and that are designed for use by health plans, health care providers, or enrollees for the electronic creation, maintenance, access, or exchange of health information, and are consistent with meaningful use requirements, and which may in whole or in part improve quality of care, or provide the technological infrastructure to enhance current quality improving activities or make new quality improvement initiatives possible.
(3) The activity must be designed for all of the following:
(i) To improve health quality.
(ii) To increase the likelihood of desired health outcomes in ways that are capable of being objectively measured and of producing verifiable results and achievements.
(iii) To be directed toward individual enrollees or incurred for the benefit of specified segments of enrollees or provide health improvements to the population beyond those enrolled in coverage as long as no additional costs are incurred due to the non-enrollees.
(iv) To be grounded in evidence-based medicine, widely accepted best clinical practice, or criteria issued by recognized professional medical associations, accreditation bodies, government agencies or other nationally recognized health care quality organizations.
(4)(i) For an MA contract that includes MA-PD plans (described in § 422.2420(a)(2)), Medication Therapy Management Programs meeting the requirements of § 423.153(d) of this chapter.
(ii) Fraud reduction activities, including fraud prevention, fraud detection, and fraud recovery.
(b) Exclusions. Expenditures and activities that must not be included in quality improving activities include, but are not limited to, the following:
(1) Those that are designed primarily to control or contain costs other than those that are related to fraud reduction.
(2) The pro rata share of expenses that are for lines of business or products other than those being reported, including but not limited to, those that are for or benefit self-funded plans.
(3) Those which otherwise meet the definitions for quality improving activities but which were paid for with grant money or other funding separate from premium revenue.
(4) Those activities that can be billed or allocated by a provider for care delivery and that are reimbursed as clinical services.
(5) Establishing or maintaining a claims adjudication system, including costs directly related to upgrades in health information technology that are designed primarily or solely to improve claims payment capabilities (and that are not related to fraud reduction activities under paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section) or to meet regulatory requirements for processing claims, including ICD-10 implementation costs in excess of 0.3 percent of total revenue under this part, and maintenance of ICD-10 code sets adopted in accordance with to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), 42 U.S.C. 1320d-2, as amended.
(6) That portion of the activities of health care professional hotlines that does not meet the definition of activities that improve health quality.
(7) All retrospective and concurrent utilization review.
(8) [Reserved]
(9) The cost of developing and executing provider contracts and fees associated with establishing or managing a provider network, including fees paid to a vendor for the same reason.
(10) Provider credentialing.
(11) Marketing expenses.
(12) Costs associated with calculating and administering individual enrollee or employee incentives.
(13) That portion of prospective utilization review that does not meet the definition of activities that improve health quality.
(14) Any function or activity not expressly permitted by CMS under this part.
[78 FR 31307, May 23, 2013, as amended at 83 FR 16736, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 422.2440 Credibility adjustment.
(a) An MA organization may add the credibility adjustment specified under paragraph (e) of this section to a contract's MLR if the contract's experience is partially credible, as defined in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
(b) An MA organization may not add a credibility adjustment to a contract's MLR if the contract's experience is fully credible, as defined in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
(c) For those contract years for which a contract has non-credible experience, as defined in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, sanctions under § 422.2410(b) through (d) will not apply.
(d)(1) A contract's experience is partially credible if it is based on the experience of at least 2,400 member months and fewer than or equal to 180,000 member months.
(2) A contract's experience is fully credible if it is based on the experience of more than 180,000 member months.
(3) A contract's experience is non-credible if it is based on the experience of fewer than 2,400 member months.
(e)(1) The credibility adjustment for a partially credible MA contract, other than an MSA contract, is equal to the base credibility factor determined under paragraph (f) of this section.
(2) The credibility adjustment for a partially credible MA MSA contract is the product of the base credibility factor, as determined under paragraph (f) of this section, multiplied by the deductible factor, as determined under paragraph (g) of this section.
(f) The base credibility factor for partially credible experience is determined based on the number of member months for all enrollees under the contract and the factors shown in Table 1 of this section. When the number of member months used to determine credibility exactly matches a member month category listed in Table 1 of this section, the value associated with that number of member months is the base credibility factor. The base credibility factor for a number of member months between the values shown in Table 1 of this section is determined by linear interpolation.
(g) The deductible factor is based on the enrollment-weighted average deductible for all MSA plans under the MA MSA contract, where the deductible for each plan under the contract is weighted by the plan's portion of the total number of member months for all plans under the contract. When the weighted average deductible exactly matches a deductible category listed in Table 2 of this section, the value associated with that deductible is the deductible factor. The deductible factor for a weighted average deductible between the values shown in Table 2 of section is determined by linear interpolation.
Table 1 to § 422.2440—Base Credibility Factors for MA Contracts
Member months | Base credibility factor (additional percentage points)
<2,400 | N/A (Non-credible).
2,400 | 8.4%.
6,000 | 5.3%.
12,000 | 3.7%.
24,000 | 2.6%.
60,000 | 1.7%.
120,000 | 1.2%.
180,000 | 1.0%.
>180,000 | 0.0% (Fully credible).
Table 2 to § 422.2440—Deductible Factors for MA MSA Contracts
Weighted average deductible | Deductible factor
<$2,500 | 1.000
$2,500 | 1.164
$5,000 | 1.402
≥$10,000 | 1.736
[85 FR 33908, June 2, 2020]
§ 422.2450 [Reserved]
§ 422.2460 Reporting requirements.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, for each contract year, each MA organization must submit to CMS, in a timeframe and manner specified by CMS, a report that includes the data needed by the MA organization to calculate and verify the medical loss ratio (MLR) and remittance amount, if any, for each contract under this part, including the amount of incurred claims for original Medicare covered benefits, supplemental benefits, and prescription drugs; total revenue; expenditures on quality improving activities; non-claims costs; taxes; licensing and regulatory fees; and any remittance owed to CMS under § 422.2410.
(b) For contract years 2018 through 2022, each MA organization must submit to CMS, in a timeframe and manner specified by CMS, the following information:
(1) Fully credible and partially credible contracts. For each contract under this part that has fully credible or partially credible experience, as determined in accordance with § 422.2440(d), the MA organization must report to CMS the MLR for the contract and the amount of any remittance owed to CMS under § 422.2410.
(2) Non-credible contracts. For each contract under this part that has non-credible experience, as determined in accordance with § 422.2440(d), the MA organization must report to CMS that the contract is non-credible.
(c) Total revenue included as part of the MLR calculation must be net of all projected reconciliations.
(d) Subject to paragraph (e) of this section, the MLR is reported once, and is not reopened as a result of any payment reconciliation processes.
(e) With respect to an MA organization that has already submitted to CMS the MLR report or MLR data required under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, respectively, for a contract for a contract year, paragraph (d) of this section does not prohibit resubmission of the MLR report or MLR data for the purpose of correcting the prior MLR report or data submission. Such resubmission must be authorized or directed by CMS, and upon receipt and acceptance by CMS, is regarded as the contract's MLR report or data submission for the contract year for purposes of this subpart.
[83 FR 16736, Apr. 16, 2018, as amended at 87 FR 27899, May 9, 2022]
§ 422.2470 Remittance to CMS if the applicable MLR requirement is not met.
(a) General requirement. For each contract year, an MA organization must provide a remittance to CMS if the contract's MLR does not meet the minimum MLR requirement required by § 422.2410(b) of this subpart.
(b) Amount of remittance. For each contract that does not meet the MLR requirement for a contract year, the MA organization must remit to CMS the amount by which the MLR requirement exceeds the contract's actual MLR multiplied by the total revenue of the contract, as provided in § 422.2420(c), for the contract year.
(c) Timing of remittance. CMS deducts the remittance from plan payments in a timely manner after the MLR is reported, on a schedule determined by CMS.
(d) Treatment of remittance. Payment to CMS must not be included in the numerator or denominator of any year's MLR.
§ 422.2480 MLR review and non-compliance.
To ensure the accuracy of MLR reporting, CMS conducts selected review of data submitted under § 422.2460 to determine that that the MLRs and remittance amounts under § 422.2410(b) and sanctions under § 422.2410(c) and (d), were accurately calculated, reported, and applied.
(a) The reviews include a validation of amounts included in both the numerator and denominator of the MLR calculation reported to CMS.
(b) MA organizations are required to maintain evidence of the amounts reported to CMS and to validate all data necessary to calculate MLRs.
(c)(1) Documents and records must be maintained for 10 years from the date such calculations were reported to CMS with respect to a given MLR reporting year.
(2) MA organizations must require any third party vendor supplying drug or medical cost contracting and claim adjudication services to the MA organization to provide all underlying data associated with MLR reporting to that MA organization in a timely manner, when requested by the MA organization, regardless of current contractual limitations, in order to validate the accuracy of MLR reporting.
(d) Data submitted under § 422.2460, calculations, or any other MLR submission required by this subpart found to be materially incorrect or fraudulent—
(1) Is noted by CMS;
(2) Appropriate remittance amounts are recouped by CMS; and
(3) Sanctions may be imposed by CMS as provided in § 422.752.
[78 FR 31307, May 23, 2013, as amended at 83 FR 16736, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 422.2490 Release of Part C MLR data.
(a) Terminology. Subject to the exclusions in paragraph (b) of this section, Part C MLR data consists of the information submitted under § 422.2460.
(b) Exclusions from Part C MLR data. For the purpose of this section, the following items are excluded from Part C MLR data:
(1) Narrative descriptions that MA organizations submit to support the information reported to CMS pursuant to the reporting requirements at § 422.2460, such as descriptions of expense allocation methods.
(2)(i) Information that is reported at the plan level, such as the number of member months associated with each plan under a contract, including information submitted for a contract consisting of only one plan.
(ii) Amounts that are reported as expenditures for a specific type of supplemental benefit, where the entire amount that is reported represents costs incurred by the only plan under the contract that offers that benefit.
(3) Any information that could be used to identify Medicare beneficiaries or other individuals.
(4) MLR review correspondence.
(5) Any information for a contract for those contract years for which the contract is determined to be non-credible, as defined in accordance with § 422.2440(d).
(c) Data release. CMS releases to the public Part C MLR data, for each contract for each contract year, no earlier than 18 months after the end of the applicable contract year.
[81 FR 80557, Nov. 15, 2016, as amended at 83 FR 16736, Apr. 16, 2018; 87 FR 27899, May 9, 2022]
Y Subpart Y [Reserved]
Subpart Z Part C Recovery Audit Contractor Appeals Process
Source: 79 FR 29961, May 23, 2014, unless otherwise noted.
§ 422.2600 Payment appeals.
If the Part C RAC did not apply its stated payment methodology correctly, an MA organization may appeal the findings of the applied methodology. The payment methodology itself is not subject to appeal.
§ 422.2605 Request for reconsideration.
(a) Time for filing a request. The request for reconsideration must be filed with the designated independent reviewer within 60 calendar days from the date of the demand letter received by the MA organization.
(b) Content of request. (1) The request for reconsideration must be in writing and specify the findings or issues with which the MA organization disagrees.
(2) The MA organization must include with its request all supporting documentary evidence it wishes the independent reviewer to consider.
(i) This material must be submitted in the format requested by CMS.
(ii) Documentation, evidence, or substantiation submitted after the filing of the reconsideration request will not be considered.
(c) CMS rebuttal. CMS may file a rebuttal to the MA organization's reconsideration request.
(1) The rebuttal must be submitted within 30 calendar days of the review entity's notification to CMS that it has received the MA organization's reconsideration request.
(2) CMS sends its rebuttal to the MA organization at the same time it is submitted to the independent reviewer.
(d) Review entity. An independent reviewer conducts the reconsideration. The independent reviewer reviews the demand for repayment, the evidence and findings upon which it was based and any supporting documentation that the MA organization or CMS submitted in accordance with this section.
(e) Notification of decision. The independent reviewer informs the CMS and the MA organization of its decision in writing.
(f) Effect of decision. A reconsideration decision is final and binding unless the MA organization requests a hearing official review in accordance with § 422.2610.
(g) Right to hearing official review. An MA organization that is dissatisfied with the independent reviewer's reconsideration decision is entitled to a hearing official review as provided in § 422.2610.
§ 422.2610 Hearing official review.
(a) Time for filing a request. A MA organization must file with CMS a request for a hearing official review within 30 calendar days from the date of the independent reviewer's issuance of a reconsideration determination.
(b) Content of the request. (1) The request must be in writing and must specify the findings or issues in the reconsideration decision with which the MA organization disagrees and the reasons for the disagreements.
(2) The MA organization must submit with its request all supporting documentation, evidence, and substantiation that it wants to be considered.
(3) No new evidence may be submitted.
(4) Documentation, evidence, or substantiation submitted after the filing of the request will not be considered.
(c) CMS rebuttal. CMS may file a rebuttal to the MA organization's hearing official review request.
(1) The rebuttal must be submitted within 30 calendar days of the MA organization's submission of its hearing official review request.
(2) CMS sends its rebuttal to the MA organization at the same time it is submitted to the hearing official.
(d) Conducting a review. A CMS-designated hearing official conducts the hearing on the record.
(1) The hearing is not to be conducted live or via telephone unless the hearing official, in his or her sole discretion, requests a live or telephonic hearing.
(2) In all cases, the hearing official's review is limited to information that meets one or more of the following:
(i) The Part C RAC used in making its determinations.
(ii) The independent reviewer used in making its determinations.
(iii) The MA organization submits with its hearing request.
(iv) CMS submits in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
(3) Neither the MA organization nor CMS may submit new evidence.
(e) Hearing official decision. The CMS hearing official decides the case within 60 days and sends a written decision to the MA organization and CMS, explaining the basis for the decision.
(f) Effect of hearing official decision. The hearing official's decision is final and binding, unless the decision is reversed or modified by the CMS Administrator in accordance with § 422.2615.
§ 422.2615 Review by the Administrator.
(a) Request for review by Administrator. If an MA organization is dissatisfied with the hearing official's decision, it may request that the CMS Administrator review the decision.
(1) The request must be filed with the CMS Administrator within 30 calendar days of the date of the hearing official's decision.
(2) The request must provide evidence or reasons to substantiate the request.
(b) Content of request. The MA organization must submit with its request all supporting documentation, evidence, and substantiation that it wants to be considered.
(1) Documentation, evidence, or substantiation submitted after the filing of the request will not be considered.
(2) Neither the MA organization, nor CMS may submit new evidence.
(c) Discretionary review. After receiving a request for review, the CMS Administrator has the discretion to review the hearing official's decision in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section or to decline to review said decision.
(d) Notification of decision whether to review. The Administrator notifies the MA organization within 45 days of receiving the MA organization's hearing request of whether he or she intends to review the hearing official's decision.
(1) If the Administrator agrees to review the hearing official's decision, CMS may file a rebuttal statement within 30 days of the Administrator's notice to the plan that the request for review has been accepted. CMS sends its rebuttal statement to the plan at the same time it is submitted to the Administrator.
(2) If the CMS Administrator declines to review the hearing official's decision, the hearing official's decision is final and binding.
(e) CMS Administrator's review. If the CMS Administrator agrees to review the hearing official's decision, he or she determines, based upon this decision, the hearing record, and any arguments submitted by the MA organization or CMS in accordance with this section, whether the determination should be upheld, reversed, or modified. The Administrator furnishes a written decision, which is final and binding, to the MA organization and to CMS.
PART 423 VOLUNTARY MEDICARE PRESCRIPTION DRUG BENEFIT
Authority: 42 U.S.C. 1302, 1306, 1395w-101 through 1395w-152, and 1395hh.
Source: 70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, unless otherwise noted.
Subpart A General Provisions
§ 423.1 Basis and scope.
(a) Basis. (1) This part is based on the indicated provisions of the following sections of the Social Security Act:
1106. Disclosure of Information in Possession of Agency.
1128J(d). Reporting and Returning of Overpayments.
1860D-1. Eligibility, enrollment, and information.
1860D-2. Prescription drug benefits.
1860D-3. Access to a choice of qualified prescription drug coverage.
1860D-4. Beneficiary protections for qualified prescription drug coverage.
1860D-11. PDP regions; submission of bids; plan approval.
1860D-12. Requirements for and contracts with prescription drug plan (PDP) sponsors.
1860D-13. Premiums; late enrollment penalty.
1860D-14. Premium and cost-sharing subsidies for low-income individuals.
1860D-14A. Medicare coverage gap discount program.
1860D-14C. Manufacturer Discount Program.
1860D-15. Subsidies for Part D eligible individuals for qualified prescription drug coverage.
1860D-16. Medicare Prescription Drug Account in the Federal Supplementary Medical Insurance Trust Fund.
1860D-21. Application to Medicare Advantage program and related managed care programs.
1860D-22. Special rules for Employer-Sponsored Programs
1860D-23. State pharmaceutical assistance programs.
1860D-24. Coordination requirements for plans providing prescription drug coverage.
1860D-31. Medicare prescription drug discount card and transitional assistance program.
1860D-41. Definitions; treatment of references to provisions in Part C.
1860D-42. Miscellaneous provisions.
1860D-43. Condition for coverage of drugs under this part.
(2) The following specific sections of the Medicare Modernization Act also address the prescription drug benefit program:
Sec. 102 Medicare Advantage conforming amendments.
Sec. 103 Medicaid amendments.
Sec. 104 Medigap.
Sec. 109 Expanding the work of Medicare Quality Improvement Organizations to include Parts C and D.
(3) Section 1611 of Title 8 of the United States Code regarding individuals who are not lawfully present and ineligible for Federal public benefits.
(b) Scope. This part establishes standards for beneficiary eligibility, access, benefits, protections, and low-income subsidies in Part D, as well as establishes standards and sets forth requirements, limitations, procedures and payments for organizations participating in the Voluntary Medicare Prescription Drug Program.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 30683, May 28, 2008; 79 FR 29962, May 23, 2014; 80 FR 7962, Feb. 12, 2015; 91 FR 17583, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.4 Definitions.
The following definitions apply to this part, unless the context indicates otherwise:
Actuarial equivalence means a state of equivalent value demonstrated through the use of generally accepted actuarial principles and in accordance with section 1860D-11(c) of the Act and with CMS actuarial guidelines.
Authorized generic drug means a drug as defined in section 505(t)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 355(t)).
Biological product means a product licensed under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262).
Biosimilar biological product means a biological product licensed under section 351(k) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262(k)) that, in accordance with section 351(i)(2) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262(i)(2)), is highly similar to the reference product, notwithstanding minor differences in clinically inactive components, and has no clinically meaningful differences between the biological product and the reference product, in terms of the safety, purity, and potency of the product.
Brand name biological product means a product licensed under section 351(a) (42 U.S.C. 262(a)) or 351(k) (42 U.S.C. 262(k)) of the Public Health Service Act and marketed under a brand name.
Brand name drug means a drug for which an application is approved under section 505(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 USC 355(c)), including an application referred to in section 505(b)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act (21 USC 355(b)(2)).
Cost plan means a plan operated by a Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) or Competitive Medical Plan (CMP) in accordance with a cost-reimbursement contract under section 1876(h) of the Act.
Credible allegation of fraud means an allegation from any source, including but not limited to the following:
(1) Fraud hotline tips verified by further evidence.
(2) Claims data mining.
(3) Patterns identified through provider audits, civil false claims cases, and law enforcement investigations. Allegations are considered to be credible when they have indicia of reliability.
Downstream entity means any party that enters into a written arrangement, acceptable to CMS, with persons or entities involved with the Part D benefit, below the level of the arrangement between a Part D plan sponsor (or applicant) and a first tier entity. These written arrangements continue down to the level of the ultimate provider of both health and administrative services.
Eligible fallback entity or fallback entity is defined at § 423.855.
Fallback prescription drug plan is defined at § 423.855.
First tier entity means any party that enters into a written arrangement, acceptable to CMS, with a Part D plan sponsor or applicant to provide administrative services or health care services for a Medicare eligible individual under Part D.
Fiscally sound operation means an operation which at least maintains a positive net worth (total assets exceed total liabilities).
Formulary means the entire list of Part D drugs covered by a Part D plan.
Fraud hotline tip is a complaint or other communications that are submitted through a fraud reporting phone number or a website intended for the same purpose, such as the Federal Government's HHS OIG Hotline or a health plan's fraud hotline.
Full-benefit dual eligible individual has the meaning given the term at § 423.772, except where otherwise provided.
Generic drug means a drug for which an application under section 505(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 USC 355(j)) is approved.
Geographic area means the state in which a prescriber is practicing.
Group health plan is defined at § 423.882.
Immediate need individual means a beneficiary whose enrollment into LI NET is on the basis of presumed low income subsidy eligibility and immediate need of a Part D drug.
Inappropriate prescribing means that, after consideration of all the facts and circumstances of a particular situation identified through investigation or other information or actions taken by Medicare Advantage (MA) organizations and Part D plan sponsors, there is an established pattern of potential fraud, waste, and abuse related to prescribing of opioids, as reported by the plan sponsors. Beneficiaries with cancer and sickle-cell disease, as well as those patients receiving hospice and long term care (LTC) services are excluded, when determining inappropriate prescribing. Plan sponsors may consider any number of factors including, but not limited, to the following:
(1) Documentation of a patient's medical condition.
(2) Identified instances of patient harm or death.
(3) Medical records, including claims (if available).
(4) Concurrent prescribing of opioids with an opioid potentiator in a manner that increases risk of serious patient harm.
(5) Levels of morphine milligram equivalent (MME) dosages prescribed.
(6) Absent clinical indication or documentation in the care management plan or in a manner that may indicate diversion.
(7) State-level prescription drug monitoring program (PDMP) data.
(8) Geography, time, and distance between a prescriber and the patient.
(9) Refill frequency and factors associated with increased risk of opioid overdose.
Insurance risk means, for a participating pharmacy, risk of the type commonly assumed only by insurers licensed by a State and does not include payment variations designed to reflect performance-based measures of activities within the control of the pharmacy, such as formulary compliance and generic drug substitutions, nor does it include elements potentially in the control of the pharmacy (for example, labor costs or productivity).
Interchangeable biological product means a product licensed under section 351(k) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262(k)) that FDA has determined meets the standards described in section 351(k)(4) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262(k)(4)), which in accordance with section 351(i)(3) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262(i)(3)), may be substituted for the reference product without the intervention of the health care provider who prescribed the reference product.
Limited Income Newly Eligible Transition (LI NET) sponsor means a Part D sponsor selected by CMS to administer the LI NET program.
MA stands for Medicare Advantage, which refers to the program authorized under Part C of title XVIII of the Act.
MA plan has the meaning given the term in § 422.2 of this chapter.
MA-PD plan means an MA plan that provides qualified prescription drug coverage.
Medicare prescription drug account means the account created within the Federal Supplementary Medical Insurance Trust Fund for purposes of Medicare Part D.
Monthly beneficiary premium means the amount calculated under § 423.286 for Part D plans other than fallback prescription drug plans, and § 423.867(a) for fallback prescription drug plans.
MTM program means a medication therapy management program described at § 423.153(d).
Outlier prescriber of opioids means a prescriber who is a statistical outlier compared to their peers in a specialty and geographic area.
PACE Plan means a plan offered by a PACE organization.
PACE organization is defined in § 460.6 of this chapter.
Parent organization means the legal entity that exercises a controlling interest, through the ownership of shares, the power to appoint voting board members, or other means, in a Part D sponsor or MA organization, directly or through a subsidiary or subsidiaries, and which is not itself a subsidiary of any other legal entity.
Part D eligible individual means an individual who meets the requirements at § 423.30(a).
Part D plan (or Medicare Part D plan) means a prescription drug plan, an MA-PD plan, a PACE Plan offering qualified prescription drug coverage, or a cost plan offering qualified prescription drug coverage.
Part D plan sponsor or Part D sponsor refers to a PDP sponsor, MA organization offering a MA-PD plan, a PACE organization offering a PACE plan including qualified prescription drug coverage, and a cost plan offering qualified prescription drug coverage.
PDP region means a prescription drug plan region as determined by CMS under § 423.112.
PDP sponsor means a nongovernmental entity that is certified under this part as meeting the requirements and standards of this part that apply to entities that offer prescription drug plans. This includes fallback entities.
Persistent outlier prescriber of opioids means an outlier prescriber identified by CMS in three consecutive outlier prescriber notifications.
Pharmacist means any individual who holds a current valid license to practice pharmacy in a State or territory of the United States or the District of Columbia.
Prescription drug plan or PDP means prescription drug coverage that is offered under a policy, contract, or plan that has been approved as specified in § 423.272 and that is offered by a PDP sponsor that has a contract with CMS that meets the contract requirements under subpart K of this part. This includes fallback prescription drug plans.
Reference product means a product as defined in section 351(i)(4) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262(i)(4)).
Related entity means any entity that is related to the Part D sponsor by common ownership or control and
(1) Performs some of the Part D plan sponsor's management functions under contract or delegation;
(2) Furnishes services to Medicare enrollees under an oral or written agreement; or
(3) Leases real property or sells materials to the Part D plan sponsor at a cost of more than $2,500 during a contract period.
Service area (Service area does not include facilities in which individuals are incarcerated.) means for—
(1) A prescription drug plan, an area established in § 423.112(a) within which access standards under § 423.120(a) are met;
(2) An MA-PD plan, an area that meets the definition of MA service area as described in § 422.2 of this chapter, and within which access standards under § 423.120(a) are met;
(3) A fallback prescription drug plan, the service area described in § 423.859(b);
(4) A PACE plan offering qualified prescription drug coverage, the service area described in § 460.12(c) of this chapter; and
(5) A cost plan offering qualified prescription drug coverage, the service area defined in § 417.1 of this chapter.
Specialty means the National Plan Provider Enumeration System (NPPES) taxonomy of a prescriber.
Subsidy-eligible individual means a full subsidy eligible individual (as defined at § 423.772) or other subsidy eligible individual (as defined at § 423.772).
Substantiated or suspicious activities of fraud, waste, or abuse means and includes, but is not limited to, allegations that a provider of services (including a prescriber) or supplier;
(1) Engaged in a pattern of improper billing;
(2) Submitted improper claims with suspected knowledge of their falsity;
(3) Submitted improper claims with reckless disregard or deliberate ignorance of their truth or falsity; or
(4) Is the subject of a fraud hotline tip verified by further evidence.
Tiered cost-sharing means a process of grouping Part D drugs into different cost sharing levels within a Part D sponsor's formulary.
Unbranded biological product means a product licensed under a biologics license application (BLA) under section 351(a) or 351(k) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262(a) or 262(k)) and marketed without a brand name. It is licensed under the same BLA as the corresponding brand name biological product.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 72 FR 68731, Dec. 5, 2007; 76 FR 21570, Apr. 15, 2011; 84 FR 25671, June 3, 2019; 86 FR 6114, Jan. 19, 2021; 88 FR 22337, Apr. 12, 2023; 89 FR 30829, Apr. 23, 2024; 91 FR 17583, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.6 Cost-sharing in beneficiary education and enrollment-related costs.
The requirements of section 1857(e)(2) of the Act and § 422.6 of this chapter with regard to the payment of fees established by CMS for cost sharing of enrollment related costs apply to PDP sponsors under Part D.
Subpart B Eligibility and Enrollment
§ 423.30 Eligibility and enrollment.
(a) General rule. (1) An individual is eligible for Part D if he or she does all of the following:
(i) Is entitled to Medicare benefits under Part A or enrolled in Medicare Part B (but not including an individual enrolled solely for coverage of immunosuppressive drugs under § 407.1(a)(6)) of this subchapter.
(ii) Lives in the service area of a Part D plan, as defined under § 423.4.
(iii) Is a United States citizen or is lawfully present in the United States as determined in 8 CFR 1.3.
(2) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, an individual is eligible to enroll in a PDP if:
(i) The individual is eligible for Part D in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section;
(ii) The individual resides in the PDP's service area; and
(iii) The individual is not enrolled in another Part D plan.
(3) Retroactive Part A or Part B determinations. Individuals who become entitled to Medicare Part A or enrolled in Medicare Part B for a retroactive effective date are Part D eligible as of the month in which a notice of entitlement Part A or enrollment in Part B is provided.
(b) Coordination with MA plans. A Part D eligible individual enrolled in a MA-PD plan must obtain qualified prescription drug coverage through that plan. MA enrollees are not eligible to enroll in a PDP, except as follows:
(1) A Part D eligible individual is eligible to enroll in a PDP if the individual is enrolled in a MA private fee-for-service plan (as defined in section 1859(b)(2) of the Act) that does not provide qualified prescription drug coverage; and
(2) A Part D eligible individual is eligible to enroll in a PDP if the individual is enrolled in a MSA plan (as defined in section 1859(b)(3) of the Act).
(c) Enrollment in a PACE plan. A Part D eligible individual enrolled in a PACE plan that offers qualified prescription drug coverage under this Part must obtain such coverage through that plan.
(d) Enrollment in a cost-based HMO or CMP. A Part D eligible individual enrolled in a cost-based HMO or CMP (as defined under part 417 of this chapter) that elects to receive qualified prescription drug coverage under such plan is ineligible to enroll in another Part D plan. A Part D eligible individual enrolled in a cost-based HMO or CMP offering qualified prescription drug coverage is eligible to enroll in a PDP if the individual does not elect to receive qualified prescription drug coverage under the cost-based HMO or CMP and otherwise meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 80 FR 7962, Feb. 12, 2015; 87 FR 66510, Nov. 3, 2022]
§ 423.32 Enrollment process.
(a) General rule. A Part D eligible individual who wishes to enroll in a PDP may enroll during the enrollment periods specified in § 423.38, by filing the appropriate enrollment form with the PDP or through other mechanisms CMS determines are appropriate.
(b) Enrollment form or CMS-approved enrollment mechanism. The enrollment form or CMS-approved enrollment mechanism must comply with CMS instructions regarding content and format and must have been approved by CMS as described in § 423.2262.
(1) The enrollment must be completed by the individual and include an acknowledgement by the beneficiary for disclosure and exchange of necessary information between the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (or its designees) and the PDP sponsor. Individuals who assist beneficiaries in completing the enrollment, including authorized representatives, must indicate they have provided assistance and their relationship to the beneficiary.
(2) Part D eligible individuals enrolling or enrolled in a Part D plan must provide information regarding reimbursement for Part D costs through other insurance, group health plan or other third-party payment arrangement, and consent to the release of the information provided by the individual on other insurance, group health plan or other third-party payment arrangements, as well as any other information on reimbursement of Part D costs collected or obtained from other sources, in a form and manner approved by CMS.
(c) Timely process an individual's enrollment request. A PDP sponsor must timely process an individual's enrollment request in accordance with CMS enrollment guidelines and enroll Part D eligible individuals who are eligible to enroll in its plan under § 423.30(a) and who elect to enroll or are enrolled in the plan during the periods specified in § 423.38.
(d) Notice requirement. The PDP sponsor must provide the individual with prompt notice of acceptance or denial of the individual's enrollment request, in a format and manner specified by CMS.
(e) Maintenance of enrollment. An individual who is enrolled in a PDP remains enrolled in that PDP until one of the following occurs:
(i) The individual successfully enrolls in another PDP or MA-PD plan;
(ii) The individual voluntarily disenrolls from the PDP;
(iii) The individual is involuntary disenrolled from the PDP in accordance with § 423.44(b)(2);
(iv) The PDP is discontinued within the area in which the individual resides; or
(iv) The individual is enrolled after the initial enrollment, in accordance with § 423.34(c).
(f) Enrollees of cost-based HMOs or CMPs and PACE. Individuals enrolled in a cost-based HMO or CMP plan (as defined in part 417 of this chapter) or PACE (as defined in § 460.6 of this chapter) that offers prescription drug coverage under this part as of December 31, 2005, remain enrolled in that plan as of January 1, 2006, and receive Part D benefits offered by that plan until one of the conditions in § 423.32(e) are met.
(g) Passive enrollment by CMS. In situations involving either immediate terminations as provided in § 423.509(a)(5) or § 422.510(a)(5) of this chapter, or other situations in which CMS determines that remaining enrolled in a plan poses potential harm to plan members, CMS may implement passive enrollment procedures.
(1) Passive enrollment procedures. Individuals will be considered to have enrolled in the plan selected by CMS unless individuals—
(i) Decline the plan selected by CMS, in a form and manner determined by CMS; or
(ii) Request enrollment in another plan.
(2) Beneficiary notification. The organization that receives the enrollment must provide notification that describes the costs and benefits of the new plan and the process for accessing care under the plan and the beneficiary's ability to decline the enrollment or choose another plan. Such notification must be provided to all potential enrollees prior to the enrollment effective date (or as soon as possible after the effective date if prior notice is not practical), in a form and manner determined by CMS.
(3) Special election period. All individuals will be provided with a special enrollment period, as described in § 423.38(c)(8)(ii).
(h) Notification of reinstatement based on beneficiary cancellation of new enrollment. When an individual is disenrolled from a Part D plan due to the election of a new plan, the Part D plan sponsor must reinstate the individual's enrollment in that plan if the individual cancels the election in the new plan within timeframes established by CMS. The Part D plan sponsor offering the plan from which the individual was disenrolled must send the member notification of the reinstatement within 10 calendar days of receiving confirmation of the individual's reinstatement.
(i) Exception for employer group health plans. (1) In cases when a PDP sponsor has both a Medicare contract and a contract with an employer, and in which the PDP sponsor arranges for the employer to process election forms for Part D eligible group members who wish to enroll under the Medicare contract, the effective date of the election may be retroactive. Consistent with § 423.343(a), payment adjustments based on a retroactive effective date may be made for up to a 90-day period.
(2) In order to obtain the effective date described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section, the beneficiary must certify that, at the time of enrollment in the PDP, he or she received the disclosure statement specified in § 423.128.
(3) Upon receipt of the election from the employer, the PDP sponsor must submit the enrollment to CMS within timeframes specified by CMS.
(j) Authorized representatives. As used in this subpart, an authorized representative is an individual who is the legal representative or otherwise legally able to act on behalf of an enrollee, as the law of the State in which the beneficiary resides may allow, in order to execute an enrollment or disenrollment request.
(1) The authorized representative would constitute the “beneficiary” or the “enrollee” for the purpose of making an election.
(2) Authorized representatives may include court-appointed legal guardians, persons having durable power of attorney for health care decisions, or individuals authorized to make health care decisions under state surrogate consent laws, provided they have the authority to act for the beneficiary in this capacity.
(k) Enrollments requiring prior CMS approval—(1) CMS approval. Special Election Periods specified in paragraph (k)(2) of this section require CMS approval before an individual can use the SEP to make an enrollment election. CMS approval is provided for Part D enrollments either through the use of a CMS-operated election mechanism or through the individual's receipt of a notice which explains eligibility for the SEP and election instructions. Part D plans may not transmit enrollment elections to CMS using the specified SEPs without prior CMS approval.
(2) Special election periods. All of the following SEPs require CMS approval prior to use:
(i) SEP for individuals who were not adequately informed of a loss of creditable prescription drug coverage, § 423.38(c)(2).
(ii) SEP for contract violation, § 423.38(c)(8).
(iii) SEP for individuals who disenroll in connection with CMS sanction, § 423.38(c)(12).
(iv) SEP for other exceptional circumstances, § 423.38(c)(36).
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 1543, Jan. 12, 2009; 83 FR 16736, Apr. 16, 2018; 89 FR 30830, Apr. 23, 2024; 91 FR 17583, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.34 Enrollment of low-income subsidy eligible individuals.
(a) General rule. CMS must ensure the enrollment into Part D plans of low-income subsidy eligible individuals who fail to enroll in a Part D plan.
(b) Definitions—Full-benefit dual-eligible individual. For purposes of this section, a full-benefit dual eligible individual means an individual who is—
(1) Determined eligible by the State for—
(i) Medical assistance for full-benefits under Title XIX of the Act for the month under any eligibility category covered under the State plan or comprehensive benefits under a demonstration under section 1115 of the Act; or
(ii) Medical assistance under section 1902(a)(10(C) of the Act (medically needy) or section 1902(f) of the Act (States that use more restrictive eligibility criteria than are used by the SSI program) for any month if the individual was eligible for medical assistance in any part of the month.
(2) Eligible for Part D in accordance with § 423.30(a) of this subpart.
Low-income subsidy-eligible individual. For purposes of this section, a low-income subsidy eligible individual means an individual who meets the definition of full subsidy eligible (including full benefit dual eligible individuals as set forth in this section) or other subsidy eligible in § 423.772 of this part.
(c) Reassigning low income subsidy eligible individuals—(1) General rule. Notwithstanding § 423.32(e) of this subpart, during the annual coordinated election period, CMS may reassign certain low income subsidy eligible individuals in another PDP if CMS determines that the further enrollment is warranted, except as specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
(2) Part D prescription drug plans that waive a de minimis premium amount. If a Part D plan offering basic prescription drug coverage in the area where the beneficiary resides has a monthly beneficiary premium amount that exceeds the low-income subsidy amount by a de minimis amount, and the Part D plan volunteers to waive that de minimis amount in accordance with § 423.780, then CMS does not reassign low income subsidy individuals who would otherwise be enrolled under paragraph (d)(1) of this section on the basis that the monthly beneficiary premium exceeds the low-income subsidy by a de minimis amount. A Part D plan that volunteers to waive such a de minimis amount agrees to do so for each month during the contract year for which a beneficiary qualifies for 100 percent low-income premium subsidy as provided in § 423.780(f).
(d) Automatic enrollment rules—(1) General rule. Except for low income subsidy eligible individuals who are qualifying covered retirees with a group health plan sponsor, as specified in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, CMS enrolls those individuals who fail to enroll in a Part D plan into a PDP offering basic prescription drug coverage in the area where the beneficiary resides that has a monthly beneficiary premium amount that does not exceed the low income subsidy amount (as defined in § 423.780(b) of this part). In the event that there is more than one PDP in an area with a monthly beneficiary premium at or below the low income premium subsidy amount, individuals are enrolled in such PDPs on a random basis.
(2) Individuals enrolled in an MSA plan or one of the following that does not offer a Part D benefit. Low-income subsidy eligible individuals enrolled in an MA private fee-for-service plan or cost-based HMO or CMP that does not offer qualified prescription drug coverage or an MSA plan and who fail to enroll in a Part D plan must be enrolled into a PDP plan as described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
(3) Exception for individuals who are qualifying covered retirees. (i) Full benefit dual eligible individuals who are qualifying covered retirees as defined in § 423.882 of this part, and for whom CMS has approved the group health plan sponsor to receive the retirement drug subsidy described in subpart R of this part, also are automatically enrolled in a Part D plan, consistent with this paragraph, unless they elect to decline that enrollment.
(ii) Before effectuating such an enrollment, CMS provides notice to such individuals of their choices and advises them to discuss the potential impact of Medicare Part D coverage on their group health plan coverage. The notice informs individuals that they will be deemed to have declined to enroll in Part D unless they affirmatively enroll in a Part D plan or contact CMS and confirm that they wish to be auto-enrolled in a PDP. Individuals who elect not to be auto-enrolled, may enroll in Medicare Part D at a later time if they choose to do so.
(iii) All other low income subsidy eligible beneficiaries who are qualified covered retirees are not enrolled by CMS into PDPs.
(4) Enrollment in PDP plans that voluntarily waive a de minimis premium amount. CMS may include in the process specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section that PDPs that voluntarily waive a de minimis amount as specified in § 423.780, if CMS determines that such inclusion is warranted.
(e) Declining enrollment and disenrollment. Nothing in this section prevents a low income subsidy eligible individual from—
(1) Affirmatively declining enrollment in Part D; or
(2) Disenrolling from the Part D plan in which the individual is enrolled and electing to enroll in another Part D plan during the special enrollment period provided under § 423.38.
(f) Effective date of enrollment for full-benefit dual eligible individuals. Enrollment of full-benefit dual eligible individuals under this section must be effective as follows:
(1) January 1, 2006 for individuals who are full-benefit dual-eligible individuals as of December 31, 2005.
(2) The first day of the month the individual is eligible for Part D under § 423.30(a)(1) for individuals who are Medicaid eligible and subsequently become newly eligible for Part D under § 423.30(a)(1) on or after January 1, 2006.
(3) For individuals who are eligible for Part D under § 423.30(a)(1) of this subpart and subsequently become newly eligible for Medicaid on or after January 1, 2006, enrollment is effective with the first day of the month when the individuals become eligible for both Medicaid and Part D.
(g) Effective date of enrollment for non-full-benefit dual-eligible individuals who are low-income subsidy-eligible individuals. The effective date for non-full-benefit dual-eligible individuals who are low-income subsidy-eligible individuals is no later than the first day of the second month after CMS determines that they meet the criteria for enrollment under this section.
[75 FR 19815, Apr. 15, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 21570, Apr. 15, 2011]
§ 423.36 Disenrollment process.
(a) General rule. An individual may disenroll from a PDP during the periods specified in § 423.38 by enrolling in a different PDP plan, submitting a disenrollment request to the PDP in the form and manner prescribed by CMS, or filing the appropriate disenrollment request through other mechanisms as determined by CMS.
(b) Responsibilities of the PDP sponsor. The PDP sponsor must—
(1) Submit a disenrollment notice to CMS within timeframes CMS specifies;
(2) Provide the enrollee with a notice of disenrollment as CMS determines and approves; and
(3) File and retain disenrollment requests for the period specified in CMS instructions.
(4) In the case of an incomplete disenrollment request—
(i) Document its efforts to obtain information to complete the disenrollment request;
(ii) Notify the individual (in writing or verbally) within 10 calendar days of receipt of the disenrollment request; and
(iii) The organization must deny the request if any additional information needed to make the disenrollment request “complete” is not received within the following timeframes:
(A) For disenrollment requests received during the AEP by December 7, or within 21 calendar days of the request for additional information, whichever is later; and
(B) For disenrollment requests received during all other election periods, by the end of the month in which the disenrollment request was initially received, or within 21 calendar days of the request for additional information, whichever is later.
(c) Retroactive disenrollment. CMS may grant retroactive disenrollment in the following cases:
(1) There never was a legally valid enrollment; or
(2) A valid request for disenrollment was properly made but not processed or acted upon.
(d) Incomplete disenrollment. A disenrollment request is considered to be incomplete if the required but missing information is not received by the PDP sponsor within the timeframe specified in paragraph (b)(4)(iii) of this section.
(e) Exception for employer group health plans. (1) In cases when a PDP sponsor has both a Medicare contract and a contract with an employer, and in which the PDP sponsor arranges for the employer to process election forms for Part D eligible group members who wish to disenroll from the Medicare contract, the effective date of the election may be retroactive. Consistent with § 423.343(a), payment adjustments based on a retroactive effective date may be made for up to a 90-day period.
(2) Upon receipt of the election from the employer, the PDP sponsor must submit the disenrollment to CMS within timeframes specified by CMS.
(f) Effect of failure to submit disenrollment notice to CMS promptly. If the PDP sponsor fails to submit the correct and complete notice required in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the PDP sponsor must reimburse CMS for any capitation payments received after the month in which payment would have ceased if the requirement had been met timely.
(g) Disenrollments requiring prior CMS approval—(1) CMS approval. Special Election Periods specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this section require CMS approval before an individual can use the SEP to make a disenrollment election. CMS approval is provided for Part D disenrollments either through the use of a CMS-operated election mechanism or through the individual's receipt of a notice which explains eligibility for the SEP and election instructions. Part D plans may not transmit disenrollment elections to CMS using the specified SEPs without prior CMS approval.
(2) Special election periods. All of the following SEPs require CMS approval prior to use:
(i) SEP for individuals who were not adequately informed of a loss of creditable prescription drug coverage, § 423.38(c)(2).
(ii) SEP for contract violation, § 423.38(c)(8).
(iii) SEP for individuals who disenroll in connection with CMS sanction, § 423.38(c)(12).
(iv) SEP for other exceptional circumstances, § 423.38(c)(36).
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 89 FR 30830, Apr. 23, 2024; 91 FR 17584, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.38 Enrollment periods.
(a) Initial enrollment period for Part D—Basic rule. The initial enrollment period is the period during which an individual is first eligible to enroll in a Part D plan.
(1) In 2005. An individual who is first eligible to enroll in a Part D plan on or prior to January 31, 2006, has an initial enrollment period from November 15, 2005 through May 15, 2006.
(2) February 2006. An individual who is first eligible to enroll in a Part D plan in February 2006 has an initial enrollment period from November 15, 2005 through May 31, 2006.
(3) March 2006 and subsequent months. (i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) and (a)(3)(iii) of this section, the initial enrollment period for an individual who is first eligible to enroll in a Part D plan on or after March 2006 is the same as the initial enrollment period for Medicare Part B under § 407.14 of this chapter.
(ii) Exception. For those individuals who are not eligible to enroll in a Part D plan at any time during their initial enrollment period for Medicare Part B, their initial enrollment period under this Part is the 3 months before becoming eligible for Part D, the month of eligibility, and the three months following eligibility to Part D.
(iii) An individual who becomes entitled to Medicare Part A or enrolled in Part B for a retroactive effective date has an initial enrollment period under this Part beginning with the month in which notification of the Medicare determination is received and ending on the last day of the third month following the month in which the notification was received.
(b) Annual coordinated election period—(1) For 2006. This period begins on November 15, 2005 and ends on May 15, 2006.
(2) For 2007 through 2010. The annual coordinated election period for the following calendar year is November 15 through December 31.
(3) For 2011 and subsequent years. Beginning with 2011, the annual coordinated election period for the following calendar year is October 15 through December 7.
(c) Special enrollment periods. A Part D eligible individual may enroll in a PDP or disenroll from a PDP and enroll in another PDP or MA-PD plan (as provided at § 422.62(b) of this chapter), as applicable, under any of the following circumstances:
(1) The individual involuntarily loses creditable prescription drug coverage or such coverage is involuntarily reduced so that it is no longer creditable coverage as defined under § 423.56(a). Loss of credible prescription drug coverage due to failure to pay any required premium is not considered involuntary loss of the coverage.
(2) The individual was not adequately informed, as required by standards established by CMS under § 423.56, that he or she has lost his or her creditable prescription drug coverage, that he or she never had credible prescription drug coverage, or the coverage is involuntarily reduced so that it is no longer creditable prescription drug coverage. This SEP requires CMS approval prior to use. The individual must use a CMS-operated election mechanism, in a form and manner specified by CMS, to make an election using this SEP.
(3) The individual's enrollment or non-enrollment in a Part D plan is unintentional, inadvertent, or erroneous because of the error, misrepresentation, or inaction of a Federal employee, or any person authorized by the Federal government to act on its behalf.
(4)(i) Except as provided in paragraph (ii) of this section, the individual is a full-subsidy eligible individual or other subsidy-eligible individual as defined in § 423.772, who is making a one-time-per month election into a PDP.
(ii) An individual described in paragraph (i) is not eligible for this special enrollment period if he or she has been notified that he or she has been identified as a “potential at-risk beneficiary” or “at-risk beneficiary” as defined in § 423.100 and such identification has not been terminated in accordance with § 423.153(f)).
(5) The individual elects to disenroll from a MA-PD plan and elects coverage under Medicare Part A and Part B in accordance with § 422.62(c) of this chapter.
(6) The PDP sponsor's contract is terminated by the PDP sponsor or by CMS, as provided under § 423.507 through § 423.510, or the PDP plan is no longer offered in the area when the individual resides.
(7)(i) The individual is no longer eligible for the PDP because of a change in his or her place of residence to a location outside of the PDP region(s) in which the PDP is offered; or
(ii) The individual who, as a result of a change in permanent residence, has new Part D plan options available to them.
(8) This SEP requires CMS approval prior to use. The individual must use a CMS-operated election mechanism, in a form and manner specified by CMS, to make an election using this SEP. The individual must demonstrate to CMS, in accordance with guidelines issued by CMS, that the PDP sponsor offering the PDP substantially violated a material provision of its contract under this part in relation to the individual, including, but not limited to any of the following:
(i) Failure to provide the individual on a timely basis benefits available under the plan.
(ii) Failure to provide benefits in accordance with applicable quality standards.
(iii) The PDP (or its agent, representative, or plan provider) materially misrepresented the plan's provisions in communications as outlined in subpart V of this part.
(9) The individual is making an election within 3 months after a gain, loss, or change to Medicaid or LIS eligibility, or notification of such a change, whichever is later.
(10) The individual is making an election within 3 months after notification of a CMS or State-initiated enrollment action or that enrollment action's effective date, whichever is later.
(11) The individual is making an enrollment request into or out of an employer sponsored Part D plan, is disenrolling from a Part D plan to take employer sponsored coverage of any kind, or is disenrolling from employer sponsored coverage (including Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) coverage) to elect a Part D plan.
(i) This special election period (SEP) is available to individuals who have (or are enrolling in) an employer or union sponsored Part D plan and ends 2 months after the month the employer or union coverage of any type ends.
(ii) The individual may choose an effective date that is not earlier than the first of the month following the month in which the election is made and no later than up to 3 months after the month in which the election is made.
(12) The individual is enrolled in a Part D plan offered by a Part D plan sponsor that has been sanctioned by CMS and elects to disenroll from that plan in connection with the matter(s) that gave rise to that sanction. This SEP requires CMS approval prior to use. The individual must receive a notice, as described in paragraph (c)(12)(i) of this section, to make an election using this SEP.
(i) Consistent with the disclosure requirements at § 423.128(f), CMS may require the sponsor to notify current enrollees that if the enrollees believe they are affected by the matter(s) that gave rise to the sanction, the enrollees are eligible for a SEP to elect another PDP.
(ii) The SEP starts with the imposition of the sanction and ends when the sanction ends or when the individual makes an election, whichever occurs first.
(13) The individual is enrolled in a section 1876 cost contract that is non-renewing its contract for the area in which the enrollee resides.
(i) Individuals eligible for this SEP must meet Part D plan eligibility requirements.
(ii) This SEP begins December 8 of the then-current contract year and ends on the last day of February of the following year.
(14) The individual is disenrolling from a PDP to enroll in a Program of All-inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE) organization or is enrolling in a PDP after disenrolling from a PACE organization.
(i) An individual who disenrolls from PACE has a SEP for 2 months after the effective date of PACE disenrollment to elect a PDP.
(ii) An individual who disenrolls from a PDP has a SEP for 2 months after the effective date of PDP disenrollment to elect a PACE plan.
(15) The individual moves into, resides in, or moves out of an institution, as defined by CMS, and elects to enroll in, or disenroll from, a Part D plan.
(16) The individual who is not entitled to premium free Part A and enrolls in Part B during the General Enrollment Period for Part B that starts January 1, 2023, is eligible to request enrollment in a Part D plan. The special enrollment period begins when the individual submits their Part B application and continues for the first 2 months of Part B enrollment. The Part D plan enrollment is effective the first of the month following the month the Part D sponsor receives the enrollment request.
(17) The individual belongs to a qualified State Pharmaceutical Assistance Program (SPAP) and is requesting enrollment in a Part D plan.
(i) The individual is eligible to make one enrollment election per year.
(ii) This SEP is available while the individual is enrolled in the SPAP and, upon loss of eligibility for SPAP benefits, for an additional 2 calendar months after either the month of the loss of eligibility or notification of the loss, whichever is later.
(18) The individual is enrolled in a Part D plan and elects to disenroll from that Part D plan to enroll in or maintain other creditable prescription drug coverage.
(19)(i) The individual is enrolled in a section 1876 cost contract and an optional supplemental Part D benefit under that contract and elects a Part D plan upon disenrolling from the cost contract.
(ii) The SEP begins the month the individual requests disenrollment from the cost contract and ends when the individual makes an enrollment election or on the last day of the second month following the month the cost contract enrollment ended, whichever is earlier.
(20) The individual is requesting enrollment in a Part D plan offered by a Part D plan sponsor with a Star Rating of 5 Stars. An individual may use this SEP only once for the contract year in which the Part D plan was assigned a 5-star overall performance rating, beginning the December 8 before that contract year through November 30 of that contract year.
(21)(i) The individual is a non-U.S. citizen who becomes lawfully present in the United States.
(ii) This SEP begins the month the enrollee attains lawful presence status and ends the earlier of when the individual makes an enrollment election or 2 calendar months after the month the enrollee attains lawful presence status.
(22) The individual was adversely affected by having requested, but not received, required notices or information in an accessible format, as outlined in section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, within the same timeframe that the Part D plan sponsor or CMS provided the same information to individuals who did not request an accessible format.
(i) The SEP begins at the end of the election period during which the individual was seeking to make an election and the length is at least as long as the time it takes for the information to be provided to the individual in an accessible format.
(ii) Part D plan sponsors may determine eligibility for this SEP when the criterion is met, ensuring adequate documentation of the situation, including records indicating the date of the individual's request, the amount of time taken to provide accessible versions of materials and the amount of time it takes for the same information to be provided to an individual who does not request an accessible format.
(23) Individuals affected by an emergency or major disaster declared by a Federal, State or local government entity are eligible for an SEP to make a Part D enrollment or disenrollment election. The SEP starts as of the date the declaration is made, the incident start date or, if different, the start date identified in the declaration, whichever is earlier. The SEP ends 2 full calendar months following the end date identified in the declaration or, if different, the date the end of the incident is announced, the date the incident automatically ends under applicable state or local law, or, if the incident end date is not otherwise identified, the incident end date specified in paragraph (c)(23)(i) of this section.
(i) If the incident end date of an emergency or major disaster is not otherwise identified, the incident end date is 1 year after the SEP start date or, if applicable, the date of a renewal or extension of the emergency or disaster declaration, whichever is later. Therefore, the maximum length of this SEP, if the incident end date is not otherwise identified, is 14 full calendar months after the SEP start date or, if applicable, the date of a renewal or extension of the emergency or disaster declaration.
(ii)(A) Resides, or resided at the start of the SEP eligibility period described in this paragraph (c)(23), in an area for which a Federal, state or local government entity has declared an emergency or major disaster; or
(B) Does not reside in an affected area but relies on help making healthcare decisions from one or more individuals who reside in an affected area;
(iii) Was eligible for another election period at the time of SEP eligibility period described in this paragraph (c)(23); and
(iv) Did not make an election during that other election period due to the emergency or major disaster.
(24) The individual is using the SEP at § 422.62(b)(8) of this chapter to disenroll from a MA plan that includes Part D benefits.
(i) This SEP permits a one-time election to enroll in a Part D plan.
(ii) This SEP begins upon disenrollment from the MA plan and continues for 2 calendar months.
(25)(i) An individual using the MA Open Enrollment Period for Institutionalized Individuals (OEPI) to disenroll from a MA plan that includes Part D benefits plan is eligible for a SEP to request enrollment in a Part D plan.
(ii) The SEP begins with the month the individual requests disenrollment from the MA plan and ends on the last day of the second month following the month MA enrollment ended.
(26) An individual using the Medicare Advantage Open Enrollment Period (MA OEP) to elect original Medicare is eligible for a SEP to make a Part D enrollment election.
(27)(i) The individual is enrolled in a MA special needs plan (SNP) and is no longer eligible for the SNP because he or she no longer meets the specific special needs status.
(ii) The individual may request enrollment in a Part D plan that begins the month the individual's special needs status changes and ends the earlier of when he or she makes an election or 3 months after the effective date of involuntary disenrollment from the SNP.
(28) The individual is found, after enrollment into a Chronic Care SNP, not to have the required qualifying condition.
(i) This individual is eligible to enroll prospectively in a Part D plan.
(ii) This SEP begins when the MA organization notifies the individual of the lack of eligibility for the Chronic Care SNP and extends through the end of that month and the following 2 calendar months.
(iii) The SEP ends when the individual makes an enrollment election or on the last day of the second of the 2 calendar months following notification of the lack of eligibility, whichever occurs first.
(29) The individual uses the SEP at § 422.62(b)(15) of this chapter to enroll in a MA Private Fee-for-Service plan without Part D benefits, or enrolls in a section 1876 cost plan, is eligible to request enrollment in a PDP or the cost plan's optional supplemental Part D benefit, if offered.
(i) This SEP begins the month the individual uses the SEP at § 422.62(b)(15) of this chapter and continues for 2 additional months.
(ii) [Reserved]
(30) An individual who uses the SEP at § 422.62(b)(23) of this chapter to disenroll from a MA plan is eligible to request enrollment in a PDP.
(i) This SEP begins the month the individual is notified of eligibility for the SEP at § 422.62(b)(23) of this chapter and continues for an additional 2 calendar months.
(ii) This SEP permits one enrollment into a PDP.
(iii) This SEP ends when the individual has enrolled in the PDP.
(iv) An individual may use this SEP to request enrollment in a PDP subsequent to having submitted a disenrollment to the MA plan or may simply request enrollment in the PDP, resulting in automatic disenrollment from the MA plan.
(31) The individual is enrolled in a plan offered by a Part D plan sponsor that has been placed into receivership by a state or territorial regulatory authority. The SEP begins the month the receivership is effective and continues until it is no longer in effect or until the enrollee makes an election, whichever occurs first. When instructed by CMS, the MA plan that has been placed under receivership must notify its enrollees, in the form and manner directed by CMS, of the enrollees' eligibility for this SEP and how to use the SEP.
(32) The individual is enrolled in a plan that has been identified with the low performing icon in accordance with § 423.186(h)(1)(ii). This SEP exists while the individual is enrolled in the low performing Part D plan.
(33) The individual was involuntarily disenrolled from an MA-PD plan due to loss of Part B but continues to be entitled to Part A. This SEP begins when the individual is advised of the loss of Part B and continues for 2 additional months.
(34) The individual enrolls in Medicare premium-Part A or Part B using an exceptional condition SEP, as described in 42 CFR parts 406.27 and 407.23. The SEP begins when the individual submits their premium-Part A or Part B application and continues for the first 2 months of enrollment in premium Part A or Part B. The Part D plan enrollment is effective the first of the month following the month the Part D plan receives the enrollment request.
(35)(i) The individual is a full-benefit dual eligible individual (as defined in § 423.772) making a one-time-per month election into a fully integrated dual eligible special needs plan as defined in § 422.2 of this chapter, a highly integrated dual eligible special needs plan as defined in § 422.2 of this chapter, or an applicable integrated plan as defined in § 422.561 of this chapter.
(ii) The SEP is available only to facilitate aligned enrollment as defined in § 422.2 of this chapter.
(36) The individual meets other exceptional circumstances as CMS may provide. This SEP requires CMS approval prior to use. The individual must use a CMS-operated election mechanism, in a form and manner specified by CMS, to make an election using this SEP.
(d) Enrollment period to coordinate with MA annual 45-day disenrollment period. Through 2018, an individual enrolled in an MA plan who elects Original Medicare from January 1 through February 14, as described in § 422.62(a)(5) of this chapter, may also elect a PDP during this time.
(e) Enrollment period to coordinate with MA open enrollment period. For 2019 and subsequent years, an individual who makes an election as described in § 422.62(a)(3) of this chapter, may make an election to enroll in or disenroll from Part D coverage. An individual who elects Original Medicare during the MA open enrollment period may elect to enroll in a PDP during this time.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 19816, Apr. 15, 2010; 76 FR 21570, Apr. 15, 2011; 83 FR 16737, Apr. 16, 2018; 85 FR 33909, June 2, 2020; 88 FR 22337, Apr. 12, 2023; 89 FR 30830, Apr. 23, 2024; 91 FR 17584, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.40 Effective dates.
(a) Initial enrollment period. (1) An enrollment made prior to the month of entitlement to Part A or enrollment in Part B is effective the first day of the month the individual is entitled to or enrolled in Part A or enrolled in Part B.
(2) Except as otherwise provided under § 423.34(f), an enrollment made during or after the month of entitlement to Part A or enrollment in Part B is effective the first day of the calendar month following the month in which the enrollment in Part D is made.
(3) If the individual is not eligible to enroll in Part D on the first day of the calendar month following the month in which the election to enroll in Part D is made, the enrollment in Part D is effective the first day of the month the individual is eligible for Part D.
(4) In no case is an enrollment in Part D effective before January 1, 2006 or before entitlement to Part A or enrollment Part B.
(b) Annual coordinated election periods—(1) General rule. Except as provided under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, for an enrollment or change of enrollment in Part D made during an annual coordinated election period as described in § 423.38(b), the coverage or change in coverage is effective as of the first day of the following calendar year.
(2) Exception for January 1, 2006 through May 15, 2006. Enrollment elections made during the annual coordinated election period between January 1, 2006 and May 15, 2006 are effective the first day of the calendar month following the month in which the enrollment in Part D is made.
(c) Special enrollment periods. For an enrollment or change of enrollment in Part D made during a special enrollment period specified in § 423.38(c), the coverage or change in coverage is effective the first day of the calendar month following the month in which the election is made, unless otherwise noted.
(d) PDP enrollment period to coordinate with the MA annual disenrollment period. Through 2018, an enrollment made from January 1 through February 14 by an individual who has disenrolled from an MA plan as described in § 422.62(a)(5) of this chapter will be effective the first day of the month following the month in which the enrollment in the PDP is made.
(e) PDP enrollment period to coordinate with the MA open enrollment period. For 2019 and subsequent years, an enrollment made by an individual who elects Original Medicare during the MA open enrollment period as described in § 422.62(a)(3) of this chapter, will be effective the first day of the month following the month in which the election is made.
(f) Beneficiary choice of effective date. If a beneficiary is eligible for more than one election period, resulting in more than one possible effective date, the Part D plan sponsor must allow the beneficiary to choose the election period that results in the individual's desired effective date.
(1) To determine the beneficiary's choice of election period and effective date, the Part D plan sponsor must attempt to contact the beneficiary and must document its attempts.
(2) If the Part D plan sponsor is unable to obtain the beneficiary's desired enrollment effective date, the Part D plan sponsor must assign an election period using the following ranking of election periods:
(i) ICEP/Part D IEP.
(ii) MA-OEP.
(iii) SEP.
(iv) AEP.
(v) OEPI.
(3) If the Part D plan sponsor is unable to obtain the beneficiary's desired disenrollment effective date, the Part D plan sponsor must assign an election period that results in the earliest disenrollment.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 76 FR 21570, Apr. 15, 2011; 83 FR 16737, Apr. 16, 2018; 85 FR 33911, June 2, 2020; 89 FR 30831, Apr. 23, 2024]
§ 423.44 Involuntary disenrollment from Part D coverage.
(a) General rule. Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, a PDP sponsor may not—
(1) Involuntarily disenroll an individual from any PDP it offers; or
(2) Orally or in writing, or by any action or inaction, request or encourage an individual to disenroll.
(b) Basis for disenrollment—(1) Optional involuntary disenrollment. A PDP sponsor may disenroll an individual from a PDP it offers in any of the following circumstances:
(i) Any monthly premium is not paid on a timely basis, as specified under paragraph (d)(1) of this section; or
(ii) The individual has engaged in disruptive behavior, as specified under paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
(iii) The individual provides fraudulent information on his or her election form or permits abuse of his or her enrollment card as specified in paragraph (d)(9) of this section.
(2) Required involuntary disenrollment. A PDP sponsor must disenroll an individual from a PDP it offers in any of the following circumstances:
(i) The individual no longer resides in the PDP's service area.
(ii) The individual loses eligibility for Part D.
(iii) Death of the individual.
(iv) The PDP sponsor's contract is terminated by CMS or by a PDP or through mutual consent. The PDP sponsor must disenroll affected enrollees in accordance with the procedures for disenrollment set forth at § 423.507 through § 423.510.
(v) The individual materially misrepresents information, as determined by CMS, to the PDP sponsor that the individual has or expects to receive reimbursement for third-party coverage.
(vi) The individual is not lawfully present in the United States.
(c) Notice requirement. (1) If the disenrollment is for any of the reasons specified in paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2)(i), or (b)(2)(iv) of this section (that is, other than death or loss of Part D eligibility, the PDP sponsor must give the individual timely notice of the disenrollment with an explanation of why the PDP is planning to disenroll the individual.
(2) Notices for reasons specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(2)(i) and (b)(2)(iii) of this section must—
(i) Be provided to the individual before submission of the disenrollment notice to CMS; and
(ii) Include an explanation of the individual's right to file a grievance under the PDP's grievance procedures.
(d) Process for disenrollment—(1) Except as specified in paragraph (d)(1)(v) of this section, a PDP sponsor may disenroll an individual from the PDP for failure to pay any monthly premium under the following circumstances:
(i) The PDP sponsor can demonstrate to CMS that it made reasonable efforts to collect the unpaid premium amount.
(ii) The PDP sponsor gives the enrollee notice of disenrollment that meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
(iii) The PDP sponsor provides the individual with a grace period, that is, an opportunity to pay past due premiums in full. The grace period must—
(A) Be at least 2 whole calendar months; and
(B) Begin on the first day of the month for which the premium is unpaid or the first day of the month following the date on which premium payment is requested, whichever is later.
(iv) Reenrollment in the PDP. If an individual is disenrolled from the PDP for failure to pay monthly PDP premiums, the PDP sponsor has the option to decline future enrollment by the individual in any of its PDPs until the individual has paid any past premiums due to the PDP sponsor.
(v) A PDP sponsor may not disenroll either of the following:
(A) An individual who had monthly premiums withheld per § 423.293(a) and (e) of this part or who is in premium withhold status, as defined by CMS.
(B) A member or initiate the disenrollment process if the sponsor has been notified that an SPAP, or other payer, is paying the Part D portion of the premium, and the sponsor has not yet coordinated receipt of the premium payments with the SPAP or other payer.
(vi) Extension of grace period for good cause and reinstatement. When an individual is disenrolled for failure to pay the plan premium, CMS (or a third party to which CMS has assigned this responsibility, such as a Part D sponsor) may reinstate enrollment in the PDP, without interruption of coverage, if the individual does all of the following:
(A) Submits a request for reinstatement for good cause within 60 calendar days of the disenrollment effective date.
(B) Has not previously requested reinstatement for good cause during the same 60-day period following the involuntary disenrollment.
(C) Shows good cause for failure to pay within the initial grace period.
(D) Pays all overdue premiums within 3 calendar months after the disenrollment date.
(E) Establishes by a credible statement that failure to pay premiums within the initial grace period was due to circumstances for which the individual had no control, or which the individual could not reasonably have been expected to foresee.
(vii) No extension of grace period. A beneficiary's enrollment in the PDP may not be reinstated if the only basis for such reinstatement is a change in the individual's circumstances subsequent to the involuntary disenrollment for non-payment of premiums.
(2) Disruptive behavior—(i) Definition. A PDP enrollee is disruptive if his or her behavior substantially impairs the plans ability to arrange or provide for services to the individual or other plan members. An individual cannot be considered disruptive if the behavior is related to the use of medical services or compliance (or noncompliance) with medical advice or treatment.
(ii) Basis of disenrollment for disruptive behavior. A PDP may disenroll an individual whose behavior is disruptive as defined in § 423.44(d)(2)(i) only after the PDP sponsor meets the requirements described in this section and after CMS has reviewed and approved the request.
(iii) Effort to resolve the problem. The PDP sponsor must make a serious effort to resolve the problems presented by the individual, including providing reasonable accommodations, as determined by CMS, for individuals with mental or cognitive conditions, including mental illness, Alzheimer's disease, and developmental disabilities. In addition, the PDP sponsor must inform the individual of the right to use the PDP's grievance procedures, through the notices described in paragraph (d)(2)(viii) of this section. The individual has a right to submit any information or explanation that he or she may wish to the PDP.
(iv) Documentation. The PDP sponsor—
(A) Must document the enrollee's behavior, its own efforts to resolve any problems, as described in paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section, and any extenuating circumstances;
(B) May request from CMS the ability to decline future enrollment by the individual; and
(C) Must submit the following:
(1) The information specified in paragraph (d)(2)(iv)(A) of this section.
(2) Any documentation received by the individual to CMS.
(3) Dated copies of the notices required in paragraph (d)(2)(viii) of this section.
(v) CMS review of the proposed disenrollment. CMS reviews the information submitted by the PDP sponsor and any information submitted by the individual (which the PDP sponsor has submitted to CMS) to determine if the PDP sponsor has fulfilled the requirements to request disenrollment for disruptive behavior. If the PDP sponsor has fulfilled the necessary requirements, CMS reviews the information and make a decision to approve or deny the request for disenrollment, including conditions on future enrollment, within 20 working days. During the review, CMS ensures that staff with appropriate clinical or medical expertise reviews the case before making a final decision. The PDP sponsor is required to provide a reasonable accommodation, as determined by CMS, for the individual in exceptional circumstances that CMS deems necessary. CMS notifies the PDP sponsor within 5 working days after making its decision.
(vi) Exception for fallback prescription drug plans. CMS reserves the right to deny a request from a fallback prescription drug plan as defined in § 423.855 to disenroll an individual for disruptive behavior.
(vii) Effective date of disenrollment. If CMS permits a PDP to disenroll an individual for disruptive behavior, the termination is effective the first day of the calendar month after the month in which the PDP gives the individual written notice of the disenrollment that meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
(viii) Required notices. The PDP sponsor must provide the individual two notices prior to submitting the request for disenrollment to CMS.
(A) The first notice, the advance notice, informs the member that continued disruptive behavior could lead to involuntary disenrollment and provides the individual an opportunity to cease the behavior in order to avoid the disenrollment action.
(1) If the disruptive behavior ceases after the member receives the advance notice and then later resumes, the sponsor must begin the process again.
(2) The sponsor must wait at least 30 days after sending the advance notice before sending the second notice, during which 30-day period the individual has the opportunity to cease their behavior.
(B) The second notice, the notice of intent to request CMS permission to disenroll the member, notifies the member that the PDP sponsor requests CMS permission to involuntarily disenroll the member.
(1) This notice must be provided prior to submission of the request to CMS.
(2) These notices are in addition to the disenrollment submission notice required under § 423.44(c).
(3) Loss of Part D eligiblity. If an individual is no longer eligible for Part D, CMS notifies the PDP that the disenrollment is effective the first day of the calendar month following the last month of Part D eligibility.
(4) Death of the individual. If the individual dies, disenrollment is effective the first day of the calendar month following the month of death.
(5) Individual no longer resides in the PDP service area—Basis for disenrollment. (i) Basis for disenrollment. The PDP must disenroll an individual, and must document the basis for such action, if the PDP establishes, on the basis of a written statement from the individual or other evidence acceptable to CMS, that the individual has permanently moved out of the PDP service area and must give the individual a written notice of the disenrollment that meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section within 10 calendar days of the plan's confirmation of the individual's residence outside of the plan service area.
(ii) Special rule. If the individual has not moved from the PDP service area, but has been determined by the PDP sponsor to be absent from the service area for more than 12 consecutive months, the PDP sponsor must disenroll the individual from the plan, and document the basis for such action, effective on the first day of the 13th month after the individual left the service area and must give the individual a written notice of the disenrollment that meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section within the first 10 calendar days of the 12th month of an individual's temporary absence from the plan service area or, if the sponsor learns of the individual's temporary absence from the plan service area after the expiration of the 12 month period, within 10 calendar days of the sponsor learning of the absence. The individual is considered to be temporarily absent from the plan service area when one or more of the required materials and content referenced in § 423.2267(e), if provided by mail, is returned to the Part D plan sponsor by the U.S. Postal Service as undeliverable and a forwarding address is not provided.
(iii) Incarceration. The PDP must disenroll an individual if the PDP establishes, on the basis of evidence acceptable to CMS, that the individual is incarcerated and does not reside in the service area of the PDP as specified at § 423.4 or when notified of an incarceration by CMS as specified in paragraph (d)(5)(iv) of this section.
(iv) Notification by CMS of incarceration. When CMS notifies the PDP of the disenrollment due to the individual being incarcerated and not residing in the service area of the PDP as per § 423.4, disenrollment is effective the first of the month following the start of incarceration, unless otherwise specified by CMS.
(6) Plan termination. (i) When a PDP contract terminates as provided in § 423.507 through § 423.510, the PDP sponsor must give each affected PDP enrollee notice of the effective date of the plan termination and a description of alternatives for obtaining prescription drug coverage under Part D, as specified by CMS.
(ii) The notice must be sent before the effective date of the plan termination or area reduction, and in the timeframes specified by CMS.
(7) Misrepresentation of third-party reimbursement. (i) If CMS determines an individual has materially misrepresented information to the PDP sponsor as described under § 423.44(b)(2)(v), the termination is effective the first day of the calendar month after the month in which the PDP sponsor gives the individual written notice of the disenrollment that meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
(ii) Reenrollment in the PDP. Once an individual is disenrolled from the PDP for misrepresentation of third party reimbursement, the PDP sponsor has the option to decline future enrollment by the individual in any of its PDPs for a period of time CMS specifies.
(8) Individual is not lawfully present in the United States. Disenrollment is effective the first day of the month following notice by CMS that the individual is ineligible in accordance with § 423.30(a)(1)(iii).
(9) Individual commits fraud or permits abuse of enrollment card—(i) Basis for disenrollment. A PDP may disenroll the individual from a Part D plan if the individual—
(A) Knowingly provides, on the election form, fraudulent information that materially affects the individual's eligibility to enroll in the PDP; or
(B) Intentionally permits others to use his or her enrollment card to obtain drugs under the PDP.
(ii) Notice of disenrollment. The Part D plan must give the individual a written notice of the disenrollment that meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
(iii) Report to CMS. The Part D plan must report to CMS any disenrollment based on fraud or abuse by the individual.
(e) Involuntary disenrollment by CMS—(1) General rule. CMS will disenroll individuals who fail to pay the Part D income related monthly adjustment amount (Part D—IRMAA) specified in § 423.286(d)(4) and § 423.293(d) of this part.
(2) Initial grace period. For all Part D—IRMAA amounts directly billed to an enrollee in accordance with § 423.293(d)(2), the grace period ends with the last day of the third month after the billing month.
(3) Extension of grace period for good cause and reinstatement. When an individual is disenrolled for failing to pay the Part D—IRMAA within the initial grace period specified in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, CMS (or an entity acting on behalf of CMS) may reinstate enrollment, without interruption of coverage, if the individual shows good cause as specified in § 423.44(d)(1)(vi), pays all Part D—IRMAA arrearages, and any overdue premiums due the Part D plan sponsor within 3 calendar months after the disenrollment date.
(4) Notice of termination. Where CMS has disenrolled an individual in accordance with paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the Part D plan sponsor must provide notice of termination in a form and manner determined by CMS.
(5) Effective date of disenrollment. After a grace period and notice of termination has been provided in accordance with paragraphs (e)(2) and (4) of this section, the effective date of disenrollment is the first day following the last day of the initial grace period.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 1543, Jan. 12, 2009; 75 FR 19816, Apr. 15, 2010; 76 FR 21570, Apr. 15, 2011; 79 FR 29962, May 23, 2014; 80 FR 7962, Feb. 12, 2015; 89 FR 30831, Apr. 23, 2024; 89 FR 63827, Aug. 6, 2024]
§ 423.46 Late enrollment penalty.
(a) General. A Part D eligible individual must pay the late penalty described under § 423.286(d)(3), except as described at § 423.780(e), if there is a continuous period of 63 days or longer at any time after the end of the individual's initial enrollment period during which the individual meets all of the following conditions:
(1) The individual was eligible to enroll in a Part D plan;
(2) The individual was not covered under any creditable prescription drug coverage; and
(3) The individual was not enrolled in a Part D plan.
(b) Role of Part D plan in determination of the penalty. Part D sponsors must obtain information on prior creditable coverage from all enrolled or enrolling beneficiaries and report this information to CMS in a form and manner determined by CMS.
(c) Reconsideration. Individuals determined to be subject to a late enrollment penalty may request reconsideration of this determination, consistent with § 423.56(g) of this part. Such review will be conducted by CMS, or an independent review entity contracted by CMS, in accordance with guidance issued by CMS. Decisions made through this review are not subject to appeal, but may be reviewed and revised at the discretion of CMS.
(d) Record retention. Part D plan sponsors must retain all information collected concerning a creditable coverage period determination in accordance with the enrollment records retention requirements described in § 423.505(e)(1)(iii).
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 54251, Sept. 18, 2008; 74 FR 1543, Jan. 12, 2009]
§ 423.48 Information about Part D.
Each Part D plan must provide, on an annual basis, and in a format and using standard terminology that CMS may specify in guidance, the information necessary to enable CMS to provide to current and potential Part D eligible individuals the information they need to make informed decisions among the available choices for Part D coverage.
§ 423.56 Procedures to determine and document creditable status of prescription drug coverage.
(a) Definition. Creditable prescription drug coverage means any of the following types of coverage listed in paragraph (b) of this section only if the actuarial value of the coverage equals or exceeds the actuarial value of defined standard prescription drug coverage under Part D in effect at the start of such plan year, not taking into account the value of any discount provided under section 1860D-14C of the Act or of any selected drug subsidy under section 1860D-14D of the Act, and demonstrated through—
(1) The use of generally accepted actuarial principles and in accordance with CMS guidelines; or
(2) For group health plans not receiving a retiree drug subsidy, meeting the following requirements under the simplified creditable coverage determination methodology:
(i) Provision of reasonable coverage for brand name and generic prescription drugs and biological products.
(ii) Provision of reasonable access to retail pharmacies.
(iii) Is designed to pay on average a minimum percent of participants' prescription drug expenses, with the percent value at 73 percent for 2027 and percent values for subsequent years to be updated by CMS in subregulatory guidance in a time and manner determined by CMS to reflect the actuarial value of defined standard prescription drug coverage under Part D.
(b) Types of coverage. The following coverage is considered creditable if it meets the definition provided in paragraph (a) of this section:
(1) Prescription drug coverage under a PDP or MA-PD plan.
(2) Medicaid coverage under title XIX of the Act or under a waiver under section 1115 of the Act.
(3) Coverage under a group health plan (other than an account-based medical plan as defined at § 423.882 (paragraph (4) of the definition of Group health plans)) including the Federal employees health benefits program, and qualified retiree prescription drug plans as defined in section 1860D-22(a)(2) of the Act.
(4) Coverage under State Pharmaceutical
Assistance Programs (SPAP) as defined at § 423.454.
(5) Coverage of prescription drugs for veterans, survivors and dependents under chapter 17 of title 38, U.S.C.
(6) Coverage under a Medicare supplemental policy (Medigap policy) as defined at § 403.205 of this chapter.
(7) Military coverage under chapter 55 of title 10,
U.S.C., including TRICARE.
(8) Individual health insurance coverage (as defined in section 2791(b)(5) of the Public Health Service Act) that includes coverage for outpatient prescription drugs and that does not meet the definition of an excepted benefit (as defined in section 2791(c) of the Public Health Service Act).
(9) Coverage provided by the medical care program of the Indian Health Service, Tribe or Tribal organization, or Urban Indian organization (I/T/U).
(10) Coverage provided by a PACE organization.
(11) Coverage provided by a cost-based HMO or CMP under part 417 of this chapter.
(12) Coverage provided through a State High-Risk Pool as defined under 42 CFR 146.113(a)(1)(vii).
(13) Other coverage as the Secretary may determine appropriate.
(c) General disclosure requirements. With the exception of PDPs and MA-PD plans under § 423.56(b)(1) and PACE or cost-based HMO or CMP that provide qualified prescription drug coverage under this Part, each entity that offers prescription drug coverage under any of the types described in § 423.56(b), must disclose to all Part D eligible individuals enrolled in or seeking to enroll in the coverage whether the coverage is creditable prescription drug coverage.
(d) Disclosure of non-creditable coverage. In the case that the coverage of the type described in § 423.56(b) is not creditable prescription drug, the disclosure described in paragraph (c) of this section to Part D eligible individuals must also include:
(1) The fact that the coverage is not creditable prescription drug coverage, as provided by CMS;
(2) That there are limitations on the periods in a year in which the individual may enroll in Part D plans; and
(3) That the individual may be subject to a late enrollment penalty, as described under § 423.46.
(e) Disclosure to CMS. With the exception of PDPs and MA-PD plans under § 423.56(b)(1) and PACE or cost-based HMO or CMP that provide qualified prescription drug coverage under this Part, all other entities listed under paragraph (b) of this section must disclose whether the coverage they provide is creditable prescription drug coverage to CMS in a form and manner described by CMS.
(f) Notification content and timing requirements. The disclosure notification to Part-D eligible individuals required in § 423.56(c) and (d) must be provided in a form and manner prescribed by CMS. Notices must be provided, at minimum, at the following times:
(1) Prior to an individual's initial enrollment period for Part D, as described under § 423.38(a);
(2) Prior to the effective date of enrollment in the prescription drug coverage and upon any change that affects whether the coverage is creditable prescription drug coverage;
(3) Prior to the commencement of the Annual Coordinated Election Period as defined in § 423.38(b); and
(4) Upon request by the individual.
(g) When an individual is not adequately informed of coverage. If an individual establishes to CMS that he or she was not adequately informed that his or her prescription drug coverage was not creditable prescription drug coverage, the individual may apply to CMS to have the coverage treated as creditable prescription drug coverage for purposes of applying the late penalty described in § 423.46.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 20505, Apr. 15, 2008; 77 FR 22168, Apr. 12, 2012; 91 FR 17584, Apr. 6, 2026]
Subpart C Benefits and Beneficiary Protections
§ 423.100 Definitions.
As used in this part, unless otherwise specified—
ACIP-recommended adult vaccine means a covered Part D drug, as defined in this section, that is a vaccine licensed by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act for use by adult populations and administered in accordance with recommendations of the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) as adopted by the CDC Director.
Actual cost means the negotiated price for a covered Part D drug when the drug is purchased at a network pharmacy, and the usual and customary price when a beneficiary purchases the drug at an out-of-network pharmacy consistent with § 423.124(a).
Affected enrollee, as used in this subpart, means a Part D enrollee who is currently taking a covered Part D drug that is subject to a negative formulary change that affects the Part D enrollee's access to the drug during the current plan year.
Alternative prescription drug coverage means coverage of Part D drugs, other than standard prescription drug coverage that meets the requirements of § 423.104(e). The term alternative prescription drug coverage must be either—
(1) Basic alternative coverage (alternative coverage that is actuarially equivalent to defined standard coverage, as determined through processes and methods established under § 423.265(d)(2)); or
(2) Enhanced alternative coverage (alternative coverage that meets the requirements of § 423.104(f)(1)).
Applicable beneficiary means an individual who, on the date of dispensing a covered Part D drug—
(1) Is enrolled in a prescription drug plan or an MA-PD plan;
(2) Is not enrolled in a qualified retiree prescription drug plan;
(3)(i) For the purposes of the Coverage Gap Discount Program—
(A) Is not entitled to an income-related subsidy under section 1860D-14(a) of the Act;
(B) Has reached or exceeded the initial coverage limit under section 1860D-2(b)(3) of the Act during the year;
(C) Has not incurred costs for covered Part D drugs in the year equal to the annual out-of-pocket threshold specified in section 1860D-2(b)(4)(B) of the Act; and
(D) Has a claim that—
(1) Is within the coverage gap;
(2) Straddles the initial coverage period and the coverage gap;
(3) Straddles the coverage gap and the annual out-of-pocket threshold; or
(4) Spans the coverage gap from the initial coverage period and exceeds the annual out-of-pocket threshold; and
(ii) For the purposes of the Manufacturer Discount Program, has incurred costs, as determined in accordance with section 1860D-2(b)(4)(C) of the Act, for covered Part D drugs in the year that exceed the annual deductible specified in section 1860D-2(b)(1) of the Act.
Applicable discount, for purposes of the—
(1) Coverage Gap Discount Program, has the meaning set forth at § 423.2305; and
(2) Manufacturer Discount Program, has the meaning set forth at § 423.2712.
Applicable drug means a Part D drug that is—
(1)(i) Approved under a new drug application under section 505(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA); or
(ii) In the case of a biological product, licensed under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act (other than, with respect to a plan year before 2019, a product licensed under subsection (k) of such section 351).
(2)(i) If the PDP sponsor of the prescription drug plan or the MA organization offering the MA-PD plan uses a formulary, which is on the formulary of the prescription drug plan or MA-PD plan that the applicable beneficiary is enrolled in;
(ii) If the PDP sponsor of the prescription drug plan or the MA organization offering the MA-PD plan does not use a formulary, for which benefits are available under the prescription drug plan or MA-PD plan that the applicable beneficiary is enrolled in;
(iii) Is provided to a particular applicable beneficiary through an exception or appeal for that particular applicable beneficiary; or
(iv) For the purposes of the Manufacturer Discount Program, is provided to a particular applicable beneficiary as a transition fill under § 423.120(b)(3) or as an emergency supply as may be required for an applicable beneficiary who is a long-term care resident.
(3) Not a compounded drug product (as described in § 423.120(d)) that contains an applicable drug; and
(4) For the purposes of the Manufacturer Discount Program, not a selected drug during a price applicability period with respect to such drug.
Applicable number of calendar days means, with respect to claims for reimbursement submitted electronically, 14 days, and otherwise, 30 days.
At-risk beneficiary means a Part D eligible individual—
(1) Who is—
(i) Identified using clinical guidelines (as defined in this section);
(ii) Not an exempted beneficiary; and
(iii) Determined to be at-risk for misuse or abuse of such frequently abused drugs by a Part D plan sponsor under its drug management program in accordance with the requirements of § 423.153(f); or
(2) With respect to whom a Part D plan sponsor receives a notice upon the beneficiary's enrollment in such sponsor's plan that the beneficiary was identified as an at-risk beneficiary (as defined in the paragraph (1) of this definition) under the prescription drug plan in which the beneficiary was most recently enrolled and such identification had not been terminated upon disenrollment.
Basic prescription drug coverage means coverage of Part D drugs that is either standard prescription drug coverage or basic alternative coverage.
Bioequivalent has the meaning given such term in section 505(j)(8) of the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
Clinical guidelines, for the purposes of a drug management program under § 423.153(f), are criteria—
(1) To identify potential at-risk beneficiaries who may be determined to be at-risk beneficiaries under such programs; and
(2) That are developed in accordance with the standards in § 423.153(f)(16) and, beginning with contract year 2020, will be published in guidance annually.
Contracted pharmacy network means licensed pharmacies, including retail, mail-order, and institutional pharmacies under contract with a Part D sponsor to provide covered Part D drugs at negotiated prices to Part D enrollees.
Corresponding drug means, respectively, a generic or authorized generic of a brand name drug, an interchangeable biological product of a reference product, or an unbranded biological product marketed under the same biologics license application (BLA) as a brand name biological product.
Coverage gap means the period in prescription drug coverage that occurs between the initial coverage limit and the out-of-pocket threshold during the years 2006 through 2024. For purposes of applying the initial coverage limit, Part D sponsors must apply their plan specific initial coverage limit under basic alternative, enhanced alternative or actuarially equivalent Part D benefit designs.
Covered insulin product means, for purposes of § 423.120(h), an insulin product, including a product that is a combination of more than one type of insulin or a product that is a combination of both insulin and a non-insulin drug or biological product, that—
(1) Is a covered Part D drug covered under a PDP or MA-PD plan—
(i) Is licensed under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act; and
(ii) Is marketed under the license described in paragraph (1)(i) of this definition.
(2) Is not a compounded drug product that contains insulin (as described in § 423.120(d)).
Covered insulin product applicable cost-sharing amount means, with respect to a covered insulin product, as defined in this section, covered under a PDP or an MA-PD plan prior to an enrollee reaching the annual out-of-pocket threshold during plan year 2026 and each subsequent plan year, the lesser of the following:
(1) $35.
(2) An amount equal to 25 percent of the maximum fair price established for the covered insulin product in accordance with Part E of title XI of the Act.
(3) An amount equal to 25 percent of the negotiated price (as defined in this section) of the covered insulin product under the PDP or MA-PD plan.
Covered Part D drug means a Part D drug that is included in a Part D plan's formulary, or treated as being included in a Part D plan's formulary as a result of a coverage determination or appeal under §§ 423.566, 423.580, and 423.600, 423.610, 423,620, and 423.630, and obtained at a network pharmacy or an out-of-network pharmacy in accordance with § 423.124.
Daily cost-sharing rate means, as applicable, the established—
(1) Monthly copayment under the enrollee's Part D plan, divided by the number of days in the approved month's supply for the drug dispensed and rounded to the nearest cent; or
(2) Coinsurance percentage under the enrollee's Part D plan.
Date of dispensing means the date of service. For long-term care and home infusion pharmacies, the date of dispensing can be interpreted as the date the pharmacy submits the discounted claim for reimbursement.
Dispensing fees means costs that-
(1) Are incurred at the point of sale and pay for costs in excess of the ingredient cost of a covered Part D drug each time a covered Part D drug is dispensed;
(2) Include only pharmacy costs associated with ensuring that possession of the appropriate covered Part D drug is transferred to a Part D enrollee. Pharmacy costs include, but are not limited to, any reasonable costs associated with a pharmacist's time in checking the computer for information about an individual's coverage, performing quality assurance activities consistent with § 423.153(c)(2), measurement or mixing of the covered Part D drug, filling the container, physically providing the completed prescription to the Part D enrollee, delivery, special packaging, and salaries of pharmacists and other pharmacy workers as well as the costs associated with maintaining the pharmacy facility and acquiring and maintaining technology and equipment necessary to operate the pharmacy. Dispensing fees should take into consideration the number of dispensing events in a billing cycle, the incremental costs associated with the type of dispensing methodology, and with respect to Part D drugs dispensed in LTC facilities, the techniques to minimize the dispensing of unused drugs. Dispensing fees may also take into account costs associated with data collection on unused Part D drugs and restocking fees associated with return for credit and reuse in long-term care pharmacies, when return for credit and reuse is permitted under the State in law and is allowed under the contract between the Part D sponsor and the pharmacy.
(3) Do not include administrative costs incurred by the Part D plan in the operation of the Part D benefit, including systems costs for interfacing with pharmacies.
Effective date of the ACIP recommendation means the date specified on the CDC website noting the date the CDC Director adopted the ACIP recommendation.
Exempted beneficiary means with respect to a drug management program, an enrollee who—
(1) Has elected to receive hospice care or is receiving palliative or end-of-life care;
(2) Is a resident of a long-term care facility, of a facility described in section 1905(d) of the Act, or of another facility for which frequently abused drugs are dispensed for residents through a contract with a single pharmacy;
(3) Is being treated for cancer-related pain or
(4) Has sickle cell disease.
Frequently abused drug means a controlled substance under the Federal Controlled Substances Act that the Secretary determines is frequently abused or diverted, taking into account all of the following factors:
(1) The drug's schedule designation by the Drug Enforcement Administration.
(2) Government or professional guidelines that address that a drug is frequently abused or misused.
(3) An analysis of Medicare or other drug utilization or scientific data.
Government-funded health program means any program established, maintained, or funded, in whole or in part, by the Government of the United States, by the government of any State or political subdivision of a State, or by any agency or instrumentality of any of the foregoing, which uses public funds, in whole or in part, to provide to, or pay on behalf of, an individual the cost of Part D drugs, including any of the following:
(1) An approved State child health plan under title XXI of the Act providing benefits for child health assistance that meets the requirements of section 2103 of the Act;
(2) The Medicaid program under title XIX of the Act or a waiver under section 1115 of the Act;
(3) The veterans' health care program under Chapter 17 of title 38 of the United States Code;
(4) The Indian Health Service program under the Indian Health Care Improvement Act under Chapter 18 of title 25 of the United States Code; and
(5) Any other government-funded program whose principal activity is the direct provision of health care to persons.
Group health plan, for purposes of applying the definition of incurred costs in § 423.100, has the meaning given such term in 29 U.S.C. 1167(1), but specifically excludes a personal health savings vehicle, as used in this subpart.
Immediate negative formulary change means an immediate substitution or market withdrawal that meets the requirements of § 423.120(e)(2)(i) or (ii) respectively.
Incurred costs means costs incurred by a Part D enrollee—
(1) For—
(i) Covered Part D drugs that are not paid for under the Part D plan as a result of application of any annual deductible or other cost-sharing rules for covered Part D drugs prior to the Part D enrollee satisfying the out-of-pocket threshold under § 423.104(d)(5)(iii), including any price differential for which the Part D enrollee is responsible under § 423.124(b); or
(ii) Nominal cost-sharing paid by or on behalf of an enrollee, which is associated with drugs that would otherwise be covered Part D drugs, as defined in § 423.100, but are instead paid for, with the exception of said nominal cost-sharing, by a patient assistance program providing assistance outside the Part D benefit, provided that documentation of such nominal cost-sharing has been submitted to the Part D plan consistent with the plan processes and instructions for the submission of such information; and
(2) That are paid for—
(i) By the Part D enrollee or on behalf of the Part D enrollee by another person, and the Part D enrollee (or person paying on behalf of the Part D enrollee) is not reimbursed through insurance or otherwise, a group health plan, or other third party payment arrangement, or the person paying on behalf of the Part D enrollee is not paying under insurance or otherwise, a group health plan, or third party payment arrangement;
(ii) Under State Pharmaceutical Assistance Program (as defined in § 423.464); by the Indian Health Service, an Indian tribe or tribal organization, or urban Indian organization (as defined in section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act) or under an AIDS Drug Assistance Program (as defined in part B of title XXVI of the Public Health Service); or by a manufacturer as payment for an applicable discount (as defined in § 423.2305) under the Medicare Coverage Gap Discount Program (as defined in § 423.2305); or
(iii) Under § 423.782.
(3) For 2025 and subsequent years, that are reimbursed through insurance, a group health plan, or certain other third party payment arrangements, but not including the coverage provided by a prescription drug plan or an MA-PD plan that is basic prescription drug coverage or any payments by a manufacturer under the Manufacturer Discount Program under subpart AA of this part.
Insurance means a health plan that provides, or pays the cost of Part D drugs, including, but not limited to, any of the following:
(1) Health insurance coverage (as defined in 42 U.S.C. 300gg-91(b)(1));
(2) A Medicare Advantage plan (as described under section 1851(a)(2) of the Act); and
(3) A PACE organization (as defined under sections 1894(a)(3) and 1934(a)(13) of the Act) but specifically excluding a personal health savings vehicle.
I/T/U pharmacy means a pharmacy operated by the Indian Health Service, an Indian tribe or tribal organization, or an urban Indian organization, all of which are defined in section 4 of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act, 25 U.S.C. 1603.
Labeler code means the first segment of the National Drug Code (NDC) that identifies a particular manufacturer.
Long-term care facility means a skilled nursing facility as defined in section 1819(a) of the Act, or a medical institution or nursing facility for which payment is made for an institutionalized individual under section 1902(q)(1)(B) of the Act.
Long-term care pharmacy means a pharmacy owned by or under contract with a long-term care facility to provide prescription drugs to the facility's residents.
Long-term care network pharmacy means a long-term care pharmacy that is a network pharmacy.
Maintenance change means one of the following negative formulary changes with respect to a covered Part D drug:
(1) Making any negative formulary changes to a drug within 90 days of adding a corresponding drug to the same or a lower cost-sharing tier and with the same or less restrictive prior authorization (PA), step therapy (ST), or quantity limit (QL) requirements (other than immediate substitutions that meet the requirements of § 423.120(e)(2)(i)).
(2) Making any negative formulary changes to a reference product within 90 days of adding a biosimilar biological product other than an interchangeable biological product of that reference product to the same or a lower cost-sharing tier and with the same or less restrictive PA, ST, or QL requirements.
(3) Removing a non-Part D drug.
(4) Adding or making more restrictive PA, ST, or QL requirements based upon a new FDA-mandated boxed warning.
(5) Removing a drug withdrawn from sale by the manufacturer or that FDA determines to be withdrawn for safety or effectiveness reasons if the Part D sponsor chooses not to treat it as an immediate negative formulary change.
(6) Removing a drug based on long term shortage and market availability.
(7) Making negative formulary changes based upon new clinical guidelines or information or to promote safe utilization.
(8) Adding PA to help determine Part B versus Part D coverage.
Manufacturer means any entity which is engaged in the production, preparation, propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of prescription drug products, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis. For purposes of the Coverage Gap Discount Program and the Manufacturer Discount Program, such term does not include a wholesale distributor of drugs or a retail pharmacy licensed under State law, but includes entities otherwise engaged in repackaging or changing the container, wrapper, or labeling of any applicable drug product in furtherance of the distribution of the applicable drug from the original place of manufacture to the person who makes the final delivery or sale to the ultimate consumer or user.
Manufacturer Discount Program means the Medicare Part D Manufacturer Discount Program established under section 1860D-14C of the Act.
Manufacturer Discount Program agreement means the agreement described at section 1860D-14C(b) of the Act.
Medicare Coverage Gap Discount Program (or Coverage Gap Discount Program) means the Medicare Coverage Gap Discount Program established under section 1860D-14A of the Act.
Medicare Coverage Gap Discount Program agreement (or Coverage Gap Discount Program agreement) means the agreement described in section 1860D-14A(b) of the Act.
National Drug Code (NDC) means the unique identifying prescription drug product number that is listed with the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) identifying the product's manufacturer, product and package size and type.
Negative formulary change means one of the following changes with respect to a covered Part D drug:
(1) Removing a drug from a formulary.
(2) Moving a drug to a higher cost-sharing tier.
(3) Adding or making more restrictive prior authorization (PA), step therapy (ST), or quantity limit (QL) requirements. Negative formulary changes do not include safety-based claim edits which are not submitted to CMS as part of the formulary.
Negotiated price means the price for a covered Part D drug that—
(1) The Part D sponsor (or other intermediary contracting organization) and the network dispensing pharmacy or other network dispensing provider have negotiated as the lowest possible reimbursement such network entity will receive, in total, for a particular drug;
(2) Meets all of the following:
(i) Includes all price concessions (as defined in this section) from network pharmacies or other network providers;
(ii) Includes any dispensing fees; and
(iii) Excludes additional contingent amounts, such as incentive fees, if these amounts increase prices; and
(3) Is reduced by non-pharmacy price concessions and other direct or indirect remuneration that the Part D sponsor passes through to Part D enrollees at the point of sale.
Network pharmacy means a licensed pharmacy that is under contract with a Part D sponsor to provide covered Part D drugs at negotiated prices to its Part D plan enrollees.
Non-applicable drug means any Part D drug that is not an applicable drug and not a selected drug during a price applicability period with respect to such drug.
Non-maintenance change means a negative formulary change that is not a maintenance change or an immediate negative formulary change.
Non-preferred pharmacy means a network pharmacy that offers covered Part D drugs at negotiated prices to Part D enrollees at higher cost-sharing levels than apply at a preferred pharmacy.
Or otherwise means through a government-funded health program.
Other specified entities means State Pharmaceutical Assistance Programs (as defined in § 423.454), entities providing other prescription drug coverage (as described in § 423.464(f)(1)), authorized prescribers, network pharmacies, and pharmacists.
Out-of-network pharmacy means a licensed pharmacy that is not under contract with a Part D sponsor to provide negotiated prices to Part D plan enrollees.
Part D drug means—
(1) Unless excluded under paragraph (2) of this definition, any of the following if used for a medically accepted indication (as defined in section 1860D-2(e)(4) of the Act)—
(i) A drug that may be dispensed only upon a prescription and that is described in sections 1927(k)(2)(A)(i) through (iii) of the Act.
(ii) A biological product described in sections 1927(k)(2)(B)(i) through (iii) of the Act.
(iii) Insulin described in section 1927(k)(2)(C) of the Act.
(iv) Medical supplies associated with the injection of insulin, including syringes, needles, alcohol swabs, and gauze.
(v) A vaccine licensed under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act and for vaccine administration on or after January 1, 2008, its administration.
(vi) Supplies that are directly associated with delivering insulin into the body, such as an inhalation chamber used to deliver the insulin through inhalation.
(vii) A combination product approved and regulated by the FDA as a drug, vaccine, or biologic described in paragraphs (1)(i), (ii), (iii), or (v) of this definition.
(2) Does not include any of the following:
(i) Drugs for which payment as so prescribed and dispensed or administered to an individual is available for that individual under Part A or Part B (even though a deductible may apply, or even though the individual is eligible for coverage under Part A or Part B but has declined to enroll in Part A or Part B).
(ii) Drugs or classes of drugs, or their medical uses, which may be excluded from coverage or otherwise restricted under Medicaid under sections 1927(d)(2) or (d)(3) of the Act, except for smoking cessation agents.
(iii) Medical foods, defined as a food that is formulated to be consumed or administered enterally under the supervision of a physician and which is intended for the specific dietary management of a disease or condition for which distinctive nutritional requirements, based on recognized scientific principles, are established by medical evaluation, and that are not regulated as drugs under section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
Person means a natural person, corporation, mutual company, unincorporated association, partnership, joint venture, limited liability company, trust, estate, foundation, not-for-profit corporation, unincorporated organization, government or governmental subdivision or agency.
Personal health savings vehicle means a vehicle through which individuals can set aside their own funds to pay for health care expenses, including covered Part D drugs, on a tax-free basis including any of the following—
(1) A Health Savings Account (as defined under section 220 of the Internal Revenue Code);
(2) A Flexible Spending Account (as defined in section 106(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code) offered in conjunction with a cafeteria plan under section 125 of the Internal Revenue Code; and
(3) An Archer Medical Savings Account (as defined under section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code); but specifically excluding a Health Reimbursement Arrangement (as described under Internal Revenue Ruling 2002-41 and Internal Revenue Notice 2002-45)
Plan allowance means the amount Part D plans that offer coverage other than defined standard coverage may use to determine their payment and Part D enrollees' cost-sharing for covered Part D drugs purchased at an out-of-network pharmacy or in a physician's office in accordance with the requirements of § 423.124(b).
Potential at-risk beneficiary means a Part D eligible individual who is not an exempted beneficiary (as defined in this section) and—
(1) Who is identified using clinical guidelines (as defined in this section); or
(2) With respect to whom a Part D plan sponsor receives a notice upon the beneficiary's enrollment in such sponsor's plan that the beneficiary was identified as a potential at-risk beneficiary (as defined in paragraph (1) of this definition) under the prescription drug plan in which the beneficiary was most recently enrolled and such identification had not been terminated upon disenrollment.
Preclusion list means a CMS compiled list of prescribers who—
(1) Meet all of the following requirements:
(i) The prescriber is currently revoked from Medicare for a reason other than that stated in § 424.535(a)(3) of this chapter.
(ii) The prescriber is currently under a reenrollment bar under § 424.535(c) of this chapter.
(iii) CMS determines that the underlying conduct that led to the revocation is detrimental to the best interests of the Medicare program. In making this determination under this paragraph (1)(iii), CMS considers the following factors:
(A) The seriousness of the conduct underlying the prescriber's revocation;
(B) The degree to which the prescriber's conduct could affect the integrity of the Part D program; and
(C) Any other evidence that CMS deems relevant to its determination; or
(2) Meet both of the following requirements:
(i) The prescriber has engaged in behavior, other than that described in § 424.535(a)(3) of this chapter, for which CMS could have revoked the individual to the extent applicable had he or she been enrolled in Medicare.
(ii) CMS determines that the underlying conduct that would have led to the revocation is detrimental to the best interests of the Medicare program. In making this determination under this paragraph, CMS considers all of the following factors:
(A) The seriousness of the conduct involved.
(B) The degree to which the prescriber's conduct could affect the integrity of the Part D program.
(C) Any other evidence that CMS deems relevant to its determination; or
(3) The prescriber, regardless of whether he or she is or was enrolled in Medicare, has been convicted of a felony under Federal or State law within the previous 10 years that CMS deems detrimental to the best interests of the Medicare program. Factors that CMS considers in making such a determination under this paragraph are as follows:
(i) The severity of the offense.
(ii) When the offense occurred.
(iii) Any other information that CMS deems relevant to its determination.
Preferred drug means a covered Part D drug on a Part D plan's formulary for which beneficiary cost-sharing is lower than for a non-preferred drug in the plan's formulary.
Preferred pharmacy means a network pharmacy that offers covered Part D drugs at negotiated prices to Part D enrollees at lower levels of cost-sharing than apply at a non-preferred pharmacy under its pharmacy network contract with a Part D plan.
Price applicability period has the meaning given such term in section 1191(b)(2) of the Act and any applicable regulations and guidance.
Price concession means any form of discount, direct or indirect subsidy, or rebate received by the Part D sponsor or its intermediary contracting organization from any source that serves to decrease the costs incurred under the Part D plan by the Part D sponsor. Examples of price concessions include but are not limited to: Discounts, chargebacks, rebates, cash discounts, free goods contingent on a purchase agreement, coupons, free or reduced-price services, and goods in kind.
Program size means the estimated population of potential at-risk beneficiaries in drug management programs (described in § 423.153(f)) operated by Part D plan sponsors that the Secretary determines can be effectively managed by such sponsors as part of the process to develop clinical guidelines.
Qualified prescription drug coverage means any standard prescription drug coverage or alternative prescription drug coverage
Required prescription drug coverage means coverage of Part D drugs under an MA-PD plan that consists of either—
(1) Basic prescription drug coverage; or
(2) Enhanced alternative coverage, provided there is no MA monthly supplemental beneficiary premium (as defined under section 1854(b)(2)(C) of the Act) applied under the plan due to the application of a credit against the premium of a rebate under § 422.266(b) of this chapter.
Retail pharmacy means any licensed pharmacy that is open to dispense prescription drugs to the walk-in general public from which Part D enrollees could purchase a covered Part D drug without being required to receive medical services from a provider or institution affiliated with that pharmacy.
Rural means a five-digit ZIP code in which the population density is less than 1,000 individuals per square mile.
Selected drug has the meaning given such term in section 1192(c) of the Act and any applicable regulations and guidance.
Standard prescription drug coverage means coverage of Part D drugs that meets the requirements of § 423.104(d). The term standard prescription drug coverage must be either—
(1) Defined standard coverage (standard prescription drug coverage that provides for cost-sharing as described in § 423.104(d)(2)(i)(A) and (d)(5)(i)); or
(2) Actuarially equivalent standard coverage (standard prescription drug coverage that provides for cost-sharing as described in § 423.104(d)(2)(i)(B) or cost-sharing as described in § 423.104(d)(5)(ii), or both).
Suburban means a five-digit ZIP code in which the population density is between 1,000 and 3,000 individuals per square mile.
Supplemental benefits means benefits offered by Part D plans, other than employer group health or waiver plans, that meet the requirements of § 423.104(f)(1)(ii).
Therapeutically equivalent refers to drugs that are rated as therapeutic equivalents under the Food and Drug Administration's most recent publication of “Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations.”
Third Party Administrator (TPA) means the CMS contractor responsible for administering the requirements established by CMS to carry out sections 1860D-14A and 1860D-14C of the Act.
Third party payment arrangement means any contractual or similar arrangement under which a person has a legal obligation to pay for covered Part D drugs.
Urban means a five-digit ZIP code in which the population density is greater than 3,000 individuals per square mile.
Usual and customary (U&C) price means the price that an out-of-network pharmacy or a physician's office charges a customer who does not have any form of prescription drug coverage for a covered Part D drug.
Valid prescription means a prescription that complies with all applicable State law requirements constituting a valid prescription.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 20506, Apr. 15, 2008; 74 FR 1543, Jan. 12, 2009; 76 FR 21571, Apr. 15, 2011; 77 FR 22169, Apr. 12, 2012; 77 FR 32407, June 1, 2012; 79 FR 29962, May 23, 2014; 80 FR 7963, Feb. 12, 2015; 80 FR 25966, May 6, 2015; 83 FR 16737, Apr. 16, 2018; 84 FR 15840, Apr. 16, 2019; 86 FR 6115, Jan. 19, 2021; 87 FR 27899, May 9, 2022; 89 FR 30832, Apr. 23, 2024; 89 FR 63828, Aug. 6, 2024; 90 FR 15911, Apr. 15, 2025; 91 FR 17584, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.104 Requirements related to qualified prescription drug coverage.
(a) General. Subject to the conditions and limitations set forth in this subpart, a Part D sponsor must provide enrollees with coverage of the benefits described in paragraph (c) of this section. The benefits may be provided directly by the Part D sponsor or through arrangements with other entities. CMS reviews and approves these benefits consistent with § 423.272, and using written policy guidelines and requirements in this part and other CMS instructions.
(b) Availability of prescription drug plan. A PDP sponsor offering a prescription drug plan must offer the plan—
(1) To all Part D eligible beneficiaries residing in the plan's service area; and
(2) At a uniform premium, with uniform benefits and level of cost-sharing throughout the plan's service area.
(c) Types of benefits. The coverage provided by a Part D plan must be qualified prescription drug coverage.
(d) Standard prescription drug coverage. Standard prescription drug coverage includes access to negotiated prices as described under paragraph (g)(1) of this section, provides coverage of Part D drugs, and must meet the following requirements
(1) Deductible. Subject to § 423.120(g) and (h), an annual deductible equal to—
(i) For 2006. $250; or
(ii) For years subsequent to 2006. The amount specified in this paragraph for the previous year, increased by the annual percentage increase specified in paragraph (d)(5)(iv) of this section, and rounded to the nearest multiple of $5.
(2) Cost-sharing under prescription drug plans. (i) Subject to paragraph (d)(4) of this section, coinsurance for actual costs for covered Part D drugs covered under the Part D plan above the annual deductible specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, and for each year preceding 2025, up to the initial coverage limit under paragraph (d)(3) of this section, and for 2025 and each subsequent year, up to the annual out-of-pocket threshold specified in paragraph (d)(5)(iii) of this section, that is—
(A) Equal to 25 percent of actual cost; or
(B) Actuarially equivalent to an average expected coinsurance of no more than 25 percent of actual cost, as determined through processes and methods established under § 423.265(c) and (d).
(ii) Tiered copayments. A Part D plan providing actuarially equivalent standard coverage may apply tiered copayments, provided that any tiered copayments are consistent with paragraphs (d)(2)(i)(B) and (d)(4) of this section and are approved as described in § 423.272(b)(2).
(iii) Tiered cost sharing under paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section may not exceed levels annually determined by CMS to be discriminatory.
(iv) Specialty tier means a formulary cost sharing tier dedicated to high-cost Part D drugs with ingredient costs for a 30-day equivalent supply (as described in paragraph (d)(2)(iv)(A)(2) of this section) that are greater than the specialty tier cost threshold specified in paragraph (d)(2)(iv)(A) of this section.
(A) Specialty-tier cost threshold. CMS sets the specialty-tier cost threshold for a plan year in accordance with this paragraph (d)(2)(iv)(A), using the following steps:
(1) 30-day equivalent ingredient cost. Using the PDE data as specified in paragraph (d)(2)(iv)(C) of this section, CMS uses the ingredient cost reflected on the prescription drug event (PDE) to determine the ingredient cost in dollars for a 30-day equivalent supply of the Part D drug.
(2) 30-day equivalent supply. CMS determines the 30-day equivalent supply as follows: If the days' supply reported on a PDE is less than or equal to 34, the number of 30-day equivalent supplies equals one. If the days' supply reported on a PDE is greater than 34, the number of 30-day equivalent supplies is equal to the number of days' supply reported on each PDE divided by 30.
(3) Top 1 percent. CMS determines the amount that equals the lowest 30-day equivalent ingredient cost that is within the top 1 percent of all 30-day equivalent ingredient costs reflected in the PDE data.
(4) Determination. Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2)(iv)(B) of this section, the amount determined in paragraph (d)(2)(iv)(A)(3) of this section is the specialty-tier cost threshold for the plan year.
(5) Claims history. Except for newly FDA-approved Part D drugs only recently available on the market for which Part D sponsors would have little or no claims data, CMS approves placement of a Part D drug on a specialty tier when that Part D sponsor's claims data from the time period specified in paragraph (d)(2)(iv)(C) of this section demonstrates that greater than 50 percent of the Part D sponsor's PDEs for a given Part D drug, when adjusted for 30-day equivalent supplies, have ingredient costs for 30-day equivalent supplies, as described in paragraph (d)(2)(iv)(A)(2) of this section, that exceed the specialty-tier cost threshold.
(6) No claims history. For newly FDA-approved Part D drugs only recently available on the market for which Part D sponsors would have little or no claims data, CMS approves placement of a Part D drug on a specialty tier when that Part D sponsor estimates that ingredient cost portion of their negotiated prices for a 30-day equivalent supply, as defined in subparagraph (d)(2)(iv)(A)(2), is anticipated to exceed the specialty-tier cost threshold more than 50 percent of the time, subject to the requirements at §§ 423.120(b), (e), and (f).
(B) Limit on specialty-tier cost threshold adjustment. (1) CMS modifies the specialty-tier cost threshold for a plan year only if the amount determined in paragraph (d)(2)(iv)(A)(3) of this section for a plan year is at least 10 percent above or below the specialty tier cost threshold for the prior plan year.
(2) If a modification is made in accordance with this paragraph (d)(2)(iv)(B), CMS rounds the amount determined in paragraph (d)(2)(iv)(A)(3) of this section to the nearest $10, and the resulting dollar amount is the specialty-tier cost threshold for the plan year.
(C) Data used to determine the specialty-tier cost threshold. CMS uses PDEs from the plan year that ended 12 months prior to the applicable plan year.
(D) Maximum number of specialty tiers and maximum allowable cost sharing. A Part D plan may maintain up to two specialty tiers. CMS sets the maximum allowable cost sharing for a single specialty tier, or, in the case of a plan with two specialty tiers, the higher cost sharing specialty tier as follows:
(1) For Part D plans with the full deductible provided under the Defined Standard benefit, as specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, 25 percent coinsurance.
(2) For Part D plans with no deductible, 33 percent coinsurance.
(3) For Part D plans with a deductible that is greater than $0 and less than the deductible provided under the Defined Standard benefit, the maximum coinsurance percentage is determined as follows:
(i) For years preceding 2025, subtracting the plan's deductible from 33 percent of the initial coverage limit (ICL) under section 1860D-2(b)(3) of the Act, dividing this difference by the difference between the ICL and the plan's deductible, and rounding to the nearest 1 percent.
(ii) For 2025 and each subsequent year, dividing the annual out-of-pocket (OOP) threshold, described in paragraph (d)(5)(iii) of this section, by total drug costs (represented by subtracting the plan deductible from the annual OOP threshold then dividing by the intended specialty-tier coinsurance percentage and adding the plan deductible) such that the result is 33 percent. Using the following equation solved for the deductible, each maximum allowable specialty-tier coinsurance percentage point can be inserted to determine the maximum allowable deductible corresponding to that coinsurance.
Equation 1 to Paragraph (d)(2)(iv)(D)(3)(ii)
(3) Initial coverage limit. The initial coverage limit is equal to one of the following:
(i) For 2006. $2,250.
(ii) For years 2007 through 2024. The amount specified in this paragraph (d)(3) for the previous year, increased by the annual percentage increase specified in paragraph (d)(5)(iv) of this section, and rounded to the nearest multiple of $10.
(iii) For year 2025 and each subsequent year. There is no initial coverage limit.
(4) Cost-sharing in the coverage gap for applicable beneficiaries. For a year preceding 2025, cost-sharing in the coverage gap for applicable beneficiaries is as follows:
(i) Coinsurance in the coverage gap (as defined in § 423.100) for costs for covered Part D drugs that are not applicable drugs (as defined in § 423.100) under the Medicare coverage gap discount program that is—
(A) Equal to the generic gap coinsurance percentage described in paragraph (d)(4)(iii) of this section; or
(B) Actuarially equivalent to an average expected coinsurance for covered Part D drugs that are not applicable drugs under the Medicare coverage gap discount program, as determined through processes and methods established under § 423.265 (c) and (d).
(ii) Coinsurance in the coverage gap for the actual cost minus the dispensing fee and any vaccine administration fee for covered Part D drugs that are applicable drugs under the Medicare coverage gap discount program that is—
(A) Equal to the difference between the applicable gap coinsurance percentage described in paragraph (d)(4)(iv) of this section and the discount percentage determined under the Medicare coverage gap discount program; or
(B) Actuarially equivalent to an average expected coinsurance for covered Part D drugs that are applicable drugs under the Medicare coverage gap discount program, as determined through processes and methods established under § 423.265 (c) and (d).
(iii) Generic gap coinsurance percentage. The generic gap coinsurance percentage is equal to—
(A) For 2011, 93 percent.
(B) For years 2012 through 2019, the amount specified in this paragraph for the previous year, decreased by 7 percentage points.
(C) For 2020 through 2024, 25 percent.
(iv) Applicable gap coinsurance percentage. The applicable gap coinsurance percentage is equal to—
(A) For 2013 and 2014, 97.5 percent.
(B) For 2015 and 2016, 95 percent.
(C) For 2017, 90 percent.
(D) For 2018, 85 percent.
(E) For 2019 through 2024, 75 percent.
(v) For 2025 and each subsequent year, there is no coverage gap.
(5) Protection against high out-of-pocket expenditures.
(i) After an enrollee's incurred costs exceed the annual out-of-pocket threshold described in paragraph (d)(5)(iii) of this section, for 2024 and each subsequent year, cost-sharing equal to $0, and for each year preceding 2024, cost-sharing equal to the greater of—
(A) Copayments. (1) In 2006, $2 for a generic drug or preferred drug that is a multiple source drug (as defined in section 1927(k)(7)(A)(i) of the Act) and $5 for any other drug; and
(2) For subsequent years through 2023, the copayment amounts specified in this paragraph (d)(5)(i)(A) for the previous year increased by the annual percentage increase described in paragraph (d)(5)(iv) of this section and rounded to the nearest multiple of 5 cents; or
(B) Coinsurance. Coinsurance of five percent of actual cost.
(ii) As determined through processes and methods established under § 423.265(c) and (d), a Part D plan may substitute for cost-sharing under paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section an amount that is actuarially equivalent to expected cost-sharing under paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section.
(iii) Annual out-of-pocket threshold. For purposes of this part, the annual out-of-pocket threshold equals—
(A) For 2006. $3,600.
(B) For each year 2007 through 2013. The amount specified in this paragraph for the previous year, increased by the annual percentage increase specified in paragraph (d)(5)(iv) of this section, and rounded to the nearest multiple of $50.
(C) For years 2014 and 2015. The amount specified in this paragraph for the previous year, increased by the annual percentage increase specified in paragraph (d)(5)(iv) of this section, minus 0.25 percentage point.
(D) For each year 2016 through 2019. The amount specified in this paragraph for the previous year, increased by the lesser of—
(1) The annual percentage increase specified in (d)(5)(v) of this section plus 2 percentage points; or
(2) The annual percentage increase specified in (d)(5)(iv) of this section.
(E) For 2020. The amount specified in this paragraph for 2013 increased by the annual percentage increases specified in paragraph (d)(5)(iv) of this section for 2014 through 2020, and rounded to the nearest $50.
(F) For 2021 through 2024. The amount specified in this paragraph (d)(5)(iii) for the previous year, increased by the annual percentage increase specified in paragraph (d)(5)(iv) of this section, and rounded to the nearest $50.
(G) For 2025. $2,000.
(H) For 2026 and each subsequent year. The amount specified in this paragraph (d)(5)(iii) for the previous year, increased by the annual percentage increase specified in paragraph (d)(5)(iv) of this section, and rounded to the nearest $50.
(iv) Annual percentage increase in Part D drug expenditures—(A) General. The annual percentage increase for each year is equal to the annual percentage increase in average per capita aggregate expenditures for Part D drugs in the United States for Part D eligible individuals and is based on data for the 12-month period ending in July of the previous year.
(B) Calculating the annual percentage increase. The annual percentage increase is the product of the annual percentage trend (as defined in paragraph (d)(5)(iv)(C) of this section) and a multiplicative update (as defined in paragraph (d)(5)(iv)(D) of this section).
(C) Annual percentage trend. The annual percentage trend for a given year is the ratio of total Part D drug expenditures in the previous year (numerator) to the total Part D drug expenditures 2 years prior to the given year (denominator).
(D) Multiplicative update. The multiplicative update for a given year is the ratio of the product of the annual percentage trends for all prior recorded years as revised and updated with the most recently available data (numerator) to the product of annual percentage trends in prior recorded years as published in the previous year's rate announcement (denominator).
(v) Additional annual percentage increase. The annual percentage increase for each year is equal to the annual percentage increase in the consumer price index for all urban consumers (United States city average) for the 12-month period ending in July of the previous year.
(e) Alternative prescription drug coverage. Alternative prescription drug coverage includes access to negotiated prices as described under paragraph (g)(1) of this section, provides coverage of Part D drugs, and must meet the following requirements—
(1) Has an annual deductible that does not exceed the annual deductible specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section;
(2) Imposes cost-sharing no greater than that specified in paragraphs (d)(5)(i) or (ii) of this section once the annual out-of-pocket threshold described in paragraph (d)(5)(iii) of this section is met;
(3) Has a total or gross value that is at least equal to the total or gross value of defined standard coverage.
(4) Has an unsubsidized value that is at least equal to the unsubsidized value of standard prescription drug coverage. For purposes of this subparagraph, the unsubsidized value of coverage is the amount by which the actuarial value of the coverage exceeds the actuarial value of the subsidy payments under § 423.782 for the coverage; and
(5) Provides coverage that is designed, based upon an actuarially representative pattern of utilization, to provide for the payment, for costs incurred for covered Part D drugs, that are equal to the initial coverage limit under paragraph (d)(3) of this section for a year preceding 2025, or the annual out-of-pocket threshold specified in paragraph (d)(5)(iii) for the year for 2025 and each subsequent year, of an amount equal to at least the product of the following:
(i) The amount by which the initial coverage limit described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section for the year, for a year preceding 2025, or the annual out-of-pocket threshold described in paragraph (d)(5)(iii) for the year for 2025 and each subsequent year, exceeds the deductible described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
(ii) 100 percent minus the coinsurance percentage specified in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.
(f) Enhanced alternative coverage. (1) Enhanced alternative coverage must meet the requirements under paragraph (e) of this section and includes-
(i) Basic prescription drug coverage, as defined in § 423.100; and
(ii) Supplemental benefits, which include-
(A) Coverage of drugs that are specifically excluded as Part D drugs under paragraph (2)(ii) of the definition of Part D drug under § 423.100; or
(B) Any of the following changes or combination of changes that increase the actuarial value of benefits under the Part D plan above the actuarial value of defined standard prescription drug coverage, as determined through processes and methods established under § 423.265—
(1) A reduction in the annual deductible described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section;
(2) A reduction in the cost-sharing described in paragraphs (d)(2) or (d)(5) of this section, or
(3) For a year preceding 2025, an increase in the initial coverage limit described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
(C) Both the coverage described in paragraph (f)(1)(ii)(A) of this section and the changes or combination of changes described in paragraph (f)(1)(ii)(B) of this section.
(2) Restrictions on the offering of enhanced alternative coverage by PDP sponsors. A PDP sponsor may not offer enhanced alternative coverage in a service area unless the PDP sponsor also offers a prescription drug plan in that service area that provides basic prescription drug coverage.
(3) Restrictions on the offering of enhanced alternative coverage by MA organizations. Effective January 1, 2006, an MA organization—
(i) May not offer an MA coordinated care plan, as defined in § 422.4 of this chapter, in an area unless either that plan (or another MA plan offered by the MA organization in that same service area) includes required prescription drug coverage; and
(ii) May not offer prescription drug coverage (other than that required under Parts A and B of title XVIII of the Act) to an enrollee—
(A) Under an MSA plan, as defined in § 422.2 of this chapter; or
(B) Under another MA plan (including a private fee-for-service plan, as defined in § 422.4 of this chapter) unless the drug coverage under the other plan provides qualified prescription drug coverage and unless the requirements of paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section are met.
(4) Restrictions on the offering of enhanced alternative coverage by cost plans. (i) A cost plan that elects to offer qualified prescription drug coverage may offer enhanced alternative coverage as an optional supplemental benefit under § 417.440(b)(2)(ii) of this chapter only if the cost plan also offers basic prescription drug coverage. An enrollee in the cost plan may, at the individual's option, elect whether to receive qualified prescription drug coverage under the cost plan and, if so, whether to receive basic prescription drug coverage or, if offered by the cost plan, enhanced alternative coverage.
(ii) A cost plan that offers qualified prescription drug coverage as an optional supplemental benefit under § 417.440(b)(2)(ii) of this chapter may not offer prescription drug coverage that is not qualified prescription drug coverage. A cost plan that does not offer qualified prescription drug coverage under § 417.440(b)(2)(ii) of this chapter may offer prescription drug coverage that is not qualified prescription drug coverage under § 417.440(b)(2)(i) of this chapter.
(g) Negotiated prices—(1) Access to negotiated prices. A Part D sponsor is required to provide its Part D enrollees with access to negotiated prices for covered Part D drugs included in its Part D plan's formulary. Negotiated prices must be provided even if no benefits are payable to the beneficiary for covered Part D drugs because of the application of any deductible or 100 percent coinsurance requirement following satisfaction of any initial coverage limit. Negotiated prices must be provided when the negotiated price for a covered Part D drug under a Part D sponsor's benefit package is less than the applicable cost-sharing before the application of any deductible, before any initial coverage limit, before the annual out-of-pocket threshold, and after the annual out-of-pocket threshold.
(2) Interaction with Medicaid best price. Prices negotiated with a pharmaceutical manufacturer, including discounts, subsidies, rebates, and other price concessions, for covered Part D drugs by the following entities are not taken into account in establishing Medicaid's best price under section 1927(c)(1)(C) of the Act—
(i) A Part D plan, as defined in § 423.4; or
(iii) A qualified retiree prescription drug plan (as defined in § 423.882) for Part D eligible individuals.
(3) Disclosure. (i) A Part D sponsor is required to disclose to CMS data on aggregate negotiated price concessions obtained from pharmaceutical manufacturers, as well as data on aggregate negotiated price concessions obtained from pharmaceutical manufacturers that are passed through to beneficiaries, via pharmacies and other dispensers, in the form of lower subsidies paid by CMS on behalf of low-income individuals described in § 423.782, or in the form of lower monthly beneficiary premiums or lower covered Part D drug prices at the point of sale.
(ii) Information on negotiated prices disclosed to CMS under paragraph (g)(3) of this section is protected under the confidentiality provisions applicable under section 1927(b)(3)(D) of the Act.
(4) Audits. CMS and the Office of the Inspector General may conduct periodic audits of the financial statements and all records of Part D sponsors pertaining to any qualified prescription drug coverage they may offer under a Part D plan.
(h) Valid prescription. A Part D sponsor may only provide benefits for Part D drugs that require a prescription if those drugs are dispensed upon a valid prescription.
(i) Daily cost-sharing rate. Beginning January 1, 2014, a Part D sponsor is required to provide its enrollees access to a daily cost-sharing rate in accordance with § 423.153(b)(4).
(j) Drugs not subject to the defined standard deductible. (1) If a beneficiary has not satisfied their plan deductible but has accumulated sufficient incurred costs, as defined at § 423.100, to satisfy the deductible provided under the Defined Standard benefit, then they will be both an applicable beneficiary under the Manufacturer Discount Program, as defined at § 423.100, and be deemed to have satisfied their plan deductible.
(2) If a plan offers a deductible other than the deductible provided under the Defined Standard benefit and a beneficiary accumulates sufficient incurred costs, as defined at § 423.100, to satisfy the plan deductible but has not accumulated incurred costs across all drugs at or above the deductible provided under the Defined Standard benefit, then applicable discounts, as defined at § 423.2712, under the Manufacturer Discount Program are not available for that beneficiary and the plan must cover the portion of the costs that would be covered by the applicable discount if the beneficiary were an applicable beneficiary until the beneficiary's incurred costs exceed the deductible provided under the Defined Standard benefit and they become an applicable beneficiary.
(3) If a plan offers a deductible other than the deductible provided under the Defined Standard benefit and a beneficiary accumulates sufficient incurred costs, as defined at § 423.100, to satisfy the plan deductible but has not accumulated incurred costs across all drugs at or above the deductible provided under the Defined Standard benefit, then the selected drug subsidy is not available for that beneficiary and the plan must cover the portion of the costs that would be covered by the selected drug subsidy, as described at § 423.329(e), if the beneficiary were an applicable beneficiary until the beneficiary's incurred costs exceed the deductible provided under the Defined Standard benefit and they become an applicable beneficiary.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 1544, Jan. 12, 2009; 75 FR 19816, Apr. 15, 2010; 76 FR 21571, Apr. 15, 2011; 77 FR 22169, Apr. 12, 2012; 80 FR 7963, Feb. 12, 2015; 86 FR 6115, Jan. 19, 2021; 89 FR 30833, Apr. 23, 2024; 91 FR 17586, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.112 Establishment of prescription drug plan service areas.
(a) Service area for prescription drug plan sponsors. The service area for a prescription drug plan sponsor other than a fallback prescription drug plan sponsor consists of one or more PDP regions as established under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
(b) Establishment of PDP regions—(1) General. CMS establishes PDP regions in a manner consistent with the requirements for the establishment of MA regions as described at § 422.455 of this chapter.
(2) Relation to MA regions. To the extent practicable, PDP regions are the same as MA regions. CMS may establish PDP regions that are not the same as MA regions if CMS determines that the establishment of these regions improves access to prescription drug plan benefits for Part D eligible individuals.
(c) Authority for territories. CMS establishes a PDP region or regions for States that are not within the 50 States and the District of Columbia.
(d) Revision of PDP regions. CMS may revise the PDP regions established under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
(e) Regional or national plan. Nothing in this section prevents a prescription drug plan from being offered in two or more PDP regions in their entirety or in all PDP regions in their entirety.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 19816, Apr. 15, 2010]
§ 423.120 Access to covered Part D drugs.
(a) Assuring pharmacy access—(1) Standards for convenient access to network pharmacies. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(7) of this section, a Part D sponsor (as defined in § 423.4 of this part) must have a contracted pharmacy network consisting of retail pharmacies sufficient to ensure that, for beneficiaries residing in each State in a PDP sponsor's service area (as defined in § 423.112(a) of this part), each State in a regional MA-organization's service area (as defined in § 422.2 of this part), the entire service area of a local MA organization (as defined in § 422.2 of this chapter) or the entire geographic area of a cost contract (as defined in § 417.401 of this chapter) all of the following requirements are satisfied:
(i) At least 90 percent of Medicare beneficiaries, on average, in urban areas served by the Part D sponsor live within 2 miles of a network pharmacy that is a retail pharmacy or a pharmacy described under paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
(ii) At least 90 percent of Medicare beneficiaries, on average, in suburban areas served by the Part D sponsor live within 5 miles of a network pharmacy that is a retail pharmacy or a pharmacy described under paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
(iii) At least 70 percent of Medicare beneficiaries, on average, in rural areas served by the Part D sponsor live within 15 miles of a network pharmacy that is a retail pharmacy or a pharmacy described under paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
(2) Applicability of some non-retail pharmacies to standards for convenient access. Part D sponsors may count I/T/U pharmacies and pharmacies operated by Federally Qualified Health Centers and Rural Health Centers toward the standards for convenient access to network pharmacies in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
(3) Access to non-retail pharmacies. A Part D sponsor's contracted pharmacy network may be supplemented by non-retail pharmacies, including pharmacies offering home delivery via mail-order and institutional pharmacies, provided the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section are met.
(4) Access to home infusion pharmacies. A Part D sponsor's contracted pharmacy network must provide adequate access to home infusion pharmacies consistent with written policy guidelines and other CMS instructions. A Part D plan must ensure that such network pharmacies, at a minimum meet all the following requirements:
(i) Are capable of delivering home-infused drugs in a form that can be administered in a clinically appropriate fashion.
(ii) Are capable of providing infusible Part D drugs for both short-term acute care and long-term chronic care therapies.
(iii) Ensure that the professional services and ancillary supplies necessary for home infusion therapy are in place before dispensing Part D home infusion drugs.
(iv) Provide delivery of home infusion drugs within 24 hours of discharge from an acute care setting, or later if so prescribed.
(5) Access to long-term care pharmacies. A Part D sponsor must offer standard contracting terms and conditions, including performance and service criteria for long-term care pharmacies that CMS specifies, to all long-term care pharmacies in its service area. The sponsor must provide convenient access to long-term care pharmacies consistent with written policy guidelines and other CMS instructions.
(6) Access to I/T/U pharmacies. A Part D sponsor must offer standard contracting terms and conditions conforming to the model addendum that CMS develops, to all I/T/U pharmacies in its service area. The sponsor must provide convenient access to I/T/U pharmacies consistent with written policy guidelines and other CMS instructions.
(7) Waiver of pharmacy access requirements. CMS waives the requirements under paragraph (a)(1) of this section in the case of either of the following:
(i) An MA organization or cost contract (as described in section 1876(h) of the Act) that provides its enrollees with access to covered Part D drugs through pharmacies owned and operated by the MA organization or cost contract, provided the organization's or plan's pharmacy network meets the access standard set forth—
(A) At § 422.112 of this chapter for an MA organization; or
(B) At § 417.416(e) of this chapter for a cost contract.
(ii) An MA organization offering a private fee-for-service plan described in § 422.4 of this chapter that—
(A) Offers qualified prescription drug coverage; and
(B) Provides plan enrollees with access to covered Part D drugs dispensed at all pharmacies, without regard to whether they are contracted network pharmacies and without charging cost-sharing in excess of that described in § 423.104(d)(2) and (d)(5).
(8) Pharmacy network contracting requirements. In establishing its contracted pharmacy network, a Part D sponsor offering qualified prescription drug coverage—
(i) Must contract with any pharmacy that meets the Part D sponsor's standard terms and conditions;
(ii) May not require a pharmacy to accept insurance risk as a condition of participation in the Part D sponsor's contracted pharmacy network; and
(iii) May not prohibit a pharmacy from, nor penalize a pharmacy for, informing a Part D plan enrollee of the availability at that pharmacy of a prescribed medication at a cash price that is below the amount that the enrollee would be charged to obtain the same medication through the enrollee's Part D plan.
(9) Differential cost-sharing for preferred pharmacies. A Part D sponsor offering a Part D plan that provides coverage other than defined standard coverage may reduce copayments or coinsurance for covered Part D drugs obtained through a preferred pharmacy relative to the copayments or coinsurance applicable for such drugs when obtained through a non-preferred pharmacy. Such differentials are taken into account in determining whether the requirements under § 423.104(d)(2) and (d)(5) and § 423.104(e) are met. Any cost-sharing reduction under this section must not increase CMS payments to the Part D plan under § 423.329.
(10) Level playing field between mail-order and network pharmacies. A Part D sponsor must permit its Part D plan enrollees to receive benefits, which may include a 90-day supply of covered Part D drugs, at any of its network pharmacies that are retail pharmacies. A Part D sponsor may require an enrollee obtaining a covered Part D drug at a network pharmacy that is a retail pharmacy to pay any higher cost-sharing applicable to that covered Part D drug at the network pharmacy that is a retail pharmacy instead of the cost-sharing applicable to that covered Part D drug at the network pharmacy that is a mail-order pharmacy.
(b) Formulary requirements. A Part D sponsor that uses a formulary under its qualified prescription drug coverage must meet the following requirements—
(1) Development and revision by a pharmacy and therapeutic committee. A Part D sponsor's formulary must be developed and reviewed by a pharmacy and therapeutic committee that—
(i) Includes a majority of members who are practicing physicians and/or practicing pharmacists.
(ii) Includes at least one practicing physician and at least one practicing pharmacist who are independent and free of conflict relative to-
(A) The Part D sponsor and Part D plan; and
(B) Pharmaceutical manufacturers.
(iii) Includes at least one practicing physician and one practicing pharmacist who are experts regarding care of elderly or disabled individuals.
(iv) Clearly articulates and documents processes to determine that the requirements under paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section have been met, including the determination by an objective party of whether disclosed financial interests are conflicts of interest and the management of any recusals due to such conflicts.
(v) Bases clinical decisions on the strength of scientific evidence and standards of practice, including assessing peer-reviewed medical literature, pharmacoeconomic studies, outcomes research data, and other such information as it determines appropriate.
(vi) Considers whether the inclusion of a particular Part D drug in a formulary or formulary tier has any therapeutic advantages in terms of safety and efficacy.
(vii) Reviews policies that guide exceptions and other utilization management processes, including drug utilization review, quantity limits, generic substitution, and therapeutic interchange.
(viii) Evaluates and analyzes treatment protocols and procedures related to the plan's formulary at least annually consistent with written policy guidelines and other CMS instructions.
(ix) Documents in writing its decisions regarding formulary development and revision and utilization management activities.
(x) Reviews and approves all clinical prior authorization criteria, step therapy protocols, and quantity limit restrictions applied to each covered Part D drug.
(xi) Meets other requirements consistent with written policy guidelines and other CMS instructions.
(2) Provision of an Adequate Formulary. A Part D plan's formulary must—
(i) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii) and (v) of this section, include within each therapeutic category and class of Part D drugs at least two Part D drugs that are not therapeutically equivalent and bioequivalent, with different strengths and dosage forms available for each of those drugs, except that only one Part D drug must be included in a particular category or class of covered Part D drugs if the category or class includes only one Part D drug.
(ii) Include at least one Part D drug within a particular category or class of Part D drugs to the extent the Part D plan demonstrates, and CMS approves, the following-
(A) That only two drugs are available in that category or class of Part D drugs; and
(B) That one drug is clinically superior to the other drug in that category or class of Part D drugs.
(iii) Include adequate coverage of the types of drugs most commonly needed by Part D enrollees, as recognized in national treatment guidelines.
(iv) Be approved by CMS consistent with § 423.272(b)(2).
(v) Until such time as there are established, through notice and comment rulemaking, criteria to identify, as appropriate, categories and classes of clinical concern, the categories and classes of clinical concern are as specified in section 1860D-4(b)(3)(G)(iv) of the Act.
(vi) Exceptions to paragraph (b)(2)(v) of this section are as follows:
(A) Drug or biological products that are rated as either of the following:
(1) Therapeutically equivalent (under the Food and Drug Administration's most recent publication of “Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations,” also known as the Orange Book).
(2) Interchangeable (under the Food and Drug Administration's most recent publication of the Purple Book: Lists of Licensed Biological Products with Reference Product Exclusivity and Biosimilarity or Interchangeability Evaluations).
(B) Utilization management processes that limit the quantity of drugs due to safety.
(C) Subject to CMS review and approval, for enrollees that are not on existing therapy on the protected class Part D drug, and except for antiretroviral medications, prior authorization and step therapy requirements to confirm intended use is for a protected class indication, to ensure clinically appropriate use, to promote utilization of preferred formulary alternatives, or a combination thereof.
(D) Other drugs that CMS specifies through a process that is based upon scientific evidence and medical standards of practice (and, in the case of antiretroviral medications, is consistent with the Department of Health and Human Services Guidelines for the Use of Antiretroviral Agents in HIV-1-Infected Adults and Adolescents) and which permits public notice and comment.
(3) Transition process. A Part D sponsor must provide for an appropriate transition process for enrollees prescribed Part D drugs that are not on its Part D plan's formulary (including Part D drugs that are on a sponsor's formulary but require prior authorization or step therapy under a plan's utilization management rules). The transition process must:
(i)(A) Be applicable to all of the following:
(1) New enrollees into Part D plans following the annual coordinated election period.
(2) Newly eligible Medicare enrollees from other coverage.
(3) Individuals who switch from one plan to another after the start of the contract year.
(4) Current enrollees remaining in the plan affected by formulary changes.
(B) Not apply in cases of immediate changes as permitted under paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
(ii) Ensure access to a temporary supply of drugs within the first 90 days of coverage under a new plan. This 90 day timeframe applies to retail, home infusion, long-term care and mail-order pharmacies,
(iii) Ensure the provision of a temporary fill when an enrollee requests a fill of a non-formulary drug during the time period specified in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section (including Part D drugs that are on a plan's formulary but require prior authorization or step therapy under a plan's utilization management rules) by providing a one-time, temporary supply of at least an approved month's supply of medication, unless the prescription is written by a prescriber for less than an approved month's supply and requires the Part D sponsor to allow multiple fills to provide up to a total of an approved month's supply of medication.
(iv) Ensure written notice is provided to each affected enrollee within 3 business days after adjudication of the temporary fill. For long-term care residents dispensed multiple supplies of a Part D drug, in increments of 14-days-or-less, consistent with the requirements under § 423.154, the written notice must be provided within 3 business days after adjudication of the first temporary fill.
(v) Ensure that reasonable efforts are made to notify prescribers of affected enrollees who receive a transition notice under paragraph (b)(3)(iv) of this section.
(vi) A Part D sponsor must charge cost sharing for a temporary supply of drugs provided under its transition process such that the following conditions are met:
(A) For low-income subsidy (LIS) enrollees, a sponsor must not charge higher cost sharing for transition supplies than the statutory maximum copayment amounts.
(B) For non-LIS enrollees, a sponsor must charge—
(1) The same cost sharing for non-formulary Part D drugs provided during the transition that would apply for non-formulary drugs approved through a formulary exception in accordance with § 423.578(b); and
(2) The same cost sharing for formulary drugs subject to utilization management edits provided during the transition that would apply once the utilization management criteria are met.
(4) Limitation on changes in therapeutic classification. Except as CMS may permit to account for new therapeutic uses and newly approved Part D drugs, a Part D sponsor may not change the therapeutic categories and classes in a formulary other than at the beginning of each plan year.
(5) Notice of formulary changes. Part D sponsors must provide notice of changes to CMS-approved formularies as specified in § 423.120(f).
(6) Changes to CMS-approved formularies. Changes to CMS-approved formularies may be made only in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
(7) Provider and patient education. A Part D sponsor must establish policies and procedures to educate and inform health care providers and enrollees concerning its formulary.
(c) Use of standardized technology. (1) A Part D sponsor must issue and reissue, as necessary, a card or other type of technology that its enrollees may use to access negotiated prices for covered Part D drugs as provided under § 423.104(g). The card or other technology must comply with standards CMS establishes.
(2) When processing Part D claims, a Part D sponsor or its intermediary must comply with the electronic transaction standards established by 45 CFR 162.1102. CMS will issue guidance on the use of conditional fields within such standards.
(3) A Part D sponsor must require its network pharmacies to submit claims to the Part D sponsor or its intermediary whenever the card described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section is presented or on file at the pharmacy unless the enrollee expressly requests that a particular claim not be submitted to the Part D sponsor or its intermediary.
(4) Beginning January 1, 2012, a part D sponsor must assign and exclusively use a unique—
(i) Part D BIN or RxBIN and Part D processor control number (RxPCN) combination in its Medicare line of business; and
(ii) Part D cardholder identification number (RxID) to each Medicare Part D enrollee to clearly identify Medicare Part D beneficiaries.
(5)(i) A Part D plan sponsor must reject, or must require its pharmacy benefit manager (PBM) to reject, a pharmacy claim for a Part D drug unless the claim contains the active and valid National Provider Identifier (NPI) of the prescriber who prescribed the drug.
(ii) The sponsor must communicate at point-of sale whether or not a submitted NPI is active and valid in accordance with this paragraph (c)(5)(ii).
(A) If the sponsor communicates that the NPI is not active and valid, the sponsor must permit the pharmacy to—
(1) Confirm that the NPI is active and valid; or
(2) Correct the NPI.
(B) If the pharmacy confirms that the NPI is active and valid or corrects the NPI, the sponsor must pay the claim if it is otherwise payable.
(iii) A Part D sponsor must not later recoup payment from a network pharmacy for a claim that does not contain an active and valid individual prescriber NPI on the basis that it does not contain one, unless the sponsor—
(A) Has complied with paragraph (c)(5)(ii) of this section;
(B) Has verified that a submitted NPI was not in fact active and valid; and
(C) The agreement between the parties explicitly permits such recoupment.
(iv) With respect to requests for reimbursement submitted by Medicare beneficiaries, a Part D sponsor may not make payment to a beneficiary dependent upon the sponsor's acquisition of an active and valid individual prescriber NPI, unless there is an indication of fraud. If the sponsor is unable to retrospectively acquire an active and valid individual prescriber NPI, the sponsor may not seek recovery of any payment to the beneficiary solely on that basis.
(6)(i) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(6)(iv) of this section, a Part D sponsor must reject, or must require its PBM to reject, a pharmacy claim for a Part D drug if the individual who prescribed the drug is included on the preclusion list, defined in § 423.100.
(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(6)(iv) of this section, a Part D sponsor must deny, or must require its PBM to deny, a request for reimbursement from a Medicare beneficiary if the request pertains to a Part D drug that was prescribed by an individual who is identified by name in the request and who is included on the preclusion list, defined in § 423.100.
(iii) A Part D plan sponsor may not submit a prescription drug event (PDE) record to CMS unless it includes on the PDE record the active and valid individual NPI of the prescriber of the drug, and the prescriber is not included on the preclusion list, defined in § 423.100, for the date of service.
(iv) With respect to Part D prescribers who have been added to an updated preclusion list but are not currently excluded by the OIG, the Part D plan sponsor must do all of the following:
(A) Subject to all other Part D rules and plan coverage requirements, and no later than 30 days after the posting of this updated preclusion list, must provide an advance written notice to any beneficiary who has received a Part D drug prescribed by an individual added to the preclusion list in this update and whom the plan sponsor has identified during the applicable 30-day period.
(B)(1) Subject to paragraph (c)(6)(iv)(B)(2) of this section, must ensure that reasonable efforts are made to notify the individual described in paragraph (c)(6)(iv) of this section of a beneficiary who was sent a notice under paragraph (c)(6)(iv)(A) of this section.
(2) Paragraph (c)(6)(iv)(B)(1) of this section applies only upon a prescriber writing a prescription in Medicare Part D when:
(i) The plan sponsor has enough information on file to either copy the prescriber on the notification previously sent to the beneficiary or send a new notice informing the prescriber that they may not see plan beneficiaries due to their preclusion status; and
(ii) The claim is received after the claim denial or reject date in the preclusion file.
(C) Must not reject a pharmacy claim or deny a beneficiary request for reimbursement for a Part D drug prescribed by the prescriber, solely on the ground that they have been included in the updated preclusion list, in the 60-day period after the date it sent the notice described in paragraph (c)(6)(iv)(A) of this section.
(v)(A) CMS sends written notice to the prescriber via letter of his or her inclusion on the preclusion list. The notice must contain the reason for the inclusion on the preclusion list and inform the prescriber of his or her appeal rights. A prescriber may appeal his or her inclusion on the preclusion list under this section in accordance with part 498 of this chapter.
(B) If the prescriber's inclusion on the preclusion list is based on a contemporaneous Medicare revocation under § 424.535 of this chapter:
(1) The notice described in paragraph (c)(6)(v)(A) of this section must also include notice of the revocation, the reason(s) for the revocation, and a description of the prescriber's appeal rights concerning the revocation.
(2) The appeals of the prescriber's inclusion on the preclusion list and the prescriber's revocation must be filed jointly by the prescriber and, as applicable, considered jointly under part 498 of this chapter.
(C)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(6)(v)(C)(2) of this section, a prescriber will only be included on the preclusion list after the expiration of either of the following:
(i) If the prescriber does not file a reconsideration request under § 498.5(n)(1) of this chapter, the prescriber will be added to the preclusion list upon the expiration of the 60-day period in which the prescriber may request a reconsideration.
(ii) If the prescriber files a reconsideration request under § 498.5(n)(1) of this chapter, the prescriber will be added to the preclusion list effective on the date on which CMS, if applicable, denies the prescriber's reconsideration.
(2) An OIG excluded prescriber is added to the preclusion list effective on the date of the exclusion.
(vi) CMS has the discretion not to include a particular individual on (or if warranted, remove the individual from) the preclusion list should it determine that exceptional circumstances exist regarding beneficiary access to prescriptions. In making a determination as to whether such circumstances exist, CMS takes into account—
(A) The degree to which beneficiary access to Part D drugs would be impaired; and
(B) Any other evidence that CMS deems relevant to its determination.
(vii)(A) Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(6)(vii)(C) and (D) of this section, a prescriber who is revoked under § 424.535 of this chapter will be included on the preclusion list for the same length of time as the prescriber's reenrollment bar.
(B) Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(6)(vii)(C) and (D) of this section, a prescriber who is not enrolled in Medicare will be included on the preclusion list for the same length of time as the reenrollment bar that CMS could have imposed on the prescriber had the prescriber been enrolled and then revoked.
(C) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(6)(vii)(D) of this section, an individual, regardless of whether the individual is or was enrolled in Medicare, that is included on the preclusion list because of a felony conviction will remain on the preclusion list for a 10-year period, beginning on the date of the felony conviction, unless CMS determines that a shorter length of time is warranted. Factors that CMS considers in making such a determination are—
(1) The severity of the offense;
(2) When the offense occurred; and
(3) Any other information that CMS deems relevant to its determination.
(D) In cases where an individual is excluded by the OIG, the individual must remain on the preclusion list until the expiration of the CMS-imposed preclusion list period or reinstatement by the OIG, whichever occurs later.
(viii) Payment denials under paragraph (c)(6) of this section that are based upon the prescriber's inclusion on the preclusion list are not appealable by beneficiaries.
(d) Treatment of compounded drug products. With respect to multi-ingredient compounds, a Part D sponsor must—
(1) Make a determination as to whether the compound is covered under Part D.
(i) A compound that contains at least one ingredient covered under Part B as prescribed and dispensed or administered is considered a Part B compound, regardless of whether other ingredients in the compound are covered under Part B as prescribed and dispensed or administered.
(ii) Only compounds that contain at least one ingredient that independently meets the definition of a Part D drug, and that do not meet the criteria under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, may be covered under Part D. For purposes of this paragraph (d) these compounds are referred to as Part D compounds.
(iii) For a Part D compound to be considered on-formulary, all ingredients that independently meet the definition of a Part D drug must be considered on-formulary (even if the particular Part D drug would be considered off-formulary if it were provided separately—that is, not as part of the Part D compound).
(iv) For a Part D compound that is considered off-formulary—
(A) Transition rules apply such that all ingredients in the Part D compound that independently meet the definition of a Part D drug must become payable in the event of a transition fill under § 423.120(b)(3); and
(B) All ingredients that independently meet the definition of a Part D drug must be covered if an exception under § 423.578(b) is approved for coverage of the compound.
(2) Establish consistent rules for beneficiary payment liabilities for both ingredients of the Part D compound that independently meet the definition of a Part D drug and non-Part D ingredients.
(i) For low income subsidy beneficiaries the copayment amount is based on whether the most expensive ingredient that independently meets the definition of a Part D drug in the Part D compound is a generic or brand name drug (as described under § 423.782).
(ii) For any non-Part D ingredient of the Part D compound (including drugs described under § 423.104(f)(1)(ii)(A)), the Part D sponsor's contract with the pharmacy must prohibit balance billing the beneficiary for the cost of any such ingredients.
(e) Approval of changes to CMS-approved formularies. A Part D sponsor may not make any negative formulary changes to its CMS-approved formulary except as specified in this section.
(1) Negative change request. Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, prior to implementing a negative formulary change, Part D sponsors must submit to CMS, at a time and in a form and manner specified by CMS, a negative formulary change request.
(2) Exception for immediate negative formulary changes. A negative change request is not required in the following circumstances:
(i) Immediate substitutions. A Part D sponsor may make negative formulary changes to a brand name drug, a reference product, or a brand name biological product within 30 days of adding a corresponding drug to its formulary on the same or lower cost sharing tier and with the same or less restrictive formulary prior authorization (PA), step therapy (ST), or quantity limit (QL) requirements, so long as the Part D sponsor previously could not have included such corresponding drug on its formulary when it submitted its initial formulary for CMS approval consistent with paragraph (b)(2) of this section because such drug was not yet available on the market, and the Part D sponsor has provided advance general notice as specified in paragraph (f)(2) of this section.
(ii) Market withdrawals. A Part D sponsor may immediately remove from its formulary any Part D drugs withdrawn from sale by their manufacturer or that the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) determines to be withdrawn for safety or effectiveness reasons.
(3) Approval process for negative formulary changes—(i) Maintenance changes. Negative change requests for maintenance changes are deemed approved 30 days after submission unless CMS notifies the Part D sponsor otherwise.
(ii) Non-maintenance changes. Part D sponsors must not implement non-maintenance changes until they receive notice of approval from CMS. Affected enrollees are exempt from non-maintenance changes for the remainder of the contract year.
(4) Limitation on formulary changes prior to the beginning of a contract year. Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, a Part D sponsor may not make a negative formulary change that takes effect between the beginning of the annual coordinated election period described in § 423.38(b) and 60 days after the beginning of the contract year associated with that annual coordinated election period.
(f) Provision of notice regarding changes to CMS-approved formularies—
(1) Notice of negative formulary changes. Except as specified in paragraphs (f)(2) and (3) of this section, prior to making any negative formulary change, a Part D sponsor must provide notice to CMS and other specified entities at least 30 days prior to the date such change becomes effective, and must either: provide written notice to affected enrollees at least 30 days prior to the date the change becomes effective, or when an affected enrollee requests a refill of the Part D drug, provide such enrollee with an approved month's supply of the Part D drug under the same terms as previously allowed and written notice of the formulary change. The requirement to provide notice to CMS is satisfied upon a Part D sponsor's submission of a negative change request described in paragraph (e) of this section. The requirement to provide notice to other specified entities is satisfied by the Part D sponsor's compliance with § 423.128(d)(2).
(2) Advance general notice of immediate negative formulary changes. In the case of immediate negative formulary changes described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, a Part D sponsor must provide advance general notice to all current and prospective enrollees and other specified entities in its formulary and other applicable beneficiary communication materials advising that the Part D sponsor may make immediate negative formulary changes consistent with the requirements of paragraph (e)(2) at any time. Such advance general notice must include information about how to access the plan's online formulary; about how to contact the plan; and that written notice of any change made will describe the specific drugs involved. Advance general notice of immediate substitutions must also specify that the written notice will contain information on the steps that enrollees may take to request coverage determinations and exceptions. Advance general notice of immediate substitutions is provided to CMS during bid submission. Advance general notice of market withdrawals is provided to CMS in the advance notice of immediate negative formulary changes that Part D sponsors provide to enrollees and other specified entities required earlier in this paragraph (f)(2).
(3) Retrospective notice and update. In the case of a negative formulary change described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, the Part D sponsor must provide notice to other specified entities and written notice to affected enrollees as soon as possible, but no later than by the end of the month following any month in which the change takes effect. The requirement to provide notice to other specified entities is satisfied by the Part D sponsor's compliance with § 423.128(d)(2). Part D sponsors also must submit such changes to CMS, in a form and manner specified by CMS, in their next required or scheduled formulary update.
(4) Content of written notice: Any written notice required under this paragraph (other than advance general notice) must contain all of the following information:
(i) The name of the affected covered Part D drug.
(ii) Whether the plan is removing the covered Part D drug from the formulary, moving it to a higher cost-sharing tier, or adding or making more restrictive PA, ST, or QL requirements.
(iii) The reason for the negative formulary change.
(iv) Appropriate alternative drugs on the formulary in the same or a lower cost-sharing tier and the expected cost sharing for those drugs.
(v) For formulary changes other than those described in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section, the means by which enrollees may obtain a coverage determination under § 423.566, including an exception to a coverage rule under § 423.578.
(5) Notice of other formulary changes. Part D sponsors provide appropriate notice of all formulary changes other than negative formulary changes by providing—
(i) Advance general notice to all current and prospective enrollees, CMS, and other specified entities in formulary and other applicable beneficiary communication materials advising them that the Part D sponsor may make formulary changes other than negative formulary changes at any time and providing information about how to access the plan's online formulary and how to contact the plan; and
(ii) Notice of specific formulary changes to other specified entities by complying with § 423.128(d)(2) and to CMS by submitting such changes to CMS in their next required or scheduled formulary update.
(g) Coverage of ACIP-recommended adult vaccines. With respect to an ACIP-recommended adult vaccine, a Part D sponsor must—
(1) Not apply any deductible nor charge any cost sharing; and
(2) Once a new or revised recommendation is posted on the CDC website, provide coverage consistent with paragraph (g)(1) of this section for dates of service on or after the effective date of the ACIP recommendation, as defined at § 423.100.
(3) Apply the requirements in paragraphs (g)(1) and (2) of this section to ACIP-recommended adult vaccines obtained from either an in-network or out-of-network pharmacy or provider in accordance with § 423.124(a) and (c).
(h) Cost sharing for covered insulin products. With respect to a covered insulin product, as defined at § 423.100, covered under a PDP or an MA-PD plan prior to an enrollee reaching the annual out-of-pocket threshold, a Part D sponsor must do all of the following:
(1) Not apply a deductible.
(2) Ensure any enrollee cost sharing for each prescription fill up to a one-month supply does not exceed the covered insulin product applicable cost-sharing amount defined at § 423.100.
(3) Ensure any enrollee cost sharing for each prescription fill greater than a 1-month supply does not exceed the cumulative covered insulin product applicable cost-sharing amount (as defined in § 423.100) that would apply if the same days' supply was dispensed in the fewest number of 1-month supply increments necessary.
(4) Apply the requirements in paragraphs (h)(1) through (3) of this section to covered insulin products obtained from either an in-network or out-of-network pharmacy or provider.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 20506, Apr. 15, 2008; 74 FR 2888, Jan. 16, 2009; 75 FR 19816, Apr. 15, 2010; 75 FR 32860, June 10, 2010; 76 FR 21572, Apr. 15, 2011; 77 FR 22169, Apr. 12, 2012; 79 FR 29962, May 23, 2014; 80 FR 7963, Feb. 12, 2015; 80 FR 25966, May 6, 2015; 83 FR 16738, Apr. 16, 2018; 84 FR 15840, Apr. 16, 2019; 84 FR 23883, May 23, 2019; 84 FR 26579, June 7, 2019; 89 FR 30833, Apr. 23, 2024; 90 FR 15912, Apr. 15, 2025]
§ 423.124 Special rules for out-of-network access to covered Part D drugs at out-of-network pharmacies.
(a) Out-of-network access to covered part D drugs—(1) Out-of-network pharmacy access. A Part D sponsor must ensure that Part D enrollees have adequate access to covered Part D drugs dispensed at out-of-network pharmacies when the enrollees—
(i) Cannot reasonably be expected to obtain such drugs at a network pharmacy; and
(ii) Do not access covered Part D drugs at an out-of-network pharmacy on a routine basis.
(2) Physician's office access. A Part D sponsor must ensure that Part D enrollees have adequate access to vaccines and other covered Part D drugs appropriately dispensed and administered by a physician in a physician's office.
(b) Financial responsibility for out-of-network access to covered Part D drugs. A Part D sponsor that provides its Part D enrollees with coverage other than defined standard coverage may require its Part D enrollees accessing covered Part D drugs as provided in paragraph (a) of this section to assume financial responsibility for any differential between the out-of-network pharmacy's (or provider's) usual and customary price and the Part D sponsor's plan allowance, consistent with the requirements of §§ 423.104(d)(2)(i)(B) and 423.104(e).
(c) Limits on out-of-network access to covered Part D. A Part D sponsor must establish reasonable rules to appropriately limit out-of-network access to covered Part D drugs.
§ 423.128 Dissemination of Part D plan information.
(a) Detailed description. A Part D sponsor must disclose the information specified in paragraph (b) of this section in the manner specified by CMS—
(1) To each enrollee of a Part D plan offered by the Part D sponsor under this part, except as provided in paragraph (b)(11)(ii) of this section;
(2) In a clear, accurate, and standardized form; and
(3) At the time of enrollment and at least annually thereafter, by the first day of the annual coordinated election period.
(b) Content of Part D plan description. The Part D plan description must include the following information about the qualified prescription drug coverage offered under the Part D plan—
(1) Service area. The plan's service area.
(2) Benefits. The benefits offered under the plan, including—
(i) Applicable conditions and limitations.
(ii) Premiums.
(iii) Cost-sharing (such as copayments, deductibles, and coinsurance), and cost-sharing for subsidy eligible individuals.
(iv) Any other conditions associated with receipt or use of benefits.
(3) Cost-sharing. A description of how a Part D eligible individual may obtain more information on cost-sharing requirements, including tiered or other copayment levels applicable to each drug (or class of drugs), in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
(4) Formulary. Information about the plan's formulary, including-
(i) A list of drugs included on the plan's formulary;
(ii) The manner in which the formulary (including any tiered formulary structure and utilization management procedures used) functions;
(iii) The process for obtaining an exception to a plan's formulary or tiered cost-sharing structure; and
(iv) A description of how a Part D eligible individual may obtain additional information on the formulary, in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
(5) Access. The number, mix, and distribution (addresses) of network pharmacies from which enrollees may reasonably be expected to obtain covered Part D drugs and how the Part D sponsor meets the requirements of § 423.120(a)(1) for access to covered Part D drugs;
(6) Out-of-network coverage. Provisions for access to covered Part D drugs at out-of-network pharmacies, consistent with § 423.124(a).
(7) Grievance, coverage determination, and appeal procedures. All grievance, coverage determination, and appeal rights and procedures required under § 423.562 et. seq., including—
(i) Access to a uniform model form used to request a coverage determination under § 423.568 or § 423.570, and a uniform model form used to request a redetermination under § 423.582 or § 423.584, to the extent such uniform model forms have been approved for use by CMS;
(ii) Immediate access to the coverage determination and redetermination processes via an Internet Web site; and
(iii) A system that transmits codes to network pharmacies so that the network pharmacy is notified to populate and/or provide a printed notice at the point-of-sale to an enrollee explaining how the enrollee can request a coverage determination by contacting the plan sponsor's toll free customer service line or by accessing the plan sponsor's internet Web site.
(8) Quality assurance policies and procedures. A description of the quality assurance policies and procedures required under § 423.153(c), as well as the medication therapy management program required under § 423.153(d).
(9) Disenrollment rights and responsibilities.
(10) Potential for contract termination. The fact that a Part D sponsor may terminate or refuse to renew its contract, or reduce the service area included in its contract, and the effect that any of those actions may have on individuals enrolled in a Part D plan;
(11) Opioid information. (i) Beginning January 1, 2022, and subject to paragraph (b)(11)(ii) of this section, a Part D sponsor must disclose to each enrollee at least once per year the following:
(A) The risks associated with prolonged opioid use.
(B) Coverage of non-pharmacological therapies, devices, and non-opioid medications—
(1) In the case of an MA-PD, under such plan; and
(2) In the case of a PDP, under such plan and Medicare Parts A and B.
(ii) The Part D sponsor may elect to, in lieu of disclosing the information described in paragraph (b)(11)(i) of this section to each enrollee under each plan offered by the Part D sponsor under this part, disclose such information to a subset of enrollees, such as enrollees who have been prescribed an opioid in the previous 2-year period.
(c) Disclosure upon request of general coverage information, utilization, and grievance information. Upon request of a Part D eligible individual, a Part D sponsor must provide the following information—
(1) General coverage information. General coverage information, including—
(i) Enrollment procedures. Information and instructions on how to exercise election options under this part;
(ii) Rights. A general description of procedural rights (including grievance, coverage determination, reconsideration, exceptions, and appeals procedures) under this part;
(iii) Benefits. (A) Covered services under the Part D plan;
(B) Any beneficiary cost-sharing, such as deductibles, coinsurance, and copayment amounts, including cost-sharing for subsidy eligible individuals;
(C) Any maximum limitations on out-of-pocket expenses;
(D) The extent to which an enrollee may obtain benefits from out-of-network providers;
(E) The types of pharmacies that participate in the Part D plan's network and the extent to which an enrollee may select among those pharmacies; and
(F) The Part D plan's out-of-network pharmacy access policy.
(iv) Premiums;
(v) The Part D plan's formulary;
(vi) The Part D plan's service area; and
(vii) Quality and performance indicators for benefits under the Part D plan as determined by CMS.
(2) The procedures the Part D sponsor uses to control utilization of services and expenditures.
(3) The number of disputes, and the disposition in the aggregate, in a manner and form described by CMS. These disputes are categorized as—
(i) Grievances according to § 423.564;
(ii) Appeals according to § 423.580 et. seq.; and
(iii) Exceptions according to § 423.578.
(4) Financial condition of the Part D sponsor, including the most recently audited information regarding, at a minimum, a description of the financial condition of the Part D sponsor offering the Part D plan.
(d) Provision of specific information. Each Part D sponsor offering qualified prescription drug coverage under a Part D plan must have mechanisms for providing specific information on a timely basis to current and prospective enrollees upon request. These mechanisms must include—
(1) A toll-free customer call center that—
(i) Is open during usual business hours.
(A) For coverage beginning on and after January 1, 2022, is open at least from 8:00 a.m. to 8:00 p.m. in all regions served by the Part D plan, with the following exceptions:
(1) From October 1 through March 31 of the following year, a customer call center may be closed on Thanksgiving Day and Christmas Day so long as the interactive voice response (IVR) system or similar technology records messages from incoming callers and such messages are returned within one (1) business day.
(2) From April 1 through September 30, a customer call center may be closed any Federal holiday, Saturday, or Sunday, so long as the interactive voice response (IVR) system or similar technology records messages from incoming callers and such messages are returned within one (1) business day.
(B) For coverage beginning on and after January 1, 2022, any call center serving pharmacists or pharmacies must be open so long as any network pharmacy in that region is open.
(ii) Provides customer telephone service, including to pharmacists, in accordance with standard business practices.
(A) For coverage beginning on and after January 1, 2022, limits average hold time to 2 minutes. The hold time is defined as the time spent on hold by callers following the interactive voice response (IVR) system, touch-tone response system, or recorded greeting, before reaching a live person.
(B) For coverage beginning on and after January 1, 2022, answers 80 percent of incoming calls within 30 seconds after the interactive voice response (IVR), touch-tone response system, or recorded greeting interaction.
(C) For coverage beginning on and after January 1, 2022, limits the disconnect rate of all incoming calls to 5 percent. The disconnect rate is defined as the number of calls unexpectedly dropped divided by the total number of calls made to the customer call center.
(iii)(A) Provides interpreters for non-English speaking and limited English proficient (LEP) individuals.
(B) For coverage beginning on and after January 1, 2022, interpreters must be available for 80 percent of incoming calls requiring an interpreter within 8 minutes of reaching the customer service representative and be made available at no cost to the caller.
(iv) Provides immediate access to the coverage determination and redetermination processes.
(v) At a minimum, for coverage beginning on and after January 1, 2022:
(A) Provides effective real-time communication with individuals using auxiliary aids and services, including TTYs and all forms of Federal Communication Commission-approved telecommunications relay systems, when using automated-attendant systems. See 28 CFR 35.161 and 36.303(d).
(B) Establishes contact with a customer service representative within 7 minutes on no fewer than 80 percent of incoming calls requiring TTY services.
(vi) For coverage beginning on and after January 1, 2022, provides the information described in paragraph (d)(4) of this section to enrollees who call the customer service call center.
(2) An Internet website that—
(i) Includes, at a minimum, the information required in paragraph (b) of this section.
(ii) Includes a current formulary for its Part D plan, updated at least monthly.
(iii) Provides current and prospective Part D enrollees with notice that is timely under § 423.120(f) regarding any negative formulary changes on its Part D plan's formulary.
(3) The provision of information in writing, upon request.
(4) Beginning on January 1, 2023, a Part D sponsor must implement, and make available directly to enrollees, in an easy to understand manner, the following complete, accurate, timely, clinically appropriate, patient-specific formulary and benefit real-time information in their beneficiary-specific portal or computer application:
(i) Enrollee cost sharing amounts.
(ii) Formulary medication alternatives for a given condition.
(iii) Formulary status, including utilization management requirements applicable to each alternative medication, as appropriate for each enrollee and medication presented.
(5) The Part D sponsor may provide rewards and incentives to enrollees who use the beneficiary real time benefit tool (RTBT) described in paragraph (d)(4) of this section, provided the rewards and incentives comply with the requirements in paragraphs (d)(5)(i) through (vi) of this section, and the rewards and incentives information is made available to CMS upon request. Use is defined as logging into the RTBT, via portal or computer application, or calling the customer service call center to obtain the information described in paragraph (d)(4) of this section. The rewards and incentives must meet the following:
(i) Be of reasonable value, both individually and in the aggregate.
(ii) Be designed so that all enrollees are eligible to earn rewards and incentives, and that there is no discrimination based on race, color, national origin, including limited English proficiency, sex, age, disability, chronic disease, health status, or other prohibited basis.
(iii) Not be offered in the form of cash or other cash equivalents.
(iv) Not be used to target potential enrollees.
(v) Be earned solely for logging onto the beneficiary RTBT and not for any other purpose.
(vi) Otherwise comply with all relevant fraud and abuse laws, including, when applicable, the anti-kickback statute and civil money penalty prohibiting inducements to beneficiaries.
(e) Claims information. A Part D sponsor must furnish directly to enrollees, in the manner specified by CMS and in a form easily understandable to such enrollees, a written explanation of benefits when prescription drug benefits are provided under qualified prescription drug coverage. The explanation of benefits must—
(1) List the item or service for which payment was made and the amount of the payment for each item or service.
(2) Include a notice of the individual's right to request an itemized statement.
(3) Include the cumulative, year-to-date total amount of benefits provided, in relation to—
(i) The deductible for the current year.
(ii) For a year preceding 2025, the initial coverage limit for the current year.
(iii) The annual out-of-pocket threshold for the current year.
(4) Include the cumulative, year-to-date total of incurred costs to the extent practicable.
(5) For each prescription drug claim, must include the cumulative percentage increase (if any) in the negotiated price since the first claim of the current benefit year and therapeutic alternatives with lower cost-sharing, when available as determined by the plan, from the applicable approved plan formulary.
(6) Include any negative formulary changes applicable to an enrollee for which Part D plans are required to provide notice as described in § 423.120(f).
(7) Be provided no later than the end of the month following any month when prescription drug benefits are provided under this part, including, for a year preceding 2025, the covered Part D spending between the initial coverage limit described in § 423.104(d)(3) and the out-of-pocket threshold described in § 423.104(d)(5)(iii).
(f) Disclosure requirements. CMS may require a Part D plan sponsor to disclose to its enrollees or potential enrollees, the Part D plan sponsor's performance and contract compliance deficiencies in a manner specified by CMS.
(g) Changes in rules. If a Part D sponsor intends to change its rules for a Part D plan, it must do all of the following:
(1) Submit the changes for CMS review under the procedures of Subpart V of this part.
(2) For changes that take effect on January 1, notify all enrollees at least 15 days before the beginning of the Annual Coordinated Election Period as defined in section 1860D-1(b)(1)(B) of the Act.
(3) Provide notice of all other changes in accordance with notice requirements as specified in this part.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 54222, Sept. 18, 2008; 74 FR 1544, Jan. 12, 2009; 75 FR 19818, Apr. 15, 2010; 76 FR 21573, Apr. 15, 2011; 80 FR 7963, Feb. 12, 2015; 83 FR 16739, Apr. 16, 2018; 84 FR 23883, May 23, 2019; 86 FR 6115, Jan. 19, 2021; 89 FR 30834, Apr. 23, 2024; 91 FR 17587, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.129 Resolution of complaints in complaints tracking module.
(a) Definitions. For the purposes of this regulation, the following terms have the following meanings:
Assignment date is the date CMS assigns a complaint to a particular Part D sponsor in the Complaints Tracking Module.
Complaints Tracking Module is an electronic system maintained by CMS to record and track complaints submitted to CMS about Medicare health and drug plans from beneficiaries and others.
Immediate need complaint is a complaint involving a situation that prevents a beneficiary from accessing care or a service for which they have an immediate need. This includes when the beneficiary currently has enough of the drug or supply to which they are seeking access to last for 2 or fewer days.
Urgent complaint is a complaint involving a situation that prevents a beneficiary from accessing care or a service for which they do not have an immediate need. This includes when the beneficiary currently has enough of the drug or supply to which they are seeking access to last for 3 to 14 days.
(b) Timelines for complaint resolution—(1) Immediate need complaints. The Part D sponsor must resolve immediate need complaints within 2 calendar days of the assignment date.
(2) Urgent complaints. The Part D sponsor must resolve urgent complaints within 7 calendar days of the assignment date.
(3) All other complaints. The Part D sponsor must resolve all other complaints within 30 calendar days of the assignment date.
(4) Extensions. Except for immediate need complaints, urgent complaints, and any complaint that requires expedited treatment under § 423.564(f), if a complaint is also a grievance within the scope of § 423.564 and the requirements for an extension of the time to provide a response in § 423.564(e)(2) are met, the Part D sponsor may extend the timeline to provide a response.
(5) Coordination with timeframes for grievances, PACE service determination requests, and PACE appeals. When a complaint under this section is also a grievance within the scope of §§ 423.564 or 460.120, a PACE service determination request within the scope of § 460.121, or a PACE appeal within the definition of § 460.122, the Part D sponsor must comply with the shortest applicable timeframe for resolution of the complaint.
(c) Timeline for contacting individual filing a complaint. Regardless of the type of complaint received, the Part D sponsor must attempt to contact the individual who filed a complaint within 7 calendar days of the assignment date.
[89 FR 30834, Apr. 23, 2024]
§ 423.132 Public disclosure of pharmaceutical prices for equivalent drugs.
(a) General requirements. Except as provided under paragraph (c) of this section, a Part D sponsor must require a pharmacy that dispenses a covered Part D drug to inform an enrollee of any differential between the price of that drug and the price of the lowest priced generic version of that covered Part D drug that is therapeutically equivalent and bioequivalent and available at that pharmacy, unless the particular covered Part D drug being purchased is the lowest-priced therapeutically equivalent and bioequivalent version of that drug available at that pharmacy.
(b) Timing of notice. Subject to paragraph (d) of this section, the information under paragraph (a) of this section must be provided after the drug is dispensed at the point of sale or, in the case of dispensing by mail order, at the time of delivery of the drug.
(c) Waiver of public disclosure requirement. CMS waives the requirement under paragraph (a) of this section in any of the following cases:
(1) An MA private fee-for-service plan described in § 422.4 of this chapter that—
(i) Offers qualified prescription drug coverage and provides plan enrollees with access to covered Part D drugs dispensed at all pharmacies, without regard to whether they are contracted network pharmacies; and
(ii) Does not charge additional cost-sharing for access to covered Part D drugs dispensed at out-of-network pharmacies.
(2) An out-of-network pharmacy.
(3) An I/T/U network pharmacy.
(4) A network pharmacy that is located in any of the U.S. territories.
(5) A long-term care network pharmacy.
(6) Other circumstances where CMS deems compliance with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section to be impossible or impracticable.
(d) Modification of timing requirement. CMS modifies the requirement under paragraph (b) of this section under circumstances where CMS deems compliance with this requirement to be impossible or impracticable.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 19818, Apr. 15, 2010]
§ 423.136 Privacy, confidentiality, and accuracy of enrollee records.
For any medical records or other health and enrollment information it maintains with respect to enrollees, a PDP sponsor must establish procedures to do the following—
(a) Abide by all Federal and State laws regarding confidentiality and disclosure of medical records, or other health and enrollment information. The PDP sponsor must safeguard the privacy of any information that identifies a particular enrollee and have procedures that specify—
(1) For what purposes the information is used within the organization; and
(2) To whom and for what purposes it discloses the information outside the organization.
(b) Ensure that medical information is released only in accordance with applicable Federal or State law, or under court orders or subpoenas.
(c) Maintain the records and information in an accurate and timely manner.
(d) Ensure timely access by enrollees to the records and information that pertain to them.
§ 423.137 Medicare Prescription Payment Plan.
(a) General. For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2026, or, in the case of a plan operating on a non-calendar year basis, for the portion of the plan year starting on January 1, 2026, each PDP sponsor offering a prescription drug plan and each MA organization offering an MA-PD plan must provide to any enrollee of such plan, including an enrollee who is a subsidy eligible individual (as defined at § 423.4), the option to elect with respect to a plan year to pay $0 cost sharing at the point of sale and pay cost sharing under the plan in monthly amounts that are capped in accordance with this section.
(b) Definitions. For the purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
(1) OOP costs for the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan means the out-of-pocket (OOP) cost sharing amount the Part D enrollee is directly responsible for paying.
(i) For the subsequent month calculation of the Part D cost sharing incurred by the Part D enrollee, it includes those Part D cost sharing amounts that the enrollee is responsible for paying after taking into account amounts paid by third-party payers.
(ii) It does not include the covered plan pay amount or other costs defined under section 1860D-2(b)(4)(C) of the Act.
(2) Remaining OOP costs owed by the participant means the sum of out-of-pocket costs for the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan that have not yet billed to the program participant. For example, if a Medicare Prescription Payment Plan participant incurs $2,000 in January 2025 and is billed $166.67, the remaining OOP costs for the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan are $2,000−$166.67 = $1,833.33.
(c) Calculation of the maximum monthly cap on cost-sharing payments. For each month in the plan year for which an enrollee in a PDP or an MA-PD plan has made an election to participate in the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan, the PDP sponsor or MA organization must determine a maximum monthly cap (as defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section) for such enrollee.
(1) Enrollee monthly payments. For each month an enrollee is participating in the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan, the PDP sponsor or MA organization shall bill such enrollee an amount (not to exceed the maximum monthly cap) for the out-of-pocket costs of such enrollee in such month.
(i) First month maximum monthly cap calculation. For the first month for which the enrollee has made an election to participate in the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan, the maximum monthly cap is an amount determined by calculating the annual out-of-pocket threshold specified in section 1860D-2(b)(4)(B) of the Act minus the incurred costs of the enrollee as described in section 1860D-2(b)(4)(C) of the Act; divided by the number of months remaining in the plan year.
(A) When the out-of-pocket costs incurred in the first month of program participation are less than the maximum monthly cap defined in this paragraph (c)(1)(i), the PDP sponsor or MA organization must bill the participant the lesser of the participant's actual out-of-pocket costs or the first month's maximum monthly cap.
(B) When an enrollee opts into the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan prior to the start of the plan year, the calculation described in this paragraph (c)(1)(i) applies to their first month of active coverage within the plan year.
(ii) Calculation of maximum monthly cap in subsequent months. For subsequent months in the plan year, the maximum monthly cap is an amount determined by calculating the sum of any remaining out-of-pocket costs owed by the enrollee from a previous month that have not yet been billed to the enrollee and any additional out-of-pocket costs incurred by the enrollee; divided by the number of months remaining in the plan year.
(2) Eligible out-of-pocket costs. The calculations described in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section apply only to covered Part D drugs, as defined at § 423.100.
(3) Months remaining in the plan year. For the calculations described in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, the number of months remaining in the plan year includes the month for which the cap is being calculated.
(4) Impact on true out-of-pocket cost accumulation. Participation in the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan must have no impact on true out-of-pocket cost accumulation. Costs defined under section 1860D-2(b)(4)(C) of the Act incurred under the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan must still be treated as incurred based on the date each Part D claim is adjudicated.
(5) Prescriptions for an extended day supply. For participants who fill prescriptions for an extended day supply, their OOP costs for the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan for those prescriptions must be attributed to the month the prescription was filled and not be pro-rated over the months covered by the prescription.
(6) Mid-year plan switching. When an individual opts into the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan after switching plans midyear, the new Part D sponsor must calculate the individual's monthly cap for the first month of participation under the new plan using the formula for the calculation of the maximum monthly cap in the first month.
(d) Eligibility and election. An individual is eligible for the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan if they are enrolled in a Part D plan and have not been precluded from participation due to failure to pay, as described in paragraphs (f)(2)(ii) and (f)(5) of this section. LIS-eligible Part D enrollees are eligible to participate in the program. The requirements described in this paragraph (d) are applicable beginning October 1, 2025, with respect to eligibility and election in the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan for 2026.
(1) Election. A Part D sponsor must allow any Part D enrollee, including those who are LIS-eligible, to opt into the program prior to the beginning of the plan year or at any point during the plan year. A Part D enrollee must also be allowed to opt into the program in advance of a new plan enrollment effective date, including during any of the following:
(i) The annual coordinated election period for the subsequent plan year.
(ii) The Part D initial enrollment period.
(iii) Part D special election periods.
(2) Format of election requests. A Part D sponsor must allow any Part D enrollee or a Part D enrollee's authorized legal representative acting on behalf of the enrollee to opt into the program using a paper or electronic election request form or through a telephone call. Part D sponsors must process any election request regardless of format.
(i) Paper election requests. Paper election requests are considered received on the date and time:
(A) The Part D sponsor initially stamps a document received by regular mail (that is, U.S. Postal Service); or
(B) A delivery service that has the ability to track when a shipment is delivered (for example, U.S. Postal Service, UPS, FedEx, or DHL) delivers the document.
(ii) Telephonic election requests. Telephonic election requests are considered received on the date and time that either of the following occurs:
(A) The verbal request is made by telephone with a customer service representative.
(B) A message is left on the Part D sponsor's voicemail system if the Part D sponsor utilizes a voicemail system to accept requests or supporting statements after normal business hours.
(iii) Electronic election requests. An electronic election request is considered received on the date and time a request is received through the Part D sponsor's website. This is true regardless of when a Part D sponsor ultimately retrieves or downloads the request.
(3) Completion of election request. For an election request to be considered complete, the Part D sponsor must receive all of the following:
(i) The name of the Part D enrollee.
(ii) The Medicare ID number of the Part D enrollee.
(iii) The Part D enrollee's or their authorized legal representative's agreement to the Part D sponsor's terms and conditions for the program (signature or, in the case of telephonic requests, verbal attestation).
(4) Processing an election request—(i) Prior to plan year. Part D sponsors must process election requests received prior to the plan year within the following timeframes:
(A) Within 10 calendar days of receipt, process a complete election request as specified in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
(B) Within 10 calendar days of receipt of an incomplete election request, contact the Part D enrollee to request the necessary information to process the request as specified in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
(C) If information necessary to consider the request complete, as required at paragraph (d)(3) of this section, is not received within 21 calendar days of the request for information, the Part D sponsor may deny the request.
(ii) During a plan year. Part D sponsors must process election requests received during a plan year within the following timeframes:
(A) Within 24 hours of receipt, process a complete election request, as specified in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
(B) Within 24 hours of receipt of an incomplete election request, contact the Part D enrollee to request the necessary information to process the request, as required in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
(C) If information necessary to consider the request complete, as required at paragraph (d)(3) of this section, is not received within 21 calendar days of the request for information, the Part D sponsor may deny the request.
(D) In the event a Part D sponsor fails to process the request within 24 hours due to no fault of the Part D enrollee, the Part D sponsor must—
(1) Process a retroactive election effective on the date on which the enrollee should have been admitted into the program; and
(2) Reimburse the enrollee for any cost-sharing paid on or after that date within 45 calendar days and include those amounts, as appropriate, in the program calculations.
(5) Inclusion of all covered Part D drugs once in the program. Once a participant has opted into the program, cost sharing for all covered Part D drugs must be included in the program.
(6) Retroactive election. (i) A Part D sponsor must have in place a process to effectuate a retroactive election into the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan if both of the following conditions are met:
(A) The Part D enrollee believes that any delay in filling the prescription(s) due to the 24-hour timeframe required to process their request to opt in may seriously jeopardize their life, health, or ability to regain maximum function.
(B) The Part D enrollee requests retroactive election within 72 hours of the date and time the claim(s) were adjudicated.
(ii) The Part D sponsor must process the reimbursement for all cost sharing paid by the enrollee for the prescription and any covered Part D prescription filled between the date of adjudication of the claim and the date that the enrollee's election is effectuated within 45 calendar days of the election date.
(iii) If the Part D sponsor determines that an enrollee failed to request retroactive election within the required timeframe, it must promptly notify the individual of its determination and provide instructions on how the individual may file a grievance, as required under paragraph (h)(2) of this section.
(7) Retroactive LIS eligibility. A Part D sponsor must develop standardized procedures for determining and processing reimbursements for excess Medicare Prescription Payment Plan payments made by program participants who become LIS eligible and that meet requirements specified at §§ 423.800(c) and (e) and 423.466(a).
(8) Mid-year plan switching. When a Part D enrollee switches Part D plans, whether offered by the same or a different Part D sponsor, during the plan year or is reassigned by CMS, the Part D sponsor of the new Part D plan is not permitted to automatically sign up the individual for the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan under the new plan but must allow the individual to opt into the program. Part D plan has the definition established at § 423.4.
(i) The Part D sponsor of the prior Part D plan must offer the participant the option to repay the full outstanding amount in a lump sum. If the individual chooses to continue paying monthly, the Part D sponsor must continue to bill the participant monthly based on the participant's accrued OOP costs for the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan while in the program under that sponsor's Part D plan. The Part D sponsor cannot require full immediate repayment.
(ii) Part D enrollees may only be precluded from opting into the program under a new Part D plan if both of the following conditions are met:
(A) Both the former and new plans are offered by the same Part D sponsor.
(B) The enrollee was involuntarily terminated from the program under the former plan, as described in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, for failure to pay and still owes an overdue balance.
(9) Automatic renewal. A Part D sponsor is required to automatically renew a Part D enrollee's participation in the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan for subsequent plan years. The Part D sponsor must notify the enrollee of the renewal and remind enrollees that they may opt out of the program at any time, in accordance with paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section.
(10) Election communications—(i) Election request form. A Part D sponsor must make available throughout the plan year and during the Part D plan enrollment periods described at paragraph (d)(4)(i)(A) of this section an election request form in the formats specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
(A) Timing. A Part D sponsor must send a paper election request form within the same timeframe as the membership ID card mailing specified at § 423.2267(e)(32)(i). The election form may be sent in the membership ID card mailing itself or in a separate mailing.
(B) Contents. The election request form must include or provide all of the following:
(1) Fields for all of the following Part D enrollee information:
(i) First and last name.
(ii) Medicare Number.
(iii) Birth date.
(iv) Phone number.
(v) Permanent residence street address, and mailing address, if different from permanent residence street address.
(vi) Signature field, allowing the enrollee to attest that they understand that form is a request to participate in the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan and the Part D sponsor will contact them if more information is needed to complete the request; their signature indicates they have read and understood the Part D sponsor's terms and conditions; and the Part D sponsor will inform the individual when their participation in the program is active, and, until the individual receives that notification, they are not a participant in the program.
(2) Instructions for how to submit the form to the Part D sponsor.
(3) Instructions for how the Part D enrollee can contact the Part D sponsor for questions or assistance.
(C) Additional information. Additional educational information about the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan must accompany the election request form when provided in hard copy or on the web. The additional information requirement may be fulfilled by including with the election request form the CMS-developed fact sheet about the program. If the Part D sponsor develops and uses alternative informational materials in lieu of the CMS-developed fact sheet to satisfy this paragraph (d)(10)(i)(C), they must ensure that these alternative materials accurately convey program information and are compliant with existing Part D requirements specified at subpart V of this part.
(D) Terms and conditions. A Part D sponsor may include their program terms and conditions on the election request form or may include them on a separate attachment.
(ii) Notice of election approval. Upon accepting an election request, the Part D sponsor must send a notice of election approval.
(A) Timing. (1) For requests received prior to the plan year, the notice of election approval must be sent within 10 calendar days of receipt of the election request.
(2) For requests received during the plan year, the notice of election approval must be sent within 24 hours of receipt of the election request.
(3) The initial notice must be delivered via telephone, to be followed by a written notice delivered to the participant within 3 calendar days of delivering the initial telephone notice. If a Part D plan sponsor is processing an election request over the phone or electronically and at that same time provides the enrollee with the effective date of their program effectuation and other notice of election requirements as outlined at this paragraph (d)(10)(ii), then a second telephonic notification of election acceptance is not required.
(B) Contents. The notice of election approval must include all of the following:
(1) The effective date of the individual's participation.
(2) A description of how payments for covered Part D drugs under the program will work.
(3) An overview of how the monthly bill is calculated.
(4) Information about procedures for involuntary termination due to failure to pay and how to submit an inquiry or file a grievance.
(5) A statement that leaving the program will not affect the individual's Part D plan enrollment.
(6) A description of how individuals may still owe a program balance if they leave the program, and they can choose to pay their balance all at once or be billed monthly.
(7) An overview of other Medicare programs that can help lower costs and how to learn more about these programs. These programs include all of the following:
(i) Extra Help.
(ii) The Medicare Savings Program.
(iii) The State Pharmaceutical Assistance Program.
(iv) A manufacturer's Pharmaceutical Assistance Program.
(C) Additional information. Additional educational information about the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan must accompany the notice of election approval. The additional information requirement may be fulfilled by including with the notice the CMS-developed fact sheet about the program. If the Part D sponsor develops and uses alternative informational materials in lieu of the CMS-developed fact sheet to satisfy this paragraph (d)(10)(ii)(C), they must ensure that these alternative materials accurately convey program information and are compliant with existing Part D requirements specified at subpart V of this part.
(iii) Notification of denial. Upon denial of an election request, the Part D sponsor must send a notice of denial.
(A) Timing. (1) For requests received prior to the plan year, the notice of denial must be sent within 10 calendar days of receipt of the election request.
(2) For requests received during the plan year, the notice of denial must be sent within 24 hours of receipt of the election request.
(3) For incomplete election requests, within 10 calendar days of the expiration of the timeframe for submission of additional information.
(B) Contents. The notice of denial must explain the reason for denial and a description of the grievance process available to the individual.
(iv) Renewal notice. A Part D sponsor must send a notice alerting program participants that their participation in the program will automatically renew for the subsequent plan year.
(A) Timing. The notice must be sent after the end of the annual coordinated election period, as described at § 422.62(a)(2) of this chapter, but prior to the end of the plan year.
(B) Contents. The notice must include all of the following:
(1) Notification to the participant that their participation will automatically renew for the upcoming year.
(2) Reminder that the participant may opt out of the program at any time, including for the upcoming plan year.
(3) Terms and conditions. A Part D sponsor must include their program terms and conditions for the upcoming year as part of the renewal notice or as a separate attachment.
(e) Part D enrollee targeted outreach. A Part D sponsor must undertake targeted outreach to enrollees who are likely to benefit from making an election into the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan. The requirements described in this paragraph (e) are applicable beginning October 1, 2025, with respect to targeted outreach for the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan for 2026.
(1) Identification criteria. An enrollee deemed to be “likely to benefit” from the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan is identified by the Part D sponsor based on the following criteria.
(i) For 2026 and subsequent years, the targeted outreach criteria are as follows:
(A) A Part D enrollee is likely to benefit from participating in the program if the enrollee incurs $600 or more in out-of-pocket costs for a single covered Part D drug.
(B) A Part D enrollee is likely to benefit from participating in the program if the enrollee incurred $2,000 in out-of-pocket costs for covered Part D drugs in the first nine months of the year prior to the upcoming plan year.
(ii) A Part D sponsor may develop supplemental strategies for identification of additional Part D enrollees likely to benefit. If supplemental strategies are implemented, then the Part D sponsor must apply any additional identification criteria to every enrollee of each plan equally.
(2) Point of sale notification. (i) A Part D sponsor must have a mechanism to notify a pharmacy when a Part D enrollee incurs out-of-pocket costs with respect to covered Part D drugs that make it likely the enrollee may benefit from participating in the program using the identification criteria set forth in paragraphs (e)(1)(i)(A) and (e)(1)(ii) of this section.
(ii) A Part D sponsor must ensure that a pharmacy, after receiving such a notification from the Part D sponsor, informs the Part D enrollee that it is likely that the Part D enrollee may benefit from the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan.
(3) Part D sponsor notification. A Part D sponsor must directly outreach to enrollees identified as likely to benefit from the program during either of the following timeframes:
(i) Prior to the plan year. Prior to the plan year, a Part D sponsor must notify current enrollees that they are likely to benefit from the program during the fourth quarter of the year, and no later than the end of the annual coordinated election period, as described at § 422.62(a)(2) of this chapter, using the identification criteria set forth in paragraphs (e)(1)(i)(B) and (e)(1)(ii) of this section.
(ii) On an ongoing basis during the plan year. Part D sponsors must put in place reasonable guidelines for ongoing identification and notification of enrollees that are likely to benefit from the program on an ongoing basis during the plan year.
(4) Targeted outreach notification requirements. When an enrollee is identified as likely to benefit from the program, using the identification criteria set forth in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section or based on Part D sponsor-developed guidelines set forth at paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section, the Part D sponsor must provide to the enrollee the standardized “Medicare Prescription Payment Plan Likely to Benefit Notice” consistent with the requirements at § 423.2267(b).
(i) When the enrollee is identified as likely to benefit directly by the Part D sponsor, either prior to or during the plan year, the notification may be done via mail or electronically (based on the Part D enrollee's preferred and authorized communication methods).
(A) The outreach must include a program election request form and additional information about the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan. The additional information requirement may be fulfilled by including with the notice the CMS-developed fact sheet about the program. If the Part D sponsor develops and uses alternative informational materials in lieu of the CMS-developed fact sheet to satisfy this paragraph (e)(4)(i)(A), they must ensure that these alternative materials accurately convey program information and are compliant with existing Part D requirements specified at subpart V of this part.
(B) During the plan year, the initial notice may be provided via telephone, so long as the written “Medicare Prescription Payment Plan Likely to Benefit Notice,” election request form, and additional information are sent within 3 calendar days of the telephone notification.
(ii) When the enrollee is identified as likely to benefit during the plan year at the pharmacy point of sale, the notice must be provided as described in paragraph (i)(2) of this section.
(5) Targeted outreach exclusions. A Part D sponsor does not have to notify enrollees that they are likely to benefit from the program under any of the following circumstances:
(i) For the current year during the final month of the plan year (December).
(ii) When the enrollee is currently participating in the program, including—
(A) For the current year; and
(B) For the upcoming year.
(iii) When the enrollee is precluded from opting into the program.
(iv) When the PDP is non-renewing its contract or individual plan benefit package. This exclusion only applies to the requirements at paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section related to prior to plan year targeted outreach.
(f) Termination of election, reinstatement, and preclusion—(1) General rule. Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, a Part D sponsor may not do any of the following:
(i) Terminate an individual from the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan.
(ii) Orally or in writing, or by any action or inaction, request or encourage an individual to disenroll.
(2) Basis for termination—(i) Voluntary terminations. A Part D sponsor must have a process to allow participants who have opted into the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan to opt out during the plan year.
(A) When a participant opts out of the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan, a Part D sponsor must—
(1) Process the termination with an effective date within 3 calendar days of receipt of the request for termination.
(2) Provide the individual with a notice of termination after the individual notifies the Part D sponsor that they intend to opt out under the Part D sponsor's established process.
(i) Timing. The Part D sponsor must send the notice of termination within 10 calendar days of receipt of the request for termination.
(ii) Contents. The notice of voluntary termination must include all of the following. The date on which the individual's participation in the program ends. An explanation of why the individual is receiving the notice. A statement clarifying that the notice only applies to participation in the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan. A statement clarifying that the individual will continue to be billed monthly or can choose to pay the amount owed all at once, and that the individual will not pay interest or fees on the amount owed. A statement clarifying that the individual can join the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan again and instructions for how to do so. An overview of other Medicare programs that can help lower costs and how to learn more about these programs, including Extra Help, the Medicare Savings Program, the State Pharmaceutical Assistance Program, and a manufacturer's Pharmaceutical Assistance Program.
(3) Offer the participant the option to repay the full outstanding amount in a lump sum. A Part D sponsor is prohibited from requiring full immediate repayment from a participant who has been terminated from the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan.
(4) If the participant opts not to repay the full outstanding amount in a lump sum, continue to bill amounts owed under the program in monthly amounts not to exceed the maximum monthly cap according to the statutory formula for the duration of the plan year after an individual has been terminated.
(5) Maintain appropriate records of the termination once the termination is processed.
(B) [Reserved]
(ii) Involuntary termination. If a participant fails to pay their monthly billed amount under the program, a Part D sponsor is required to terminate that individual's Medicare Prescription Payment Plan participation.
(A) A participant will be considered to have failed to pay their monthly billed amount only after the conclusion of the required grace period as specified at paragraph (f)(4) of this section.
(B) When a Part D sponsor involuntarily terminates a participant, the sponsor must do all of the following:
(1) Provide the individual with a notice of termination consistent with the requirements of paragraphs (f)(2)(ii)(C) and (D) of this section.
(2) Offer the participant the option to repay the full outstanding amount in a lump sum. A Part D sponsor is prohibited from requiring full immediate repayment from a participant who has been terminated from the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan.
(3) If the participant opts not to repay the full outstanding amount in a lump sum, continue to bill amounts owed under the program in monthly amounts not to exceed the maximum monthly cap according to the statutory formula for the duration of the plan year after an individual has been terminated.
(C) If a Part D sponsor involuntarily terminates a participant under this paragraph (f)(2)(ii), the Part D sponsor must send the individual an initial notice explaining that the individual has failed to pay the billed amount.
(1) Timing. The notice of failure to pay must be sent within 15 calendar days of the payment due date.
(2) Contents. The notice of failure to pay must include all of the following:
(i) Pertinent dates, including the date the missed monthly payment was due, the amount the individual must pay to remain in the program, and the date by when payment must be received, which is the date of the end of the grace period.
(ii) A statement clarifying that the notice only applies to participation in the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan.
(iii) Instructions for how to submit payment.
(iv) Information about procedures for involuntary termination due to failure to pay, including the date on which the participant would be removed if payment is not received, and how to submit an inquiry or file a grievance.
(v) A statement describing how individuals should pay their Part D plan premium first if they cannot afford both their premium and their program balance.
(vi) An overview of other Medicare programs that can help lower costs and how to learn more about these programs, including Extra Help, the Medicare Savings Program, the State Pharmaceutical Assistance Program, and a manufacturer's Pharmaceutical Assistance Program.
(D) If the individual has failed to pay the amount due by the end of the grace period described at paragraph (f)(4) of this section, the Part D sponsor must send the individual a termination notice explaining that the individual has been terminated from the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan.
(1) Timing. The involuntary termination notice must be sent within 3 calendar days following the last day of the end of the grace period.
(2) Contents. The involuntary termination notice must include all of the following:
(i) Pertinent dates, including the date the individual was originally notified of the missed monthly payment and the due date for that payment, as well as the date on which the individual's participation in the program ends, which should be the same date as the notice.
(ii) A statement clarifying that the notice only applies to participation in the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan, and that the individual's Part D drug coverage will not be impacted.
(iii) Instructions for how to submit payment and the amount owed.
(iv) Instructions for how to submit an inquiry or file a grievance.
(v) A statement clarifying that the individual can join the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan again if they pay the amount owed.
(vi) An overview of other Medicare programs that can help lower costs and how to learn more about these programs, including Extra Help, the Medicare Savings Program, the State Pharmaceutical Assistance Program, and a manufacturer's Pharmaceutical Assistance Program.
(E) If either notice is returned to the Part D sponsor as undeliverable, the Part D sponsor must immediately implement its existing procedure for researching a potential change of address.
(3) Required grace period and reinstatement. When a program participant fails to pay a program bill, the Part D sponsor must provide individuals with a grace period of at least two months upon notifying the individual of the initial missed payment.
(i) The grace period must begin on the first day of the month following the date on which the initial notice described in this paragraph (f)(3) is sent.
(ii) A participant must be allowed to pay the overdue balance in full during the grace period to remain in the program.
(iii) If a participant fails to pay their monthly billed amount under the program with fewer than two full calendar months remaining in the calendar year, the grace period must carry over into the next calendar year.
(A) If the program participant is within their grace period from the prior year, the Part D sponsor must allow the participant to opt into the program for the next year.
(B) If that participant fails to pay the amount due from the prior year during the required grace period, the Part D sponsor may terminate the individual's participation in the program in the new year following the procedures outlined in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section.
(iv) If an individual who has been terminated from the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan demonstrates good cause for failure to pay the program billed amount within the grace period and pays all overdue amounts billed, a Part D sponsor must reinstate that individual into the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan.
(A) A Part D sponsor is expected to reinstate an individual into the program within a reasonable timeframe after the individual has repaid their past due Medicare Prescription Payment Plan balance in full.
(B) To demonstrate good cause, the individual must establish by a credible statement that failure to pay the monthly amount billed within the grace period was due to circumstances for which the individual had no control, or which the individual could not reasonably have been expected to foresee.
(v) If an individual who has been terminated from the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan pays all overdue amounts billed in full, a Part D sponsor may also reinstate that individual, at the sponsor's discretion and within a reasonable timeframe, even if the individual does not demonstrate good cause.
(4) Preclusion of election in a subsequent plan year. If an individual fails to pay the amount billed for a month as required under the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan, a Part D sponsor may preclude that individual from opting into the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan in a subsequent year.
(i) A Part D sponsor may only preclude an individual from opting into the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan in a subsequent year if the individual owes an overdue balance to that Part D sponsor.
(ii) If an individual enrolls in a Part D plan offered by a different Part D sponsor than the Part D sponsor to which the individual owes an overdue balance, that individual cannot be precluded from opting into the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan in a subsequent year by that different Part D sponsor.
(iii) If a Part D enrollee remains in a plan offered by the same Part D sponsor and continues to owe an overdue balance, preclusion may extend beyond the immediately subsequent plan year.
(A) If an individual pays off the outstanding balance under the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan during a subsequent year, the Part D sponsor must promptly permit them to opt into the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan after the balance is paid.
(B) [Reserved]
(iv) A Part D sponsor that offers more than one Part D plan may have different preclusion policies for its different plans. However, the Part D sponsor must apply its preclusion policy consistently among all enrollees of the same Part D plan.
(5) Prohibition on Part D enrollment penalties. A Part D plan sponsor is prohibited from doing any of the following:
(i) Disenrolling a Part D enrollee from a Part D plan for failure to pay any amount billed under the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan.
(ii) Declining future enrollment into a Part D plan based on an individual's failure to pay a monthly amount billed under the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan.
(6) Disenrollment. (i) If a participant in the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan is disenrolled voluntarily or involuntarily from their Part D plan under the provisions in § 423.44(b), the participant is also terminated from the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan in that plan.
(ii) If the participant enrolls in a different plan, they may opt into the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan under their new plan.
(7) Billing for amounts owed. Nothing in this section prohibits a Part D sponsor from billing an individual for an outstanding Medicare Prescription Payment Plan amount owed.
(g) Participant billing rights—(1) General rule. For each billing period after an individual has opted into the program and incurred out-of-pocket costs, a Part D sponsor must calculate a monthly amount that takes into account the out-of-pocket costs in that month that were incurred on or after the date on which the individual opted into the program.
(i) A Part D sponsor must not bill a participant who is in the program but has not yet incurred any out-of-pocket costs during the plan year.
(ii) While past due balances from prior monthly bills may also be included in a billing statement, which could result in the total amount on the billing statement exceeding the maximum monthly cap, the amount billed for the month for which the maximum monthly cap is being calculated cannot be higher than the cap for that month.
(iii) A Part D sponsor must not charge late fees, interest payments, or other fees, such as for different payment mechanisms.
(A) A Part D sponsor must ensure that—
(1) Any third party it contracts with complies with such requirements.
(2) Participants do not incur any charges or fees as a result of overbilling or overpayment errors made by the Part D sponsor.
(B) [Reserved]
(iv) A Part D sponsor must send a bill for the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan that is separate from the bill for collection of premiums, if applicable.
(2) Billing period. Each billing period will be a calendar month.
(i) The billing period begins on either of the following:
(A) The effective date of a Part D enrollee's participation in the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan (for the first month a participant elects into the program during the plan year).
(B) The first day of the month (for each subsequent month or for the first month of a participant who elects into the program prior to the start of the plan year).
(ii) The billing period ends on the last date of that month.
(3) Billing statement. Billing statements must include all of the following information:
(i) A statement that the bill is for the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan.
(ii) A brief description of the program.
(iii) A reference to where additional information about the program can be found.
(iv) The effective date of program participation.
(v) The last payment received, showing the date, amount of the last payment, and the means of payment made by the participant.
(vi) Any balance carried over from the prior month, including any missed payments.
(vii) Itemized out-of-pocket costs by prescription for the month being billed.
(viii) The amount due from the participant for the month being billed (that is, the amount based on the application of the monthly cap calculation).
(ix) The remaining total out-of-pocket cost sharing balance.
(x) Information on the next steps if the participant fails to pay by the stated due date.
(xi) Information on how to voluntarily opt out of the program and balances due if participation is terminated.
(xii) Information on the dispute processes available if the individual disputes their bill.
(xiii) LIS program information, including the following:
(A) General information about how to enroll in the LIS program (as an additional or alternative avenue for addressing prescription drug costs).
(B) A statement that LIS enrollment, for those who qualify, is likely to be more advantageous than participation in the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan.
(xiv) Plan contact information for participant questions about the billing statement.
(4) Treatment of unsettled balances. Any unsettled balances with respect to amounts owed under the program will be treated as plan losses.
(i) The Secretary is not liable for any such balances outside of those assumed as losses estimated in a Part D sponsor's plan bid.
(ii) If a Part D sponsor is compensated by or on behalf of the participant for an unsettled balance or sells an unsettled balance as a debt, that Part D sponsor cannot treat the amount as a loss and cannot include it in its bid.
(5) Prioritization of premium payments. If a Part D enrollee has opted into the program and makes payments directly to the Part D sponsor, and it is unclear whether a payment should go towards the participant's outstanding Part D plan premium or Medicare Prescription Payment Plan balance, then the payment must be applied to the Part D premium.
(6) Financial reconciliation. A Part D sponsor must have a financial reconciliation process in place to correct inaccuracies in billing or payments or both.
(i) Participant payment. (A) A participant may pay more than the maximum monthly cap, up to the annual out-of-pocket threshold.
(B) The participant cannot pay more than their total OOP costs for the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan.
(C) If a participant does pay more than their total OOP costs for the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan, then the Part D sponsor must reimburse the participant the amount that is paid above the balance owed.
(ii) Reimbursements for excess participant payments. A Part D sponsor must develop standardized procedures for determining and processing reimbursements for excess Medicare Prescription Payment Plan payments made by program participants.
(iii) Claims adjustments resulting in increased amounts owed. When Part D claims adjustments result in increased amounts owed by the participant, and these amounts have not yet been billed to the participant, they must be included in the revised remaining OOP costs owed by the participant (as defined at paragraph (b)(1) of this section) and, thus, in the subsequent month maximum cap for the next billing period.
(h) Participant disputes—(1) Coverage determination and appeals procedures. A Part D sponsor must apply the Part D coverage determination and appeals procedures specified at § 423.566(a) to any disputes made by program participants concerning the cost sharing amount of a covered Part D drug.
(2) Grievance procedures. A Part D sponsor must apply the Part D grievance procedure specified at § 423.562 to any dispute made by a program participant related to any aspect of the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan.
(i) Pharmacy point of sale notification process. (1) When a Part D sponsor is notifying a pharmacy that a Part D enrollee has incurred out-of-pocket costs with respect to covered Part D drugs that make it likely the enrollee may benefit from participating in the program, as required at paragraph (e)(2) of this section, the Part D sponsor must use standard code values for notifying the pharmacy that an enrollee has been identified as likely to benefit, as outlined by the National Council for Prescription Drug Programs.
(2) A Part D sponsor must ensure that the “Medicare Prescription Payment Plan Likely to Benefit Notice” is provided to enrollees identified as likely to benefit (or the person acting on their behalf) through the pharmacy point of sale notification process.
(i) In pharmacy settings in which there is direct contact with enrollees (for example, community pharmacies where enrollees present in person to pick up prescriptions), the Part D sponsor must ensure that a hard copy of the “Medicare Prescription Payment Plan Likely to Benefit Notice” is provided to enrollees identified as likely to benefit (or the person acting on their behalf) at the time the prescription is picked up.
(ii) For non-retail pharmacy settings without in-person encounters (such as mail order pharmacies), a Part D sponsor must require the pharmacy to notify the Part D enrollee via a telephone call or their preferred contact method.
(iii) For long-term care pharmacy settings, the Part D plan sponsor should not require that the pharmacy notify the Part D enrollee prior to dispensing the medication. Instead, the Part D plan sponsor should require the long-term care pharmacy to provide the notice to the Part D enrollee (or their authorized representative) at the time of its typical enrollee cost-sharing billing process.
(iv) If the pharmacy is in contact with a Part D enrollee identified as likely to benefit and the enrollee declines to complete the prescription filling process, the Part D sponsor must ensure that the pharmacy provides the “Medicare Prescription Payment Plan Likely to Benefit Notice” to the Part D enrollee.
(3) A Part D sponsor must ensure that any contract between the Part D sponsor and a pharmacy (or between a first tier, downstream, or related entity and a pharmacy on the Part D sponsor's behalf) for participation in one or more of the Part D sponsor's networks includes a provision requiring pharmacies to provide this notification to Part D enrollees.
(j) Pharmacy claims processing—(1) Electronic claims processing methodology. Part D sponsors must use, and must ensure pharmacies use, a bank identification number (BIN) or processor control number (PCN) electronic claims processing methodology for applicable Medicare Prescription Payment Plan transactions.
(i) Part D sponsors must utilize, and ensure pharmacies utilize, an additional BIN/PCN that is unique to the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan to facilitate electronic processing of supplemental coordination of benefits (COB) transactions for program participants.
(ii) A Part D sponsor must provide the unique Medicare Prescription Payment Plan BIN/PCN and any other pertinent billing information to the pharmacy on paid claim responses when the enrollee is also a Medicare Prescription Payment Plan participant.
(iii) A Part D sponsor must assign a program-specific PCN that starts with “MPPP” and report the new BIN/PCN to CMS.
(iv) The transaction processed through the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan BIN/PCN will be submitted after processing any applicable other payer transactions in order to capture the final patient responsibility amount after all other payers have paid.
(2) Supplemental coverage that increases final patient pay amount. When a Part D enrollee has supplemental coverage that modifies their final out-of-pocket responsibility for covered Part D drugs:
(i) When the final patient pay amount returned to the pharmacy by a supplemental payer for a covered Part D drug is higher than the original Part D patient pay amount, the Part D sponsor may only include in the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan the participant's original Part D cost sharing, as determined by their plan-specific benefit structure.
(ii) [Reserved]
(3) Prescription drug event reporting. A Part D sponsor must ensure that the claims processing methodology described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section has no impact on prescription drug event (PDE) cost/payment field reporting, meaning PDE records must reflect participant and plan liability amounts as if the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan did not apply.
(4) Real-time benefit tools. A Part D sponsor must ensure that participation in the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan or the associated claims processing methodology described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section or both has no impact on the cost-sharing information displayed in real-time benefit tools.
(5) Inclusion of retroactive claims. A Part D sponsor is not required to retroactively include under this program claims submitted to the Part D sponsor by a Medicare Prescription Payment Plan participant (whether the request is made via paper form, telephonically, or electronically) except as provided in paragraph (d)(6) of this section.
(6) Re-adjudication of prescription drug claims for new program participants. (i) When a Part D enrollee receives the “Medicare Prescription Payment Plan Likely to Benefit Notice” from the pharmacy, they may choose to take time to consider opting into the program and leave the pharmacy without the prescription that triggered the notification.
(ii) When the Part D enrollee returns to the pharmacy after their election into the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan has been effectuated, the plan sponsor must require the pharmacy to reverse and reprocess the high-cost claim that triggered the likely to benefit notification.
(A) Should a Part D enrollee have other unpaid claims at the same pharmacy for covered Part D drugs from prior dates of service, in addition to the prescription that may have triggered the likely to benefit notification, they may also request that those claims be readjudicated.
(B) [Reserved]
(iii) When the Part D claim date of service is the same as the date of program effectuation), the Part D sponsor is not required to ensure the pharmacy reverse and resubmit the Part D claim, provided that they otherwise obtain the necessary Medicare Prescription Payment Plan BIN/PCN for the program-specific transaction.
(k) Pharmacy payment obligations. A Part D sponsor must ensure that enrollee participation in the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan does not affect the amount paid to pharmacies or the timing of such payments, consistent with § 423.520. A Part D sponsor must not do either of the following:
(1) Impose any fees or costs related to program implementation on pharmacies.
(2) Hold pharmacies responsible for any unsettled balances of a participant or for collecting unpaid balances from the participant on the Part D sponsor's behalf.
(l) [Reserved]
(m) General Part D sponsor outreach and education requirements. The requirements described in this paragraph (m) are applicable beginning October 1, 2025, with respect to general outreach for the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan for 2026.
(1) Mailing. A Part D sponsor, except a dual eligible special needs plan (D-SNP), must provide a Medicare Prescription Payment Plan election request form, described at paragraph (d)(10)(i) of this section, and additional educational information on the program in a hard copy mailing.
(i) The mailing must be sent by the later of—
(A) Within 10 calendar days from receipt of CMS confirmation of enrollment in the Part D plan; or
(B) The last day of the month prior to the plan effective date.
(ii) The election request form and supplemental information may be sent—
(A) With the membership ID card mailing described at § 423.2267(e)(32); or
(B) In its own envelope.
(iii) The mailing may be sent only to a Part D enrollee who is receiving a new membership ID card or to all Part D enrollees.
(iv) The additional information requirement may be fulfilled by including in the mailing the CMS-developed fact sheet about the program. If the Part D sponsor develops and uses alternative informational materials in lieu of the CMS-developed fact sheet to satisfy this paragraph (m)(1)(iv), they must ensure that these alternative materials accurately convey program information and are compliant with existing Part D requirements specified at subpart V of this part.
(2) Websites. In addition to meeting requirements described at §§ 423.128(d)(2) and 423.2265(b), a Part D sponsor is required to include all of the following on its website:
(i) An election request mechanism, as described at paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
(ii) An overview of the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan.
(iii) Examples of the program calculation and explanations.
(iv) A description of Part D enrollees who may be likely to benefit from the program.
(v) The financial implications of participation.
(vi) The implications of not paying monthly bills.
(vii) Instructions for how to opt into and out of the program, including timing requirements around election effectuation.
(viii) A description of the standards for retroactive election in cases where an enrollee believes that a delay in filling a prescription may seriously jeopardize their life, health, or ability to regain maximum function.
(ix) A description of the dispute and grievance procedure, as required under § 423.137(h).
(x) Contact information Part D enrollees can use to obtain further information
(xi) General information about the LIS program, including an overview of how LIS enrollment, for those who qualify, is likely to be more advantageous than program participation.
[90 FR 15912, Apr. 15, 2025]
Subpart D Cost Control and Quality Improvement Requirements
§ 423.150 Scope.
This subpart sets forth the requirements relating to the following:
(a) Drug utilization management programs, quality assurance measures and systems, and MTM programs for Part D sponsors.
(b) Appropriate dispensing of prescription drugs in long-term care facilities under PDPs and MA-PD plans.
(c) Consumer satisfaction surveys of Part D plans.
(d) Electronic prescription drug programs for prescribers, dispensers, and Part D sponsors.
(e) Quality improvement organization (QIO) activities.
(f) Compliance deemed on the basis of accreditation.
(g) Accreditation organizations.
(h) Procedures for the approval of accreditation organizations as a basis for deeming compliance.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 70 FR 67593, Nov. 7, 2005; 76 FR 21573, Apr. 15, 2011; 89 FR 30834, Apr. 23, 2024]
§ 423.153 Drug utilization management, quality assurance, medication therapy management (MTM) programs, drug management programs, and access to Medicare Parts A and B claims data extracts.
(a) General rule. Each Part D sponsor must have established, for covered Part D drugs furnished through a Part D plan, a drug utilization management program, quality assurance measures and systems, and an MTM program as described in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section. No later than January 1, 2022, a Part D plan sponsor must have established a drug management program for at-risk beneficiaries enrolled in their prescription drug benefit plans to address overutilization of frequently abused drugs, as described in paragraph (f) of this section.
(b) Drug utilization management. A Part D sponsor must have established a reasonable and appropriate drug utilization management program that address all of the following:
(1) Includes incentives to reduce costs when medically appropriate.
(2) Maintains policies and systems to assist in preventing over-utilization and under-utilization of prescribed medications.
(3) Provides CMS with information concerning the procedures and performance of its drug utilization management program, according to guidelines specified by CMS.
(4)(i) Daily cost sharing rate. Subject to paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section, establishes a daily cost-sharing rate (as defined in § 423.100) and applies it to a prescription presented to a network pharmacy for a covered Part D drug that is dispensed for a supply less than the approved month's supply, if the drug is in the form of a solid oral dose and may be dispensed for less than the approved month's supply under applicable law.
(ii) Exceptions. The requirements of paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section do not apply to either of the following:
(A) Solid oral doses of antibiotics.
(B) Solid oral doses that are dispensed in their original container as indicated in the Food and Drug Administration Prescribing Information or are customarily dispensed in their original packaging to assist patients with compliance.
(iii) Cost-sharing—(A) Copayments. In the case of a drug that would incur a copayment, the Part D sponsor must apply cost-sharing as calculated by multiplying the applicable daily cost-sharing rate by the days' supply actually dispensed when the beneficiary receives less than the approved month's supply.
(B) Coinsurance. In the case of a drug that would incur a coinsurance percentage, the Part D sponsor must apply the coinsurance percentage for the drug to the days' supply actually dispensed.
(c) Quality assurance. A Part D sponsor must have established quality assurance measures and systems to reduce medication errors and adverse drug interactions and improve medication use that include all of the following—
(1) Representation that network providers are required to comply with minimum standards for pharmacy practice as established by the States.
(2) Concurrent drug utilization review systems, policies, and procedures designed to ensure that a review of the prescribed drug therapy is performed before each prescription is dispensed to an enrollee in a sponsor's Part D plan, typically at the point-of-sale or point of distribution. The review must include, but not be limited to,
(i) Screening for potential drug therapy problems due to therapeutic duplication.
(ii) Age/gender-related contraindications.
(iii) Over-utilization and under-utilization.
(iv) Drug-drug interactions.
(v) Incorrect drug dosage or duration of drug therapy. (vi) Drug-allergy contraindications.
(vii) Clinical abuse/misuse.
(3) Retrospective drug utilization review systems, policies, and procedures designed to ensure ongoing periodic examination of claims data and other records, through computerized drug claims processing and information retrieval systems, in order to identify patterns of inappropriate or medically unnecessary care among enrollees in a sponsor's Part D plan, or associated with specific drugs or groups of drugs.
(4) Internal medication error identification and reduction systems.
(5) Provision of information to CMS regarding its quality assurance measures and systems, according to guidelines specified by CMS.
(d) Medication therapy management (MTM) program—(1) General rule. A Part D sponsor must have established a MTM program that—
(i) Is designed to ensure that covered Part D drugs prescribed to targeted beneficiaries described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section are appropriately used to optimize therapeutic outcomes through improved medication use;
(ii) Is designed to reduce the risk of adverse events, including adverse drug interactions, for targeted beneficiaries described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section;
(iii) May be furnished by a pharmacist or other qualified provider; and
(iv) May distinguish between services in ambulatory and institutional settings.
(v) Must enroll targeted beneficiaries using an opt-out method of enrollment only.
(vi) Must target beneficiaries for enrollment in the MTM program at least quarterly during each plan year.
(vii) Must offer a minimum level of medication therapy management services for each beneficiary enrolled in the MTM program that includes all of the following:
(A) Interventions for both beneficiaries and prescribers.
(B) Annual comprehensive medication review with written summaries. (1) The beneficiary's comprehensive medication review—
(i) Must include an interactive consultation, performed by a pharmacist or other qualified provider, that is either in person or performed via synchronous telehealth; and
(ii) May result in a recommended medication action plan.
(2) If a beneficiary is offered the annual comprehensive medication review and is unable to accept the offer to participate due to cognitive impairment, the pharmacist or other qualified provider may perform the comprehensive medication review with the beneficiary's prescriber, caregiver, or other authorized individual.
(C) Quarterly targeted medication reviews with follow-up interventions when necessary.
(D) Standardized action plans and summaries that comply with requirements as specified by CMS for the standardized format.
(E) Beginning January 1, 2022, for enrollees targeted in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, provide at least annually as part of the comprehensive medication review, a targeted medication review, or other MTM correspondence or service, information about safe disposal of prescription drugs that are controlled substances, drug take back programs, in-home disposal and cost-effective means to safely dispose of such drugs.
(F) The information to be provided under paragraph (d)(1)(vii)(E) of this section must comply with all requirements of § 422.111(j) of this chapter.
(2) Targeted beneficiaries. Targeted beneficiaries for the MTM program described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section are enrollees in the sponsor's Part D plan who meet the characteristics of at least one of the following two groups:
(i)(A) Have multiple chronic diseases, with three chronic diseases being the maximum number a Part D plan sponsor may require for targeted enrollment;
(B) Are taking multiple Part D drugs, with eight Part D drugs being the maximum number of drugs a Part D plan sponsor may require for targeted enrollment; and
(C) Are likely to incur annual covered Part D drug costs greater than or equal to the MTM cost threshold determined by CMS, as specified in this paragraph (d)(2)(i)(C) of this section.
(1) For 2011, the MTM cost threshold is set at $3,000.
(2) For 2012 through 2024, the MTM cost threshold is set at $3,000 increased by the annual percentage specified in § 423.104(d)(5)(iv).
(3) For 2025, the MTM cost threshold is set at the average annual cost of eight generic drugs, as defined at § 423.4, as determined using the PDE data specified at § 423.104(d)(2)(iv)(C).
(ii) Beginning January 1, 2022, are at-risk beneficiaries as defined in § 423.100.
(iii) Beginning January 1, 2025, in identifying beneficiaries who have multiple chronic diseases under paragraph (d)(2)(i)(A) of this section, Part D plan sponsors must include all of the following diseases, and may include additional chronic diseases:
(A) Alzheimer's disease.
(B) Bone disease-arthritis (including osteoporosis, osteoarthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis).
(C) Chronic congestive heart failure (CHF).
(D) Diabetes.
(E) Dyslipidemia.
(F) End-stage renal disease (ESRD).
(G) Human immunodeficiency virus/acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (HIV/AIDS).
(H) Hypertension.
(I) Mental health (including depression, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and other chronic/disabling mental health conditions).
(J) Respiratory disease (including asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and other chronic lung disorders).
(iv) Beginning January 1, 2025, in identifying the number of Part D drugs under paragraph (d)(2)(i)(B) of this section, Part D plan sponsors must include all Part D maintenance drugs, relying on information in a widely accepted, commercially or publicly available drug database to make such determinations, and may include all Part D drugs.
(3) Use of experts. The MTM program must be developed in cooperation with licensed and practicing pharmacists and physicians.
(4) Coordination with care management plans. The MTM program must be coordinated with any care management plan established for a targeted individual under a chronic care improvement program (CCIP) under section 1807 of the Act. A Part D sponsor must provide drug claims data to CCIPs for those beneficiaries that are enrolled in CCIPs in a manner specified by CMS.
(5) Considerations in pharmacy fees. An applicant to become a Part D sponsor must—
(i) Describe in its application how it takes into account the resources used and time required to implement the MTM program it chooses to adopt in establishing fees for pharmacists or others providing MTM services for covered Part D drugs under a Part D plan.
(ii) Disclose to CMS upon request the amount of the management and dispensing fees and the portion paid for MTM services to pharmacists and others upon request. Reports of these amounts are protected under the provisions of section 1927(b)(3)(D) of the Act.
(6) MTM program reporting. A Part D sponsor must provide CMS with information regarding the procedures and performance of its MTM program, according to guidelines specified by CMS.
(e) Exception for private fee-for-service MA plans offering qualified prescription drug coverage. In the case of an MA plan described in § 422.4(a)(3) of this chapter providing qualified prescription drug coverage, the requirements under paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section do not apply.
(f) Drug management programs. A drug management program must meet all the following requirements:
(1) Written policies and procedures. A sponsor must document its drug management program in written policies and procedures that are approved by the applicable P&T committee and reviewed and updated as appropriate. In the case of a Part D sponsor, including a PACE organization, without its own or a contracted P&T committee because it does not use a formulary, the written policies and procedures described in this section must be approved by the Part D sponsor's medical director as described at § 423.562(a)(5) (or, for a PACE organization, at § 460.60(b)) and applicable clinical and other staff or contractors as determined appropriate by the medical director. These policies and procedures must address all aspects of the sponsor's drug management program, including but not limited to the following:
(i) The appropriate credentials of the clinical staff conducting case management required under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, including that the staff must have a current and unrestricted license to practice within the scope of his or her profession in a State, Territory, Commonwealth of the United Stated (that is, Puerto Rico), or the District of Columbia.
(ii) The necessary and appropriate contents of files for case management required under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, which must include documentation of the substance of prescriber and beneficiary contacts.
(iii) Monitoring reports and notifications about incoming enrollees who meet the definition of an at-risk beneficiary or a potential at-risk beneficiary in § 423.100 and responding to requests from other sponsors for information about at-risk beneficiaries and potential at-risk beneficiaries who recently disenrolled from the sponsor's prescription drug benefit plan.
(2) Case management/clinical contact/prescriber verification—(i) General rule. The sponsor's clinical staff must conduct case management for each potential at-risk beneficiary for the purpose of engaging in clinical contact with the prescribers of frequently abused drugs and verifying whether a potential at-risk beneficiary is an at-risk beneficiary. Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, the sponsor must do all of the following:
(A) Send written information to the beneficiary's prescribers that the beneficiary met the clinical guidelines and is a potential at risk beneficiary.
(B) Elicit information from the prescribers about any factors in the beneficiary's treatment that are relevant to a determination that the beneficiary is an at-risk beneficiary, including whether prescribed medications are appropriate for the beneficiary's medical conditions or the beneficiary is an exempted beneficiary.
(C) In cases where prescribers have not responded to the inquiry described in paragraph (f)(2)(i)(B) of this section, make reasonable attempts to communicate with the prescribers telephonically and/or by another effective communication method designed to elicit a response from the prescribers within a reasonable period after sending the written information.
(ii) Exception for identification by prior plan. If a beneficiary was identified as a potential at-risk or an at-risk beneficiary by his or her most recent prior plan and such identification has not been terminated in accordance with paragraph (f)(14) of this section, the sponsor meets the requirements in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, so long as the sponsor obtains case management information from the previous sponsor and such information is still clinically adequate and up to date.
(3) Limitation on access to coverage for frequently abused drugs. Subject to the requirements of paragraph (f)(4) of this section, a Part D plan sponsor may do any or all of the following:
(i) Implement a point-of-sale claim edit for frequently abused drugs that is specific to an at-risk beneficiary.
(ii) In accordance with paragraphs (f)(9) and (13) of this section, limit an at-risk beneficiary's access to coverage for frequently abused drugs to those that are—
(A) Prescribed for the beneficiary by one or more prescribers;
(B) Dispensed to the beneficiary by one or more network pharmacies; or
(C) Both.
(iii)(A) If the sponsor implements an edit as specified in paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section, the sponsor must not cover frequently abused drugs for the beneficiary in excess of the edit, unless the edit is terminated or revised based on a subsequent determination, including a successful appeal.
(B) If the sponsor limits the at-risk beneficiary's access to coverage as specified in paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section, the sponsor must cover frequently abused drugs for the beneficiary only when they are obtained from the selected pharmacy(ies) or prescriber(s) or both, as applicable—
(1) In accordance with all other coverage requirements of the beneficiary's prescription drug benefit plan, unless the limit is terminated or revised based on a subsequent determination, including a successful appeal; and
(2) Except as necessary to provide reasonable access in accordance with paragraph (f)(12) of this section.
(4) Requirements for limiting access to coverage for frequently abused drugs. (i) A sponsor may not limit the access of an at-risk beneficiary to coverage for frequently abused drugs under paragraph (f)(3) of this section, unless the sponsor has done all of the following:
(A) Conducted case management as required by paragraph (f)(2) of this section and updated it, if necessary.
(B) Except in the case of a pharmacy limitation imposed pursuant to paragraph (f)(3)(ii)(B) of this section, obtained the agreement of at least one prescriber of frequently abused drugs for the beneficiary that the specific limitation is appropriate.
(C) Provided the notices to the beneficiary in compliance with paragraphs (f)(5) and (6) of this section.
(ii)(A) Except as provided in paragraph paragraph (f)(3)(ii)(A) of this sectionregarding a prescriber limitation, if the sponsor has complied with the requirement of paragraph paragraph (f)(2)(i)(B) of this section about attempts to reach prescribers, and the prescribers were not responsive after 3 attempts by the sponsor to contact them within 10 business days, then the sponsor has met the requirement of paragraph (f)(4)(i)(B) of this section for eliciting information from the prescribers.
(B) The sponsor may not implement a prescriber limitation pursuant to paragraph (f)(3)(ii)(A) of this section if no prescriber was responsive.
(5) Initial notice to a beneficiary. (i) After conducting the case management required by paragraph (f)(2) of this section, a Part D sponsor that intends to limit the access of a potential at-risk beneficiary, or subject to the exception in paragraph (f)(8)(ii) of this section, of an at-risk beneficiary (as defined in subparagraph (2) of the definition in § 423.100), to coverage for frequently abused drugs under paragraph (f)(3) of this section must provide an initial written notice to the beneficiary.
(ii) The notice must do all of the following:
(A) Use language approved by the Secretary.
(B) Be in a readable and understandable form.
(C) Provide all of the following information:
(1) An explanation that the beneficiary's current or immediately prior Part D plan sponsor has identified the beneficiary as a potential at-risk beneficiary.
(2) A description, of all State and Federal public health resources that are designed to address prescription drug abuse to which the beneficiary has access, including mental health and other counseling services and information on how to access such services, including any such services covered by the plan under its Medicare benefits, supplemental benefits, or Medicaid benefits (if the plan integrates coverage of Medicare and Medicaid benefits).
(3) An explanation of the beneficiary's right to a redetermination if the sponsor issues a determination that the beneficiary is an at-risk beneficiary and the standard and expedited redetermination processes described at §§ 423.582 and 423.584, including notice that if on redetermination the plan sponsor affirms its denial, in whole or in part, the case must be automatically forwarded to the independent review entity contracted with CMS for review and resolution.
(4) A request that the beneficiary submit to the sponsor within 30 days of the date of this initial notice any information that the beneficiary believes is relevant to the sponsor's determination, including which prescribers and pharmacies the beneficiary would prefer the sponsor to select if the sponsor implements a limitation under paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section.
(5) An explanation of the meaning and consequences of being identified as an at-risk beneficiary, including the following:
(i) An explanation of the sponsor's drug management program, the specific limitation the sponsor intends to place on the beneficiary's access to coverage for frequently abused drugs under the program.
(ii) The timeframe for the sponsor's decision.
(iii) If applicable, any limitation on the availability of the special enrollment period described in § 423.38.
(6) Clear instructions that explain how the beneficiary can contact the sponsor, including how the beneficiary may submit information to the sponsor in response to the request described in paragraph (f)(5)(ii)(C)(4) of this section.
(7) Contact information for other organizations that can provide the beneficiary with assistance regarding the sponsor's drug management program.
(8) Other content that CMS determines is necessary for the beneficiary to understand the information required in this notice.
(iii) The Part D plan sponsor must make reasonable efforts to provide the beneficiary's prescriber(s) of frequently abused drugs with a copy of the notice required under paragraph (f)(5)(i) of this section.
(iv) If the Part D plan sponsor subsequently intends to make a change to the terms of an ongoing limitation(s) established under paragraph (f)(3) of this section, including the intention to impose an additional limitation on the at-risk beneficiary, the sponsor must comply with the requirements of paragraph (f)(3) of this section, as well as all applicable requirements for beneficiary notices described in paragraphs (f)(5) through (8) of this section.
(6) Second notice. (i) Upon making a determination that a beneficiary is an at-risk beneficiary and to limit the beneficiary's access to coverage for frequently abused drugs under paragraph (f)(3) of this section, a Part D sponsor must provide a second written notice to the beneficiary.
(ii) The second notice must do all of the following:
(A) Use language approved by the Secretary.
(B) Be in a readable and understandable form.
(C) Provide all of the following information:
(1) An explanation that the beneficiary's current or immediately prior Part D plan sponsor has identified the beneficiary as an at-risk beneficiary.
(2) An explanation that the beneficiary is subject to the requirements of the sponsor's drug management program, including—
(i) The limitation the sponsor is placing on the beneficiary's access to coverage for frequently abused drugs and the effective and end date of the limitation; and
(ii) If applicable, any limitation on the availability of the special enrollment period described in § 423.38.
(3) The prescriber(s) or pharmacy(ies) or both, if and as applicable, from which the beneficiary must obtain frequently abused drugs in order for them to be covered by the sponsor.
(4) An explanation of the beneficiary's right to a redetermination under § 423.580, including all of the following:
(i) A description of both the standard and expedited redetermination processes.
(ii) The beneficiary's right to, and conditions for, obtaining an expedited redetermination.
(iii) Notice that if on redetermination the plan sponsor affirms its denial, in whole or in part, the case must be automatically forwarded to the independent review entity contracted with CMS for review and resolution.
(5) An explanation that the beneficiary may submit to the sponsor, if the beneficiary has not already done so, the prescriber(s) and pharmacy(ies), as applicable, from which the beneficiary would prefer to obtain frequently abused drugs.
(6) Clear instructions that explain how the beneficiary may contact the sponsor, including how the beneficiary may submit information to the sponsor in response to the request described in paragraph (f)(6)(ii)(C)(5) of this section.
(7) Other content that CMS determines is necessary for the beneficiary to understand the information required in this notice.
(iii) The Part D plan sponsor must make reasonable efforts to provide the beneficiary's prescriber(s) of frequently abused drugs with a copy of the notice required by paragraph (f)(6)(i) of this section.
(7) Alternate second notice. (i) If, after providing an initial notice to a potential at-risk beneficiary under paragraph (f)(4) of this section, a Part D sponsor determines that the potential at-risk beneficiary is not an at-risk beneficiary, the sponsor must provide an alternate second written notice to the beneficiary.
(ii) The alternate second notice must do all of the following:
(A) Use language approved by the Secretary.
(B) Be in a readable and understandable form.
(C) Provide all of the following information:
(1) The sponsor has determined that the beneficiary is not an at-risk beneficiary.
(2) The sponsor will not limit the beneficiary's access to coverage for frequently abused drugs.
(3) If applicable, the SEP limitation no longer applies.
(4) Clear instructions that explain how the beneficiary may contact the sponsor.
(5) Other content that CMS determines is necessary for the beneficiary to understand the information required in this notice.
(iii) The Part D sponsor must make reasonable efforts to provide the beneficiary's prescriber(s) of frequently abused drugs with a copy of the notice required in accordance with paragraph (f)(7)(i) of this section.
(8) Notices: Timing and exceptions. (i) Subject to paragraphs (f)(8)(ii) and (iii) of this section, a Part D sponsor must provide the second notice described in paragraph (f)(6) of this section or the alternate second notice described in paragraph (f)(7) of this section, as applicable, on a date that is not less than 30 days after the date of the initial notice described in paragraph (f)(5) of this section and not more than the earlier of the following two dates:
(A) Within 3 days of the date the sponsor makes the relevant determination.
(B) Sixty days after the date of the initial notice described in paragraph (f)(5) of this section.
(ii) In the case of a beneficiary who is determined by a Part D sponsor to be exempt, the sponsor must provide the alternate second notice within 3 days of the date the sponsor makes the relevant determination, even if such determination is made less than 30 days from the date of the initial notice described in paragraph (f)(5) of this section.
(iii) A gaining plan sponsor may forgo providing the initial notice and may immediately provide a second notice described in paragraph (f)(6) of this section to an at-risk beneficiary as defined in subparagraph (2) of the definition in § 423.100), if the sponsor is implementing either of the following:
(A) A beneficiary-specific point-of-sale claim edit as described in paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section, if the edit is the same as the one that was implemented in the immediately prior plan.
(B) A limitation on access to coverage as described in paragraph (f)(3(ii) of this section, if such limitation would require the beneficiary to obtain frequently abused drugs from the same location of pharmacy and/or the same prescriber, as applicable, that was selected under the immediately prior plan under paragraph (f)(9) of this section.
(9) Beneficiary preferences. Except as described in paragraph (f)(10) of this section, if a beneficiary submits preferences for prescribers or pharmacies or both from which the beneficiary prefers to obtain frequently abused drugs, the sponsor must do the following:
(i) Review such preferences.
(ii) If the beneficiary is—
(A) Enrolled in a stand-alone prescription drug benefit plan and specifies a prescriber(s) or network pharmacy(ies) or both, select or change the selection of prescriber(s) or network pharmacy(ies) or both for the beneficiary based on beneficiary's preference(s).
(B) Enrolled in a Medicare Advantage prescription drug benefit plan and specifies a network prescriber(s) or network pharmacy(ies) or both, select or change the selection of prescriber(s) or pharmacy(ies) or both for the beneficiary based on the beneficiary's preference(s).
(iii) The sponsor must inform the beneficiary of the selection or change in—
(A) The second notice; or
(B) If the second notice is not feasible due to the timing of the beneficiary's submission, in a subsequent written notice, issued no later than 14 days after receipt of the submission.
(10) Exception to beneficiary preferences. (i) If the Part D sponsor determines that the selection or change of a prescriber or pharmacy under paragraph (f)(9) of this section would contribute to prescription drug abuse or drug diversion by the at-risk beneficiary, the sponsor may change the selection without regard to the beneficiary's preferences if there is strong evidence of inappropriate action by the prescriber, pharmacy, or beneficiary.
(ii) If the sponsor changes the selection, the sponsor must provide the beneficiary with—
(A) At least 30 days advance written notice of the change; and
(B) A rationale for the change.
(11) Reasonable access. In making the selections under paragraph (f)(12) of this section, a Part D plan sponsor must ensure that the beneficiary continues to have reasonable access to frequently abused drugs, taking into account all relevant factors, including but not limited to—
(i) Geographic location;
(ii) Beneficiary preference;
(iii) The beneficiary's predominant usage of a prescriber or pharmacy or both;
(iv) The impact on cost-sharing;
(v) Reasonable travel time;
(vi) Whether the beneficiary has multiple residences;
(vii) Natural disasters and similar situations; and
(viii) The provision of emergency services.
(12) Selection of prescribers and pharmacies. (i) A Part D plan sponsor must select, as applicable—
(A) One, or, if the sponsor reasonably determines it necessary to provide the beneficiary with reasonable access, more than one, network prescriber who is authorized to prescribe frequently abused drugs for the beneficiary, unless the plan is a stand-alone PDP, or the selection of an out-of-network provider is necessary; and
(B) One, or, if the sponsor reasonably determines it necessary to provide the beneficiary with reasonable access, more than one, network pharmacy that may dispense such drugs to such beneficiary, unless the selection of an out-of-network pharmacy is necessary.
(ii)(A) For purposes of this paragraph (f)(12) of this section, in the case of a pharmacy that has multiple locations that share real-time electronic data, all such locations of the pharmacy must collectively be treated as one pharmacy.
(B) For purposes of this paragraph (f)(12) of this section, in the case of a group practice, all prescribers of the group practice must be treated as one prescriber.
(13) Confirmation of selections(s). (i) Before selecting a prescriber or pharmacy under this paragraph, a Part D plan sponsor must notify the prescriber or pharmacy, as applicable, that the beneficiary has been identified for inclusion in the drug management program for at-risk beneficiaries and that the prescriber or pharmacy or both is(are) being selected as the beneficiary's designated prescriber or pharmacy or both for frequently abused drugs. For prescribers, this notification occurs during case management as described in paragraph (f)(2) or when the prescriber provides agreement pursuant to paragraph (f)(4)(i)(B) of this section.
(ii) The sponsor must receive confirmation from the prescriber(s) or pharmacy(ies) or both, as applicable, that the selection is accepted before conveying this information to the at-risk beneficiary, unless the pharmacy has agreed in advance in a network agreement with the sponsor to accept all such selections and the agreement specifies how the pharmacy will be notified by the sponsor of its selection.
(14) Termination of identification as an at-risk beneficiary. The identification of an at-risk beneficiary as such must terminate as of the earlier of the following:
(i) The date the beneficiary demonstrates through a subsequent determination, including but not limited to, a successful appeal, that the beneficiary is no longer likely, in the absence of the limitation under this paragraph, to be an at-risk beneficiary; or
(ii)(A) The end of a one year period calculated from the effective date of the limitation, as specified in the notice provided under paragraph (f)(6) of this section, unless the limitation was extended pursuant to paragraph (f)(14)(ii)(B) of this section.
(B) The end of a two year period calculated from the effective date of the limitation, as specified in a notice provided under paragraph (f)(6) of this section, subject to the following requirements:
(1) The plan sponsor determines at the end of the one year period that there is a clinical basis to extend the limitation;
(2) Except in the case of a pharmacy limitation imposed pursuant to paragraph (f)(3)(ii)(B) of this section, the plan sponsor has obtained the agreement of a prescriber of frequently abused drugs for the beneficiary that the limitation should be extended.
(3) The plan sponsor has provided another notice to the beneficiary in compliance with paragraph (f)(6) of this section.
(4) If the prescribers were not responsive after 3 attempts by the sponsor to contact them within 10 business days, then the sponsor has met the requirement of paragraph (f)(14)((ii)(B)(2) of this section.
(5) The sponsor may not extend a prescriber limitation implemented pursuant to paragraph (f)(3)(ii)(A) of this section if no prescriber was responsive.
(15) Data disclosure. (i) CMS identifies potential at-risk beneficiaries to the sponsor of the prescription drug plan in which the beneficiary is enrolled.
(ii) A Part D sponsor that operates a drug management program must disclose any data and information to CMS and other Part D sponsors that CMS deems necessary to oversee Part D drug management programs at a time, and in a form and manner specified by CMS. The data and information disclosures must do all of the following:
(A) Provide information to CMS within 30 days of receiving a report about a potential at-risk beneficiary from CMS.
(B) Provide information to CMS about any potential at-risk beneficiary that meets paragraph (1) of the definition in § 423.100 that a sponsor identifies within 30 days from the date of the most recent CMS report identifying potential at-risk beneficiaries;
(C) Provide information to CMS about any potential at-risk beneficiary or at-risk beneficiary that meets paragraph (2) of the definitions in § 423.100 that a sponsor identifies within 30 days from the date of the most recent CMS report identifying potential at-risk beneficiaries.
(D) Provide information to CMS as soon as possible but no later than 7 days from the date of the initial notice or second notice that the sponsor provided to a beneficiary, or as soon as possible but no later than 7 days of a termination date, as applicable, about a beneficiary-specific opioid claim edit or a limitation on access to coverage for frequently abused drugs.
(E) Transfer case management information upon request of a gaining sponsor as soon as possible but not later than 2 weeks from the gaining sponsor's request when—
(1) An at-risk beneficiary or potential at-risk beneficiary disenrolls from the sponsor's plan and enrolls in another prescription drug plan offered by the gaining sponsor; and
(2) The edit or limitation that the sponsor had implemented for the beneficiary had not terminated before disenrollment.
(16) Clinical guidelines. Potential at-risk beneficiaries and at-risk beneficiaries are identified by CMS or a Part D sponsor using clinical guidelines that—
(i) Are developed with stakeholder consultation;
(ii) Are based on:
(1) The acquisition of frequently abused drugs from multiple prescribers, multiple pharmacies, the level of frequently abused drugs used, or any combination of these factors; or
(2) Beginning January 1, 2022, a history of opioid-related overdose as determined by at least one recent claim that contains a principal diagnosis indicating opioid overdose, and at least one recent claim for an opioid medication other than an opioid used for medication assisted therapy (MAT).
(iii) Are derived from expert opinion and an analysis of Medicare data; and
(iv) Include a program size estimate.
(g) Prescription drug plan sponsors' access to Medicare Parts A and B claims data extracts. (1)(i) Beginning in plan year 2020, a PDP sponsor may submit a request to CMS for the data described in paragraph (g)(2) of this section about enrollees in its prescription drug plans.
(ii) CMS makes the data requested in paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section available to eligible PDP sponsors, in accordance with all applicable laws. The data is provided at least quarterly on a specified release date, and in an electronic format to be determined by CMS.
(iii) If CMS determines or has a reasonable belief that the PDP sponsor has violated the requirements of this paragraph (g) or that unauthorized uses, reuses, or disclosures of the Medicare claims data have taken place, at CMS' sole discretion, the PDP sponsor may be denied further access to the data described in paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
(2) Data described. The data that may be requested under paragraph (g)(1) of this section are standardized extracts of claims data under Medicare parts A and B for items and services furnished under such parts to beneficiaries who are enrolled in a plan offered by the PDP sponsor at the time of the disclosure.
(3) Purposes. A PDP sponsor must comply with all laws that may be applicable to data received under this provision, including State and Federal privacy and security laws, and, furthermore subject to the limitations in paragraph (g)(4) of this section may only use or disclose the data provided by CMS under paragraph (g)(1) of this section for the following purposes:
(i) To optimize therapeutic outcomes through improved medication use, as such phrase is used in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section.
(ii) To improve care coordination so as to prevent adverse health outcomes, such as preventable emergency department visits and hospital readmissions.
(iii) For activities falling under paragraph (1) of the definition of “health care operations” under 45 CFR 164.501.
(iv) For activities falling under paragraph (2) of the definition of “health care operations” under 45 CFR 164.501.
(v) For “fraud and abuse detection or compliance activities” under 45 CFR 164.506(c)(4)(ii).
(vi) For disclosures that qualify as “required by law” disclosures at 45 CFR 164.103.
(4) Limitations. A PDP sponsor must comply with the following requirements regarding the data provided by CMS under this paragraph (g):
(i) The PDP sponsor will not use the data to inform coverage determinations under Part D.
(ii) The PDP sponsor will not use the data to conduct retroactive reviews of medically accepted indications determinations.
(iii) The PDP sponsor will not use the data to facilitate enrollment changes to a different prescription drug plan or an MA-PD plan offered by the same parent organization.
(iv) The PDP sponsor will not use the data to inform marketing of benefits.
(v) The PDP sponsor will contractually bind its contractors that have access to the Medicare claims data, and require their contractors to contractually bind any other potential downstream data recipients, to the terms and conditions imposed on the PDP sponsor under this paragraph (g).
(5) Ensuring the privacy and security of data. As a condition of receiving the requested data, the PDP sponsor must attest that it will adhere to the permitted uses and limitations on the use of the Medicare claims data listed in paragraphs (g)(3) and (4) of this section.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 19818, Apr. 15, 2010; 75 FR 32860, June 10, 2010; 76 FR 21573, Apr. 15, 2011; 77 FR 22169, Apr. 12, 2012; 80 FR 7963, Feb. 12, 2015; 83 FR 16739, Apr. 16, 2018; 84 FR 15841, Apr. 16, 2019; 86 FR 6116, Jan. 19, 2021; 89 FR 30834, Apr. 23, 2024; 89 FR 79452, Sept. 30, 2024]
§ 423.154 Appropriate dispensing of prescription drugs in long-term care facilities under PDPs and MA-PD plans.
(a) In general. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, when dispensing covered Part D drugs to enrollees who reside in long-term care facilities, a Part D sponsor must—
(1) Require all pharmacies servicing long-term care facilities, as defined in § 423.100 to—
(i) Dispense solid oral doses of brand-name drugs, as defined in § 423.4, to enrollees in such facilities in no greater than 14-day increments at a time;
(ii) Permit the use of uniform dispensing techniques for Part D drugs dispensed to enrollees in long-term care facilities under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section as defined by each of the long-term care facilities in which such enrollees reside; and
(2) Not penalize long-term care facilities' choice of more efficient uniform dispensing techniques described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section by prorating dispensing fees based on days' supply or quantity dispensed.
(3) Ensure that any difference in payment methodology among long-term care pharmacies incentivizes more efficient dispensing techniques.
(4) Collect and report information, in a form and manner specified by CMS, on the dispensing methodology used for each dispensing event described by paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
(b) Exclusions. CMS excludes from the requirements under paragraph (a) of this section—
(1) Solid oral doses of antibiotics; or
(2) Solid oral doses that are dispensed in their original container as indicated in the Food and Drug Administration Prescribing Information or are customarily dispensed in their original packaging to assist patients with compliance (for example, oral contraceptives).
(c) Waivers. CMS waives the requirements under paragraph (a) of this section, except paragraphs (a)(2) and (3) o this section, for pharmacies when they service intermediate care facilities for individuals with intellectual disabilities (ICFs/IID) and institutes for mental disease (IMDs) as defined in § 435.1010 and for I/T/U pharmacies (as defined in § 423.100).
(d) Applicability date. The applicability date for this section is January 1, 2013. Nothing precludes a Part D sponsor and pharmacy from mutually agreeing to an earlier implementation date.
(e) Unused drugs returned to the pharmacy. The terms and conditions that must be offered by a Part D sponsor under § 423.120(a)(5) must include provisions that address the disposal of drugs that have been dispensed to an enrollee in a long-term care facility but not used and which have been returned to the pharmacy, in accordance with Federal and State regulations, as well as whether return for credit and reuse is authorized where permitted under State law.
[76 FR 21573, Apr. 15, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 7963, Feb. 12, 2015; 88 FR 22337, Apr. 12, 2023]
§ 423.156 Consumer satisfaction surveys.
Part D contracts with 600 or more enrollees as of July of the prior year must contract with approved Medicare Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (CAHPS) survey vendors to conduct the Medicare CAHPS satisfaction survey of Part D plan enrollees in accordance with CMS specifications and submit the survey data to CMS. Part D sponsors are not required to submit CAHPS data that would otherwise be required for the calculation of the 2021 Star Ratings.
[75 FR 19818, Apr. 15, 2010, as amended at 85 FR 19290, Apr. 6, 2020]
§ 423.159 Electronic prescription drug program.
(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
Dispenser means a person or other legal entity licensed, registered, or otherwise permitted by the jurisdiction in which the person practices or the entity is located to provide drug products for human use by prescription in the course of professional practice.
Electronic media has the same meaning given this term in 45 CFR 160.103.
E-prescribing means the transmission using electronic media, of prescription or prescription-related information between a prescriber, dispenser, pharmacy benefit manager, or health plan, either directly or through an intermediary, including an e-prescribing network. E-prescribing includes, but is not limited to, two-way transmissions between the point of care and the dispenser.
Electronic prescription drug program means a program that provides for e-prescribing for covered Part D drugs prescribed for Part D eligible individuals.
Prescriber means a physician, dentist, or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise permitted by the U.S. or the jurisdiction in which he or she practices, to issue prescriptions for drugs for human use.
Prescription-related information means information regarding eligibility for drug benefits, medication history, or related health or drug information for Part D eligible individuals.
(b) [Reserved]
(c) Requirement. Part D sponsors must support and comply with electronic prescription standards relating to covered Part D drugs for Part D enrollees developed by CMS once final standards are effective.
(d) Promotion of electronic prescribing by MA-PD plans. An MA organization offering an MA-PD plan may provide for a separate or differential payment to a participating physician that prescribes covered Part D drugs in accordance with electronic prescription standards, including initial standards and final standards established by CMS once final standards are effective. Any payments must be in compliance with applicable Federal and State laws related to fraud and abuse, including the physician self-referral prohibition (section 1877 of the Act) and the Federal anti kickback statute (section 1128B(b) of the Act).
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 70 FR 67593, Nov. 7, 2005]
§ 423.160 Standards for electronic prescribing.
(a) General rules. (1) Part D sponsors must establish and maintain an electronic prescription drug program that complies with the applicable standards in paragraph (b) of this section when transmitting, directly or through an intermediary, prescriptions and prescription-related information using electronic media for covered Part D drugs for Part D eligible individuals.
(2) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, prescribers and dispensers that transmit, directly or through an intermediary, prescriptions and prescription-related information using electronic media (including entities transmitting prescriptions or prescription-related information where the prescriber is required by law to issue a prescription for a patient to a non-prescribing provider, such as a nursing facility, that in turn forwards the prescription to a dispenser), must comply with the applicable standards in paragraph (b) of this section when e-prescribing for covered Part D drugs for Part D eligible individuals.
(3)(i) Entities transmitting prescriptions or prescription-related information must utilize the NCPDP SCRIPT standard, consistent with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, in all instances other than temporary/transient network transmission failures.
(ii) Electronic transmission of prescriptions or prescription-related information by means of computer-generated facsimile is only permitted in instances of temporary/transient transmission failure and communication problems that would preclude the use of the NCPDP SCRIPT standard adopted by this section.
(iii) Entities may use either HL7 messages or the NCPDP SCRIPT standard to transmit prescriptions or prescription-related information internally when the sender and the recipient are part of the same legal entity. If an entity sends prescriptions outside the entity (for example, from an HMO to a non-HMO pharmacy), it must use the adopted NCPDP SCRIPT standard or other applicable adopted standards. Any pharmacy within an entity must be able to receive electronic prescription transmittals for Medicare beneficiaries from outside the entity using the adopted NCPDP SCRIPT standard. This exemption does not supersede any HIPAA requirement that may require the use of a HIPAA transaction standard within an organization.
(4) In accordance with section 1860D-4(e)(5) of the Act, the standards under this paragraph (b) of this section supersede any State law or regulation that—
(i) Is contrary to the standards or restricts the ability to carry out Part D of Title XVIII of the Act; and
(ii) Pertains to the electronic transmission of medication history and of information on eligibility, benefits, and prescriptions with respect to covered Part D drugs under Part D of Title XVIII of the Act.
(5) Beginning on January 1, 2021, prescribers must, except in the circumstances described in paragraphs (a)(5)(i) through (iii) of this section, conduct prescribing for at least 70 percent of their Schedule II, III, IV, and V controlled substances that are Part D drugs electronically using the applicable standards in paragraph (b) of this section, subject to the exemption in paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section. Prescriptions written for a beneficiary in a long-term care facility will not be included in determining compliance until January 1, 2028. Compliance actions against prescribers who do not meet the compliance threshold based on prescriptions written for a beneficiary in a long-term care facility will commence on or after January 1, 2028. Compliance actions against prescribers who do not meet the compliance threshold based on other prescriptions will commence on or after January 1, 2023. Prescribers will be exempt from this requirement in the following situations:
(i) Prescriber issues 100 or fewer controlled substance prescriptions for Part D drugs per calendar year as determined using CMS claims data with dates of service as of December 31st of the current year.
(ii) Prescriber has an address in PECOS in the geographic area of an emergency or disaster declared by a Federal, State, or local government entity. If a prescriber does not have an address in PECOS, prescriber has an address in NPPES in the geographic area of an emergency or disaster declared by a Federal, State, or local government entity. Starting in the 2024 measurement year, CMS will identify which emergencies or disasters qualify for this exception.
(iii) Prescriber has received a CMS-approved waiver because the prescriber is unable to conduct electronic prescribing of controlled substances (EPCS) due to circumstances beyond the prescriber's control.
(b) Standards—(1) Prescriptions, electronic prior authorization, and medication history. The communication of a prescription or prescription-related information must comply with a standard in 45 CFR 170.205(b) (incorporated by reference, see paragraph (c) of this section) for the following transactions, as applicable to the version of the standard in use:
(i)(A) GetMessage.
(B) Status.
(C) Error.
(D) RxChangeRequest and RxChangeResponse.
(E) RxRenewalRequest and RxRenewalResponse.
(F) Resupply.
(G) Verify.
(H) CancelRx and CancelRxResponse.
(I) RxFill.
(J) DrugAdministration.
(K) NewRxRequest.
(L) NewRx.
(M) NewRxResponseDenied.
(N) RxTransferInitiationRequest.
(O) RxTransfer.
(P) RxTransferConfirm.
(Q) RxFillIndicatorChange.
(R) Recertification.
(S) REMSInitiationRequest and REMSInitiationResponse.
(T) REMSRequest and REMSResponse.
(U) RxHistoryRequest and RxHistoryResponse.
(V) PAInitiationRequest and PAInitiationResponse.
(W) PARequest and PAResponse.
(X) PAAppealRequest and PAAppealResponse.
(Y) PACancelRequest and PACancelResponse.
(Z) PANotification.
(ii) [Reserved]
(2) Eligibility. Eligibility inquiries and responses between the Part D sponsor and prescribers and between the Part D sponsor and dispensers must comply with 45 CFR 162.1202.
(3) Formulary and benefits. The National Council for Prescription Drug Programs Formulary and Benefits Standard, Implementation Guide, Version 3, Release 0 (Version 3.0), (incorporated by reference, see paragraph (c)) of this section) or comply with a standard in 45 CFR 170.205(u) (incorporated by reference, see paragraph (c) of this section) for transmitting formulary and benefits information between prescribers and Part D sponsors. Beginning January 1, 2027, transmission of formulary and benefit information between prescribers and Part D sponsors must comply with a standard in 45 CFR 170.205(u) (incorporated by reference, see paragraph (c) of this section).
(4) Provider identifier. The National Provider Identifier (NPI), as defined at 45 CFR 162.406, to identify an individual health care provider to Medicare Part D sponsors, prescribers and dispensers, in electronically transmitted prescriptions or prescription-related materials for Medicare Part D covered drugs for Medicare Part D eligible individuals.
(5) Real-time benefit tools. Part D sponsors must implement one or more electronic real-time benefit tools (RTBT) that are capable of integrating with at least one prescriber's e-Prescribing (eRx) system or electronic health record (EHR) to provide complete, accurate, timely, clinically appropriate, patient-specific formulary and benefit information to the prescriber in real time for assessing coverage under the Part D plan. Such information must include enrollee cost-sharing information, clinically appropriate formulary alternatives, when available, and the formulary status of each drug presented including any utilization management requirements applicable to each alternative drug. Beginning January 1, 2027, Part D sponsors' RTBT must comply with a standard in 45 CFR 170.205(c) (incorporated by reference, see paragraph (c) of this section).
(c) Incorporation by reference. The material listed in this paragraph (c) is incorporated by reference into this section with the approval of the Director of the Federal Register under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. All approved incorporation by reference (IBR) material is available for inspection at the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) and at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Contact CMS at: CMS 7500 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, Maryland 21244; phone: (410) 786-4132 or (877) 267-2323; email: PartDPolicy@cms.hhs.gov. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations or email fr.inspection@nara.gov. The material may be obtained from National Council for Prescription Drug Programs (NCPDP), Incorporated, 9240 E Raintree Drive, Scottsdale, AZ 85260-7518; phone: (480) 477-1000; email: info@ncpdp.org; website: www.ncpdp.org.
(1) NCPDP Formulary and Benefit Standard, Implementation Guide, Version 3, Release 0 (Version 3.0), ANSI-approved January 28, 2011.
(2) NCPDP SCRIPT Standard, Implementation Guide Version 2017071, ANSI-approved July 28, 2017.
(3) NCPDP SCRIPT Standard, Implementation Guide Version 2023011, ANSI-approved January 17, 2023.
(4) NCPDP Real-Time Prescription Benefit Standard, Implementation Guide Version 13, ANSI-approved May 19, 2022.
(5) NCPDP Formulary and Benefit Standard, Implementation Guide Version 60, ANSI-approved April 12, 2023.
[89 FR 51263, June 17, 2024, as amended by 89 FR 98565, Dec. 9, 2024]
§ 423.162 Quality improvement organization activities.
(a) General rule. Quality improvement organizations (QIOs) are required to offer providers, practitioners, and Part D sponsors quality improvement assistance pertaining to health care services, including those related to prescription drug therapy, in accordance with contracts established with the Secretary.
(b) Collection of information. Information collected, acquired, or generated by a QIO in the performance of its responsibilities under this section is subject to the confidentiality provisions of part 480 of this chapter. Part D sponsors are required to provide specified information to CMS for distribution to the QIOs as well as directly to QIOs.
(c) Applicability of QIO confidentiality provisions. The provisions of part 480 of this chapter apply to Part D sponsors in the same manner as such provisions apply to institutions under part 480 of this chapter.
§ 423.165 Compliance deemed on the basis of accreditation.
(a) General rule. A Part D sponsor is deemed to meet all of the requirements of any of the areas described in paragraph (b) of this section if—
(1) The Part D sponsor is fully accredited (and periodically reaccredited) for the standards related to the applicable area under paragraph (b) of this section by a private, national accreditation organization approved by CMS; and
(2) The accreditation organization uses the standards approved by CMS for the purposes of assessing the Part D sponsor's compliance with Medicare requirements.
(b) Deemable requirements. The requirements relating to the following areas are deemable:
(1) Access to covered drugs, as provided under §§ 423.120 and 423.124.
(2) Drug utilization management programs, quality assurance measures and systems, and MTM programs as provided under § 423.153.
(3) Privacy, confidentiality, and accuracy of enrollee records, as provided under § 423.136.
(c) Effective date of deemed status. The date the Part D sponsor is deemed to meet the applicable requirements is the later of the following:
(1) The date the accreditation organization is approved by CMS.
(2) The date the Part D sponsor is accredited by the accreditation organization.
(d) Obligations of deemed Part D sponsors. A Part D sponsor deemed to meet Medicare requirements must—
(1) Submit to surveys by CMS to validate its accreditation organization's accreditation process; and
(2) Authorize its accreditation organization to release to CMS a copy of its most recent accreditation survey, together with any survey-related information that CMS may require (including corrective action plans and summaries of unmet CMS requirements).
(e) Removal of deemed status. CMS removes part or all of a Part D sponsor's deemed status for any of the following reasons—
(1) CMS determines, on the basis of its own investigation, that the Part D sponsor does not meet the Medicare requirements for which deemed status was granted.
(2) CMS withdraws its approval of the accreditation organization that accredited the Part D sponsor.
(3) The Part D sponsor fails to meet the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section.
(f) Authority. Nothing in this section limits CMS' authority under subparts K and O of this part, including, but not limited to the ability to impose intermediate sanctions, civil money penalties, and terminate a contract with a Part D plan sponsor.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 19818, Apr. 15, 2010; 89 FR 30835, Apr. 23, 2024]
§ 423.168 Accreditation organizations.
(a) Conditions for approval. CMS may approve an accreditation organization for a given standard under this part if the organization meets the following conditions:
(1) In accrediting Part D sponsors and Part D plans, it applies and enforces standards that are at least as stringent as Medicare requirements for the standard or standards in question.
(2) It complies with the application and reapplication procedures set forth in § 423.171.
(3) It ensures that—
(i) Any individual associated with it, who is also associated with an entity it accredits, does not influence the accreditation decision concerning that entity;
(ii) The majority of the membership of its governing body is not comprised of managed care organizations, Part D sponsors or their representatives; and
(iii) Its governing body has a broad and balanced representation of interests and acts without bias.
(b) Notice and comment—(1) Proposed notice. CMS publishes a notice in the Federal Register whenever it is considering granting an accreditation organization's application for approval. The notice-
(i) Announces CMS's receipt of the accreditation organization's application for approval;
(ii) Describes the criteria CMS uses in evaluating the application; and
(iii) Provides at least a 30-day comment period.
(2) Final notice. (i) After reviewing public comments, CMS publishes a final notice in the Federal Register indicating whether it has granted the accreditation organization's request for approval.
(ii) If CMS grants the request, the final notice specifies the effective date and the term of the approval that may not exceed 6 years.
(c) Ongoing responsibilities of an approved accreditation organization. An accreditation organization approved by CMS must undertake the following activities on an ongoing basis:
(1) Provide to CMS in written form and on a monthly basis all of the following:
(i) Copies of all accreditation surveys, together with any survey-related information that CMS may require including corrective action plans and summaries of unmet CMS requirements).
(ii) Notice of all accreditation decisions.
(iii) Notice of all complaints related to deemed Part D sponsors.
(iv) Information about any Part D sponsor against which the accrediting organization has taken remedial or adverse action, including revocation, withdrawal, or revision of the Part D sponsor's accreditation. (The accreditation organization must provide this information within 30 days of taking the remedial or adverse action.)
(v) Notice of any proposed changes in its accreditation standards or requirements or survey process. If the organization implements the changes before or without CMS approval, CMS may withdraw its approval of the accreditation organization.
(2) Within 30 days of a change in CMS requirements, submit the following to CMS—
(i) An acknowledgment of CMS's notification of the change.
(ii) A revised crosswalk reflecting the new requirements.
(iii) An explanation of how the accreditation organization plans to alter its standards to conform to CMS's new requirements, within the timeframes specified in the notification of change it receives from CMS.
(3) Permit its surveyors to serve as witnesses if CMS takes an adverse action based on accreditation findings.
(4) Within 3 days of identifying, in an accredited Part D sponsor, a deficiency that as determined by the accrediting organization poses immediate jeopardy to the plan's enrollees or to the general public, give CMS written notice of the deficiency.
(5) Within 10 days of CMS's notice of withdrawal of approval, give written notice of the withdrawal to all accredited Part D sponsors.
(6) On an annual basis, provide summary data specified by CMS that relate to the past year's accreditation activities and trends.
(d) Continuing Federal oversight of approved accreditation organizations. Specific criteria and procedures for continuing oversight and for withdrawing approval of an accreditation organization include the following:
(1) Equivalency review. CMS compares the accreditation organization's standards and its application and enforcement of those standards to the comparable CMS requirements and processes when—
(i) CMS imposes new requirements or changes its survey process;
(ii) An accreditation organization proposes to adopt new standards or changes in its survey process; or
(iii) The term of an accreditation organization's approval expires.
(2) Validation review. CMS or its agent may conduct a survey of an accredited organization, examine the results of the accreditation organization's own survey, or attend the accreditation organization's survey to validate the organization's accreditation process. At the conclusion of the review, CMS identifies any accreditation programs for which validation survey results indicate—
(i) A 20 percent rate of disparity between certification by the accreditation organization and certification by CMS or its agent on standards that do not constitute immediate jeopardy to patient health and safety if unmet;
(ii) Any disparity between certification by the accreditation organization and certification by CMS or its agent on standards that constitute immediate jeopardy to patient health and safety if unmet; or
(iii) That, regardless of the rate of disparity, there are widespread or systematic problems in an organization's accreditation process that accreditation no longer provides assurance that the Medicare requirements are met or exceeded.
(3) Onsite observation. CMS may conduct an onsite inspection of the accreditation organization's operations and offices to verify the organization's representations and assess the organization's compliance with its own policies and procedures. The onsite inspection may include, but is not limited to the following:
(i) Reviewing documents.
(ii) Auditing meetings concerning the accreditation process.
(iii) Evaluating survey results or the accreditation status decision-making process.
(iv) Interviewing the organization's staff.
(4) Notice of intent to withdraw approval. If an equivalency review, validation review, onsite observation, or CMS's daily experience with the accreditation organization suggests that the accreditation organization is not meeting the requirements of this subpart, CMS gives the organization written notice of its intent to withdraw approval.
(5) Withdrawal of approval. CMS may withdraw its approval of an accreditation organization at any time if CMS determines that—
(i) Deeming, based on accreditation, no longer guarantees that the Part D sponsor meets the requirements for offering qualified prescription drug coverage, and failure to meet those requirements may jeopardize the health or safety of Medicare enrollees and constitute a significant hazard to the public health; or
(ii) The accreditation organization has failed to meet its obligations under this section or under § 423.165 or § 423.171.
(6) Reconsideration of withdrawal of approval. An accreditation organization dissatisfied with a determination to withdraw CMS approval may request a reconsideration of that determination in accordance with subpart D of part 488 of this chapter.
§ 423.171 Procedures for approval of accreditation as a basis for deeming compliance.
(a) Required information and materials. A private, national accreditation organization applying for approval must furnish to CMS all of the following information and materials (when reapplying for approval, the organization need furnish only the particular information and materials requested by CMS):
(1) The types of Part D plans and sponsors that it reviews as part of its accreditation process.
(2) A detailed comparison of the organization's accreditation requirements and standards with the Medicare requirements (for example, a crosswalk).
(3) Detailed information about the organization's survey process, including the following:
(i) Frequency of surveys and whether surveys are announced or unannounced.
(ii) Copies of survey forms, and guidelines and instructions to surveyors.
(iii) Descriptions of—
(A) The survey review process and the accreditation status decision making process;
(B) The procedures used to notify accredited Part D sponsors of deficiencies and to monitor the correction of those deficiencies; and
(C) The procedures used to enforce compliance with accreditation requirements.
(4) Detailed information about the individuals who perform surveys for the accreditation organization, including the—
(i) Size and composition of accreditation survey teams for each type of plan reviewed as part of the accreditation process;
(ii) Education and experience requirements surveyors must meet;
(iii) Content and frequency of the in-service training provided to survey personnel;
(iv) Evaluation systems used to monitor the performance of individual surveyors and survey teams; and
(v) Organization's policies and practice for the participation, in surveys or in the accreditation decision process by an individual who is professionally or financially affiliated with the entity being surveyed.
(5) A description of the organization's data management and analysis system for its surveys and accreditation decisions, including the kinds of reports, tables, and other displays generated by that system.
(6) A description of the organization's procedures for responding to and investigating complaints against accredited organizations, including policies and procedures regarding coordination of these activities with appropriate licensing bodies and ombudsmen programs.
(7) A description of the organization's policies and procedures for the withholding or removal of accreditation for failure to meet the accreditation organization's standards or requirements, and other actions the organization takes in response to noncompliance with its standards and requirements.
(8) A description of all types (for example, full or partial) and categories (for example, provisional, conditional, or temporary) of accreditation offered by the organization, the duration of each type and category of accreditation, and a statement identifying the types and categories that serve as a basis for accreditation if CMS approves the accreditation organization.
(9) A list of all currently accredited Part D sponsors and MA organizations and the type, category, and expiration date of the accreditation held by each of them.
(10) A list of all full and partial accreditation surveys scheduled to be performed by the accreditation organization as requested by CMS.
(11) The name and address of each person with an ownership or control interest in the accreditation organization.
(b) Required supporting documentation. A private, national accreditation organization applying or reapplying for approval also must submit the following supporting documentation—
(1) A written presentation that demonstrates its ability to furnish CMS with electronic data in CMS compatible format.
(2) A resource analysis that demonstrates that it's staffing, funding, and other resources are adequate to perform the required surveys and related activities.
(3) A statement acknowledging that, as a condition for approval, it agrees to comply with the ongoing responsibility requirements of § 423.168(c).
(c) Additional information. If CMS determines that it needs additional information for a determination to grant or deny the accreditation organization's request for approval, it notifies the organization and allows time for the organization to provide the additional information.
(d) Onsite visit. CMS may visit the accreditation organization's offices to verify representations made by the organization in its application, including, but not limited to, review of documents and interviews with the organization's staff.
(e) Notice of determination. CMS gives the accreditation organization, within 210 days of receipt of its completed application, a formal notice that—
(1) States whether the request for approval is granted or denied;
(2) Gives the rationale for any denial; and
(3) Describes the reconsideration and reapplication procedures.
(f) Withdrawal. An accreditation organization may withdraw its application for approval at any time before it receives the formal notice specified in paragraph (e) of this section.
(g) Reconsideration of adverse determination. An accreditation organization that has received a notice of denial of its request for approval may request a reconsideration in accordance with subpart D of part 488 of this chapter.
(h) Request for approval following denial. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (h)(2) of this section, an accreditation organization that has received notice of denial of its request for approval may submit a new request if it—
(i) Has revised its accreditation program to correct the deficiencies on which the denial was based.
(ii) Can demonstrate that the Part D sponsors that it has accredited meet or exceed applicable Medicare requirements; and
(iii) Resubmits the application in its entirety.
(2) An accreditation organization that has requested reconsideration of CMS' denial of its request for approval may not submit a new request until the reconsideration is administratively final.
§ 423.180 Basis and scope of the Part D Prescription Drug Plan Quality Rating System.
(a) Basis. This subpart is based on sections 1851(d), 1852(e), 1853(o) and 1854(b)(3)(iii), (v), and (vi) of the Act and the general authority under section 1856(b) of the Act requiring the establishment of standards consistent with and to carry out Part D.
(b) Purpose. Ratings calculated and assigned under this subpart will be used by CMS for the following purposes:
(1) To provide comparative information on plan quality and performance to beneficiaries for their use in making knowledgeable enrollment and coverage decisions in the Medicare program.
(2) To provide quality ratings on a 5-star rating system.
(3) To provide a means to evaluate and oversee overall and specific compliance with certain regulatory and contract requirements by Part D plans, where appropriate and possible to use data of the type described in § 423.182(c).
(c) Applicability. Except for § 423.182(b)(3), the regulations in this subpart will be applicable beginning with the 2019 measurement period and the associated 2021 Star Ratings that are released prior to the annual coordinated election period for the 2021 contract year.
[83 FR 16743, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 423.182 Part D Prescription Drug Plan Quality Rating System.
(a) Definitions. In this subpart the following terms have the meanings:
Absolute percentage cap is a cap applied to non-CAHPS measures that are on a 0 to 100 scale that restricts movement of the current year's measure-threshold-specific cut point to no more than the stated percentage as compared to the prior year's cut point.
CAHPS refers to a comprehensive and evolving family of surveys that ask consumers and patients to evaluate the interpersonal aspects of health care. CAHPS surveys probe those aspects of care for which consumers and patients are the best or only source of information, as well as those that consumers and patients have identified as being important. CAHPS initially stood for the Consumer Assessment of Health Plans Study, but as the products have evolved beyond health plans the acronym now stands for Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems.
Case-mix adjustment means an adjustment to the measure score made prior to the score being converted into a Star Rating to take into account certain enrollee characteristics that are not under the control of the plan. For example age, education, chronic medical conditions, and functional health status that may be related to the enrollee's survey responses.
Categorical Adjustment Index (CAI) means the factor that is added to or subtracted from an overall or summary Star Rating (or both) to adjust for the average within-contract (or within-plan as applicable) disparity in performance associated with the percentages of beneficiaries who are dually eligible for Medicare and enrolled in Medicaid, beneficiaries who receive a Low Income Subsidy, or have disability status in that contract (or plan as applicable).
Clustering refers to a variety of techniques used to partition data into distinct groups such that the observations within a group are as similar as possible to each other, and as dissimilar as possible to observations in any other group. Clustering of the measure-specific scores means that gaps that exist within the distribution of the scores are identified to create groups (clusters) that are then used to identify the four cut points resulting in the creation of five levels (one for each Star Rating), such that the scores in the same Star Rating level are as similar as possible and the scores in different Star Rating levels are as different as possible. Technically, the variance in measure scores is separated into within-cluster and between-cluster sum of squares components. The clusters reflect the groupings of numeric value scores that minimize the variance of scores within the clusters. The Star Ratings levels are assigned to the clusters that minimize the within-cluster sum of squares. The cut points for star assignments are derived from the range of measure scores per cluster, and the star levels associated with each cluster are determined by ordering the means of the clusters.
Consolidation means when an MA organization that has at least two contracts for health and/or drug services of the same plan type under the same parent organization in a year combines multiple contracts into a single contract for the start of the subsequent contract year.
Consumed contract means a contract that will no longer exist after a contract year's end as a result of a consolidation.
Cut point cap is a restriction on the change in the amount of movement a measure-threshold-specific cut point can make as compared to the prior year's measure-threshold-specific cut point. A cut point cap can restrict upward movement, downward movement, or both.
Display page means the CMS website on which certain measures and scores are publicly available for informational purposes; the measures that are presented on the display page are not used in assigning Part C and D Star Ratings.
Domain rating means the rating that groups measures together by dimensions of care.
Dual-eligible (DE) means a beneficiary who is enrolled in both Medicare and Medicaid.
Guardrail is a bidirectional cap that restricts both upward and downward movement of a measure-threshold-specific cut point for the current year's measure-level Star Ratings as compared to the prior year's measure-threshold-specific cut point.
Health equity index means an index that summarizes contract performance among those with specified social risk factors (SRFs) across multiple measures into a single score.
Highest rating means the overall rating for MA-PDs, the Part C summary rating for MA-only contracts, and the Part D summary rating for PDPs.
Highly-rated contract means a contract that has 4 or more stars for its highest rating when calculated without the improvement measures and with all applicable adjustments in § 423.186(f).
Low-income subsidy (LIS) means the subsidy that a beneficiary receives to help pay for prescription drug coverage (see § 423.34 for definition of a low-income subsidy eligible individual).
Mean resampling refers to a technique where measure-specific scores for the current year's Star Ratings are randomly separated into 10 equal-sized groups. The hierarchal clustering algorithm is done 10 times, each time leaving one of the 10 groups out. By leaving out one of the 10 groups for each run, 9 of the 10 groups, which is 90 percent of the applicable measure scores, are used for each run of the clustering algorithm. The method results in 10 sets of measure-specific cut points. The mean cut point for each threshold per measure is calculated using the 10 values.
Measurement period means the period for which data are collected for a measure or the performance period that a measures covers.
Measure score means the numeric value of the measure or an assigned `missing data' message.
Measure star means the measure's numeric value is converted to a Star Rating. It is displayed to the nearest whole star, using a 1-5 star scale.
Overall rating means a global rating that summarizes the quality and performance for the types of services offered across all unique Part C and Part D measures.
Part C summary rating means a global rating that summarizes the health plan quality and performance on Part C measures.
Part D summary rating means a global rating that summarizes prescription drug plan quality and performance on Part D measures.
Plan benefit package (PBP) means a set of benefits for a defined MA or PDP service area. The PBP is submitted by Part D plan sponsors and MA organizations to CMS for benefit analysis, bidding, marketing, and beneficiary communication purposes.
Reliability means a measure of the fraction of the variation among the observed measure values that is due to real differences in quality (“signal”) rather than random variation (“noise”); it is reflected on a scale from 0 (all differences in plan performance measure scores are due to measurement error) to 1 (the difference in plan performance scores is attributable to real differences in performance).
Restricted range is the difference between the maximum and minimum measure score values using the prior year measure scores excluding outer fence outliers (first quartile −3*Interquartile Range (IQR) and third quartile + 3*IQR).
Restricted range cap is a cap applied to non-CAHPS measures that restricts movement of the current year's measure-threshold-specific cut point to no more than the stated percentage of the restricted range of a measure calculated using the prior year's measure score distribution.
Reward factor means a rating-specific factor added to the contract's summary or overall ratings (or both) if a contract has both high and stable relative performance.
Statistical significance assesses how likely differences observed in performance are due to random chance alone under the assumption that plans are actually performing the same.
Surviving contract means the contact that will still exist under a consolidation, and all of the beneficiaries enrolled in the consumed contract(s) are moved to the surviving contracts.
Traditional rounding rules mean that the last digit in a value will be rounded. If rounding to a whole number, look at the digit in the first decimal place. If the digit in the first decimal place is 0, 1, 2, 3 or 4, then the value should be rounded down by deleting the digit in the first decimal place. If the digit in the first decimal place is 5 or greater, then the value should be rounded up by 1 and the digit in the first decimal place deleted.
Tukey outer fence outliers are measure scores that are below a certain point (first quartile−3.0 × (third quartile−first quartile)) or above a certain point (third quartile + 3.0 × (third quartile−first quartile)).
(b) Contract ratings—(1) General. CMS calculates an overall Star Rating, Part C summary rating, and Part D summary rating for each MA-PD contract and a Part D summary rating for each PDP contract using the 5-star rating system described in this subpart. For PDP contracts, the Part D summary rating is the highest rating. Measures are assigned stars at the contract level and weighted in accordance with § 423.186(a). Domain ratings are the unweighted mean of the individual measure ratings under the topic area in accordance with § 423.186(b). Summary ratings are the weighted mean of the individual measure ratings for Part C or Part D in accordance with § 423.186(c), with the applicable adjustments provided in paragraph (f) of this section. Overall Star Ratings are calculated by using the weighted mean of the individual measure ratings in accordance with § 423.186(d), with the applicable adjustments provided in paragraph (f) of this section. CMS includes the Star Ratings measures in the overall and summary ratings that are associated with the contract type for the Star Ratings year.
(2) Plan benefit packages. All plan benefit packages (PBPs) offered under an MA contract or PDP plan sponsor have the same overall and/or summary Star Ratings as the contract under which the PBP is offered by the MA organization or PDP plan sponsor. Data from all the PBPs offered under a contract are used to calculate the measure and domain ratings for the contract.
(3) Contract consolidations. (i) In the case of contract consolidations involving two or more contracts for health and/or drug services of the same plan type under the same parent organization, CMS assigns Star Ratings for the first and second years following the consolidation based on the enrollment-weighted mean of the measure scores of the surviving and consumed contract(s) as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section.
(ii) The Star Ratings posted on Medicare Plan Finder for contracts that consolidate are as follows:
(A)(1) For the first year after consolidation, CMS uses enrollment-weighted measure scores using the July enrollment of the measurement period of the consumed and surviving contracts for all measures, except survey-based measures, call center measures, and improvement measures. The survey-based measures will use enrollment of the surviving and consumed contracts at the time the sample is pulled for the rating year. The call center measures will use average enrollment during the study period. The Part C and D improvement measures are not calculated for first year consolidations.
(2) For contract consolidations approved on or after January 1, 2022, if a measure score for a consumed or surviving contract is missing due to a data integrity issue as described in § 423.184(g)(1)(i), CMS assigns a score of zero for the missing measure score in the calculation of the enrollment-weighted measure score. If a measure score for a consumed or surviving contract is missing due to not having enough data to meet the measure technical specification or the reliability is less than 0.6 for a CAHPS measure, CMS treats this measure score as missing in the calculation of the enrollment-weighted measure score.
(B)(1) For the second year after consolidation, CMS uses the enrollment-weighted measure scores using the July enrollment of the measurement year of the consumed and surviving contracts for all measures except for CAHPS. CMS ensures that the CAHPS survey sample includes enrollees in the sample frame from both the surviving and consumed contracts.
(2) For contract consolidations approved on or after January 1, 2022, for all measures except CAHPS, if a measure score for a consumed or surviving contract is missing due to a data integrity issue as described in § 423.184(g)(1)(i), CMS assigns a score of zero for the missing measure score in the calculation of the enrollment-weighted measure score. For all measures except CAHPS and call center measures, if a measure score for a consumed or surviving contract is missing due to not having enough data to meet the measure technical specification, CMS treats this measure score as missing in the calculation of the enrollment-weighted measure score.
(iii) This provision governing the Star Ratings of surviving contracts is applicable to contract consolidations that are approved on or after January 1, 2019.
(c) Data sources. (1) Part D Star Ratings measures reflect structure, process, and outcome indices of quality. This includes information of the following types: Beneficiary experiences, benefit administration information, clinical data, and CMS administrative data. Data underlying Star Ratings measures may include survey data, data separately collected and used in oversight of Part D plans' compliance with contract requirements, data submitted by plans, and CMS administrative data.
(2) Part D sponsors are required to collect, analyze, and report data that permit measurements of health outcomes and other indices of quality. Part D sponsors must provide unbiased, accurate, and complete quality data described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section to CMS on a timely basis as requested by CMS.
(3) For 2021 Star Ratings only, Part D sponsors are not required to submit CAHPS data that would otherwise be required for the calculation of the 2021 Star Ratings.
[83 FR 16743, Apr. 16, 2018; 84 FR 15841, Apr. 16, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 19290, Apr. 6, 2020; 85 FR 33911, June 2, 2020; 86 FR 6118, Jan. 19, 2021; 88 FR 22337, Apr. 12, 2023; 91 FR 17587, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.184 Adding, updating, and removing measures.
(a) General. CMS adds, updates, and removes measures used to calculate the Star Ratings as provided in this section. CMS lists the measures used for a particular Star Rating each year in the Technical Notes or similar guidance document with publication of the Star Ratings.
(b) Review of data quality. CMS reviews the quality of the data on which performance, scoring and rating of a measure is based before using the data to score and rate performance or in calculating a Star Rating. This includes review of variation in scores among MA organizations and Part D plan sponsors, and the accuracy, reliability, and validity of measures and performance data before making a final determination about inclusion of measures in each year's Star Ratings.
(c) Adding measures. (1) CMS will continue to review measures that are nationally endorsed and in alignment with the private sector, such as measures developed by National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA) and the Pharmacy Quality Alliance (PQA) or endorsed by the National Quality Forum for adoption and use in the Part D Quality Ratings System. CMS may develop its own measures as well when appropriate to measure and reflect performance specific to the Medicare program.
(2) In advance of the measurement period, CMS will announce potential new measures and solicit feedback through the process described for changes in and adoption of payment and risk adjustment policies in section 1853(b) of the Act and then subsequently will propose and finalize new measures through rulemaking.
(3) New measures added to the Part D Star Ratings program will be on the display page on www.cms.gov for a minimum of 2 years prior to becoming a Star Ratings measure.
(4) A measure will remain on the display page for longer than 2 years if CMS finds reliability or validity issues with the measure specification.
(d) Updating measures—(1) Non-substantive updates. For measures that are already used for Star Ratings, CMS will update measures so long as the changes in a measure are not substantive. CMS will announce non-substantive updates to measures that occur (or are announced by the measure steward) during or in advance of the measurement period through the process described for changes in and adoption of payment and risk adjustment policies in section 1853(b) of the Act. Non-substantive measure specification updates include those that—
(i) Narrow the denominator or population covered by the measure;
(ii) Do not meaningfully impact the numerator or denominator of the measure;
(iii) Update the clinical codes with no change in the target population or the intent of the measure;
(iv) Provide additional clarifications:
(A) Adding additional qualifiers that would meet the numerator requirements;
(B) Clarifying documentation requirements;
(C) Adding additional instructions; or
(v) Add alternative data sources or expand modes of data collection.
(2) Substantive updates. For measures that are already used for Star Ratings, in the case of measure specification updates that are substantive updates not subject to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, CMS will propose and finalize these measures through rulemaking similar to the process for adding new measures. CMS will initially solicit feedback on whether to make substantive measure updates through the process described for changes in and adoption of payment and risk adjustment policies in section 1853(b) of the Act. Once the update has been made to the measure specification by the measure steward, CMS may continue collection of the performance data for the legacy measure and include it in Star Ratings until the updated measure has been on display for 2 years. CMS will place the updated measure on the display page for at least 2 years prior to using the updated measure to calculate and assign Star Ratings as specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
(e) Removing measures. (1) CMS will remove a measure from the Star Ratings program as follows:
(i) When the clinical guidelines associated with the specifications of the measure change such that the specifications are no longer believed to align with positive health outcomes, or
(ii) A measure shows low statistical reliability.
(iii) The measure steward other than CMS retires a measure.
(2) CMS will announce the removal of a measure based upon its application of paragraph (e)(1) of this section through the process described for changes in and adoption of payment and risk adjustment policies in section 1853(b) of the Act in advance of the measurement period or will propose and finalize the removal of the measure through rulemaking in advance of the measurement period.
(3) CMS will propose and finalize the removal of a measure for any reason not stated in paragraph (e)(1) of this section through rulemaking in advance of the measurement period.
(f) Improvement measure. CMS will calculate improvement measure scores based on a comparison of the measure scores for the current year to the immediately preceding year as provided in this paragraph (f); the improvement measure score would be calculated for Parts C and D separately by taking a weighted sum of net improvement divided by the weighted sum of the number of eligible measures.
(1) Identifying eligible measures. Annually, the subset of measures to be included in the Part D improvement measure will be announced through the process described for changes in and adoption of payment and risk adjustment policies in section 1853(b) of the Act. CMS identifies measures to be used in the improvement measure if the measures meet all the following:
(i) CMS will include only measures available for the current and previous year in the improvement measures and that have numeric value scores in both the current and prior year.
(ii) CMS will exclude any measure for which there was a substantive specification change from the previous year.
(iii) The Part D improvement measure will include only Part D measure scores.
(iv) CMS excludes any measure that receives a measure-level Star Rating reduction for data integrity concerns for either the current or prior year from the improvement measure(s).
(2) Determining eligible contracts. CMS will calculate an improvement score only for contracts that have numeric measure scores for both years in at least half of the measures identified for use applying the standards in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section.
(3) Special rules for calculation of the improvement score. For any measure used for the improvement measure for which a contract received 5 stars in each of the years examined, but for which the measure score demonstrates a statistically significant decline based on the results of the significance testing (at a level of significance of 0.05) on the change score, the measure will be categorized as having no significant change and included in the count of measures used to determine eligibility for the measure (that is, for the denominator of the improvement measure score).
(4) Calculation of the improvement score. The improvement measure will be calculated as follows:
(i) The improvement change score (the difference in the measure scores in the 2-year period) will be determined for each measure that has been designated an improvement measure and for which a contract has a numeric score for each of the 2 years examined.
(ii) Each contract's improvement change score per measure will be categorized as a significant change or not a significant change by employing a two-tailed t-test with a level of significance of 0.05.
(iii) The net improvement per measure category (outcome, access, patient experience, process) would be calculated by finding the difference between the weighted number of significantly improved measures and significantly declined measures, using the measure weights associated with each measure category.
(iv) The improvement measure score will then be determined by calculating the weighted sum of the net improvement per measure category divided by the weighted sum of the number of eligible measures.
(v) The improvement measure scores will be converted to measure-level Star Ratings by determining the cut points using hierarchical clustering algorithms in accordance with § 423.186(a)(2)(i) through (iii).
(vi) The Part D improvement measure cut points for MA-PDs and PDPs will be determined using separate clustering algorithms in accordance with §§ 422.166(a)(2)(iii) and 423.186(a)(2)(iii).
(g) Data integrity. (1) CMS will reduce a contract's measure rating when CMS determines that a contract's measure data are inaccurate, incomplete, or biased; such determinations may be based on a number of reasons, including mishandling of data, inappropriate processing, or implementation of incorrect practices that have an impact on the accuracy, impartiality, or completeness of the data used for one or more specific measure(s).
(i) CMS will reduce measures based on data that a Part D organization must submit to CMS under § 423.514 to 1 star when a contract did not score at least 95 percent on data validation for the applicable reporting section or was not compliant with CMS data validation standards/sub-standards for data directly used to calculate the associated measure.
(ii) [Reserved]
(2) CMS will reduce a measure rating to 1 star for additional concerns that data inaccuracy, incompleteness, or bias have an impact on measure scores and are not specified in paragraphs (g)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, including a contract's failure to adhere to CAHPS reporting requirements.
(h) Review of sponsors' data. (1) A Part D plan sponsor may request that CMS or the IRE review its' contract's appeals data provided that the request is received by the annual deadline set by CMS for the applicable Star Ratings year.
(2) A Part D plan sponsor may request that CMS review its' contract's Complaints Tracking Module (CTM) data provided that the request is received by the annual deadline set by CMS for the applicable Star Ratings year.
(i) [Reserved]
(3) Beginning with the 2025 measurement year (2027 Star Ratings), Part D sponsor may request that CMS review its contract's administrative data for Patient Safety measures provided that the request is received by the annual deadline set by CMS for the applicable Star Ratings year.
[83 FR 16743, Apr. 16, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 15842, Apr. 16, 2019; 85 FR 19291, Apr. 6, 2020; 86 FR 6118, Jan. 19, 2021; 87 FR 27899, May 9, 2022; 88 FR 22338, Apr. 12, 2023; 89 FR 30835, Apr. 23, 2024; 91 FR 17588, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.186 Calculation of Star Ratings.
(a) Measure Star Ratings—(1) Cut points. CMS will determine cut points for the assignment of a Star Rating for each numeric measure score by applying either a clustering or a relative distribution and significance testing methodology. For the Part D measures, CMS will determine MA-PD and PDP cut points separately.
(2) Clustering algorithm for all measures except CAHPS measures.
(i) The method maximizes differences across the star categories and minimizes the differences within star categories using mean resampling with the hierarchal clustering of the current year's data. Effective for the Star Ratings issued in October 2023 and subsequent years, prior to applying mean resampling with hierarchal clustering, Tukey outer fence outliers are removed. Effective for the Star Ratings issued in October 2022 and subsequent years, CMS will add a guardrail so that the measure-threshold-specific cut points for non-CAHPS measures do not increase or decrease more than the value of the cap from 1 year to the next. The cap is equal to 5 percentage points for measures having a 0 to 100 scale (absolute percentage cap) or 5 percent of the restricted range for measures not having a 0 to 100 scale (restricted range cap). New measures that have been in the Part C and D Star Rating program for 3 years or less use the hierarchal clustering methodology with mean resampling with no guardrail for the first 3 years in the program.
(ii) In cases where multiple clusters have the same measure score value range, those clusters would be combined, leading to fewer than 5 clusters.
(iii) The clustering algorithm for the improvement measure scores is done in two steps to determine the cut points for the measure-level Star Ratings. Clustering is conducted separately for improvement measure scores greater than or equal to zero and those with improvement measure scores less than zero.
(A) Improvement scores of zero or greater would be assigned at least 3 stars for the improvement Star Rating.
(B) Improvement scores less than zero would be assigned either 1 or 2 stars for the improvement Star Rating.
(3) Relative distribution and significance testing for CAHPS measures. The method combines evaluating the relative percentile distribution with significance testing and accounts for the reliability of scores produced from survey data; no measure Star Rating is produced if the reliability of a CAHPS measure is less than 0.60. Low reliability scores are defined as those with at least 11 respondents, reliability greater than or equal to 0.60 but less than 0.75, and also in the lowest 12 percent of contracts ordered by reliability. The following rules apply:
(i) A contract is assigned 1 star if both of the criteria in paragraphs (a)(3)(i)(A) and (B) of this section are met plus at least one of the criteria in paragraphs (a)(3)(i)(C) or (D) of this section is met:
(A) Its average CAHPS measure score is lower than the 15th percentile; and
(B) Its average CAHPS measure score is statistically significantly lower than the national average CAHPS measure score;
(C) The reliability is not low; or
(D) Its average CAHPS measure score is more than one standard error below the 15th percentile.
(ii) A contract is assigned 2 stars if it does not meet the 1-star criteria and meets at least one of these three criteria:
(A) Its average CAHPS measure score is lower than the 30th percentile and the measure does not have low reliability; or
(B) Its average CAHPS measure score is lower than the 15th percentile and the measure has low reliability; or
(C) Its average CAHPS measure score is statistically significantly lower than the national average CAHPS measure score and below the 60th percentile.
(iii) A contract is assigned 3 stars if it meets at least one of these three criteria:
(A) Its average CAHPS measure score is at or above the 30th percentile and lower than the 60th percentile, and it is not statistically significantly different from the national average CAHPS measure score; or
(B) Its average CAHPS measure score is at or above the 15th percentile and lower than the 30th percentile, the reliability is low, and the score is not statistically significantly lower than the national average CAHPS measure score; or
(C) Its average CAHPS measure score is at or above the 60th percentile and lower than the 80th percentile, the reliability is low, and the score is not statistically significantly higher than the national average CAHPS measure score.
(iv) A contract is assigned 4 stars if it does not meet the 5-star criteria and meets at least one of these three criteria:
(A) Its average CAHPS measure score is at or above the 60th percentile and the measure does not have low reliability; or
(B) Its average CAHPS measure score is at or above the 80th percentile and the measure has low reliability; or
(C) Its average CAHPS measure score is statistically significantly higher than the national average CAHPS measure score and above the 30th percentile.
(v) A contract is assigned 5 stars if both of the following criteria in paragraphs (a)(3)(v)(A) and (B) of this section are met plus at least one of the criteria in paragraphs (a)(3)(v)(C) or (D) of this section is met:
(A) Its average CAHPS measure score is at or above the 80th percentile; and
(B) Its average CAHPS measure score is statistically significantly higher than the national average CAHPS measure score;
(C) The reliability is not low; or
(D) Its average CAHPS measure score is more than one standard error above the 80th percentile.
(4) 5-Star Scale. Measure scores are converted to a 5-star scale ranging from 1 (worst rating) to 5 (best rating), with whole star increments for the cut points.
(b) Domain Star Ratings. (1)(i) CMS groups measures by domains solely for purposes of public reporting the data on Medicare Plan Finder. They are not used in the calculation of the summary or overall ratings. Domains are used to group measures by dimensions of care that together represent a unique and important aspect of quality and performance.
(ii) The 4 domains for the Part D Star Ratings are: Drug Plan Customer Service; Member Complaints and Changes in the Drug Plan's Performance; Member Experience with the Drug Plan; and Drug Safety and Accuracy of Drug Pricing.
(2) CMS calculates the domain ratings as the unweighted mean of the Star Ratings of the included measures.
(i) A contract must have scores for at least 50 percent of the measures required to be reported for that contract type for that domain to have a domain rating calculated.
(ii) The domain ratings are on a 1 to 5 star scale ranging from 1 (worst rating) to 5 (best rating) in whole star increments using traditional rounding rules.
(c) Part D summary ratings. (1) CMS will calculate the Part D summary ratings using the weighted mean of the measure-level Star Ratings for Part D, weighted in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section and with the applicable adjustments provided in paragraph (f) of this section.
(2)(i) A contract must have scores for at least 50 percent of the measures required to be reported for the contract type to have a summary rating calculated.
(ii) The Part D improvement measure is not included in the count of the minimum number of rated measures.
(3) The summary ratings are on a 1 to 5 star scale ranging from 1 (worst rating) to 5 (best rating) in half-star increments using traditional rounding rules.
(d) Overall MA-PD rating. (1) The overall rating for a MA-PD contract will be calculated using a weighted mean of the Part C and Part D measure-level Star Ratings, weighted in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section and with the applicable adjustments provided in paragraph (f) of this section.
(2)(i) An MA-PD must have both Part C and Part D summary ratings and scores for at least 50 percent of the measures required to be reported for the contract type to have the overall rating calculated.
(ii) The Part C and D improvement measures are not included in the count of measures needed for the overall rating.
(iii) Any measures that share the same data and are included in both the Part C and Part D summary ratings will be included only once in the calculation for the overall rating.
(iv) The overall rating is on a 1 to 5 star scale ranging from 1 (worst rating) to 5 (best rating) in half-increments using traditional rounding rules.
(e) Measure weights—(1) General rules. Subject to paragraphs (e)(2) and (3) of this section, CMS will assign weights to measures based on their categorization as follows.
(i) Improvement measures receive the highest weight of 5.
(ii) Outcome and Intermediate outcome measures receive a weight of 3.
(iii) Through the 2025 Star Ratings, patient experience and complaint measures receive a weight of 4. Starting with the 2026 Star Ratings and subsequent Star Ratings years, patient experience and complaint measures receive a weight of 2.
(iv) Through the 2025 Star Ratings, access measures receive a weight of 4. Starting with the 2026 Star Ratings and subsequent Star Ratings years, access measures receive a weight of 2.
(v) Process measures receive a weight of 1.
(2) Rules for new and substantively updated measures. New measures to the Star Ratings program will receive a weight of 1 for their first year in the Star Ratings program. Substantively updated measures will receive a weight of 1 in their first year returning to the Star Ratings after being on the display page. In subsequent years, a new or substantively updated measure will be assigned the weight associated with its category.
(3) Special rule for Puerto Rico. Contracts that have service areas that are wholly located in Puerto Rico will receive a weight of zero for the Part D adherence measures for the summary and overall rating calculations and will have a weight of 3 for the adherence measures for the improvement measure calculations.
(f) Completing the Part D summary and overall rating calculations. CMS will adjust the summary and overall rating calculations to take into account the reward factor (if applicable) and the categorical adjustment index (CAI) as provided in this paragraph (f).
(1) Reward factor. This rating-specific reward factor is added to both the summary and overall ratings of contracts that qualify for this reward factor based on both high and stable relative performance for the rating level.
(i) The contract's performance will be assessed using its weighted mean and its ranking relative to all rated contracts in the rating level (overall for MA-PDs and Part D summary for MA-PDs and PDPs) for the same Star Ratings year. The contract's stability of performance will be assessed using the weighted variance and its ranking relative to all rated contracts in the rating type (overall for MA-PDs and Part D summary for MA-PDs and PDPs). The weighted mean and weighted variance are compared separately for MA-PD and standalone Part D contracts (PDPs). The measure weights are specified in paragraph (e) of this section. Since highly-rated contracts may have the improvement measure(s) excluded in the determination of their final highest rating, each contract's weighted variance and weighted mean will be calculated both with and without the improvement measures. For an MA-PD's Part C and D summary ratings, its ranking is relative to all other contracts' weighted variance and weighted mean for the rating type (Part C summary, Part D summary) with the improvement measure. For the 2022 Star Ratings only, since all contracts may have the improvement measure(s) excluded in the determination of their highest rating and summary rating(s), each contract's weighted variance and weighted mean are calculated both with and without the improvement measures.
(ii) Relative performance of the weighted variance (or weighted variance ranking) will be categorized as being high (at or above 70th percentile), medium (between the 30th and 69th percentile) or low (below the 30th percentile). Relative performance of the weighted mean (or weighted mean ranking) will be categorized as being high (at or above the 85th percentile), relatively high (between the 65th and 84th percentiles), or other (below the 65th percentile).
(iii) The combination of the relative variance and relative mean is used to determine the reward factor to be added to the contract's summary and overall ratings as follows:
(A) A contract with low variance and a high mean will have a reward factor equal to 0.4.
(B) A contract with medium variance and a high mean will have a reward factor equal to 0.3.
(C) A contract with low variance and a relatively high mean will have a reward factor equal to 0.2.
(D) A contract with medium variance and a relatively high mean will have a reward factor equal to 0.1.
(E) A contract with all other combinations of variance and relative mean will have a reward factor equal to 0.0.
(iv) The reward factor is determined and applied before application of the CAI adjustment under paragraph (f)(2) of this section; the reward factor is based on unadjusted scores.
(2) Categorical adjustment index. CMS applies the categorical adjustment index (CAI) as provided in this paragraph(f)(2) to adjust for the average within-contract disparity in performance associated with the percentages of beneficiaries who receive a low income subsidy or are dual eligible (LIS/DE) or have disability status. The factor is calculated as the mean difference in the adjusted and unadjusted ratings (overall, Part D for MA-PDs, Part D for PDPs) of the contracts that lie within each final adjustment category for each rating type.
(i) The CAI is added to or subtracted from the contract's overall and summary ratings and is applied after the reward factor adjustment described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section (if applicable).
(A) The adjustment factor is monotonic (that is, as the proportion of LIS/DE and disabled increases in a contract, the adjustment factor increases in at least one of the dimensions) and varies by a contract's categorization into a final adjustment category that is determined by a contract's proportion of LIS/DE and disabled beneficiaries.
(B) To determine a contract's final adjustment category, contract enrollment is determined using enrollment data for the month of December for the measurement period of the Star Ratings year.
(1) For the first 2 years following a consolidation, for the surviving contract of a contract consolidation involving two or more contracts for health or drug services of the same plan type under the same parent organization, the enrollment data for the month of December for the measurement period of the Star Ratings year are combined across the surviving and consumed contracts in the consolidation.
(2) The count of beneficiaries for a contract is restricted to beneficiaries that are alive for part or all of the month of December of the applicable measurement year.
(3) A beneficiary is categorized as LIS/DE if the beneficiary was designated as full or partially dually eligible or receiving a LIS at any time during the applicable measurement period.
(4) Disability status is determined using the variable original reason for entitlement (OREC) for Medicare using the information from the Social Security Administration and Railroad Retirement Board record systems.
(C) A MA-PD contract may be adjusted up to three times with the CAI: One for the overall Star Rating and one for each of the summary ratings (Part C and Part D).
(D) A PDP contract may be adjusted only once for the CAI for the Part D summary rating.
(E) The CAI values are rounded and displayed with 6 decimal places.
(ii) In determining the CAI values, a measure will be excluded from adjustment if the measure meets any of the following:
(A) The measure is already case-mix adjusted for socioeconomic status.
(B) The focus of the measurement is not a beneficiary-level issue but rather a plan or provider-level issue.
(C) The measure is scheduled to be retired or revised.
(D) The measure is applicable only to SNPs.
(iii) The Star Ratings measures that remain after the exclusion criteria, paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, have been applied will be adjusted for the determination of the CAI. CMS will announce the measures identified for adjustment in the calculations of the CAI under this paragraph (f)(2) through the process described for changes in and adoption of payment and risk adjustment policies in section 1853(b) of the Act.
(iv) The adjusted measures scores for the selected measures are determined using the results from regression models of beneficiary level measure scores that adjust for the average within-contract difference in measure scores for MA or PDP contracts.
(A) A logistic regression model with contract fixed effects and beneficiary level indicators of LIS/DE and disability status is used for the adjustment.
(B) The adjusted measure scores are converted to a measure-level Star Rating using the measure thresholds for the Star Ratings year that corresponds to the measurement period of the data employed for the CAI determination.
(v) The rating-specific CAI values will be determined using the mean differences between the adjusted and unadjusted Star Ratings (overall, Part D summary for MA-PDs and Part D summary for PDPs) in each final adjustment category.
(A) For the annual development of the CAI, the distribution of the percentages for LIS/DE and disabled (using the enrollment data that parallels the previous Star Ratings year's data) would be examined to determine the number of equal-sized initial groups for each attribute (LIS/DE and disabled).
(B) The initial categories are created using all groups formed by the initial LIS/DE and disabled groups.
(C) The mean difference between the adjusted and unadjusted summary or overall ratings per initial category would be calculated and examined. The initial categories would then be collapsed to form the final adjustment categories. The collapsing of the initial categories to form the final adjustment categories would be done to enforce monotonicity in at least one dimension (LIS/DE or disabled).
(D) The mean difference within each final adjustment category by rating-type (overall, Part D for MA-PD, and Part D for PDPs) would be the CAI values for the next Star Ratings year.
(vi) CMS develops the model for the modified contract-level LIS/DE percentage for Puerto Rico using the following sources of information:
(A) The most recent data available at the time of the development of the model of both 1-year American Community Survey (ACS) estimates for the percentage of people living below the Federal Poverty Level (FPL) and the ACS 5-year estimates for the percentage of people living below 150 percent of the FPL. The data to develop the model will be limited to the 10 states, drawn from the 50 states plus the District of Columbia with the highest proportion of people living below the FPL, as identified by the 1-year ACS estimates.
(B) The Medicare enrollment data from the same measurement period as the Star Rating's year. The Medicare enrollment data would be aggregated from MA contracts that had at least 90 percent of their enrolled beneficiaries with mailing addresses in the 10 highest poverty states.
(vii) A linear regression model is developed to estimate the percentage of LIS/DE for a contacts that solely serve the population of beneficiaries in Puerto Rico.
(A) The maximum value for the modified LIS/DE indicator value per contract would be capped at 100 percent.
(B) All estimated modified LIS/DE values for Puerto Rico would be rounded to 6 decimal places when expressed as a percentage.
(C) The model's coefficient and intercept are updated annually and published in the Technical Notes.
(g) Applying the improvement measure scores. (1) CMS runs the calculations twice for the highest level rating for each contract-type (overall rating for MA-PD contracts and Part D summary rating for PDPs), with the reward factor adjustment if applicable and the CAI adjustment, once including the improvement measure(s) and once without including the improvement measure(s). In deciding whether to include the improvement measures in a contract's final highest rating, CMS applies the following rules:
(i) If the highest rating for each contract-type is 4 stars or more without the use of the improvement measure(s) and with all applicable adjustments (CAI and the reward factor), a comparison of the highest rating with and without the improvement measure(s) is done. The higher rating is used for the rating.
(ii) If the highest rating is less than 4 stars without the use of the improvement measure(s) and with all applicable adjustments (CAI and the reward factor), the rating will be calculated with the improvement measure(s).
(2) The Part D summary rating for MA-PDs will include the Part D improvement measure.
(3) For 2022 Star Ratings only, CMS runs the calculations twice for the highest rating for each contract-type (overall rating for MA-PD contracts and Part D summary rating for PDPs) and Part D summary rating for MA-PDs with all applicable adjustments (CAI and the reward factor), once including the improvement measure(s) and once without including the improvement measure(s). In deciding whether to include the improvement measures in a contract's highest and summary rating(s), CMS applies the following rules:
(i) For MA-PDs and PDPs, a comparison of the highest rating with and without the improvement measure is done. The higher rating is used for the highest rating.
(ii) For MA-PDs, a comparison of the Part D summary rating with and without the improvement measure is done. The higher rating is used for the summary rating.
(h) Posting and display of ratings. For all ratings at the measure, domain, summary and overall level, posting and display of the ratings is based on there being sufficient data to calculate and assign ratings. If a contract does not have sufficient data to calculate a rating, the posting and display would be the flag “Not enough data available.” If the measurement period is prior to one year past the contract's effective date, the posting and display would be the flag “Plan too new to be measured”.
(1) Medicare Plan Finder performance icons. Icons are displayed on Medicare Plan Finder to note performance as provided in this paragraph (h)(1):
(i) High-performing icon. The high performing icon is assigned to a Part D plan sponsor for achieving a 5-star Part D summary rating and an MA-PD contract for a 5-star overall rating.
(ii) Low-performing icon. (A) A contract receives a low performing icon as a result of its performance on the Part C or Part D summary ratings. The low performing icon is calculated by evaluating the Part C and Part D summary ratings for the current year and the past 2 years. If the contract had any combination of Part C or Part D summary ratings of 2.5 or lower in all 3 years of data, it is marked with a low performing icon. A contract must have a rating in either Part C or Part D for all 3 years to be considered for this icon.
(B) CMS may disable the Medicare Plan Finder online enrollment function (in Medicare Plan Finder) for Medicare health and prescription drug plans with the low performing icon; beneficiaries will be directed to contact the plan directly to enroll in the low-performing plan.
(2) Plan preview of the Star Ratings. CMS will have two plan preview periods before each Star Ratings release during which Part D plan sponsors can preview their preliminary Star Ratings data in HPMS prior to display on the Medicare Plan Finder. During the second plan preview, CMS will display de-identified contract-level sample data for one of each type of measure needed to replicate the cut point methodology, as determined by CMS.
(i) Extreme and uncontrollable circumstances. In the event of extreme and uncontrollable circumstances that may negatively impact operational and clinical systems and contracts' abilities to conduct surveys needed for accurate performance measurement, CMS calculates the Star Ratings as specified in paragraphs (i)(2) through (8) of this section for each contract that is an affected contract during the performance period for the applicable measures. We use the start date of the incident period to determine which year of Star Ratings could be affected, regardless of whether the incident period lasts until another calendar year.
(1) Identification of affected contracts. A contract that meets all of the following criteria is an affected contract:
(i) The contract's service area is within an “emergency area” during an “emergency period” as defined in section 1135(g) of the Act.
(ii) The contract's service area is within a county, parish, U.S. territory or tribal area designated in a major disaster declaration under the Stafford Act and the Secretary exercised authority under section 1135 of the Act based on the same triggering event(s).
(iii) As specified in paragraphs (i)(2) through (8) of this section, a certain minimum percentage (25 percent or 60 percent) of the enrollees under the contract must reside in a Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)-designated Individual Assistance area at the time of the extreme and uncontrollable circumstance.
(2) CAHPS adjustments. (i) A contract, even if an affected contract, must administer the CAHPS survey unless exempt under paragraph (i)(2)(ii) of this section.
(ii) An affected contract with at least 25 percent of enrollees in FEMA-designated Individual Assistance areas at the time of the extreme and uncontrollable circumstance is exempt from administering the CAHPS survey if the contract completes both of the following:
(A) Demonstrates to CMS that the required sample for the survey cannot be contacted because a substantial number of the contract's enrollees are displaced due to the FEMA-designated disaster identified in paragraph (i)(1)(iii) of this section in the prior calendar year.
(B) Requests and receives a CMS approved exemption.
(iii) An affected contract with an exemption described in paragraph (i)(2)(ii) of this section receives the contract's CAHPS measure stars and corresponding measure scores from the prior year.
(iv) For an affected contract with at least 25 percent of enrollees in FEMA-designated Individual Assistance areas at the time of the extreme and uncontrollable circumstance, the contract receives the higher of the previous year's Star Rating or the current year's Star Rating (and corresponding measure score) for each CAHPS measure.
(v) When a contract is an affected contract with at least 25 percent of enrollees in FEMA-designated Individual Assistance areas at the time of the extreme and uncontrollable circumstance with regard to separate extreme and uncontrollable circumstances that begin in successive years, it is a multiple year-affected contract. A multiple year-affected contract receives the higher of the current year's Star Rating or what the previous year's Star Rating would have been in the absence of any adjustments that took into account the effects of the previous year's disaster for each measure (using the corresponding measure score for the Star Ratings year selected).
(3) New measure adjustments. For affected contracts with at least 25 percent of enrollees in a FEMA-designated Individual Assistance area at the time of the extreme and uncontrollable circumstance, CMS holds the affected contract harmless by using the higher of the contract's summary or overall rating or both with and without including all of the applicable new measures.
(4) Other Star Ratings measure adjustments. (i) For all other Part D measures except those measures identified in this paragraph (i)(4)(ii) of this section, affected contracts with at least 25 percent of enrollees in a FEMA-designated Individual Assistance area at the time of the extreme and uncontrollable circumstance receive the higher of the previous or current year's measure Star Rating (and corresponding measure score).
(ii) CMS does not adjust the scores of the Star Ratings for the Part D Call Center—Foreign Language Interpreter and TTY Availability measure, unless the exemption listed in paragraph (i)(4)(iii) of this section applies.
(iii) CMS adjusts the measure listed in paragraph (i)(4)(ii) of this section using the adjustments listed in paragraph (i)(4)(i) of this section for contracts affected by extreme and uncontrollable circumstances where there are continuing communications issues related to loss of electricity and damage to infrastructure during the call center study.
(iv) When a contract is an affected contract with at least 25 percent of enrollees in FEMA-designated Individual Assistance areas at the time of the extreme and uncontrollable circumstance with regard to separate extreme and uncontrollable circumstances that begin in successive years, it is a multiple year-affected contract. A multiple year-affected contract receives the higher of the current year's Star Rating or what the previous year's Star Rating would have been in the absence of any adjustments that took into account the effects of the previous year's disaster for each measure (using the corresponding measure score for the Star Ratings year selected).
(5) Exclusion from improvement measures. Any measure that reverts back to the data underlying the previous year's Star Rating due to the adjustments made in paragraph (i) of this section is excluded from both the count of measures and the applicable improvement measures for the current and next year's Star Ratings for the affected contract. Contracts affected by extreme and uncontrollable circumstances do not have the option of reverting to the prior year's improvement rating.
(6) Missing data. For an affected contract that has missing data in the current or previous year, the final measure rating comes from the current year unless an exemption described in paragraph (i)(2)(ii) of this section applies. Missing data includes data where there is a data integrity issue as defined at § 423.184(g)(1).
(7) Cut points for non-CAHPS measures. (i) Through the 2025 Star Ratings, CMS excludes the numeric values for affected contracts with 60 percent or more of their enrollees in the FEMA-designated Individual Assistance area at the time of the extreme and uncontrollable circumstance from the clustering algorithms described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
(ii) The cut points calculated as described in paragraph (i)(7)(i) of this section are used to assess all affected contracts' measure Star Ratings.
(8) Reward factor. (i) Through the 2025 Star Ratings, CMS excludes the numeric values for affected contracts with 60 percent or more of their enrollees in the FEMA-designated Individual Assistance area at the time of the extreme and uncontrollable circumstance from the determination of the performance summary and variance thresholds for the reward factor described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
(ii) All affected contracts are eligible for the Reward Factor based on the calculations described in paragraph (i)(8)(i) of this section.
(9) Special rules for the 2022 Star Ratings only. For the 2022 Star Ratings only, CMS will not apply the provisions in paragraph (i)(7) or (8) of this section and CMS will not exclude the numeric values for affected contracts with 60 percent or more of their enrollees in the FEMA-designated Individual Assistance area at the time of the extreme and uncontrollable circumstance from the clustering algorithms or from the determination of the performance summary and variance thresholds for the Reward Factor.
(j) Special rules for 2021 Star Ratings only. (1) For the 2021 Star Ratings:
(i) The measures calculated based on CAHPS data are calculated based on survey data collected from March through May 2019.
(ii) The measure-level change score calculation described at § 423.184(f)(4)(i) is not applied for CAHPS measures and the measure-level change score used for the 2020 Star Ratings is applied in its place for all CAHPS-based measures.
(iii) The provisions of § 423.184(g)(2) are not applied for failure to submit CAHPS-based measures.
(iv) [Reserved]
(2) [Reserved]
[83 FR 16743, Apr. 16, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 15842, Apr. 16, 2019; 85 FR 19291, Apr. 6, 2020; 85 FR 33911, June 2, 2020; 85 FR 54872, Sept. 2, 2020; 86 FR 6118, Jan. 19, 2021; 87 FR 27899, May 9, 2022; 88 FR 22338, Apr. 12, 2023; 89 FR 30835, Apr. 23, 2024; 91 FR 17588, Apr. 6, 2026]
E Subpart E [Reserved]
Subpart F Submission of Bids and Monthly Beneficiary Premiums; Plan Approval
§ 423.251 Scope.
This section sets forth the requirements and limitations on submission, review, negotiation and approval of competitive bids for prescription drug plans and MA-PD plans; the calculation of the national average bid amount; and the determination of enrollee premiums.
§ 423.258 Definitions.
For the purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
Full risk plan means a prescription drug plan that is not a limited risk plan or a fallback prescription drug plan.
Limited risk plan means a prescription drug plan that provides basic prescription drug coverage and for which the PDP sponsor includes a modification of risk level described in § 423.265(d) in its bid submitted for the plan. This term does not include a fallback prescription drug plan.
Standardized bid amount means, for a prescription drug plan that provides basic prescription drug coverage, the PDP approved bid; for a prescription drug plan that provides supplemental prescription drug coverage, the portion of the PDP approved bid that is attributable to basic prescription drug coverage; for a MA-PD plan, the portion of the accepted bid amount that is attributable to basic prescription drug coverage.
§ 423.265 Submission of bids and related information.
(a) Eligibility for bidding. An applicant may submit a bid to become a Part D plan sponsor.
(b) Bid submission—(1) General. Not later than the first Monday in June, each potential Part D sponsor must submit bids and supplemental information described in this section for each Part D plan it intends to offer in the subsequent calendar year.
(2) Substantial differences between bids—(i) General rule. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, potential Part D sponsors' bid submissions must reflect differences in benefit packages or plan costs that CMS determines to represent substantial differences relative to a sponsor's other bid submissions. In order to be considered “substantially different,” each bid must be significantly different from the sponsor's other bids with respect to beneficiary out-of-pocket costs or formulary structures.
(ii) Exception. A potential Part D sponsor's enhanced bid submission does not have to reflect the substantial differences as required in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section relative to any of its other enhanced bid submissions.
(3) Limit on number of plan offerings. Potential Part D sponsors' bid submissions may include no more than three stand-alone prescription drug plan offerings in a service area and must include only one basic prescription drug plan offering.
(4) Bid acceptance. CMS may decline to accept any or every bid submitted by a Part D sponsor or potential Part D sponsor.
(5) Limitations on changes. After a Part D sponsor is permitted to begin marketing prospective plan year offerings for the following contract year (consistent with § 423.2263(a)), the Part D sponsor must not change, and must provide the benefits described in its CMS-approved plan benefit package (PBP) (as defined at § 423.182) for the contract year without modification, except where a modification in benefits is required by law.
(c) Basic rule for bid. Each potential Part D sponsor must submit a bid and supplemental information in a format to be specified by CMS for each Part D plan it offers. Each bid must reflect a uniform benefit package, including premium (except as provided for the late enrollment penalty described in § 423.286(d)(3)) and all applicable cost sharing, for all individuals enrolled in the plan. Each bid must reflect the applicant's estimate of its average monthly revenue requirements to provide qualified prescription drug coverage (including any supplemental coverage) for a Part D eligible individual with a national average risk profile for the factors described in § 423.329(b)(1).
(1) Included costs. The bid includes costs (including administrative costs and return on investment/profit) for which the plan is responsible in providing basic and supplemental benefits.
(2) Excluded costs. The bid does not include costs associated with payments by the enrollee for deductible, co-payments, coinsurance, and liability above the plan allowance in the case of out-of-network claims, payments projected to be made by CMS for reinsurance, or any other costs for which the sponsor is not responsible.
(3) Actuarial valuation. The bid must be prepared in accordance with CMS actuarial guidelines based on generally accepted actuarial principles. A qualified actuary must certify the plan's actuarial valuation (which may be prepared by others under his or her direction or review), and must be a member of the American Academy of Actuaries to be deemed qualified. Applicants may use qualified outside actuaries to prepare their bids.
(d) Specific requirements for bids. The bid and supplemental information submission must include the following information:
(1) Coverage. A description of the coverage to be provided under the plan, including any supplemental coverage and the deductible and other cost sharing.
(2) Actuarial value of bid components. The applicant must provide the following information on bid components, as well as actuarial certification that the values are calculated according to CMS guidelines on actuarial valuation, including adjustment for the effect that providing alternative prescription drug coverage (rather than defined standard prescription drug coverage) has on drug utilization, if applicable.
(i) The actuarial value of the qualified prescription drug coverage to be offered under each plan for a Part D eligible individual with a national average risk profile for the factors described in § 423.329(b)(1) and the basis for the estimate.
(ii) The portion of the bid attributable to basic prescription drug coverage and the portion (if any) attributable to supplemental benefits.
(iii) The assumptions regarding reinsurance amounts payable under § 423.329(c) used in calculating the bid.
(iv) The assumptions regarding low-income cost-sharing payable under § 423.329(d) used in calculating the bid.
(v) The amount of administrative costs and return on investment or profit included in the bid.
(vi) The assumptions regarding the selected drug subsidy under § 423.329(e) used in calculating the bid.
(3) Service area. A description of the service area of the plan.
(4) Level of risk assumed. For a potential Part D sponsor, the level of risk assumed in the bid specified in paragraph (e) of this section.
(5) Plan Average Risk Score. An estimate of the plan's average prescription drug risk score (as established under § 423.329(b)) for all projected enrollees for purposes of risk adjusting any supplemental premium.
(6) Additional information. Additional information CMS requests to support bid amounts and facilitate negotiation.
(e) Special rule for PDP sponsors. Bids for all plans offered by a potential PDP sponsor in a region, but not those of potential MA organizations offering MA-PD plans, PACE organizations offering PACE plans including qualified prescription drug coverage, and cost-based HMOs or CMPs offering section 1876 cost plans including qualified prescription drug coverage, may include a uniform modification of the amount of risk assumed (based on a process to be specified) as described in one or more of the following paragraphs. Any such modification applies to all plans offered by the PDP sponsor in a PDP region.
(1) Increase in Federal percentage assumed in initial risk corridor. An equal percentage point increase in the percents applied for costs between the first and second threshold limits under § 423.336(b)(2)(i) and (b)(2)(ii)(A) and § 423.336 (b)(3)(i) and (b)(3)(ii)(A). This provision does not affect the application of a higher percentage for plans in 2006 or 2007 under § 423.336(b)(2)(iii).
(2) Increase in Federal percentage assumed in second risk corridor. An equal percentage point increase in the percents applied for costs above the second threshold upper limit or below the second threshold upper limit under paragraphs § 423.336(b)(2)(ii)(B) and (b)(3)(ii)(B).
(3) Decrease in size of risk corridors. A decrease in the size of the risk corridors by means of reductions in the threshold risk percentages specified in § 423.336(a)(2)(ii)(A) and/or (a)(2)(ii)(B).
(f) Special rule for fallback prescription drug plans. Fallback prescription drug plan bids are not subject to the rules in this section. They must follow requirements specified in § 423.863.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 19818, Apr. 15, 2010; 76 FR 21573, Apr. 15, 2011; 83 FR 16749, Apr. 16, 2018; 86 FR 6118, Jan. 19, 2021; 88 FR 22339, Apr. 12, 2023; 89 FR 30836, Apr. 23, 2024; 91 FR 17588, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.272 Review and negotiation of bid and approval of plans submitted by potential Part D sponsors.
(a) Review and negotiation regarding information, terms and conditions. CMS reviews the information filed under § 423.265(c) in order to conduct negotiations regarding the terms and conditions of the proposed bid and benefit plan. In addition to its general negotiating authority under section 1860D-11(d)(2)(A) of the Act, CMS has authority similar to that of the Director of the Office of Personnel Management for health benefit plans under Chapter 89 of title 5, U.S.C.
(b) Approval of proposed plans. CMS approves the Part D plan only if the plan and the Part D sponsor offering the plan comply with all applicable CMS Part D requirements, including those related to the provision of qualified prescription drug coverage and actuarial determinations.
(1) Application of revenue requirements standard. CMS approves a bid submitted under § 423.265 only if it determines that the portions of the bid attributable to basic and supplemental prescription drug coverage are supported by the actuarial bases provided and reasonably and equitably reflect the revenue requirements (as used for purposes of section 1302(8)(C) of the Public Health Service Act) for benefits provided under that plan, less the sum (determined on a monthly per capita basis) of the actuarial value of the reinsurance payments under § 423.329(c).
(2) Plan design. (i) CMS does not approve a bid if it finds that the design of the plan and its benefits (including any formulary and tiered formulary structure) or its utilization management program are likely to substantially discourage enrollment by certain Part D eligible individuals under the plan.
(ii) If the design of the categories and classes within a formulary is consistent with the model guidelines (if any) established by the United States Pharmacopeia, the formulary categories and classes alone will not be found to discourage enrollment.
(iii) A plan that adopts the categories and classes discussed in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section may nevertheless be found to discourage enrollment because it excludes specific drugs from the formulary.
(3) Substantial differences between bids—(i) General. CMS approves a bid only if it finds that the benefit package or plan costs represented by that bid are substantially different as provided under § 423.265(b)(2) of this subpart from the benefit package or plan costs represented by another bid submitted by the same Part D sponsor.
(ii) Transition period for PDP sponsors with new acquisitions. After a 2-year transition period, as determined by CMS, CMS approves a bid offered by a PDP sponsor (or by a parent organization to that PDP sponsor) that recently purchased (or otherwise acquired or merged with) another Part D sponsor if it finds that the benefit package or plan costs represented by that bid are substantially different from benefit packages or plan costs represented by another bid submitted by the same Part D sponsor (or parent organization to that Part D sponsor), as provided under § 423.265(b)(2).
(4) CMS may decline to approve a bid if the Part D sponsor proposes significant increases in cost sharing or decreases in benefits offered under the plan.
(c) Limited risk plans. (1) Application of limited risk plans. There is no limit on the number of full risk plans that CMS approves under paragraph (b) of this section. CMS approves a limited risk plan in accordance with paragraphs (c)(2) and (c)(3) of this section only if the access requirements under § 423.859 are not otherwise met for a PDP region.
(2) Maximizing assumption of risk. CMS gives priority in approval for those limited risk plans bearing the highest level of risk, but may take into account the level of the bids submitted by the plans and is not required to accept the limited risk plan with the highest assumption of risk. In no case does CMS approve a limited risk plan under which the modification of risk level provides for no (or a minimal) level of financial risk.
(3) Limited exercise of authority. CMS approves only the minimum number of limited risk plans needed to meet the access requirements.
(d) Special rules for private fee-for-service (PFFS) plans that offer prescription drug coverage. PFFS plans (as defined at § 422.4(a)(3)) choosing to offer prescription drug coverage are subject to all MA-PD bid submission and approval requirements applicable to MA-PD plans with the following exceptions:
(1) Exemption from negotiations. These plans are exempt from the review and negotiation process in paragraph (a) of this section, and are not held to the revenue requirements standard in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(2) Requirements regarding negotiated prices. These plans are not required to provide access to negotiated prices. However, if they do, they must meet the applicable requirements of § 423.104(h).
(3) Modification of pharmacy access standard and disclosure requirement. If the plan provides coverage for drugs purchased from all pharmacies, without charging additional cost sharing and without regard to whether they are network pharmacies, §§ 423.120(a) and 423.132 requiring certain network access standards and the disclosure of the availability of lower cost bioequivalent generic drugs does not apply to the plan.
(e) Special rule for plans with standardized bids sufficiently below the national average monthly bid to result in a negative premium. In the event of a negative premium, as described in § 423.286(d)(1), CMS negotiates the incorporation of the negative premium amount into the bid as either a reduction in the supplemental premium if the Part D plan already submitted a bid with an enhanced alternative benefit, or CMS requires the addition of new enhanced alternative benefit of no less value than the amount of the negative premium.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 19819, Apr. 15, 2010; 76 FR 21574, Apr. 15, 2011; 83 FR 16749, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 423.279 National average monthly bid amount.
(a) Bids included. For each year (beginning with 2006) CMS computes a national average monthly bid amount from approved bids submitted under § 423.265 in order to calculate the base beneficiary premium, as provided in § 423.286(c). The national average monthly bid amount is equal to a weighted average of the standardized bid amounts for each prescription drug plan (not including fallbacks) and for each MA-PD plan described in section 1851(a)(2)(A)(i) of the Act. The calculation does not include bids submitted by MSA plans, MA private fee-for-service plans, specialized MA plans for special needs individuals, PACE programs under section 1894, and contracts under reasonable cost reimbursement contracts under section 1876(h) of the Act.
(b) Calculation of weighted average. (1) The national average monthly bid amount is a weighted average, with the weight for each plan equal to a percentage with the numerator equal to the number of Part D eligible individuals enrolled in the plan in the reference month (as defined in § 422.258(c)(1) of this chapter) and the denominator equal to the total number of Part D eligible individuals enrolled in a reference month in all Part D plans except MSA plans, fallbacks, MA private fee-for-service plans, specialized MA plans for special needs individuals, PACE programs under section 1894, and contracts under reasonable cost reimbursement contracts under section 1876(h) of the Act.
(2) For purposes of calculating the monthly national average monthly bid amount for 2006, CMS assigns equal weighting to PDP sponsors (other than fallback entities) and assigns MA-PD plans included in the national average bid a weight based on prior enrollment (new MA-PD plans are assigned zero weight).
(c) Geographic adjustment. (1) Upon the development of an appropriate methodology, the national average monthly bid amount for Part D plans will be adjusted to take into account differences in prices for Part D drugs among PDP regions.
(2) CMS does not apply any geographic adjustments if CMS determines that price variations among PDP regions are negligible.
(3) CMS applies any geographic adjustment in a budget neutral manner so as to not result in a change in the aggregate payments that may have been made if CMS had not applied an adjustment.
(4) CMS does not apply any geographic adjustment until an appropriate methodology is developed.
§ 423.286 Rules regarding premiums.
(a) General rule. Except as provided in paragraphs (d)(3), (d)(4), and (e) of this section, and with regard to employer group waivers, the monthly beneficiary premium for a Part D plan in a PDP region is the same for all Part D eligible individuals enrolled in the plan. The monthly beneficiary premium for a Part D plan is the base beneficiary premium, as determined in paragraph (c) of this section, adjusted as described in paragraph (d) of this section for the difference between the bid and the national average monthly bid amount, any supplemental benefits and for any late enrollment penalties.
(b) Base beneficiary premium percentage. (1) The beneficiary premium percentage for any year, except for years 2024 through 2029, is a fraction, the—
(i) Numerator of which is 25.5 percent; and
(ii) Denominator of which is as follows:
(A) 100 percent minus the percentage established in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B) of this section.
(B) The percentage established in this paragraph (b) equals—
(1) The total reinsurance payment that CMS estimates will be paid under § 423.329(c) for the coverage year divided by—
(2) The amount estimated under paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section for the year plus total payments that CMS estimates will be paid to Part D plans that are attributable to the standardized bid amount during the year, taking into account amounts paid by both CMS and enrollees.
(2) The beneficiary premium percentage for the years 2024 through 2029 is the lesser of the beneficiary premium percentage—
(i) For the immediately preceding year increased by 6 percent; or
(ii) Calculated under the formula computed under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(c) Base beneficiary premium. The base beneficiary premium for a Part D plan for a month is equal to the product of the—
(1) Beneficiary premium percentage as specified in paragraph (b) of this section; and
(2) National average monthly bid amount (computed under § 423.279) for the month.
(d) Adjustments to base beneficiary premium. The base beneficiary premium may be adjusted to reflect any of the following scenarios, if applicable.
(1) Adjustment to reflect difference between bid and national average bid. If the amount of the standardized bid amount exceeds the adjusted national average monthly bid amount, the monthly base beneficiary premium is increased by the amount of the excess. If the amount of the adjusted national average monthly bid amount exceeds the standardized bid amount, the monthly base beneficiary premium is decreased by the amount of the excess. If the amount of the adjusted national average monthly bid amount exceeds the standardized bid amount by an amount greater than the base beneficiary premium and results in a negative premium, then the beneficiary premium is zero, and the excess amount is applied to supplemental Part D benefits as described in § 423.272(e).
(2) Increase for supplemental prescription drug benefits. The portion of the Part D plan approved bid that is attributable to supplemental prescription drug benefits increases the beneficiary premium. This supplemental portion of the bid may be adjusted to reflect the average risk of enrollees in the plan as determined based on negotiations between CMS and the Part D sponsor offering the plan.
(3) Increase for late enrollment penalty. The base beneficiary premium for a Part D enrollee subject to the late enrollment penalty is increased by the amount of any late enrollment penalty.
(i) Late enrollment penalty amount. The penalty amount for a Part D eligible individual for a continuous period of eligibility (as provided in § 423.46(a)) is the greater of—
(A) An amount that CMS determines is actuarially sound for each uncovered month in the same continuous period of eligibility; or
(B) 1 percent of the base beneficiary premium (computed under paragraph (c) of this section) for each uncovered month in the period.
(ii) Special rule for 2006 and 2007. In 2006 and 2007 the penalty amount discussed in paragraph (d)(3) of this chapter equals the amount referenced in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(B) of this section unless another amount is specified in a separate issuance based on available analysis or other information as determined by the Secretary.
(4) Increase for income-related monthly adjustment amount (Part D—IRMAA). Beginning January 1, 2011, Medicare beneficiaries enrolled in a Medicare Part D plan must pay an income-related monthly adjustment amount in addition to the Part D premium as determined under paragraph (c) of this section and adjusted under paragraph (d) of this section, if the enrollee's modified adjusted gross income exceeds the threshold amounts specified in 20 CFR 418.2115.
(i) Social Security Administration determination. (A) SSA determines which Part D enrollees are subject to the Part D—IRMAA and the amount each enrollee will have to pay.
(B) If an individual disagrees with SSA's determination that such individual is subject to the Part D—IRMAA, or about the amount the individual must pay, an individual may file an appeal or request a new initial determination consistent with 20 CFR part 418.
(ii) Calculating the income-related monthly adjustment amount. The income-related monthly adjustment is equal to the product of the standard base beneficiary premium, as determined under paragraph (c) of this section, and the ratio of the applicable premium percentage specified in 20 CFR 418.2120, reduced by 25.5 percent; divided by 25.5 percent (that is, premium percentage−25.5 percent)/25.5 percent).
(e) Decrease in monthly beneficiary premium for low-income assistance. The monthly beneficiary premium may be eliminated or decreased in the case of a subsidy-eligible individual under § 423.780.
(f) Special rules for fallback prescription drug plans. The monthly beneficiary premium charged under a fallback prescription drug plan is calculated under § 423.867(a) and not under this section, except that enrollees in fallback prescription drug plans are subject to late enrollment penalties under paragraph (d)(3) of this section and fallback prescription drug plan premiums are reduced or eliminated in the case of a subsidy-eligible individual, as described in paragraph (e) of this section.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 76 FR 21574, Apr. 15, 2011; 86 FR 6118, Jan. 19, 2021; 91 FR 17588, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.293 Collection of monthly beneficiary premium.
(a) General rules. Part D sponsors must—
(1) Charge enrollees a consolidated monthly Part D premium equal to the sum of the Part D monthly premium for basic prescription drug coverage (if any) and the premium for supplemental coverage (if any and if the beneficiary has enrolled in such supplemental coverage).
(2) Permit payment of monthly Part D premiums (if any) under the timing of payments established in § 422.262(e) of this chapter; and
(3) Permit each enrollee, at the enrollee's option, to make payment of premiums (if any) under this part to the sponsor using any of the methods listed in § 422.262(f) of this chapter.
(4) Retroactive collection of premiums. In circumstances where retroactive collection of premium amounts is necessary and the enrollee is without fault in creating the premium arrearage, the Part D sponsor shall offer the enrollee the option of payment by lump sum, by equal monthly installment spread out over at least the same period for which the premiums were due, or through other arrangements mutually acceptable to the enrollee and the Part D sponsor. For monthly installments, for example, if 7 months of premiums are due, the member would have at least 7 months to repay.
(b) Crediting of late enrollment penalty. CMS estimates and specifies the portion of the late enrollment penalty imposed under § 423.286(d)(3) attributable to increased actuarial costs assumed by the Part D sponsor and not taken into account through risk adjustment provided under § 423.329(b)(1) or through reinsurance payments under § 423.329(c)) as a result of the late enrollment.
(c) Collection of late enrollment penalty—(1) Collection through withholding. In the case of a late enrollment penalty that is collected by the government from a Part D eligible individual in the manner described in § 422.262(f)(1) of this chapter, CMS pays only the portion of the late enrollment penalty described in paragraph (b) of this section to the Part D sponsor offering the Part D plan in which the individual is enrolled.
(2) Collection by plan. In the case of a late enrollment penalty collected from a Part D eligible individual in a manner other than the manner described in § 422.262(f)(1) of this chapter, CMS reduces payments otherwise made to the Part D plan by an amount equal to the portion of the late enrollment penalty.
(d) Collection of the income-related monthly adjustment amount (Part D—IRMAA). (1) Collection through withholding. Where the Social Security Administration has determined the income-related monthly adjustment amount for an individual whose income exceeds the income threshold amounts specified at 20 CFR 418.2115, the Part D—IRMAA must be paid through withholding from the enrollee's Social Security benefit payments, or benefit payments by the Railroad Retirement Board (RRB) or the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) in the manner that the Part B premium is withheld.
(2) Collection through direct billing. In cases where an enrollee's benefit payment check is not sufficient to have the Part D—IRMAA withheld, or if an enrollee is not receiving such benefits, the beneficiary must be billed directly for the Part D—IRMAA. The beneficiary will have the option of paying the amount through an electronic funds transfer mechanism (such as automatic charges of an account at a financial institution or a credit or debit card account) or according to other means that CMS may specify.
(3) Failure to pay the income-related monthly adjustment amount: General rule. CMS will terminate Part D coverage for any individual who fails to pay the Part D—IRMAA as determined by the Social Security Administration. CMS will terminate an enrollee's Part D coverage as specified in § 423.44(e).
(e) Special rule for fallback plans. This section does not apply to fallback prescription drug plans. The fallback plans follow the requirements set forth in § 423.867(b).
(f) Prohibition on improper billing of premiums. Part D plan sponsors shall not bill an enrollee for a premium payment period if the enrollee has had the premium for that period withheld from his or her Social Security, Railroad Retirement Board or Office of Personnel Management check.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 20506, Apr. 15, 2008; 74 FR 1544, Jan. 12, 2009; 76 FR 21574, Apr. 15, 2011; 89 FR 30836, Apr. 23, 2024]
§ 423.294 Failure to collect and incorrect collections of premiums and cost sharing.
(a) Requirement to collect premiums and cost sharing. A Part D sponsor violates the uniform benefit provisions at § 423.104(b) if it fails to collect or incorrectly collects applicable cost sharing, or fails to collect or incorrectly collects premiums as required by § 422.262(e) of this chapter—
(1) In accordance with the timing of premium payments;
(2) At the time a drug is dispensed; or
(3) By billing the enrollee or another appropriate party after the fact.
(b) Refunds of incorrect collections—(1) Definitions. As used in this section the following definitions are applicable:
Amounts incorrectly collected. (A) Means amounts that exceed the monthly Part D enrollee premium limits under § 423.286 or exceed permissible cost-sharing or copayment amounts as specified in § 423.104(d) through (f), whether paid by or on behalf of the enrollee;
(B) Includes amounts collected with respect to an enrollee who was believed to be entitled to Medicare benefits but was later found not to be entitled; and
(C) Excludes de minimis amounts, as calculated per PDE transaction or per monthly premium billing.
De minimis amounts means an amount per PDE transaction for claims adjustments and per month for premium adjustments that does not exceed the de minimis amount determined for purposes of § 423.34(c)(2).
Other amounts due means amounts due to affected enrollees or others on their behalf (other than de minimis amounts) for covered Part D drugs that were—
(A) Accessed at an out-of-network pharmacy in accordance with the requirements at § 423.124; or
(B) Initially denied but, upon appeal, found to be covered Part D drugs the enrollee was entitled to have provided by the Part D plan.
(2) General rule. A Part D sponsor must make a reasonable effort to identify all amounts incorrectly collected and to pay any other amounts due during the timeframe for coordination of benefits as established at § 423.466(b). A Part D sponsor must issue a refund for an identified enrollee overpayment within the timeframe specified at § 423.466(a).
(3) Refund methods—(i) Lump-sum payment. The Part D sponsor must use lump-sum payments for the following:
(A) Amounts incorrectly collected as cost-sharing.
(B) Other amounts due.
(C) All amounts due if the Part D plan is going out of business or terminating its Part D contract for a prescription drug plan(s).
(ii) Premium adjustment, lump-sum payment, or both. If the amounts incorrectly collected were in the form of premiums, or included premiums as well as other charges, the Part D sponsor may refund by adjustment of future premiums or by a combination of premium adjustment and lump-sum payments.
(iii) Refund when enrollee has died or cannot be located. If an enrollee has died or cannot be located after reasonable effort, the Part D sponsor must make the refund in accordance with State law.
(4) Premium reduction and compliance. (i) If the Part D sponsor does not issue the refund as required under this section within the timeframe specified at § 423.466(a), CMS reduces the premium the Part D sponsor is allowed to charge a Part D enrollee by the amounts incorrectly collected or otherwise due.
(ii) The Part D plan may receive compliance notices from CMS or, depending on the extent of the non-compliance, be the subject of an intermediate sanction (for example, suspension of marketing and enrollment activities) in accordance with subpart O of this part.
(c) Collections of cost-sharing and premium amounts—(1) General rule. A Part D sponsor must make a reasonable effort to attempt to collect cost sharing from a beneficiary or to bill cost sharing or premiums to another appropriate party for all amounts other than de minimis amounts.
(2) Timeframe. Recovery notices must be processed and issued in accordance with the timeframe specified at § 423.466(a). A Part D sponsor must make a reasonable effort to attempt to collect these amounts during the timeframe for coordination of benefits as established at § 423.466(b).
(3) Retroactive collection of premiums. Nothing in this section alters the requirements of § 423.293(a)(4) of this part with respect to retroactive collection of premiums.
[89 FR 30836, Apr. 23, 2024]
Subpart G Payments to Part D Plan Sponsors For Qualified Prescription Drug Coverage
§ 423.301 Scope.
This subpart sets forth rules for the calculation and payment of CMS direct and reinsurance subsidies for Part D plans; the application of risk corridors and risk-sharing adjustments to payments; and retroactive adjustments and reconciliations to actual enrollment and interim payments. This subpart does not apply to fallback entities or fallback prescription drug plans.
§ 423.308 Definitions and terminology.
For the purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply—
Actually paid means that the costs must be actually incurred by the Part D sponsor and must be net of any direct or indirect remuneration (including discounts, charge backs or rebates, cash discounts, free goods contingent on a purchase agreement, up-front payments, coupons, goods in kind, free or reduced-price services, grants, or other price concessions or similar benefits offered to some or all purchasers) from any source (including manufacturers, pharmacies, enrollees, or any other person) that would serve to decrease the costs incurred under the Part D plan. Direct and indirect remuneration includes discounts, chargebacks or rebates, cash discounts, free goods contingent on a purchase agreement, up-front payments, coupons, goods in kind, free or reduced-price services, grants, or other price concessions or similar benefits from manufacturers, pharmacies or similar entities obtained by an intermediary contracting organization with which the Part D plan sponsor has contracted, regardless of whether the intermediary contracting organization retains all or a portion of the direct and indirect remuneration or passes the entire direct and indirect remuneration to the Part D plan sponsor and regardless of the terms of the contract between the plan sponsor and the intermediary contracting organization.
Administrative costs means costs incurred by a Part D sponsor in complying with the requirements of this Part for a coverage year and that are not drug costs incurred to purchase or reimburse the purchase of Part D drugs. Administrative costs include amounts paid by the Part D sponsor to an intermediary contracting organization for covered Part D drugs dispensed to enrollees in the sponsor's Part D plan that differ from the amount paid by the intermediary contracting organization to a pharmacy or other entity that is the final dispenser of the covered Part D drugs. For example, any profit or loss retained by an intermediary contracting organization (through discounts, rebates, or other direct or indirect price concessions) when negotiating prices with dispensing entities is considered an administrative cost.
Allowable reinsurance costs means the subset of gross covered prescription drug costs actually paid that are attributable to basic prescription drug coverage for covered Part D drugs only and that are actually paid by the Part D sponsor or by (or on behalf of) an enrollee under the Part D plan and the portion of the negotiated price (as defined in section 1860D-14C(g)(6) of the Act) of an applicable drug (as defined at § 423.100) paid by manufacturers under the Manufacturer Discount Program (as defined at § 423.100). The costs for any Part D plan offering enhanced alternative coverage must be adjusted not only to exclude any costs attributable to benefits beyond basic prescription drug coverage, but also to exclude any costs determined to be attributable to increased utilization over the standard prescription drug coverage as the result of the insurance effect of enhanced alternative coverage in accordance with CMS guidelines on actuarial valuation.
Allowable risk corridor costs means—
(1) The subset of costs incurred under a Part D plan (not including administrative costs, but including dispensing fees) that are attributable to basic prescription drug coverage only and that are incurred and actually paid by the Part D sponsor to—
(i) A dispensing pharmacy or other dispensing provider (whether directly or through an intermediary contracting organization) under the Part D plan;
(ii) The parties listed in § 423.464(f)(1) of this part with which the Part D sponsor must coordinate benefits, including other Part D plans, as the result of any reconciliation process developed by CMS under § 423.464 of this part; or
(iii) An enrollee (or third party paying on behalf of the enrollee) to indemnify the enrollee when the reimbursement is associated with obtaining drugs under the Part D plan; and
(2) These costs must be based upon imposition of the maximum amount of copayments permitted under § 423.782 of this part. The costs for any Part D plan offering enhanced alternative coverage must be adjusted not only to exclude any costs attributable to benefits beyond basic prescription drug coverage, but also to exclude any prescription drug coverage costs determined to be attributable to increased utilization over standard prescription drug coverage as the result of the insurance effect of enhanced alternative coverage in accordance with CMS guidelines on actuarial valuation.
Coverage year means a calendar year in which covered Part D drugs are dispensed if the claim for those drugs (and payment on the claim) is made not later than 3 months after the end of the year
Gross covered prescription drug costs means those costs incurred under a Part D plan, excluding administrative costs, but including dispensing fees, during the coverage year. They equal the sum of the following:
(1) The share of actual costs (as defined at § 423.100) paid by the Part D plan that is received as reimbursement by the pharmacy, or other dispensing entity, reimbursement paid to indemnify an enrollee when the reimbursement is associated with an enrollee obtaining covered Part D drugs under the Part D plan, or payments made by the Part D sponsor to other parties listed in § 423.464(f)(1) with which the Part D sponsor must coordinate benefits, including other Part D plans, or as the result of any reconciliation process developed by CMS under § 423.464.
(2) Nominal cost-sharing paid by or on behalf of an enrollee which is associated with drugs that would otherwise be covered Part D drugs, as defined at § 423.100, but are instead paid for, with the exception of said nominal cost-sharing, by a patient assistance program providing assistance outside the Part D benefit, provided that documentation of such nominal cost-sharing has been submitted to the Part D plan consistent with the plan processes and instructions for the submission of such information.
(3) All amounts paid under the Part D plan by or on behalf of an enrollee (such as the deductible, coinsurance, cost sharing, or, for years prior to 2025, amounts between the initial coverage limit and the out-of-pocket threshold) in order to obtain Part D drugs that are covered under the Part D plan. If an enrollee who is paying 100 percent cost sharing (as a result of paying a deductible or, for years prior to 2025, because the enrollee is between the initial coverage limit and the out-of-pocket threshold) obtains a covered Part D drug at a lower cost than is available under the Part D plan, such cost-sharing will be considered an amount paid under the plan by or on behalf of an enrollee under the previous sentence of this definition, if the enrollee's costs are incurred costs as defined at § 423.100 and documentation of the incurred costs has been submitted to the Part D plan consistent with plan processes and instructions for the submission of such information. These costs are determined regardless of whether the coverage under the plan exceeds basic prescription drug coverage.
(4) All amounts paid by manufacturers under the Manufacturer Discount Program (as defined at § 423.100).
Inflation Reduction Act Subsidy Amount (IRASA) means a temporary retrospective subsidy paid to Part D plan sponsors for contract year 2023 for the statutory reduction in cost-sharing and deductible for covered insulin products or for ACIP-recommended adult vaccines, as defined in § 423.100, and is equal to the difference between the following:
(1) The beneficiary cost-sharing for a covered insulin product or an ACIP-recommended adult vaccine under the plan's approved bids submitted under § 423.265 for contract year 2023; and
(2) The applicable statutory maximum cost-sharing for the covered insulin product or for the ACIP-recommended adult vaccine for contract year 2023.
Reopening—(1) Global reopening means a reopening under § 423.346 in which CMS includes all Part D sponsor contracts that meet the inclusion criteria at § 423.346(g).
(2) Targeted reopening means a reopening under § 423.346 in which CMS includes one or more (but not all) Part D sponsor contracts that meet the inclusion criteria at § 423.346(g).
Target amount means the total amount of payments (from both CMS and by or on behalf of enrollees) to a Part D plan for the coverage year for all standardized bid amounts as risk adjusted under § 423.329(b)(1) of this part, less the administrative expenses (including return on investment) assumed in the standardized bids.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 1544, Jan. 12, 2009; 75 FR 19819, Apr. 15, 2010; 88 FR 22340, Apr. 12, 2023; 89 FR 30837, Apr. 23, 2024; 91 FR 17588, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.315 General payment provisions.
(a) Source of payments. CMS payments under this section are made from the Medicare Prescription Drug Account.
(b) Monthly payments. CMS provides a direct subsidy in the form of advance monthly payments equal to the Part D plan's standardized bid, risk adjusted for health status as provided in § 423.329(b), minus the monthly beneficiary premium as determined in § 423.286.
(c) Reinsurance subsidies. CMS provides reinsurance subsidy payments described in § 423.329(c) on a monthly basis during a year based on either estimated or incurred allowable reinsurance costs as provided under § 423.329(c)(2)(i), and final reconciliation to actual allowable reinsurance costs as provided in § 423.343(c).
(d) Low-income subsidies. CMS makes payments for premium and cost sharing subsidies, including additional coverage above the initial coverage limit, on behalf of certain subsidy-eligible individuals as provided in §§ 423.780 and 423.782. CMS provides low-income cost-sharing subsidy payments described in § 423.782 through interim payments of amounts as provided under § 423.329(d)(2)(i) and reconciliation to actual allowable reinsurance costs as provided in § 423.343(d).
(e) Risk-sharing arrangements. CMS may issue lump-sum payments or adjust monthly payments in the following payment year based on the relationship of the Part D plan's adjusted allowable risk corridor costs to predetermined risk corridor thresholds in the coverage year as provided in § 423.336.
(f) Retroactive adjustments and reconciliations. CMS reconciles payment year disbursements with updated enrollment and health status data, actual low-income cost-sharing costs and actual allowable reinsurance costs as provided in § 423.343.
(g) Special rules for private fee-for-service plans—(1) Application of reinsurance. For private fee-for-service plans (as defined by § 422.4(a)(3) of this chapter) offering qualified prescription drug coverage, CMS determines the amount of reinsurance payments as provided under § 423.329(c)(3).
(2) Exemption from risk corridor provisions. The provisions of § 423.336 regarding risk sharing do not apply.
(h) Selected drug subsidy. CMS provides selected drug subsidy payments described in § 423.329(e) on a monthly basis during a year based on either estimated or incurred allowable reinsurance costs as provided under § 423.329(e)(2)(i), and final reconciliation to actual allowable reinsurance costs as provided in § 423.343(e).
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 91 FR 17589, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.322 Requirement for disclosure of information.
(a) Payment conditional upon provision of information. Payments to a Part D sponsor are conditioned upon provision of information to CMS that is necessary to carry out this subpart, or as required by law.
(b) Restrictions on use of information. (1) Officers, employees, and contractors of the Department of Health and Human Services may use the information disclosed or obtained in accordance with the provisions of this subpart for the purposes of, and to the extent necessary—
(i) In carrying out this subpart, including, but not limited to, determination of payments, and payment-related oversight and program integrity activities.
(ii) In conducting oversight, evaluation, and enforcement under Title XVIII of the Act.
(2) The United States Attorney General and the Comptroller General of the United States may use the information disclosed or obtained in accordance with the provisions of this subpart for purposes of, and to the extent necessary in, carrying out health oversight activities.
(3) The restrictions described in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section do not limit either of the following:
(i) OIG's authority to fulfill the Inspector General's responsibilities in accordance with applicable Federal law.
(ii) CMS' ability to use data regarding drug claims in accordance with section 1848(m) of the Act.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 54251, Sept. 18, 2008; 80 FR 7963, Feb. 12, 2015]
§ 423.325 PDE submission timeliness requirements.
(a) General PDE submission timeliness requirements. Unless paragraph (b) of this section applies, a Part D sponsor must submit PDE records to CMS as follows:
(1) Initial PDE records within 30 calendar days from the date the Part D sponsor (or its contracted first tier, downstream, or related entity) receives the claim.
(2) Adjustment or deletion PDE records within 90 calendar days of the Part D sponsor (or its contracted first tier, downstream, or related entity) discovering or receiving notification of an issue that requires a change to the previously submitted PDE record.
(3) A PDE record for a paid claim transaction associated with a PDE record that was previously rejected by CMS at least once every 90 calendar days from receipt of a rejection until the PDE record is accepted unless the claim associated with the rejected PDE record is reversed or deleted, or the PDE record that was rejected is otherwise found to have been submitted in error.
(b) Selected Drugs PDE submission timeliness requirement. A Part D sponsor must submit initial PDE records for selected drugs (as described at section 1192(c) of the Act) within 7 calendar days from the date the Part D sponsor (or its contracted first tier, downstream, or related entity) receives the claim.
[90 FR 15919, Apr. 15, 2025, as amended at 91 FR 17589, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.329 Determination of payments.
(a) Subsidy payments—(1) Direct subsidy. CMS makes a direct subsidy payment for each Part D eligible beneficiary enrolled in a Part D plan for a month equal to the amount of the plan's approved standardized bid, adjusted for health status (as determined under § 423.329(b)(1)), and reduced by the base beneficiary premium for the plan (as determined under § 423.286(c) and adjusted in § 423.286(d)(1)). The direct subsidy payment may be increased by the excess amount of a negative premium as described in § 423.286(d)(1), if applicable.
(2) Subsidy through reinsurance. CMS makes reinsurance subsidy payments as provided under paragraph (c) of this section.
(3) Low-income cost-sharing subsidy. CMS makes low-income cost-sharing subsidy payments as provided under paragraph (d) of this section.
(b) Health status risk adjustment—(1) Establishment of risk factors. CMS establishes an appropriate methodology for adjusting the standardized bid amount to take into account variation in costs for basic prescription drug coverage among Part D plans based on the differences in actuarial risk of different enrollees being served. Any risk adjustment is designed in a manner so as to be budget neutral in the aggregate to the risk of the Part D eligible individuals who enroll in Part D plans.
(2) Considerations. In establishing the methodology under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, CMS takes into account the similar methodologies used under § 422.308(c) of this chapter to adjust payments to MA organizations for benefits under the original Medicare fee-for-service program option.
(3) Data collection. In order to carry out this paragraph, CMS requires—
(i) PDP sponsors to submit data regarding drug claims that can be linked at the individual level to Part A and Part B data in a form and manner similar to the process provided under § 422.310 of this chapter and other information as CMS determines necessary; and
(ii) MA organizations that offer MA-PD plans to submit data regarding drug claims that can be linked at the individual level to other data that the organizations are required to submit to CMS in a form and manner similar to the process provided under § 422.310 of this chapter and other information as CMS determines necessary.
(4) Publication. CMS publishes the risk adjustment factors established under paragraph (b)(1) of this section for the upcoming calendar year in the Advance Notice and Rate Announcement publications specified under § 422.312 of this chapter.
(c) Reinsurance payment amount—
(1) General rule—(i) General rule for years preceding 2025. The reinsurance payment amount for a Part D eligible individual enrolled in a Part D plan for a coverage year is an amount equal to 80 percent of the allowable reinsurance costs attributable to that portion of gross covered prescription drug costs incurred in the coverage year after the individual has incurred true-out-of-pocket costs that exceed the annual out-of-pocket threshold specified in § 423.104(d)(5)(iii).
(ii) General rule for 2026 and subsequent years. The reinsurance payment amount for a Part D eligible individual enrolled in a Part D plan for a coverage year is an amount equal to 20 percent for applicable drugs or 40 percent for drugs that are not applicable drugs of the allowable reinsurance costs attributable to that portion of gross covered prescription drug costs incurred in the coverage year after the individual has incurred true-out-of-pocket costs that exceed the annual out-of-pocket threshold specified in § 423.104(d)(5)(iii).
(2) Payment method. Payments under this section are based on a method that CMS determines.
(i) Payments during the coverage year. CMS establishes a payment method by which payments of amounts under this section are made on a monthly basis during a year based on either estimated or incurred allowable reinsurance costs.
(ii) Final payments. CMS reconciles the payments made during the coverage year to final actual allowable reinsurance costs as provided in § 423.343(c).
(3) Special rules for private fee-for-service Plans offering prescription drug coverage. CMS determines the amount of reinsurance payments for private fee-for-service plans as defined by § 422.4(a)(3) of this chapter offering qualified prescription drug coverage using a methodology that—
(i) Bases the amount on CMS' estimate of the amount of the payments that are payable if the plan were an MA-PD plan described in section 1851(a)(2)(A)(i) of the Act; and
(ii) Takes into account the average reinsurance payments made under § 423.329(c) for populations of similar risk under MA-PD plans described in section 1851(a)(2)(A)(i) of the Act.
(d) Low-income cost sharing subsidy payment amount—(1) General rule. The low-income cost-sharing subsidy payment amount on behalf of a low-income subsidy eligible individual enrolled in a Part D plan for a coverage year is the difference between the cost sharing for a non-low-income subsidy eligible beneficiary under the Part D plan and the statutory cost sharing for a low-income subsidy eligible beneficiary.
(2) Payment method. Payments under this section are based on a method that CMS determines.
(i) Interim payments. CMS establishes a payment method by which interim payments of amounts under this section are made during a year based on the low-income cost-sharing assumptions submitted with plan bids under § 423.265(d)(2)(iv) of this part and negotiated and approved under § 423.272 of this part, or by an alternative method that CMS determines.
(ii) Final payments. CMS reconciles the interim payments to actual incurred low-income cost-sharing costs as provided in § 423.343(d).
(e) Selected drug subsidy amount—(1) General rule. The selected drug subsidy amount is equal to 10 percent of the negotiated price to a covered Part D drug that would otherwise meet the definition of an applicable drug but for being a selected drug during a price applicability period.
(2) Payment method. Payments under this section are based on a method that CMS determines.
(i) Interim payments. CMS establishes a payment method by which interim payments of amounts under this section are made during a year based on the selected drug subsidy amount assumptions submitted with plan bids under § 423.265(d)(2)(vi) and negotiated and approved under § 423.272 or by an alternative method that CMS determines.
(ii) Final payments. CMS reconciles the interim payments to actual incurred selected drug subsidy amounts as provided in § 423.343(e).
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 1545, Jan. 12, 2009; 80 FR 7964, Feb. 12, 2015; 85 FR 33911, June 2, 2020; 91 FR 17589, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.336 Risk-sharing arrangements.
(a) Portion of total payments to a Part D sponsor subject to risk—(1) Adjusted allowable risk corridor costs. For purposes of this paragraph, the term adjusted allowable risk corridor costs means—
(i) The allowable risk corridor costs for the Part D plan for the coverage year, reduced by—
(ii) The sum of—
(A) The total reinsurance payments made under § 423.329(c) to the Part D sponsor of the Part D plan for the year; and
(B) The total non-premium subsidy payments made under § 423.782 to the Part D sponsor of the Part D plan for the coverage year.
(2) Establishment of risk corridors. (i) Risk corridors. For each year, CMS establishes a risk corridor for each Part D plan. The risk corridor for a plan for a coverage year is equal to a range as follows:
(A) First threshold lower limit. The first threshold lower limit of the corridor is equal to—
(1) The target amount for the plan; minus
(2) An amount equal to the first threshold risk percentage for the plan (as determined under paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A) of this section) of the target amount.
(B) Second threshold lower limit. The second threshold lower limit of the corridor is equal to—
(1) The target amount for the plan; minus
(2) An amount equal to the second threshold risk percentage for the plan (as determined under paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section) of the target amount.
(C) First threshold upper limit. The first threshold upper limit of the corridor is equal to the sum of—
(1) The target amount; and
(2) An amount equal to the first threshold risk percentage for the plan (as determined under paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A) of this section) of the target amount.
(D) Second threshold upper limit. The second threshold upper limit of the corridor is equal to the sum of—
(1) The target amount; and
(2) An amount equal to the second threshold risk percentage for the plan (as determined under paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section) of the target amount.
(ii) First and second threshold risk percentage defined. (A) First threshold risk percentage. Subject to paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section, the first threshold risk percentage is for—
(1) 2006 and 2007, 2.5 percent;
(2) 2008 through 2011, 5 percent; and
(3) 2012 and subsequent years, a percentage CMS establishes, but in no case less than 5 percent.
(B) Second threshold risk percentage. Subject to paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section, the second threshold risk percentage is for—
(1) 2006 and 2007, 5.0 percent;
(2) 2008 through 2011, 10 percent
(3) 2012 and subsequent years, a percentage CMS establishes that is greater than the percent established for the year under paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A)(3) of this section, but in no case less than 10 percent.
(iii) Reduction of risk percentage to ensure two Plans in an area. In accordance with § 423.265(e), a PDP sponsor may submit a bid that requests a decrease in the applicable first or second threshold risk percentages or an increase in the percents applied under paragraph (b) of this section. Only a PDP sponsor may request a reduction of risk under this paragraph. An MA organization offering an MA-PD plan, a PACE program offering qualified prescription drug coverage, and a cost-based HMO or CMP offering qualified prescription drug coverage may not request a reduction of risk under this paragraph.
(3) Plans at risk for entire amount of supplemental prescription drug coverage. A Part D sponsor that offers a Part D plan that provides supplemental prescription drug benefits is at full financial risk for the provision of the supplemental benefits.
(b) Payment adjustments—(1) No adjustment if adjusted allowable risk corridor costs within risk corridor. If the adjusted allowable risk corridor costs for the Part D plan for the coverage year are at least equal to the first threshold lower limit of the risk corridor (specified in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(A) of this section) but not greater than the first threshold upper limit of the risk corridor (specified in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(C) of this section) for the Part D plan for the coverage year, CMS makes no payment adjustment.
(2) Increase in payment if adjusted allowable risk corridor costs above upper limit of risk corridor—(i) Costs between first and second threshold upper limits. If the adjusted allowable risk corridor costs for the Part D plan for the year are greater than the first threshold upper limit, but not greater than the second threshold upper limit, of the risk corridor for the Part D plan for the year, CMS increases the total of the payments made to the Part D sponsor offering the Part D plan for the year under this section by an amount equal to 50 percent (or, for 2006 and 2007, 75 percent or 90 percent if the conditions described in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section are met for the year) of the difference between the adjusted allowable risk corridor costs and the first threshold upper limit of the risk corridor.
(ii) Costs above second threshold upper limits. If the adjusted allowable risk corridor costs for the Part D plan for the year are greater than the second threshold upper limit of the risk corridor for the Part D plan for the year, CMS increases the total of the payments made to the Part D sponsor offering the Part D plan for the year under this section by an amount equal to the sum of—
(A) 50 percent (or, for 2006 and 2007, 75 percent or 90 percent if the conditions specified in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section are met for the year) of the difference between the second threshold upper limit and the first threshold upper limit; and
(B) 80 percent of the difference between the adjusted allowable risk corridor costs and the second threshold upper limit of the risk corridor.
(iii) Conditions for application of higher percentage for 2006 and 2007. The conditions specified in this paragraph are met for 2006 or 2007 if CMS determines for the year that—
(A) At least 60 percent of Part D plans to which this paragraph applies have adjusted allowable risk corridor costs for the Part D plan for the year that are more than the first threshold upper limit of the risk corridor for the Part D plan for the year; and
(B) Such plans represent at least 60 percent of Part D eligible individuals enrolled in any Part D plan.
(3) Reduction in payment if adjusted allowable risk corridor costs below lower limit of risk corridor—(i) Costs between first and second threshold lower limits. If the adjusted allowable risk corridor costs for the Part D plan for the coverage year are less than the first threshold lower limit, but not less than the second threshold lower limit, of the risk corridor for the Part D plan for the coverage year, CMS reduces the total of the payments made to the Part D plan for the coverage year under this section by an amount (or otherwise recovers from the Part D sponsor an amount) equal to 50 percent (or, for 2006 and 2007, 75 percent) of the difference between the first threshold lower limit of the risk corridor and the adjusted allowable risk corridor costs.
(ii) Costs below second threshold lower limit. If the adjusted allowable risk corridor costs for the Part D plan for the coverage year are less the second threshold lower limit of the risk corridor for the Part D plan for the coverage year, CMS reduces the total of the payments made to the Part D sponsor for the coverage year under this section by an amount (or otherwise recovers from the Part D sponsor an amount) equal to the sum of—
(A) 50 percent (or, for 2006 and 2007, 75 percent) of the difference between the first threshold lower limit and the second threshold lower limit; and
(B) 80 percent of the difference between the second threshold upper limit of the risk corridor and the adjusted allowable risk corridor costs.
(c) Payment methods. CMS makes payments after a coverage year after obtaining all of the cost data information in paragraph (c)(1) of this section necessary to determine the amount of payment. CMS does not make payments under this section if the Part D sponsor fails to provide the cost data information in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
(1) Submission of cost data. Within 6 months of the end of a coverage year, the Part D sponsor must provide the information that CMS requires.
(2) Lump sum and adjusted monthly payments. CMS at its discretion makes either lump-sum payments or adjusts monthly payments in the following payment year based on the relationship of the plan's adjusted allowable risk corridor costs to the predetermined risk corridor thresholds in the coverage year, as determined under this section. In the event adequate data is not provided for risk corridor costs, CMS assumes that the Part D plan's adjusted allowable risk corridor costs are 50 percent of the target amount.
(d) No effect on monthly premium. No adjustment in payments made by reason of this section may affect the monthly beneficiary premium for qualified prescription drug coverage.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 91 FR 17589, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.343 Retroactive adjustments and reconciliations.
(a) Application of enrollee adjustment. The provisions of § 422.308(f) of this chapter apply to payments to Part D sponsors under this section in the same manner as they apply to payments to MA organizations under section 1853(a) of the Act.
(b) Health status. CMS makes adjustments to payments made under § 423.329(a)(1) to account for updated health status risk adjustment data as provided under § 422.310(g)(2) of this chapter. CMS may recover payments associated with health status adjustments if the Part D sponsor fails to provide the information described in § 423.329(b)(3).
(c) Reinsurance. CMS makes final payment for reinsurance after a coverage year after obtaining all of the information necessary to determine the amount of payment.
(1) Submission of cost data. Within 6 months of the end of a coverage year, the Part D sponsor must provide the information that CMS requires.
(2) Payments. CMS at its discretion either makes lump-sum payments or adjusts monthly payments throughout the remainder of the payment year following the coverage year based on the difference between monthly reinsurance payments made during the coverage year and the amount payable in § 423.329(c) for the coverage year. CMS may recover payments made through a lump sum recovery or by adjusting monthly payments throughout the remainder of the coverage year if the monthly reinsurance payments made during the coverage year exceed the amount payable under § 423.329(c) or if the Part D sponsor does not provide the data in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
(d) Low-income cost-sharing subsidy. CMS makes final payment for low-income cost-sharing subsidies after a coverage year after obtaining all of the information necessary to determine the amount of payment.
(1) Submission of cost data. Within 6 months of the end of a coverage year, the Part D sponsor must provide the information that CMS requires.
(2) Payments. CMS at its discretion either makes lump-sum payments or adjusts monthly payments throughout the remainder of the payment year following the coverage year based on the difference between interim low-income cost-sharing subsidy payments and total low-income cost-sharing subsidy costs eligible for subsidy under § 423.782 submitted by the plan for the coverage year. CMS may recover payments made through a lump sum recovery or by adjusting monthly payments throughout the remainder of the coverage year if interim low-income cost-sharing subsidy payments exceed the amount payable under § 423.782 or if the Part D sponsor does not provide the data in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
(e) Selected drug subsidy. CMS makes final payment for selected drug subsidies after a coverage year after obtaining all of the information necessary to determine the amount of payment.
(1) Submission of cost data. Within 6 months of the end of a coverage year, the Part D sponsor must provide the information that CMS requires.
(2) Payments. CMS at its discretion either makes lump-sum payments or adjusts monthly payments throughout the remainder of the payment year following the coverage year based on the difference between interim selected drug subsidy payments and total selected drug subsidy costs eligible for subsidy under § 423.329(e) submitted by the plan for the coverage year. CMS may recover payments made through a lump sum recovery or by adjusting monthly payments throughout the remainder of the coverage year if the interim selected drug subsidy payments exceed the amount payable under § 423.329(e) of if the Part D sponsor does not provide the data in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 91 FR 17589, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.346 Reopening.
(a) CMS may conduct a global or targeted reopening to reopen and revise an initial or reconsidered final payment determination, including the following: a determination of the final amount of direct subsidy described at § 423.329(a)(1), final reinsurance payments described at § 423.329(c), final amount of the low income subsidy described at § 423.329(d), final risk corridor payments as described at § 423.336, reconciled Coverage Gap Discount Program payment described at § 423.2320(b), reconciled Inflation Reduction Act Subsidy Amount (IRASA) payment for contract year 2023 described at § 423.308, reconciled Manufacturer Discount Program payment described at § 423.2744(c), and reconciled selected drug subsidy payment described at § 423.343(e)—
(1) For any reason, within 12 months from the date of the notice of the final determination to the Part D sponsor
(2) After that 12-month period, but within 6 years after the date of the notice of the initial or reconsidered determination to the Part D sponsor, upon establishment of good cause for reopening; or
(3) At any time, in instances of fraud or similar fault of the Part D sponsor or any subcontractor of the Part D sponsor.
(b) For purposes of this section, CMS will find good cause if—
(1) New and material evidence that was not readily available at the time the final determination was made is furnished;
(2) A clerical error in the computation of payments was made; or
(3) The evidence that was considered in making the determination clearly shows on its face that an error was made.
(c) For purposes of this section, CMS will not find good cause if the only reason for reopening is a change of legal interpretation or administrative ruling upon which the final determination was made.
(d) A decision not to reopen under this section is final and is not subject to review.
(e) CMS notifies the sponsor(s) that will be included in the reopening of its intention to conduct a global or targeted reopening when it is necessary for the sponsor(s) to submit prescription drug event (PDE) data or direct and indirect remuneration (DIR) for the reopening. The notification to sponsor(s) must include the following:
(1) The date by which PDE or DIR data must be accepted by CMS to be included in the reopening, which is at least 90 calendar days after the date of the notification.
(2) A statement indicating the Part D contracts or types of contracts that are included in the reopening.
(f) CMS announces when it has completed a reopening and provide the sponsor(s) with all of the following information:
(1) A description of the data used in the reopening.
(2) A statement indicating the Part D contracts or types of contracts that were included in the reopening.
(3) The date by which reports describing the reopening results is available to the sponsor.
(4) The date by which a sponsor must submit an appeal, in accordance with § 423.350, if the sponsor disagrees with the reopening results.
(g) Inclusion criteria—
(1) For a global reopening, CMS includes only those Part D sponsor contracts that were in effect for the contract year being reopened and for whom CMS has not sent the “Notice of final settlement,” as described at § 423.521(a), as of the date CMS announces the completion of the reopening in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section.
(2) For a target reopening, CMS includes only Part D sponsor contracts that meet the criteria for inclusion in a global reopening as specified in paragraph (1) of this section and that CMS specifies for inclusion in the reopening as provided in paragraph (e)(2) or (f)(2) of this section.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 80 FR 7964, Feb. 12, 2015; 89 FR 30837, Apr. 23, 2024; 89 FR 79452, Sept. 30, 2024; 91 FR 17590, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.350 Payment appeals.
(a) Payment determinations—(1) Payment methods subject to appeal. If CMS did not apply its stated payment methodology correctly, a Part D sponsor may appeal the following:
(i) The reconciled health status risk adjustment of the direct subsidy as provided in § 423.343(b).
(ii) The reconciled reinsurance payments under § 423.343(c).
(iii) The reconciled final payments made for low-income cost sharing subsidies provided in § 423.343(d).
(iv) Final risk-sharing payments made under § 423.336.
(v) The reconciled coverage gap discount payment under § 423.2320(b).
(vi) The reconciled Inflation Reduction Act Subsidy Amount (IRASA) payment for contract year 2023 described at § 423.308.
(vii) The reconciled Manufacturer Discount Program payment under § 423.2744(c).
(viii) The reconciled selected drug subsidy payment under § 423.343(e).
(2) Payment information not subject to appeal. Payment information submitted to CMS under § 423.322 and reconciled or used in the payment calculations for the reconciled IRASA payment for contract year 2023 described at § 423.308 or under § 423.336, § 423.343, § 423.2320(b), or § 423.2744(c) is final and may not be appealed, nor may the appeals process be used to submit new information after the submission of information necessary for CMS to determine retroactive adjustments and reconciliations, including the calculation of risk corridor costs.
(b) Request for reconsideration—(1) Time for filing a request. The request for reconsideration must be filed within 15 calendar days from the date CMS issues the payment reconciliation report for the payment determination that is being appealed under this section by the Part D plan sponsor.
(2) Content of request. The request for reconsideration must specify the findings or issues with which the Part D sponsor disagrees and the reasons for the disagreements. Excluding new payment information, the request for reconsideration may include additional documentary evidence the sponsor wishes CMS to consider.
(3) Conduct of informal written reconsideration. In conducting the reconsideration, CMS reviews the payment determination, the evidence and findings upon which it was based, and any other written evidence submitted by the Part D sponsor or by CMS before notice of the reconsidered determination is made.
(4) Decision of the informal written reconsideration. CMS informs the sponsor of the decision orally or through electronic mail. CMS sends a written decision to the Part D sponsor on the sponsor's request.
(5) Effect of CMS informal written reconsideration. A reconsideration decision, whether delivered orally or in writing, is final and binding unless a request for hearing is filed in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, or it is revised in accordance with § 423.346.
(c) Right to informal hearing. A Part D sponsor dissatisfied with the CMS reconsideration decision is entitled to an informal hearing as provided in this section.
(1) Manner and timing for request. A request for a hearing must be made in writing and filed with CMS within 15 days of the date the Part D sponsor receives the CMS reconsideration decision.
(2) Content of request. The request for informal hearing must include a copy of the CMS reconsideration decision (if any) and must specify the findings or issues in the decision with which the Part D sponsor disagrees and the reasons for the disagreements.
(3) Informal hearing procedures. (i) CMS provides written notice of the time and place of the informal hearing at least 10 days before the scheduled date.
(ii) The hearing are conducted by a CMS hearing officer who neither receives testimony nor accepts any new evidence that was not presented with the reconsideration request. The CMS hearing officer is limited to the review of the record that was before CMS when CMS made both its initial and reconsideration determinations.
(iii) If CMS did not issue a written reconsideration decision, the hearing officer may request, but not require, a written statement from CMS or its contractors explaining CMS' determination, or CMS or its contractors may, on their own, submit the written statement to the hearing officer. Failure of CMS to submit a written statement does not result in any adverse findings against CMS and may not in any way be taken into account by the hearing officer in reaching a decision.
(4) Decision of the CMS hearing officer. The CMS hearing officer decides the case and sends a written decision to the Part D sponsor, explaining the basis for the decision.
(5) Effecting of hearing officer decision. The hearing officer decision is final and binding, unless the decision is reversed or modified by the Administrator in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
(d) Review by the Administrator. (1) A Part D sponsor that has received a hearing officer decision upholding a CMS initial or reconsidered determination may request review by the Administrator within 15 days of receipt of the hearing officer's decision.
(2) The Administrator may review the hearing officer's decision, any written documents submitted to CMS or to the hearing officer, as well as any other information included in the record of the hearing officer's decision and determine whether to uphold, reverse or modify the hearing officer's decision.
(3) The Administrator's determination is final and binding.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 20506, Apr. 15, 2008; 80 FR 7964, Feb. 12, 2015; 91 FR 17590, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.352 CMS-identified overpayments associated with payment data submitted by Part D sponsors.
(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section—
Applicable reconciliation date occurs on the later of either the annual deadline for submitting—
(1) Prescription drug event (PDE) data for the annual Part D payment reconciliations referred to in § 423.343(c) and (d); or
(2) Direct and indirect remuneration data.
Erroneous payment data means payment data that should not have been submitted either because the data submitted are inaccurate or because the data are inconsistent with Medicare Part D requirements.
Payment data means data submitted by a Part D sponsor to CMS and used for payment purposes, including enrollment data and data submitted under § 423.329(b)(3), § 423.336(c)(1), and § 423.343, and data provided for purposes of supporting allowable reinsurance costs and allowable risk corridor costs as defined in § 423.308, including data submitted to CMS regarding direct and indirect remuneration.
(b) Request to correct payment data. (1) When CMS identifies erroneous payment data submitted by a Part D sponsor, CMS may send a data correction notice to the Part D sponsor requesting that the Part D sponsor correct the payment data.
(2) The notice will include or make reference to the specific payment data that need to be corrected, the reason why CMS believes that the payment data are erroneous, and the timeframe for correcting the payment data.
(c) Payment offset. (1) If the Part D sponsor fails to submit the corrected payment data within the timeframe as requested in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, CMS will conduct a payment offset against payments made to the Part D sponsor if—
(i) The payment error affects payments for any of the 6 most recently completed payment years; and
(ii) The payment error for a particular payment year is identified after the applicable reconciliation date for that payment year.
(2) CMS will calculate the payment offset amount using the correct payment data and a payment algorithm that applies the payment rules for the applicable year.
(d) Payment offset notification. CMS will issue a payment offset notice to the Part D sponsor that includes at least the following:
(1) The dollar amount of the offset from plan payments.
(2) An explanation of how the erroneous data were identified and used to calculate the payment offset amount.
(3) An explanation that, if the Part D sponsor disagrees with the payment offset, it may request an appeal within 30 days of issuance of the payment offset notification.
(e) Appeals process. If a Part D sponsor does not agree with the payment offset described in paragraph (c) of this section, it may appeal under the following three-level appeal process:
(1) Reconsideration. A Part D sponsor may request reconsideration of the payment offset described in paragraph (c) of this section, according to the following process:
(i) Manner and timing of request. A written request for reconsideration must be filed within 30 days from the date that CMS issued the payment offset notice to the Part D sponsor.
(ii) Content of request. The written request for reconsideration must specify the findings or issues with which the Part D sponsor disagrees and the reasons for its disagreement. As part of its request for reconsideration, the Part D sponsor may include any additional documentary evidence in support of its position. Any additional evidence must be submitted with the request for reconsideration. Additional information submitted after this time will be rejected as untimely.
(iii) Conduct of reconsideration. In conducting the reconsideration, the CMS reconsideration official reviews the underlying data that were used to determine the amount of the payment offset and any additional documentary evidence timely submitted by the Part D sponsor.
(iv) Reconsideration decision. The CMS reconsideration official informs the Part D sponsor of its decision on the reconsideration request.
(v) Effect of reconsideration decision. The decision of the CMS reconsideration official is final and binding unless a timely request for an informal hearing is filed in accordance with paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
(2) Informal hearing. A Part D sponsor dissatisfied with CMS' reconsideration decision made under paragraph (e)(1) of this section is entitled to an informal hearing as provided for under paragraphs (e)(2)(i) through (e)(2)(v) of this section.
(i) Manner and timing for request. A request for an informal hearing must be made in writing and filed with CMS within 30 days of the date of CMS' reconsideration decision.
(ii) Content of request. The request for an informal hearing must include a copy of the reconsideration decision and must specify the findings or issues in the decision with which the Part D sponsor disagrees and the reasons for its disagreement.
(iii) Informal hearing procedures. The informal hearing will be conducted in accordance with the following:
(A) CMS provides written notice of the time and place of the informal hearing at least 30 days before the scheduled date.
(B) The informal hearing is conducted by a CMS hearing officer who neither receives testimony nor accepts any new evidence that was not timely presented with the reconsideration request. The CMS hearing officer is limited to the review of the record that was before the CMS reconsideration official when CMS made its reconsideration determination.
(C) The CMS hearing officer will review the proceeding before the CMS reconsideration official on the record made before the CMS reconsideration official using the clearly erroneous standard of review.
(iv) Decision of the CMS hearing officer. The CMS hearing officer decides the case and sends a written decision to the Part D sponsor explaining the basis for the decision.
(v) Effect of hearing officer's decision. The hearing officer's decision is final and binding, unless the decision is reversed or modified by the Administrator in accordance with paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
(3) Review by the Administrator. The Administrator review will be conducted in the following manner:
(i) A Part D sponsor that has received a hearing officer's decision may request review by the Administrator within 30 days of the date of issuance of the hearing officer's decision under paragraph (e)(2)(iv) of this section. The Part D sponsor may submit written arguments to the Administrator for review.
(ii) After receiving a request for review, the Administrator has the discretion to elect to review the hearing officer's determination in accordance with paragraph (e)(3)(iv) of this section or to decline to review the hearing officer's decision.
(iii) If the Administrator declines to review the hearing officer's decision, the hearing officer's decision is final and binding.
(iv) If the Administrator elects to review the hearing officer's decision, the Administrator will review the hearing officer's decision, as well as any information included in the record of the hearing officer's decision and any written argument submitted by the Part D sponsor, and determine whether to uphold, reverse, or modify the hearing officer's decision.
(v) The Administrator's determination is final and binding.
(f) Matters subject to appeal and burden of proof. (1) The Part D sponsor's appeal is limited to CMS' finding that the payment data submitted by the Part D sponsor are erroneous.
(2) The Part D sponsor bears the burden of proof by a preponderance of the evidence in demonstrating that CMS' finding that the payment data were erroneous was incorrect or otherwise inconsistent with applicable program requirements.
(g) Applicability of appeals process. The appeals process under paragraph (e) of this section applies only to payment offsets under paragraph (c) of this section.
[79 FR 67032, Nov. 10, 2014]
§ 423.360 Reporting and returning of overpayments.
(a) Definitions. For the purposes of this section the following definitions are applicable:
Applicable reconciliation means the later of either the annual deadline for submitting—
(i) PDE data for the annual Part D payment reconciliations referred to in § 423.343(c) and (d); or
(ii) Direct and indirect remuneration data.
Funds for purposes of this section, means any payment that a Part D sponsor has received that is based on data submitted by the Part D sponsor to CMS for payment purposes, including data submitted under § 423.329(b)(3), § 423.336(c)(1), § 423.343, and data provided for purposes of supporting allowable costs as defined in § 423.308 which includes data submitted to CMS regarding direct or indirect remuneration.
Overpayment means funds that a Part D sponsor has received or retained under title XVIII of the Act to which the Part D sponsor, after applicable reconciliation, is not entitled under such title.
(b) General rule. If a Part D sponsor has identified that it has received an overpayment, the Part D sponsor must report and return that overpayment in the form and manner set forth in this section.
(c) Identified overpayment. The Part D sponsor has identified an overpayment when the Part D sponsor knowingly receives or retains an overpayment. The term “knowingly” has the meaning set forth in 31 U.S.C. 3729(b)(1)(A).
(d) Reporting and returning of an overpayment. A Part D sponsor must report and return any overpayment it received no later than 60 days after the date on which it identified it received an overpayment.
(1) Reporting. A Part D sponsor must notify CMS of the amount and reason for the overpayment, using the notification process determined by CMS.
(2) Returning. A Part D sponsor must return identified overpayments in a manner specified by CMS.
(e) Enforcement. Any overpayment retained by a Part D sponsor is an obligation under 31 U.S.C. 3729(b)(3) if not reported and returned in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
(f) Look-back period. A Part D sponsor must report and return any overpayment identified within the 6 most recent completed payment years.
[79 FR 29963, May 23, 2014, as amended at 89 FR 98565, Dec. 9, 2024]
H Subpart H [Reserved]
Subpart I Organization Compliance with State Law and Preemption by Federal Law
§ 423.401 General requirements for PDP sponsors.
(a) General requirements. Each PDP sponsor of a prescription drug plan must meet the following requirements:
(1) Licensure. Except in cases where there is a waiver as specified at § 423.410 or § 423.415, the sponsor is organized and licensed under State law as a risk bearing entity eligible to offer health insurance or health benefits coverage in each State in which it offers a prescription drug plan. If not otherwise licensed, the sponsor obtains certification from the State that the organization meets a level of financial solvency and other standards as the State may require for it to operate as a PDP sponsor.
(2) Assumption of financial risk for unsubsidized coverage. The PDP sponsor assumes financial risk on a prospective basis for benefits that it offers under a prescription drug plan and that is not covered under section 1860D-15(b) of the Act.
(b) Reinsurance permitted. The PDP sponsor may obtain insurance or make other arrangements for the cost of coverage provided to any enrollee to the extent that the sponsor is at risk for providing the coverage.
(c) Solvency for unlicensed sponsors. In the case of a PDP sponsor that is not described in § 423.401(a)(1) and for which a waiver is approved under § 423.410 or § 423.415, the sponsor must meet the requirements in § 423.420.
§ 423.410 Waiver of certain requirements to expand choice.
(a) Authorizing waiver. In the case of an entity that seeks to offer a prescription drug plan in a State, CMS waives the licensure requirement at § 423.401(a)(1), which requires that the etity be licensed in that State if CMS determines, based on the application and other evidence presented, that any of the grounds for approval of the application described in paragraphs (b), (c), or (d) of this section are met.
(b) Grounds for approval of waivers. Subject to the waiver requirements specified in § 423.410(e), waivers may be granted under any of the following conditions:
(1) Failure to act on licensure application on a timely basis. The State failed to complete action on the licensing application within 90 days of the date that the State received a substantially complete application.
(2) Denial of application based on discriminatory treatment. The State denied the license application on either of the following bases—-
(i) The State imposed material requirements, procedures, or standards (other than solvency requirements) not generally applied by the State to other entities engaged in a substantially similar business; or
(ii) The State required, as a condition of licensure, that the organization offer any product or plan other than a prescription drug plan.
(3) Denial of application based on application of solvency requirements. The State denied the licensure application, in whole or in part, on the basis of the PDP sponsor's failure to meet solvency requirements and
(i) The solvency requirements are different from the solvency standards CMS establishes in accordance with § 423.420; or
(ii) CMS determines that the State imposed, as a condition of licensing, any documentation or information requirements relating to solvency that are different from the standards CMS establishes in accordance with § 423.420.
(4) Grounds other than those required by Federal Law. The application by a State of any grounds other than those required under Federal law.
(c) Waiver when licensing process not in effect. The grounds for approval specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section are deemed met if CMS determines that the State does not have a licensing process in effect for PDP sponsors.
(d) Special waiver for plan years beginning before January 1, 2008. For plan years beginning before January 1, 2008, if the State has a prescription drug plan or PDP sponsor licensing process in effect, CMS grants a waiver upon a demonstration that an applicant to become a PDP sponsor has submitted a substantially completed application for licensure to the State.
(e) Waiver requirements. The following rules apply to waiver applications or waivers granted under this section.
(1) Treatment of waiver. The waiver applies only to that State, is effective for 36 months, and cannot be renewed.
(2) Prompt action on application. CMS grants or denies a waiver application under this section within 60 days after CMS determines that a substantially complete waiver application is received by CMS.
(3) A State that does not have a PDP sponsor. In the case of a State that does not have a PDP sponsor licensing process, the 36 month limitation on the waiver discussed in paragraph (e)(1) of this section does not apply, and the waiver may continue in effect for a given State as long as CMS determines that the State does not have a PDP sponsor licensing process in effect, and the PDP sponsor meets the solvency standards of § 423.420(a).
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 20506, Apr. 15, 2008]
§ 423.415 Temporary waivers for entities seeking to offer a prescription drug plan in more than one State in a region.
(a) General rule. Subject to paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, if an applicant seeking to become a PDP sponsor wishes to operate in more than one State in a region, and is licensed as a risk bearing entity in at least one State in the region, then the applicant may receive a temporary regional plan waiver for the States in which it is not licensed.
(b) Filing of application. The applicant must demonstrate to the satisfaction of CMS that it filed the necessary licensure applications with each State in the region for which it does not already have State licensure, except that no application is necessary if CMS determines that the State does not have a licensing process for potential PDP sponsors.
(c) Processing of application for temporary waiver. The Secretary determines the time period appropriate for the timely processing of the application for temporary waiver.
(d) Time limit for temporary waiver. The temporary waiver expires at the end of time period that the Secretary determines is appropriate for timely processing of the application by the State or States, but in no case is a waiver extend beyond the end of the calendar year.
§ 423.420 Solvency standards for non-licensed entities.
(a) Establishment and publication. CMS establishes and publishes reasonable financial solvency and capital adequacy standards for entities specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) Compliance with standards. A PDP sponsor that is not licensed by a State and for which a waiver application is approved by CMS under § 423.410 or § 423.415 must maintain reasonable financial solvency and capital adequacy in accordance with the standards established by CMS under paragraph (a) of this section.
§ 423.425 Licensure does not substitute for or constitute certification.
The fact that a Part D sponsor is State licensed or has a waiver application approved under § 423.410 or § 423.415 does not deem the sponsor to meet other requirements imposed under this part for a Part D sponsor.
§ 423.440 Prohibition of State imposition of premium taxes; relation to State laws.
(a) Federal preemption of State law. The standards established under this part supersede any State law or regulation (other than State licensing laws or State laws relating to plan solvency) for Part D plans offered by Part D plan sponsors.
(b) State premium taxes prohibited—(1) Basic rule. No premium tax, fee, or other similar assessment may be imposed by any State, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, and American Samoa, the Mariana Islands or any of their political subdivisions or other governmental authorities for any payment CMS makes on behalf of Part D plan or enrollees under this part (including the direct subsidy, reinsurance payments, and risk corridor payments); or for any payment made to Part D plans by a beneficiary or by a third party on behalf of a beneficiary.
(2) Construction. Nothing in this section may be construed to exempt any Part D plan sponsor from taxes, fees, or other monetary assessments related to the net income or profit that accrues to, or is realized by, the organization from business conducted under this part, if that tax, fee, or payment is applicable to a broad range of business activity.
Subpart J Coordination of Part D Plans With Other Prescription Drug Coverage
§ 423.452 Scope.
This section sets forth the application of Part D rules to Part C plans; establishes waivers for MA-PD plans, employer-sponsored group prescription drug plans, cost plans, and PACE organizations; and establishes requirements for coordination of benefits with State Pharmaceutical Assistance Programs and other providers of prescription drug coverage.
§ 423.454 Definitions.
For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply—
Employer-sponsored group prescription drug plan means, prescription drug coverage offered to retirees who are Part D eligible individuals under employment-based retiree health coverage. For purposes of this subpart, employment-based retiree health coverage is such coverage (as defined in § 423.882) provided through a Medicare Part D plan, or for which a plan sponsor could qualify for payments under subpart R of this part.
State Pharmaceutical Assistance Program (SPAP) means a State program that meets the requirements described under § 423.464(e)(1).
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 77 FR 1882, Jan. 12, 2012]
§ 423.458 Application of Part D rules to certain Part D plans on and after January 1, 2006.
(a) Relationship to Part C. Except as otherwise provided in this part, the requirements of this part apply to prescription drug coverage provided by MA-PD plans offered by MA organizations beginning on or after January 1, 2006.
(b) MA waiver. CMS waives any provision of this Part otherwise applicable to MA-PD plans or MA organizations under paragraph (a) of this section to the extent CMS determines that the provision duplicates, or is in conflict with, provisions otherwise applicable to the MA organizations or MA-PD plans under Part C of Medicare, or as may be necessary in order to improve coordination of this part with the benefits under Part C.
(1) Application of waiver. Any waiver or modification granted by CMS under this section applies to any other similarly situated organization offering or seeking to offer a MA-PD plan that meets the conditions of the waiver.
(2) Request for waivers. Organizations offering or seeking to offer a MA-PD plan may request from CMS in writing—
(i) A waiver of those requirements under this part otherwise applicable to the MA-PD plan or MA organization under paragraph (a) of this section that are duplicative of, or that are in conflict with, provisions otherwise applicable to the MA-PD plan, proposed MA-PD plan, or a MA organization under Part C of Medicare.
(ii) A waiver of a requirement under this part otherwise applicable to the MA-PD plan or MA organization under paragraph (a) of this section, if such waiver improves coordination of benefits provided under Part C of Medicare with benefits under this Part.
(c) Employer group waiver—(1) General rule for employer-sponsored group prescription drug plans that are Medicare Part D plans. CMS may waive or modify any requirement under this part that hinders the design of, the offering of, or the enrollment in an employer-sponsored group prescription drug plan, including authorizing the establishment of separate premium amounts for enrollees of the employer-sponsored group prescription drug plan and limitations on enrollment in such plan to Part D eligible individuals participating in the sponsor's employment-based retiree health coverage. Any entity seeking to offer, sponsor, or administer an employer-sponsored group prescription drug plan may request, in writing, a waiver or modification of additional requirements under this part that hinder its design of, the offering of, or the enrollment in, such employer-sponsored group prescription drug plan.
(2) General rule for employer-sponsored group prescription drug plans for which a sponsor could qualify for payments under subpart R of this part. CMS may waive or modify any requirement under this part that hinders the design of, the offering of, or the enrollment in an employer-sponsored group prescription drug plan.
(3) Use of waiver. Waivers or modifications approved by CMS under this section apply to any similarly situated entity seeking to offer, sponsor, or administer an employer-sponsored group prescription drug plan, meeting the conditions of the waiver or modification.
(4) Employer-sponsored group prescription drug plans must comply with all applicable requirements under this part that are not specifically waived or modified in accordance with in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
(d) Other waivers. CMS waives any provision of this Part as applied to a cost plan (as defined in § 417.401 of this chapter) or PACE organization (as defined in § 460.6 of this chapter) that offers qualified prescription drug coverage under Part D to the extent CMS determines that the provision duplicates, or is in conflict with, provisions otherwise applicable to the cost plan under section 1876 of the Act or provisions applicable to PACE organizations under sections 1894 and 1934 of the Act, or as necessary in order to improve coordination of this Part with the benefits offered by cost plans or PACE organizations.
(1) Application of waiver. Any waiver or modification granted by CMS under this paragraph applies to any other similarly situated organization offering or seeking to offer qualified prescription drug coverage as a cost plan under section 1876 of the Act or as a PACE organization under sections 1894 and 1934 of the Act.
(2) Request for waivers. Cost plans or PACE organizations seeking to offer qualified prescription drug coverage may request from CMS in writing-
(i) A waiver of those requirements under this part otherwise applicable to cost plans or PACE organizations that are duplicative of, or that are in conflict with, provisions otherwise applicable to cost plans or PACE organizations.
(ii) A waiver of a requirement under this part otherwise applicable to cost plans or PACE organizations, if such waiver improves coordination of benefits provided by the cost plan under section 1876 of the Act, or by the PACE organization under sections 1894 and 1934 of the Act, with the benefits under Part D.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 20506, Apr. 15, 2008; 77 FR 1882, Jan. 12, 2012; 77 FR 22170, Apr. 12, 2012]
§ 423.462 Medicare secondary payer procedures.
(a) General rule. The provisions of § 422.108 of this chapter regarding Medicare secondary payer procedures apply to Part D sponsors and Part D plans (with respect to the offering of qualified prescription drug coverage) in the same way as they apply to MA organizations and MA plans under Part C of title XVIII of the Act, except all references to MA organizations and MA plans are considered references to Part D sponsors and Part D plans.
(b) Reporting requirements. A Part D sponsor must report credible new or changed primary payer information to the CMS Coordination of Benefits Contractor in accordance with the processes and timeframes specified by CMS.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 19819, Apr. 15, 2010]
§ 423.464 Coordination of benefits with other providers of prescription drug coverage.
(a) General rule. A Part D plan must permit SPAPs (described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section) and entities providing other prescription drug coverage (described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section) to coordinate benefits with such plan. A Part D plan must comply with all administrative processes and requirements established by CMS to ensure effective exchange of information and coordination between such plan and SPAPs and entities providing other prescription drug coverage for—
(1) Payment of premiums and coverage; and
(2) Payment for supplemental prescription drug benefits as described in § 423.104(f)(1)(ii)(including payment to a Part D plan on a lump sum per capita basis) for Part D eligible individuals enrolled in the Part D plan and the SPAP or entity providing other prescription drug coverage.
(3) Retroactive claims adjustments, underpayment reimbursements, and overpayment recoveries as described in paragraph (g) of this section and § 423.466(a) of this subpart.
(b) Medicare as primary payer. The requirements of this subpart do not change or affect the primary or secondary payer status of a Part D plan and a SPAP or other prescription drug coverage. A Part D plan is always the primary payer relative to a State Pharmaceutical Assistance Program.
(c) User fees. CMS may impose user fees on Part D plans for the transmittal of information necessary for benefit coordination in accordance with administrative processes and requirements established by CMS to ensure effective exchange of information and coordination between a Part D plan and SPAPs and entities providing other prescription drug coverage in a manner similar to the manner in which user fees are imposed under section 1842(h)(3)(B) of the Act, except that CMS may retain a portion of user fees to defray its costs in carrying out such procedures. CMS will not impose user fees under this subpart on a SPAP or entities providing other prescription drug coverage.
(d) Cost management tools. The requirements of this subpart do not prevent a Part D sponsor from using cost management tools (including differential payments) under all methods of operation.
(e) Coordination with State Pharmaceutical Assistance Programs—(1) Requirements to be a State Pharmaceutical Assistance Program (SPAP). A State program is considered to be a State Pharmaceutical Assistance Program for purposes of this part if it-
(i) Provides financial assistance for the purchase or provision of supplemental prescription drug coverage or benefits on behalf of Part D eligible individuals;
(ii) Provides assistance to Part D eligible individuals in all Part D plans without discriminating based upon the Part D plan in which an individual enrolls;
(iii) Meets the benefit coordination requirements specified in this subpart;
(iv) Does not follow or adopt rules that change or affect the primary payer status of a Part D plan.
The definition of SPAP excludes State Medicaid programs, section 1115 demonstration programs, and any other program where program funding is from Federal grants, awards, contracts, entitlement programs, or other Federal sources of funding; and
(v) Provides supplemental drug coverage to individuals based on financial need, age, or medical condition, and not based on current or former employment status.
(vi) Does not engage in midyear plan or noncalendar year plan enrollment changes on behalf of a substantial number of its members when authorized to do so on the beneficiary's behalf.
(2) Use of a single card. A card that is issued under § 423.120(c) for use under a Part D plan may also be used in connection with coverage of benefits provided under a SPAP and, in such a case, may contain an emblem or symbol indicating such connection.
(3) Construction. Nothing in this subpart requires a SPAP to coordinate with, or provide financial assistance to enrollees in, any Part D plan.
(f) Coordination with other prescription drug coverage—(1) Definition of other prescription drug coverage. Entities that provide other prescription drug coverage include any of the following:
(i) Medicaid programs. A State plan under title XIX of the Act, including such a plan operating under a waiver under section 1115 of the Act, if it meets the requirements of paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section.
(ii) Group health plans.
(iii) FEHBP. The Federal Employee Health Benefits Program under chapter 89 of title 5, United States Code.
(iv) Military coverage (including TRICARE). Coverage under chapter 55 of title 10, United States Code.
(v) Indian Health Service. Coverage under Chapter 18 of title 28 of the United States Code.
(vi) Federally qualified health centers. Federally qualified health centers as defined under section 1861(aa)(4) of the Act.
(vii) Rural health clinics. Rural health clinics as defined under section 1861(aa)(2) of the Act.
(viii) Other Part D plans.
(ix) Other prescription drug coverage. Other health benefit plans or programs that provide coverage or financial assistance for the purchase or provision of Part D drugs on behalf of Part D eligible individuals as CMS may specify.
(2) Treatment under out-of-pocket rule. (i) For purposes of determining whether a Part D plan enrollee has satisfied the out-of-pocket threshold provided under § 423.104(d)(5)(iii), a Part D plan must do all of the following:
(A) Include the enrollee's incurred costs (as defined in § 423.100).
(B) Report, accept and apply benefit accumulator data in a timeframe and manner determined by CMS.
(C) Exclude expenditures for covered Part D drugs made by government-funded health programs or the coverage provided by a prescription drug plan or an MA-PD plan that is basic prescription drug coverage or any payments by a manufacturer under the Manufacturer Discount Program.
(ii) A Part D enrollee must disclose all these expenditures to a Part D plan in accordance with requirements under § 423.32(b)(ii).
(3) Imposition of fees. A Part D sponsor may not impose fees on SPAPs and entities offering other prescription drug coverage that are unrelated to the cost of the coordination of benefits.
(4) Authority to recover expenditures due to incorrect information on true out-of-pocket costs. In the event that a Part D plan learns that it has made an erroneous payment due to inaccurate or incomplete information on the satisfaction of the out-of-pocket threshold under § 423.104(d)(5)(iii), that plan is authorized to recover such costs directly from the Part D enrollee on whose behalf the costs were incurred. A Part D enrollee must reimburse the Part D plan for payment made for these costs.
(5) Plan-to-plan liability. In the process of coordinating benefits between Part D plans when a Part D plan from which a beneficiary has transferred has incorrectly made payment for covered prescription drug costs incurred after the effective date of the Part D enrollee's enrollment in the new Part D plan of record, the new Part D plan of record must make the reconciling payments based on amounts reported to it by CMS without regard to the Part D plan's own formulary or drug utilization review edits.
(6) Use of other reconciliation processes. In the process of coordinating benefits between the correct Part D plan of record and another entity providing prescription drug coverage when that entity has incorrectly paid as primary payer for a covered Part D drug on behalf of a Part D enrollee, the correct Part D plan of record must achieve timely reconciliation through working directly with the other entity that incorrectly paid as primary payer, unless CMS has established reconciliation processes for payment reconciliation, rather than requesting pharmacy claims reversal and re-adjudication.
(g) Responsibility to account for other providers of prescription drug coverage when a retroactive claims adjustment creates an overpayment or underpayment. When a Part D sponsor makes a retroactive claims adjustment, the sponsor has the responsibility to account for SPAPs and other entities providing prescription drug coverage in reconciling the claims adjustments that create overpayments or underpayments. In carrying out these reimbursements and recoveries, Part D sponsors must also account for payments made and for amounts being held for payment by other individuals or entities. Part D sponsors must have systems to track and report adjustment transactions and to support all of the following:
(1) Adjustments involving payments by other plans and programs providing prescription drug coverage have been made.
(2) Reimbursements for excess cost-sharing and premiums for low-income subsidy eligible individuals have been processed in accordance with the requirements in § 423.800(c).
(3) Recoveries of erroneous payments for enrollees as specified in § 423.464(f)(4) have been sought.
(h) Reporting requirements. A Part D sponsor must report credible new or changed supplemental prescription drug coverage information to the CMS Coordination of Benefits Contractor in accordance with the processes and timeframes specified by CMS.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 20507, Apr. 15, 2008; 75 FR 19819, Apr. 15, 2010; 76 FR 21574, Apr. 15, 2011; 79 FR 29963, May 23, 2014; 80 FR 7964, Feb. 12, 2015; 91 FR 17590, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.466 Timeframes for coordination of benefits and claims adjustments.
(a) Retroactive claims adjustments, underpayment refunds, and overpayment recoveries. Whenever a sponsor receives information that necessitates a retroactive claims adjustment, the sponsor must process the adjustment and issue refunds or recovery notices within 45 days of the sponsor's receipt of complete information regarding claims adjustment.
(b) Coordination of benefits. Part D sponsors must coordinate benefits with SPAPs, other entities providing prescription drug coverage, beneficiaries, and others paying on the beneficiaries' behalf for a period of 3 years from the date on which the prescription for a covered Part D drug was filled.
[75 FR 19819, Apr. 15, 2010, as amended at 80 FR 7964, Feb. 12, 2015]
Subpart K Application Procedures and Contracts with Part D plan sponsors
§ 423.500 Scope.
This subpart sets forth application procedures and contracts with Part D plans: application procedures and requirements; contract terms; procedures for termination of contracts; reporting by Part D plans. For purposes of this subpart, Medicare Advantage (MA) organizations offering Part D plans follow the requirements of part 422 of this chapter for MA organizations, except in cases where the requirements for the qualified prescription drug coverage involve additional requirements.
§ 423.501 Definitions
For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
Bona fide service fees means fees paid by a manufacturer to an entity that represent fair market value for a bona fide, itemized service actually performed on behalf of the manufacturer that the manufacturer would otherwise perform (or contract for) in the absence of the service arrangement, and that are not passed on in whole or in part to a client or customer of an entity, whether or not the entity takes title to the drug.
Business transaction means any of the following kinds of transactions:
(1) Sale, exchange, or lease of property.
(2) Loan of money or extension of credit.
(3) Goods, services, or facilities furnished for a monetary consideration, including management services, but not including—
(i) Salaries paid to employees for services performed in the normal course of their employment; or
(ii) Health services furnished to the Part D plan sponsor's enrollees by pharmacies and other providers, by Part D plan sponsor staff, medical groups, or independent practice associations, or by any combination of those entities.
Downstream entity means any party that enters into a written arrangement, acceptable to CMS, below the level of the arrangement between a Part D plan sponsor (or applicant) and a first tier entity. These written arrangements continue down to the level of the ultimate provider of both health and administrative services.
Final settlement adjustment period means the period of time between when the contract terminates and the date the Part D sponsor is issued a notice of the final settlement amount.
Final settlement amount means the final payment amount that CMS owes and ultimately pays to a Part D sponsor, or that a Part D sponsor owes and ultimately pays to CMS, with respect to a Part D contract that has consolidated, nonrenewed, or terminated. The final settlement amount is calculated by summing final retroactive payment adjustments for a specific contract that accumulated after that contract ceases operation but before the calculation of the final settlement amount and all of the following applicable reconciliation amounts that have been completed as of the date the notice of final settlement has been issued, without accounting for any data submitted after the data submission deadlines for calculating these reconciliation amounts:
(1) Risk adjustment reconciliation, as applicable (described in § 422.310 of this chapter).
(2) Part D annual reconciliation (described in § 423.343).
(3) Coverage Gap Discount Program annual reconciliation (described in § 423.2320).
(4) MLR remittances (described in §§ 422.2470 of this chapter and 423.2470).
Final settlement process means for a contract that has been consolidated, nonrenewed, or terminated, the process by which CMS does all of the following:
(1) Calculates the final settlement amount.
(2) Issues the final settlement amount along with supporting documentation in the notice of final settlement to the Part D sponsor.
(3) Receives responses from the Part D sponsor requesting an appeal of the final settlement amount.
(4) Takes action to adjudicate an appeal (if requested) and make payments to or receive payments from the Part D sponsor. The final settlement amount is calculated after all applicable reconciliations have occurred after a contract has been consolidated, nonrenewed, or terminated.
First tier entity means any party that enters into a written arrangement, acceptable to CMS, with a Part D plan sponsor or applicant to provide administrative services or health care services for a Medicare eligible individual under Part D.
Party in interest means the following:
(1) Any director, officer, partner, or employee responsible for management or administration of a Part D plan sponsor.
(2) Any person who is directly or indirectly the beneficial owner of more than 5 percent of the organization's equity; or the beneficial owner of a mortgage, deed of trust, note, or other interest secured by and valuing more than 5 percent of the organization.
(3) In the case of a PDP sponsor organized as a nonprofit corporation, an incorporator or member of the corporation under applicable State corporation law.
(4) Any entity in which a person specified in paragraphs (1), (2), or (3) of this definition—
(i) Is an officer, director, or partner; or
(ii) Has the kind of interest described in paragraphs (1), (2), or (3) of this definition.
(5) Any person that directly or indirectly controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with the Part D plan sponsor.
(6) Any spouse, child, or parent of an individual specified in paragraphs (1), (2), or (3) of this definition.
Prescription drug pricing standard means any methodology or formula for varying the pricing of a drug or drugs during the term of a pharmacy reimbursement contract that is based on the cost of a drug, which includes, but is not limited to, drug pricing references and amounts based on any of the following:
(1) Average wholesale price.
(2) Wholesale acquisition cost.
(3) Average manufacturer price.
(4) Average sales price.
(5) Maximum allowable cost.
(6) Other cost, whether publicly available or not.
Related entity means any entity that is related to the PDP sponsor by common ownership or control and—
(1) Performs some of the Part D plan sponsor's management functions under contract or delegation;
(2) Furnishes services to Medicare enrollees under an oral or written agreement; or
(3) Leases real property or sells materials to the Part D plan sponsor at a cost of more than $2,500 during a contract period.
Significant business transaction means any business transaction or series of transactions of the kind specified in the above definition of business transaction that, during any fiscal year of the Part D plan sponsor, have a total value that exceeds $25,000 or 5 percent of the PDP sponsor's total operating expenses, whichever is less.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 77 FR 22170, Apr. 12, 2012; 80 FR 29963, Nov. 6, 2015; 89 FR 30837, Apr. 23, 2024; 89 FR 63828, Aug. 6, 2024]
§ 423.502 Application requirements.
(a) Scope. This section sets forth application requirements for an entity that seeks a determination from CMS that it is qualified to contract as a sponsor of a Part D plan.
(b) Completion of a notice of intent to apply. (1) An organization submitting an application under this section for a particular contract year must first submit a completed Notice of Intent to Apply by the date established by CMS. CMS will not accept applications from organizations that do not submit a timely Notice of Intent to Apply.
(2) Submitting a Notice of Intent to Apply does not bind that organization to submit an application for the applicable contract year.
(3) An organization's decision not to submit an application after submitting an Notice of Intent to Apply will not form the basis of any action taken against the organization by CMS.
(c) Completion of an application. (1) In order to obtain a determination on whether it meets the requirements to become a Part D plan sponsor, an entity, or an individual authorized to act for the entity (the applicant), must fully complete all parts of a certified application in the form and manner required by CMS, including the following:
(i) Documentation of appropriate State licensure or State certification that the entity is able to offer health insurance or health benefits coverage that meets State-specified standards as specified in subpart I of this part; or
(ii) A Federal waiver as specified in subpart I of this part.
(2) The authorized individual must describe thoroughly how the entity is qualified to meet the all requirements described in this part.
(d) Responsibility for making determinations. (1) CMS is responsible for determining whether an entity is qualified to contract as a Part D plan sponsor and meets the requirements of this part.
(2) A CMS determination that an entity is qualified to act as a Part D plan sponsor is distinct from the bid negotiations that occur under subpart F of part 423 and such negotiations are not subject to the appeals provisions included in subpart N of this part.
(e) Disclosure of application information under the Freedom of Information Act. An applicant submitting material that he or she believes is protected from disclosure under 5 USC 552, the Freedom of Information Act, or because of exemptions provided in 45 CFR part 5 (the Department's regulations providing exemptions to disclosure), must label the material “privileged” and include an explanation of the applicability of an exemption specified in 45 CFR part 5.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 19819, Apr. 15, 2010]
§ 423.503 Evaluation and determination procedures.
(a) Basis for evaluation and determination. (1) Information used to evaluate applications. With the exception of evaluations conducted under paragraph (b) of this section, CMS evaluates an entity's application solely on the basis of information contained in the application itself and any additional information that CMS obtains through on-site visits and any essential operations test.
(2) Issuing application determination. After evaluating all relevant information, CMS determines whether the application meets all the requirements described in this part.
(3) Limitation on PDP contracts under a single parent organization CMS does not approve an application when it would result in the applicant's parent organization, directly or through its subsidiaries, holding more than one PDP sponsor contract in the PDP Region for which the applicant is seeking qualification as a PDP sponsor.
(4) Substantially incomplete applications. (i) CMS does not evaluate or issue a notice of determination described in § 423.503(c) when an organization submits a substantially incomplete application.
(ii) An application is substantially incomplete when the submission as of the deadline for applications established by CMS is missing content or responsive materials for one or more sections of the application form required by CMS.
(iii) A determination that an application is substantially incomplete is not a contract determination as defined in § 423.641 and a determination that an organization submitted a substantially incomplete application is not subject to the appeals provisions of subpart N of this part.
(b) Use of information from a current or prior contract. (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2) through (4) of this section, if a Part D plan sponsor fails during the 12 months preceding the deadline established by CMS for the submission of contract qualification applications to comply with the requirements of the Part D program under any current or prior contract with CMS under title XVIII of the Act CMS may deny an application based on the applicant's failure to comply with the requirements of the Part D program under any current or prior contract with CMS even if the applicant currently meets all of the requirements of this part.
(i) An applicant may be considered to have failed to comply with a contract for purposes of an application denial under paragraph (b)(1) of this section if during the applicable review period the applicant:
(A) Was under an intermediate sanction under subpart O of this part, or a determination by CMS to prohibit the enrollment of new enrollees under § 423.2410(c).
(B) Failed to maintain a fiscally sound operation consistent with the requirements of § 423.505(b)(23).
(C) Filed for or is currently in federal or state bankruptcy proceedings.
(D) Received any combination of Part C or Part D summary ratings of 2.5 or less in both of the two most recent Star Rating periods, as identified in § 423.186.
(E) Met or exceeded 13 points for compliance actions on any one contract.
(1) CMS determines the number of points each Part D plan sponsor accumulated during the performance period for compliance actions based on the following point values:
(i) Each corrective action plan issued during the performance period under § 423.505(n) counts for 6 points.
(ii) Each warning letter issued during the performance period under § 423.505(n) counts for 3 points.
(iii) Each notice of noncompliance issued during the performance period under § 423.505(n) counts for 1 point.
(2) CMS adds all the point values for each Part D plan sponsor to determine if any organization meets CMS' identified threshold.
(ii) CMS may deny an application submitted by an organization that does not hold a Part D contract at the time of the submission when the applicant's parent organization or another subsidiary of the parent organization meets the criteria for denial stated in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. This paragraph does not apply when the parent completed the acquisition of the subsidiary that meets the criteria within the 24 months preceding the application submission deadline.
(2) In the absence of 12 months of performance history, CMS may deny an application based on a lack of information available to determine an applicant's capacity to comply with the requirements of the Part D program.
(3) If CMS has terminated, under § 423.509, or non-renewed, under § 423.507(b), a Part D plan sponsor's contract, effective within the 38 months preceding the deadline established by CMS for the submission of contract qualification applications, CMS may deny an application based on the applicant's substantial failure to comply with the requirements of the Part D program even if the applicant currently meets all of the requirements of this part.
(4) During the same 38-month period as specified in (b)(3) of this section, CMS may deny an application where the applicant's covered persons also served as covered persons for the terminated or non-renewed contract. A “covered person” as used in this paragraph means one of the following:
(i) All owners of terminated organizations who are natural persons, other than shareholders who have an ownership interest of less than 5 percent.
(ii) An owner in whole or part interest in any mortgage, deed of trust, note or other obligation secured (in whole or in part) by the organization, or any of the property or assets thereof, which whole or part interest is equal to or exceeds 5 percent of the total property, and assets of the organization.
(iii) A member of the board of directors or board of trustees of the entity, if the organization is organized as a corporation.
(c) Notice of determination. Except for fallback entities, which are governed under subpart Q of this part, CMS notifies each applicant that applies to be determined qualified to contract as a Part D plan sponsor, under this part, of its determination on the application and the basis for the determination. The determination may be one of the following:
(1) Approval of application. If CMS approves the application, it gives written notice to the applicant, indicating that it qualifies to contract as Part D plan sponsor.
(2) Intent to deny. (i) If CMS finds that the applicant does not appear qualified to contract as a Part D sponsor, it gives the applicant notice of intent to deny the application and a summary of the basis for this preliminary finding.
(ii) Within 10 days from the date of the notice, the applicant may respond in writing to the issues or other matters that were the basis for CMS's preliminary finding and may revise its application to remedy any defects CMS identified.
(iii) If CMS does not receive a revised application within 10 days from the date of the notice, or if after timely submission of a revised application, CMS still finds the applicant does not appear qualified to contract as a Part D plan sponsor or has not provided enough information to allow CMS to evaluate the application, CMS denies the application.
(3) Denial of application. If CMS denies the application, it gives written notice to the applicant indicating—
(i) That the applicant is not qualified to contract as a Part D sponsor under Part D of title XVIII of the Act;
(ii) The reasons why the applicant does is not so qualified; and
(iii) The applicant's right to request a hearing in accordance with the procedures specified in subpart N of this part.
(4) Nullification of approval of application. If CMS discovers through any means that an applicant is not qualified to contract based on information gained subsequent to application approval (for example, failure of an essential operations test, absence of required employees, etc.), CMS gives the applicant written notice indicating that the approval issued under paragraph (c)(1) of this section is nullified and the applicant no longer qualifies to contract as a Part D plan sponsor.
(i) This determination is not subject to the appeals provisions in subpart N of this part.
(ii) This provision only applies to applicants that have not previously entered into a Part D contract with CMS and neither it, nor another subsidiary of the applicant's parent organization, is offering Part D benefits during the current year.
(d) Withdrawal of application and bid in a previous year. An applicant that withdraws its application and corresponding bid after the release of the low-income subsidy benchmark is not eligible to be approved as a Part D plan sponsor for the 2 succeeding annual contracting cycles.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 19820, Apr. 15, 2010; 76 FR 21574, Apr. 15, 2011; 77 FR 22170, Apr. 12, 2012; 79 FR 29963, May 23, 2014; 80 FR 7964, Feb. 12, 2015; 83 FR 16750, Apr. 16, 2018; 86 FR 6118, Jan. 19, 2021; 87 FR 27900, May 9, 2022; 89 FR 30837, Apr. 23, 2024]
§ 423.504 General provisions.
(a) General rule. Subject to the provisions at § 423.265 of this part concerning submission of bids, to enroll beneficiaries in any Part D drug plan it offers and be paid on behalf of Part D eligible individuals enrolled in those plans, a Part D plan sponsor must enter into a contract with CMS. The contract may cover more than one Part D plan.
(b) Conditions necessary to contract as a Part D plan sponsor. Any entity seeking to contract as a Part D plan sponsor must—
(1) Complete an application as described in § 423.502 demonstrating that the entity has the capability to meet the requirements of this part, including those listed in § 423.505.
(2) Be organized and licensed under State law as a risk bearing entity eligible to offer health insurance or health benefits coverage in each State in which it offers a Part D plan, or have secured a Federal waiver, as described in subpart I of this part. (Fallback entity applicants need not be licensed as risk-bearing entities, nor are they required to obtain State licensure demonstrating that the applicant is eligible to offer health insurance or health benefits coverage in each State in which it applies to operate.)
(3) Meet the minimum enrollment requirements of § 423.512(a) unless waived under § 423.512(b).
(4) Have administrative and management arrangements satisfactory to CMS, as demonstrated by at least the following:
(i) A policy making body that exercises oversight and control over the Part D plan sponsor's policies and personnel to ensure that management actions are in the best interest of the organization and its enrollees.
(ii) Personnel and systems sufficient for the Part D plan sponsor to organize, implement, control, and evaluate financial and communication activities, the furnishing of prescription drug services, the quality assurance, medical therapy management, and drug and or utilization management programs, and the administrative and management aspects of the organization.
(iii) At a minimum, an executive manager whose appointment and removal are under the control of the policy making body.
(iv) A fidelity bond or bonds, procured and maintained by the Part D sponsor, in an amount fixed by its policymaking body but not less than $100,000 per individual, covering each officer and employee entrusted with the handling of its funds. The bond may have reasonable deductibles, based upon the financial strength of the Part D plan sponsor.
(v) Insurance policies or other arrangements, secured and maintained by the Part D plan sponsor and approved by CMS to insure the Part D plan sponsor against losses arising from professional liability claims, fire, theft, fraud, embezzlement, and other casualty risks.
(vi) Adopt and implement an effective compliance program, which must include measures that prevent, detect, and correct noncompliance with CMS' program requirements as well as measures that prevent, detect, and correct fraud, waste, and abuse. The compliance program must, at a minimum, include the following core requirements:
(A) Written policies, procedures, and standards of conduct that—
(1) Articulate the Part D plan sponsor's commitment to comply with all applicable Federal and State standards;
(2) Describe compliance expectations as embodied in the standards of conduct;
(3) Implement the operation of the compliance program;
(4) Provide guidance to employees and others on dealing with potential compliance issues;
(5) Identify how to communicate compliance issues to appropriate compliance personnel;
(6) Describe how potential compliance issues are investigated and resolved by the Part D plan sponsor; and
(7) Include a policy of non-intimidation and non-retaliation for good faith participation in the compliance program, including but not limited to reporting potential issues, investigating issues, conducting self-evaluations, audits and remedial actions, and reporting to appropriate officials.
(B) The designation of a compliance officer and a compliance committee who report directly and are accountable to the Part D plan sponsor's chief executive or other senior management.
(1) The compliance officer, vested with the day-to-day operations of the compliance program, must be an employee of the Part D plan sponsor, parent organization or corporate affiliate. The compliance officer may not be an employee of the Part D plan sponsor's first tier, downstream or related entity.
(2) The compliance officer and the compliance committee must periodically report directly to the governing body of the Part D plan sponsor on the activities and status of the compliance program, including issues identified, investigated, and resolved by the compliance program.
(3) The governing body of the Part D plan sponsor must be knowledgeable about the content and operation of the compliance program and must exercise reasonable oversight with respect to the implementation and effectiveness of the compliance programs.
(C)(1) Each Part D plan sponsor must establish and implement effective training and education for its compliance officer and organization employees, the Part D sponsor's chief executive and other senior administrators, managers and governing body members.
(2) Such training and education must occur at a minimum annually and must be made a part of the orientation for a new employee, and new appointment to a chief executive, manager, or governing body member.
(D) Establishment and implementation of effective lines of communication, ensuring confidentiality, between the compliance officer, members of the compliance committee, the Part D plan sponsor's employees, managers and governing body, and the Part D plan sponsor's first tier, downstream, and related entities. Such lines of communication must be accessible to all and allow compliance issues to be reported including a method for anonymous and confidential good faith reporting of potential compliance issues as they are identified.
(E) Well-publicized disciplinary standards through the implementation of procedures which encourage good faith participation in the compliance program by all affected individuals. These standards must include policies that—
(1) Articulate expectations for reporting compliance issues and assist in their resolution;
(2) Identify non-compliance or unethical behavior; and
(3) Provide for timely, consistent, and effective enforcement of the standards when non-compliance or unethical behavior is determined.
(F) Establishment and implementation of an effective system for routine monitoring and identification of compliance risks. The system should include internal monitoring and audits and, as appropriate, external audits, to evaluate the Part D plan sponsors, including first tier entities', compliance with CMS requirements and the overall effectiveness of the compliance program.
(G) Establishment and implementation of procedures and a system for promptly responding to compliance issues as they are raised, investigating potential compliance problems as identified in the course of self-evaluations and audits, correcting such problems promptly and thoroughly to reduce the potential for recurrence, and ensure ongoing compliance with CMS requirements.
(1) If the Part D sponsor discovers evidence of misconduct related to payment or delivery of prescription drug items or services under the contract, it must conduct a timely, reasonable inquiry into that conduct;
(2) The Part D sponsor must conduct appropriate corrective actions (for example, repayment of overpayments and disciplinary actions against responsible individuals) in response to the potential violation referenced above.
(3) The Part D plan sponsor should have procedures to voluntarily self-report potential fraud or misconduct related to the Part D program to CMS or its designee.
(4) The Part D plan sponsor must have procedures to identify, and must report to CMS or its designee either of the following, in the manner described in paragraphs (b)(4)(vi)(G)(4) through (6) of this section:
(i) Any payment suspension implemented by a plan, pending investigation of credible allegations of fraud by a pharmacy, which must be implemented in the same manner as the Secretary does under section 1862(o)(1) of the Act.
(ii) Any information concerning investigations, credible evidence of suspicious activities of a provider of services (including a prescriber) or supplier, and other actions taken by the plan related to the inappropriate prescribing of opioids.
(5) The Part D plan sponsor must submit data, as specified in this section, in the program integrity portal when reporting payment suspensions pending investigations of credible allegations of fraud by pharmacies; information related to the inappropriate prescribing of opioids and concerning investigations and credible evidence of suspicious activities of a provider of services (including a prescriber) or supplier, and other actions taken by the plan sponsor; or if the plan reports a referral, through the portal, of substantiated or suspicious activities of a provider of services (including a prescriber) or a supplier related to fraud, waste or abuse to initiate or assist with investigations conducted by CMS, or its designee, a Medicare program integrity contractor, or law enforcement partners. The data categories, as applicable, include referral information and actions taken by the Part D plan sponsor on the referral. (6)(i) The plan sponsor is required to notify the Secretary, or its designee, of a payment suspension described in paragraph (b)(4)(vi)(G)(4) of this section 7 days prior to implementation of the payment suspension. The MA organization may request an exception to the 7day prior notification to the Secretary, or its designee, if circumstances warrant a reduced reporting time frame, such as potential beneficiary harm.
(ii) The plan sponsor is required to submit the information described in paragraph (b)(4)(vi)(G)(4)(ii) of this section no later than January 30, April 30, July 30, and October 30 of each year for the preceding periods, respectively, of October 1 through December 31, January 1 through March 31, April 1 through June 30, and July 1 through September 30. For the first reporting period (January 30, 2022), the reporting will reflect the data gathered and analyzed for the previous quarter in the calendar year (October 1-December 31).
(7)(i) CMS provides plan sponsors with data report(s) or links to the information described in paragraphs (b)(4)(vi)(G)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section no later than April 15, July 15, October 15, and January 15 of each year based on the information in the portal, respectively, as of the preceding October 1 through December 31, January 1 through March 31, April 1 through June 30, and July 1 through September 30.
(ii) Include administrative actions, pertinent information related to opioid overprescribing, and other data determined appropriate by the Secretary in consultation with stakeholders.
(iii) Are anonymized information submitted by plans without identifying the source of such information.
(iv) For the first quarterly report (April 15, 2022), that the report reflect the data gathered and analyzed for the previous quarter submitted by the plan sponsors on January 30, 2022.
(5) Not have non-renewed a contract under § 423.507 within the past 2 years unless—
(i) During the 6-month period, beginning on the date the entity notified CMS of the intention to non-renew the most recent previous contract, there was a change in the statute or regulations that had the effect of increasing Part D sponsor payments in the payment area or areas at issue; or
(ii) CMS has otherwise determined that circumstances warrant special consideration.
(6) Not have terminated a contract by mutual consent under which, as a condition of the consent, the Part D plan sponsor agreed that it was not eligible to apply for new contracts or service area expansions for a period up to 2 years per § 423.508(e) of this subpart.
(7) For a full risk or limited risk PDP applicant, not submitted a bid or offered a fallback prescription drug plan in accordance with the following rules.
(i) CMS does not contract with a potential PDP sponsor for the offering of a full risk or limited risk prescription drug plan in a PDP region for a year if the applicant—
(A) Submitted a bid under § 423.863 for the year (as the first year of a contract period under § 423.863 to offer a fallback prescription drug plan in any PDP region;
(B) Offers a fallback prescription drug plan in any PDP region during the year; or
(C) Offered a fallback prescription drug plan in that PDP region during the previous year.
(ii) Construction. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(6), an entity is treated as submitting an application to become qualified to contract as a full risk or limited risk PDP sponsor, if the entity is acting as a subcontractor for an integral part of the drug benefit management activities of a full risk or limited risk PDP sponsor or applicant. The previous sentence does not apply to entities that are subcontractors of an MA organization except insofar as the MA organization is applying to act as a full risk or limited risk PDP sponsor.
(8) If neither the applicant, nor its parent or another subsidiary of the same parent, holds a Part D sponsor contract that has been in effect for at least 1 year at the time it submits an application, the applicant must have arrangements in place such that the applicant and its contracted first tier, downstream, or related entities, in combination, have at least 1 full-benefit year of experience within the 2 years preceding the application submission performing at a minimum all of the following functions in support of the operation of another Part D contract:
(i) Authorization, adjudication, and processing of prescription drug claims at the point of sale.
(ii) Administration and tracking of enrollees' drug benefits in real time, including automated coordination of benefits with other payers.
(iii) Operation of an enrollee appeals and grievance process.
(9) For organizations applying to offer stand-alone prescription drug plans, the organization, its parent, or a subsidiary of the organization or its parent, must have either of the following:
(i) For 2 continuous years immediately prior to submitting an application, actively offered health insurance or health benefits coverage, including prescription drug coverage, as a risk-bearing entity in at least one State.
(ii) For 5 continuous years immediately prior to submitting an application, actively managed prescription drug benefits for an organization that offers health insurance or health benefits coverage, including at a minimum, all of the services listed in paragraph (b)(8) of this section.
(10) Pass an essential operations test prior to the start of the benefit year. This provision only applies to new sponsors that have not previously entered into a Part D contract with CMS when neither it, nor another subsidiary of the applicant's parent organization, is offering Part D benefits during the current year.
(c) Contracting authority. CMS may enter into contracts under this part, or in order to carry out this part, without regard to Federal and Departmental acquisition regulations set forth in Title 48 of the CFR and provisions of law or other regulations relating to the making, performance, amendment, or modification of contracts of the United States if CMS determines that those provisions are inconsistent with the efficient and effective administration of the Medicare program.
(d) Protection against fraud and beneficiary protections. (1) CMS annually audits the financial records (including, but not limited to, data relating to Medicare utilization and costs, including allowable reinsurance and risk corridor costs as well as low income subsidies and other costs) under this part of at least one-third of the Part D sponsors offering Part D drug plans.
(2) Each contract under this section must provide that CMS, or any person or organization designated by CMS, has the right to—
(i) Inspect or otherwise evaluate the quality, appropriateness, and timeliness of services performed under the Part D plan sponsor's contract;
(ii) Inspect or otherwise evaluate the facilities of the Part D sponsor when there is reasonable evidence of some need for the inspection; and
(iii) Audit and inspect any books, contracts, and records of the Part D plan sponsor that pertain to—
(A) The ability of the organization or its first tier or downstream providers to bear the risk of potential financial losses; or
(B) Services performed or determinations of amounts payable under the contract.
(iv) CMS may require that the Part D Plan sponsor hire an independent auditor to provide CMS with additional information to determine if deficiencies found during an audit or inspection have been corrected and are not likely to recur. The independent auditor must work in accordance with CMS specifications and must be willing to attest that a complete and full independent review has been performed.
(e) Severability of contracts. The contract must provide that, upon CMS' request—
(1) The contract could be amended to exclude any State-licensed entity, or a Part D plan specified by CMS; and
(2) A separate contract for any excluded plan or entity must be deemed to be in place when a request is made.
(f) Outlier prescribers of opioids. (1) CMS will identify and send notifications to outlier prescribers of opioids, which includes information about how the prescriber compares to other specified prescribers and resources on proper prescribing methods.
(2) At least annually, CMS will communicate information about persistent outlier prescribers of opioids to all Part D plan sponsors.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 72 FR 68732, Dec. 5, 2007; 73 FR 20507, Apr. 15, 2008; 75 FR 19820, Apr. 15, 2010; 79 FR 29964, May 23, 2014; 80 FR 7964, Feb. 12, 2015; 83 FR 16750, Apr. 16, 2018; 86 FR 6118, Jan. 19, 2021; 91 FR 17590, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.505 Contract provisions.
(a) General rule. The contract between the Part D plan sponsor and CMS must contain the provisions specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) Requirements for contracts. The Part D plan sponsor agrees to—
(1) All the applicable requirements and conditions set forth in this part and in general instructions.
(2) Accept new enrollments, make enrollments effective, process voluntary disenrollments, and limit involuntary disenrollments, as provided in subpart B of this part.
(3) Comply with the prohibition in § 423.34(a) on discrimination in beneficiary enrollment.
(4) Provide the basic prescription drug coverage as defined under § 423.100 and, to the extent applicable, supplemental benefits as defined in § 423.100. (Fallback entities may offer only standard prescription drug coverage as specified in § 423.855.)
(5) Disclose information to beneficiaries in the manner and the form specified by CMS under § 423.128.
(6) Operate quality assurance, cost and utilization management, medication therapy management, and support e-prescribing as required under subpart D of this part.
(7) Comply with all requirements in subpart M of this part governing coverage determinations, grievances, and appeals, and formulary exceptions.
(8) Comply with the disclosure and reporting requirements in § 423.505(f), § 423.514, and the requirements in § 423.329(b) of this part for submitting current and prior drug claims and related information to CMS for its use in risk adjustment calculations and for the purposes of implementing § 423.505(f), (l), and (m) and § 423.329(b) of this part.
(9) Provide CMS with the information CMS determines is necessary to carry out payment provisions in subpart G of this part (or for fallback entities, the information necessary to carry out the payment provisions in subpart Q of this part).
(10) Allow CMS to inspect and audit any books and records of a Part D plan sponsor and its delegated first tier, downstream and related entities, that pertain to the information regarding costs provided to CMS under paragraph (b)(9) of this section, or, if a fallback entity, the information submitted under subpart Q of this part.
(11) Be paid under the contract in accordance with the payment rules in subpart G of this part, or, if a fallback entity, in accordance with the payment rules of subpart Q of this part.
(12) Except for fallback entities, submit a future year's bid, including all required information on premiums, benefits, and cost-sharing, by any applicable due date, as provided in subpart F so that CMS and the Part D plan sponsor may conduct negotiations regarding the terms and conditions of the proposed bid and benefit plan renewal.
(13) Permit CMS to determine that it is not qualified to renew its contract or that its contract may be terminated in accordance with this subpart and subpart N of this part. (Subpart N applies to fallback entities only to the extent a fallback contract is terminated.)
(14) Comply with the confidentiality and enrollee record accuracy specified in § 423.136.
(15) Comply with State law and preemption by Federal law requirements described in subpart I of this part.
(16) Comply with the coordination requirements with SPAPs and plans that provide other prescription drug coverage as described in subpart J of this part.
(17) Provide benefits by means of point of service systems to adjudicate in a drug claims in a timely and efficient manner in compliance with CMS standards, except when necessary to provide access in underserved areas, I/T/U pharmacies (as defined in § 423.100), and long-term care pharmacies (as defined in § 423.100).
(18) To agree to have a standard contract with reasonable and relevant terms and conditions of participation whereby any willing pharmacy may access the standard contract and participate as a network pharmacy including all of the following:
(i) Making standard contracts available upon request from interested pharmacies no later than September 15 of each year for contracts effective January 1 of the following year.
(ii) Providing a copy of a standard contract to a requesting pharmacy within 7 business days after receiving such a request from the pharmacy.
(19) Effective contract year 2010, include the prompt payment provisions described in § 423.520.
(20) Effective contract year 2010, provide that pharmacies located in, or having a contract with, a long-term care facility (as defined in § 423.100) must have not less than 30 days, nor more than 90 days, to submit to the Part D sponsor claims for reimbursement under the plan.
(21)(i) Update any prescription drug pricing standard (as defined in § 423.501) based on the cost of the drug used for reimbursement of network pharmacies by the Part D sponsor on January 1 of each contract year and not less frequently than once every 7 days thereafter;
(ii) Indicate the source used for making any such updates; and
(iii) Disclose all individual drug prices to be updated to the applicable pharmacies in advance of their use for reimbursement of claims, if the source for any prescription drug pricing standard is not publicly available.
(22) As described in § 423.129, address and resolve complaints received by CMS against the Part D sponsor in the Complaints Tracking Module.
(23) Maintain a fiscally sound operation by at least maintaining a positive net worth (total assets exceed total liabilities).
(24) Provide applicable discounts on applicable drugs when dispensed to applicable beneficiaries in accordance with the requirements in subpart W of part for the Coverage Gap Discount Program and the requirements in subpart AA of part for the Manufacturer Discount Program.
(25) Maintain administrative and management capabilities sufficient for the organization to organize, implement, and control the financial, communication, benefit administration, and quality assurance activities related to the delivery of Part D services.
(26) Maintain a Part D summary plan rating score of at least 3 stars under the 5-star rating system specified in subpart 186 of this part 423. A Part D summary plan rating is calculated as provided in § 423.186.
(27) Pass an essential operations test prior to the start of the benefit year. This provision only applies to new sponsors that have not previously entered into a Part D contract with CMS and neither it, nor another subsidiary of the applicant's parent organization, is offering Part D benefits during the current year.
(c) Communication with CMS. The Part D plan sponsor must have the capacity to communicate with CMS electronically in accordance with CMS requirements.
(d) Maintenance of records. The Part D plan sponsor agrees to maintain, for 10 years, books, records, documents, and other evidence of accounting procedures and practices that-
(1) Are sufficient to do the following:
(i) Accommodate periodic auditing of the financial records (including data related to Medicare utilization, costs, and computation of the bid of part D plan sponsors).
(ii) Enable CMS to inspect or otherwise evaluate the quality, appropriateness, and timeliness of services performed under the contract and the facilities of the organization.
(iii) Enable CMS to audit and inspect any books and records of the Part D plan sponsor that pertain to the ability of the organization to bear the risk of potential financial losses, or to services performed or determinations of amounts payable under the contract.
(iv) Except for fallback entities, properly reflect all direct and indirect costs claimed to have been incurred and used in the preparation of the Part D plan sponsor's bid and necessary for the calculation of gross covered prescription drug costs, allowable reinsurance costs, and allowable risk corridor costs (as defined in § 423.308).
(v) Except for fallback entities, establish the basis for the components, assumptions, and analysis used by the Part D plan in determining the actuarial valuation of standard, basic alternative, or enhanced alternative coverage offered in accordance with the CMS guidelines specified in § 423.265(c)(3).
(vi) Enable CMS to review original format documentation or information utilized from all written, electronic, and verbal communications between the plan sponsor and the pharmacist, prescriber, enrollee, or other relevant stakeholders, in addition to what is included on the pharmacy claim, that is relied upon by the Part D plan sponsor to make a coverage determination or otherwise permit a point-of-sale claim adjudication that determine a drug's coverage under the Part D benefit. In instances when a coverage determination is extended, the original coverage determination must be maintained as documentation. The documentation covered by these standards must be made available to CMS during Part D program integrity prescription drug event (PDE) record review audits. Failure to produce sufficient documentation to support Part D coverage will result in an improper Part D audit determination and will be subject to PDE record deletion in accordance with § 423.325(a)(2).
(2) Include records of the following:
(i) Ownership and operation of the Part D sponsor's financial, medical, and other record keeping systems.
(ii) Financial statements for the current contract period and 10 prior periods.
(iii) Federal income tax or informational returns for the current contract period and 10 prior periods.
(iv) Asset acquisition, lease, sale, or other actions.
(v) Agreements, contracts, and subcontracts.
(vi) Franchise, marketing, and management agreements.
(vii) Matters pertaining to costs of operations.
(viii) Amounts of income received by source and payment.
(ix) Cash flow statements.
(x) Any financial reports filed with other Federal programs or State authorities.
(xi) All prescription drug claims for the current contract period and 10 prior periods.
(xii) All price concessions (including concessions offered by manufacturers) for the current contract period and 10 prior periods accounted for separately from other administrative fees.
(xiii) Documentation or information from all written, electronic, and verbal communications between the plan sponsor and the pharmacist, prescriber, enrollee, or other relevant stakeholders, in addition to what is included on the pharmacy claim, that is relied upon when Part D plan sponsors make coverage determinations or otherwise permit a point-of-sale claim adjudication that determines coverage of a drug under the Part D benefit, consistent with paragraph (d)(1)(vi) of this section. This includes:
(A) Date and time the request for a coverage determination or point-of-sale claim adjudication was received and, when available, the identity of the individual or entity who submitted the request.
(B) Name and title, as applicable if additional outreach is made, of the individual the Part D plan contacted to obtain the information needed to complete the request (for example, pharmacist, prescriber, enrollee, or enrollee representative).
(C) Information obtained, including the questions asked and responses received, and the final decision rendered.
(D) Diagnosis for a coverage determination or point-of-sale claim adjudication when used to determine Part D coverage for a medically accepted indication.
(E) Any other information that the Part D plan sponsor utilized to determine the final outcome of the coverage determination or point-of-sale claim adjudication request.
(e) Access to facilities and records. The Part D plan sponsor agrees to the following:
(1) HHS, the Comptroller General, or their designee may evaluate, through audit, inspection, or other means—
(i) The quality, appropriateness, and timeliness of services furnished to Medicare enrollees under the contract;
(ii) Compliance with CMS requirements for maintaining the privacy and security of protected health information and other personally identifiable information of Medicare enrollees;
(iii) The facilities of the Part D sponsor to include computer and other electronic systems; and
(iv) The enrollment and disenrollment records for the current contract period and 10 prior periods.
(2) The Part D plan sponsor agrees to make available to HHS, the Comptroller General, or their designees, for the purposes specified in paragraph (d) of this section, its premises, physical facilities and equipment, records relating to its Medicare enrollees, and any additional relevant information that CMS may require. The Part D plan sponsor also agrees to make available any books, contracts, records and documentation of the Part D plan sponsor, first tier, downstream and related entity(s), or its transferee that pertain to any aspect of services performed, reconciliation of benefit liabilities, and determination of amounts payable under the contract, or as the Secretary may deem necessary to enforce the contract.
(3) The Part D plan sponsor agrees to make available, for the purposes specified in paragraph (d) of this section, its premises, physical facilities and equipment, records relating to its Medicare enrollees, and any additional relevant information that CMS may require.
(4) HHS, the Comptroller General, or their designee's right to inspect, evaluate, and audit extends through 10 years from the end of the final contract period or completion of audit, whichever is later unless—
(i) CMS determines there is a special need to retain a particular record or group of records for a longer period and notifies the Part D plan sponsor at least 30 days before the normal disposition date;
(ii) There is a termination, dispute, or allegation of fraud or similar fault by the Part D plan sponsor, in which case the retention may be extended to 6 years from the date of any resulting final resolution of the termination, dispute, or fraud or similar fault; or
(iii) CMS determines that there is a reasonable possibility of fraud or similar fault, in which case CMS may inspect, evaluate, and audit the Part D plan sponsor at any time.
(f) Disclosure of information. The Part D plan sponsor agrees to submit to CMS—
(1) Certified financial information that must include the following:
(i) Information as CMS may require demonstrating that the organization has a fiscally sound operation.
(ii) Information as CMS may require pertaining to the disclosure of ownership and control of the Part D plan sponsor.
(2) All information to CMS that is necessary for CMS to administer and evaluate the program and to simultaneously establish and facilitate a process for current and prospective beneficiaries to exercise choice in obtaining prescription drug coverage. This information includes, but is not limited to:
(i) The benefits covered under a Part D plan.
(ii) The Part D plan monthly basic beneficiary premium and Part D plan monthly supplemental beneficiary premium, if any, for the plan. Fallback entities submit the monthly beneficiary premium for standard prescription drug coverage.
(iii) The service area of each plan.
(iv) Plan quality and performance indicators for the benefits under the plan including—
(A) Disenrollment rates for Medicare enrollees electing to receive benefits through the plan for the previous 2 years;
(B) Information on Medicare enrollee satisfaction;
(C) The recent records regarding compliance of the plan with requirements of this part, as determined by CMS; and
(D) Other information determined by CMS to be necessary to assist beneficiaries in making an informed choice regarding Part D plans.
(v) Information about beneficiary appeals and their disposition, and formulary exceptions.
(vi) Information regarding all formal actions, reviews, findings, or other similar actions by States, other regulatory bodies, or any other certifying or accrediting organization.
(vii) Information on other matters that CMS may require, including, but not limited to, program monitoring and oversight, performance measures, quality assessment, research and evaluation, CMS outreach activities, payment-related oversight*, and fraud, abuse, and waste*, as specified in CMS guidelines.
(viii) Any other information deemed necessary to CMS for the administration or evaluation of the Medicare program.
(3) All data elements included in all its drug claims for purposes deemed necessary and appropriate by the Secretary, including, but not limited to the following:
(i) Reporting to Congress and the public on overall statistics associated with the operation of the Medicare prescription drug program.
(ii) Conducting evaluations of the overall Medicare program, including the interaction between prescription drug coverage under Part D of Title XVIII of the Social Security Act and the services and utilization under Parts A, B, and C of title XVIII of the Act and under titles XIX and XXI of the Act, as well as other studies addressing public health questions.
(iii) Making legislative proposals to the Congress regarding Federal health care programs and related programs.
(iv) Conducting demonstration and pilot projects and making recommendations for improving the economy, efficiency, or effectiveness of the Medicare program.
(v) Supporting care coordination and disease management programs.
(vi) Supporting quality improvement and performance measurement activities.
(vii) Populating personal health care records.
(viii) Supporting program integrity purposes, including coordination with the States.
(4) To its enrollees, all informational requirements under § 423.128 and, upon an enrollee's request, the financial disclosure information required under § 423.128(c)(4).
(g) Beneficiary financial protections. The Part D plan sponsor agrees to comply with the following requirements:
(1) Each Part D plan sponsor must adopt and maintain arrangements satisfactory to CMS to protect its enrollees from incurring liability for payment of any fees that are the legal obligation of the Part D sponsor. To meet this requirement, the Part D plan sponsor must—
(i) Ensure that all contractual or other written arrangements prohibit the sponsor's contracting agents from holding any beneficiary enrollee liable for payment of any such fees; and
(ii) Indemnify the beneficiary enrollee for payment of any fees that are the legal obligation of the Part D plan sponsor for covered prescription drugs furnished by non-contracting pharmacists, or that have not otherwise entered into an agreement with the Part D plan sponsor, to provide services to the organization's beneficiary enrollees.
(2) In meeting the requirements of this paragraph, other than the provider contract requirements specified in paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section, the Part D plan sponsor may use—
(i) Contractual arrangements;
(ii) Insurance acceptable to CMS;
(iii) Financial reserves acceptable to CMS; or
(iv) Any other arrangement acceptable to CMS.
(h) Requirements of other laws and regulations. The Part D plan sponsor agrees to comply with—
(1) Federal laws and regulations designed to prevent fraud, waste, and abuse, including, but not limited to applicable provisions of Federal criminal law, the False Claims Act (31 U.S.C. 3729 et seq.), and the anti-kickback statute (section 1128B(b) of the Act).
(2) HIPAA Administrative Simplification rules at 45 CFR parts 160, 162, and 164.
(i) Relationship with first tier, downstream, and related entities. (1) Notwithstanding any relationship(s) that the Part D plan sponsor may have with first tier, downstream, and related entities, the Part D sponsor maintains ultimate responsibility for adhering to and otherwise fully complying with all terms and conditions of its contract with CMS.
(2) The Part D sponsor agrees to require all first tier, downstream, and related entities to agree that—
(i) HHS, the Comptroller General, or their designees have the right to audit, evaluate, collect, and inspect any books, contracts, computer or other electronic systems, including medical records and documentation of the first tier, downstream, and related entities related to CMS' contract with the Part D sponsor.
(ii) HHS, the Comptroller General or their designees have the right to audit, evaluate, collect, and inspect any records under paragraph (i)(2)(i) of this section directly from any first tier, downstream, or related entity.
(iii) For records subject to review under paragraph (i)(2)(ii) of this section, except in exceptional circumstances, CMS will provide notification to the Part D sponsor that a direct request for information has been initiated.
(iv) HHS', the Comptroller General's, or their designee's right to inspect, evaluate, and audit any pertinent information for any particular contract period exists through 10 years from the final date of the contract period or from the date of completion of any audit, whichever is later.
(3) Each and every contract governing Part D sponsors and first tier, downstream, and related entities, must contain the following:
(i) Enrollee protection provisions that provide, consistent with paragraph (g)(1) of this section, arrangements that prohibit pharmacies or other providers from holding an enrollee liable for payment of any fees that are the obligation of the Part D plan sponsor.
(ii) Accountability provisions that indicate that the Part D sponsor may delegate activities or functions to a first tier, downstream, or related entity only in a manner consistent with requirements set forth at paragraph (i)(4) of this section.
(iii) A provision requiring that any services or other activity performed by a first tier, downstream, and related entity in accordance with a contract are consistent and comply with the Part D sponsor's contractual obligations.
(iv) Each and every contract must specify that first tier, downstream, and related entities must comply with all applicable Federal laws, regulations, and CMS instructions.
(v) A provision requiring prompt payment of clean claims by the Part D sponsor, consistent with § 423.520.
(vi) A provision that establishes timeframes, consistent with § 423.505(b)(20), for long-term care pharmacies to submit claims to the Part D sponsor for reimbursement under the plan.
(vii) If applicable, provisions addressing the drug pricing standard requirements of § 423.505(b)(21).
(4) If any of the Part D plan sponsors' activities or responsibilities under its contract with CMS is delegated to other parties, the following requirements apply to any first tier, downstream, and related entity:
(i) Each and every contract must specify delegated activities and reporting responsibilities.
(ii) Each and every contract must either provide for revocation of the delegation activities and reporting responsibilities described in paragraph (i)(4)(i) of this section or specify other remedies in instances when CMS or the Part D plan sponsor determine that the parties have not performed satisfactorily.
(iii) Each and every contract must specify that the Part D plan sponsor on an ongoing basis monitors the performance of the parties.
(iv) Each and every contract must specify that the related entity, contractor, or subcontractor must comply with all applicable Federal laws, regulations, and CMS instructions.
(5) If the Part D plan sponsor delegates selection of its prescription drug providers to another organization, the Part D sponsor's written arrangements with that organization must state that the CMS-contracting Part D plan sponsor retains the right to approve, suspend, or terminate any such arrangement.
(6) If the Part D plan sponsor delegates any of the following functions to a first tier, downstream, or related entity, the Part D sponsor's written arrangements must state that a termination initiated by such entity must provide, at minimum, 60-days' prior notice and have an effective termination date that coincides with the end of a calendar month:
(i) Authorization, adjudication, and processing of prescription drug claims at the point of sale.
(ii) Administration and tracking of enrollees' drug benefits in real time, including automated coordination of benefits with other payers.
(iii) Operation of an enrollee appeals and grievance process.
(iv) Contracting with or selection of prescription drug providers for inclusion in the Part D sponsor's network.
(j) Additional contract terms. The Part D plan sponsor agrees to include in the contract other terms and conditions as CMS may find necessary and appropriate in order to implement requirements in this part.
(k) Certification of data that determine payment—(1) General rule. As a condition for receiving a monthly payment under subpart G of this part (or for fallback entities, payment under subpart Q of this part),, the Part D plan sponsor agrees that its chief executive officer (CEO), chief financial officer (CFO), or an individual delegated the authority to sign on behalf of one of these officers, and who reports directly to the officer, must request payment under the contract on a document that certifies (based on best knowledge, information, and belief) the accuracy, completeness, and truthfulness of all data related to payment. The data may include specified enrollment information, claims data, bid submission data, and other data that CMS specifies.
(2) Certification of enrollment and payment information. The CEO, CFO, or an individual delegated the authority to sign on behalf of one of these officers, and who reports directly to the officer, must certify (based on best knowledge, information, and belief) that each enrollee for whom the organization is requesting payment is validly enrolled in a program offered by the organization and the information CMS relies on in determining payment is accurate, complete, and truthful and acknowledge that this information will be used for the purposes of obtaining Federal reimbursement.
(3) Certification of claims data. The CEO, CFO, or an individual delegated with the authority to sign on behalf of one of these officers, and who reports directly to the officer, must certify (based on best knowledge, information, and belief) that the claims data it submits under § 423.329(b)(3) (or for fallback entities, under § 423.871(f)) are accurate, complete, and truthful and acknowledge that the claims data will be used for the purpose of obtaining Federal reimbursement. If the claims data are generated by a related entity, contractor, or subcontractor of a Part D plan sponsor, the entity, contractor, or subcontractor must similarly certify (based on best knowledge, information, and belief) the accuracy, completeness, and truthfulness of the data and acknowledge that the claims data will be used for the purposes of obtaining Federal reimbursement.
(4) Certification of bid submission information. The CEO, CFO, or an individual delegated the authority to sign on behalf of one of these officers, and who reports directly to the officer, must certify (based on best knowledge, information, and belief) that the information in its bid submission and assumptions related to projected reinsurance and low income cost sharing subsidies is accurate, complete, and truthful and fully conforms to the requirements in § 423.265.
(5) Certification of allowable costs for risk corridor and reinsurance information. The Chief Executive Officer, Chief Financial Officer, or an individual delegated the authority to sign on behalf of one of these officers, and who reports directly to the officer, must certify (based on best knowledge, information, and belief) that the information provided for purposes of supporting allowable costs as defined in § 423.308 of this part, including data submitted to CMS regarding direct or indirect remuneration (DIR) that serves to reduce the costs incurred by the Part D sponsor for Part D drugs, is accurate, complete, and truthful and fully conforms to the requirements in § 423.336 and § 423.343 of this part and acknowledge that this information will be used for the purposes of obtaining Federal reimbursement.
(6) Certification of accuracy of data for price comparison. The CEO, CFO, or an individual delegated the authority to sign on behalf of one of these officers, and who reports directly to the officer, must certify (based on best knowledge, information, and belief) that the information provided for purposes of price comparison is accurate, complete, and truthful.
(7) Certification of accuracy of data for overpayments. The CEO, CFO, or COO must certify (based on best knowledge, information, and belief) that the information provided for purposes of reporting and returning of overpayments under § 423.360 is accurate, complete, and truthful.
(l) CMS may use the information collected under paragraph (f)(3) of this section. Any restriction set forth by § 423.322(b) of this part must not be construed to limit the Secretary's authority to use the information collected under paragraph (f)(3).
(m) Release of data. (1) CMS may release the minimum data necessary for a given purpose from the data collected under paragraph (f)(3) of this section to Federal executive branch agencies, States, and external entities in accordance with the following:
(i) Applicable Federal laws.
(ii) CMS data sharing procedures.
(iii) Subject, in certain cases, to encryption of beneficiary identifiers and aggregation of cost data to protect beneficiary confidentiality and commercially sensitive data of Part D sponsors, in accordance with all of the following principles:
(A) Subject to the restrictions in this paragraph, all elements on the claim are available to HHS, other executive branch agencies, and the States.
(B) Cost data elements on the claim generally are aggregated for releases to other executive branch agencies, States, and external entities. Upon request, CMS excludes sales tax from the aggregation at the individual level if necessary for the project.
(C) Beneficiary identifier elements on the claim generally are encrypted for release, except in limited circumstances, such as the following:
(1) If needed, in the case of release to other HHS entities, Congressional oversight agencies, non-HHS executive agencies and the States.
(2) If needed to link to another dataset, in the case of release to external entities. Public disclosure of research results will not include beneficiary identifying information.
(iv) For purposes of paragraph (m)(1)(iii) of this section, States and executive-branch Federal agencies are not considered to be external entities.
(2) Any restriction set forth by § 423.322(b) of this part must not be construed to limit the Secretary's authority to release the information collected under paragraph (f)(3) of this section.
(3)(i) CMS must make available to Congressional support agencies (the Congressional Budget Office, the Government Accountability Office, the Medicare Payment Advisory Commission, and the Congressional Research Service when it is acting on behalf of a Congressional committee in accordance with 2 U.S.C. 166(d)(1)) all information collected under paragraph (f)(3) of this section for the purposes of conducting congressional oversight, monitoring, making recommendations, and analysis of the Medicare program.
(ii) The Congressional Research Service is considered an external entity when it is not acting on behalf of a Congressional committee in accordance with 2 U.S.C. 166(d)(1) for the purposes of paragraph (m)(1) of this section.
(n) Issuance of compliance actions for failure to comply with the terms of the contract. The Part D plan sponsor acknowledges that CMS may take compliance actions as described in this section or intermediate sanctions as defined in subpart O of this part.
(1) CMS may take compliance actions as described in paragraph (n)(3) of this section if it determines that the Part D plan sponsor has not complied with the terms of a current or prior Part D contract with CMS.
(i) CMS may determine that a Part D plans sponsor is out of compliance with a Part D requirement when the organization fails to meet performance standards articulated in the Part D statutes, regulations in this chapter, or guidance.
(ii) If CMS has not already articulated a measure for determining noncompliance, CMS may determine that a Part D plan sponsor is out of compliance when its performance in fulfilling Part D requirements represents an outlier relative to the performance of other Part D plan sponsors.
(2) CMS bases its decision on whether to issue a compliance action and what level of compliance action to take on an assessment of the circumstances surrounding the noncompliance, including all of the following:
(i) The nature of the conduct.
(ii) The degree of culpability of the Part D plan sponsor.
(iii) The adverse effect to beneficiaries which resulted or could have resulted from the conduct of the Part D plan sponsor.
(iv) The history of prior offenses by the Part D plan sponsor or its related entities.
(v) Whether the noncompliance was self-reported.
(vi) Other factors which relate to the impact of the underlying noncompliance or the lack of the Part D plan sponsor's oversight of its operations that contributed to the noncompliance.
(3) CMS may take one of three types of compliance actions based on the nature of the noncompliance.
(i) Notice of noncompliance. A notice of noncompliance may be issued for any failure to comply with the requirements of the Part D plan sponsor's current or prior Part D contract with CMS, as described in paragraph (n)(1) of this section.
(ii) Warning letter. A warning letter may be issued for serious and/or continued noncompliance with the requirements of the Part D plan sponsor's current or prior Part D contract with CMS, as described in paragraph (n)(1) of this section and as assessed in accordance with paragraph (n)(2) of this section.
(iii) Corrective action plan. (A) Corrective action plans are issued for particularly serious and/or continued noncompliance with the requirements of the Part D plan sponsors' current or prior Part D contract with CMS, as described in paragraph (n)(1) of this section and as assessed in accordance with paragraph (n)(2) of this section.
(B) CMS issues a corrective action plan if CMS determines that the Part D plan sponsor has repeated or not corrected noncompliance identified in prior compliance actions, has substantially impacted beneficiaries or the program with its noncompliance, and/or must implement a detailed plan to correct the underlying causes of the noncompliance.
(o) Acknowledgements of CMS release of data—(1) Summary CMS payment data. The contract must provide that the Part D sponsor acknowledges that CMS releases to the public summary reconciled Part D payment data after the reconciliation of Part D payments for the contract year as follows:
(i) The average per member per month Part D direct subsidy standardized to the 1.0 (average risk score) beneficiary for each Part D plan offered.
(ii) The average Part D risk score for each Part D plan offered.
(iii) The average per member per month Part D plan low-income cost sharing subsidy for each Part D plan offered.
(iv) The average per member per month Part D Federal reinsurance subsidy for each Part D plan offered.
(v) The actual Part D reconciliation payment data summarized at the Parent Organization level including breakouts of risk sharing, reinsurance, and low income cost sharing reconciliation amounts.
(2) Part D MLR data. The contract must provide that the Part D sponsor acknowledges that CMS releases to the public data as described at § 423.2490.
(p) Business continuity. (1) The Part D sponsor agrees to develop, maintain, and implement a business continuity plan containing policies and procedures to ensure the restoration of business operations following disruptions to business operations during disruptions to business operations which would include natural or man-made disasters, system failures, emergencies, and other similar circumstances and the threat of such occurrences. To meet the requirement, the business continuity plan must, at a minimum, include the following:
(i) Risk assessment. Identify threats and vulnerabilities that might affect business operations.
(ii) Mitigation strategy. Design strategies to mitigate hazards. Identify essential functions in addition to those specified in paragraph (p)(2) of this section and prioritize the order in which to restore all other functions to normal operations. At a minimum, each Part D sponsor must do the following:
(A) Identify specific events that will activate the business continuity plan.
(B) Develop a contingency plan to maintain, during any business disruption, the availability and, as applicable, confidentiality of communication systems and essential records in all forms (including electronic and paper copies). The contingency plan must do the following:
(1) Ensure that during any business disruption the following systems will operate continuously or, should they fail, be restored to operational capacity on a timely basis:
(i) Information technology (IT) systems including those supporting claims processing at point of service.
(ii) Provider and enrollee communication systems including telephone, Web site, and email.
(2) With respect to electronic protected health information, comply with the contingency plan requirements of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 Security Regulations at 45 CFR parts 160 and 164, subparts A and C.
(C) Establish a chain of command.
(D) Establish a business communication plan that includes emergency capabilities and procedures to contact and communicate with the following:
(1) Employees.
(2) First tier, downstream, and related entities.
(3) Other third parties (including pharmacies, providers, suppliers, and government and emergency management officials).
(E) Establish employee and facility management plans to ensure that essential operations and job responsibilities can be assumed by other employees or moved to alternate sites as necessary or both.
(F) Establish a restoration plan including procedures to transition to normal operations.
(G) Comply with all applicable Federal, State, and local laws.
(iii) Testing and revision. On at least an annual basis, test and update the business operations continuity plan to ensure the following:
(A) That it can be implemented in emergency situations.
(B) That employees understand how it is to be executed.
(iv) Training. On at least an annual basis, educate appropriate employees about the business continuity plan and their own respective roles.
(v) Records. (A) Develop and maintain records documenting the elements of the business continuity plan described in paragraph (p)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section.
(B) Make the information specified in paragraph (p)(1)(v)(A) of this section available to CMS upon request.
(2) Restoration of essential functions. Every Part D sponsor must plan to restore essential functions within 72 hours after any of the essential functions fail or otherwise stop functioning as usual. In addition to any essential functions that the Part D sponsor identifies under paragraph (p)(1)(ii) of this section, for purposes of this paragraph (p)(2) of this section essential functions include at a minimum, the following:
(i) Benefit authorization (if not waived), adjudication, and processing of prescription drug claims at the point of sale.
(ii) Administration and tracking of enrollees' drug benefits in real time, including automated coordination of benefits with other payers.
(iii) Provision of pharmacy technical assistance.
(iv) Operation of an enrollee exceptions and appeals process including coverage determinations.
(v) Operation of call center customer services.
(q) Enrollment in the Medicare Transaction Facilitator Data Module for the Medicare Drug Price Negotiation Program. For contract year 2026 and all subsequent years, any contract between the sponsor and a pharmacy, or between a first tier, downstream, or related entity and a pharmacy on the sponsor's behalf, for participation in one or more of the Part D sponsor's networks must include a provision requiring the pharmacy to be enrolled in the Medicare Transaction Facilitator Data Module (MTF DM) (or any successor to the MTF DM) in a form and manner determined by CMS. Such provision must also require the pharmacy to maintain and certify up-to-date, complete, and accurate enrollment information with the MTF DM, in accordance with applicable terms and conditions of participation with the MTF DM, including but not limited to contact, third-party support entity or entities, and banking information, in a form and manner determined by CMS.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 20507, Apr. 15, 2008; 73 FR 30683, May 28, 2008; 73 FR 54251, Sept. 18, 2008; 73 FR 70599, Nov. 21, 2008; 74 FR 1545, Jan. 12, 2009; 75 FR 19821, Apr. 15, 2010; 76 FR 21574, Apr. 15, 2011; 76 FR 54634, Sept. 1, 2011; 77 FR 22170, Apr. 12, 2012; 79 FR 29964, May 23, 2014; 80 FR 7964, Feb. 12, 2015; 81 FR 80557, Nov. 15, 2016; 83 FR 16750, Apr. 16, 2018; 86 FR 6119, Jan. 19, 2021; 87 FR 27900, May 9, 2022; 88 FR 22340, Apr. 12, 2023; 89 FR 30838, Apr. 23, 2024; 90 FR 15919, Apr. 15, 2025; 91 FR 17590, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.506 Effective date and term of contract.
(a) Effective date. The contract is effective on the date specified in the contract between the Part D plan sponsor and CMS.
(b) Term of contract. Each contract is for a period of 12 months.
(c) Qualification to renew a contract. In accordance with 423.507, an entity is determined qualified to renew its contract annually only if the Part D plan sponsor has not provided CMS with a notice of intention not to renew and CMS has not provided the Part D organization with a notice of intention not to renew.
(d) Renewal of contract contingent on reaching agreement on the bid. Although a Part D plan sponsor may be determined qualified to renew its contract under this section, if the sponsor and CMS cannot reach agreement on the bid under subpart F, no renewal takes place, and the failure to reach agreement is not subject to the appeals provisions in subpart N of this part.
(e) The provisions of this section do not apply to fallback entities.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 72 FR 68732, Dec. 5, 2007]
§ 423.507 Nonrenewal of contract.
(a) Nonrenewal by a Part D plan sponsor. (1) Except for fallback entities, a Part D plan sponsor may elect not to renew its contract with CMS, effective at the end of the term of the contract for any reason provided it meets the timeframes for doing so set forth in paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section.
(2) If a Part D plan sponsor does not intend to renew its contract, it must notify—
(i) CMS in writing by the first Monday of June in the year in which the contract ends;
(ii) Each Medicare enrollee by mail at least 90 calendar days before the date on which the nonrenewal is effective. The sponsor must also provide information about alternative enrollment options by doing one or more of the following:
(A) Provide a CMS approved written description of alternative MA plan and PDP options available for obtaining qualified prescription drug coverage within the beneficiaries' region.
(B) Place outbound calls to all affected enrollees to ensure beneficiaries know who to contact to learn about their enrollment options.
(3)(i) If a Part D plan sponsor does not renew a contract under this paragraph (a), CMS cannot enter into a contract with the organization for 2 years in the PDP region or regions served by the contract unless there are circumstances that warrant special consideration, as determined by CMS.
(ii) If a PDP sponsor does not renew any of its PBPs in a PDP region, CMS does not approve plan bids submitted by the organization in that PDP region for 2 years unless there are circumstances that warrant special consideration, as determined by CMS.
(iii) The provisions of this paragraph do not apply to employer group waiver plans offered by a Part D plan sponsor.
(4) During the same 2-year period specified under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, CMS will not contract with an organization whose covered persons also served as covered persons for the non-renewing sponsor. A “covered person” as used in this paragraph means one of the following:
(i) All owners of nonrenewed or terminated organizations who are natural persons, other than shareholders who have an ownership interest of less than 5 percent.
(ii) An owner of a whole or part interest in a mortgage, deed of trust, note or other obligation secured (in whole or in part) by the organization, or by any of the property or assets thereof, which whole or part interest is equal to or exceeds 5 percent of the total property and assets of the organization.
(iii) A member of the board of directors or board of trustees of the entity, if the organization is organized as a corporation.
(5) If a Part D plan sponsor does not renew a contract under this paragraph (a), it must ensure the timely transfer of any data or files.
(b) [Reserved]
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 72 FR 68733, Dec. 5, 2007; 74 FR 1546, Jan. 12, 2009; 75 FR 19821, Apr. 15, 2010; 76 FR 21575, Apr. 15, 2011; 83 FR 16750, Apr. 16, 2018; 89 FR 30838, Apr. 23, 2024]
§ 423.508 Modification or termination of contract by mutual consent.
(a) General rule. A contract may be modified or terminated at any time by written mutual consent. If the PDP sponsor submits a request to end the term of its contract after the deadline provided in § 423.507(a)(2)(i), the contract may be terminated by mutual consent in accordance with paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section. CMS may mutually consent to the contract termination if the contract termination does not negatively affect the administration of the Medicare Part D program.
(b) Notification of termination. If the contract is terminated by mutual consent, the Part D plan sponsor must provide notice to its Medicare enrollees and the general public as provided in paragraph (c) of this section.
(c) Notification of modification. If the contract is modified by mutual consent, the Part D plan sponsor must notify its Medicare enrollees of any changes that CMS determines are appropriate for notification within timeframes specified by CMS.
(d) Timely transfer of data and files. If a contract is terminated under paragraph (a) of this section, the Part D plan sponsor must ensure the timely transfer of any data or files.
(e) Agreement to limit new Part D applications. (1) As a condition of the consent to a mutual termination, CMS requires, as a provision of the termination agreement, language prohibiting the Part D plan sponsor from applying for new contracts or service area expansions in the PDP region or regions served by the contract for a period up to 2 years unless there are circumstances that warrant special consideration, as determined by CMS.
(2) A PDP sponsor that agrees to terminate its offering of PBPs in a PDP region also agrees that it is not eligible to apply to resume offering plans in that region for 2 years.
(3) The provisions of this paragraph do not apply to employer group waiver plans offered by a Part D plan sponsor.
(f) Prohibition against Part D program participation by organizations whose owners, directors, or management employees served in a similar capacity with another organization that mutually terminated its Medicare contract within the previous 2 years. During the 2-year period specified in paragraph (e) of this section, CMS will not contract with an organization whose covered persons also served as covered persons for the mutually terminating sponsor. A “covered person” as used in this paragraph means one of the following:
(1) All owners of nonrenewed or terminated organizations who are natural persons, other than shareholders who have an ownership interest of less than 5 percent.
(2) An owner of a whole or part interest in a mortgage, deed of trust, note or other obligation secured (in whole or in part) by the organization, or any of the property or assets thereof, which whole or part interest is equal to or exceeds 5 percent of the total property, and assets of the organization.
(3) A member of the board of directors or board of trustees of the entity, if the organization is organized as a corporation.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 19821, Apr. 15, 2010; 76 FR 21575, Apr. 15, 2011; 83 FR 16750, Apr. 16, 2018; 89 FR 30838, Apr. 23, 2024]
§ 423.509 Termination of contract by CMS.
(a) Termination by CMS. CMS may at any time terminate a contract if CMS determines that the Part D plan sponsor meets any of the following:
(1) Has failed substantially to carry out the contract.
(2) Is carrying out the contract in a manner that is inconsistent with the efficient and effective administration of this part.
(3) No longer substantially meets the applicable conditions of this part.
(4) CMS may make a determination under paragraph (a)(1), (2) or (3) of this section if the Part D Plan sponsor has had one or more of the following occur:
(i) Based on credible evidence, has committed or participated in false, fraudulent, or abusive activities affecting the Medicare, Medicaid, or other State or Federal health care programs, including submission of false or fraudulent data.
(ii) Substantially failed to comply with the requirements in subpart M of this part relating to grievances and appeals.
(iii) Failed to provide CMS with valid risk adjustment, reinsurance and risk corridor related data as required under §§ 423.322 and 423.329 (or, for fallback entities, failed to provide the information in § 423.871(f)).
(iv) Substantially failed to comply with the service access requirements in § 423.120.
(v) Substantially failed to comply with either of the following:
(A) Requirements in subpart V of this part.
(B) Information dissemination requirements of § 423.128 of this part.
(vi) Substantially failed to comply with the coordination with plans and programs that provide prescription drug coverage as described in subpart J of this part.
(vii) Substantially failed to comply with the cost and utilization management, quality improvement, medication therapy management and fraud, abuse and waste program requirements as specified in subparts D and K of this part.
(viii) Failed to comply with the regulatory requirements contained in this part.
(ix) Failed to meet CMS performance requirements in carrying out the regulatory requirements contained in this part.
(x) Achieves a Part D summary plan rating of less than 3 stars for 3 consecutive contract years. Plan ratings issued by CMS before September 1, 2012 are not included in the calculation of the 3-year period.
(xi)(A) Has failed to report MLR data in a timely and accurate manner in accordance with § 423.2460; or
(B) That any MLR data required by this subpart is found to be materially incorrect or fraudulent.
(xii) Failure of an essential operations test before the start of the benefit year by an organization that has entered into a Part D contract with CMS when neither it, nor another subsidiary of the organization's parent organization, is offering Part D benefits during the current year.
(xiii) The Part D plan sponsor has committed any of the acts in § 423.752 that support the imposition of intermediate sanctions or civil money penalties under § 423.750.
(xiv) Following the issuance of a notice to the sponsor no later than August 1, CMS must terminate, effective December 31 of the same year, an individual PDP if that plan does not have a sufficient number of enrollees to establish that it is a viable independent plan option.
(b) Notice. If CMS decides to terminate a contract it gives notice of the termination as follows:
(1) Termination of contract by CMS. (i) CMS notifies the Part D plan sponsor in writing at least 45 calendar days before the intended date of the termination.
(ii) The Part D plan sponsor notifies its Medicare enrollees of the termination by mail at least 30 calendar days before the effective date of the termination.
(iii) The Part D plan sponsor notifies the general public of the termination at least 30 calendar days before the effective date of the termination by releasing a press statement to news media serving the affected community or county and posting the press statement prominently on the organization's Web site.
(iv) CMS notifies the general public of the termination no later than 30 calendar days after notifying the plan of CMS's decision to terminate the Part D plan sponsor's contract by releasing a press statement.
(v) In the event that CMS issues a termination notice to a Part D plan sponsor on or before August 1 with an effective date of the following December 31, the Part D plan sponsor must issue notification to its Medicare enrollees at least 90 days prior to the effective date of the termination.
(2) Immediate termination of contract by CMS. (i) The procedures specified in (b)(1) of this section do not apply if—
(A) CMS determines that a delay in termination, resulting from compliance with the procedures provided in this part prior to termination, would pose an imminent and serious risk to the health of the individuals enrolled with the Part D plan sponsor;
(B) The Part D plan sponsor experiences financial difficulties so severe that its ability to make necessary health services available is impaired to the point of posing an imminent and serious risk to the health of its enrollees, or otherwise fails to make services available to the extent that such a risk to health exists; or
(C) The contract is being terminated based on the grounds specified in paragraphs (a)(4)(i) and (xii) of this section.
(ii) CMS notifies the Part D plan sponsor in writing that its contract will be terminated on a date specified by CMS. If a termination in is effective in the middle of a month, CMS has the right to recover the prorated share of the capitation payments made to the Part D plan sponsor covering the period of the month following the contract termination.
(iii) CMS notifies the Part D plan sponsor's Medicare enrollees in writing of CMS's decision to terminate the Part D plan sponsor's contract. This notice occurs no later than 30 days after CMS notifies the plan of its decision to terminate the Part D plan sponsor's contract. CMS simultaneously informs the Medicare enrollees of alternative options for obtaining qualified prescription drug coverage, including alternative PDP sponsors and MA-PDs in a similar geographic area.
(iv) CMS notifies the general public of the termination no later than 30 days after notifying the plan of CMS's decision to terminate the Part D plan sponsor's contract. This notice is published in one or more newspapers of general circulation in each community or county located in the Part D plan sponsor's service area.
(c) Opportunity to develop and implement a corrective action plan—(1) General. (i) Before providing a notice of intent to terminate the contract, CMS will provide the Part D plan sponsor with notice specifying the Part D plan sponsor's deficiencies and a reasonable opportunity of at least 30 calendar days to develop and implement a corrective action plan to correct the deficiencies.
(ii) The Part D plan sponsor is solely responsible for the identification, development, and implementation of its corrective action plan and for demonstrating to CMS that the underlying deficiencies have been corrected within the time period specified by CMS in the notice requesting corrective action.
(2) Exceptions. The Part D plan sponsor will not be provided with an opportunity to develop and implement a corrective action plan prior to termination if—
(i) CMS determines that a delay in termination, resulting from compliance with the procedures provided in this part prior to termination, would pose an imminent and serious risk to the health of the individuals enrolled with the Part D plan sponsor;
(ii) The Part D plan sponsor experiences financial difficulties so severe that its ability to make necessary health services available is impaired to the point of posing an imminent and serious risk to the health of its enrollees, or otherwise fails to make services available to the extent that such a risk to health exists; or
(iii) The contract is being terminated based on the violation specified in (a)(4)(i) of this section.
(d) Appeal rights. If CMS decides to terminate a contract, it sends written notice to the Part D plan sponsor informing it of its termination appeal rights in accordance with subpart N of this part.
(e) Timely transfer of data and files. If a contract is terminated under paragraph (a) of this section, the Part D plan sponsor must ensure the timely transfer of any data or files.
(f) If CMS makes a determination to terminate a Part D sponsor's contract under § 423.509(a), CMS also imposes the intermediate sanctions at § 423.750(a)(1) and (3) in accordance with the following procedures:
(1) The sanction will go into effect 15 days after the termination notice is sent.
(2) The Part D sponsor will have a right to appeal the intermediate sanction in the same proceeding as the termination appeal specified in paragraph (d) of this section.
(3) A request for a hearing does not delay the date specified by CMS when the sanction becomes effective.
(4) The sanction will remain in effect—
(i) Until the effective date of the termination; or
(ii) If the termination decision is overturned on appeal, when a final decision is made by the hearing officer or Administrator.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 72 FR 68733, Dec. 5, 2007; 73 FR 20507, Apr. 15, 2008; 75 FR 19822, Apr. 15, 2010; 76 FR 21575, Apr. 15, 2011; 77 FR 22170, Apr. 12, 2012; 78 FR 31310, May 23, 2013; 79 FR 29965, May 23, 2014; 80 FR 7965, Feb. 12, 2015; 83 FR 16750, Apr. 16, 2018; 89 FR 30838, Apr. 23, 2024]
§ 423.510 Termination of contract by the Part D sponsor.
(a) Cause for termination. The Part D plan sponsor may terminate its contract if CMS fails to substantially carry out the terms of the contract.
(b) Notice of termination. The Part D plan sponsor must give advance notice as follows:
(1) To CMS, at least 90 days before the intended date of termination. This notice must specify the reasons why the Part D sponsor is requesting contract termination.
(2) To its Medicare enrollees, at least 60 days before the termination effective date. This notice must include a written description of alternatives available for obtaining qualified prescription drug coverage within the services area, including alternative PDPs, MA-PDPs, and original Medicare and must receive CMS approval.
(3) To the general public, at least 60 days before the termination effective date by publishing a CMS-approved notice in one or more newspapers of general circulation in each community or county located in the Part D plan sponsor's geographic area.
(c) Effective date of termination. The effective date of the termination is determined by CMS and is at least 90 days after the date CMS receives the Part D plan sponsor's notice of intent to terminate.
(d) CMS's liability. CMS's liability for payment to the Part D plan sponsor ends as of the first day of the month after the last month for which the contract is in effect.
(e) Effect of termination by the organization. (1) CMS does not enter into an agreement with an organization that has terminated its contract within the preceding 2 years unless there are circumstances that warrant special consideration, as determined by CMS.
(2) During the same 2-year period specified in (e)(1) of this section, CMS will not contract with an organization whose covered persons also served as covered persons for the terminating sponsor. A “covered person” as used in this paragraph means one of the following:
(i) All owners of nonrenewed or terminated organizations who are natural persons, other than shareholders who have an ownership interest of less than 5 percent.
(ii) An owner of a whole or part interest in a mortgage, deed of trust, note or other obligation secured (in whole or in part) by the organization, or any of the property or assets thereof, which whole or part interest is equal to or exceeds 5 percent of the total property and assets of the organization.
(iii) A member of the board of directors or board of trustees of the entity, if the organization is organized as a corporation.
(f) Timely transfer of data and files. If a contract is terminated under paragraph (a) of this section, the Part D plan sponsor must ensure the timely transfer of any data or files.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 76 FR 21575, Apr. 15, 2011]
§ 423.512 Minimum enrollment requirements.
(a) Basic rule. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, CMS does not enter into a contract under this subpart unless the organization meets the following minimum enrollment requirement:
(1) At least 5,000 individuals are enrolled for the purpose of receiving prescription drug benefits from the organization; or
(2) At least 1,500 individuals are enrolled for purposes of receiving prescription drug benefits from the organization and the organization primarily serves individuals residing outside of urbanized areas as defined in § 412.62(f) of this chapter;
(3) Except as provided for in paragraph (b) of this section, a Part D plan sponsor must maintain a minimum enrollment as defined in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section for the duration of its contract.
(b) Minimum enrollment waiver. CMS waives the requirement of paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section during the first contract year for a sponsor in a region.
§ 423.514 Validation of Part D reporting requirements.
(a) Required information. Each Part D plan sponsor must have an effective procedure to develop, compile, evaluate, and report to CMS, to its enrollees, and to the general public, at the times and in the manner that CMS requires, information indicating the following—
(1) The cost of its operations.
(2) The procedures related to and utilization of its services and items.
(3) The availability, accessibility, and acceptability of its services.
(4) Information demonstrating that the Part D plan sponsor has a fiscally sound operation.
(5) Pharmacy performance measures.
(6) Other matters that CMS may require.
(b) Significant business transactions. Each Part D plan sponsor must report to CMS annually, within 120 days of the end of its fiscal year (unless, for good cause shown, CMS authorizes an extension of time), the following:
(1) A description of significant business transactions, as defined in § 423.501, between the Part D plan sponsor and a party in interest, including the following:
(i) Indication that the costs of the transactions listed in paragraph (c) of this section do not exceed the costs that would be incurred if these transactions were with someone who is not a party in interest; or
(ii) If they do exceed, a justification that the higher costs are consistent with prudent management and fiscal soundness requirements.
(2) A combined financial statement for the Part D plan sponsor and a party in interest if either of the following conditions is met:
(i) Thirty five percent or more of the costs of operation of the Part D sponsor go to a party in interest.
(ii) Thirty five percent or more of the revenue of a party in interest is from the Part D plan sponsor.
(c) Requirements for combined financial statements. (1) The combined financial statements required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section must display in separate columns the financial information for the Part D plan sponsor and each of the parties in interest.
(2) Inter-entity transactions must be eliminated in the consolidated column.
(3) The statements must be examined by an independent auditor in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and must include appropriate opinions and notes.
(4) Upon written request from a Part D plan sponsor showing good cause, CMS may waive the requirement that the organization's combined financial statement include the financial information required in this paragraph (c) of this section for a particular entity.
(d) Reporting requirements for pharmacy benefits manager data. Each entity that provides pharmacy benefits management services must provide to the Part D sponsor, and each Part D sponsor must provide to CMS, in a manner specified by CMS, the following:
(1) The total number of prescriptions that were dispensed.
(2) The percentage of all prescriptions that were provided through retail pharmacies compared to mail order pharmacies.
(3) The percentage of prescriptions for which a generic drug was available and dispensed (generic dispensing rate), by pharmacy type (which includes an independent pharmacy, chain pharmacy, supermarket pharmacy, or mass merchandiser pharmacy that is licensed as a pharmacy by the State and that dispenses medication to the general public), that is paid by the Part D sponsor or PBM under the contract.
(4) The aggregate amount and type of rebates, discounts, or price concessions (excluding bona fide service fees as defined in § 423.501) that the PBM negotiates that are attributable to patient utilization under the plan.
(5) The aggregate amount of the rebates, discounts, or price concessions that are passed through to the plan sponsor, and the total number of prescriptions that were dispensed.
(6) The aggregate amount of the difference between the amount the Part D sponsor pays the PBM and the amount that the PBM pays retail pharmacies, and mail order pharmacies.
(e) Confidentiality of pharmacy benefits manager data. Information disclosed by a Part D sponsor or PBM as specified in paragraph (d) of this section is confidential and must not be disclosed by the Secretary or by a plan receiving the information, except that the Secretary may disclose the information in a form which does not disclose the identity of a specific PBM, plan, or prices charged for drugs, for the following purposes:
(1) As the Secretary determines necessary to carry out section 1150A of the Act or Part D of Title XVIII.
(2) To permit the Comptroller General to review the information provided.
(3) To permit the Director of the Congressional Budget Office to review the information provided.
(f) Penalties for failure to provide pharmacy benefits manager data. The provisions of section 1927(b)(3)(C) of the Act are applicable to a Part D sponsor or PBM that fails to provide the required information on a timely basis or knowingly provides false information in the same manner as such provisions apply to a manufacturer with an agreement under section 1927 of the Act.
(g) Reporting and disclosure under Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA). (1) For any employees' health benefits plan that includes a Part D plan sponsor in its offerings, the PDP sponsor must furnish, upon request, the information the plan needs to fulfill its reporting and disclosure obligations (for the particular PDP sponsor) under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA).
(2) The PDP sponsor must furnish the information to the employer or the employer's designee, or to the plan administrator, as the term “administrator” is defined in ERISA.
(h) Loan information. Each Part D plan sponsor must notify CMS of any loans or other special financial arrangements it makes with contractors, subcontractors and related entities.
(i) Enrollee access to information. Each Part D plan sponsor must make the information reported to CMS under this section available to its enrollees upon reasonable request.
(j) Data validation. Each Part D sponsor must subject information collected under paragraph (a) of this section to a yearly independent audit to determine its reliability, validity, completeness, and comparability in accordance with specifications developed by CMS.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 19822, Apr. 15, 2010; 77 FR 22171, Apr. 12, 2012; 86 FR 6119, Jan. 19, 2021; 89 FR 30838, Apr. 23, 2024]
§ 423.516 Prohibition of midyear implementation of significant new regulatory requirements.
CMS may not implement, other than at the beginning of a calendar year, regulations under this section that impose new, significant regulatory requirements on a PDP sponsor or a prescription drug plan.
§ 423.520 Prompt payment by Part D sponsors.
(a) Contract between CMS and the Part D sponsor. (1) Effective contract year 2010, the contract between the Part D sponsor and CMS must provide that the Part D sponsor will issue, mail, or otherwise transmit payment with respect to all clean claims, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, submitted by network pharmacies (other than mail-order and long-term care pharmacies) within—
(i) 14 days after the date on which the claim is received, as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, for an electronic claim; or
(ii) 30 days after the date on which the claim is received, as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, for any other claim.
(2) Date of receipt of claim. A claim is considered to have been received—
(i) On the date on which the claim is transferred, for an electronic claim; or
(ii) On the 5th day after the postmark day of the claim or the date specified in the time stamp of the transmission, for any other claim, whichever is sooner.
(b) Clean claim. A clean claim means a claim that has no defect or impropriety (including any lack of any required substantiating documentation) or particular circumstance requiring special treatment that prevents timely payment of the claim from being made under this section.
(c) Procedures involving claims—(1) Claims determined to be clean. A claim is deemed to be a clean claim if the Part D sponsor receiving the claim does not provide notice to the submitting network pharmacy of any deficiency in the claim within—
(i) 10 days after the date on which the claim is received, as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, for an electronic claim; or
(ii) 15 days after the date on which the claim is received, as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, for any other claim.
(2) Claims determined not to be clean—(i) General. If a Part D sponsor determines that a submitted claim is not a clean claim, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, the Part D sponsor must notify the submitting network pharmacy of such determination within the period described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. Such notification must specify all defects or improprieties in the claim and must list all additional information necessary for the proper processing and payment of the claim.
(ii) Determination after submission of additional information. A claim is deemed to be a clean claim under paragraph (b) of this section if the Part D sponsor that receives the claim does not provide notice to the submitting network pharmacy of any remaining defect or impropriety, or of any new defect or impropriety raised by the additional information, in the claim within 10 days of the date on which additional information is received under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section. A Part D sponsor may not provide notice of a new deficiency or impropriety in the claim that could have been identified by the sponsor in the original claim submission under this paragraph.
(3) Obligation to pay. A claim submitted to a Part D sponsor that is not paid by the Part D sponsor within the timeframes specified in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) or contested by the Part D sponsor within the timeframe specified in paragraph (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section must be deemed to be a clean claim and must be paid by the Part D sponsor in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.
(d) Date of payment of claim. Payment of a clean claim under paragraph (c)(3) of this section is considered to have been made on the date on which—
(1) The payment is transferred, for an electronic claim; or
(2) The payment is submitted to the United States Postal Service or common carrier for delivery, for any other claim.
(e) Interest payment—(1) General. Subject to paragraph (e)(2) of this section, if payment is not issued, mailed or otherwise transmitted for a clean claim as required under paragraph (a) of this section, the Part D sponsor must pay interest to the network pharmacy that submitted the claim at a rate equal to the weighted average of interest on 3-month marketable Treasury securities determined for such period, increased by 0.1 percentage point for the period beginning on the day after the required payment date and ending on the date on which the payment is made, as determined under paragraph (d). Interest amounts paid under this paragraph will not count against the Part D sponsor's administrative costs, as defined in § 423.308, and will not be treated as allowable risk corridor costs, as defined in § 423.308.
(2) Authority not to charge interest. As CMS determines, a Part D sponsor is not charged interest under paragraph (e)(1) in exigent circumstances that prevent the timely processing of claims, including natural disasters and other unique and unexpected events.
(f) Electronic transfer of funds. A Part D sponsor must pay all clean claims submitted electronically by electronic transfer of funds provided the submitting network pharmacy so requests or has so requested previously that contract year. When such payment is made electronically, remittance may also be made electronically by the Part D sponsor.
(g) Protecting the rights of the claimants—(1) General. Nothing in this section may be construed to prohibit or limit a claim or action that any individual or organization has against a pharmacy, provider, or Part D sponsor that is not covered by the subject matter of this section.
(2) Anti-retaliation. Consistent with applicable Federal or State law, a Part D sponsor may not retaliate against an individual, pharmacy, or provider for exercising a right of action under paragraph (g)(1) of this section.
(h) Construction. A determination under this section that a claim submitted by a network pharmacy is a clean claim shall not be construed as a positive determination regarding eligibility for payment under title XVIII of the Act, nor is it an indication of government approval of, or acquiescence regarding, the claim submitted. The determination does not relieve any party of civil or criminal liability with respect to the claim, nor does it offer a defense to any administrative, civil, or criminal action with respect to the claim.
[73 FR 54252, Sept. 18, 2008, as amended at 76 FR 54634, Sept. 1, 2011]
§ 423.521 Final settlement process and payment.
(a) Notice of final settlement. After the calculation of the final settlement amount, CMS sends the Part D sponsor a notice of final settlement. The notice of final settlement contains at least the following information:
(1) A final settlement amount for the contract that has been consolidated, nonrenewed, or terminated, which may be one of the following:
(i) An amount due to the Part D sponsor.
(ii) An amount due from the Part D sponsor.
(iii) $0 if nothing is due to or from the Part D sponsor.
(2) Relevant banking and financial mailing instructions for Part D sponsors that owe CMS a final settlement amount.
(3) Relevant CMS contact information.
(4) A description of the steps for requesting an appeal of the final settlement amount calculation, in accordance with the requirements specified in § 423.522.
(b) Request for an appeal. A Part D sponsor that disagrees with the final settlement amount has 15 calendar days from issuance of the notice of final settlement, as described in paragraph (a) of this section, to request an appeal of the final settlement amount under the process described in § 423.522.
(1) If a Part D sponsor agrees with the final settlement amount, no response is required.
(2) If a Part D sponsor disagrees with the final settlement amount but does not request an appeal within 15 calendar days from the date of the issuance of the notice of final settlement, CMS does not consider subsequent requests for appeal.
(c) Actions if a Part D sponsor does not request an appeal. (1) For Part D sponsors that are owed money by CMS, CMS remits payment to the Part D sponsor within 60 calendar days from the date of the issuance of the notice of final settlement.
(2) For Part D sponsors that owe CMS money, the Part D sponsor is required to remit payment to CMS within 120 calendar days from issuance of the notice of final settlement. If the Part D sponsor fails to remit payment within that 120-calendar-day period, CMS refers the debt owed to CMS to the Department of the Treasury for collection.
(d) Actions following a request for appeal. If a Part D sponsor responds to the notice of final settlement disagreeing with the final settlement amount and requesting appeal, CMS conducts a review process under the process described at § 423.522.
(e) No additional payment adjustments. After the final settlement amount is calculated and the notice of final settlement, as described under § 423.521(a), is issued to the Part D sponsor, CMS—
(1) No longer applies retroactive payment adjustments to the terminated, consolidated or nonrenewed contract; and
(2) There are no adjustments applied to amounts used in the calculation of the final settlement amount.
[89 FR 30838, Apr. 23, 2024]
§ 423.522 Requesting an appeal of the final settlement amount.
(a) Appeals process. If a Part D sponsor does not agree with the final settlement amount described in § 423.521(a) of this section, it may appeal under the following three-level appeal process:
(1) Reconsideration. A Part D sponsor may request reconsideration of the final settlement amount described in § 423.521(a) according to the following process:
(i) Manner and timing of request. A written request for reconsideration must be filed within 15 days from the date that CMS issued the notice of final settlement to the Part D sponsor.
(ii) Content of request. The written request for reconsideration must do all of the following:
(A) Specify the calculation with which the Part D sponsor disagrees and the reasons for its disagreement.
(B) Include evidence supporting the assertion that CMS's calculation of the final settlement amount is incorrect.
(C) Not include new reconciliation data or data that was submitted to CMS after the final settlement notice was issued. CMS does not consider information submitted for the purposes of retroactively adjusting a prior reconciliation.
(iii) Conduct of reconsideration. In conducting the reconsideration, the CMS reconsideration official reviews the calculations that were used to determine the final settlement amount and any additional evidence timely submitted by the Part D sponsor.
(iv) Reconsideration decision. The CMS reconsideration official informs the Part D sponsor of its decision on the reconsideration in writing.
(v) Effect of reconsideration decision. The decision of the CMS reconsideration official is final and binding unless a timely request for an informal hearing is filed in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
(2) Informal hearing. A Part D sponsor dissatisfied with CMS's reconsideration decision made under paragraph (a)(1) of this section is entitled to an informal hearing as provided for under paragraphs (a)(2)(i) through (a)(2)(iv) of this section.
(i) Manner and timing of request. A request for an informal hearing must be made in writing and filed with CMS within 15 calendar days of the date of CMS's reconsideration decision.
(ii) Content of request. The request for an informal hearing must include a copy of the reconsideration decision and must specify the findings or issues in the decision with which the Part D sponsor disagrees and the reasons for its disagreement.
(iii) Informal hearing procedures. The informal hearing is conducted in accordance with the following:
(A) The CMS Hearing Officer provides written notice of the time and place of the informal hearing at least 30 calendar days before the scheduled date.
(B) The CMS reconsideration official provides a copy of the record that was before CMS when CMS made its decision to the hearing officer.
(C) The hearing officer review is conducted by a CMS hearing officer who neither receives testimony nor accepts any new evidence. The CMS hearing officer is limited to the review of the record that was before CMS when CMS made its decision.
(iv) Decision of the CMS hearing officer. The CMS hearing officer decides the case and sends a written decision to the Part D sponsor explaining the basis for the decision.
(v) Effect of hearing officer's decision. The hearing officer's decision is final and binding, unless the decision is reversed or modified by the CMS Administrator in accordance with paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
(3) Review by the Administrator. The Administrator's review is conducted in the following manner:
(i) Manner and timing of request. A Part D sponsor that has received a hearing officer's decision may request review by the Administrator within 15 calendar days of the date of issuance of the hearing officer's decision under paragraph (a)(2)(iv) of this section. The Part D sponsor may submit written arguments to the Administrator for review.
(ii) Discretionary review. (A) After receiving a request for review, the Administrator has the discretion to elect to review the hearing officer's determination in accordance with paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section or to decline to review the hearing officer's decision within 30 calendar days of receiving the request for review.
(B) If the Administrator declines to review the hearing officer's decision, the hearing officer's decision is final and binding.
(iii) Electing to review. If the Administrator elects to review the hearing officer's decision, the Administrator reviews the hearing officer's decision, as well as any information included in the record of the hearing officer's decision and any written argument submitted by the Part D sponsor, and determine whether to uphold, reverse, or modify the hearing officer's decision.
(iv) Effect of Administrator's decision. The Administrator's decision is final and binding.
(b) Matters subject to appeal and burden of proof. (1) The Part D sponsor's appeal is limited to CMS's calculation of the final settlement amount. CMS does not consider information submitted for the purposes of retroactively adjusting a prior reconciliation.
(2) The Part D sponsor bears the burden of proof by providing evidence demonstrating that CMS' calculation of the final settlement amount is incorrect.
(c) Stay of financial transaction until appeals are exhausted. If a Part D sponsor requests review of the final settlement amount, the financial transaction associated with the issuance or payment of the final settlement amount is stayed until all appeals are exhausted. Once all levels of appeal are exhausted or the Part D sponsor fails to request further review within the applicable 15-calendar-day timeframe, CMS communicates with the Part D sponsor to complete the financial transaction associated with the issuance or payment of the final settlement amount, as appropriate.
(d) Continued compliance with other law required. Nothing in this section limits a Part D sponsor's responsibility to comply with any other statute or regulation.
[89 FR 30839, Apr. 23, 2024, as amended at 89 FR 63828, Aug. 6, 2024]
§ 423.530 Plan crosswalks.
(a) General rules—(1) Definition of plan crosswalk. A plan crosswalk is the movement of enrollees from one plan benefit package (PBP) in a PDP contract to another PBP under a PDP contract between a Part D Sponsor and CMS. To crosswalk enrollees from one PBP to another is to change the enrollment from the first PBP to the second.
(2) Prohibitions. (i) Plan crosswalks between PBPs under one PDP contract and PBPs under another PDP contract are prohibited unless both the PDP sponsors with which CMS contracts are the same legal entity or have the same parent organization.
(ii) Plan crosswalks are prohibited that split the enrollment of one PBP into multiple PBPs.
(iii) Plan crosswalks are prohibited from a PBP offering basic prescription drug coverage to a PBP offering enhanced alternative coverage.
(3) Compliance with renewal/non-renewal rules. The PDP sponsor must comply with renewal and non-renewal rules in §§ 423.506 and 423.507 in order to complete plan crosswalks.
(4) Eligibility. Enrollees must be eligible for enrollment under § 423.30 in order to be moved from one PBP to another PBP.
(5) Applicability to Employer group health or waiver plans. Nothing in this section permits the crosswalk of enrollees in an employer group health or waiver plan PBP to another PBP outside the usual process for enrollment in employer group health or waiver plans.
(b) Mandatory plan crosswalks. A Part D sponsor of a PDP must perform a plan crosswalk in the following circumstances:
(1) Renewal of a PBP offering basic prescription drug coverage. A PDP sponsor that plans to continue operating a PBP offering basic prescription coverage in the same service area for the upcoming contract year must crosswalk enrollment from the PBP offering basic prescription drug coverage in the current contract year into a PBP offering basic prescription drug coverage under the same PDP contract in the upcoming contract year. The PBP for the upcoming contract year must retain the same plan ID as the PBP for the current contract year.
(2) Renewal of a PBP offering enhanced alternative drug coverage. A PDP sponsor that plans to continue operating a PBP offering enhanced alternative coverage in the same service area for the upcoming contract year must crosswalk enrollment from the PBP offering enhanced alternative drug coverage in the current contract year into a PBP offering enhanced alternative drug coverage in the upcoming contract year. The PBP for the upcoming contract year PBP must retain the same plan ID as the PBP for the current contract year.
(c) Plan crosswalk exceptions. A Part D sponsor of a PDP may perform a plan crosswalk in the following circumstances after receiving approval from CMS under the procedures described in paragraph (d) of this section.
(1) Consolidated renewals. If a PDP sponsor wishes to non-renew a PBP offering enhanced alternative prescription drug coverage under a PDP contract that is not non-renewing or reducing its service area so that the contract no longer includes the service area of the non-renewing PBP, it may crosswalk enrollment from the non-renewing PBP into a PBP offered under the contract in the upcoming contract year.
(i) The plan ID for the upcoming contract year PBP must be the same plan ID as one of PBPs for the current contract year.
(ii) The PBPs being consolidated must be under the same PDP contract.
(iii) A PBP offering basic prescription drug coverage may not be discontinued if the PDP contract continues to offer coverage (other than employer group waiver plans) in the service area of the PBP.
(iv) Enrollment from a PBP offering enhanced alternative coverage may be crosswalked into a PBP offering either enhanced alternative or basic prescription drug coverage.
(v) If the PDP contract includes more than one renewing PBP into which enrollment of the non-renewing PBP can be crosswalked, the enrollment of the non-renewing PBP must be crosswalked into the renewing PBP that will result in lowest increase in monthly premiums for the enrollees.
(vi) A plan crosswalk is not approved under this paragraph if it will result in a premium increase for the following benefit year (as reflected in the bid for the receiving PBP submitted on the first Monday in June) that is higher than the greater of the following:
(A) The current year's premium for the non-renewing PBP.
(B) The current year's average base beneficiary premium, as described in § 423.286(c) of this part, for the PDP region in which the PBP operates.
(vii) If an organization that non-renews an enhanced alternative PBP does not request and receive a plan crosswalk exception as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, CMS does not approve a new enhanced alternative PBP in the same service area as the non-renewing PBP in the following contract year.
(2) Contract consolidations. If a PDP sponsor non-renews all or part of the service area of its contract with CMS in accordance with §§ 423.507 or 423.508, the enrollees of the non-renewing PBPs may be crosswalked into one or more PBPs in another PDP contract (the surviving contract).
(i) The non-renewing PDP contract and the surviving contract must be held by the same legal entity or by legal entities with the same parent organization.
(ii) The approved service area of the surviving contract must include the service area of the non-renewing PBPs whose enrollment will be crosswalked into the surviving contract.
(iii) Enrollment may be crosswalked between PBPs offering the same type of prescription drug coverage (basic or enhanced alternative).
(iv) Enrollment from a PBP offering enhanced alternative coverage may be crosswalked into a PBP offering basic prescription drug coverage.
(v) Enrollment from a PBP offering enhanced alternative coverage must be crosswalked into the PBP in the surviving contract that will result in the lowest premium increase.
(vi) A plan crosswalk is not approved under this paragraph if it will result in a premium increase for the following benefit year (as reflected in the bid for the receiving PBP submitted on the first Monday in June) that is higher than the greater of:
(A) The current year's premium for the non-renewing PBP, or
(B) The current year's average base beneficiary premium, as described in § 423.286(c), for the region in which the PBP operates.
(d) Procedures. (1) A PDP sponsor must submit the following:
(i) All plan crosswalks described in paragraph (b) of this section in writing through the bid submission process in HPMS by the bid submission deadline.
(ii) All plan crosswalk exception requests described in paragraph (c) of this section in writing through the plan crosswalk exceptions process in HPMS by the plan crosswalk exception request deadline announced annually by CMS.
(2) CMS verifies the requests and notifies a requesting PDP sponsor of the approval or denial after the crosswalk exception request deadline.
[89 FR 30839, Apr. 23, 2024]
Subpart L Effect of Change of Ownership or Leasing of Facilities During Term of Contract
§ 423.551 General provisions.
(a) Change of ownership. The following constitute a change of ownership:
(1) Partnership. The removal, addition, or substitution of a partner, unless the partners expressly agree otherwise as permitted by applicable State law, constitutes a change of ownership.
(2) Asset transfer. Transfer of substantially all the assets of the sponsor to another party constitutes a change of ownership.
(3) Corporation. The merger of the PDP sponsor's corporation into another corporation or the consolidation of the PDP sponsor's organization with one or more other corporations, resulting in a new corporate body.
(b) Change of ownership, exception. Transfer of corporate stock or the merger of another corporation into the PDP sponsor's corporation, with the PDP sponsor surviving, does not ordinarily constitute change of ownership.
(c) Advance notice requirement. (1) A PDP sponsor that has a Medicare contract in effect under § 423.502 and is considering or is negotiating a change in ownership must notify CMS at least 60 days before the anticipated effective date of the change. The PDP sponsor must also provide updated financial information and a discussion of the financial and solvency impact of the change of ownership on the surviving organization.
(2) If the PDP sponsor fails to give CMS the required notice in a timely manner, it continues to be liable for payments that CMS makes to it on behalf of Medicare enrollees after the date of change of ownership.
(d) Novation agreement defined. A novation agreement is an agreement among the current owner of the PDP sponsor, the prospective new owner, and CMS that—
(1) Is embodied in a document executed and signed by all 3 parties;
(2) Meets the requirements of § 423.552; and
(3) Recognizes the new owner as the successor in interest to the current owner's Medicare contract.
(e) Effect of change of ownership without novation agreement. Except to the extent provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the effect of a change of ownership without a novation agreement is that—
(1) The current PDP sponsor, with respect to the affected contract, has substantially failed to comply with the regulatory requirements as described in § 423.509(a)(4)(ix) and the contract may be subject to intermediate enrollment and marketing sanctions as outlined in § 423.750(a)(1) and (a)(3). Intermediate sanctions imposed as part of this section remain in place until CMS approves the change of ownership (including execution of an approved novation agreement), or the contract is terminated.
(i)(A) If the new owner does not participate in the Medicare program in the same service area as the affected contract, it must apply for, and enter into, a contract in accordance with subpart K of this part and part 422 if applicable; and
(B) If the application is conditionally approved, must submit, within 30 days of the conditional approval, the documentation required under § 423.551(d) for review and approval by CMS; or
(ii) If the new owner currently participates in the Medicare program and operates in the same service area as the affected contract, it must, within 30 days of imposition of intermediate sanctions as outlined in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, submit the documentation required under § 423.551(d) for review and approval by CMS.
(2) If the new owner fails to begin the processes required under paragraph (e)(1)(i) or (e)(1)(ii) of this section, within 30 days of imposition of intermediate sanctions as outlined in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the existing contract is subject to termination in accordance with § 423.509(a)(4)(ix).
(f) Effect of change of ownership with novation agreement. If the PDP sponsor submits a novation agreement that meets the requirements of § 423.552 and CMS signs it, the new owner becomes the successor in interest to the current owner's Medicare contract under § 423.502.
(g) Sale of beneficiaries not permitted. (1) CMS will only recognize the sale or transfer of an organization's entire PDP line of business, consisting of all PDP contracts held by the PDP sponsor with the exception of the sale or transfer of a full contract between wholly owned subsidiaries of the same parent organization which will be recognized and allowed by CMS.
(2) CMS does not recognize or allow a sale or transfer that consists solely of the sale or transfer of individual beneficiaries or groups of beneficiaries enrolled in a plan benefit package.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 1546, Jan. 12, 2009; 75 FR 19822, Apr. 15, 2010; 75 FR 32860, June 10, 2010; 86 FR 6119, Jan. 19, 2021; 89 FR 30840, Apr. 23, 2024]
§ 423.552 Novation agreement requirements.
(a) Conditions for CMS approval of a novation agreement. CMS approves a novation agreement if the following conditions are met:
(1) Advance notification. The PDP sponsor notifies CMS at least 60 days before the date of the proposed change of ownership. The PDP sponsor also provides CMS with updated financial information and a discussion of the financial and solvency impact of the change of ownership on the surviving organization.
(2) Advance submittal of agreement. The PDP sponsor submits to CMS, at least 30 days before the proposed change of ownership date, three signed copies of the novation agreement containing the provisions specified in paragraph (b) of this section, and one copy of other relevant documents required by CMS.
(3) CMS's determination. When reviewing a novation agreement, CMS makes a determination concerning the following:
(i) The proposed new owner is in fact a successor in interest to the contract.
(ii) Recognition of the new owner as a successor in interest to the contract is in the best interest of the Medicare program.
(iii) The successor organization meets the requirements to qualify as a PDP sponsor under subpart K of this part.
(b) Provisions of a novation agreement. A valid novation agreement requires the following:
(1) Assumption of contract obligations. The new owner must assume all obligations under the contract.
(2) Waiver of right to reimbursement. The previous owner must waive its rights to reimbursement for covered services furnished during the rest of the current contract period.
(3) Guarantee of performance. The previous owner must—
(i) Guarantee performance of the contract by the new owner during the contract period; or
(ii) Post a performance bond that is satisfactory to CMS.
(4) Records access. The previous owner must agree to make its books and records and other necessary information available to the new owner and to CMS to permit an accurate determination of costs for the final settlement of the contract period.
§ 423.553 Effect of leasing of a PDP sponsor's facilities.
(a) General effect of leasing. If a PDP sponsor leases all or part of its facilities to another entity, the other entity does not acquire PDP sponsor status under section 1860D-12(b) of the Act.
(b) Effect of lease of all facilities. (1) If a PDP sponsor leases all of its facilities to another entity, the contract terminates.
(2) If the other entity wishes to participate in Medicare as a PDP sponsor, it must apply for and enter into a contract in accordance with § 423.502.
(c) Effect of partial lease of facilities. If the PDP sponsor leases part of its facilities to another entity, its contract with CMS remains in effect while CMS surveys the PDP sponsor to determine whether it continues to be in compliance with the applicable requirements and qualifying conditions specified in subpart K of this part.
Subpart M Grievances, Coverage Determinations, Redeterminations, and Reconsiderations
§ 423.558 Scope.
(a) This subpart sets forth the requirements relating to the following:
(1) Part D plan sponsors with respect to grievances, coverage determinations, and redeterminations.
(2) Part D IRE with respect to reconsiderations.
(3) Part D enrollees' rights with respect to grievances, coverage determinations, redeterminations, and reconsiderations.
(4) Review of at-risk determinations made under a drug management program in accordance with § 423.153(f).
(b) The requirements regarding reopenings, ALJ hearings and ALJ and attorney adjudicator decisions, Council review, and judicial review are set forth in subpart U of this chapter.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5125, Jan. 17, 2017; 83 FR 16750, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 423.560 Definitions.
As used in this subpart, unless the context indicates otherwise—
Appeal means any of the procedures that deal with the review of adverse coverage determinations made by the Part D plan sponsor on the benefits under a Part D plan the enrollee believes he or she is entitled to receive, including delay in providing or approving the drug coverage (when a delay would adversely affect the health of the enrollee), or on any amounts the enrollee must pay for the drug coverage, as defined in § 423.566(b). Appeal also includes the review of at-risk determinations made under a drug management program in accordance with § 423.153(f). These procedures include redeterminations by the Part D plan sponsor, reconsiderations by the independent review entity, ALJ hearings, reviews by the Medicare Appeals Council (Council), and judicial reviews.
At-risk determination means a decision made under a plan sponsor's drug management program in accordance with § 423.153(f) that involves the identification of an individual as an at-risk beneficiary for prescription drug abuse; a limitation, or the continuation of a limitation, on an at-risk beneficiary's access to coverage for frequently abused drugs (that is, a beneficiary specific point-of-sale edit or the selection of a prescriber and/or pharmacy and implementation of lock-in, or); and information sharing for subsequent plan enrollments.
Drug Use means an enrollee is receiving the drug in the course of treatment, including time off if it is part of the treatment.
Enrollee means a Part D eligible individual who has elected or has been enrolled in a Part D plan.
Grievance means any complaint or dispute, other than one that involves a coverage determination or at-risk determination, expressing dissatisfaction with any aspect of the operations, activities, or behavior of a Part D plan sponsor, regardless of whether remedial action is requested.
Other prescriber means a health care professional other than a physician who is authorized under State law or other applicable law to write prescriptions.
Physician has the meaning given the term in section 1861(r) of the Act.
Projected value of a Part D drug or drugs includes any costs the enrollee could incur based on the number of refills prescribed for the drug(s) in dispute during the plan year. Projected value includes enrollee co-payments, all expenditures incurred after an enrollee's expenditures exceed the initial coverage limit, and expenditures paid by other entities.
Reconsideration means a review of an adverse coverage determination or at-risk determination by an independent review entity (IRE), the evidence and findings upon which it was based, and any other evidence the enrollee submits or the IRE obtains.
Redetermination means a review of an adverse coverage determination or at-risk determination by a Part D plan sponsor, the evidence and findings upon which it is based, and any other evidence the enrollee submits or the Part D plan sponsor obtains.
Representative means an individual either appointed by an enrollee or authorized under State or other applicable law to act on behalf of the enrollee in filing a grievance, obtaining a coverage determination, or in dealing with any of the levels of the appeals process. Unless otherwise stated in this subpart, the representative has all of the rights and responsibilities of an enrollee in filing a grievance, obtaining a coverage determination, or in dealing with any of the levels of the appeals process, subject to the rules described in part 422, subpart M, of this chapter.
Specialty tier: (1) Before January 1, 2022, means a formulary cost-sharing tier dedicated to very high cost Part D drugs that exceed a cost threshold established by the Secretary; and
(2) Beginning January 1, 2022, has the meaning given the term in § 423.104.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 20507, Apr. 15, 2008; 74 FR 1546, Jan. 12, 2009; 82 FR 5125, Jan. 17, 2017; 83 FR 16750, Apr. 16, 2018; 86 FR 6119, Jan. 19, 2021]
§ 423.562 General provisions.
(a) Responsibilities of the Part D plan sponsor. A Part D plan sponsor must meet all of the following requirements.
(1) A Part D plan sponsor, for each Part D plan that it offers, must establish and maintain—
(i) A grievance procedure as described in § 423.564 for addressing issues that do not involve coverage determinations;
(ii) Use a single, uniform exceptions and appeals process which includes procedures for accepting oral and written requests for coverage determinations and redeterminations that are in accordance with § 423.128(b)(7) and (d)(1)(iv).
(iii) A procedure for making timely coverage determinations, including determinations on requests for exceptions to a tiered cost-sharing structure or to a formulary; and
(iv) Appeal procedures that meet the requirements of this subpart for issues that involve coverage determinations.
(v) Appeal procedures that meet the requirements of this subpart for issues that involve at-risk determinations. Determinations made in accordance with the processes at § 423.153(f) are collectively referred to as an at-risk determination, defined at § 423.560, made under a drug management program.
(2) A Part D plan sponsor must ensure that all enrollees receive written information about the—
(i) Grievance and appeal procedures that are available to them through the Part D plan sponsor; and
(ii) Complaint process available to the enrollee under the QIO process as set forth under section 1154(a)(14) of the Act.
(3) A Part D plan sponsor must arrange with its network pharmacies to distribute notices instructing enrollees how to contact their plans to obtain a coverage determination or request an exception. These notices must comply with the standards established in § 423.128(b)(7)(iii).
(4) In accordance with subpart K of this part, if the Part D plan sponsor delegates any of its responsibilities under this subpart to another entity or individual through which the Part D plan sponsor provides covered benefits, the Part D plan sponsor is ultimately responsible for ensuring that the entity or individual satisfies the relevant requirements of this subpart.
(5) A Part D plan sponsor must employ a medical director who is responsible for ensuring the clinical accuracy of all coverage determinations and redeterminations involving medical necessity. The medical director must be a physician with a current and unrestricted license to practice medicine in a State, Territory, Commonwealth of the United States (that is, Puerto Rico), or the District of Columbia.
(b) Rights of enrollees. In accordance with the provisions of this subpart, enrollees have all of the following rights under Part D plans:
(1) The right to have grievances between the enrollee and the Part D plan sponsor heard and resolved by the plan sponsor, as described in § 423.564.
(2) The right to a timely coverage determination by the Part D plan sponsor, as specified in § 423.566 and § 423.568, including the right to request from the Part D plan sponsor an exception to its tiered cost-sharing structure or formulary, as specified in § 423.578.
(3) The right to request from the Part D plan sponsor an expedited coverage determination, as specified in § 423.570.
(4) If dissatisfied with any part of a coverage determination or an at-risk determination under a drug management program in accordance with § 423.153(f), all of the following appeal rights:
(i) The right to a redetermination of the adverse coverage determination or at-risk determination by the Part D plan sponsor, as specified in § 423.580.
(ii) The right to request an expedited redetermination, as provided under § 423.584.
(iii) If, as a result of the redetermination, a Part D plan sponsor affirms, in whole or in part, its adverse coverage determination or at-risk determination, the right to a reconsideration or expedited reconsideration by an independent review entity (IRE) contracted by CMS, as specified in § 423.600.
(iv) If the IRE affirms the plan's adverse coverage determination or at-risk determination, in whole or in part, the right to an ALJ hearing if the amount in controversy meets the requirements in § 423.2006.
(v) If the ALJ or attorney adjudicator affirms the IRE's adverse coverage determination or at-risk determination, in whole or in part, the right to request Council review of the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision, as specified in § 423.2100.
(vi) If the Council affirms the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's adverse coverage determination or at-risk determination, in whole or in part, the right to judicial review of the decision if the amount in controversy meets the requirements in § 423.2006.
(c) When other regulations apply. Unless this subpart provides otherwise, the regulations in part 422, subpart M of this chapter (concerning the administrative review and hearing processes under titles II and XVIII, and representation of parties under title XVIII of the Act) and any interpretive rules or CMS rulings issued under these regulations, apply under this subpart to the extent they are appropriate.
(d) Relation to ERISA Requirements. Consistent with section 1860D-22(b) of the Act, provisions of this subpart may, to the extent applicable under the regulations adopted by the Secretary of Labor, apply to claims for benefits under group health plans subject to the Employee Retirement Income Security Act.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009; 76 FR 21575, Apr. 15, 2011; 80 FR 7965, Feb. 12, 2015; 82 FR 5125, Jan. 17, 2017; 83 FR 16751, Apr. 16, 2018; 84 FR 19872, May 7, 2019; 89 FR 30841, Apr. 23, 2024]
§ 423.564 Grievance procedures.
(a) General rule. Each Part D plan sponsor must provide meaningful procedures for timely hearing and resolving grievances between enrollees and the Part D plan sponsor or any other entity or individual through whom the Part D plan sponsor provides covered benefits under any Part D plan it offers.
(b) Distinguished from appeals. Grievance procedures are separate and distinct from appeal procedures, which address coverage determinations as defined in § 423.566(b) and at-risk determinations made under a drug management program in accordance with § 423.153(f). Upon receiving a complaint, a Part D plan sponsor must promptly determine and inform the enrollee whether the complaint is subject to its grievance procedures or its appeal procedures.
(c) Distinguished from the quality improvement organization complaint process. Under section 1154(a)(14) of the Act, the quality improvement organization (QIO) must review enrollees' written complaints about the quality of services they have received under the Medicare program. This process is separate and distinct from the grievance procedures of the Part D plan sponsor. For quality of care issues, an enrollee may file a grievance with the Part D plan sponsor, file a written complaint with the QIO, or both. For any complaint submitted to a QIO, the Part D plan sponsor must cooperate with the QIO in resolving the complaint.
(d) Method for filing a grievance. (1) An enrollee may file a grievance with the Part D plan sponsor either orally or in writing.
(2) An enrollee must file a grievance no later than 60 calendar days after the event or incident that precipitates the grievance.
(e) Grievance disposition and notification. (1) The Part D plan sponsor must notify the enrollee of its decision as expeditiously as the case requires, based on the enrollee's health status, but no later than 30 calendar days after the date the Part D plan sponsor receives the oral or written grievance.
(2) The Part D plan sponsor may extend the 30 calendar day timeframe by up to 14 calendar days if the enrollee requests the extension or if the Part D plan sponsor justifies a need for additional information and documents how the delay is in the interest of the enrollee. When the Part D plan sponsor extends the deadline, it must immediately notify the enrollee in writing of the reason(s) for the delay.
(3) The Part D plan sponsor must inform the enrollee of the disposition of the grievance in accordance with the following procedures:
(i) All grievances submitted in writing must be responded to in writing.
(ii) Grievances submitted orally may be responded to either orally or in writing, unless the enrollee requests a written response.
(iii) All grievances related to quality of care, regardless of how the grievance is filed, must be responded to in writing. The response must include a description of the enrollee's right to file a written complaint with the QIO. For any complaint submitted to a QIO, the Part D plan sponsor must cooperate with the QIO in resolving the complaint.
(f) Expedited grievances. A Part D plan sponsor must respond to an enrollee's grievance within 24 hours if the complaint involves a refusal by the Part D plan sponsor to grant an enrollee's request for an expedited coverage determination under § 423.570 or an expedited redetermination under § 423.584, and the enrollee has not yet purchased or received the drug that is in dispute.
(g) Record keeping. The Part D plan sponsor must have an established process to track and maintain records on all grievances received both orally and in writing, including, at a minimum, the date of receipt, final disposition of the grievance, and the date that the enrollee was notified of the disposition.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009; 83 FR 16751, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 423.566 Coverage determinations.
(a) Responsibilities of the Part D plan sponsor. Each Part D plan sponsor must have a procedure for making timely coverage determinations in accordance with the requirements of this subpart regarding the prescription drug benefits an enrollee is entitled to receive under the plan, including basic prescription drug coverage as specified in § 423.100 and supplemental benefits as specified in § 423.104(f)(1)(ii), and the amount, including cost sharing, if any, that the enrollee is required to pay for a drug. The Part D plan sponsor must have a standard procedure for making determinations, in accordance with § 423.568, and an expedited procedure for situations in which applying the standard procedure may seriously jeopardize the enrollee's life, health, or ability to regain maximum function, in accordance with § 423.570.
(b) Actions that are coverage determinations. The following actions by a Part D plan sponsor are coverage determinations:
(1) A decision not to provide or pay for a Part D drug (including a decision not to pay because the drug is not on the plan's formulary, because the drug is determined not to be medically necessary, because the drug is furnished by an out-of-network pharmacy, or because the Part D plan sponsor determines that the drug is otherwise excludable under section 1862(a) of the Act if applied to Medicare Part D) that the enrollee believes may be covered by the plan;
(2) Failure to provide a coverage determination in a timely manner, when a delay would adversely affect the health of the enrollee;
(3) A decision concerning an exceptions request under § 423.578(a);
(4) A decision concerning an exceptions request under § 423.578(b); or
(5) A decision on the amount of cost sharing for a drug.
(c) Who can request a coverage determination. Individuals who can request a standard or expedited coverage determination are—
(1) The enrollee;
(2) The enrollee's representative, on behalf of the enrollee; or
(3) The prescribing physician or other prescriber, on behalf of the enrollee.
(d) Who must review coverage determinations. If the Part D plan sponsor expects to issue a partially or fully adverse medical necessity (or any substantively equivalent term used to describe the concept of medical necessity) decision based on the initial review of the request, the coverage determination must be reviewed by a physician or other appropriate health care professional with sufficient medical and other expertise, including knowledge of Medicare coverage criteria, before the Part D plan sponsor issues the coverage determination decision. The physician or other health care professional must have a current and unrestricted license to practice within the scope of his or her profession in a State, Territory, Commonwealth of the United States (that is, Puerto Rico), or the District of Columbia.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 1546, Jan. 12, 2009; 76 FR 21576, Apr. 15, 2011; 86 FR 6119, Jan. 19, 2021]
§ 423.568 Standard timeframe and notice requirements for coverage determinations.
(a) Method and place for filing a request. An enrollee must ask for a standard coverage determination by making a request with the Part D plan sponsor in accordance with the following:
(1) Except as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the request may be made orally or in writing.
(2) Requests for payment must be made in writing (unless the Part D plan sponsor has implemented a voluntary policy of accepting oral payment requests).
(3) The Part D plan sponsor must establish and maintain a method of documenting all oral requests and retain the documentation in the case file.
(b) Timeframe for requests for drug benefits. When a party makes a request for a drug benefit, the Part D plan sponsor must notify the enrollee (and the prescribing physician or other prescriber involved, as appropriate) of its determination as expeditiously as the enrollee's health condition requires, but no later than 72 hours after receipt of the request. For an exceptions request, the Part D plan sponsor must notify the enrollee (and the prescribing physician or other prescriber involved, as appropriate) of its determination as expeditiously as the enrollee's health condition requires, but no later than 72 hours after receipt of the physician's or other prescriber's supporting statement. If a supporting statement is not received by the end of 14 calendar days from receipt of the exceptions request, the Part D plan sponsor must notify the enrollee (and the prescribing physician or other prescriber involved, as appropriate) of its determination as expeditiously as the enrollee's health condition requires, but no later than 72 hours from the end of 14 calendar days from receipt of the exceptions request.
(c) Timeframe for requests for payment. When a party makes a request for payment, the Part D plan sponsor must notify the enrollee of its determination and make payment (when applicable) no later than 14 calendar days after receipt of the request.
(d) Written notice for favorable decisions by a Part D plan sponsor. If a Part D plan sponsor makes a completely favorable decision under paragraph (b) of this section, it must give the enrollee written notice of the determination. The initial notice may be provided orally, so long as a written follow-up notice is sent within 3 calendar days of the oral notification.
(e) Form and content of the approval notice. The notice of any approval under paragraph (d) of this section must explain the conditions of the approval in a readable and understandable form.
(f) Written notice for denials by a Part D plan sponsor. If a Part D plan sponsor decides to deny a drug benefit, in whole or in part, it must give the enrollee written notice of the determination. The initial notice may be provided orally, so long as a written follow-up notice is mailed to the enrollee within 3 calendar days of the oral notification.
(g) Form and content of the denial notice. The notice of any denial under paragraph (f) of this section must meet the following requirements:
(1) Use approved notice language in a readable and understandable form.
(2) State the specific reasons for the denial.
(i) For drug coverage denials, describe both the standard and expedited redetermination processes, including the enrollee's right to, and conditions for, obtaining an expedited redetermination and the rest of the appeals process.
(ii) For payment denials, describe the standard redetermination process and the rest of the appeals process.
(3) Inform the enrollee of his or her right to a redetermination.
(4) Comply with any other notice requirements specified by CMS.
(h) Effect of failure to meet the adjudicatory timeframes. If the Part D plan sponsor fails to notify the enrollee of its determination in the appropriate timeframe under paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section, the failure constitutes an adverse coverage determination, and the plan sponsor must forward the enrollee's request to the IRE within 24 hours of the expiration of the adjudication timeframe.
(i) Dismissing a request. The Part D plan sponsor dismisses a coverage determination request, either entirely or as to any stated issue, under any of the following circumstances:
(1) When the individual making the request is not permitted to request a coverage determination under § 423.566(c).
(2) When the Part D plan sponsor determines the party failed to make out a valid request for a coverage determination that substantially complies with paragraph (a) of this section.
(3) When an enrollee or the enrollee's representative files a request for a coverage determination, but the enrollee dies while the request is pending, and both of the following criteria apply:
(i) The enrollee's surviving spouse or estate has no remaining financial interest in the case.
(ii) The enrollee's representative, if any, does not wish to pursue the request for coverage.
(4) When a party filing the coverage determination request submits a timely request for withdrawal of the request for a coverage determination with the Part D plan sponsor.
(j) Notice of dismissal. The Part D plan must mail or otherwise transmit a written notice of the dismissal of the coverage determination request to the parties. The notice must state all of the following:
(1) The reason for the dismissal.
(2) The right to request that the Part D plan sponsor vacate the dismissal action.
(3) The right to request redetermination of the dismissal.
(k) Vacating a dismissal. If good cause is established, the Part D plan sponsor may vacate its dismissal of a request for coverage determination within 6 months from the date of the notice of dismissal.
(l) Effect of dismissal. The Part D plan sponsor's dismissal is binding unless it is modified or reversed by the Part D plan sponsor or vacated under paragraph (k) of this section.
(m) Withdrawing a request. A party that requests a coverage determination may withdraw its request at any time before the decision is issued by filing a request with the Part D plan sponsor.
[75 FR 19823, Apr. 15, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 21576, Apr. 15, 2011; 84 FR 15843, Apr. 16, 2019; 86 FR 6119, Jan. 19, 2021; 86 FR 29528, June 2, 2021]
§ 423.570 Expediting certain coverage determinations.
(a) Request for expedited determination. An enrollee or an enrollee's prescribing physician or other prescriber may request that a Part D plan sponsor expedite a coverage determination involving issues described in § 423.566(b) of this part. This does not include requests for payment of Part D drugs already furnished.
(b) How to make a request. (1) To ask for an expedited determination, an enrollee or an enrollee's prescribing physician or other prescriber on behalf of the enrollee must submit an oral or written request directly to the Part D plan sponsor or, if applicable, to the entity responsible for making the determination, as directed by the Part D plan sponsor.
(2) A prescribing physician or other prescriber may provide oral or written support for an enrollee's request for an expedited determination.
(c) How the Part D plan sponsor must process requests. The Part D plan sponsor must establish and maintain the following procedures for processing requests for expedited determinations:
(1) An efficient and convenient means for accepting oral or written requests submitted by enrollees, prescribing physicians, or other prescribers.
(2) A method for documenting all oral requests and maintaining the documentation in the case file; and
(3) A means for issuing prompt decisions on expediting a determination, based on the following requirements:
(i) For a request made by an enrollee, provide an expedited determination if it determines that applying the standard timeframe for making a determination may seriously jeopardize the life or health of the enrollee or the enrollee's ability to regain maximum function.
(ii) For a request made or supported by an enrollee's prescribing physician or other prescriber, provide an expedited determination if the physician or other prescriber indicates that applying the standard timeframe for making a determination may seriously jeopardize the life or health of the enrollee or the enrollee's ability to regain maximum function.
(d) Actions following denial. If a Part D plan sponsor denies a request for expedited determination, it must take the following actions:
(1) Make the determination within the 72-hour timeframe established in § 423.568(b) for a standard determination. The 72-hour period begins on the day the Part D plan sponsor receives the request for expedited determination. For an exceptions request, the Part D plan sponsor must notify the enrollee (and the prescribing physician or other prescriber involved, as appropriate) of its determination as expeditiously as the enrollee's health condition requires, but no later than 72 hours after receipt of the physician's or other prescriber's supporting statement. If a supporting statement is not received by the end of 14 calendar days from receipt of the exceptions request, the Part D plan sponsor must notify the enrollee (and the prescribing physician or other prescriber involved, as appropriate) of its determination as expeditiously as the enrollee's health condition requires, but no later than 72 hours from the end of 14 calendar days from receipt of the exceptions request.
(2) Give the enrollee and prescribing physician or other prescriber prompt oral notice of the denial that—
(i) Explains that the Part D plan sponsor must process the request using the 72 hour timeframe for standard determinations;
(ii) Informs the enrollee of the right to file an expedited grievance if he or she disagrees with the decision by the Part D plan sponsor not to expedite;
(iii) Informs the enrollee of the right to resubmit a request for an expedited determination with the prescribing physician's or other prescriber's support and
(iv) Provides instructions about the plan's grievance process and its timeframes.
(3) Subsequently deliver to the enrollee, within 3 calendar days, equivalent written notice.
(e) Actions on accepted requests for expedited determination. If a Part D plan sponsor grants a request for expedited determination, it must make the determination and give notice in accordance with § 423.572.
(f) Dismissing a request. The Part D plan sponsor dismisses an expedited coverage determination in accordance with § 423.568.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 20507, Apr. 15, 2008; 74 FR 1546, Jan. 12, 2009; 75 FR 19823, Apr. 15, 2010; 84 FR 15843, Apr. 16, 2019; 86 FR 6120, Jan. 19, 2021]
§ 423.572 Timeframes and notice requirements for expedited coverage determinations.
(a) Timeframe for determination and notification. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a Part D plan sponsor that approves a request for expedited determination must make its determination and notify the enrollee (and the prescribing physician or other prescriber involved, as appropriate) of its decision, whether adverse or favorable, as expeditiously as the enrollee's health condition requires, but no later than 24 hours after receiving the request. For an exceptions request, the Part D plan sponsor must notify the enrollee (and the prescribing physician or other prescriber involved, as appropriate) of its determination as expeditiously as the enrollee's health condition requires, but no later than 24 hours after receipt of the physician's or other prescriber's supporting statement. If a supporting statement is not received by the end of 14 calendar days from receipt of the exceptions request, the Part D plan sponsor must notify the enrollee (and the prescribing physician or other prescriber involved, as appropriate) of its determination as expeditiously as the enrollee's health condition requires, but no later than 24 hours from the end of 14 calendar days from receipt of the exceptions request.
(b) Confirmation of oral notice. If the Part D plan sponsor first notifies an enrollee of an adverse or favorable expedited determination orally, it must mail written confirmation to the enrollee within 3 calendar days of the oral notification.
(c) Content of the notice of expedited determination. (1) If the determination is completely favorable to the enrollee, the notice must explain the conditions of the approval in a readable and understandable form.
(2) If the determination is not completely favorable to the enrollee, the notice must—
(i) Use approved language in a readable and understandable form;
(ii) State the specific reasons for the denial;
(iii) Inform the enrollee of his or her right to a redetermination;
(iv) Describe—
(A) Both the standard and expedited redetermination processes, including the enrollee's right to request an expedited redetermination;
(B) Conditions for obtaining an expedited redetermination; and
(C) Other aspects of the appeal process.
(d) Effect of failure to meet the adjudicatory timeframes. If the Part D plan sponsor fails to notify the enrollee of its determination in the timeframe specified in paragraph (a) of this section, the failure constitutes an adverse coverage determination, and the Part D plan sponsor must forward the enrollee's request to the IRE within 24 hours of the expiration of the adjudication timeframe.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 1564, Jan. 12, 2009; 75 FR 19823, Apr. 15, 2010; 84 FR 15843, Apr. 16, 2019]
§ 423.576 Effect of a coverage determination.
The coverage determination is binding on the Part D plan sponsor and the enrollee unless it is reviewed and revised under §§ 423.580 through 423.604 and §§ 423.2000 through 423.2140 or is reopened and revised under § 423.1978.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009; 84 FR 19872, May 7, 2019]
§ 423.578 Exceptions process.
(a) Requests for exceptions to a plan's tiered cost-sharing structure. Each Part D plan sponsor that provides prescription drug benefits for Part D drugs and manages this benefit through the use of a tiered formulary must establish and maintain reasonable and complete exceptions procedures subject to CMS' approval for this type of coverage determination. The Part D plan sponsor grants an exception whenever it determines that the requested non-preferred drug for treatment of the enrollee's condition is medically necessary, consistent with the physician's or other prescriber's statement under paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
(1) The tiering exceptions procedures must address situations where a formulary's tiering structure changes during the year and an enrollee is using a drug affected by the change.
(2) Part D plan sponsors must establish criteria that provide for a tiering exception, consistent with paragraphs (a)(3) through (6) of this section.
(3) An enrollee or the enrollee's prescribing physician or other prescriber may file a request for an exception.
(4) A prescribing physician or other prescriber must provide an oral or written supporting statement that the preferred drug(s) for the treatment of the enrollee's condition—
(i) Would not be as effective for the enrollee as the requested drug;
(ii) Would have adverse effects for the enrollee; or
(iii) Both paragraphs (a)(4)(i) and (a)(4)(ii) of this section apply.
(5) If the physician or other prescriber provides an oral supporting statement, the Part D plan sponsor may require the physician or other prescriber to subsequently provide a written supporting statement. The Part D plan sponsor may require the prescribing physician or other prescriber to provide additional supporting medical documentation as part of the written follow-up.
(6) Limitations on tiering exceptions: A Part D plan sponsor is permitted to design its tiering exceptions procedures such that an exception is not approvable in the following circumstances:
(i) To cover a brand name drug, as defined in § 423.4, at a preferred cost-sharing level that applies only to alternative drugs that are—
(A) Generic drugs, for which an application is approved under section 505(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or
(B) Authorized generic drugs as defined in section 505(t)(3) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
(ii) To cover a biological product licensed under section 351 of the Public Health Service Act at a preferred cost-sharing level that does not contain any alternative drug(s) that are biological products.
(iii)(A) Before January 1, 2022, if a Part D plan sponsor maintains a specialty tier, as defined in § 423.560, the Part D sponsor may design its exception process so that Part D drugs on the specialty tier are not eligible for a tiering exception.
(B) Beginning January 1, 2022, if a Part D sponsor maintains one or two specialty tiers, as defined in § 423.104, the Part D sponsor may design its exception process so that Part D drugs on the specialty tier(s) are not eligible for tiering exception(s) to non-specialty tiers.
(b) Request for exceptions involving a non-formulary Part D drug. Each Part D plan sponsor that provides prescription drug benefits for Part D drugs and manages this benefit through the use of a formulary must establish and maintain exceptions procedures subject to CMS' approval for receipt of an off-formulary drug. The Part D plan sponsor must grant an exception whenever it determines that the drug is medically necessary, consistent with the physician's or other prescriber's statement under paragraph (b)(5) of this section, and that the drug would be covered but for the fact that it is an off-formulary drug. Formulary use includes the application of cost utilization tools, such as a dose restriction, including the dosage form, that causes a particular Part D drug not to be covered for the number of doses prescribed or a step therapy requirement that causes a particular Part D drug not to be covered until the requirements of the plan's coverage policy are met, or a therapeutic substitution requirement.
(1) The plan's formulary exceptions process must address each of the following circumstances:
(i) Situations where a formulary changes during the year, and situations where an enrollee is already using a given drug.
(ii) Continued coverage of a particular Part D prescription drug that the Part D plan sponsor is discontinuing coverage on the formulary for reasons other than safety or because the Part D prescription drug cannot be supplied by or was withdrawn from the market by the drug's manufacturer.
(iii) An exception to a plan's coverage policy that causes a Part D prescription drug not to be covered because of cost utilization tools, such as a requirement for step therapy, dosage limitations, or therapeutic substitution.
(2) The exception criteria of a Part D plan sponsor must include, but are not limited to—
(i) A description of the criteria a Part D plan sponsor uses to evaluate a prescribing physician's or other prescriber's determination made under paragraph (b)(5) of this section;
(ii) A process for gathering and comparing applicable medical and scientific evidence on the safety and effectiveness of the requested non-formulary drug with the formulary drug for the enrollee, including safety information generated by an authoritative government body; and
(iii) A description of the cost-sharing scheme that will be applied when coverage is provided for a non-formulary drug.
(3) If the Part D plan sponsor covers a non-formulary drug, the cost(s) incurred by the enrollee for that drug are treated as being included for purposes of calculating and meeting the annual out-of-pocket threshold.
(4) An enrollee, the enrollee's representative, or the prescribing physician or other prescriber (on behalf of the enrollee) may file a request for an exception.
(5) A prescribing physician or other prescriber must provide an oral or written supporting statement that the requested prescription drug is medically necessary to treat the enrollee's disease or medical condition because—
(i) All of the covered Part D drugs on any tier of a plan's formulary for treatment for the same condition would not be as effective for the enrollee as the non-formulary drug, would have adverse effects for the enrollee, or both;
(ii) The prescription drug alternative(s) listed on the formulary or required to be used in accordance with step therapy requirements—
(A) Has been ineffective in the treatment of the enrollee's disease or medical condition or, based on both sound clinical evidence and medical and scientific evidence and the known relevant physical or mental characteristics of the enrollee and known characteristics of the drug regimen, is likely to be ineffective or adversely affect the drug's effectiveness or patient compliance; or
(B) Has caused or based on sound clinical evidence and medical and scientific evidence, is likely to cause an adverse reaction or other harm to the enrollee; or
(iii) The number of doses that is available under a dose restriction for the prescription drug has been ineffective in the treatment of the enrollee's disease or medical condition or, based on both sound clinical evidence and medical and scientific evidence and the known relevant physical or mental characteristics of the enrollee and known characteristics of the drug regimen, is likely to be ineffective or adversely affect the drug's effectiveness or patient compliance.
(6) If the physician or other prescriber provides an oral supporting statement, the Part D plan sponsor may require the physician or other prescriber to subsequently provide a written supporting statement. The Part D plan sponsor may require the prescribing physician or other prescriber to provide additional supporting medical documentation as part of the written follow-up.
(c) Requirements for exceptions—(1) General rule. A decision by a Part D plan sponsor concerning an exceptions request under this section constitutes a coverage determination as specified at § 423.566.
(2) When a Part D plan sponsor does not make a timely decision. If the Part D plan sponsor fails to make a decision on an exceptions request and provide notice of the decision within the timeframe required under § 423.568(a) or § 423.572(a), as applicable, the failure constitutes an adverse coverage determination, and the Part D plan sponsor must forward the enrollee's request to the IRE within 24 hours of the expiration of the adjudication timeframe.
(3) When a tiering exceptions request is approved. Whenever an exceptions request made under paragraph (a) of this section is approved—
(i) The Part D plan sponsor may not require the enrollee to request approval for a refill, or a new prescription to continue using the Part D prescription drug after the refills for the initial prescription are exhausted, as long as—
(A) The enrollee's prescribing physician or other prescriber continues to prescribe the drug;
(B) The drug continues to be considered safe for treating the enrollee's disease or medical condition; and
(C) The enrollment period has not expired. If an enrollee renews his or her membership after the plan year, the plan may choose to continue coverage into the subsequent plan year.
(ii) The Part D plan sponsor must provide coverage for the approved prescription drug at the cost-sharing level that applies to preferred alternative drugs. If the plan's formulary contains alternative drugs on multiple tiers, cost-sharing must be assigned at the lowest applicable tier, under the requirements in paragraph (a) of this section.
(4) When a non-formulary exceptions request is approved. Whenever an exceptions request made under § 423.578(b) is approved—
(i) The Part D plan sponsor may not require the enrollee to request approval for a refill, or a new prescription to continue using the Part D prescription drug after the refills for the initial prescription are exhausted, as long as—
(A) The enrollee's prescribing physician or other prescriber continues to prescribe the drug;
(B) The drug continues to be considered safe for treating the enrollee's disease or medical condition; and
(C) The enrollment period has not expired. If an enrollee renews his or her membership after the plan year, the plan may choose to continue coverage into the subsequent plan year.
(ii) The Part D plan sponsor must not establish a special formulary tier or co-payment or other cost-sharing requirement that is applicable only to prescription drugs approved for coverage under this section.
(iii) An enrollee may not request a tiering exception for a non-formulary prescription drug approved under § 423.578(b).
(d) Notice regarding formulary changes. Whenever a Part D plan sponsor makes any negative formulary change, as defined in § 423.100, to its CMS-approved formulary, the Part D plan sponsor must provide notice in accordance with the requirements at § 423.120(b)(5) and (f).
(e) Limitation of the exceptions procedures to Part D drugs. Nothing in this section may be construed to allow an enrollee to use the exceptions processes set out in this section to request or be granted coverage for a prescription drug that does not meet the definition of a Part D drug.
(f) Implication of the physician's or other prescriber's supporting statement. Nothing in this section should be construed to mean that the physician's or other prescriber's supporting statement required for an exceptions request will result in an automatic favorable decision.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 1546, Jan. 12, 2009; 83 FR 16751, Apr. 16, 2018; 86 FR 6120, Jan. 19, 2021; 89 FR 30841, Apr. 23, 2024]
§ 423.580 Right to a redetermination.
An enrollee who has received a coverage determination (including one that is reopened and revised as described in § 423.1978) or an at-risk determination under a drug management program in accordance with § 423.153(f) may request that it be redetermined under the procedures described in § 423.582, which address requests for a standard redetermination. The prescribing physician or other prescriber (acting on behalf of an enrollee), upon providing notice to the enrollee, may request a standard redetermination under the procedures described in § 423.582. An enrollee or an enrollee's prescribing physician or other prescriber (acting on behalf of an enrollee) may request an expedited redetermination as specified in § 423.584.
[83 FR 16752, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 423.582 Request for a standard redetermination.
(a) Method and place for filing a request. An enrollee or an enrollee's prescribing physician or other prescriber (acting on behalf of the enrollee) must ask for a redetermination by making a written request with the Part D plan sponsor that made the coverage determination or the at-risk determination under a drug management program in accordance with § 423.153(f). The Part D plan sponsor may adopt a policy for accepting oral requests.
(b) Timeframe for filing a request. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a request for a redetermination must be filed within 60 calendar days after receipt of the written coverage determination notice or the at-risk determination under a drug management program in accordance with § 423.153(f).
(1) The date of receipt of the coverage determination or at-risk determination is presumed to be 5 calendar days after the date of the written coverage determination or at-risk determination, unless there is evidence to the contrary.
(2) For purposes of meeting the 60-calendar day filing deadline, the request is considered as filed on the date it is received by the Part D plan sponsor or delegated entity specified in the Part D plan sponsor's written coverage determination or at-risk determination.
(c) Extending the time for filing a request—(1) General rule. If an enrollee or prescribing physician or other prescriber acting on behalf of an enrollee shows good cause, the Part D plan sponsor may extend the timeframe for filing a request for redetermination.
(2) How to request an extension of timeframe. If the 60 calendar day period in which to file a request for a redetermination has expired, an enrollee or a prescribing physician or other prescriber acting on behalf of an enrollee may file a request for redetermination and extension of time frame with the Part D plan sponsor. The request for redetermination and to extend the timeframe must—
(i) Be in writing; and
(ii) State why the request for redetermination was not filed on time.
(d) Withdrawing a request. The person who files a request for redetermination may withdraw it by filing a request with the Part D sponsor.
(e) Dismissing a request. A Part D plan sponsor dismisses a redetermination request, either entirely or as to any stated issue, under any of the following circumstances:
(1) When the person or entity requesting a redetermination is not a proper party under § 423.580.
(2) When the Part D plan sponsor determines the party failed to make out a valid request for redetermination that substantially complies with paragraph (a) of this section.
(3) When the party fails to file the redetermination request within the proper filing time frame in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
(4) When the enrollee or the enrollee's representative files a request for redetermination, but the enrollee dies while the request is pending, and both of the following criteria apply:
(i) The enrollee's surviving spouse or estate has no remaining financial interest in the case.
(ii) The enrollee's representative, if any, does not wish to pursue the request for coverage.
(5) When a party filing the redetermination request submits a timely request for withdrawal of the request for a redetermination with the Part D plan sponsor.
(f) Notice of dismissal. The Part D plan sponsor must mail or otherwise transmit a written notice of the dismissal of the redetermination request to the parties. The notice must state all of the following:
(1) The reason for the dismissal.
(2) The right to request that the Part D plan sponsor vacate the dismissal action.
(3) The right to request review of the dismissal by the independent entity.
(g) Vacating a dismissal. If good cause is established, a Part D sponsor may vacate its dismissal of a request for redetermination within 6 months from the date of the notice of dismissal.
(h) Effect of dismissal. The dismissal of a request for redetermination is binding unless the enrollee or other party requests review by the IRE or the decision is vacated under paragraph (g) of this section.
[74 FR 1547, Jan. 12, 2009, as amended at 74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009; 83 FR 16752, Apr. 16, 2018; 86 FR 6120, Jan. 19, 2021; 89 FR 30841, Apr. 23, 2024]
§ 423.584 Expediting certain redeterminations.
(a) Who may request an expedited redetermination. An enrollee or an enrollee's prescribing physician or other prescriber may request that a Part D plan sponsor expedite a redetermination that involves the issues specified in § 423.566(b) or an at-risk determination made under a drug management program in accordance with § 423.153(f). (This does not include requests for payment of drugs already furnished.)
(b) Procedure and timeframe for filing a request. A request for a redetermination must be filed within 60 calendar days after receipt of the written coverage determination notice or at-risk determination notice. (1) To ask for an expedited redetermination, an enrollee or a prescribing physician or other prescriber acting on behalf of an enrollee must submit an oral or written request directly to the Part D plan sponsor or, if applicable, to the entity responsible for making the redetermination, as directed by the Part D plan sponsor.
(2) A prescribing physician or other prescriber may provide oral or written support for an enrollee's request for an expedited redetermination.
(3) The date of receipt of the coverage determination or at-risk determination is presumed to be 5 calendar days after the date of the written coverage determination or at-risk determination, unless there is evidence to the contrary.
(4) For purposes of meeting the 60-calendar day filing deadline, the request is considered as filed on the date it is received by the Part D plan sponsor or delegated entity specified in the Part D plan sponsor's written coverage determination or at-risk determination.
(c) How the Part D plan sponsor must process requests. The Part D plan sponsor must establish and maintain the following procedures for processing requests for expedited redetermination:
(1) Handling of requests. The Part D plan sponsor must establish an efficient and convenient means for individuals to submit oral or written requests, document all oral requests in writing, and maintain the documentation in the case file.
(2) Prompt decision making. The Part D plan sponsor must promptly decide whether to expedite the redetermination or follow the timeframe for standard redetermination based on the following requirements:
(i) For a request made by an enrollee, the Part D plan sponsor must provide an expedited redetermination if it determines that applying the standard timeframe for making a redetermination may seriously jeopardize the life or health of the enrollee or the enrollee's ability to regain maximum function.
(ii) For a request made or supported by a prescribing physician or other prescriber, the Part D plan sponsor must provide an expedited redetermination if the physician or other prescriber indicates that applying the standard timeframe for conducting a redetermination may seriously jeopardize the life or health of the enrollee or the enrollee's ability to regain maximum function.
(d) Actions following denial of a request. If a Part D plan sponsor denies a request for expedited redetermination, it must take the following actions:
(1) Make the determination within the 7 calendar day timeframe established in § 423.590(a). The 7 calendar day period begins the day the Part D plan sponsor receives the request for expedited redetermination.
(2) Give the enrollee prompt oral notice of the denial that—
(i) Explains that the Part D plan sponsor processes the enrollee's request using the 7 calendar day timeframe for standard redetermination;
(ii) Informs the enrollee of the right to file an expedited grievance if he or she disagrees with the decision by the Part D plan sponsor not to expedite;
(iii) Informs the enrollee of the right to resubmit a request for an expedited redetermination with the prescribing physician's or other prescriber's support; and
(iv) Provides instructions about the expedited grievance process and its timeframes.
(3) Subsequently deliver, within three calendar days, equivalent written notice.
(e) Action following acceptance of a request. If a Part D plan sponsor grants a request for expedited redetermination, it must conduct the redetermination and give notice in accordance with § 423.590(d).
(f) Dismissing a request. The Part D plan sponsor dismisses an expedited redetermination in accordance with § 423.582.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 20507, Apr. 15, 2008; 74 FR 1547, Jan. 12, 2009; 74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009; 83 FR 16752, Apr. 16, 2018; 86 FR 6120, Jan. 19, 2021; 89 FR 30841, Apr. 23, 2024; 89 FR 63828, Aug. 6, 2024]
§ 423.586 Opportunity to submit evidence.
The Part D plan sponsor must provide the enrollee or the prescribing physician or other prescriber, as appropriate, with a reasonable opportunity to present evidence and allegations of fact or law, related to the issue in dispute, in person as well as in writing. In the case of an expedited redetermination, the opportunity to present evidence is limited by the short timeframe for making a decision. Therefore, the Part D plan sponsor must inform the enrollee or the prescribing physician or other prescriber of the conditions for submitting the evidence.
[74 FR 1548, Jan. 12, 2009]
§ 423.590 Timeframes and responsibility for making redeterminations.
(a) Standard redetermination—request for covered drug benefits or review of an at-risk determination. (1) If the Part D plan sponsor makes a redetermination that is completely favorable to the enrollee, the Part D plan sponsor must notify the enrollee in writing of its redetermination (and effectuate it in accordance with § 423.636(a)(1) or (3) as expeditiously as the enrollee's health condition requires, but no later than 7 calendar days from the date it receives the request for a standard redetermination.
(2) If the Part D plan sponsor makes a redetermination that affirms, in whole or in part, its adverse coverage determination or at-risk determination, it must notify the enrollee in writing of its redetermination as expeditiously as the enrollee's health condition requires, but no later than 7 calendar days from the date it receives the request for a standard redetermination.
(b) Standard redetermination—request for payment. (1) If the Part D plan sponsor makes a redetermination that is completely favorable to the enrollee, the Part D plan sponsor must issue its redetermination (and effectuate it in accordance with § 423.636(a)(2)) no later than 14 calendar days from the date it receives the request for redetermination.
(2) If the Part D plan sponsor affirms, in whole or in part, its adverse coverage determination, it must notify the enrollee in writing of its redetermination no later than 14 calendar days from the date it receives the request for redetermination.
(c) Effect of failure to meet timeframe for standard redeterminations. If the Part D plan sponsor fails to provide the enrollee with a redetermination within the timeframes specified in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, the failure constitutes an adverse redetermination decision, and the Part D plan sponsor must forward the enrollee's request to the IRE within 24 hours of the expiration of the adjudication timeframe.
(d) Expedited redetermination—(1) Timeframe. A Part D plan sponsor that approves a request for expedited redetermination must complete its redetermination and give the enrollee (and the prescribing physician or other prescriber involved, as appropriate), notice of its decision as expeditiously as the enrollee's health condition requires but no later than 72 hours after receiving the request.
(2) Confirmation of oral notice. If the Part D plan sponsor first notifies an enrollee of an adverse or favorable expedited redetermination orally, it must mail written confirmation to the enrollee within 3 calendar days of the oral notification.
(3) How the Part D plan sponsor must request additional information. If the Part D plan sponsor must receive medical information, the Part D plan sponsor must request the necessary information within 24 hours of the initial request for an expedited redetermination. Regardless of whether the Part D plan sponsor requests additional information, the Part D plan sponsor is responsible for meeting the timeframe and notice requirements.
(e) Failure to meet timeframe for expedited redetermination. If the Part D plan sponsor fails to provide the enrollee or the prescribing physician or other prescriber, as appropriate, with the results of its expedited redetermination within the timeframe described in paragraph (d) of this section, the failure constitutes an adverse redetermination decision, and the Part D plan sponsor must forward the enrollee's request to the IRE within 24 hours of the expiration of the adjudication timeframe.
(f) Who must conduct the review of an adverse coverage determination or at-risk determination. (1) A person or persons who were not involved in making the coverage determination or an at-risk determination under a drug management program in accordance with § 423.153(f) must conduct the redetermination.
(2) When the issue is the denial of coverage based on a lack of medical necessity (or any substantively equivalent term used to describe the concept of medical necessity), the redetermination must be made by a physician with expertise in the field of medicine that is appropriate for the services at issue. The physician making the redetermination need not, in all cases, be of the same specialty or subspecialty as the prescribing physician or other prescriber.
(g) Form and content of an adverse redetermination notice. The notice of any adverse determination under paragraphs (a)(2), (b)(2), (d)(1) or (d)(2) of this section must—
(1) Use approved notice language in a readable and understandable form;
(2) State the specific reasons for the denial;
(3) Inform the enrollee of his or her right to a reconsideration;
(i) For adverse drug coverage redeterminations, or redeterminations related to a drug management program in accordance with § 423.153(f), describe both the standard and expedited reconsideration processes, including the enrollee's right to, and conditions for, obtaining an expedited reconsideration and the rest of the appeals process;
(ii) For adverse payment redeterminations, describe the standard reconsideration process and the rest of the appeals process; and
(4) Comply with any other notice requirements specified by CMS.
(h) Form and content of a completely favorable redetermination notice. The notice of any completely favorable determination under paragraphs (a)(1), (d)(1) or (d)(2) of this section must explain the conditions of the approval in a readable and understandable form.
(i) Automatic forwarding of redeterminations made under a drug management program. If on redetermination the plan sponsor affirms, in whole or in part, its denial related to an at-risk determination under a drug management program in accordance with § 423.153(f), the Part D plan sponsor must forward the case to the IRE contracted with CMS within 24 hours of the expiration of the applicable adjudication timeframe under paragraph (a)(2), (b)(2), or (d)(1) of this section.
(j) Requests for review of a dismissal by the independent entity. If the Part D plan sponsor dismisses a request for a reconsideration in accordance with § 423.582(e) or § 423.584(f), the enrollee or other proper party has the right to request review of the dismissal by the independent entity. A request for review of a dismissal must be filed in writing with the independent entity within 60 calendar days from the date of the Part D plan sponsor's dismissal notice.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 1548, Jan. 12, 2009; 75 FR 19823, Apr. 15, 2010; 83 FR 16752, Apr. 16, 2018; 86 FR 6120, Jan. 19, 2021]
§ 423.600 Reconsideration by an independent review entity (IRE).
(a) An enrollee who is dissatisfied with the redetermination of a Part D plan sponsor has a right to a reconsideration by an independent review entity that contracts with CMS. The prescribing physician or other prescriber (acting on behalf of an enrollee), upon providing notice to the enrollee, may request an IRE reconsideration. The enrollee, or the enrollee's prescribing physician or other prescriber (acting on behalf of the enrollee) must file a written request for reconsideration with the IRE within 60 calendar days after receipt of the written redetermination by the Part D plan sponsor.
(1) The date of receipt of the redetermination is presumed to be 5 calendar days after the date of the Part D plan sponsor's written redetermination, unless there is evidence to the contrary.
(2) For purposes of meeting the 60-calendar day filing deadline, the request is considered as filed on the date it is received by the IRE specified in the Part D plan sponsor's written redetermination.
(b) When an enrollee, or an enrollee's prescribing physician or other prescriber (acting on behalf of the enrollee), files an appeal or a determination is forwarded to the IRE by a Part D plan sponsor, the IRE is required to solicit the views of the prescribing physician or other prescriber.
(1) The IRE may solicit the views of the prescribing physician or other prescriber orally or in writing.
(2) A written account of the prescribing physician's or other prescriber's views (prepared by either the prescribing physician, other prescriber, or IRE, as appropriate) must be contained in the IRE record.
(c) In order for an enrollee or a prescribing physician or other prescriber (acting on behalf of an enrollee) to request an IRE reconsideration of a determination by a Part D plan sponsor not to provide for a Part D drug that is not on the formulary, the prescribing physician or other prescriber must determine that all covered Part D drugs on any tier of the formulary for treatment of the same condition would not be as effective for the individual as the non-formulary drug, would have adverse effects for the individual, or both.
(d) The independent review entity must conduct the reconsideration as expeditiously as the enrollee's health condition requires but must not exceed the deadlines applicable in § 423.590, including those deadlines that are applicable when a request for an expedited reconsideration is received and granted.
(e) When the issue is the denial of coverage based on a lack of medical necessity (or any substantively equivalent term used to describe the concept of medical necessity), the reconsideration must be made by a physician with expertise in the field of medicine that is appropriate for the services at issue. The physician making the reconsideration need not, in all cases, be of the same specialty or subspecialty as the prescribing physician or other prescriber.
(f) The party who files a request for reconsideration may withdraw it by filing a request with the IRE.
(g) The independent entity dismisses a reconsideration request, either entirely or as to any stated issue, under any of the following circumstances:
(1) When the person or entity requesting a reconsideration is not a proper party under paragraph (a) of this section.
(2) When the IRE determines the party failed to make out a valid request for reconsideration that substantially complies with paragraph (a) of this section.
(3) When the party fails to file the reconsideration request within the proper filing time frame in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.
(4) When an enrollee or the enrollee's representative files a request for reconsideration, but the enrollee dies while the request is pending, and both of the following criteria apply:
(i) The enrollee's surviving spouse or estate has no remaining financial interest in the case.
(ii) The enrollee's representative, if any, does not wish to continue the appeal.
(5) When a party filing the reconsideration request submits a timely request for withdrawal of the request for a reconsideration with the IRE.
(h) The IRE mails or otherwise transmits a written notice of the dismissal of the reconsideration request to the parties. The notice must state all of the following:
(1) The reason for the dismissal.
(2) That there is a right to request that the IRE vacate the dismissal action.
(3) The right to a review of the dismissal in accordance with § 423.2004.
(i) If good cause is established, the IRE may vacate its dismissal of a request for redetermination within 6 months from the date of the notice of dismissal.
(j) An enrollee has a right to have an IRE's dismissal reconsidered in accordance with § 423.2004.
(k) If the IRE determines that the Part D plan sponsor's dismissal was in error, the IRE vacates the dismissal and remands the case to the Part D plan sponsor for reconsideration consistent with § 423.590. The IRE's decision regarding an Part D plan sponsor's dismissal, including a decision to deny a request for review of a dismissal, is binding and not subject to further review.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 1548, Jan. 12, 2009; 74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009; 77 FR 22171, Apr. 12, 2012; 86 FR 6120, Jan. 19, 2021; 89 FR 30841, Apr. 23, 2024]
§ 423.602 Notice of reconsideration determination by the independent review entity.
(a) Responsibility for the notice. When the IRE makes its reconsideration determination, it is responsible for mailing a notice of its determination to the enrollee and the Part D plan sponsor, and for sending a copy to CMS. When the prescribing physician or other prescriber requests the reconsideration on behalf of the enrollee, the IRE is also responsible for notifying the prescribing physician or other prescriber of its decision.
(b) Content of the notice. The notice must—
(1) State the specific reasons for the IRE's decision in understandable language;
(2) If the reconsideration determination is adverse (that is, does not completely reverse the adverse coverage determination or redetermination by the Part D plan sponsor), inform the enrollee of his or her right to an ALJ hearing if the amount in controversy meets the threshold requirement under § 423.2006;
(3) Describe the procedures that must be followed to obtain an ALJ hearing; and
(4) Comply with any other requirements specified by CMS.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009; 77 FR 22171, Apr. 12, 2012; 83 FR 16752, Apr. 16, 2018; 84 FR 19872, May 7, 2019]
§ 423.604 Effect of a reconsideration determination.
A reconsideration determination is final and binding on the enrollee and the Part D plan sponsor, unless the enrollee files a request for a hearing under the provisions of § 423.2014.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009; 84 FR 19872, May 7, 2019]
§§ 423.610-423.634 [Reserved]
§ 423.636 How a Part D plan sponsor must effectuate standard redeterminations, reconsiderations, or decisions.
(a) Reversals by the Part D plan sponsor—(1) Requests for benefits. If, on redetermination of a request for benefit, the Part D plan sponsor reverses its coverage determination, the Part D plan sponsor must authorize or provide the benefit under dispute as expeditiously as the enrollee's health condition requires, but no later than 7 calendar days from the date it receives the request for redetermination.
(2) Requests for payment. If, on redetermination of a request for payment, the Part D plan sponsor reverses its coverage determination, the Part D plan sponsor must authorize payment for the benefit within 14 calendar days from the date it receives the request for redetermination, and make payment no later than 30 calendar days after the date the plan sponsor receives the request for redetermination.
(3) Review of an at-risk determination. If, on redetermination of an at-risk determination made under a drug management program in accordance with § 423.153(f), the Part D plan sponsor reverses its at-risk determination, the Part D plan sponsor must implement the change to the at-risk determination as expeditiously as the enrollee's health condition requires, but no later than 7 calendar days from the date it receives the request for redetermination.
(b) Reversals other than by the Part D plan sponsor—(1) Requests for benefits. If, on appeal of a request for benefit, the determination by the Part D plan sponsor is reversed in whole or in part by the independent review entity, or at a higher level of appeal, the Part D plan sponsor must authorize or provide the benefit under dispute within 72 hours from the date it receives notice reversing the determination. The Part D plan sponsor must inform the independent review entity that the Part D plan sponsor has effectuated the decision.
(2) Requests for payment. If, on appeal of a request for payment, the determination by the Part D plan sponsor is reversed in whole or in part by the independent review entity, or at a higher level of appeal, the Part D plan sponsor must authorize payment for the benefit within 72 hours, but make payment no later than 30 calendar days from the date it receives notice reversing the coverage determination. The Part D plan sponsor must inform the independent review entity that the Part D plan sponsor has effectuated the decision.
(3) Review of an at-risk determination. If, on appeal of an at-risk determination made under a drug management program in accordance with § 423.153(f), the determination by the Part D plan sponsor is reversed in whole or in part by the independent review entity, or at a higher level of appeal, the Part D plan sponsor must implement the change to the at-risk determination within 72 hours from the date it receives notice reversing the determination. The Part D plan sponsor must inform the independent review entity that the Part D plan sponsor has effectuated the decision.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 83 FR 16752, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 423.638 How a Part D plan sponsor must effectuate expedited redeterminations or reconsiderations.
(a) Reversals by the Part D plan sponsor—(1) Requests for benefits. If, on an expedited redetermination of a request for benefits, the Part D plan sponsor reverses its coverage determination, the Part D plan sponsor must authorize or provide the benefit under dispute as expeditiously as the enrollee's health condition requires, but no later than 72 hours after the date the Part D plan sponsor receives the request for redetermination.
(2) Review of an at-risk determination. If, on an expedited redetermination of an at-risk determination made under a drug management program in accordance with § 423.153(f), the Part D plan sponsor reverses its at-risk determination, the Part D plan sponsor must implement the change to the at-risk determination as expeditiously as the enrollee's health condition requires, but no later than 72 hours after the date the Part D plan sponsor receives the request for redetermination.
(b) Reversals other than by the Part D plan sponsor—(1) Requests for benefits. If the expedited determination or expedited redetermination for benefits by the Part D plan sponsor is reversed in whole or in part by the independent review entity, or at a higher level of appeal, the Part D plan sponsor must authorize or provide the benefit under dispute as expeditiously as the enrollee's health condition requires but no later than 24 hours from the date it receives notice reversing the determination. The Part D plan sponsor must inform the independent review entity that the Part D plan sponsor has effectuated the decision.
(2) Review of an at-risk determination. If the expedited redetermination of an at-risk determination made under a drug management program in accordance with § 423.153(f) by the Part D plan sponsor is reversed in whole or in part by the independent review entity, or at a higher level of appeal, the Part D plan sponsor must implement the change to the at-risk determination as expeditiously as the enrollee's health condition requires but no later than 24 hours from the date it receives notice reversing the determination. The Part D plan sponsor must inform the independent review entity that the Part D plan sponsor has effectuated the decision.
[83 FR 16753, Apr. 16, 2013]
Subpart N Medicare Contract Determinations and Appeals
§ 423.641 Contract determinations.
This subpart establishes the procedures for reviewing the following contract determinations:
(a) A determination that an entity is not qualified to enter into a contract with CMS under Part D of title XVIII of the Act.
(b) A determination not to authorize a renewal of a contract with a PDP sponsor in accordance with § 423.507(b).
(c) A determination to terminate a contract with a PDP sponsor in accordance with § 423.509.
(d) Fallback entities are governed under subpart Q of this part, and are not subject to this subpart, except to the extent a fallback prescription drug plan contract is terminated by CMS.
§ 423.642 Notice of contract determination.
(a) When CMS makes a contract determination under § 423.641, it gives the PDP sponsor written notice.
(b) The notice specifies the—
(1) Reasons for the determination; and
(2) The Part D sponsor's right to request a hearing.
(c) CMS-initiated terminations—(1) General rule. Except as provided in (c)(2) of this section, CMS mails notice to the Part D plan sponsor 45 calendar days before the anticipated effective date of the termination.
(2) Exception. If a contract is terminated in accordance with § 423.509(b)(2)(i) of this part, CMS notifies the Part D plan sponsor of the date that it will terminate the Part D plan sponsor's contract.
(d) When CMS determines that it will not authorize a contract renewal, CMS mails the notice to the Part D sponsor by August 1 of the current contract year.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 72 FR 68733, Dec. 5, 2007; 75 FR 19823, Apr. 15, 2010; 79 FR 29965, May 23, 2014]
§ 423.643 Effect of contract determination.
The contract determination is final and binding unless a timely request for a hearing is filed under 423.651.
[72 FR 68733, Dec. 5, 2007]
§ 423.650 Right to a hearing, burden of proof, standard of proof, and standards of review.
(a) Right to a hearing. The following parties are entitled to a hearing:
(1) A contract applicant that has been determined to be unqualified to enter into a contract with CMS under Part D of Title XVIII of the Act in accordance with § 423.502 and § 423.503 of this part.
(2) A Part D sponsor whose contract has been terminated in accordance with § 423.509 of this part.
(3) A Part D sponsor whose contract has not been renewed in accordance with § 423.507 of this part.
(4) A Part D sponsor who has had an intermediate sanction imposed in accordance with § 423.752(a) through (b).
(b) Burden of proof, standard of proof, and standard of review at hearing. (1) During a hearing to review a contract determination as described at § 423.641(a) of this subpart, the applicant has the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that CMS' determination was inconsistent with the requirements of § 423.502 and § 423.503 of this part.
(2) During a hearing to review a contract determination as described at § 423.641(b) of this part, the Part D plan sponsor has the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that CMS' determination was inconsistent with the requirements of § 423.507 of this part.
(3) During a hearing to review a contract determination as described at § 423.641(c) of this subpart, the Part D plan sponsor has the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that CMS' determination was inconsistent with the requirements of § 423.509 of this part.
(4) During a hearing to review the imposition of an intermediate sanction as described at § 423.750 of this part, the Part D sponsor has the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that CMS' determination was inconsistent with the requirements of § 423.752 of this part.
(c) Timing of favorable decision. Notice of any decision favorable to the Part D sponsor appealing a determination that it is not qualified to enter into a contract with CMS must be issued by September 1 for the contract in question to be effective on January 1 of the following year.
[75 FR 19824, Apr. 15, 2010, as amended at 80 FR 7965, Feb. 12, 2015]
§ 423.651 Request for hearing.
(a) Method and place for filing a request. (1) A request for a hearing must be made in writing and filed by an authorized official of the contract applicant or Part D plan sponsor that was the party to the determination under the appeal.
(2) The request for the hearing must be filed in accordance with the requirements specified in the notice.
(b) Time for filing a request. A request for a hearing must be filed within 15 calendar days after the receipt of the notice of the contract determination or intermediate sanction.
(c) Parties to a hearing. The parties to a hearing must be—
(1) The parties described in § 423.650;
(2) At the discretion of the hearing officer, any interested parties who make a showing that their rights may be prejudiced by the decision to be rendered at the hearing; and
(3) CMS.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 72 FR 68734, Dec. 5, 2007; 75 FR 19824, Apr. 15, 2010]
§ 423.652 Postponement of effective date of a contract determination when a request for a hearing is filed timely.
(a) Hearing. When a request for a hearing is timely filed, CMS will postpone the proposed effective date of the contract determination listed at 423.641 until a hearing decision is reached and affirmed by the Administrator following review pursuant to 423.666 in instances where a Part D sponsor or CMS requests Administrator review and the Administrator accepts the matter for review.
(b) Exceptions: (1) If a final decision is not reached on CMS' determination for an initial contract by September 1, CMS will not enter into a contract with the applicant for the following year.
(2) A contract terminated in accordance with § 423.509(b)(2)(i) of this part will be terminated on the date specified by CMS and will not be postponed if a hearing is requested.
[72 FR 68734, Dec. 5, 2007, as amended at 75 FR 19824, Apr. 15, 2010; 83 FR 16753, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 423.653 Designation of hearing officer.
CMS designates a hearing officer to conduct the hearing. The hearing officer need not be an ALJ.
§ 423.654 Disqualification of hearing officer.
(a) A hearing officer may not conduct a hearing in a case in which he or she is prejudiced or partial to any party or has any interest in the matter pending for decision.
(b) A party to the hearing who objects to the designated hearing officer must notify that officer in writing at the earliest opportunity.
(c) The hearing officer must consider the objections, and may, at his or her discretion, either proceed with the hearing or withdraw.
(1) If the hearing officer withdraws, CMS designates another hearing officer to conduct the hearing.
(2) If the hearing officer does not withdraw, the objecting party may, after the hearing, present objections and request that the officer's decision be revised or a new hearing be held before another hearing officer. The objections must be submitted in writing to CMS.
§ 423.655 Time and place of hearing.
(a) The hearing officer—
(1) Fixes a time and place for the hearing, which is not to exceed 30 calendar days after the receipt of request for the hearing;
(2) Sends written notice to the parties that informs the parties of the general and specific issues to be resolved, the burden of proof, and information about the hearing procedure.
(b)(1) The hearing officer may, on his or her own motion, change the time and place of the hearing.
(2) The hearing officer may adjourn or postpone the hearing.
(c)(1) The Part D plan sponsor or CMS may request an extension by filing a written request no later than 10 calendar days prior to the scheduled hearing.
(2) When either the Part D plan sponsor or CMS requests an extension the hearing officer will provide a one-time 15-calendar day extension.
(3) Additional extensions may be granted at the discretion of the hearing officer.
[75 FR 19824, Apr. 15, 2010]
§ 423.656 Appointment of representatives.
A party may appoint as its representative at the hearing anyone not disqualified or suspended from acting as a representative before the Secretary or otherwise prohibited by law.
§ 423.657 Authority of representatives.
(a) A representative appointed and qualified in accordance with § 423.656, on behalf of the represented party—
(1) Gives or accepts any notice or request pertinent to the proceedings set forth in this subpart;
(2) Presents evidence and allegations as to facts and law in any proceedings affecting that party; and
(3) Obtains information to the same extent as the party.
(b) A notice or request sent to the representative has the same force and effect as if it is sent to the party.
§ 423.658 Conduct of hearing.
(a) The hearing is open to the parties and to the public.
(b) The hearing officer inquires fully into all the matters at issue and receives in evidence the testimony of witnesses and any documents that are relevant and material.
(c) The hearing officer provides the parties an opportunity to enter any objection to the inclusion of any document.
(d) The Part D sponsor bears the burden of going forward and must first present evidence and argument before CMS presents its evidence and argument.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 19824, Apr. 15, 2010]
§ 423.659 Evidence.
The hearing officer rules on the admissibility of evidence and may admit evidence that is inadmissible under rules applicable to court procedures.
§ 423.660 Witnesses.
(a) The hearing officer may examine the witnesses.
(b) The parties or their representatives are permitted to examine their witnesses and cross-examine witnesses of other parties.
§ 423.661 Witnesses lists and documents.
Witness lists and documents must be identified and exchanged at least 5 calendar days prior to the scheduled hearing
[75 FR 19824, Apr. 15, 2010]
§ 423.662 Prehearing and summary judgment.
(a) Prehearing. The hearing officer may schedule a prehearing conference if he or she believes that a conference would more clearly define the issues.
(b) Summary judgment. Either party to the hearing, may ask the hearing officer to rule on a motion for summary judgment.
[72 FR 68734, Dec. 5, 2007]
§ 423.663 Record of hearing.
(a) A complete record of the proceedings at the hearing is made and transcribed and made available to all parties upon request.
(b) The record may not be closed until a hearing decision is issued.
§ 423.664 Authority of hearing officer.
In exercising his or her authority, the hearing officer must comply with the provisions of title XVIII and related provisions of the Act, the regulations issued by the Secretary, and general instructions issued by CMS in implementing the Act.
§ 423.665 Notice and effect of hearing decision.
(a) As soon as practical after the close of the hearing, the hearing officer issues a written decision that—
(1) Is based upon the evidence of record; and
(2) Contains separately numbered findings of fact and conclusions of law.
(b) The hearing officer provides a copy of the hearing decision to each party.
(c) The hearing decision is final and binding unless it is reversed or modified by the Administrator following review under § 423.666, or reopened and revised in accordance with § 423.668.
§ 423.666 Review by the Administrator.
(a) Request for review by Administrator. CMS or a Part D plan sponsor that has received a hearing decision may request a review by the Administrator within 15 calendar days after receipt of the hearing decision as provided under § 423.665(b) of this subpart. Both the Part D plan sponsor and CMS may provide written arguments to the Administrator for review.
(b) Decision to review the hearing decision. After receiving a request for review, the Administrator has the discretion to elect to review the hearing determination in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section or to decline to review the hearing decision.
(c) Notification of Administrator determination. The Administrator notifies both parties of his or her determination regarding review of the hearing decision within 30 calendar days after receipt of request for review. If the Administrator declines to review the hearing decision or the Administrator does not make a determination regarding review within 30 calendar days, the decision of the hearing officer is final.
(d) Review by the Administrator. If the Administrator elects to review the hearing decision regarding a contract determination, the Administrator shall review the hearing officer's decision and determine, based upon this decision, the hearing record, and any written arguments submitted by the Part D sponsor or CMS, whether the determination should be upheld, reversed, or modified.
(e) Decision by the Administrator. The Administrator issues a written decision, and furnishes the decision to the PDP sponsor requesting review.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 72 FR 68734, Dec. 5, 2007; 75 FR 19824, Apr. 15, 2010]
§ 423.667 Effect of Administrator's decision.
A decision by the Administrator under section § 423.666(c) is final and binding unless it is reopened and revised in accordance with § 423.668.
§ 423.668 Reopening of a contract determination or decision of a hearing officer or the Administrator.
(a) CMS may reopen and revise an initial determination upon its own motion.
(b) Contract determination. A decision of a hearing officer that is unfavorable to any party and is otherwise final may be reopened and revised by the hearing officer upon the officer's own motion within 1 year of the notice of the hearing decision. Another hearing officer designated by CMS may reopen and revise the decision if the hearing officer who issued the decision is unavailable.
(c) Decision of Administrator. A decision by the Administrator that is otherwise final may be reopened and revised by the Administrator upon the Administrator's own motion within 1 year of the notice of the Administrator's decision.
(d) Notices. (1) The notice of reopening and of any revisions following the reopening is mailed to the parties.
(2) The notice of revision specifies the reasons for revisions.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 72 FR 68734, Dec. 5, 2007; 75 FR 19824, Apr. 15, 2010]
Subpart O Intermediate Sanctions
§ 423.750 Types of intermediate sanctions and civil money penalties.
(a) The following intermediate sanctions may be imposed and will continue in effect until CMS is satisfied that the deficiencies that are the basis for the sanction determination have been corrected and are not likely to recur:
(1) Suspension of the Part D plan sponsor's enrollment of Medicare beneficiaries.
(2) Suspension of payment to the Part D plan sponsor for Medicare beneficiaries enrolled after the date CMS notifies the organization of the intermediate sanction.
(3) Suspension of communication activities to Medicare beneficiaries by a Part D plan sponsor, as defined by CMS.
(b) CMS may impose civil money penalties as specified in 423.760.
[72 FR 68734, Dec. 5, 2007, as amended at 75 FR 19824, Apr. 15, 2010; 83 FR 16753, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 423.752 Basis for imposing intermediate sanctions and civil money penalties.
(a) All intermediate sanctions. For the violations listed in this paragraph (a), CMS may impose one or more of the sanctions specified in § 423.750(a) of this subpart on any Part D plan sponsor with a contract. The Part D plan sponsor may also be subject to other remedies authorized under law.
(1) Fails substantially to provide medically necessary items and services that are required (under law or under the contract) to be provided to an individual covered under the contract, if the failure has adversely affected (or has the substantial likelihood of adversely affecting) the individual.
(2) Imposes on Part D plan enrollees premiums in excess of the monthly basic and supplemental beneficiary premiums permitted under section 1860D-1 et seq. of the Act and subpart F of this part.
(3) Acts to expel or refuses to re-enroll a beneficiary in violation of the provisions of this part.
(4) Engages in any practice that would reasonably be expected to have the effect of denying or discouraging enrollment (except as permitted by this part) by eligible individuals with the organization whose medical condition or history indicates a need for substantial future medical services.
(5) Misrepresents or falsifies information that it furnishes—
(i) To CMS; or
(ii) To an individual or to any other entity under the Part D drug benefit program.
(6) Employs or contracts with an individual or entity who is excluded from participation in Medicare under section 1128 or 1128A of the Act (or with an entity that employs or contracts with an excluded individual or entity) for the provision of any of the following:
(i) Health care.
(ii) Utilization review.
(iii) Medical social work.
(iv) Administrative services.
(7) Except as provided under § 423.34, enrolls an individual in any plan under this part without the prior consent of the individual or the designee of the individual.
(8) Transfers an individual enrolled under this part from one plan to another without the prior consent of the individual or the designee of the individual or solely for the purpose of earning a commission.
(9) Fails to comply with communication restrictions described in subpart V of this part or applicable implementing guidance.
(10) Employs or contracts with any individual, agent, provider, supplier or entity who engages in the conduct described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) of this section.
(b) Suspension of enrollment and communications. If CMS makes a determination that could lead to a contract termination under § 423.509(a), CMS may impose the intermediate sanctions at § 423.750(a)(1) and (3).
(c) Civil money penalties (1) CMS. In addition to, or in place of, any intermediate sanctions, CMS may impose civil money penalties in the amounts specified in either of the following:
(i) Section 423.760(b) for any of the determinations at § 423.509(a), except § 423.509(a)(4)(i).
(ii) Section 423.760(c) for any of the determinations in paragraph (a) of this section except § 422.752(a)(5) of this chapter.
(2) OIG. In addition to, or in place of any intermediate sanctions imposed by CMS, the OIG, in accordance with part 1003 of Chapter V of this title, may impose civil money penalties for the following:
(i) Violations listed at 423.752(a).
(ii) Determinations made pursuant to § 422.510(a)(4)(i) of this chapter.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 72 FR 68734, Dec. 5, 2007; 75 FR 19825, Apr. 15, 2010; 79 FR 29965, May 23, 2014; 83 FR 16753, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 423.756 Procedures for imposing intermediate sanctions and civil money penalties.
(a) Notice of intermediate sanction and opportunity to respond—(1) Notice of intent. Before imposing the intermediate sanctions, CMS—
(i) Sends a written notice to the Part D plan sponsor stating the nature and basis of the proposed intermediate sanction, and the Part D plan sponsor's right to a hearing as specified in paragraph (b) of this section; and
(ii) Sends the OIG a copy of the notice.
(2) Opportunity to respond. CMS allows the Part D plan sponsor 10 calendar days after receipt of the notice to provide a written rebuttal. CMS considers receipt of the notice as the day after notice is sent by fax, e-mail, or submitted for overnight mail.
(b) Hearing. (1) The Part D plan sponsor may request a hearing before a CMS hearing officer.
(2) A written request must be received by the designated CMS office within 15 calendar days after the receipt of the notice.
(3) A request for a hearing under § 423.650 of this part does not delay the date specified by CMS when the sanction becomes effective.
(4) The Part D plan sponsor must follow the right to a hearing procedure as specified at subpart N of this part.
(c) Effective date and duration of sanctions—(1) Effective date. The effective date of the sanction is the date specified by CMS in the notice.
(2) Exception. If CMS determines that the Part D sponsor's conduct poses a serious threat to an enrollee's health and safety, CMS may make the sanction effective on an earlier date that CMS specifies.
(3) Duration of sanction. The sanction remains in effect until CMS is satisfied that the deficiencies that are the basis for the sanction determination have been corrected and are not likely to recur.
(i) CMS may require that the Part D plan sponsor hire an independent auditor to provide CMS with additional information to determine if the deficiencies that are the basis for the sanction determination have been corrected and are not likely to recur. The independent auditor must work in accordance with CMS specifications and must be willing to attest that a complete and full independent review has been performed.
(ii) In instances where intermediate sanctions have been imposed, CMS may require a Part D plan sponsor to market or to accept enrollments or both for a limited period of time in order to assist CMS in making a determination as to whether the deficiencies that are the bases for the intermediate sanctions have been corrected and are not likely to recur.
(A) If, following this time period, CMS determines the deficiencies have not been corrected or are likely to recur, the intermediate sanctions will remain in effect until such time that CMS is assured the deficiencies have been corrected and are not likely to recur.
(B) The Part D plan sponsor does not have a right to a hearing under § 423.650(a)(4) of this subpart to challenge CMS' determination to keep the intermediate sanctions in effect.
(C) During the limited time period, sanctioned Part D plan sponsors under the benchmark that would normally participate in the annual and monthly auto enrollment process for enrollees receiving the low income subsidy will not be allowed to receive or process these types of enrollments.
(d) Non-renewal or termination by CMS. In addition to or as an alternative to the sanctions described in § 423.750, CMS may decline to authorize the renewal of an organization's contract in accordance with § 423.507(b), or terminate the contract in accordance with § 423.509.
(1) Decline to authorize the renewal of an organization's contract in accordance with § 423.507(b); or
(2) Terminate the contract in accordance with § 423.509.
(e) Notice to impose civil money penalties—(1) CMS notice to OIG. If CMS determines that a Part D sponsor has committed an act or failed to comply with a requirement as described in 423.752, CMS notifies the OIG of this determination. OIG may impose a civil money penalty upon a Part D sponsor as specified at 423.752(c)(2).
(2) CMS notice of civil money penalties to Part D plan sponsors. If CMS makes a determination to impose a CMP described in 423.752(c)(1), CMS will send a written notice of the Agency's decision to impose a civil money penalty to include—
(i) A description of the basis for the determination.
(ii) The basis for the penalty.
(iii) The amount of the penalty.
(iv) The date the penalty is due.
(v) The Part D sponsor's right to a hearing as specified under Subpart T of this part.
(vi) Information about where to file the request for hearing.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 72 FR 68735, Dec. 5, 2007; 73 FR 55764, Sept. 26, 2008; 75 FR 19825, Apr. 15, 2010; 79 FR 29965, May 23, 2014; 83 FR 16753, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 423.758 Collection of civil money penalties imposed by CMS.
(a) When a Part D plan sponsor does not request a hearing CMS initiates collection of the civil money penalty following the expiration of the timeframe for requesting an ALJ hearing as specified in subpart T.
(b) If a Part D sponsor requests a hearing and CMS' decision to impose a civil money penalty is upheld, CMS may initiate collection of the civil money penalty once the administrative decision is final.
[72 FR 68735, Dec. 5, 2007]
§ 423.760 Determinations regarding the amount of civil money penalties and assessment imposed by CMS.
(a) Determining the appropriate amount of any penalty. In determining the amount of penalty imposed under § 423.752(c)(1), CMS considers the following as appropriate:
(1) The nature of the conduct.
(2) The degree of culpability of the Part D sponsor.
(3) The adverse effect to enrollees which resulted or could have resulted from the conduct of the Part D sponsor.
(4) The financial condition of the Part D sponsor.
(5) The history of prior offenses by the Part D sponsor or principals of the Part D sponsor.
(6) Such other matters as justice may require.
(b) Amount of penalty. CMS may impose civil money penalties in the following amounts:
(1) If the deficiency on which the determination is based has directly adversely affected (or has the substantial likelihood of adversely affecting) one or more Part D enrollees—up to $25,000 as adjusted annually under 45 CFR part 102 for each determination.
(2) If the deficiency on which the determination is based has directly adversely affected (or has the substantial likelihood of adversely affecting) one or more Part D enrollees, CMS may calculate a CMP of up to $25,000 as adjusted annually under 45 CFR part 102 for each Part D enrollee directly adversely affected (or with a substantial likelihood of being adversely affected) by a deficiency .
(3)(i) Definitions for calculating penalty amounts—
(A) Per determination. The penalty amounts calculated under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(B) Per enrollee. The penalty amounts calculated under paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
(C) Standard minimum penalty. The per enrollee or per determination penalty amount that is dependent on the type of adverse impact that occurred.
(D) Aggravating factor(s). Specific penalty amounts that may increase the per enrollee or per determination standard minimum penalty and are determined based on criteria under paragraph (a) of this section.
(ii) CMS sets minimum penalty amounts in accordance with paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.
(iii) CMS announces the standard minimum penalty amounts and aggravating factor amounts for per determination and per enrollee penalties on an annual basis.
(iv) CMS has the discretion to issue penalties up to the maximum amount under paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section when CMS determines that an organization's non-compliance warrants a penalty that is higher than would be applied under the minimum penalty amounts set by CMS.
(4) For each week that a deficiency remains uncorrected after the week in which the Part D sponsor receives CMS' notice of the determination—up to $10,000 as adjusted annually under 45 CFR part 102.
(5) If CMS makes a determination that a Part D sponsor has terminated its contract other than in a manner described under 423.510 and that the Part D sponsor has therefore failed to substantially carry out the terms of the contract, $250 as adjusted annually under 45 CFR part 102 per Medicare enrollee from the terminated Part D sponsor or plans at the time the Part D sponsor terminated its contract, or $100,000 as adjusted annually under 45 CFR part 102, whichever is greater.
(c) Amount of penalty imposed by CMS or OIG. CMS or the OIG may impose civil money penalties in the following amounts for a determination made under § 423.752(a):
(1) Civil money penalties of not more than $25,000 as adjusted annually under 45 CFR part 102 for each determination made.
(2) With respect to a determination made under § 423.752(a)(4) or (a)(5)(i), not more than $100,000 as adjusted annually under 45 CFR part 102 for each such determination except with respect to a determination made under § 423.752(a)(5), an assessment of not more than the amount claimed by such plan or PDP sponsor based upon the misrepresentation or falsified information involved.
(3) Plus with respect to a determination made under § 423.752(a)(2), double the excess amount charged in violation of such paragraph (and the excess amount charged must be deducted from the penalty and returned to the individual concerned).
(4) Plus with respect to a determination made under § 423.752(a)(4), $15,000 as adjusted annually under 45 CFR part 102 for each individual not enrolled as a result of the practice involved.
[72 FR 68735, Dec. 5, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 1548, Jan. 12, 2009; 79 FR 29966, May 23, 2014; 81 FR 61562, Sept. 6, 2016; 86 FR 6121, Jan. 19, 2021; 89 FR 30841, Apr. 23, 2024]
§ 423.762 Settlement of penalties.
For civil money penalties imposed by CMS, CMS may settle civil money penalty cases at any time before a final decision is rendered.
[72 FR 68735, Dec. 5, 2007]
§ 423.764 Other applicable provisions.
The provisions of section 1128A of the Act (except paragraphs (a) and (b)) apply to civil money penalties under this subpart to the same extent that they apply to a civil money penalty or procedure under section 1128A of the Act.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005. Redesignated at 72 FR 68735, Dec. 5, 2007]
Subpart P Premiums and Cost-Sharing Subsidies for Low-Income Individuals
§ 423.771 Basis and scope.
(a) Basis. This subpart is based on section 1860D-14 of the Act.
(b) Scope. This subpart sets forth the requirements and limitations for payments by and on behalf of low-income Medicare beneficiaries who enroll in a Part D plan.
§ 423.772 Definitions.
For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
Applicant means the Part D eligible individual applying for the subsidies available to subsidy eligible individuals under this subpart.
Best available evidence means evidence recognized by CMS as documentation or other information that is directly tied to State or Social Security Administration systems that confirm an individual's low-income subsidy eligibility status, and that must be accepted and used by the Part D sponsor to change low-income subsidy status.
Family size means the applicant, the spouse who is living in the same household, if any and the number of individuals who are related to the applicant or applicants, who are living in the same household and who are dependent on the applicant or the applicant's spouse for at least one-half of their financial support.
Federal poverty line (FPL) has the meaning given that term in section 673(2) of the Community Services Block Grant Act (42 USC 9902(2)), including any revision required by that section.
Full-benefit dual eligible individual means an individual who, for any month—
(1) Has coverage for the month under a prescription drug plan under Part D of title XVIII, or under an MA-PD plan under Part C of title XVIII; and
(2) Is determined eligible by the State for medical assistance for full benefits under title XIX for the month under any eligibility category covered under the State plan or comprehensive benefits under a demonstration under section 1115 of the Act. (This does not include individuals under Pharmacy Plus program demonstrations or under a section 1115 demonstration that provides pharmacy-only benefits to these individuals.). It also includes any individual who is determined by the State to be eligible for medical assistance under section 1902(a)(10)(C) of the Act (medically needy) or section 1902(f) of the Act (States that use more restrictive eligibility criteria than are used by the SSI program) of the Act for any month if the individual was eligible for medical assistance in any part of the month.
Full subsidy means the subsidies available to full subsidy eligible individuals under § 423.780(a) and § 423.782(a).
Full subsidy eligible individuals means individuals meeting the eligibility requirements under § 423.773(b).
Income means income as described under section 1905(p)(1) of the Act without use of any more liberal disregards under section 1902(r)(2) of the Act (that is defined by section 1612 of the Act) and exempts support and maintenance furnished in kind. This definition includes the income of the applicant and spouse who is living in the same household, if any, regardless of whether the spouse is also an applicant.
Individual receiving home and community-based services means a full-benefit dual-eligible individual who is receiving services under a home and community-based program authorized for a State in accordance with one of the following:
(1) Section 1115 of the Act.
(2) Section 1915(c) or (d) of the Act.
(3) State plan amendment under section 1915(i) of the Act.
(4) Services are provided through enrollment in a Medicaid managed care organization with a contract under section 1903(m) of the Act or section 1932 of the Act.
Institutionalized individual means a full-benefit dual eligible individual who is an inpatient in a medical institution or nursing facility for which payment is made under Medicaid throughout a month, as defined under section 1902(q)(1)(B) of the Act.
Other subsidy eligible individuals means those individuals meeting the eligibility requirements under § 423.773(d).
Personal representative for purposes of this subpart means—
(1) An individual who is authorized to act on behalf of the applicant;
(2) If the applicant is incapacitated; or incompetent, someone acting responsibly on their behalf, or
(3) An individual of the applicant's choice who is requested by the applicant to act as his or her representative in the application process.
Resources means liquid resources of the applicant (and, if married, his or her spouse who is living in the same household), such as checking and savings accounts, stocks, bonds, and other resources that can be readily converted to cash within 20 days, that are not excluded from resources in section 1613 of the Act, and real estate that is not the applicant's primary residence or the land on which the primary residence is located. It exempts the value of any life insurance policy.
State means for purposes of this subpart each of the 50 States and the District of Columbia.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 54253, Sept. 18, 2008; 74 FR 1548, Jan. 12, 2009; 76 FR 21576, Apr. 15, 2011]
§ 423.773 Requirements for eligibility.
(a) Subsidy eligible individual. A subsidy eligible individual is a Part D eligible individual residing in a State who is enrolled in, or seeking to enroll in a Part D plan and meets the following requirements:
(1) Has income below 150 percent of the FPL applicable to the individual's family size.
(2) Has resources at or below the resource thresholds set forth in § 423.773(b)(2) or (d)(2).
(b) Full subsidy eligible individual. A full subsidy eligible individual is a subsidy eligible individual who—
(1) Has income below 135 percent of the FPL applicable to the individual's family size or, with respect to a plan year beginning on or after January 1, 2024, has income below 150 percent of the FPL applicable to the individual's family size; and
(2) Has resources that do not exceed—
(i) For 2006, 3 times the amount of resources an individual may have and still be eligible for benefits under the Supplemental Security Income (SSI) program under title XVI of the Act (including the assets or resources of the individual's spouse).
(ii) For years 2007 through 2023, the amount of resources allowable for the previous year under this paragraph (b)(2) increased by the annual percentage increase in the consumer price index (all items, U.S. city average) as of September of that previous year, rounded to the nearest multiple of $10. The nearest multiple are rounded up if it is equal to or greater than $5 and down if it is less than $5.
(iii) For plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2024, the amount of resources specified at paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
(c)(1) Individuals treated as full subsidy eligible. An individual must be treated as meeting the eligibility requirements for full subsidy eligible individuals under paragraph (b) of this section if the individual is a—
(i) Full-benefit dual eligible individual;
(ii) Beneficiary of SSI benefits under title XVI of the Act; or
(iii) Eligible for Medicaid as a Qualified Medicare Beneficiary (QMB), Specified Low Income Medicare Beneficiary (SLMB), or a Qualifying Individual (QI) under a State's plan.
(2) CMS notifies an individual treated as a full-subsidy eligible under this paragraph (c) that he or she does not need to apply for the subsidies under this subpart, and, at a minimum, is deemed eligible for a full subsidy as follows:
(i) For an individual deemed eligible between January 1 and June 30 of a calendar year, the individual is deemed eligible for a full subsidy for the remainder of the calendar year.
(ii) For an individual deemed eligible between July 1 and December 31 of a calendar year, the individual is deemed eligible for the remainder of the calendar year and the following calendar year.
(d) Other low-income subsidy individuals. Other low-income subsidy individuals are subsidy eligible individuals who, for plan years beginning before January 1, 2024—
(1) Have income less than 150 percent of the FPL applicable to the individual's family size; and
(2) Have resources that do not exceed—
(i) For 2006, $10,000 if single or $20,000 if married (including the assets or resources of the individual's spouse).
(ii) For subsequent years, the resource amount allowable for the previous year under this paragraph (d)(2), increased by the annual percentage increase in the consumer price index (all items, U.S. city average) as of September of the previous year, rounded to the nearest multiple of $10. The nearest multiple will be rounded up if it is equal to or greater than $5 and down if it is less than $5.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 19825, Apr. 15, 2010; 88 FR 22340, Apr. 12, 2023]
§ 423.774 Eligibility determinations, redeterminations, and applications.
(a) Determinations of whether an individual is a subsidy eligible individual. Determinations of eligibility for subsidies under this subpart are made by the State under its State plan under title XIX of the Act if the individual applies with the Medicaid agency, or if the individual applies with the Social Security Administration (SSA), the Commissioner of Social Security in accordance with the requirements of section 1860D-14(a)(3) of the Act.
(b) Effective date of initial eligibility determinations. Initial eligibility determinations are effective beginning with the first day of the month in which the individual applies, but no earlier than January 1, 2006 and remain in effect for a period not to exceed 1 year.
(c) Redeterminations and appeals of low-income subsidy eligibility—(1) Redeterminations and appeals of low-income subsidy eligibility determinations—eligibility determinations made by States. Redeterminations and appeals of low-income subsidy eligibility determinations by States must be made in the same manner and frequency as the redeterminations and appeals are made under the State's plan.
(2) Redeterminations and appeals of low-income subsidy eligibility—eligibility determinations made by Commissioner of Social Security. Redeterminations and appeals of eligibility determinations made by the Commissioner will be made in the manner specified by the Commissioner of Social Security.
(d) Application requirements. (1) In order for applications for the subsidies under this subpart to be considered complete, applicants or personal representatives applying on the individual's behalf, must—
(i) Complete all required elements of the application; (ii) Provide any statements from financial institutions, as requested, to support information in the application; and
(iii) Certify, under penalty of perjury or similar sanction for false statements, as to the accuracy of the information provided on the application form.
(2) Multiple applications. If the individual or his or her personal representative has previously filed an application with the State or SSA which seeks subsidy eligibility for any portion of the eligibility period covered by a subsequent application, the later application is void if the individual has received a positive subsidy determination on that earlier application from the State or SSA.
§ 423.780 Premium subsidy.
(a) Full subsidy eligible individuals. Full subsidy eligible individuals are entitled to a premium subsidy equal to 100 percent of the premium subsidy amount.
(b) Premium subsidy amount. (1) The premium subsidy amount is equal to the lesser of—
(i) Under the Part D plan selected by the beneficiary, the portion of the monthly beneficiary premium attributable to basic coverage (for enrollees in PDPs) or the portion of the MA monthly prescription drug beneficiary premium attributable to basic prescription drug coverage (for enrollees in MA-PD plans); or
(ii) The greater of the low-income benchmark premium amount (determined under paragraph (b)(2) of this section) for the PDP region in which the subsidy eligible individual resides or the lowest monthly beneficiary premium for a PDP that offers basic prescription drug coverage in the PDP region.
(2) Calculation of the low-income benchmark premium amount. (i) The low-income benchmark premium amount for a PDP region is a weighted average of the premium amounts described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, with the weight for each PDP and MA-PD plan equal to a percentage, the numerator being equal to the number of Part D low-income subsidy eligible individuals enrolled in the plan in the reference month (as defined in § 422.258(c)(1) of this chapter) and the denominator equal to the total number of Part D low-income subsidy eligible individuals enrolled in all PDP and MA-PD plans (but not including PACE, private fee-for-service plans or 1876 cost plans) in a PDP region in the reference month.
(ii) Premium amounts. The premium amounts used to calculate the low-income benchmark premium amount are as follows:
(A) The monthly beneficiary premium for a PDP that is basic prescription drug coverage;
(B) The portion of the monthly beneficiary premium attributable to basic prescription drug coverage for a PDP that is enhanced alternative coverage; or,
(C) The MA monthly prescription drug beneficiary premium (as defined under section 1854(b)(2)(B) of the Act) for a MA-PD plan and determined before the application of the monthly rebate computed under section 1854(b)(1)(C)(i) of the Act for that plan and year involved.
(c) Special rule for 2006 to weight the low-income benchmark premium. For purposes of calculating the low-income benchmark premium amount for 2006, CMS assigns equal weighting to PDP sponsors (including fallback entities) and assigns MA-PD plans a weight based on prior enrollment. New MA-PD plans are assigned a zero weight. PACE, private fee-for-service plans and 1876 cost plans are not included.
(d) Other low-income subsidy eligible individuals—sliding scale premium. Other low-income subsidy eligible individuals are entitled to a premium subsidy for plan years beginning before January 1, 2024, based on a linear sliding scale ranging from 100 percent of the premium subsidy amount described in paragraph (b) of this section as follows:
(1) For individuals with income at or below 135 percent of the FPL applicable to their family size, the full premium subsidy amount.
(2) For individuals with income greater than 135 percent but at or below 140 percent of the FPL applicable to the family size, a premium subsidy equal to 75 percent of the premium subsidy amount.
(3) For individual with income greater than 140 percent but at or below 145 percent of the FPL applicable to the family size a premium subsidy equal to 50 percent of the premium subsidy amount.
(4) For individuals with income greater than 145 percent but below 150 percent of FPL applicable to the family size a premium subsidy equal to 25 percent of the premium subsidy amount.
(e) Waiver of late enrollment penalty for subsidy-eligible individuals. Subsidy eligible individuals, as defined in § 423.773, are not subject to a late enrollment penalty, as defined in § 423.46.
(f) Waiver of de minimis premium amounts. CMS will permit a Part D plan to waive a de minimis amount that is above the monthly beneficiary premium defined in § 423.780(b)(2)(ii)(A) or (B) for full subsidy individuals as defined in § 423.780(a) or § 423.780(d)(1), provided waiving the de minimis amount results in a monthly beneficiary premium that is equal to the established low income benchmark as defined in § 423.780(b)(2).
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 18182, Apr. 3, 2008; 73 FR 20508, Apr. 15, 2008; 73 FR 54253, Sept. 18, 2008; 76 FR 21576, Apr. 15, 2011; 88 FR 22340, Apr. 12, 2023]
§ 423.782 Cost-sharing subsidy.
(a) Full subsidy eligible individuals. Full subsidy eligible individuals are entitled to the following:
(1) Elimination of the annual deductible under § 423.104(d)(1).
(2) Reduction in cost-sharing for all covered Part D drugs covered under the PDP or MA-PD plan below the out-of-pocket limit (under § 423.104), including for years preceding 2025, Part D drugs covered under the PDP or MA-PD plan obtained after the initial coverage limit (under § 423.104(d)(4)), as follows:
(i) Except as provided under paragraphs (a)(2)(ii) and (a)(2)(iii) of this section, copayment amounts not to exceed the copayment amounts specified in § 423.104(d)(5)(A). This applies to both:
(A) Those full-benefit dual eligible individuals who are not institutionalized and who have income above 100 percent of the Federal poverty line applicable to the individual's family size and
(B) Those individuals who have income for years prior to 2024 under 135 percent, and for 2024 and subsequent years, under 150 percent of the Federal poverty line applicable to the individual's family size who meet the resources test described at § 423.773(b)(2).
(ii) Full-benefit dual-eligible individuals who are institutionalized or who are receiving home and community-based services have no cost-sharing for Part D drugs covered under their PDP or MA-PD plans.
(iii) Full-benefit dual eligible individuals with incomes that do not exceed 100 percent of the Federal poverty line applicable to the individual's family size are subject to cost-sharing for covered Part D drugs equal to the lesser of:
(A) A copayment amount of not more than $1 for a generic drug, biological product for which an application under section 351(k) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262(k)) is approved, or preferred drugs that are multiple source (as defined under section 1927(k)(7)(A)(i) of the Act) or $3 for any other drug in 2006, or for years after 2006 the amounts specified in this paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(A) for the percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index specified in paragraph (d) of this section, rounded to the nearest multiple of 5 cents or 10 cents, respectively; or
(B) The copayment amount charged to other individuals under this paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section.
(3) Elimination of all cost-sharing for covered Part D drugs covered under the PDP or MA-PD plan above the out-of-pocket limit (under § 423.104(d)(5)).
(b) Other low-income subsidy eligible individuals. Other low-income subsidy eligible individuals are entitled to the following:
(1) In 2006, reduction in the annual deductible to $50. This amount is increased each year beginning in 2007 by the annual percentage increase in average per capita aggregate expenditures for Part D drugs, rounded as specified under § 423.104(d)(5)(iv) to the nearest multiple of $1.
(2) Fifteen percent coinsurance for all covered Part D drugs obtained after the annual deductible under the plan up to the out-of-pocket limit (under § 423.104(d)(5)(iii)).
(3) For covered Part D drugs above the out-of-pocket limit (under § 423.104(d)(5)(iii)) in 2006, copayments not to exceed $2 for a generic drug, biological product for which an application under section 351(k) of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 262(k)) is approved, or preferred drugs that are multiple source drugs (as defined under section 1927(k)(7)(A)(i) of the Act) and $5 for any other drug. For years beginning in 2007, the amounts specified in § 423.104(d)(5)(i)(A)(2), rounded to the nearest multiple of 5 cents.
(c) When the out-of-pocket cost for a covered Part D drug under a Part D sponsor's plan benefit package is less than the maximum allowable copayment, coinsurance or deductible amounts under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the Part D sponsor may only charge the lower benefit package amount.
(d) Annual percentage increase in consumer price index (CPI)—(1) General. The annual percentage increase in consumer price index (CPI) for each year is equal to the annual percentage increase in the CPI in the United States for all items per a U.S. city average and is based on data for the 12-month period ending in September of the previous year.
(2) Calculating the annual percentage increase in CPI. The annual percentage increase is the product of the annual percentage trend (as defined in subparagraph (d)(3) of this section) and a multiplicative update (as defined in subparagraph (d)(4) of this section).
(3) Annual percentage trend. The annual percentage trend for a given year is the ratio of the CPI in the previous year (numerator) to the CPI 2 years prior to the given year (denominator).
(4) Multiplicative update. The multiplicative update for a given year is the ratio of the product of the annual percentage trends for all prior recorded years, as revised and updated with the most recent available data (numerator) to the product of the annual percentage trends in prior recorded years as published in the previous year's rate announcement (denominator).
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 1548, Jan. 12, 2009; 76 FR 21576, Apr. 15, 2011; 83 FR 16753, Apr. 16, 2018; 91 FR 17591, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.800 Administration of subsidy program.
(a) Notification of eligibility for low-income subsidy. CMS notifies the Part D sponsor offering the Part D plan, in which a subsidy eligible individual is enrolled, of the individual's eligibility for a subsidy under this section and the amount of the subsidy.
(b) Reduction of premium or cost-sharing by PDP sponsor or organization. Based on information provided by CMS under paragraph (a) of this section, or obtained under paragraph (d) of this section, the Part D sponsor offering the Part D plan in which a subsidy eligible individual is enrolled must reduce the individual's premiums and cost-sharing as applicable, and provide information to CMS on the amount of those reductions, in a manner determined by CMS. The Part D sponsor must track the application of the subsidies under this subpart to be applied to the out-of-pocket threshold.
(c) Reimbursement for cost-sharing paid before notification of eligibility for low-income subsidy. The Part D sponsor offering the Part D plan must reimburse subsidy eligible individuals, and organizations paying cost-sharing on behalf of such individuals, any excess premiums and cost-sharing paid by such individual or organization after the effective date of the individual's eligibility for a subsidy under this subpart.
(d) Use of the best available evidence process to establish cost-sharing. Part D sponsors must—
(1) Accept best available evidence as defined in § 423.772 of this part received from beneficiaries or other individuals acting directly on their behalf; and
(2) Update the subsidy eligible individual's LIS status. and respond to requests for assistance in securing acceptable evidence of subsidy eligibility from beneficiaries or other individuals acting directly on their behalf in accordance with the process(es) established by CMS, and within the reasonable timeframe(s) as determined by CMS.
(e) Timeframe for refunds and recoveries due to retroactive adjustments to cost sharing. Sponsors must process retroactive adjustments to cost-sharing for low-income subsidy eligible individuals and any resulting refunds and recoveries in accordance with the timeframe specified in § 423.466(a) of this part.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 1549, Jan. 12, 2009; 75 FR 19825, Apr. 15, 2010]
Subpart Q Guaranteeing Access to a Choice of Coverage (Fallback Prescription Drug Plans)
§ 423.851 Scope.
This subpart sets forth—the rights of beneficiaries to a choice of at least two sources of qualified prescription drug coverage; requirements and limitations on the bid submission, review and approval of fallback prescription drug plans, and the determination of enrollee premium and plan payments for these plans.
§ 423.855 Definitions.
As used in this subpart, unless specified otherwise-
Actual costs means the subset of prescription drug costs (not including administrative costs or return on investment, but including costs directly related to the dispensing of covered Part D drugs during the year) that are attributable to standard benefits only and that are incurred and actually paid by the sponsor or organization under the plan.
Actually paid has the same meaning described in § 423.308.
Eligible fallback entity or fallback entity means an entity that, for a particular contract period-
(1) Is a PDP sponsor that does not have to be a risk-bearing entity (or, if applying to become a fallback entity, an entity that meets all the requirements to become a Part D plan sponsor except that it does not have to be a risk-bearing entity); and
(2) Does not submit a risk bid under § 423.265 for offering a prescription drug plan for any PDP region for the first year of that contract period. An entity is treated as submitting a risk bid if the entity is acting as a subcontractor for an integral part of the drug benefit management activities of an entity that is or applies to become a non-fallback PDP sponsor. An entity is not treated as submitting a bid if it is a subcontractor of an MA organization, unless that organization is acting as or applies to become a non-fallback PDP sponsor for a prescription drug plan.
Fallback prescription drug plan means a prescription drug plan (PDP) offered by a fallback entity that—
(1) Offers only defined standard or actuarially equivalent standard prescription drug coverage as defined in § 423.100;
(2) Provides access to negotiated prices, including discounts from manufacturers; and
(3) Meets all other requirements established for prescription drug plans, except as otherwise specified by CMS in this subpart or in separate guidance.
Qualifying plan means a full-risk or limited-risk prescription drug plan, as defined in § 423.258, or an MA-PD plan described in section 1851(a)(2)(A)(i) of the Act, that provides required prescription drug coverage, as defined in § 423.100 An MA-PD plan must be open for enrollment and not operating under a capacity waiver to be counted as a qualifying plan. A PDP must not be operating under a restricted enrollment waiver, such as those that may be granted to special needs plans or employer group plans, in order to be counted as a qualifying plan in an area.
§ 423.859 Assuring access to a choice of coverage.
(a) Choice of at least 2 qualifying plans in each area. Each Part D eligible individual must have available a choice of enrollment in at least 2 qualifying plans (as defined in § 423.855) in the area in which the individual resides. This requirement is not satisfied if only one entity offers all the qualifying plans in the area. At least 1 of the 2 qualifying plans must be a prescription drug plan.
(b) Fallback service area—(1) For coverage year. Before the start of each coverage year CMS determines if Part D eligible individuals residing in a PDP region have access to a choice of enrollment in a minimum of 2 qualifying plans, as described in paragraph (a) of this section. If CMS determines that Part D eligible individuals in a PDP region, or some portion of the region, do not have available a choice of enrollment in a minimum of two qualified plans, CMS designates the region or portion of a region as a fallback service area. Each Part D eligible individual in a fallback service area is given the opportunity to enroll in a fallback prescription drug plan.
(2) For mid-year changes. If a contract with a qualifying plan is terminated in the middle of a contract year (as provided for in § 423.508, § 423.509, or § 423.510), CMS determines if Part D eligible individuals residing in the affected PDP region still have access to a choice of enrollment in a minimum of 2 qualifying plans, as described in paragraph (a) of this section. If CMS determines that Part D eligible individuals in a PDP region, or some portion of the region, no longer have available a choice of enrollment in a minimum of two qualifying plans, CMS designates the region or portion of a region as a fallback service area.
(c) Access to coverage in the territories. CMS may waive or modify the requirements of this part if—
(1) CMS determines that waiver or modification is necessary to secure access to qualified prescription drug coverage for Part D eligible individuals residing in a State other than the 50 States or the District of Columbia; or
(2) An entity seeking to become a prescription drug plan in an area such as a territory, other than the 50 States or the District of Columbia requests waiver or modification of any Part D requirement in order to provide qualified prescription drug coverage.
§ 423.863 Submission and approval of bids.
(a) Submission of bids—(1) Solicitation of bids. Separate from the risk bidding process under § 423.265, CMS solicits bids from eligible fallback entities for the offering in all fallback service areas in one or more PDP regions of a fallback prescription drug plan during the contract period specified in § 423.871(b).
(2) Timing of bids. CMS determines when to solicit bids for 2006 so that potential fallback prescription drug plans have enough time to prepare a bid. After that, bids are solicited on 3 year cycles, or annually thereafter as needed to replace contractors between contracting cycles.
(3) Format of bid. CMS specifies the form and manner in which fallback bids are submitted in separate guidance to bidders.
(b) Negotiation and acceptance of bids—(1) General rule. Except as provided in this section, the provisions of § 423.272 apply for the approval or disapproval of fallback prescription drug plans. CMS enters into contracts under this paragraph with eligible fallback entities for the offering of approved fallback prescription drug plans in potential fallback service areas.
(2) Flexibility in risk assumed and application of fallback prescription drug plan. In order to ensure access in an area in accordance with § 423.859(a), CMS may approve limited risk plans under § 423.272(c) for that area. If the access requirement is still not met after applying § 423.272(c), CMS provides for the offering of a fallback prescription drug plan in that area.
(3) Limitation of 1 Plan for all fallback service areas in a PDP region. All fallback service areas in any PDP region for a contract period must be served by the same fallback prescription drug plan.
(4) Competitive procedures. CMS uses competitive procedures (as defined in section 4(5) of the Office of Federal Procurement Policy Act (41 U.S.C. 403(5)) to enter into a contract under this paragraph. The provisions of section 1874A(d) of the Act apply to a contract under this section in the same manner as they apply to a contract under that section.
(5) Timing of contracts. CMS approves a fallback prescription drug plan for a PDP region in a manner so that, if there are any fallback service areas in the region for a year, the fallback prescription drug plan is offered at the same time as prescription drug plans are otherwise offered. In the event of mid-year changes and as required by § 423.859(b)(2), CMS approves a fallback prescription drug plan for a PDP region in a manner so that the fallback prescription drug plan is offered within 90 days of notice.
(6) No national fallback prescription drug plan. CMS may not enter into a contract with a single fallback entity for the offering of fallback prescription drug plans throughout the United States.
§ 423.867 Rules regarding premiums.
(a) Monthly beneficiary premium. Except as provided in § 423.286(d)(3) (relating to late enrollment penalty) and subject to subpart P (relating to low-income assistance), the monthly beneficiary premium under a fallback prescription drug plan must be uniform for all fallback service areas in a PDP region. It must equal 25.5 percent of CMS's estimate of the average monthly per capita actuarial cost, including administrative expenses, of providing coverage in the PDP region based on similar expenses of prescription drug plans that are not fallback prescription drug plans.
(b) Special rule for collection of premiums in fallback prescription drug plans. In the case of a fallback prescription drug plan, the provisions of § 423.293 (b) concerning payments of the late enrollment penalty to the PDP sponsor do not apply and the monthly beneficiary premium is collected in the manner specified in § 422.262(f)(1) of this chapter, or paid directly to the fallback entity by the beneficiary if there are either no benefits, or insufficient benefits available to be collected in the manner specified under § 422.262(f)(1) of this chapter. The amount of any premiums collected by the fallback entity is deducted from management fees due from CMS.
§ 423.871 Contract terms and conditions.
(a) General. Except as may be appropriate to carry out the requirements of this section, the terms and conditions of contracts with eligible fallback entities offering fallback prescription drug plans are the same as the terms and conditions of contracts at §§ 423.504 and 423.505 for Part D plans.
(b) Period of contract. A contract with a fallback entity for fallback service areas for a PDP region is in effect for a period of 3 years. However, a fallback prescription drug plan may be offered for any year within the contract period for a particular area only if the area is a fallback service area for that year.
(c) Entity not permitted to market or brand fallback prescription drug plans. Notwithstanding any other provisions of this part, an eligible fallback entity with a contract under this part may not engage in any marketing or branding of a fallback prescription drug plan.
(d) Performance measures. CMS issues guidance establishing performance measures for fallback prescription drug plans based on the following:
(1) Types of performance measures. Performance measures include at least measures for each of the following:
(i) Costs. The entity contains costs to the Medicare Prescription Drug Account and to Part D eligible individuals enrolled in a fallback prescription drug plan offered by the entity through mechanisms such as generic substitution and price discounts.
(ii) Quality programs. The entity provides the enrollees in its fallback prescription drug plan with quality programs that avoid adverse drug reactions, monitor for appropriate utilization, and reduce medical errors.
(iii) Customer service. The entity provides timely and accurate delivery of services and pharmacy and beneficiary support services.
(iv) Benefit administration and claims adjudication. The entity provides efficient and effective benefit administration and claims adjudication.
(2) Development of performance measures. CMS establishes detailed performance measures for use in evaluating fallback entity performance and determination of certain management fees based on criteria from historical performance, application of acceptable statistical measures of variation to fallback entity and PDP sponsor (other than fallback entities) experience nationwide during a base period, or changing program emphases or requirements.
(e) Payment terms. A contract approved with a fallback entity includes terms for payment for—
(1) The actual costs of covered Part D drugs provided to Part D eligible individuals enrolled in a fallback prescription drug plan offered by the entity; and
(2) Management fees that consist of administrative costs and return on investment and are tied to the performance measures established by CMS for the management, administration, and delivery of the benefits under the contract as provided under paragraph (d) of this section.
(f) Requirement for the submission of information. Each contract for a fallback prescription drug plan requires an eligible fallback entity offering a fallback prescription drug plan to provide CMS with the information CMS determines is necessary to carry out the payment provisions under subpart G or under this subpart, or as required by law. Information disclosed to determine Medicare payment or reimbursement to the fallback entity may be used by the officers, employees and contractors of the Department of Health and Human Services only for the purposes of, and to the extent necessary in, determining such payment or reimbursement. This restriction does not limit CMS or OIG authority to conduct audits and evaluations necessary to ensure accurate and correct payment and to otherwise oversee Medicare reimbursement
(g) Amendment to reflect changes in service area. The contract may be amended by CMS at any time as needed to reflect the exact regions or counties where the fallback plan are required to operate within the contracted service area(s).
§ 423.875 Payment to fallback plans.
The amount payable for a fallback prescription drug plan is the amount determined under the contract for the plan in accordance with § 423.871(e).
Subpart R Payments to Sponsors of Retiree Prescription Drug Plans
§ 423.880 Basis and scope.
(a) Basis. This subpart is based on section 1860D-22 of the Act, as amended by section 101 of the Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003 (MMA).
(b) Scope. This section implements the statutory requirement that a subsidy payment be made to sponsors of qualified retiree prescription drug plans.
§ 423.882 Definitions.
For the purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
Actually paid means that the costs must be actually incurred by the qualified retiree prescription drug plan and must be net of any direct or indirect remuneration (including discounts, charge backs or rebates, cash discounts, free goods contingent on a purchase agreement, up-front payments, coupons, goods in kind, free or reduced-price services, grants, or other price concessions or similar benefits offered to some or all purchasers) from any source that would serve to decrease the costs incurred under the qualified retiree prescription drug plan.
Administrative costs means costs incurred by a qualified retiree prescription drug plan that are not drug costs incurred to purchase or reimburse the purchase of Part D drugs.
Allowable retiree costs means the subset of gross covered retiree plan-related prescription drug costs actually paid by the sponsor of the qualified retiree prescription drug plan or by (or on behalf of) a qualifying covered retiree under the plan and the portion of the negotiated price (as defined in section 1860D-14C(g)(6) of the Act) of an applicable drug (as defined by § 423.100) paid by manufacturers under the Manufacturer Discount Program (as defined by § 423.100).
Benefit option means a particular benefit design, category of benefits, or cost-sharing arrangement offered within a group health plan.
Employment-based retiree health coverage means coverage of health care costs under a group health plan based on an individual's status as a retired participant in the plan, or as the spouse or dependent of a retired participant. The term includes coverage provided by voluntary insurance coverage, or coverage as a result of a statutory or contractual obligation.
Gross covered retiree plan-related prescription drug costs, or gross retiree costs, means those Part D drug costs incurred under a qualified retiree prescription drug plan, excluding administrative costs, but including dispensing fees, during the coverage year. They equal the sum of the following:
(1) The share of prices paid by the qualified retiree prescription drug plan that is received as reimbursement by the pharmacy or by an intermediary contracting organization, and reimbursement paid to indemnify a qualifying covered retiree when the reimbursement is associated with a qualifying covered retiree obtaining Part D drugs under the qualified retiree prescription drug plan.
(2) All amounts paid under the qualified retiree prescription drug plan by or on behalf of a qualified covered retiree (such as the deductible, coinsurance, cost sharing, or, for years prior to 2025, amounts between the initial coverage limit and the out-of-pocket threshold) in order to obtain Part D drugs that are covered under the qualified retiree prescription drug plan.
(3) All amounts paid by manufacturers under the Manufacturer Discount Program (as defined at § 423.100).
Group health plans include plans as defined in section 607(1) of ERISA, 29 U.S.C. § 1167(1). They also include the following plans:
(1) A Federal or State governmental plan, which is a plan providing medical care that is established or maintained for its employees by the Government of the United States, by the government of any State or political subdivision of a State (including a county or local government), or by any agency or instrumentality or any of the foregoing, including a health benefits plan offered under chapter 89 of Title 5, United States Code (the Federal Employee Health Benefit Plan (FEHBP)).
(2) A collectively bargained plan, which is a plan providing medical care that is established or maintained under or by one or more collective bargaining agreements.
(3) A church plan, which is a plan providing medical care that is established and maintained for its employees or their beneficiaries by a church or by a convention or association of churches that is exempt from tax under section 501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 501).
(4) An account-based medical plan such as a Health Reimbursement Arrangement (HRA) as defined in Internal Revenue Service Notice 2002-45, 2002-28 I.R.B. 93, a health Flexible Spending Arrangement (FSA) as defined in Internal Revenue Code (Code) section 106(c)(2), a health savings account (HSA) as defined in Code section 223, or an Archer MSA as defined in Code section 220, to the extent they are subject to ERISA as employee welfare benefit plans providing medical care (or would be subject to ERISA but for the exclusion in ERISA section 4(b), 29 U.S.C.§ . § 1003(b), for governmental plans or church plans).
Part D drug is defined in § 423.100 of this part.
Part D eligible individual is defined in § 423.4 of this part.
Qualified retiree prescription drug plan means employment-based retiree health coverage that meets the requirements set forth in § 423.884 of this chapter for a Part D eligible individual who is a retired participant or the spouse or dependent of a retired participant under the coverage.
Qualifying covered retiree means a Part D eligible individual who is: a participant or the spouse or dependent of a participant; covered under employment-based retiree health coverage that qualifies as a qualified retiree prescription drug plan; and not enrolled in a Part D plan. For this purpose, the determination of whether an individual is covered under employment-based retiree health coverage is made by the sponsor in accordance with the rules of its plan. For purposes of this subpart, however, an individual is presumed not to be covered under employment-based retiree health coverage if, under the Medicare Secondary Payer rules in § 411.104 of this chapter and related CMS guidance, the person is considered to be receiving coverage by reason of current employment status. The presumption applies whether or not the Medicare Secondary Payer rules actually apply to the sponsor. For this purpose, a sponsor also may treat a person receiving coverage under its qualified retiree prescription drug plan as the dependent of a qualifying covered retiree in accordance with the rules of its plan, regardless of whether that person constitutes the qualifying covered retiree's dependent for Federal or State tax purposes.
Retiree drug subsidy amount, or subsidy payment, means the subsidy amount paid to sponsors of qualified retiree prescription drug coverage under § 423.886(a).
Standard prescription drug coverage is defined in § 423.100 of this part.
Sponsor is a plan sponsor as defined in section 3(16)(B) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA), 29 U.S.C. 1002(16)(B), except that, in the case of a plan maintained jointly by one employer and an employee organization and for which the employer is the primary source of financing, the term means the employer.
Sponsor agreement means an agreement by the sponsor to comply with the provisions of this subpart.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 1549, Jan. 12, 2009; 77 FR 1883, Jan. 12, 2012; 91 FR 17591, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.884 Requirements for qualified retiree prescription drug plans.
(a) General. Employment-based retiree health coverage is considered to be a qualified retiree prescription drug plan if all of the following requirements are satisfied:
(1) An actuarial attestation is submitted in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. The rules for submitting attestations as part of subsidy applications are described in paragraph (c) of this section.
(2) Part D eligible individuals covered under the plan are provided with creditable coverage notices in accordance with § 423.56.
(3) Records are maintained and made available for audit in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section and § 423.888(d).
(b) Disclosure of information. The sponsor must have a written agreement with its health insurance issuer (as defined in 45 CFR 160.103), or group health plan (as applicable) regarding disclosure of information to CMS, and the issuer or plan must disclose to CMS, on behalf of the sponsor, the information necessary for the sponsor to comply with this subpart.
(c) Application—(1) Submitting an application. The sponsor (or its designee) must submit an application for the subsidy to CMS that is signed by an authorized representative of the sponsor. The application must be provided in a form and manner specified by CMS.
(2) Required information. In connection with each application the sponsor (either directly or through its designee) must submit the following:
(i) Employer Tax ID Number (if applicable).
(ii) Sponsor name and address.
(iii) Contact name and email address.
(iv) Actuarial attestation that satisfies the standards specified in paragraph (d) of this section and any other supporting documentation required by CMS for each qualified retiree prescription drug plan for which the sponsor seeks subsidy payments.
(v) A list of all individuals the sponsor believes (using information reasonably available to the sponsor when it submits the application) are qualifying covered retirees enrolled in each prescription drug plan (including spouses and dependents, if Medicare-eligible), along with the information about each person listed below in this paragraph:
(A) Full name.
(B) Health Insurance Claim (HIC) number or Social Security number.
(C) Date of birth.
(D) Sex.
(E) Relationship to the retired employee.
(vi) A sponsor may satisfy paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section by entering into a voluntary data sharing agreement (VDSA) with CMS (or any other arrangement CMS may make available).
(vii) A signed sponsor agreement.
(viii) Any other information specified by CMS.
(3) Terms and conditions. To receive a subsidy payment, the sponsor (through the signed sponsor agreement or as otherwise specified by CMS) must specifically accept and agree to:
(i) Comply with the terms and conditions of eligibility for a subsidy payment set forth in this regulation and in any related CMS guidance;
(ii) Acknowledge that at the same time CMS releases Part C and Part D summary payment data in accordance with §§ 422.504(n) and 423.505(o) CMS will also release Part D retiree drug subsidy payment data for the most recently reconciled year including the name of the eligible sponsor, the total gross aggregate dollar amount of the CMS subsidy, and the number of eligible retirees;
(iii) Acknowledge that the information in the application is being provided to obtain Federal funds; and
(iv) Require that all subcontractors, including plan administrators, acknowledge that information provided in connection with the subcontract is used for purposes of obtaining Federal funds.
(4) Signature by sponsor. An authorized representative of the requesting sponsor must sign the completed application and certify that the information contained in the application is true and accurate to the best of the sponsor's knowledge and belief.
(5) Timing—(i) General rule. An application for a given plan year must be submitted prior to the beginning of the plan year by a date specified by CMS in published guidance, unless a request for an extension has been filed and approved under procedures set forth in such guidance.
(ii) Transition rule. For plan years that end in 2006, an application must be submitted by September 30, 2005 unless a request for an extension has been filed and approved under procedures established by CMS.
(6) Updates. The sponsor (or the designee) must provide updates to CMS in a manner specified by CMS of the information required in paragraph (c)(2) of this section on a monthly basis or at a frequency specified by CMS.
(7) Data match. Once the full application for the subsidy payment is submitted, CMS—
(i) Matches the names and identifying information for the individuals submitted as qualifying covered retirees with a CMS database(s) to determine which retirees are Part D eligible individuals who are not enrolled in a Part D plan.
(ii) Provides information concerning the results of the search in paragraph (c)(7)(i) of this paragraph (such as names and other identifying information, if necessary) to the sponsor (or to a designee).
(d) Actuarial attestation—general. The sponsor of the plan must provide to CMS an attestation in a form and manner specified by CMS that the actuarial value of the retiree prescription drug coverage under the plan is at least equal to the actuarial value of the defined standard prescription coverage (as defined at § 423.100), for years prior to 2025, not taking into account the value of any discount or coverage provided during the coverage gap and for 2025 and subsequent years, not taking into account the value of any discount provided under the Manufacturer Discount Program (as defined at § 423.100). The attestation must meet all of the following standards:
(1) Contents of the attestation include the following assurances:
(i) The actuarial gross value of the retiree prescription drug coverage under the plan for the plan year is at least equal to the actuarial gross value of the defined standard prescription drug coverage under Part D for the plan year in question, for years prior to 2025, not taking into account the value of any discount or coverage provided during the coverage gap and for 2025 and subsequent years, not taking into account the value of any discount provided under the Manufacturer Discount Program.
(ii) The actuarial net value of the retiree prescription drug coverage under the plan for that plan year is at least equal to the actuarial net value of the defined standard prescription drug coverage under Part D for that plan year in question, for years prior to 2025, not taking into account the value of any discount or coverage provided during the coverage gap and for 2025 and subsequent years, not taking into account the value of any discount provided under the Manufacturer Discount Program.
(iii) The actuarial values must be determined using the methodology in paragraph (d)(5) of this section.
(2) The attestation must be made by a qualified actuary who is a member of the American Academy of Actuaries. Applicants may use qualified outside actuaries, including (but not limited to) actuaries employed by the plan administrator or an insurer providing benefits under the plan. If an applicant uses an outside actuary, the attestation can be submitted directly by the outside actuary or by the plan sponsor.
(3) The attestation must be signed by a qualified actuary and must state that the attestation is true and accurate to the best of the attester's knowledge and belief.
(4) The attestation must contain an acknowledgement that the information being provided in the attestation is being used to obtain Federal funds.
(5) Methodology—(i) Basis of the attestation. The attestation must be based on generally accepted actuarial principles and any actuarial guidelines established by CMS in this section or in future guidance. To the extent CMS has not provided guidance on a specific aspect of the actuarial equivalence standard under this section, an actuary providing the attestation may rely on any reasonable interpretation of this section and section 1860D-22(a) of the Act consistent with generally accepted actuarial principles in determining actuarial values.
(ii) Specific rules for determining the actuarial value of the sponsor's retiree prescription drug coverage. (A) The gross value of coverage under the sponsor's retiree prescription drug plan must be determined using the actual claims experience and demographic data for Part D eligible individuals who are participants and beneficiaries in the sponsor's plan, provided that sponsors without creditable data due to their size or other factors, may use normative databases as specified by CMS. Sponsors may use other actuarial approaches specified by CMS as an alternative to the actuarial valuation specified by this paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(A).
(B) The net value of coverage provided under the sponsor's retiree prescription drug plan must be determined by reducing the gross value of such coverage as determined under paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(A) of this section by the expected premiums paid by Part D eligible individuals who are plan participants or their spouses and dependents. For sponsors of plans that charge a single, integrated premium or contribution to their retirees for both prescription drug coverage and other types of medical coverage, the attestation must allocate a portion of the premium/contribution to prescription drug coverage under the sponsor's plan, under any method determined by the sponsor or its actuary.
(iii) Specific rules for calculating the actuarial value of defined standard prescription drug coverage under Part D. (A) The gross value of defined standard prescription drug coverage under Part D must be determined using the actual claims experience and demographic data for Part D eligible individuals in the sponsor's plan, provided that sponsors without credible data due to their size or other factors may use normative databases as specified by CMS. Sponsors may use other actuarial approaches specified by CMS as an alternative to the actuarial valuation specified by this paragraph (d)(5)(iii)(A).
(B) To calculate the net value of defined standard prescription drug coverage under Part D, the gross value of defined standard prescription drug coverage under Part D as determined by paragraph (d)(5)(iii)(A) of this section is reduced by the following amounts:
(1) The monthly beneficiary premiums (as defined in § 423.286) expected to be paid for standard prescription drug coverage; and
(2) An amount calculated to reflect the impact on the value of defined standard prescription drug coverage of supplemental coverage actually provided by the sponsor. Sponsors may use other actuarial approaches specified by CMS as an alternative to the actuarial valuation specified in this paragraph (d)(5)(iii)(B)(2).
(C) The valuation of defined standard prescription drug coverage for a given plan year is based on the initial coverage limit cost-sharing and out-of-pocket threshold for defined standard prescription drug coverage under Part D in effect at the start of such plan year, for years prior to 2025, not taking into account the value of any discount or coverage provided during the coverage gap and for 2025 and subsequent years, not taking into account the value of any discount provided under the Manufacturer Discount Program.
(D) Example: If a sponsor's retiree prescription drug plan operates under a plan year that ends March 30, the sponsor has a choice of basing the attestation for the year April 1, 2007 through March 30, 2008 on either the initial coverage limit, cost-sharing amounts, and out-of-pocket threshold amounts that apply to defined standard prescription drug coverage under Part D in CY 2007, or the amounts announced for CY 2008. However, in order to use the amounts applicable in CY 2007, the sponsor must submit the attestation within 60 days after the publication of the Part D coverage limits for CY 2008. If the attestation is submitted more than 60 days after the 2008 coverage limits have been published, the CY 2008 coverage limits would apply.
(iv) Employment-based retiree health coverage with two or more benefit options. For the assurance required under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, the assurance must be provided separately for each benefit option for which the sponsor requests a subsidy under this subpart. For the assurance required under paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, the assurance may be provided either separately for each benefit option for which the sponsor provided assurances under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, or in the aggregate for all benefit options (or for a subset of the benefit options).
(6) Timing—(i) Annual submission. The attestation must be provided annually at the time the sponsor's subsidy application is submitted, or at such other times as specified by CMS in further guidance.
(ii) Submission following material change. The attestation must be provided no later than 90 days before the implementation of a material change to the drug coverage of the sponsor's retiree prescription drug plan. For purposes of this clause, the term “material change” means the addition of a benefit option that does not impact the actuarial value of the retiree prescription drug coverage under the sponsor's plan such that it no longer meets the standards set forth in paragraph (d)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section.
(7) Notice of failure to continue to satisfy the actuarial equivalence standards. A sponsor must notify CMS, in a form and manner specified by CMS, no later than 90 days before the implementation of a change to the drug coverage that impacts the actuarial value of the retiree prescription drug coverage under the sponsor's plan such that it no longer meets the standards set forth in paragraph (d)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section.
(e) Disclosure of creditable prescription drug coverage status. The sponsor must disclose to all of its retirees and their spouses and dependents eligible to participate in its plan who are Part D eligible individuals whether the coverage is creditable prescription drug coverage under § 423.56 in accordance with the notification requirements under that section.
(f) Access to records for audit. The sponsor (and where applicable, its designee) must meet the requirements of § 423.888(d). Failure to comply with § 423.888(d) may result in nonpayment or recoupment of all or part of a subsidy payment.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 20508, Apr. 15, 2008; 76 FR 21576, Apr. 15, 2011; 91 FR 17591, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.886 Retiree drug subsidy amounts.
(a) Amount of subsidy payment. (1) For each qualifying covered retiree enrolled with the sponsor of a qualified retiree prescription drug plan in a plan year, the sponsor receives a subsidy payment in the amount of 28 percent of the allowable retiree costs (as defined in § 423.882) in the plan year for such retiree attributable to gross retiree costs between the cost threshold and the cost limit as defined in paragraph (b) of this section. The subsidy payment is calculated by first determining gross retiree costs between the cost threshold and cost limit, and then determining allowable retiree costs attributable to the gross retiree costs. For this purpose and where otherwise relevant in this subpart, plan year is the calendar, policy, or fiscal year on which the records of a plan are kept.
(2) Transition provision. For a qualified retiree prescription drug plan that has a plan year which begins in calendar year 2005 and ends in calendar year 2006, the subsidy for the plan year must be determined in the following manner. Claims incurred in all months of the plan year (including claims incurred in 2005) are taken into account in determining which claims fall within the cost threshold and cost limit for the plan year. The subsidy amount is determined based only on costs incurred on and after January 1, 2006.
(b) Cost threshold and cost limit. The following cost threshold and cost limits apply—
(1) Subject to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the cost threshold under this section is equal to $250 for plan years that end in 2006.
(2) Subject to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the cost limit under this section is equal to $5,000 for plan years that end in 2006.
(3) The cost threshold and cost limit specified in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section, for plan years that end in years after 2006, are adjusted in the same manner as the annual Part D deductible and the annual Part D out-of-pocket threshold are adjusted annually under § 423.104(d)(1)(ii) and (d)(5)(iii)(B), respectively.
§ 423.888 Payment methods, including provision of necessary information.
(a) Basis. The provisions of § 423.301 through § 423.343, including requirements to provide information necessary to ensure accurate subsidy payments, govern payment under § 423.886 except to the extent the provisions in this section specify otherwise.
(b) General payment rules. Payment under § 423.886 is conditioned on provision of accurate information. The information must be submitted, in a form and manner and at the times provided in this paragraph and under other guidance specified by CMS, by the sponsor or its designee.
(1) Timing. Payment can be made on a monthly, quarterly or annual basis, as elected by the plansponsor under guidance specified by CMS, unless CMS determines that the options must be restricted because of operational limitations.
(i) Monthly or quarterly payments. If the plan sponsor elects for payment on a monthly or quarterly basis, it must provide information described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section on the same monthly or quarterly basis, or at such time as CMS specifies.
(ii) Annual payments. If the sponsor elects an annual payment, it must submit to CMS actual rebate and other price concession data within 15 months after the end of the plan year.
(2) Submission of cost data—(i) Monthly or quarterly payments. If the plan sponsor elects to receive payment on a monthly or quarterly basis, it must submit to CMS, in a manner specified by CMS, the gross covered retiree plan-related prescription drug costs (as defined in § 423.882) incurred for its qualifying covered retirees during the payment period for which it is claiming a subsidy payment and any other data CMS may require. Except as otherwise provided by CMS in future guidance, the sponsor must also submit, using historical data and generally accepted actuarial principles, an estimate of the extent to which its expected allowable retiree costs differs from the gross covered retiree plan-related prescription drug costs, based on expected rebates and other price concessions for the upcoming plan year. The estimate must be used to reduce the periodic payments for the plan year. Final allocation of price concession data must occur after the end of the year under the reconciliation provisions of paragraph (b)(4) of this section
(ii) Annual payments. If the plan sponsor elects a one-time final annual payment, it must submit, in a manner specified by CMS, within 15 months, or within any other longer time limit specified by CMS, after the end of the plan year, the total gross covered retiree plan-related prescription drug costs (as defined in § 423.882) for the plan year for which it is claiming a subsidy payment, actual rebate and other price concession data described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, and any other data CMS may require. The alternative is that the sponsor can elect an interim annual payment, in which case it must submit the following to CMS, at a time and in a manner specified by CMS: the gross covered retiree plan-related prescription drug costs (as defined in § 423.882) incurred for all of its qualifying covered retirees during the payment period for which it is claiming a subsidy payment; an estimate (using historical data and generally accepted actuarial principles) of the difference between such gross costs and allowable costs (based on expected rebates and other price concessions for the upcoming plan year); and any other data CMS may require.
(3) Payment by CMS. CMS makes payment after the sponsor's submission of the cost data at a time and in a manner to be specified by CMS.
(4) Reconciliation. (i) Sponsors who elect either monthly, quarterly or an interim annual payment must submit to CMS, within 15 months, or within any other longer time limit specified by CMS, after the end of its plan year, the total gross covered retiree plan-related prescription drug costs (as defined in § 423.882), in a manner specified by CMS; actual rebate and other price concession data for the plan year in question; and any other data CMS may require.
(ii) Upon receiving this data, CMS adjusts the payments made for the plan year in question in a manner to be specified by CMS.
(5) Special rule for insured plans—(i) Interim payments. Sponsors of group health plans that provide benefits through health insurance coverage (as defined in 45 CFR 144.103) and that choose either monthly payments, quarterly payments or an interim annual payment in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section, may elect to determine gross covered plan-related retiree prescription drug costs for purposes of the monthly, quarterly or interim annual payments based on a portion of the premium costs paid by the sponsor (or by the qualifying covered retirees) for coverage of the covered retirees under the group health plan. Premium costs that are determined, using generally accepted actuarial principles, may be attributable to the gross covered plan-related retiree prescription drug costs incurred by the health insurance issuer (as defined in 45 CFR 144.103) for the sponsor's qualifying covered retirees, except that administrative costs and risk charges must be subtracted from the premium.
(ii) Final payments. At the end of the plan year, actual gross retiree plan-related prescription drug costs incurred by the insurer (or the retiree), and the allowable costs attributable to the gross costs, are determined for each of the sponsor's qualifying covered retirees and submitted for reconciliation after the end of the plan year as specified in paragraph (b)(4)of this section. The data for the reconciliation can be submitted directly to CMS by the insurer in a manner to be specified by CMS. Upon receiving this data, CMS adjusts the payments made for the relevant plan year in a manner to be specified by CMS.
(c) Use of information provided. Officers, employees and contractors of the Department of Health and Human Services, including the Office of Inspector General (OIG), may use information collected under this section only for the purposes of, and to the extent necessary in, carrying out this subpart including, but not limited to, determination of payments and payment-related oversight and program integrity activities, or as otherwise required by law. This restriction does not limit OIG authority to conduct audits and evaluations necessary for carrying out these regulations.
(d) Maintenance of records. (1) The sponsor of the qualified retiree prescription drug plan (or a designee), as applicable, must maintain, and furnish to CMS or the OIG upon request, the records enumerated in paragraph (d)(3) of this section. The records must be maintained for 6 years after the expiration of the plan year in which the costs were incurred for the purposes of audits and other oversight activities conducted by CMS to assure the accuracy of the actuarial attestation and the accuracy of payments.
(2) CMS or the OIG may extend the 6-year retention requirement for the records enumerated in paragraph (d)(3) of this section in the event of an ongoing investigation, litigation, or negotiation involving civil, administrative or criminal liability. In addition, the sponsor of the qualified retiree prescription drug plan (or a designee), as applicable, must maintain the records enumerated in paragraph (d)(3) of this section longer than 6 years if it knows or should know that the records are the subject of an ongoing investigation, litigation or negotiation involving civil, administrative or criminal liability.
(3) The records that must be retained are:
(i) Reports and working documents of the actuaries who wrote the attestation submitted in accordance with § 423.884(a).
(ii) All documentation of costs incurred and other relevant information utilized for calculating the amount of the subsidy payment made in accordance with § 423.886, including the underlying claims data.
(iii) Any other records specified by CMS.
(4) CMS may issue additional guidance addressing recordkeeping requirements, including (but not limited to) the use of electronic media.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 1549, Jan. 12, 2009]
§ 423.890 Appeals.
(a) Informal written reconsideration—(1) Initial determinations. A sponsor is entitled to an informal written reconsideration of an adverse initial determination. An initial determination is a determination regarding the following:
(i) The amount of the subsidy payment.
(ii) The actuarial equivalence of the sponsor's retiree prescription drug plan.
(iii) If an enrollee in a retiree prescription drug plan is a qualifying covered retiree; or
(iv) Any other similar determination (as determined by CMS) that affects eligibility for, or the amount of, a subsidy payment.
(2) Effect of an initial determination regarding the retiree drug subsidy. An initial determination is final and binding unless reconsidered in accordance with this paragraph (a) of this section.
(3) Manner and timing for request. A request for reconsideration must be made in writing and filed with CMS within 15 days of the date on the notice of adverse determination.
(4) Content of request. The request for reconsideration must specify the findings or issues with which the sponsor disagrees and the reasons for the disagreements. The request for reconsideration may include additional documentary evidence the sponsor wishes CMS to consider.
(5) Conduct of informal written reconsideration. In conducting the reconsideration, CMS reviews the subsidy determination, the evidence and findings upon which it was based, and any other written evidence submitted by the sponsor or by CMS before notice of the reconsidered determination is made.
(6) Decision of the informal written reconsideration. CMS informs the sponsor of the decision orally or through electronic mail. CMS sends a written decision to the sponsor on the sponsor's request.
(7) Effect of CMS informal written reconsideration. A reconsideration decision, whether delivered orally or in writing, is final and binding unless a request for hearing is filed in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, or it is revised in accordance paragraph (d) of this section.
(b) Right to informal hearing. A sponsor dissatisfied with the CMS reconsideration decision is entitled to an informal hearing as provided in this section.
(1) Manner and timing for request. A request for a hearing must be made in writing and filed with CMS within 15 days of the date the sponsor receives the CMS reconsideration decision.
(2) Content of request. The request for informal hearing must include a copy of the CMS reconsideration decision (if any) and must specify the findings or issues in the decision with which the sponsor disagrees and the reasons for the disagreements.
(3) Informal hearing procedures. (i)CMS provides written notice of the time and place of the informal hearing at least 10 days before the scheduled date.
(ii) The hearing is conducted by a CMS hearing officer who neither receives testimony nor accepts any new evidence that was not presented with the reconsideration request. The CMS hearing officer is limited to the review of the record that was before CMS when CMS made both its initial and reconsideration determinations.
(iii) If CMS did not issue a written reconsideration decision, the hearing officer may request, but not require, a written statement from CMS or its contractors explaining CMS' determination, or CMS or its contractors may, on their own, submit the written statement to the hearing officer. Failure of CMS to submit a written statement does not result in any adverse findings against CMS and may not in any way be taken into account by the hearing officer in reaching a decision.
(4) Decision of the CMS hearing officer. The CMS hearing officer decides the case and sends a written decision to the sponsor, explaining the basis for the decision.
(5) Effect of hearing officer decision. The hearing officer decision is final and binding, unless the decision is reversed or modified by the Administrator in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
(c) Review by the Administrator. (1) A sponsor that has received a hearing officer decision upholding a CMS initial or reconsidered determination may request review by the Administrator within 15 days of receipt of the hearing officer's decision.
(2) The Administrator may review the hearing officer's decision, any written documents submitted to CMS or to the hearing officer, as well as any other information included in the record of the hearing officer's decision and determine whether to uphold, reverse or modify the hearing officer's decision.
(3) The Administrator's determination is final and binding.
(d) Reopening—(1) Ability to reopen. CMS may reopen and revise an initial or reconsidered determination upon its own motion or upon the request of a sponsor:
(i) Within 1 year of the date of the notice of determination for any reason.
(ii) Within 4 years for good cause.
(iii) At any time when the underlying decision was obtained through fraud or similar fault.
(2) Notice of reopening. (i) Notice of reopening and any revisions following the reopening are mailed to the sponsor.
(ii) Notice of reopening specifies the reasons for revision.
(3) Effect of reopening. The revision of an initial or reconsidered determination is final and binding unless-
(i) The sponsor requests reconsideration in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section;
(ii) A timely request for a hearing is filed under paragraph (b) of this section;
(iii) The determination is reviewed by the Administrator in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section; or
(iv) The determination is reopened and revised in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
(4) Good cause. For purposes of this section, CMS finds good cause if—
(i) New and material evidence exists that was not readily available at the time the initial determination was made;
(ii) A clerical error in the computation of payments was made; or
(iii) The evidence that was considered in making the determination clearly shows on its face that an error was made.
(5) For purposes of this section, CMS does not find good cause if the only reason for reopening is a change of legal interpretation or administrative ruling upon which the initial determination was made.
(6) A decision by CMS not to reopen an initial or reconsidered determination is final and binding and cannot be appealed.
§ 423.892 Change of ownership.
(a) Change of ownership. Any of the following constitutes a change of ownership:
(1) Partnership. The removal, addition, or substitution of a partner, unless the partners expressly agree otherwise as permitted by applicable State law.
(2) Asset sale. Transfer of all or substantially all of the assets of the sponsor to another party.
(3) Corporation. The merger of the sponsor's corporation into another corporation or the consolidation of the sponsor's organization with one or more other corporations, resulting in a new corporate body.
(b) Change of ownership, exception. Transfer of corporate stock or the merger of another corporation into the sponsor's corporation, with the sponsor surviving, does not ordinarily constitute change of ownership.
(c) Advance notice requirement. A sponsor that has a sponsor agreement in effect under this part and is considering or negotiating a change in ownership must notify CMS at least 60 days before the anticipated effective date of the change.
(d) Assignment of agreement. When there is a change of ownership as specified in paragraph (a) of this section, and this results in a transfer of the liability for prescription drug costs, the existing sponsor agreement is automatically assigned to the new owner.
(e) Conditions that apply to assigned agreements. The new owner to whom a sponsor agreement is assigned is subject to all applicable statutes and regulations and to the terms and conditions of the sponsor agreement.
§ 423.894 Construction.
Nothing in this part must be interpreted as prohibiting or restricting:
(a) A Part D eligible individual who is covered under employment-based retiree health coverage, including a qualified retiree prescription drug plan, from enrolling in a Part D plan;
(b) A sponsor or other person from paying all or any part of the monthly beneficiary premium (as defined in § 423.286) for a Part D plan on behalf of a retiree (or his or her spouse or dependents);
(c) A sponsor from providing coverage to Part D eligible individuals under employment-based retiree health coverage that is—
(1) Supplemental to the benefits provided under a Part D plan; or
(2) Of higher actuarial value than the actuarial value of standard prescription drug coverage (as defined in § 423.104(d)); or
(d) Sponsors from providing for flexibility in the benefit design and pharmacy network for their qualified retiree prescription drug coverage, without regard to the requirements applicable to Part D plans under § 423.104, as long as the requirements under § 423.884 are met.
Subpart S Special Rules for States-Eligibility Determinations for Subsidies and General Payment Provisions
§ 423.900 Basis and scope.
(a) Basis. This subpart is based on sections 1935(a) through (d) of the Act as amended by section 103 of the MMA.
(b) Scope. This subpart specifies State agency obligations for the Part D prescription drug benefit.
§ 423.902 Definitions.
The following definitions apply to this subpart:
Actuarial value of capitated prescription drug benefits is the estimated actuarial value of prescription drug benefits provided under a comprehensive Medicaid managed care plan per full-benefit dual eligible individual for 2003, as determined using data as the Secretary determines appropriate. This value will be established using data determined by the Secretary to be the best available among the following options:
(1) State rate setting documentation for drug costs to the full dual eligible population;
(2) State encounter and enrollment record databases including cost data; and
(3) State managed care plan-specific financial cost data; and
(4) Other appropriate data.
Applicable growth factor for each of 2004, 2005, and 2006, is the average annual percent change (to that year from the previous year) of the per capita amount of prescription drug expenditures (as determined based on the most recent National Total Drug National Health Expenditure projections for the years involved). The growth factor for 2007 and succeeding years will equal the annual percentage increase in average per capita aggregate expenditures for covered Part D drugs in the United States for Part D eligible individuals for the 12-month period ending in July of the previous year, as described in § 423.104(d)(5)(iv). CMS provides further detail regarding the sources of data to be used and how the annual percentage increase will be determined via operational guidance to States.
Base year Medicaid per capita expenditures are equal to the weighted average of:
(1) The gross base year (calendar year 2003) per capita Medicaid expenditures for prescription drugs, reduced by the rebate adjustment factor; and
(2) The estimated actuarial value of prescription drug benefits provided under a comprehensive capitated Medicaid managed care plan per full-benefit dual eligible for 2003. The per capita payments for full-benefit dual eligibles with comprehensive managed care and non-managed care are weighted by the respective average monthly full dual eligible enrollment populations reported through the Medicaid Statistical Information System (MSIS).
Full-benefit dual eligible individual means an individual who, for any month-
(1) Has coverage for the month under a prescription drug plan under Part D of title XVIII, or under an MA-PD plan under Part C of title XVIII; and
(2) Is determined eligible by the State for medical assistance for full benefits under title XIX for the month under any eligibility category covered under the State plan or comprehensive benefits under a demonstration under section 1115 of the Act. (This does not include individuals under Pharmacy Plus demonstrations or under a section 1115 of the Act demonstration that provides pharmacy only benefits to these individuals.) It also includes any individual who is determined by the State to be eligible for medical assistance under section 1902(a)(10)(C) of the Act (medically needy) or section 1902(f) of the Act (States that use more restrictive eligibility criteria than are used by the SSI program) of the Act for any month if the individual was eligible for medical assistance in any part of the month. For the 2003 baseline calculations, the full-benefit dual eligibles are those individuals reported in MSIS as having Medicaid drug benefit coverage and Medicare Part A or Part B coverage. Dual eligibility status will be established by CMS using an algorithm that incorporates the quarterly MSIS dual eligibility code for the prescription fill date and the dual eligibility code for the prior quarter.
Gross base year Medicaid per capita expenditures are equal to the expenditures, including dispensing fees, made by the State and reported in MSIS during calendar year 2003 for covered outpatient drugs, excluding drugs or classes of drugs, or their medical uses, which may be excluded from coverage or otherwise restricted under section 1860D-2 of the Act, other than smoking cessation agents determined per full-benefit dual eligible individual for the individuals not receiving medical assistance for the drugs through a comprehensive Medicaid managed care plan. This amount is determined based on MSIS drug claims paid during the four quarters of calendar year 2003 and the corresponding dual eligibility enrollment status of the beneficiary. MSIS drug claims having National Drug Codes determined by CMS to be in the Part D excluded drug class, and claims having a program type code indicating Indian Health Service or Family Planning will be excluded from the calculation.
Noncovered drugs are those drugs specifically excluded from the definition of Part D drug, which may be excluded from coverage or otherwise restricted under Medicaid under sections 1927(d)(2) or (d)(3) of the Act, except for smoking cessation agents.
Phased-down State contribution factor for a month in 2006 is 90 percent; in 2007 is 88 1/3 percent; in 2008 is 86 2/3 percent; in 2009 is 85 percent; in 2010 is 83 1/3 percent; in 2011 is 81 2/3 percent; in 2012 is 80 percent; in 2013 is 78 1/3 percent; in 2014 is 76 2/3 percent; or after December 2014, is 75 percent.
Phased-down State contribution payment refers to the States' monthly payment made to the Federal government beginning in 2006 to defray a portion of the Medicare drug expenditures for full-benefit dual eligible individuals whose Medicaid drug coverage is assumed by Medicare Part D. The contribution is calculated as 1/12th of the base year (2003) Medicaid per capita expenditures for prescription drugs (that is, covered Part D drugs) for full-benefit dual eligible individuals,
(1) Multiplied by the State medical assistance percentage;
(2) Increased for each year (beginning with 2004 up to and including the year involved) by the applicable growth factor;
(3) Multiplied by the number of the State's full-benefit dual eligible individuals for the given month; and
(4) Multiplied by the phased-down State contribution factor.
Rebate adjustment factor takes into account drug rebates and, for a State, is equal to the ratio of the four quarters of calendar year 2003 of aggregate rebate payments received by the State under section 1927 of the Act to the gross expenditures for covered outpatient drugs.
State medical assistance percentage means the proportion equal to 100 percent minus the State's Federal medical assistance percentage, applicable to the State for the fiscal year in which the month occurs.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 20509, Apr. 15, 2008]
§ 423.904 Eligibility determinations for low-income subsidies.
(a) General rule. The State agency must make eligibility determinations and redeterminations for low-income premium and cost-sharing subsidies in accordance with subpart P of part 423.
(b) Notification to CMS. The State agency must inform CMS of cases where eligibility is established or redetermined, in a manner determined by CMS.
(c) Screening for eligibility for Medicare cost-sharing and enrollment under the State plan. States must—
(1) Screen individuals who apply for subsidies under this part for eligibility for Medicaid programs that provide assistance with Medicare cost-sharing specified in section 1905(p)(3) of the Act.
(2) Offer enrollment for the programs under the State plan (or under a waiver of the plan) for those meeting the eligibility requirements.
(d) Application form and process—(1) Assistance with application. No later than July 1, 2005, States must make available—
(i) Low-income subsidy application forms;
(ii) Information on the nature of, and eligibility requirements for, the subsidies under this section; and
(iii) Assistance with completion of low-income subsidy application forms.
(2) Completion of application. The State must require an individual or personal representative applying for the low-income subsidy to—
(i) Complete all required elements of the application and provide documents, as necessary, consistent with paragraph (d)(3) of this section; and
(ii) Certify, under penalty of perjury or similar sanction for false statements, as to the accuracy of the information provided on the application form.
(3) The application process and States. (i) States may require submission of statements from financial institutions for an application for low-income subsidies to be considered complete; and
(ii) May require that information submitted on the application be subject to verification in a manner the State determines to be most cost-effective and efficient.
(4) Other information. States must provide CMS with other information as specified by CMS that may be needed to carry out the requirements of the Part D prescription drug benefit.
§ 423.906 General payment provisions.
(a) Regular Federal matching. Regular Federal matching applies to the eligibility determination and notification activities specified in § 423.904(a) and (b).
(b) Medicare as primary payer. Medicare is the primary payer for covered drugs for Part D eligible individuals. Medical assistance is not available to full-benefit dual eligible individuals, including those not enrolled in a Part D plan, for—
(1) Part D drugs; or
(2) Any cost-sharing obligations under Part D relating to Part D drugs.
(3) The effective date of paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section is January 1, 2006.
(c) Noncovered drugs. States may elect to provide coverage for outpatient drugs other than Part D drugs in the same manner as provided for non-full benefit dual eligible individuals or through an arrangement with a prescription drug plan or a MA-PD plan.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 20509, Apr. 15, 2008]
§ 423.907 Treatment of territories.
(a) General rules. (1) Low-income Part D eligible individuals who reside in the territories are not eligible to receive premium and cost-sharing subsidies under subpart P of this part.
(2) A territory may submit a plan to the Secretary under which medical assistance is to be provided to low-income individuals for the provision of covered Part D drugs.
(3) Territories with plans approved by the Secretary will receive increased grants under section 1935(e)(3) of the Act as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
(b) Plan requirements. Plans submitted to the Secretary must include the following:
(1) A description of the medical assistance to be provided.
(2) The low-income population (income less than 150 percent of the Federal poverty level) to receive medical assistance.
(3) An assurance that no more than 10 percent of the amount of the increased grant will be used for administrative expenses.
(c) Increased grant amounts. The amount of the grant provided under section 1108 (f) of the Act as increased by section 1108 (g) of the Act for each territory with an approved plan for a year is the amount in paragraph (d) of this section multiplied by the ratio of—
(1) The number of individuals who are entitled to benefits under Part A or enrolled under Part B and who reside in the territory (as determined by the Secretary based on the most recent available data for the beginning of the year); and
(2) The sum of the number of individuals in all territories in paragraph (c)(1) of this section with approved plans.
(d) Total grant amount. The total grant amount is—
(1) For the last three quarters of fiscal year 2006, $28,125,000;
(2) For fiscal year 2007, $37,500,000; and
(3) For each subsequent year, the amount for the prior fiscal year increased by the annual percentage increase described in § 423.104(d)(5)(iv).
§ 423.908 Phased-down State contribution to drug benefit costs assumed by Medicare.
This subpart sets forth the requirements for State contributions for Part D drug benefits based on full-benefit dual eligible individual drug expenditures.
§ 423.910 Requirements.
(a) General rule. Each of the 50 States and the District of Columbia is required to provide for payment to CMS a phased-down contribution to defray a portion of the Medicare drug expenditures for individuals whose projected Medicaid drug coverage is assumed by Medicare Part D.
(b) State contribution payment—
(1) Calculation of payment. The State contribution payment is calculated by CMS on a monthly basis, as indicated in the following chart. For States that do not meet state enrollment reporting requirement described in paragraph (d) of this section, the State contribution payment is calculated using a methodology determined by CMS.
Illustrative Calculation of State Phased-down Monthly Contribution for 2006
Item | Illustrative Value | Source
(i) Gross per capita Medicaid expenditures for prescription drugs for 2003 for full-benefit dual eligibles not receiving drug coverage through a comprehensive Medicaid managed care plan, excluding drugs not covered by Part D $2,000 CY MSIS data
(ii) Aggregate State rebate receipts in calendar year 2003 $100,000,000 CMS-64
(iii) Gross State Medicaid expenditures for prescription drugs in calendar year 2003 $500,000,000 CMS-64
(iv) Rebate adjustment factor 0.2000 (2) ÷ (3)
(v) Adjusted 2003 gross per capita Medicaid expenditures for prescription drugs for full-benefit dual eligibles not in comprehensive managed care plans $1,600 (1) × [1 − (4)]
(vi) Estimated actuarial value of prescription drug benefits under comprehensive capitated managed care plans for full-benefit dual eligibles for 2003 $1,500 To be Determined
(vii) Average number of full-benefit dual eligibles in 2003 who did not receive covered outpatient drugs through comprehensive Medicaid managed care plans 90,000 CY MSIS data
(viii) Average number of full-benefit dual eligibles in 2003 who received covered outpatient drugs through comprehensive Medicaid managed care plans 10,000 CY MSIS data
(ix) Base year State Medicaid per capita expenditures for covered Part D drugs for full-benefit dual eligible individuals (weighted average of (5) and (6)) $1,590 [(7) × (5) + (8) × (6)] ÷ [(7) + (8)]
(x) 100 minus Federal Medical Assistance Percentage (FMAP) applicable to month of State contribution (as a proportion) 0.4000 Federal Register
(xi) Applicable growth factor (cumulative increase from 2003 through 2006) 50.0% NHE projections
(xii) Number of full-benefit dual eligibles for the month 120,000 State submitted data
(xiii) Phased-down State reduction factor for the month 0.9000 specified in statute
(xiv) Phased-down State contribution for the month $8,586,000 1 / 12 × (9) × (10) × [1 + (11)] × (12) × (13)
(2) Method of payment. Payments for the phased down State contribution begins in January 2006, and are made on a monthly basis for each subsequent month. State payment must be made in a manner specified by CMS that is similar to the manner in which State payments are made under the State Buy-in Program except that all payments must be deposited into the Medicare Prescription Drug Account in the Federal Supplementary Medical Insurance Trust Fund. The policy on collection of the Phased-down State contribution payment is the same as the policy that governs collection of Part A and Part B Medicare premiums for State Buy-in.
(c) State Medicaid Statistical Information System (MSIS) Reporting. Effective with calendar year (CY) 2003 and all subsequent MSIS data submittals, States are required to provide accurate and complete coding to identify the numbers and types of Medicaid and Medicare dual eligibles. Calendar year 2003 submittals must be complete and must be accepted, based on CMS' data quality review, by December 31, 2004.
(d) State monthly enrollment reporting.—
(1) States must submit an electronic file as specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, identifying each full-benefit dual eligible individual enrolled in the State for each month. This file must include specified information including identifying information, a dual eligible type code, available income data and institutional status. The file includes data on enrollment for the current month, plus retroactive changes in enrollment characteristics for prior months. This file will be used by CMS to establish the monthly enrollment for those individuals with Part D drug coverage who are also determined by the State to be eligible for full Medicaid benefits subject to the phased down State contribution payment. This file is due to CMS no later than the last day of the reporting month. For States that do not submit an acceptable file by the end of the month, the phased down State contribution for that month is based on data deemed appropriate by CMS.
(2)(i) For the period prior to April 1, 2022, States must submit the file at least monthly and may submit updates to that file on a more frequent basis.
(ii) For the period beginning April 1, 2022, States must submit the file at least monthly and must submit updates to that file on a daily basis.
(e) Data match. CMS performs those periodic data matches as may be necessary to identify and compute the number of full-benefit dual eligible individuals needed to establish the State contribution payment.
(f) Rebate adjustment factor. CMS establishes the rebate adjustment factor using total drug expenditures made and drug rebates received during calendar year 2003 as reported on CMS 64 Medicaid expenditure reports for the four quarters of calendar year 2003 that were received by CMS on or before March 31, 2004. Rebates include rebates received under the national rebate agreement and under a State supplemental rebate program, as reported on CMS-64 expenditure reports for the four quarters of calendar year 2003.
(g) Annual per capita drug expenditures. CMS notifies each State no later than October 15 before each calendar year, beginning October 15, 2005, of their annual per capita drug payment expenditure amount for the next year.
[70 FR 4525, Jan. 28, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 20509, Apr. 15, 2008; 85 FR 25634, May 1, 2020]
Subpart T Appeal Procedures for Civil Money Penalties
Source: 72 FR 68736, Dec. 5, 2007, unless otherwise noted.
§ 423.1000 Basis and scope.
(a) Statutory basis. (1) Section 1128A(c)(2) of the Act provides that the Secretary may not collect a civil money penalty until the affected party has had notice and opportunity for a hearing.
(2) Section 1857 (g) of the Act provides that, for Part D sponsors found to be out of compliance with the requirements in part 423, specified remedies may be imposed instead of, or in addition to, termination of the Part D sponsor's contract. Section 1857(g)(4) of the Act makes certain provisions of section 1128A of the Act applicable to civil money penalties imposed on Part D sponsors.
(3)(i) CMS must impose a civil money penalty on a manufacturer that fails to provide applicable discounts for applicable drugs of the manufacturer dispensed to applicable beneficiaries in accordance with the terms of such manufacturer's—
(A) Coverage Gap Discount Program agreement, in accordance with section 1860D-14A(e)(2) of the Act; and
(B) Manufacturer Discount Program agreement, in accordance with section 1860D-14C(e) of the Act.
(ii) The provisions of section 1128A (other than subsections (a) and (b)) of the Act apply to a civil money penalty under paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section.
(b) [Reserved]
[72 FR 68736, Dec. 5, 2007, as amended 77 FR 22171, Apr. 12, 2012; 91 FR 17591, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.1002 Definitions.
As used in this subpart—
Affected party means any Part D sponsor or, for purposes of the Coverage Gap Discount Program, any manufacturer (as defined in § 423.100), or, for purposes of the Manufacturer Discount Program, any manufacturer that is an agreement holder (as defined in § 423.2704), impacted by an initial determination or, if applicable, by a subsequent determination or decision issued under this part, and “party” means the affected party or CMS, as appropriate.
ALJ stands for Administrative Law Judge.
Departmental Appeals Board or Board means a Board established in the Office of the Secretary to provide impartial review of disputed decisions made by the operating components of the Department.
Part D sponsor has the meaning given the term in 423.4.
[72 FR 68736, Dec. 5, 2007, as amended 77 FR 22171, Apr. 12, 2012; 91 FR 17592, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.1004 Scope and applicability.
(a) Scope. This subpart sets forth procedures for reviewing initial determinations that CMS makes with respect to the matters specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) Initial determinations by CMS. CMS makes initial determinations with respect to the imposition of civil money penalties in accordance with part 423, subpart O.
§ 423.1006 Appeal rights.
(a) Appeal rights of Part D sponsors. (1) Any Part D sponsor dissatisfied with an initial determination as specified in 423.1004, has a right to a hearing before an ALJ in accordance with this subpart and may request Departmental Appeals Board review of the ALJ decision.
(2) Part D sponsors may request judicial review of the Departmental Appeals Board's decision that imposes a CMP.
(b) [Reserved]
§ 423.1008 Appointment of representatives.
(a) An affected party may appoint as its representative anyone not disqualified or suspended from acting as a representative in proceedings before the Secretary or otherwise prohibited by law.
(b) If the representative appointed is not an attorney, the party must file written notice of the appointment with the ALJ or the Departmental Appeals Board.
(c) If the representative appointed is an attorney, the attorney's statement that he or she has the authority to represent the party is sufficient.
§ 423.1010 Authority of representatives.
(a) A representative appointed and qualified in accordance with 423.1008 may, on behalf of the represented party—
(1) Give and accept any notice or request pertinent to the proceedings set forth in this part;
(2) Present evidence and allegations as to facts and law in any proceedings affecting that party to the same extent as the party; and
(3) Obtain information to the same extent as the party.
(b) A notice or request may be sent to the affected party, to the party's representative, or to both. A notice or request sent to the representative has the same force and effect as if it had been sent to the party.
§ 423.1012 Fees for services of representatives.
Fees for any services performed on behalf of an affected party by an attorney appointed and qualified in accordance with 423.1008 are not subject to the provisions of section 206 of Title II of the Act, which authorizes the Secretary to specify or limit those fees.
§ 423.1014 Charge for transcripts.
A party that requests a transcript of prehearing or hearing proceedings or Board review must pay the actual or estimated cost of preparing the transcript unless, for good cause shown by that party, the payment is waived by the ALJ or the Departmental Appeals Board, as appropriate.
§ 423.1016 Filing of briefs with the Administrative Law Judge or Departmental Appeals Board, and opportunity for rebuttal.
(a) Filing of briefs and related documents. If a party files a brief or related document such as a written argument, contention, suggested finding of fact, conclusion of law, or any other written statement, it must submit an original and 1 copy to the ALJ or the Departmental Appeals Board, as appropriate. The material may be filed by mail or in person and must include a statement certifying that a copy has been furnished to the other party.
(b) Opportunity for rebuttal. (1) The other party will have 20 calendar days from the date of mailing or in person filing to submit any rebuttal statement or additional evidence. If a party submits a rebuttal statement or additional evidence, it must file an original and 1 copy with the ALJ or the Board and furnish a copy to the other party.
(2) The ALJ or the Board will grant an opportunity to reply to the rebuttal statement only if the party shows good cause.
[72 FR 68736, Dec. 5, 2007, as amended at 79 FR 29966, May 23, 2014]
§ 423.1018 Notice and effect of initial determinations.
(a) Notice of initial determination—(1) General rule. CMS, as required under 422.756(f)(2), mails notice of an initial determination to the affected party, setting forth the basis or reasons for the determination, the effect of the determination, the party's right to a hearing, and information about where to file the request for a hearing.
(b) Effect of initial determination. An initial determination is binding unless—
(1) The affected party requests a hearing; or
(2) CMS revises its decision.
§ 423.1020 Request for hearing.
(a) Manner and timing of request. (1) A Part D sponsor is entitled to a hearing as specified in 423.1006 and may file a request with the Departmental Appeals Board office specified in the initial determination.
(2) The Part D sponsor or its legal representative or other authorized official must file the request, in writing, to the appropriate Departmental Appeals Board office, with a copy to CMS, within 60 calendar days after receipt of the notice of initial determination, to request a hearing before an ALJ to appeal any determination by CMS to impose a civil money penalty.
(b) Content of request for hearing. The request for hearing must—
(1) Identify the specific issues, and the findings of fact and conclusions of law with which the affected party disagrees; and
(2) Specify the basis for each contention that a CMS finding or conclusion of law is incorrect.
[72 FR 68736, Dec. 5, 2007, as amended at 79 FR 29966, May 23, 2014]
§ 423.1022 Parties to the hearing.
The parties to the hearing are the affected party and CMS, as appropriate.
§ 423.1024 Designation of hearing official.
(a) The Chair of the Departmental Appeals Board, or his or her delegate, designates an ALJ or a member or members of the Departmental Appeals Board to conduct the hearing.
(b) If appropriate, the Chair or the delegate may substitute another ALJ or another member or other members of the Departmental Appeals Board to conduct the hearing.
(c) As used in this part, “ALJ” includes a member or members of the Departmental Appeals Board who are designated to conduct a hearing.
§ 423.1026 Disqualification of Administrative Law Judge.
(a) An ALJ may not conduct a hearing in a case in which he or she is prejudiced or partial to the affected party or has any interest in the matter pending for decision.
(b) A party that objects to the ALJ designated to conduct the hearing must give notice of its objections at the earliest opportunity.
(c) The ALJ will consider the objections and decide whether to withdraw or proceed with the hearing.
(1) If the ALJ withdraws, another ALJ will be designated to conduct the hearing.
(2) If the ALJ does not withdraw, the objecting party may, after the hearing, present its objections to the Departmental Appeals Board as reasons for changing, modifying, or reversing the ALJ's decision or providing a new hearing before another ALJ.
§ 423.1028 Prehearing conference.
(a) At any time before the hearing, the ALJ may call a prehearing conference for the purpose of delineating the issues in controversy, identifying the evidence and witnesses to be presented at the hearing, and obtaining stipulations accordingly.
(b) On the request of either party or on his or her own motion, the ALJ may adjourn the prehearing conference and reconvene at a later date.
§ 423.1030 Notice of prehearing conference.
(a) Timing of notice. The ALJ will fix a time and place for the prehearing conference and mail written notice to the parties at least 10 calendar days before the scheduled date.
(b) Content of notice. The notice will inform the parties of the purpose of the conference and specify what issues are sought to be resolved, agreed to, or excluded.
(c) Additional issues. Issues other than those set forth in the notice of determination or the request for hearing may be considered at the prehearing conference if—
(1) Either party gives timely notice to that effect to the ALJ and the other party; or
(2) The ALJ raises the issues in the notice of prehearing conference or at the conference.
§ 423.1032 Conduct of prehearing conference.
(a) The prehearing conference is open to the affected party or its representative, to the CMS representatives and their technical advisors, and to any other persons whose presence the ALJ considers necessary or proper.
(b) The ALJ may accept the agreement of the parties as to the following:
(1) Facts that are not in controversy.
(2) Questions that have been resolved favorably to the affected party after the determination in dispute.
(3) Remaining issues to be resolved.
(c) The ALJ may request the parties to indicate the following:
(1) The witnesses that will be present to testify at the hearing.
(2) The qualifications of those witnesses.
(3) The nature of other evidence to be submitted.
§ 423.1034 Record, order, and effect of prehearing conference.
(a) Record of prehearing conference. (1) A record is made of all agreements and stipulations entered into at the prehearing conference.
(2) The record may be transcribed at the request of either party or the ALJ.
(b) Order and opportunity to object. (1) The ALJ issues an order setting forth the results of the prehearing conference, including the agreements made by the parties as to facts not in controversy, the matters to be considered at the hearing, and the issues to be resolved.
(2) Copies of the order are sent to all parties and the parties have 10 calendar days to file objections to the order.
(3) After the 10 calendar days have elapsed, the ALJ settles the order.
(c) Effect of prehearing conference. The agreements and stipulations entered into at the prehearing conference are binding on all parties, unless a party presents facts that, in the opinion of the ALJ, would make an agreement unreasonable or inequitable.
§ 423.1036 Time and place of hearing.
(a) The ALJ fixes a time and place for the hearing and gives the parties written notice at least 10 calendar days before the scheduled date.
(b) The notice informs the parties of the general and specific issues to be resolved at the hearing.
§ 423.1038 Change in time and place of hearing.
(a) The ALJ may change the time and place for the hearing either on his or her own initiative or at the request of a party for good cause shown, or may adjourn or postpone the hearing.
(b) The ALJ may reopen the hearing for receipt of new evidence at any time before mailing the notice of hearing decision.
(c) The ALJ gives the parties reasonable notice of any change in time or place or any adjournment or reopening of the hearing.
§ 423.1040 Joint hearings.
When two or more affected parties have requested hearings and the same or substantially similar matters are at issue, the ALJ may, if all parties agree, fix a single time and place for the prehearing conference or hearing and conduct all proceedings jointly. If joint hearings are held, a single record of the proceedings is made and a separate decision issued with respect to each affected party.
§ 423.1042 Hearing on new issues.
(a) Basic rules. (1) Within the time limits specified in paragraph (b) of this section, the ALJ may, at the request of either party, or on his or her own motion, provide a hearing on new issues that impinge on the rights of the affected party.
(2) The ALJ may consider new issues even if CMS has not made initial determinations on them, and even if they arose after the request for hearing was filed or after a prehearing conference.
(3) The ALJ may give notice of hearing on new issues at any time after the hearing request is filed and before the hearing record is closed.
(b) Notice and conduct of hearing on new issues. (1) Unless the affected party waives its right to appear and present evidence, notice of the time and place of hearing on any new issue will be given to the parties in accordance with 423.1036.
(2) After giving notice, the ALJ will, except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, proceed to hearing on new issues in the same manner as on an issue raised in the request for hearing.
(c) Remand to CMS. At the request of either party, or on his or her own motion, in lieu of a hearing under paragraph (b) of this section, the ALJ may remand the case to CMS for consideration of the new issue and, if appropriate, a determination. If necessary, the ALJ may direct CMS to return the case to the ALJ for further proceedings.
§ 423.1044 Subpoenas.
(a) Basis for issuance. The ALJ, upon his or her own motion or at the request of a party, may issue subpoenas if they are reasonably necessary for the full presentation of a case.
(b) Timing of request by a party. The party must file a written request for a subpoena with the ALJ at least 5 calendar days before the date set for the hearing.
(c) Content of request. The request must:
(1) Identify the witnesses or documents to be produced;
(2) Describe their addresses or location with sufficient particularity to permit them to be found; and
(3) Specify the pertinent facts the party expects to establish by the witnesses or documents, and indicate why those facts could not be established without use of a subpoena.
(d) Method of issuance. Subpoenas are issued in the name of the Secretary.
§ 423.1046 Conduct of hearing.
(a) Participants in the hearing. The hearing is open to the parties and their representatives and technical advisors, and to any other persons whose presence the ALJ considers necessary or proper.
(b) Hearing procedures. (1) The ALJ inquires fully into all of the matters at issue, and receives in evidence the testimony of witnesses and any documents that are relevant and material.
(2) If the ALJ believes that there is relevant and material evidence available which has not been presented at the hearing, he may, at any time before mailing of notice of the decision, reopen the hearing to receive that evidence.
(3) The ALJ decides the order in which the evidence and the arguments of the parties are presented and the conduct of the hearing.
(4) CMS has the burden of coming forward with evidence related to disputed findings that is sufficient (together with any undisputed findings and legal authority) to establish a prima facie case that CMS has a legally sufficient basis for its determination.
(5) The affected party has the burden of coming forward with evidence sufficient to establish the elements of any affirmative argument or defense which it offers.
(6) The affected party bears the ultimate burden of persuasion. To prevail, the affected party must prove by a preponderance of the evidence on the record as a whole that there is no basis for the determination.
(c) Review of the penalty. When an ALJ finds that the basis for imposing a civil money penalty exists, as specified in 423.752, the ALJ may not—
(1) Set a penalty of zero or reduce a penalty to zero, or
(2) Review the exercise of discretion by CMS to impose a civil money penalty.
§ 423.1048 Evidence.
Evidence may be received at the hearing even though inadmissible under the rules of evidence applicable to court procedure. The ALJ rules on the admissibility of evidence.
§ 423.1050 Witnesses.
Witnesses at the hearing testify under oath or affirmation. The representative of each party is permitted to examine his or her own witnesses subject to interrogation by the representative of the other party. The ALJ may ask any questions that he or she deems necessary. The ALJ rules upon any objection made by either party as to the propriety of any question.
§ 423.1052 Oral and written summation.
The parties to a hearing are allowed a reasonable time to present oral summation and to file briefs or other written statements of proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law. Copies of any briefs or other written statements must be sent in accordance with 423.1016.
§ 423.1054 Record of hearing.
A complete record of the proceedings at the hearing is made and transcribed in all cases.
§ 423.1056 Waiver of right to appear and present evidence.
(a) Waiver procedures. (1) If an affected party wishes to waive its right to appear and present evidence at the hearing, it must file a written waiver with the ALJ.
(2) If the affected party wishes to withdraw a waiver, it may do so, for good cause, at any time before the ALJ mails notice of the hearing decision.
(b) Effect of waiver. If the affected party waives the right to appear and present evidence, the ALJ need not conduct an oral hearing except in one of the following circumstances:
(1) The ALJ believes that the testimony of the affected party or its representatives or other witnesses is necessary to clarify the facts at issue.
(2) CMS shows good cause for requiring the presentation of oral evidence.
(c) Dismissal for failure to appear. If, despite the waiver, the ALJ sends notice of hearing and the affected party fails to appear, or to show good cause for the failure, the ALJ will dismiss the appeal in accordance with 423.1058.
(d) Hearing without oral testimony. When there is no oral testimony, the ALJ will—
(1) Make a record of the relevant written evidence that was considered in making the determination being appealed, and of any additional evidence submitted by the parties;
(2) Furnish to each party copies of the additional evidence submitted by the other party; and
(3) Give both parties a reasonable opportunity for rebuttal.
(e) Handling of briefs and related statements. If the parties submit briefs or other written statements of evidence or proposed findings of facts or conclusions of law, those documents will be handled in accordance with 423.1016.
§ 423.1058 Dismissal of request for hearing.
(a) The ALJ may, at any time before mailing the notice of the decision, dismiss a hearing request if a party withdraws its request for a hearing or the affected party asks that its request be dismissed.
(b) An affected party may request a dismissal by filing a written notice with the ALJ.
§ 423.1060 Dismissal for abandonment.
(a) The ALJ may dismiss a request for hearing if it is abandoned by the party that requested it.
(b) The ALJ may consider a request for hearing to be abandoned if the party or its representative—
(1) Fails to appear at the prehearing conference or hearing without having previously shown good cause for not appearing; and
(2) Fails to respond, within 10 calendar days after the ALJ sends a “show cause” notice, with a showing of good cause.
§ 423.1062 Dismissal for cause.
On his or her own motion, or on the motion of a party to the hearing, the ALJ may dismiss a hearing request either entirely or as to any stated issue, under any of the following circumstances:
(a) Res judicata. There has been a previous determination or decision with respect to the rights of the same affected party on the same facts and law pertinent to the same issue or issues which has become final either by judicial affirmance or, without judicial consideration, because the affected party did not timely request reconsideration, hearing, or review, or commence a civil action with respect to that determination or decision.
(b) No right to hearing. The party requesting a hearing is not a proper party or does not otherwise have a right to a hearing.
(c) Hearing request not timely filed. The affected party did not file a hearing request timely and the time for filing has not been extended.
§ 423.1064 Notice and effect of dismissal and right to request review.
(a) Notice of the ALJ's dismissal action is mailed to the parties. The notice advises the affected party of its right to request that the dismissal be vacated as provided in 423.1066.
(b) The dismissal of a request for hearing is binding unless it is vacated by the ALJ or the Departmental Appeals Board.
§ 423.1066 Vacating a dismissal of request for hearing.
An ALJ may vacate any dismissal of a request for hearing if a party files a request to that effect within 60 calendar days from receipt of the notice of dismissal and shows good cause for vacating the dismissal.
§ 423.1068 Administrative Law Judge's decision.
(a) Timing, basis and content. As soon as practical after the close of the hearing, the ALJ issues a written decision in the case. The decision is based on the evidence of record and contains separate numbered findings of fact and conclusions of law.
(b) Notice and effect. A copy of the decision is mailed to the parties and is binding on them unless—
(1) A party requests review by the Departmental Appeals Board within the time period specified in 423.1076, and the Board reviews the case;
(2) The Departmental Appeals Board denies the request for review and the party seeks judicial review by filing an action in a United States District Court or, in the case of a civil money penalty, in a United States Court of Appeals;
(3) The decision is revised by an ALJ or the Department Appeals Board; or
(4) The decision is a recommended decision directed to the Board.
§ 423.1070 Removal of hearing to Departmental Appeals Board.
(a) At any time before the ALJ receives oral testimony, the Board may remove to itself any pending request for a hearing.
(b) Notice of removal is mailed to each party.
(c) The Board conducts the hearing in accordance with the rules that apply to ALJ hearings under this subpart.
§ 423.1072 Remand by the Administrative Law Judge.
(a) If CMS requests remand, and the affected party concurs in writing or on the record, the ALJ may remand any case properly before him or her to CMS for a determination satisfactory to the affected party.
(b) The ALJ may remand at any time before notice of hearing decision is mailed.
§ 423.1074 Right to request Departmental Appeals Board review of Administrative Law Judge's decision or dismissal.
Either of the parties has a right to request Departmental Appeals Board review of the ALJ's decision or dismissal order, and the parties are so informed in the notice of the ALJ's action.
§ 423.1076 Request for Departmental Appeals Board review.
(a) Manner and time of filing. (1) Any party that is dissatisfied with an ALJ's decision or dismissal of a hearing request, may file a written request for review by the Departmental Appeals Board.
(2) The requesting party or its representative or other authorized official must file the request with the DAB within 60 calendar days from receipt of the notice of decision or dismissal, unless the Board, for good cause shown by the requesting party, extends the time for filing.
(b) Content of request for review. A request for review of an ALJ decision or dismissal must specify the issues, the findings of fact or conclusions of law with which the party disagrees, and the basis for contending that the findings and conclusions are incorrect.
§ 423.1078 Departmental Appeals Board action on request for review.
(a) Request by CMS. The Departmental Appeals Board may dismiss, deny, or grant a request made by CMS for review of an ALJ decision or dismissal.
(b) Request by the affected party. The Board may deny or grant the affected party's request for review or may dismiss the request for one of the following reasons:
(1) The affected party requests dismissal of its request for review.
(2) The affected party did not file timely or show good cause for late filing.
(3) The affected party does not have a right to review.
(4) A previous determination or decision, based on the same facts and law, and regarding the same issue, has become final through judicial affirmance or because the affected party failed to timely request reconsideration, hearing, Board review, or judicial review, as appropriate.
(c) Effect of dismissal. The dismissal of a request for Departmental Appeals Board review is binding and not subject to further review.
(d) Review panel. If the Board grants a request for review of the ALJ's decision, the review will be conducted by a panel of three members of the Board, designated by the Chair or Deputy Chair.
§ 423.1080 Procedures before the Departmental Appeals Board on review.
The parties are given, upon request, a reasonable opportunity to file briefs or other written statements as to fact and law, and to appear before the Departmental Appeals Board to present evidence or oral arguments. Copies of any brief or other written statement must be sent in accordance with 423.1016.
§ 423.1082 Evidence admissible on review.
(a) The Departmental Appeals Board may admit evidence into the record in addition to the evidence introduced at the ALJ hearing, (or the documents considered by the ALJ if the hearing was waived), if the Board considers that the additional evidence is relevant and material to an issue before it.
(b) If it appears to the Board that additional relevant evidence is available, the Board will require that it be produced.
(c) Before additional evidence is admitted into the record—
(1) Notice is mailed to the parties (unless they have waived notice) stating that evidence will be received regarding specified issues; and
(2) The parties are given a reasonable time to comment and to present other evidence pertinent to the specified issues.
(d) If additional evidence is presented orally to the Board, a transcript is prepared and made available to any party upon request.
§ 423.1084 Decision or remand by the Departmental Appeals Board.
(a) When the Departmental Appeals Board reviews an ALJ's decision or order of dismissal, or receives a case remanded by a court, the Board may either issue a decision or remand the case to an ALJ for a hearing and decision or a recommended decision for final decision by the Board.
(b) In a remanded case, the ALJ initiates additional proceedings and takes other actions as directed by the Board in its order of remand, and may take other action not inconsistent with that order.
(c) Upon completion of all action called for by the remand order and any other consistent action, the ALJ promptly makes a decision or, as specified by the Board, certifies the case to the Board with a recommended decision.
(d) The parties have 20 calendar days from the date of a notice of a recommended decision to submit to the Board any exception, objection, or comment on the findings of fact, conclusions of law, and recommended decision.
(e) After the 20-calendar day period, the Board issues its decision adopting, modifying or rejecting the ALJ's recommended decision.
(f) If the Board does not remand the case to an ALJ, the following rules apply:
(1) The Board's decision—
(i) Is based upon the evidence in the hearing record and any further evidence that the Board receives during its review;
(ii) Is in writing and contains separate numbered findings of fact and conclusions of law; and
(iii) May modify, affirm, or reverse the ALJ's decision.
(2) A copy of the Board's decision is mailed to each party.
§ 423.1086 Effect of Departmental Appeals Board Decision.
(a) General rule. The Board's decision is binding unless—
(1) The affected party has a right to judicial review and timely files a civil action in a United States District Court or, in the case of a civil money penalty, in a United States Court of Appeals; or
(2) The Board reopens and revises its decision in accordance with 423.1092.
(b) Right to judicial review. Section 423.1006 specifies the circumstances under which an affected party has a right to seek judicial review.
(c) Special rules: Civil money penalty. Finality of Board's decision. When CMS imposes a civil money penalty, notice of the Board's decision (or denial of review) is the final administrative action that initiates the 60-calendar day period for seeking judicial review.
§ 423.1088 Extension of time for seeking judicial review.
(a) Any affected party that is dissatisfied with an Departmental Appeals Board decision and is entitled to judicial review must commence civil action within 60 calendar days from receipt of the notice of the Board's decision, unless the Board extends the time in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
(b) The request for extension must be filed in writing with the Board before the 60-calendar day period ends.
(c) For good cause shown, the Board may extend the time for commencing civil action.
§ 423.1090 Basis, timing, and authority for reopening an Administrative Law Judge or Board decision.
(a) Basis and timing for reopening. An ALJ of Departmental Appeals Board decision may be reopened, within 60 calendar days from the date of the notice of decision, upon the motion of the ALJ or the Board or upon the petition of either party to the hearing.
(b) Authority to reopen. (1) A decision of the Departmental Appeals Board may be reopened only by the Departmental Appeals Board.
(2) A decision of an ALJ may be reopened by that ALJ, by another ALJ if that one is not available, or by the Departmental Appeals Board. For purposes of this paragraph, an ALJ is considered to be unavailable if the ALJ has died, terminated employment, or been transferred to another duty station, is on leave of absence, or is unable to conduct a hearing because of illness.
§ 423.1092 Revision of reopened decision.
(a) Revision based on new evidence. If a reopened decision is to be revised on the basis of new evidence that was not included in the record of that decision, the ALJ or the Departmental Appeals Board—
(1) Notifies the parties of the proposed revision; and
(2) Unless the parties waive their right to hearing or appearance—
(i) Grants a hearing in the case of an ALJ revision; and
(ii) Grants opportunity to appear in the case of a Board revision.
(b) Basis for revised decision and right to review. (1) If a revised decision is necessary, the ALJ or the Departmental Appeals Board, as appropriate, renders it on the basis of the entire record.
(2) If the decision is revised by an ALJ, the Departmental Appeals Board may review that revised decision at the request of either party or on its own motion.
§ 423.1094 Notice and effect of revised decision.
(a) Notice. The notice mailed to the parties states the basis or reason for the revised decision and informs them of their right to Departmental Appeals Board review of an ALJ revised decision, or to judicial review of a Board reviewed decision.
(b) Effect—(1) ALJ revised decision. An ALJ revised decision is binding unless it is reviewed by the Departmental Appeals Board.
(2) Departmental Appeals Board revised decision. A Board revised decision is binding unless a party files a civil action in a district court of the United States within the time frames specified in 423.1088.
[72 FR 68726, Dec. 5, 2007, as amended at 85 FR 72909, Nov. 16, 2020]
Subpart U Reopening, ALJ Hearings and ALJ and Attorney Adjudicator Decisions, Council Review, and Judicial Review
Source: 74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, unless otherwise noted.
§ 423.1968 Scope.
This subpart sets forth the requirements relating to the following:
(a) Part D sponsors, the Part D IRE, ALJs and attorney adjudicators, and the Council with respect to reopenings.
(b) ALJs with respect to hearings and decisions or decisions of attorney adjudicators if no hearing is conducted.
(c) The Council with respect to review of Part D appeals.
(d) Part D enrollees' rights with respect to reopenings, ALJ hearings and ALJ or attorney adjudicator reviews, Council reviews, and judicial review by a Federal District Court.
[82 FR 5125, Jan. 17, 2017]
§§ 423.1970-423.1976 [Reserved]
§ 423.1978 Reopening determinations and decisions.
(a) A coverage determination or redetermination made by a Part D plan sponsor, a reconsideration made by the independent review entity specified in § 423.600, or the decision of an ALJ or attorney adjudicator or the Council that is otherwise binding may be reopened and revised by the entity that made the determination or decision as provided in § 423.1980 through § 423.1986.
(b) The filing of a request for reopening does not relieve the Part D plan sponsor of its obligation to make payment or provide benefits as specified in § 423.636 or § 423.638 of this chapter.
(c) Once an entity issues a revised determination or decision, the revisions made by the decision may be appealed.
(d) A decision not to reopen by the Part D plan sponsor or any other entity is not subject to review.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5126, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.1980 Reopening of coverage determinations, redeterminations, reconsiderations, decisions, and reviews.
(a) General rules. (1) A reopening is a remedial action taken to change a binding determination or decision, even though the binding determination or decision may have been correct at the time it was made based on the evidence of record. Consistent with § 423.1978(a), that action may be taken by—
(i) A Part D plan sponsor to revise the coverage determination or redetermination;
(ii) An IRE to revise the reconsideration;
(iii) An ALJ or attorney adjudicator to revise his or her decision; or
(iv) The Council to revise the ALJ or attorney adjudicator decision, or its review decision.
(2) When an enrollee has filed a valid request for an appeal of a coverage determination, redetermination, reconsideration, ALJ or attorney adjudicator decision, or Council review, no adjudicator has jurisdiction to reopen an issue that is under appeal until all appeal rights for that issue are exhausted. Once the appeal rights for the issue have been exhausted, the Part D plan sponsor, IRE, ALJ or attorney adjudicator, or Council may reopen as set forth in this section.
(3) Consistent with § 423.1978(b), the filing of a request for reopening does not relieve the Part D plan sponsor of its obligation to make payment or provide benefits as specified in § 423.636 or § 423.638.
(4) Consistent with § 423.1978(d), the Part D plan sponsor's, IRE's, ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's, or Council's decision on whether to reopen is binding and not subject to appeal.
(5) A determination under the Medicare secondary payer provisions of section 1862(b) of the Act that Medicare has an MSP recovery claim for drug claims that were already reimbursed by the Part D plan sponsor is not a reopening.
(b) Timeframes and requirements for reopening coverage determinations and redeterminations initiated by a Part D plan sponsor. A Part D plan sponsor may reopen its coverage determination or redetermination on its own motion:
(1) Within 1 year from the date of the coverage determination or redetermination for any reason.
(2) Within 4 years from the date of the coverage determination or redetermination for good cause as defined in § 423.1986.
(3) At any time if there exists reliable evidence as defined in § 405.902 of this chapter that the coverage determination was procured by fraud or similar fault as defined in § 405.902.
(c) Timeframe and requirements for reopening coverage determinations and redeterminations requested by an enrollee. (1) An enrollee may request that a Part D plan sponsor reopen its coverage determination or redetermination within 1 year from the date of the coverage determination or redetermination for any reason.
(2) An enrollee may request that a Part D plan sponsor reopen its coverage determination or redetermination within 4 years from the date of the coverage determination or redetermination for good cause in accordance with § 423.1986.
(d) Time frame and requirements for reopening reconsiderations, decisions and reviews initiated by an IRE, ALJ or attorney adjudicator, or the Council. (1) An IRE may reopen its reconsideration on its own motion within 180 calendar days from the date of the reconsideration for good cause in accordance with § 423.1986. If the IRE's reconsideration was procured by fraud or similar fault, then the IRE may reopen at any time.
(2) An ALJ or attorney adjudicator may reopen his or her decision, or the Council may reopen an ALJ or attorney adjudicator decision on its own motion within 180 calendar days from the date of the decision for good cause in accordance with § 423.1986. If the decision was procured by fraud or similar fault, then the ALJ or attorney adjudicator may reopen his or her decision, or the Council may reopen an ALJ or attorney adjudicator decision at any time.
(3) The Council may reopen its review decision on its own motion within 180 calendar days from the date of the review decision for good cause in accordance with § 423.1986. If the Council's decision was procured by fraud or similar fault, then the Council may reopen at any time.
(e) Time frames and requirements for reopening reconsiderations, decisions, and reviews requested by an enrollee or a Part D plan sponsor. (1) An enrollee who received a reconsideration or a Part D plan sponsor may request that an IRE reopen its reconsideration decision within 180 calendar days from the date of the reconsideration for good cause in accordance with § 423.1986.
(2) An enrollee who received an ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision or a Part D plan sponsor may request that an ALJ or attorney adjudicator reopen his or her decision, or the Council reopen an ALJ or attorney adjudicator decision, within 180 calendar days from the date of the decision for good cause in accordance with § 423.1986.
(3) An enrollee who received a Council decision or a Part D plan sponsor may request that the Council reopen its decision within 180 calendar days from the date of the review decision for good cause in accordance with § 423.1986.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5126, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.1982 Notice of a revised determination or decision.
(a) When adjudicators initiate reopenings. When any determination or decision is reopened and revised as provided in § 423.1980:
(1) The Part D plan sponsor, IRE, ALJ or attorney adjudicator, or the Council must mail its revised determination or decision to the enrollee at his or her last known address.
(2) The IRE, ALJ or attorney adjudicator, or the Council must mail its revised determination or decision to the Part D plan sponsor.
(3) An adverse revised determination or decision must state the rationale and basis for the reopening and revision and any right to appeal.
(b) Reopenings initiated at the request of an enrollee or a Part D plan sponsor. (1) The Part D plan sponsor, IRE, ALJ or attorney adjudicator, or the Council must mail its revised determination or decision to the enrollee at his or her last known address.
(2) The IRE, ALJ or attorney adjudicator or the Council must mail its revised determination or decision to the Part D plan sponsor.
(3) An adverse revised determination or decision must state the rationale and basis for the reopening and revision and any right to appeal.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5126, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.1984 Effect of a revised determination or decision.
(a) Coverage determinations. The revision of a coverage determination is binding unless an enrollee submits a request for a redetermination that is accepted and processed in accordance with § 423.580 through § 423.590.
(b) Redeterminations. The revision of a redetermination is binding unless an enrollee submits a request for an IRE reconsideration that is accepted and processed in accordance with § 423.600 through § 423.604.
(c) Reconsiderations. The revision of a reconsideration is binding unless an enrollee submits a request for an ALJ hearing that is accepted and processed in accordance with §§ 423.2000 through 423.2063.
(d) ALJ or attorney adjudicator decisions. The revision of an ALJ or attorney adjudicator decision is binding unless an enrollee submits a request for a Council review that is accepted and processed as specified in §§ 423.2100 through 423.2130.
(e) Council review. The revision of a Council determination or decision is binding unless an enrollee files a civil action in which a Federal District Court accepts jurisdiction and issues a decision.
(f) Appeal of only the portion of the determination or decision revised by the reopening. Only the portion of the coverage determination, redetermination, reconsideration, or hearing decision revised by the reopening may be subsequently appealed.
(g) Effect of a revised determination or decision. Consistent with § 423.1978(c), a revised determination or decision is binding unless it is appealed or otherwise reopened.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5127, Jan. 17, 2017; 84 FR 19872, May 7, 2019]
§ 423.1986 Good cause for reopening.
(a) Establishing good cause. Good cause may be established when—
(1) There is new and material evidence that—
(i) Was not available or known at the time of the determination or decision; and
(ii) May result in a different conclusion; or
(2) The evidence that was considered in making the determination or decision clearly shows on its face that an obvious error was made at the time of the determination or decision.
(b) Change in substantive law or interpretative policy. (1) General rule. A change of legal interpretation or policy by CMS in a regulation, CMS ruling, or CMS general instruction, whether made in response to judicial precedent or otherwise, is not a basis for reopening a determination or hearing decision regarding appeals under this section.
(2) An adjudicator may reopen a determination or decision to apply the current law or CMS or the Part D plan sponsor policy rather than the law or CMS or the Part D plan sponsor policy at the time the coverage determination is made in situations where the enrollee has not yet received the drug and the current law or CMS or the Part D plan sponsor policy may affect whether the drug should be received.
(c) Third party payer error. A request to reopen a claim based upon a third party payer's error in making a primary payment determination when Medicare processed the claim in accordance with the information in its system of records or on the claim form does not constitute good cause for reopening.
§ 423.1990 Expedited access to judicial review.
(a) Process for expedited access to judicial review. (1) For purposes of this section, a “review entity” means an entity of up to three reviewers who are ALJs or members of the Departmental Appeals Board, as determined by the Secretary.
(2) In order to obtain expedited access to judicial review (EAJR), a review entity must certify that the Council does not have the authority to decide the question of law or regulation relevant to the matters in dispute and that there is no material issue of fact in dispute.
(3) An enrollee may make a request for EAJR only once with respect to a question of law or regulation for a specific matter in dispute in an appeal.
(b) Conditions for making the expedited appeals request. (1) An enrollee may request EAJR in place of an ALJ hearing or Council review if the following conditions are met:
(i) An IRE has made a reconsideration determination and the enrollee has filed a request for an ALJ hearing in accordance with § 423.2002 and a decision, dismissal order, or remand order of the ALJ or an attorney adjudicator has not been issued; or
(ii) An ALJ or attorney adjudicator has made a decision and the enrollee has filed a request for Council review in accordance with § 423.2102 and a final decision, dismissal order, or remand order of the Council has not been issued.
(2) The requestor is an enrollee.
(3) The amount remaining in controversy meets the threshold requirements specified in § 423.2006.
(4) If there is more than one enrollee to the hearing or Council review, each enrollee concurs, in writing, with the request for the EAJR.
(5) There are no material issues of fact in dispute.
(c) Content of the request for EAJR. The request for EAJR must—
(1) Allege that there are no material issues of fact in dispute and identify the facts that the enrollee considers material and that are not disputed; and
(2) Assert that the only factor precluding a decision favorable to the enrollee is—
(i) A statutory provision that is unconstitutional, or a provision of a regulation that is invalid and specify the statutory provision that the enrollee considers unconstitutional or the provision of a regulation that the enrollee considers invalid; or
(ii) A CMS Ruling that the enrollee considers invalid.
(3) Include a copy of the IRE reconsideration and of any ALJ or attorney adjudicator decision that the enrollee has received;
(4) If the IRE reconsideration or ALJ or attorney adjudicator decision was based on facts that the enrollee is disputing, state why the enrollee considers those facts to be immaterial; and
(5) If the IRE reconsideration or ALJ or attorney adjudicator decision was based on a provision of a law, regulation, or CMS Ruling in addition to the one the enrollee considers unconstitutional or invalid, a statement as to why further administrative review of how that provision applies to the facts is not necessary.
(d) Place and time for an EAJR request. (1) Method and place for filing request. The enrollee may—
(i) If a request for ALJ hearing or Council review is not pending, file a written EAJR request with the HHS Departmental Appeals Board, with his or her request for an ALJ hearing or Council review; or
(ii) If an appeal is already pending for an ALJ hearing or otherwise before OMHA or the Council, file a written EAJR request with the HHS Departmental Appeals Board.
(2) Time of filing request. The enrollee may file a request for EAJR—
(i) If the enrollee has requested a hearing, at any time before receipt of the notice of the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision; or
(ii) If the enrollee has requested Council review, at any time before receipt of notice of the Council's decision.
(e) Determination on EAJR request. (1) The review entity described in paragraph (a) of this section will determine whether the request for EAJR meets all of the requirements of paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section.
(2) Within 60 calendar days after the date the review entity receives a request and accompanying documents and materials meeting the conditions in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, the review entity will issue either a certification in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section or a denial of the request.
(3) A determination by the review entity either certifying that the requirements for EAJR are met pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section or denying the request is not subject to review by the Secretary.
(4) If the review entity fails to make a determination within the timeframe specified in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, then the enrollee may bring a civil action in Federal District Court within 60 calendar days of the end of the timeframe.
(f) Certification by the review entity. If an enrollee meets the requirements for the EAJR, the review entity certifies in writing that—
(1) The material facts involved in the appeal are not in dispute;
(2) Except as indicated in paragraph (f)(3) of this section, the Secretary's interpretation of the law is not in dispute;
(3) The sole issue(s) in dispute is the constitutionality of a statutory provision, or the validity of a provision of a regulation or CMS Ruling;
(4) But for the provision challenged, the enrollee would receive a favorable decision on the ultimate issue; and
(5) The certification by the review entity is the Secretary's final action for purposes of seeking expedited judicial review.
(g) Effect of certification by the review entity. If an EAJR request results in a certification described in paragraph (f) of this section:
(1) The enrollee that requested the EAJR is considered to have waived any right to completion of the remaining steps of the administrative appeals process regarding the matter certified.
(2) The enrollee has 60 calendar days, beginning on the date of the review entity's certification within which to bring a civil action in Federal District Court.
(3) The enrollee must satisfy the requirements for venue under section 205(g) of the Act, as well as the requirements for filing a civil action in a Federal District Court under § 423.2136.
(h) Rejection of EAJR. (1) If a request for EAJR does not meet all the conditions set out in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, or if the review entity does not certify a request for EAJR, the review entity advises the enrollee in writing that the request has been denied, and forwards the request to OMHA or the Council, which will treat it as a request for hearing or for Council review, as appropriate.
(2) Whenever a review entity forwards a rejected EAJR request to OMHA or the Council, the appeal is considered timely filed and, if an adjudication time frame applies to the appeal, the adjudication time frame begins on the day the request is received by OMHA or the Council from the review entity.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5127, Jan. 17, 2017; 84 FR 19872, May 7, 2019]
§ 423.2000 Hearing before an ALJ and decision by an ALJ or attorney adjudicator: General rule.
(a) If an enrollee is dissatisfied with an IRE's reconsideration, the enrollee may request a hearing before an ALJ.
(b) A hearing before an ALJ may be conducted in-person, by video-teleconference, or by telephone. At the hearing, the enrollee may submit evidence subject to the restrictions in § 423.2018, examine the evidence used in making the determination under review, and present and/or question witnesses.
(c) In some circumstances, the Part D plan sponsor, CMS, or the IRE may participate in the proceedings on a request for an ALJ hearing as specified in § 423.2010.
(d) The ALJ or attorney adjudicator conducts a de novo review and issues a decision based on the administrative record, including, for an ALJ, any hearing record.
(e) If an enrollee waives his or her right to appear at the hearing in person or by telephone or video-teleconference, the ALJ or an attorney adjudicator may make a decision based on the evidence that is in the file and any new evidence that is submitted for consideration.
(f) The ALJ may require the enrollee to participate in a hearing if it is necessary to decide the case. If the ALJ determines that it is necessary to obtain testimony from a person other than the enrollee, he or she may hold a hearing to obtain that testimony, even if the enrollee has waived the right to appear. In that event, however, the ALJ will give the enrollee the opportunity to appear when the testimony is given, but may hold the hearing even if the enrollee decides not to appear.
(g) An ALJ or attorney adjudicator may also issue a decision on the record on his or her own initiative if the evidence in the administrative record supports a fully favorable finding.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5127, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2002 Right to an ALJ hearing.
(a) An enrollee who is dissatisfied with the IRE reconsideration determination has a right to a hearing before an ALJ if—
(1) The enrollee files a written request for an ALJ hearing within 60 calendar days after receipt of the written notice of the IRE's reconsideration; and
(2) The enrollee meets the amount in controversy requirements of § 423.2006.
(b) An enrollee may request that the hearing before an ALJ be expedited if:
(1) The appeal involves an issue specified in § 423.566(b) but does not include solely a request for payment of Part D drugs already furnished;
(2) The enrollee submits a written or oral request for an expedited ALJ hearing within 60 calendar days of the date of the written notice of an IRE reconsideration determination. The request can only be submitted after the enrollee receives the written IRE reconsideration notice. The request should also explain why applying the standard timeframe may seriously jeopardize the life or health of the enrollee; and
(3) The enrollee meets the amount in controversy requirements of § 423.2006.
(c) OMHA must document all oral requests for expedited hearings in writing and maintain the documentation in the case files.
(d) For purposes of this section, the date of receipt of the reconsideration is presumed to be 5 calendar days after the date of the written reconsideration, unless there is evidence to the contrary.
(e) For purposes of meeting the 60 calendar day filing deadline, the request is considered as filed on the date it is received by the office specified in the IRE's reconsideration.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5127, Jan. 17, 2017; 84 FR 19872, May 7, 2019]
§ 423.2004 Right to a review of IRE notice of dismissal.
(a) An enrollee has a right to have an IRE's dismissal of a request for reconsideration reviewed by an ALJ or attorney adjudicator if—
(1) The enrollee files a written request for review within 60 calendar days after receipt of the notice of the IRE's dismissal.
(2) The enrollee meets the amount in controversy requirements of § 423.2006.
(3) For purposes of this section, the date of receipt of the IRE's dismissal is presumed to be 5 calendar days after the date of the written dismissal notice, unless there is evidence to the contrary.
(4) For purposes of meeting the 60 calendar day filing deadline, the request is considered as filed on the date it is received by the office specified in the IRE's dismissal.
(b) If the ALJ or attorney adjudicator determines that the IRE's dismissal was in error, he or she vacates the dismissal and remands the case to the IRE for a reconsideration in accordance with § 423.2056.
(c) If the ALJ or attorney adjudicator affirms the IRE's dismissal of a reconsideration request, he or she issues a notice of decision affirming the IRE's dismissal in accordance with § 423.2046(b).
(d) The ALJ or attorney adjudicator may dismiss the request for review of an IRE's dismissal in accordance with § 423.2052(b).
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5127, Jan. 17, 2017; 84 FR 19872, May 7, 2019]
§ 423.2006 Amount in controversy required for an ALJ hearing and judicial review.
(a) ALJ review. To be entitled to a hearing before an ALJ, an enrollee must meet the amount in controversy requirements of this section.
(1) For ALJ hearing requests, the required amount remaining in controversy must be $100, increased by the percentage increase in the medical care component of the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (U.S. city average) as measured from July 2003 to the July preceding the current year involved.
(2) If the figure in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is not a multiple of $10, it is rounded to the nearest multiple of $10. The Secretary will publish changes to the amount in controversy requirement in the Federal Register when necessary.
(b) Judicial review. To be entitled to judicial review, the enrollee must meet the amount in controversy requirements of this subpart at the time it requests judicial review. For review requests, the required amount remaining in controversy must be $1,000 or more, adjusted as specified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section.
(c) Calculating the amount remaining in controversy. (1) The amount remaining in controversy is computed as the projected value described in paragraph (c)(2) or (3) of this section, reduced by any cost sharing amounts, including deductible, coinsurance, or copayment amounts that may be collected from the enrollee for the Part D drug(s).
(2) If the basis for the appeal is the refusal by the Part D plan sponsor to provide drug benefits, the projected value of those benefits is used to compute the amount remaining in controversy. The projected value of a Part D drug or drugs must include any costs the enrollee could incur based on the number of refills prescribed for the drug(s) in dispute during the plan year.
(3) If the basis for the appeal is an at-risk determination made under a drug management program in accordance with § 423.153(f), the projected value of the drugs subject to the drug management program is used to compute the amount remaining in controversy. The projected value of the drugs subject to the drug management program shall include the value of any refills prescribed for the drug(s) in dispute during the plan year.
(d) Aggregating appeals to meet the amount in controversy—(1) Enrollee. Two or more appeals may be aggregated by an enrollee to meet the amount in controversy for an ALJ hearing if—
(i) The appeals have previously been reconsidered by an IRE;
(ii) The enrollee requests aggregation at the same time the requests for hearing are filed, and the request for aggregation and requests for hearing are filed within 60 calendar days after receipt of the notice of reconsideration for each of the reconsiderations being appealed, unless the deadline to file one or more of the requests for hearing has been extended in accordance with § 423.2014(d); and
(iii) The appeals the enrollee seeks to aggregate involve the delivery of prescription drugs to a single enrollee, as determined by an ALJ or attorney adjudicator. Only an ALJ may determine the appeals the enrollee seeks to aggregate do not involve the delivery of prescription drugs to a single enrollee.
(2) Multiple enrollees. Two or more appeals may be aggregated by multiple enrollees to meet the amount in controversy for an ALJ hearing if—
(i) The appeals have previously been reconsidered by an IRE;
(ii) The enrollees request aggregation at the same time the requests for hearing are filed, and the request for aggregation and requests for hearing are filed within 60 calendar days after receipt of the notice of reconsideration for each of the reconsiderations being appealed, unless the deadline to file one or more of the requests for hearing has been extended in accordance with § 423.2014(d); and
(iii) The appeals the enrollees seek to aggregate involve the same prescription drugs, as determined by an ALJ or attorney adjudicator. Only an ALJ may determine the appeals the enrollees seek to aggregate do not involve the same prescription drugs.
[84 FR 19872, May 7, 2019, as amended at 86 FR 6121, Jan. 19, 2021]
§ 423.2008 Parties to the proceedings on a request for an ALJ hearing.
The enrollee (or the enrollee's representative) who filed the request for hearing is the only party to the proceedings on a request for an ALJ hearing.
[82 FR 5127, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2010 When CMS, the IRE, or Part D plan sponsors may participate in the proceedings on a request for an ALJ hearing.
(a) When CMS, the IRE, or the Part D plan sponsor may participate. (1) CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor may request to participate in the proceedings on a request for an ALJ hearing upon filing a request to participate in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
(2) An ALJ may request, but may not require, CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor to participate in any proceedings before the ALJ, including the oral hearing, if any. The ALJ cannot draw any adverse inferences if CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor decide not to participate in any proceedings before an ALJ, including the hearing.
(b) How a request to participate is made—(1) No notice of hearing. If CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor requests participation before it receives a notice of hearing, or when no notice is required, it must send written notice of its request to participate to the assigned ALJ or attorney adjudicator, or a designee of the Chief ALJ if the request is not yet assigned to an ALJ or attorney adjudicator, and the enrollee, except that the request may be made orally if a request for an expedited hearing was filed and OMHA will notify the enrollee of the request to participate.
(2) Notice of hearing. If CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor requests participation after the IRE and Part D plan sponsor receive a notice of hearing, it must send written notice of its request to participate to the ALJ and the enrollee, except that the request to participate may be made orally for an expedited hearing and OMHA will notify the enrollee of the request to participate.
(3) Timing of request. CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor must send its request to participate—
(i) If a standard request for hearing was filed, if no hearing is scheduled, within 30 calendar days after notification that a standard request for hearing was filed;
(ii) If an expedited hearing is requested, but no hearing has been scheduled, within 2 calendar days after notification that a request for an expedited hearing was filed;
(iii) If a non-expedited hearing is scheduled, within 5 calendar days after receiving the notice of hearing; or
(iv) If an expedited hearing is scheduled, within 1 calendar day after receiving the notice of hearing. Requests may be made orally or submitted by facsimile to the hearing office.
(c) The ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision on a request to participate. The assigned ALJ or attorney adjudicator has discretion not to allow CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor to participate. The ALJ or attorney adjudicator must notify the entity requesting participation, the Part D plan sponsor, if applicable, and the enrollee of his or her decision on the request to participate within the following time frames—
(1) If no hearing is scheduled, at least 20 calendar days before the ALJ or attorney adjudicator issues a decision, dismissal, or remand;
(2) If a non-expedited hearing is scheduled, within 5 calendar days of receipt of a request to participate; or
(3) If an expedited hearing is scheduled, within 1 calendar of receipt of a request to participate.
(d) Roles and responsibilities of CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor as a participant. (1) Participation may include filing position papers and/or providing testimony to clarify factual or policy issues in a case, but it does not include calling witnesses or cross-examining the witnesses of an enrollee.
(2) When CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor participates in an ALJ hearing, CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor may not be called as a witness during the hearing and is not subject to examination or cross-examination by the enrollee, but the enrollee may provide testimony to rebut factual or policy statements made by a participant and the ALJ may question the participant about its testimony.
(3) CMS, IRE, and/or Part D plan sponsor position papers and written testimony are subject to the following:
(i) Unless the ALJ or attorney adjudicator grants additional time to submit a position paper or written testimony, a position paper and written testimony must be submitted—
(A) Within 14 calendar days for a standard appeal, or 1 calendar day for an expedited appeal, after receipt of the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision on a request to participate if no hearing has been scheduled; or
(B) No later than 5 calendar days prior to the hearing if a non-expedited hearing is scheduled, or 1 calendar day prior to the hearing if an expedited hearing is scheduled.
(ii) A copy of any position paper and written testimony that CMS, the IRE, or the Part D plan sponsor submits to OMHA must be sent within the same time frames specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(A) and (B) of this section to the enrollee.
(iii) If CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor fails to send a copy of its position paper or written testimony to the enrollee or fails to submit its position paper or written testimony within the time frames described in this section, the position paper or written testimony will not be considered in deciding the appeal.
(e) Invalid requests to participate. (1) An ALJ or attorney adjudicator may determine that a CMS, IRE, and/or Part D plan sponsor request to participate is invalid under this section if the request to participate was not timely filed or the request to participate was not sent to the enrollee.
(2) If the request to participate is determined to be invalid, the written notice of an invalid request to participate must be sent to the entity that made the request to participate and the enrollee.
(i) If no hearing is scheduled or the request to participate was made after the hearing occurred, the written notice of an invalid request to participate must be sent no later than the date the notice of decision, dismissal, or remand is mailed.
(ii) If a non-expedited hearing is scheduled, the written notice of an invalid request to participate must be sent prior to the hearing. If the notice would be sent fewer than 5 calendar days before the hearing is scheduled to occur, oral notice must be provided to the entity that submitted the request, and the written notice must be sent as soon as possible after the oral notice is provided.
(iii) If an expedited hearing is scheduled, oral notice of an invalid request to participate must be provided to the entity that submitted the request, and the written notice must be sent as soon as possible after the oral notice is provided.
[82 FR 5127, Jan. 17, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 19873, May 7, 2019]
§ 423.2014 Request for an ALJ hearing or a review of an IRE dismissal.
(a) Content of the request. (1) The request for an ALJ hearing or a review of an IRE dismissal must be made in writing, except as set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. The request, including any oral request, must include all of the following—
(i) The name, address, telephone number, and Medicare number of the enrollee.
(ii) The name, address, and telephone number of the representative, as defined at § 423.560, if any.
(iii) The Medicare appeal number, if any, assigned to the IRE reconsideration or dismissal being appealed.
(iv) The prescription drug in dispute.
(v) The plan name.
(vi) The reasons the enrollee disagrees with the IRE's reconsideration or dismissal being appealed.
(2) The enrollee must submit a statement of any additional evidence to be submitted and the date it will be submitted.
(3) The enrollee must submit a statement that the enrollee is requesting an expedited hearing, if applicable.
(b) Request for expedited hearing. If an enrollee is requesting that the hearing be expedited, the enrollee may make the request for an ALJ hearing orally, but only after receipt of the written IRE reconsideration notice. OMHA must document all oral requests in writing and maintain the documentation in the case files. A prescribing physician or other prescriber may provide oral or written support for an enrollee's request for expedited review.
(c) Complete request required. (1) A request must contain the information in paragraph (a)(1) of this section to the extent the information is applicable, to be considered complete. If a request is not complete, the enrollee will be provided with an opportunity to complete the request, and if an adjudication time frame applies it does not begin until the request is complete. If the enrollee fails to provide the information necessary to complete the request within the time frame provided, the enrollee's request for hearing or review will be dismissed.
(2) If supporting materials submitted with a request clearly provide information required for a complete request, the materials will be considered in determining whether the request is complete.
(d) When and where to file. The request for an ALJ hearing after an IRE reconsideration or request for review of an IRE dismissal must be filed:
(1) Within 60 calendar days from the date the enrollee receives written notice of the IRE's reconsideration or dismissal being appealed.
(2) With the office specified in the IRE's reconsideration or dismissal.
(i) If the request for hearing is timely filed with an office other than the office specified in the IRE's reconsideration, the request is not treated as untimely, and any applicable time frame specified in § 423.2016 for deciding the appeal begins on the date the office specified in the IRE's reconsideration or dismissal receives the request for hearing.
(ii) If the request for hearing is filed with an office, other than the office specified in the IRE's reconsideration or dismissal, OMHA must notify the enrollee of the date the request was received in the correct office and the commencement of any applicable adjudication timeframe.
(e) Extension of time to request a hearing or review. (1) If the request for hearing or review is not filed within 60 calendar days of receipt of the written IRE's reconsideration or dismissal, an enrollee may request an extension for good cause.
(2) Any request for an extension of time must be in writing or, for expedited reviews, in writing or oral. OMHA must document all oral requests in writing and maintain the documentation in the case file.
(3) The request must be filed with the office specified in the notice of reconsideration or dismissal, must give the reasons why the request for a hearing or review was not filed within the stated time period, and must be filed with the request for hearing or request for review of an IRE dismissal, or upon notice that the request may be dismissed because it was not timely filed.
(4) An ALJ or attorney adjudicator may find there is good cause for missing the deadline to file a request for an ALJ hearing or request for review of an IRE dismissal, or there is no good cause for missing the deadline to file a request for a review of an IRE dismissal, but only an ALJ may find there is no good cause for missing the deadline to file a request for an ALJ hearing. If good cause is found for missing the deadline, the time period for filing the request for hearing or request for review of an IRE dismissal will be extended. To determine whether good cause for late filing exists, the ALJ or attorney adjudicator uses the standards set forth in § 405.942(b)(2) and (3) of this chapter.
(5) If a request for hearing is not timely filed, any applicable adjudication period in § 423.2016 begins the date the ALJ or attorney adjudicator grants the request to extend the filing deadline.
(6) A determination granting a request to extend the filing deadline is not subject to further review.
[82 FR 5128, Jan. 17, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 19873, May 7, 2019; 86 FR 6121, Jan. 19, 2021]
§ 423.2016 Timeframes for deciding an appeal of an IRE reconsideration.
(a) Standard appeals. (1) When a request for an ALJ hearing is filed after an IRE has issued a written reconsideration, an ALJ or attorney adjudicator issues a decision, dismissal order, or remand, as appropriate, no later than the end of the 90 calendar day period beginning on the date the request for hearing is received by the office specified in the IRE's notice of reconsideration, unless the 90 calendar day period has been extended as provided in this subpart.
(2) The adjudication period specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section begins on the date that a timely filed request for hearing is received by the office specified in the IRE's reconsideration, or, if it is not timely filed, the date that the ALJ or attorney adjudicator grants any extension to the filing deadline.
(3) If the Council remands a case and the case was subject to an adjudication time frame under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the remanded appeal will be subject to the same adjudication time frame beginning on the date that OMHA receives the Council remand.
(b) Expedited appeals—(1) Standard for expedited appeal. An ALJ or attorney adjudicator issues an expedited decision if the appeal involves an issue specified in § 423.566(b), but is not solely a request for payment of Part D drugs already furnished, and the enrollee's prescribing physician or other prescriber indicates, or an ALJ or attorney adjudicator determines that applying the standard timeframe for making a decision may seriously jeopardize the enrollee's life, health or ability to regain maximum function. An ALJ or attorney adjudicator may consider this standard as met if a lower level adjudicator has granted a request for an expedited decision.
(2) Grant of a request. If an ALJ or attorney adjudicator grants a request for expedited hearing, an ALJ or attorney adjudicator must—
(i) Make the decision to grant an expedited appeal within 5 calendar days of receipt of the request for an expedited hearing;
(ii) Give the enrollee prompt oral notice of this decision; and
(iii) Subsequently send to the enrollee at his or her last known address and to the Part D plan sponsor written notice of the decision. This notice may be provided within the written notice of hearing.
(3) Denial of a request. If an ALJ or attorney adjudicator denies a request for expedited hearing, an ALJ or attorney adjudicator must—
(i) Make this decision within 5 calendar days of receipt of the request for expedited hearing;
(ii) Give the enrollee prompt oral notice of the denial that informs the enrollee of the denial and explains that an ALJ or attorney adjudicator will process the enrollee's request using the 90 calendar day timeframe for non-expedited appeals; and
(iii) Subsequently send to the enrollee at his or her last known address and to the Part D plan sponsor an equivalent written notice of the decision within 3 calendar days after the oral notice.
(4) Decision not appealable. A decision on a request for expedited hearing may not be appealed.
(5) Time frame for adjudication. (i) If an ALJ or attorney adjudicator accepts a request for expedited hearing, an ALJ or attorney adjudicator issues a written decision, dismissal order, or remand as expeditiously as the enrollee's health condition requires, but no later than the end of the 10 calendar day period beginning on the date the request for hearing is received by the office specified in the IRE's written notice of reconsideration, unless the 10 calendar day period has been extended as provided in this subpart.
(ii) The adjudication period specified in paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section begins on the date that a timely provided request for hearing is received by the office specified in the IRE's reconsideration, or, if it is not timely provided, the date that an ALJ or attorney adjudicator grants any extension to the filing deadline.
(6) Time frame for Council remands. If the Council remands a case and the case was subject to an adjudication time frame under paragraph (b)(5) of this section, the remanded appeal will be subject to the same adjudication timeframe beginning on the date that OMHA receives the Council remand, if the standards for an expedited appeal continue to be met. If the standards for an expedited appeal are no longer met, the appeal will be subject to the adjudication time frame for a standard appeal.
(c) Waivers and extensions of adjudication period. (1) At any time during the adjudication process, the enrollee may waive the adjudication period specified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (b)(5) of this section. The waiver may be for a specific period of time agreed upon by the ALJ or attorney adjudicator and the enrollee.
(2) The adjudication periods specified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (b)(5) of this section are extended as otherwise specified in this subpart, and for the following events—
(i) The duration of a stay of action on adjudicating the matters at issue ordered by a court or tribunal of competent jurisdiction;
(ii) The duration of a stay of proceedings granted by an ALJ or attorney adjudicator on a motion by an enrollee.
[82 FR 5129, Jan. 17, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 19873, May 7, 2019]
§ 423.2018 Submitting evidence.
(a) All appeals. An enrollee must submit any written or other evidence that he or she wishes to have considered.
(1) An ALJ or attorney adjudicator will not consider any evidence submitted regarding a change in condition of an enrollee after the appealed coverage determination or at-risk determination was made.
(2) An ALJ or attorney adjudicator will remand a case to the Part D IRE where an enrollee wishes evidence on his or her change in condition after the coverage determination or at-risk determination to be considered.
(b) Non-expedited appeals. (1) Except as provided in this paragraph, a represented enrollee must submit all written or other evidence he or she wishes to have considered with the request for hearing, by the date specified in the request for hearing in accordance with § 423.2014(a)(2), or, if a hearing is scheduled, within 10 calendar days of receiving the notice of hearing.
(2) If a represented enrollee submits written or other evidence later than 10 calendar days after receiving the notice of hearing, any applicable adjudication period specified in § 423.2016 is extended by the number of calendar days in the period between 10 calendar days after receipt of the notice of hearing and the day the evidence is received.
(3) The requirements of paragraph (b) of this section do not apply to unrepresented enrollees.
(c) Expedited appeals. (1) Except as provided in this section, an enrollee must submit all written or other evidence he or she wishes to have considered with the request for hearing, by the date specified in the request for hearing pursuant to § 423.2014(a)(2), or, if an expedited hearing is scheduled, within 2 calendar days of receiving the notice of the expedited hearing.
(2) If an enrollee submits written or other evidence later than 2 calendar days after receiving the notice of expedited hearing, any applicable adjudication period specified in § 423.2016 is extended by the number of calendar days in the period between 2 calendar days after receipt of the notice of expedited hearing and the day the evidence is received.
(d) When this section does not apply. The requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section do not apply to oral testimony given at a hearing.
[82 FR 5130, Jan. 17, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 16754, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 423.2020 Time and place for a hearing before an ALJ.
(a) General. The ALJ sets the time and place for the hearing, and may change the time and place, if necessary.
(b) Determining how appearances are made. (1) Appearances by unrepresented enrollees. The ALJ will direct that the appearance of an unrepresented enrollee who filed a request for hearing be conducted by video-teleconferencing if the ALJ finds that video-teleconferencing technology is available to conduct the appearance, unless the ALJ finds good cause for an in-person appearance.
(i) The ALJ may also offer to conduct a hearing by telephone if the request for hearing or administrative record suggests that a telephone hearing may be more convenient for the unrepresented enrollee.
(ii) The ALJ, with the concurrence of the Chief ALJ or designee, may find good cause that an in-person hearing should be conducted if—
(A) The video-teleconferencing or telephone technology is not available; or
(B) Special or extraordinary circumstances exist.
(2) Appearances by represented enrollees. The ALJ will direct that the appearance of an individual, other than an unrepresented enrollee who filed a request for hearing, be conducted by telephone, unless the ALJ finds good cause for an appearance by other means.
(i) The ALJ may find good cause for an appearance by video-teleconferencing if he or she determines that video-teleconferencing is necessary to examine the facts or issues involved in the appeal.
(ii) The ALJ, with the concurrence of the Chief ALJ or designee, may find good cause that an in-person hearing should be conducted if—
(A) The video-teleconferencing and telephone technology are not available; or
(B) Special or extraordinary circumstances exist.
(c) Notice of hearing. (1) A notice of hearing is sent to the enrollee, the Part D plan sponsor that issued the coverage determination or at-risk determination, and the IRE that issued the reconsideration, advising them of the proposed time and place of the hearing.
(2) The notice of hearing will require the enrollee to reply to the notice by:
(i) Acknowledging whether they plan to attend the hearing at the time and place proposed in the notice of hearing, or whether they object to the proposed time and/or place of the hearing;
(ii) If the representative is an entity or organization, specifying who from the entity or organization plans to attend the hearing, if anyone, and in what capacity, in addition to the individual who filed the request for hearing; and
(iii) Listing the witnesses who will be providing testimony at the hearing.
(3) The notice of hearing will require CMS, the IRE, or the Part D plan sponsor that requests to attend the hearing as a participant to reply to the notice by:
(i) Acknowledging whether it plans to attend the hearing at the time and place proposed in the notice of hearing; and
(ii) Specifying who from the entity plans to attend the hearing,
(d) An enrollee's right to waive a hearing. An enrollee may also waive the right to a hearing and request a decision based on the written evidence in the record in accordance with § 423.2038(b).
(1) As specified in § 423.2000, an ALJ may require the enrollee to attend a hearing if it is necessary to decide the case.
(2) If an ALJ determines that it is necessary to obtain testimony from a person other than the enrollee, he or she may still hold a hearing to obtain that testimony, even if the enrollee has waived the right to appear. In those cases, the ALJ would give the enrollee the opportunity to appear when the testimony is given but may hold the hearing even if the enrollee decides not to appear.
(e) An enrollee's objection to time and place of hearing. (1) If an enrollee objects to the time and place of the hearing, the enrollee must notify the ALJ at the earliest possible opportunity before the time set for the hearing.
(2) The enrollee must state the reason for the objection and state the time and place he or she wants the hearing to be held.
(3) The objection must be in writing except for an expedited hearing when the objection may be provided orally, and except that the enrollee may orally request that a non-expedited hearing be rescheduled in an emergency circumstance the day prior to or day of the hearing. The ALJ must document all oral objections to the time and place of a hearing in writing and maintain the documentation in the case files.
(4) The ALJ may change the time or place of the hearing if the enrollee has good cause.
(5) If the enrollee's objection to the place of the hearing includes a request for an in-person or video-teleconferencing hearing, the objection and request are considered in paragraph (i) of this section.
(f) Good cause for changing the time or place. The ALJ can find good cause for changing the time or place of the scheduled hearing and reschedule the hearing if the information available to the ALJ supports the enrollee's contention that—
(1) The enrollee or his or her representative is unable to attend or to travel to the scheduled hearing because of a serious physical or mental condition, incapacitating injury, or death in the family; or
(2) Severe weather conditions make it impossible to travel to the hearing; or
(3) Good cause exists as set forth in paragraph (g) of this section.
(g) Good cause in other circumstances. (1) In determining whether good cause exists in circumstances other than those set forth in paragraph (f) of this section, the ALJ considers the enrollee's reason for requesting the change, the facts supporting the request, and the impact of the change on the efficient administration of the hearing process.
(2) Factors evaluated to determine the impact of the change include, but are not limited to, the effect on processing other scheduled hearings, potential delays in rescheduling the hearing, and whether any prior changes were granted the enrollee.
(3) Examples of other circumstances an enrollee might give for requesting a change in the time or place of the hearing include, but are not limited to, the following:
(i) The enrollee has attempted to obtain a representative but needs additional time.
(ii) The enrollee's representative was appointed within 10 calendar days of the scheduled hearing for non-expedited hearings (or 2 calendar days for expedited hearings) and needs additional time to prepare for the hearing.
(iii) The enrollee's representative has a prior commitment to be in court or at another administrative hearing on the date scheduled for the hearing.
(iv) A witness who will testify to facts material to an enrollee's case is unavailable to attend the scheduled hearing and the evidence cannot be otherwise obtained.
(v) Transportation is not readily available for an enrollee to travel to the hearing.
(vi) The enrollee is unrepresented, and is unable to respond to the notice of hearing because of any physical, mental, educational, or linguistic limitations (including any lack of facility with the English language).
(vii) The enrollee or enrollee's representative has a prior commitment that cannot be changed without significant expense.
(viii) The enrollee or enrollee's representative asserts he or she did not receive the notice of hearing and is unable to appear at the scheduled time and place.
(h) Effect of rescheduling hearing. If a hearing is postponed at the request of the enrollee for any of the above reasons, the time between the originally scheduled hearing date and the new hearing date is not counted toward the adjudication period specified in § 423.2016.
(i) An enrollee's request for an in-person or video-teleconferencing hearing. (1) If an unrepresented enrollee objects to a video-teleconferencing hearing or to the ALJ's offer to conduct a hearing by telephone, or a represented enrollee who filed the request for hearing objects to a telephone or video-teleconferencing hearing, the enrollee or the enrollee's representative must notify the ALJ at the earliest possible opportunity before the time set for the hearing and request a video-teleconferencing or an in-person hearing.
(2) The enrollee must state the reason for the objection and state the time and/or place he or she wants an in-person or video-teleconferencing hearing to be held.
(3) The request must be in writing except for an expedited hearing for which the request may be provided orally. The ALJ must document all oral objections to an expedited video-teleconferencing or telephone hearing in writing and maintain the documentation in the case files.
(4) When an enrollee's request for an in-person or video-teleconferencing hearing is granted and an adjudication time frame applies in accordance with § 423.2016, the ALJ issues a decision, dismissal, or remand to the IRE within the adjudication time frame specified in § 423.2016 (including any applicable extensions provided in this subpart), unless the enrollee requesting the hearing agrees to waive such adjudication timeframe in writing.
(5) The ALJ may grant the request, with the concurrence of the Chief ALJ or designee if the request was for an in-person hearing, upon a finding of good cause and will reschedule the hearing for a time and place when the enrollee may appear in person or by video-teleconference before the ALJ. Good cause is not required for a request for video-teleconferencing hearing made by an unrepresented enrollee who filed the request for hearing and objects to an ALJ's offer to conduct a hearing by telephone.
(j) Amended notice of hearing. If the ALJ changes or will change the time and/or place of the hearing, an amended notice of hearing must be sent to the enrollee and CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor in accordance with § 423.2022(a)(2).
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5130, Jan. 17, 2017; 83 FR 16754, Apr. 16, 2018; 84 FR 19873, May 7, 2019]
§ 423.2022 Notice of a hearing before an ALJ.
(a) Issuing the notice. (1) After the ALJ sets the time and place of the hearing, the notice of the hearing will be mailed or otherwise transmitted in accordance with OMHA procedures to the enrollee and other potential participants, as provided in § 423.2020(c) at their last known addresses, or given by personal service, except to an enrollee or other potential participant who indicates in writing that he or she does not wish to receive this notice.
(2) The notice is mailed, transmitted, or served at least 20 calendar days before the hearing, except for expedited hearings where written notice is mailed, transmitted, or served at least 3 calendar days before the hearing, unless the enrollee or other potential participant agrees in writing to the notice being mailed, transmitted, or served fewer than 20 calendar days before the non-expedited hearing or 3 calendar days before the expedited hearing. For expedited hearings, the ALJ may orally provide notice of the hearing to the enrollee and other potential participants but oral notice must be followed by an equivalent written notice within 1 calendar day of the oral notice.
(b) Notice information. (1) The notice of hearing contains—
(i) A statement that the issues before the ALJ include all of the issues brought out in the coverage determination or at-risk determination, redetermination, or reconsideration that were not decided entirely in the enrollee's favor and that were specified in the request for hearing; and
(ii) A statement of any specific new issues the ALJ will consider in accordance with § 423.2032.
(2) The notice will inform the enrollee that he or she may designate a person to represent him or her during the proceedings.
(3) The notice must include an explanation of the procedures for requesting a change in the time or place of the hearing, a reminder that the ALJ may dismiss the hearing request if the enrollee fails to appear at the scheduled hearing without good cause, and other information about the scheduling and conduct of the hearing.
(4) The enrollee will also be told if his or her appearance or that of any other witness is scheduled by video-teleconferencing, telephone, or in person. If the ALJ has scheduled the enrollee to appear at the hearing by video-teleconferencing, the notice of hearing will advise that the scheduled place for the hearing is a video-teleconferencing site and explain what it means to appear at the hearing by video-teleconferencing.
(5) The notice advises the enrollee that if he or she objects to appearing by video-teleconferencing or telephone, and wishes instead to have his or her hearing at a time and place where he or she may appear in person before the ALJ, he or she must follow the procedures set forth at § 423.2020(i) for notifying the ALJ of his or her objections and for requesting an in-person hearing.
(c) Acknowledging the notice of hearing. (1) If the enrollee or his or her representative does not acknowledge receipt of the notice of hearing, OMHA attempts to contact the enrollee for an explanation.
(2) If the enrollee states that he or she did not receive the notice of hearing, a copy of the notice is sent to him or her by certified mail or other means requested by the enrollee and in accordance with OMHA procedures.
(3) The enrollee may request that the ALJ reschedule the hearing in accordance with § 423.2020(e).
[82 FR 5131, Jan. 17, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 16754, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 423.2024 Objections to the issues.
(a) If an enrollee objects to the issues described in the notice of hearing, he or she must notify the ALJ in writing at the earliest possible opportunity before the time set for the hearing, and no later than 5 calendar days before the hearing, except for expedited hearings in which the enrollee must submit written or oral notice of objection no later than 2 calendar days before the hearing. OMHA must document all oral objections in writing and maintain the documentation in the case files.
(b) The enrollee must provide the reasons for his or her objections.
(c) The ALJ makes a decision on the objections either in writing, at a prehearing conference, or at the hearing.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5132, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2026 Disqualification of the ALJ or attorney adjudicator.
(a) An ALJ or attorney adjudicator may not adjudicate an appeal if he or she is prejudiced or partial to the enrollee or has any interest in the matter pending for decision.
(b) If an enrollee objects to the ALJ or attorney adjudicator assigned to adjudicate the appeal, the enrollee must notify the ALJ within 10 calendar days of the date of the notice of hearing if a non-expedited hearing is scheduled, except for expedited hearings in which the enrollee must submit written or oral notice no later than 2 calendar days after the date of the notice of hearing, or the ALJ or attorney adjudicator at any time before a decision, dismissal order, or remand order is issued if no hearing is scheduled. The ALJ or attorney adjudicator must document all oral objections in writing and maintain the documentation in the case files. The ALJ or attorney adjudicator considers the enrollee's objections and decides whether to proceed with the appeal or withdraw.
(c) If the ALJ or attorney adjudicator withdraws, another ALJ or attorney adjudicator will be assigned to adjudicate the appeal. If the ALJ or attorney adjudicator does not withdraw, the enrollee may, after the ALJ or attorney adjudicator has issued an action in the case, present his or her objections to the Council in accordance with § 423.2100 through § 423.2130. The Council will then consider whether the decision or dismissal should be revised or, if applicable, a new hearing held before another ALJ.
(d) If the enrollee objects to the ALJ or attorney adjudicator and the ALJ or attorney adjudicator subsequently withdraws from the appeal, any adjudication period that applies to the appeal in accordance with § 423.2016 is extended by 14 calendar days for a standard appeal, or 2 calendar days for an expedited appeal.
[82 FR 5132, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2030 ALJ hearing procedures.
(a) General rule. A hearing is open to the enrollee and to other persons the ALJ considers necessary and proper.
(b) At the hearing. (1) The ALJ fully examines the issues, questions the enrollee and other witnesses, and may accept evidence that is material to the issues consistent with § 423.2018.
(2) The ALJ may limit testimony and argument at the hearing that are not relevant to an issue before the ALJ, that are repetitive of evidence or testimony already in the record, or that relate to an issue that has been sufficiently developed or on which the ALJ has already ruled. The ALJ may, but is not required to, provide the enrollee or representative with an opportunity to submit additional written statements and affidavits on the matter in lieu of testimony and/or argument at the hearing. The written statements and affidavits must be submitted within the time frame designated by the ALJ.
(3) If the ALJ determines that the enrollee or enrollee's representative is uncooperative, disruptive to the hearing, or abusive during the course of the hearing after the ALJ has warned the enrollee or representative to stop such behavior, the ALJ may excuse the enrollee or representative from the hearing and continue with the hearing to provide the participants with an opportunity to offer testimony and/or argument. If an enrollee or representative was excused from the hearing, the ALJ will provide the enrollee or representative with an opportunity to submit written statements and affidavits in lieu of testimony and/or argument at the hearing, and the enrollee or representative may request a recording of the hearing in accordance with § 423.2042 and respond in writing to any statements made by participants and/or testimony of the witnesses at the hearing. The written statements and affidavits must be submitted within the time frame designated by the ALJ.
(c) Missing evidence. The ALJ may also stop the hearing temporarily and continue it at a later date if he or she believes that there is material evidence missing at the hearing.
(d) Effect of new evidence on adjudication period. If an enrollee, other than an unrepresented enrollee in a standard appeal, submits evidence pursuant to paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, and an adjudication period applies to the appeal, the adjudication period specified in § 423.2016 is extended in accordance with § 423.2018(b) or (c), as applicable.
(e) Continued hearing. (1) A hearing may be continued to a later date. Notice of the continued hearing must be sent in accordance with § 423.2022, except that a waiver of notice of the hearing may be made in writing or on the record, and the notice is sent to the enrollee and participants who attended the hearing, and any additional potential participants the ALJ determines are appropriate.
(2) If the enrollee requests the continuance and an adjudication time frame applies to the appeal in accordance with § 423.2016, the adjudication period is extended by the period between the initial hearing date and the continued hearing date.
(f) Supplemental hearing. (1) The ALJ may conduct a supplemental hearing at any time before he or she mails a notice of the decision in order to receive new and material evidence, obtain additional testimony, or address a procedural matter. The ALJ determines whether a supplemental hearing is necessary and if one is held, the scope of the hearing, including when evidence is presented and what issues are discussed. Notice of the supplemental hearing must be sent in accordance with § 423.2022, except that the notice is sent to the enrollee and participants who attended the hearing, and any additional potential participants the ALJ determines are appropriate.
(2) If the enrollee requests the supplemental hearing and an adjudication period applies to the appeal in accordance with § 423.2016, the adjudication period is extended by the period between the initial hearing date and the supplemental hearing date.
[82 FR 5132, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2032 Issues before an ALJ or attorney adjudicator.
(a) General rule. The issues before the ALJ or attorney adjudicator include all the issues for the appealed matter specified in the request for hearing that were brought out in the coverage determination or at-risk determination, redetermination, or reconsideration that were not decided entirely in an enrollee's favor.
(b) New issues—(1) When a new issue may be considered. A new issue may include issues resulting from the participation of CMS, the IRE, or the Part D plan sponsor at the OMHA level of adjudication and from any evidence and position papers submitted by CMS, the IRE, or the Part D plan sponsor for the first time to the ALJ. The ALJ or the enrollee may raise a new issue; however, the ALJ may only consider a new issue relating to a determination or appealed matter specified in the request for hearing, including a favorable portion of a determination or appealed matter specified in the request for hearing, if its resolution could have a material impact on the appealed matter and—
(i) There is new and material evidence that was not available or known at the time of the determination and that may result in a different conclusion; or
(ii) The evidence that was considered in making the determination clearly shows on its face that an obvious error was made at the time of the determination.
(2) Notice of the new issue. The ALJ may consider a new issue at the hearing if he or she notifies the enrollee about the new issue before the start of the hearing.
(3) Opportunity to submit evidence. If notice of the new issue is sent after the notice of hearing, the enrollee will have at least 10 calendar days in standard appeals or 2 calendar days in expedited appeals after receiving notice of the new issue to submit evidence regarding the issue, and without affecting any applicable adjudication period. If a hearing is conducted before the time to submit evidence regarding the issue expires, the record will remain open until the opportunity to submit evidence expires.
(c) Adding coverage determinations to a pending appeal. A coverage determination on a drug that was not specified in a request for hearing may only be added to a pending appeal if the coverage determination was adjudicated in the same reconsideration that is appealed, and the period to request an ALJ hearing for that reconsideration has not expired, or an ALJ or attorney adjudicator extends the time to request an ALJ hearing on the reconsideration in accordance with § 423.2014(e).
[82 FR 5132, Jan. 17, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 16754, Apr. 16, 2018; 84 FR 19873, May 7, 2019]
§ 423.2034 Requesting information from the IRE.
(a) If an ALJ or attorney adjudicator believes that the written record is missing information that is essential to resolving the issues on appeal and that information can be provided only by CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor, the information may be requested from the IRE that conducted the reconsideration or its successor.
(1) Official copies of redeterminations and reconsiderations that were conducted on the appealed issues, and official copies of dismissals of a request for redetermination or reconsideration, can be provided only by CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor. Prior to issuing a request for information to the IRE, OMHA will confirm whether an electronic copy of the missing redetermination, reconsideration, or dismissal is available in the official system of record, and if so will accept the electronic copy as an official copy.
(2) “Can be provided only by CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor” means the information is not publicly available, is not in the possession of the enrollee, and cannot be requested and obtained by the enrollee. Information that is publicly available is information that is available to the general public via the Internet or in a printed publication. Information that is publicly available includes, but is not limited to, information available on a CMS, IRE or Part D Plan sponsor Web site or information in an official CMS or HHS publication.
(b) The ALJ or attorney adjudicator retains jurisdiction of the case, and the case remains pending at OMHA.
(c) The IRE has 15 calendar days for standard appeals, or 2 calendar days for expedited appeals, after receiving the request for information to furnish the information or otherwise respond to the information request directly or through CMS or the Part D plan sponsor.
(d) If an adjudication period applies to the appeal in accordance with § 423.2016, the adjudication period is extended by the period between the date of the request for information and the date the IRE responds to the request or 20 calendar days after the date of the request for standard appeals, or 3 calendar days after the date of the request for expedited appeals, whichever occurs first.
[82 FR 5133, Jan. 17, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 19873, May 7, 2019]
§ 423.2036 Description of an ALJ hearing process.
(a) The right to appear and present evidence. (1) An enrollee has the right to appear at the hearing before the ALJ to present evidence and to state his or her position. An enrollee may appear by video-teleconferencing, telephone, or in person as determined under § 423.2020.
(2) An enrollee may also make his or her appearance by means of a representative, who may make his or her appearance by video-teleconferencing, telephone, or in person, as determined under § 423.2020.
(3) Witness testimony may be given and CMS, IRE, and Part D plan sponsor participation may also be accomplished by video-teleconferencing, telephone, or in person, as determined under § 423.2020.
(b) Waiver of the right to appear. (1) An enrollee may submit to OMHA a written statement indicating that he or she does not wish to appear at the hearing.
(i) For expedited hearings, an enrollee may indicate in writing or orally that he or she does not wish to appear at the hearing.
(ii) The OMHA hearing office must document all oral waivers in writing and maintain the documentation in the case files.
(2) The enrollee may subsequently withdraw his or her waiver in writing at any time before the notice of the hearing decision is issued; however, by withdrawing the waiver the enrollee agrees to an extension of the adjudication period as specified in § 423.2016, that may be necessary to schedule and hold the hearing.
(3) Even if the enrollee waives his or her right to appear at a hearing, the ALJ may require him or her to attend an oral hearing if the ALJ believes that a personal appearance and testimony by the enrollee is necessary to decide the case.
(c) Presenting written statements and oral arguments. An enrollee or an enrollee's representative, as defined at § 423.560, may appear before the ALJ to state the enrollee's case, to present a written summary of the case, or to enter written statements about the facts and law material to the case in the record.
(d) Witnesses at a hearing. Witnesses may appear at a hearing. They testify under oath or affirmation, unless the ALJ finds an important reason to excuse them from taking an oath or affirmation. The ALJ may ask the witnesses any questions relevant to the issues and allow the enrollee or his or her representative, as defined at § 423.560, to do so.
(e) What evidence is admissible at a hearing. The ALJ may receive evidence at the hearing even though the evidence is not admissible in court under the rules of evidence used by the court. However, the ALJ may not consider evidence on any change in condition of an enrollee after a coverage determination or at-risk determination. If the enrollee wishes for the evidence to be considered, the ALJ must remand the case to the Part D IRE as set forth in § 423.2056(e).
(f)(1) Subpoenas. When it is reasonably necessary for the full presentation of a case, an ALJ may, on his or her own initiative, issue subpoenas for the appearance and testimony of witnesses and for the enrollee and/or the Part D plan sponsor to make books, records, correspondence, papers, or other documents that are material to an issue at the hearing available for inspection and copying. An ALJ may not issue a subpoena to CMS, or the IRE to compel an appearance, testimony, or the production of evidence, or to the Part D plan sponsor to compel an appearance or testimony.
(2) Reviewability of an ALJ Subpoena. A subpoena issued by an ALJ is not subject to immediate review by the Council. The subpoena may be reviewed solely during the Council's review specified in § 423.2102 and § 423.2110.
(3) Exception. To the extent a subpoena compels disclosure of a matter which an objection based on privilege, or other protection from disclosure such as case preparation, confidentiality, or undue burden, was made before an ALJ, the Council may review immediately the ruling of the ALJ on the objections to the subpoena or that portion of the subpoena as applicable.
(i) Upon notice to the ALJ that the enrollee or a non-party, as applicable, intends to seek Council review of the ALJ's ruling on the subpoena, the ALJ must stay all proceedings affected by the subpoena.
(ii) The proceedings are stayed for 15 calendar days or until the Council issues a written decision that affirms, reverses, or modifies the ALJ's subpoena, whichever comes first.
(iii) If the Council does not take action within the 15 calendar days, then the stay is lifted and the enrollee or non-party must comply with the ALJ's subpoena.
(4) Enforcement. (i) If the ALJ determines that an enrollee or person other than the enrollee subject to a subpoena issued under this section has refused to comply with the subpoena, the ALJ may request that the Secretary seek enforcement of the subpoena in accordance with section 205(e) of the Act, 42 U.S.C. 405(e).
(ii) After submitting the enforcement request, the time period for the ALJ to issue a decision, dismissal or remand a case in response to a request for hearing is stayed for 15 calendar days or until the Secretary makes a decision with respect to the enforcement request, whichever occurs first.
(iii) Any enforcement request by an ALJ must consist of a written notice to the Secretary describing in detail the ALJ's findings of noncompliance and his or her specific request for enforcement, and providing a copy of the subpoena and evidence of its receipt by certified mail by the enrollee or person other than the enrollee subject to the subpoena.
(iv) The ALJ must promptly mail a copy of the notice and related documents to the individual or entity subject to the subpoena, to the enrollee, and to any other affected person.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5133, Jan. 17, 2017; 83 FR 16754, Apr. 16, 2018; 84 FR 19873, May 7, 2019; 86 FR 6121, Jan. 19, 2021]
§ 423.2038 Deciding a case without a hearing before an ALJ.
(a) Decision fully favorable. If the evidence in the administrative record supports a finding fully in favor of the enrollee(s) on every issue, the ALJ or attorney adjudicator may issue a decision without giving the enrollee(s) prior notice and without an ALJ conducting a hearing. The notice of the decision informs the enrollee(s) that he or she has the right to a hearing and a right to examine the evidence on which the decision is based.
(b) Enrollee does not wish to appear. (1) The ALJ or attorney adjudicator may decide a case on the record and without an ALJ conducting a hearing if—
(i) The enrollee indicates in writing or, for expedited hearings orally or in writing, that he or she does not wish to appear before an ALJ at a hearing, including a hearing conducted by telephone or video-teleconferencing, if available. OMHA must document all oral requests not to appear at a hearing in writing and maintain the documentation in the case files; or
(ii) The enrollee lives outside the United States and does not inform OMHA that he or she wants to appear at a hearing before an ALJ.
(2) When a hearing is not held, the decision of the ALJ or attorney adjudicator must refer to the evidence in the record on which the decision was based.
(c) Stipulated decision. If CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor submits a written statement or makes an oral statement at a hearing indicating the drug should be covered or payment may be made, or an enrollee's at-risk determination should be reversed, and the written or oral statement agrees to the amount of payment the parties believe should be made if the amount of payment is an issue before the ALJ or attorney adjudicator, an ALJ or attorney adjudicator may issue a stipulated decision finding in favor of the enrollee on the basis of the statement, and without making findings of fact, conclusions of law, or further explaining the reasons for the decision.
[82 FR 5133, Jan. 17, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 16754, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 423.2040 Prehearing and posthearing conferences.
(a) The ALJ may decide on his or her own, or at the request of the enrollee to the hearing, to hold a prehearing or posthearing conference to facilitate the hearing or the hearing decision.
(b) For non-expedited hearings, the ALJ informs the enrollee, and CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor if the ALJ has granted their request(s) to be a participant to the hearing at the time the notice of conference is sent, of the time, place, and purpose of the conference at least 7 calendar days before the conference date, unless the enrollee indicates in writing that he or she does not wish to receive a written notice of the conference.
(c) For expedited hearings, the ALJ informs the enrollee, and CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor if the ALJ has granted their request(s) to be a participant to the hearing, of the time, place, and purpose of the conference at least 2 calendar days before the conference date, unless the enrollee indicates orally or in writing that he or she does not wish to receive a written notice of the conference.
(d) All oral requests not to receive written notice of the conference must be documented in writing and the documentation must be made part of the administrative record.
(e) At the conference—
(1) The ALJ or an OMHA attorney designated by the ALJ conducts the conference, but only the ALJ conducting a conference may consider matters in addition to those stated in the conference notice, if the enrollee consents to consideration of the additional matters in writing.
(2) An audio recording of the conference is made.
(f) The ALJ issues an order to the enrollee and all participants who attended the conference stating all agreements and actions resulting from the conference. If the enrollee does not object within 10 calendar days of receiving the order for non-expedited hearings or 1 calendar day for expedited hearings, or any additional time granted by the ALJ, the agreements and actions become part of the administrative record and are binding on the enrollee.
[82 FR 5133, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2042 The administrative record.
(a) Creating the record. (1) OMHA makes a complete record of the evidence and administrative proceedings on the appealed matter, including any prehearing and posthearing conference and hearing proceedings that were conducted.
(2) The record will include marked as exhibits, the appealed determinations and documents and other evidence used in making the appealed determinations and the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision, including, but not limited to, medical records, written statements, certificates, reports, affidavits, and any other evidence the ALJ or attorney adjudicator admits. The record will also include any evidence excluded or not considered by the ALJ or attorney adjudicator, including but not limited to duplicative evidence submitted by the enrollee.
(3) An enrollee may request and receive a copy of the record prior to or at the hearing, or, if a hearing is not held, at any time before the notice of decision is issued.
(4) If a request for review is filed, the complete record, including any prehearing and posthearing conference and hearing recordings, is forwarded to the Council.
(5) A typed transcription of the hearing is prepared if an enrollee seeks judicial review of the case in a Federal district court within the stated time period and all other jurisdictional criteria are met, unless, upon the Secretary's motion prior to the filing of an answer, the court remands the case.
(b) Requesting and receiving copies of the record. (1) While an appeal is pending at OMHA, an enrollee may request and receive a copy of all or part of the record from OMHA, including any index of the administrative record, documentary evidence, and a copy of the audio recording of the oral proceedings. The enrollee may be asked to pay the costs of providing these items.
(2) If an enrollee requests a copy of all or part of the record from OMHA or the ALJ or attorney adjudicator and an opportunity to comment on the record, any adjudication period that applies in accordance with § 423.2016 is extended by the time beginning with the receipt of the request through the expiration of the time granted for the enrollee's response.
(3) If the enrollee requests a copy of all or part of the record and the record, including any audio recordings, contains information pertaining to an individual that the enrollee is not entitled to receive, such as personally identifiable information or protected health information, such portions of the record will not be furnished unless the enrollee obtains consent from the individual.
[82 FR 5134, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2044 Consolidated proceedings.
(a) Consolidated hearing. (1) A consolidated hearing may be held if one or more of the issues to be considered at the hearing are the same issues that are involved in one or more other appeals pending before the same ALJ.
(2) It is within the discretion of the ALJ to grant or deny an enrollee's request for consolidation. In considering an enrollee's request, the ALJ may consider factors such as whether the issue(s) may be more efficiently decided if the appeals are consolidated for hearing. In considering the enrollee's request for consolidation, the ALJ must take into account any adjudication deadlines for each appeal and may require an enrollee to waive the adjudication deadline associated with one or more appeals if consolidation otherwise prevents the ALJ from deciding all of the appeals at issue within their respective deadlines.
(3) The ALJ may also propose on his or her own motion to consolidate two or more appeals in one hearing for administrative efficiency, but may not require an enrollee to waive the adjudication deadline for any of the consolidated cases.
(4) Notice of a consolidated hearing must be included in the notice of hearing issued in accordance with §§ 423.2020 and 423.2022.
(b) Consolidated decision and record. (1) If the ALJ decides to hold a consolidated hearing, he or she may make either—
(i) A consolidated decision and record; or
(ii) A separate decision and record on each appeal.
(2) If a separate decision and record on each appeal is made, the ALJ is responsible for making sure that any evidence that is common to all appeals and material to the common issue to be decided, and audio recordings of any conferences that were conducted and the consolidated hearing are included in each individual administrative record, as applicable.
(3) If a hearing will not be conducted for multiple appeals that are before the same ALJ or attorney adjudicator, and the appeals involve one or more of the same issues, the ALJ or attorney adjudicator may make a consolidated decision and record at the request of the enrollee or on the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's own motion.
(c) Limitation on consolidated proceedings. Consolidated proceedings may only be conducted for appeals filed by the same enrollee, unless multiple enrollees aggregated appeals to meet the amount in controversy requirement in accordance with § 423.2006 and the enrollees have all authorized disclosure of information to the other enrollees.
[82 FR 5134, Jan. 17, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 19873, May 7, 2019]
§ 423.2046 Notice of an ALJ or attorney adjudicator decision.
(a) Decisions on requests for hearing—(1) General rule. Unless the ALJ or attorney adjudicator dismisses or remands the request for hearing, the ALJ or attorney adjudicator will issue a written decision that gives the findings of fact, conclusions of law, and the reasons for the decision.
(i) The decision must be based on evidence offered at the hearing or otherwise admitted into the record, and shall include independent findings and conclusions.
(ii) A copy of the decision should be mailed or otherwise transmitted to the enrollee at his or her last known address.
(iii) A copy of the written decision should also be provided to the IRE that issued the reconsideration determination, and to the Part D plan sponsor that issued the coverage determination or at-risk determination.
(2) Content of the notice. The decision must be provided in a manner calculated to be understood by an enrollee and must include—
(i) The specific reasons for the determination, including, to the extent appropriate, a summary of any clinical or scientific evidence used in making the determination;
(ii) The procedures for obtaining additional information concerning the decision; and
(iii) Notification of the right to appeal the decision to the Council, including instructions on how to initiate an appeal under this section.
(3) Limitation on decision. When the amount of payment for the Part D drug is an issue before the ALJ or attorney adjudicator, the ALJ or attorney adjudicator may make a finding as to the amount of payment due. If the ALJ or attorney adjudicator makes a finding concerning payment when the amount of payment was not an issue before the ALJ or attorney adjudicator, the Part D plan sponsor may independently determine the payment amount. In either of the aforementioned situations, an ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision is not binding on the Part D plan sponsor for purposes of determining the amount of payment due. The amount of payment determined by the Part D plan sponsor in effectuating the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision is a new coverage determination under § 423.566.
(b) Decisions on requests for review of an IRE dismissal—(1) General rule. Unless the ALJ or attorney adjudicator dismisses the request for review of an IRE dismissal, or the dismissal is vacated and remanded, the ALJ or attorney adjudicator will issue a written decision affirming the IRE's dismissal. OMHA mails or otherwise transmits a copy of the decision to the enrollee.
(2) Content of the notice. The decision must be written in a manner calculated to be understood by an enrollee and must include—
(i) The specific reasons for the determination, including a summary of the evidence considered and applicable authorities;
(ii) The procedures for obtaining additional information concerning the decision; and
(iii) Notification that the decision is binding and is not subject to further review, unless reopened and revised by the ALJ or attorney adjudicator.
(c) Recommended decision. An ALJ or attorney adjudicator issues a recommended decision if he or she is directed to do so in the Council's remand order. An ALJ or attorney adjudicator may not issue a recommended decision on his or her own motion. The ALJ or attorney adjudicator mails a copy of the recommended decision to the enrollee at his or her last known address.
[82 FR 5134, Jan. 17, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 16754, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 423.2048 The effect of an ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision.
(a) The decision of the ALJ or attorney adjudicator on a request for hearing is binding unless—
(1) An enrollee requests a review of the decision by the Council within the stated time period or the Council reviews the decision issued by an ALJ or attorney adjudicator under the procedures set forth in § 423.2110, and the Council issues a final decision or remand order;
(2) The decision is reopened and revised by an ALJ or attorney adjudicator or the Council under the procedures explained in § 423.1980;
(3) The expedited access to judicial review process at § 423.1990 is used;
(4) The ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision is a recommended decision directed to the Council and the Council issues a decision; or
(5) In a case remanded by a Federal district court, the Council assumes jurisdiction under the procedures in § 423.2138 and the Council issues a decision.
(b) The decision of the ALJ or attorney adjudicator on a request for review of an IRE dismissal is binding on the enrollee unless the decision is reopened and revised by the ALJ or attorney adjudicator under the procedures explained in § 423.1980.
[82 FR 5135, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2050 Removal of a hearing request from OMHA to the Council.
If a request for hearing is pending before OMHA, the Council may assume responsibility for holding a hearing by requesting that OMHA send the hearing request. If the Council holds a hearing, it conducts the hearing according to the rules for hearings before an ALJ. Notice is mailed to the enrollee at his or her last known address informing him or her that the Council has assumed responsibility for the case.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5135, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2052 Dismissal of a request for a hearing before an ALJ or request for review of an IRE dismissal.
(a) Dismissal of request for hearing. An ALJ dismisses a request for a hearing under any of the following conditions:
(1) Neither the enrollee that requested the hearing nor the enrollee's representative appears at the time and place set for the hearing, if—
(i) The enrollee was notified before the time set for the hearing that the request for hearing might be dismissed for failure to appear, the record contains documentation that the enrollee acknowledged the notice of hearing, and the enrollee does not contact the ALJ within 10 calendar days after the hearing for non-expedited hearings and 2 calendar days after the hearing for expedited hearings, or does contact the ALJ but the ALJ determines the enrollee did not demonstrate good cause for not appearing; or
(ii) The record does not contain documentation that the enrollee acknowledged the notice of hearing, the ALJ sends a notice to the enrollee at his or her last known address asking why the enrollee did not appear, and the enrollee does not respond to the ALJ's notice within 10 calendar days for non-expedited hearings or within 2 calendar days for expedited hearings after receiving the notice, or does contact the ALJ but the ALJ determines the enrollee did not demonstrate good cause for not appearing. For expedited hearings, an enrollee may submit his or her response orally to the ALJ.
(iii) In determining whether good cause exists under paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, the ALJ considers any physical, mental, educational, or linguistic limitations (including any lack of facility with the English language) the enrollee may have.
(2) The person requesting a hearing has no right to it under § 423.2002.
(3) The enrollee did not request a hearing within the stated time period and the ALJ has not found good cause for extending the deadline, as provided in § 423.2014(e).
(4) The enrollee died while the request for hearing is pending and the request for hearing was filed by the enrollee or the enrollee's representative, and the enrollee's surviving spouse or estate has no remaining financial interest in the case and the enrollee's representative, if any, does not wish to continue the appeal.
(5) The ALJ dismisses a hearing request entirely or refuses to consider any one or more of the issues because an IRE, an ALJ or attorney adjudicator, or the Council has made a previous determination or decision under this subpart about the enrollee's rights on the same facts and on the same issue(s), and this previous determination or decision has become binding by either administrative or judicial action.
(6) The enrollee abandons the request for hearing. An ALJ may conclude that an enrollee has abandoned a request for hearing when OMHA attempts to schedule a hearing and is unable to contact the enrollee after making reasonable efforts to do so.
(7) The enrollee's request is not complete in accordance with § 423.2014(a)(1), even after the enrollee is provided with an opportunity to complete the request.
(b) Dismissal of request for review of IRE dismissal. An ALJ or attorney adjudicator dismisses a request for review of an IRE dismissal under any of the following conditions:
(1) The enrollee has no right to a review of the IRE dismissal under § 423.2004.
(2) The enrollee did not request a review within the stated time period and the ALJ or attorney adjudicator has not found good cause for extending the deadline, as provided in § 423.2014(e).
(3) The enrollee died while the request for review was pending and the request was filed by the enrollee or the enrollee's representative, and the enrollee's surviving spouse or estate has no remaining financial interest in the case and the enrollee's representative, if any, does not wish to continue the appeal.
(4) The enrollee's request is not complete in accordance with § 423.2014(a)(1), even after the enrollee is provided with an opportunity to complete the request.
(c) Withdrawal of request. At any time before notice of the decision, dismissal, or remand is mailed, if the enrollee asks to withdraw the request, an ALJ or attorney adjudicator may dismiss the request for hearing or request for review of an IRE dismissal. This request for withdrawal may be submitted in writing, or a request to withdraw a request for hearing may be made orally at a hearing before the ALJ. The request for withdrawal must include a clear statement that the enrollee is withdrawing the request for hearing or review of the IRE dismissal and does not intend to further proceed with the appeal. If an attorney or other legal professional on behalf of an enrollee files the request for withdrawal, the ALJ or attorney adjudicator may presume that the representative has advised the enrollee of the consequences of the withdrawal and dismissal.
(d) Notice of dismissal. OMHA mails or otherwise transmits a written notice of the dismissal of the hearing or review request to the enrollee at his or her last known address. The written notice provides that there is a right to request that the ALJ or attorney adjudicator vacate the dismissal action.
(e) Vacating a dismissal. If good and sufficient cause is established, the ALJ or attorney adjudicator may vacate his or her dismissal of a request for hearing or review within 180 calendar days of the date of the notice of dismissal.
[82 FR 5135, Jan. 17, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 19873, May 7, 2019]
§ 423.2054 Effect of dismissal of a request for a hearing or request for review of an IRE's dismissal.
(a) The dismissal of a request for a hearing is binding, unless it is vacated by the Council under § 423.2108(b), or vacated by the ALJ or attorney adjudicator under § 423.2052(e).
(b) The dismissal of a request for review of an IRE dismissal of a request for reconsideration is binding and not subject to further review unless vacated by the ALJ or attorney adjudicator under § 423.2052(e).
[82 FR 5136, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2056 Remands of requests for hearing and requests for review.
(a) Missing appeal determination or case record. (1) If an ALJ or attorney adjudicator requests an official copy of a missing redetermination or reconsideration for an appealed coverage determination or at-risk determination in accordance with § 423.2034, and the IRE, CMS, or Part D plan sponsor does not furnish the copy within the time frame specified in § 423.2034, an ALJ or attorney adjudicator may issue a remand directing the IRE or Part D plan sponsor to reconstruct the record or, if it is not able to do so, initiate a new appeal adjudication.
(2) If the IRE does not furnish the case file for an appealed reconsideration, an ALJ or attorney adjudicator may issue a remand directing the IRE to reconstruct the record or, if it is not able to do so, initiate a new appeal adjudication.
(3) If the IRE or Part D plan sponsor is able to reconstruct the record for a remanded case and returns the case to OMHA, the case is no longer remanded and the reconsideration is no longer vacated, and any adjudication period that applies to the appeal in accordance with § 423.2016 is extended by the period between the date of the remand and the date that case is returned to OMHA.
(b) No redetermination. If an ALJ or attorney adjudicator finds that the IRE issued a reconsideration and no redetermination was made with respect to the issue under appeal or the request for redetermination was dismissed, the reconsideration will be remanded to the IRE, or its successor, to readjudicate the request for reconsideration, unless the request for redetermination was forwarded to the IRE in accordance with § 423.590(c) or (e) without a redetermination having been conducted.
(c) Requested remand—(1) Request contents and timing. At any time prior to an ALJ or attorney adjudicator issuing a decision or dismissal, the enrollee and CMS, the IRE, or the Part D plan sponsor may jointly request a remand of the appeal to the IRE. The request must include the reasons why the appeal should be remanded, and indicate whether remanding the case will likely resolve the matter in dispute.
(2) Granting the request. An ALJ or attorney adjudicator may grant the request and issue a remand if he or she determines that remanding the case will likely resolve the matter in dispute.
(d) Remanding an IRE's dismissal of a request for reconsideration. (1) Consistent with § 423.2004(b), an ALJ or attorney adjudicator will remand a case to the appropriate IRE if the ALJ or attorney adjudicator determines that an IRE's dismissal of a request for reconsideration was in error.
(2) If an official copy of the notice of dismissal or case file cannot be obtained from the IRE, an ALJ or attorney adjudicator may also remand a request for review of a dismissal in accordance with the procedures in paragraph (a) of this section.
(e) Consideration of change in condition. The ALJ or attorney adjudicator will remand a case to the appropriate IRE if the ALJ or attorney adjudicator determines that the enrollee wants evidence on his or her change in condition after the coverage determination or at-risk determination to be considered in the appeal.
(f) Notice of a remand. OMHA mails or otherwise transmits a written notice of the remand of the request for hearing or request for review to the enrollee at his or her last known address, and CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor if a request to be a participant was granted by the ALJ or attorney adjudicator. The notice states that there is a right to request that the Chief ALJ or a designee review the remand, unless the remand was issued under paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
(g) Review of remand. Upon a request by the enrollee or CMS, the IRE, or the Part D plan sponsor filed within 30 calendar days of receiving a notice of remand, the Chief ALJ or designee will review the remand, and if the remand is not authorized by this section, vacate the remand order. The determination on a request to review a remand order is binding and not subject to further review. The review of remand procedures provided for in this paragraph (g) are not available for and do not apply to remands that are issued in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
[82 FR 5136, Jan. 17, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 16754, Apr. 16, 2018; 84 FR 19873, May 7, 2019]
§ 423.2058 Effect of a remand.
A remand of a request for hearing or request for review is binding unless vacated by the Chief ALJ or a designee in accordance with § 423.2056(g).
[82 FR 5137, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2062 Applicability of policies not binding on the ALJ and Council.
(a) ALJs or attorney adjudicators and the Council are not bound by CMS program guidance, such as program memoranda and manual instructions, but will give substantial deference to these policies if they are applicable to a particular case.
(b) If an ALJ or attorney adjudicator or Council declines to follow a policy in a particular case, the ALJ or attorney adjudicator or Council decision must explain the reasons why the policy was not followed. An ALJ or attorney adjudicator or Council decision to disregard a policy applies only to the specific coverage determination or at-risk determination being considered and does not have precedential effect.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5137, Jan. 17, 2017; 83 FR 16754, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 423.2063 Applicability of laws, regulations, CMS Rulings, and precedential decisions.
(a) All laws and regulations pertaining to the Medicare program, including, but not limited to Titles XI, XVIII, and XIX of the Social Security Act and applicable implementing regulations, are binding on ALJs and attorney adjudicators, and the Council.
(b) CMS Rulings are published under the authority of the CMS Administrator. Consistent with § 401.108 of this chapter, rulings are binding on all CMS components, and on all HHS components that adjudicate matters under the jurisdiction of CMS.
(c) Precedential decisions designated by the Chair of the Departmental Appeals Board in accordance with § 401.109 of this chapter are binding on all CMS components, and all HHS components that adjudicate matters under the jurisdiction of CMS.
[82 FR 5137, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2100 Medicare Appeals Council review: general.
(a) An enrollee who is dissatisfied with an ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision or dismissal may request that the Council review the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision or dismissal.
(b) When the Council reviews an ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's written decision, it undertakes a de novo review.
(c) The Council issues a final decision, dismissal order, or remands a case to the ALJ or attorney adjudicator no later than the end of the 90 calendar day period beginning on the date the request for review is received (by the entity specified in the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's written notice of decision), unless the 90 calendar day period is extended as provided in this subpart or the enrollee requests expedited Council review.
(d) If an enrollee requests expedited Council review, the Council issues a final decision, dismissal order or remand as expeditiously as the enrollee's health condition requires, but no later than the end of the 10 calendar day period beginning on the date the request for review is received (by the entity specified in the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's written notice of decision), unless the 10 calendar day period is extended as provided in this subpart.
[82 FR 5137, Jan. 17, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 19874, May 7, 2019]
§ 423.2102 Request for Council review when ALJ or attorney adjudicator issues decision or dismissal.
(a)(1) An enrollee may request Council review of a decision or dismissal issued by an ALJ or attorney adjudicator if the enrollee files a written request for a Council review within 60 calendar days after receipt of the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's written decision or dismissal.
(2) An enrollee may request that Council review be expedited if the appeal involves an issue specified in § 423.566(b) but does not include solely a request for payment of Part D drugs already furnished.
(i) If an enrollee is requesting that the Council review be expedited, the enrollee submits an oral or written request within 60 calendar days after the receipt of the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's written decision or dismissal. A prescribing physician or other prescriber may provide oral or written support for an enrollee's request for expedited review.
(ii) The Council must document all oral requests for expedited review in writing and maintain the documentation in the case files.
(3) For purposes of this section, the date of receipt of the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's written decision or dismissal is presumed to be 5 calendar days after the date of the notice of the decision or dismissal, unless there is evidence to the contrary.
(4) The request is considered as filed on the date it is received by the entity specified in the notice of the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's action.
(b) An enrollee requesting a review may ask that the time for filing a request for Council review be extended if—
(1) The request for an extension of time is in writing or, for expedited reviews, in writing or oral. The Council must document all oral requests in writing and maintain the documentation in the case file.
(2) The request explains why the request for review was not filed within the stated time period. If the Council finds that there is good cause for missing the deadline, the time period will be extended. To determine whether good cause exists, the Council uses the standards outlined at § 405.942(b)(2) and (3) of this chapter.
(c) An enrollee does not have the right to seek Council review of an ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's remand to an IRE, or an ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's affirmation of an IRE's dismissal of a request for reconsideration, or dismissal of a request to review an IRE dismissal.
[82 FR 5137, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2106 Where a request for review may be filed.
When a request for a Council review is filed after an ALJ or attorney adjudicator has issued a written decision or dismissal, the request for review must be submitted to the entity specified in the notice of the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's action. If the request for review is timely filed with an entity other than the entity specified in the notice of the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's action, the Council's adjudication period to conduct a review begins on the date the request for review is received by the entity specified in the notice of the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's action. Upon receipt of a request for review from an entity other than the entity specified in the notice of the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's action, the Council sends written notice to the enrollee of the date of receipt of the request and commencement of the adjudication timeframe.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5137, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2108 Council Actions when request for review is filed.
(a) General. Except as specified in paragraph (c) of this section, when an enrollee requests that the Council review an ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision, the Council will review the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision de novo. The enrollee requesting review does not have a right to a hearing before the Council. The Council will consider all of the evidence admitted into the administrative record. Upon completion of its review, the Council may adopt, modify, or reverse the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision or remand the case to the ALJ or attorney adjudicator for further proceedings. Unless the Council's review is expedited as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, the Council must issue its action no later than 90 calendar days after receiving the request for review, unless the 90 calendar day period has been extended as provided in this subpart.
(b) Review of ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's dismissal of a request for a hearing. When an enrollee requests that the Council review an ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's dismissal of a request for a hearing, the Council may deny review or vacate the dismissal and remand the case to the ALJ or attorney adjudicator for further proceedings.
(c) Council dismissal of request for review. The Council will dismiss a request for review when the individual or entity requesting review does not have a right to a review by the MAC, or will dismiss the request for a hearing for any reason that the ALJ or attorney adjudicator could have dismissed the request for hearing.
(d) Expedited reviews. (1) Standard for expedited reviews. The Council must provide an expedited review if the appeal involves an issue specified in § 423.566(b), but does not include solely a request for payment of Part D drugs already furnished, enrollee's prescribing physician or other prescriber indicates, or the Council determines that applying the standard timeframe for making a decision may seriously jeopardize the enrollee's life or health or ability to regain maximum function. The Council may consider this standard as met if a lower level adjudicator has granted a request for an expedited appeal.
(2) Grant of a request. If the Council grants a request for expedited review, the Council must:
(i) Make this decision within 5 calendar days of receipt of the request for expedited review;
(ii) Give the enrollee prompt oral notice of this decision; and
(iii) Issue a decision, dismissal order or remand, as expeditiously as the enrollee's health condition requires, but no later than the end of the 10 calendar day period beginning on the date the request for review is received by the entity specified in the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's written notice of decision.
(3) Denial of a request. If the Council denies a request for expedited review, the Council must:
(i) Make this decision within 5 calendar days of receipt of the request for expedited review;
(ii) Give the enrollee and Part D plan sponsor within 5 calendar days of receiving the request written notice of the denial. The written notice must inform the enrollee of the denial and explain that the Council will process the enrollee's request using the 90 calendar day timeframe for non-expedited reviews.
(4) Decision on a request. A decision on a request for expedited review may not be appealed.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5137 Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2110 Council reviews on its own motion.
(a) General rule. The Council may decide on its own motion to review a decision or dismissal issued by an ALJ or attorney adjudicator. CMS or the IRE may refer a case to the Council for it to consider reviewing under this authority any time within 60 calendar days of receipt of an ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's written decision or dismissal.
(b) Referral of cases. (1) CMS or the IRE may refer a case to the Council if, in the view of CMS or the IRE, the decision or dismissal contains an error of law material to the outcome of the appeal or presents a broad policy or procedural issue that may affect the public interest. CMS or the IRE may also request that the Council take own motion review of a case if—
(i) CMS or the IRE participated or requested to participate in the appeal at the OMHA level; and
(ii) In CMS' or the IRE's view, the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision or dismissal is not supported by the preponderance of evidence in the record or the ALJ or attorney adjudicator abused his or her discretion.
(2) CMS' or the IRE's referral to the Council is made in writing and must be filed with the Council no later than 60 calendar days after the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's written decision or dismissal is received.
(i) The written referral will state the reasons why CMS or the IRE believes that the Council should review the case on its own motion.
(ii) CMS or the IRE will send a copy of its referral to the enrollee and to the OMHA Chief ALJ.
(iii) The enrollee may file exceptions to the referral by submitting written comments to the Council within 20 calendar days of the referral notice.
(iv) An enrollee submitting comments to the Council must send the comments to CMS or the IRE.
(c) Standard of review—(1) Referral by CMS or the IRE when CMS or the IRE participated or requested to participate in the OMHA level. If CMS or the IRE participated or requested to participate in an appeal at the OMHA level, the Council exercises its own motion authority if there is an error of law material to the outcome of the case, an abuse of discretion by the ALJ or attorney adjudicator, the decision is not consistent with the preponderance of the evidence of record, or there is a broad policy or procedural issue that may affect the general public interest. In deciding whether to accept review under this standard, the Council will limit its consideration of the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's action to those exceptions raised by CMS or the IRE.
(2) Referral by CMS or the IRE when CMS or the IRE did not participate or request to participate in the OMHA proceedings. The Council will accept review if the decision or dismissal contains an error of law material to the outcome of the case or presents a broad policy or procedural issue that may affect the general public interest. In deciding whether to accept review, the Council will limit its consideration of the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's action to those exceptions raised by CMS or the IRE.
(d) Council's action. (1) If the Council decides to review a decision or dismissal on its own motion, it will mail the results of its action to the enrollee and to CMS or the IRE, as appropriate.
(2) The Council may adopt, modify, or reverse the decision or dismissal, may remand the case to an ALJ or attorney adjudicator for further proceedings, or may dismiss a hearing request.
(3) The Council must issue its action no later than 90 calendar days after receipt of the CMS or the IRE referral, unless the 90 calendar day period has been extended as provided in this subpart.
(4) The Council may not issue its action before the 20 calendar day comment period has expired, unless it determines that the agency's referral does not provide a basis for reviewing the case.
(5) If the Council declines to review a decision or dismissal on its own motion, the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision or dismissal is binding.
(e) Referral timeframe. For purposes of this section, the date of receipt of the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision or dismissal is presumed to be 5 calendar days after the date of the notice of the decision or dismissal, unless there is evidence to the contrary.
[82 FR 5137, Jan. 17, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 19874, May 7, 2019]
§ 423.2112 Content of request for review.
(a)(1) The request for Council review must be filed with the entity specified in the notice of the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's action.
(2) The request for review must be in writing and may be made on a standard form, except for requests for expedited reviews which may be made orally.
(3) The Council must document all oral requests in writing and maintain the documentation in the case file.
(4) A written request that is not made on a standard form or, for expedited requests, an oral request, is accepted if it includes the enrollee's name and telephone number, the plan name; Medicare number; the ALJ appeal number; the specific Part D drug(s) for which the review is requested; a statement that the enrollee is requesting an expedited review, if applicable; and the name of the enrollee or the representative of the enrollee.
(b) The request for review must identify the parts of the ALJ or attorney adjudicator action with which the enrollee requesting review disagrees and explain why he or she disagrees with the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision, dismissal, or other determination being appealed.
(c) The Council will limit its review of an ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's actions to those exceptions raised by the enrollee in the request for review, unless the enrollee is unrepresented. For purposes of this section only, a representative is either anyone with a valid appointment as the enrollee's representative or is a member of the enrollee's family, a legal guardian or an individual who routinely acts on behalf of the enrollee, such as a family member or friend who has a power of attorney.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5138, Jan. 17, 2017; 84 FR 19874, May 7, 2019]
§ 423.2114 Dismissal of request for review.
The Council dismisses a request for review if the enrollee requesting review did not file the request within the stated period of time and the time for filing has not been extended. The Council also dismisses the request for review if—
(a) The enrollee asks to withdraw the request for review;
(b) The individual or entity does not have a right to request Council review; or
(c) The enrollee died while the request for review is pending and the enrollee's estate or representative, if any, either has no remaining financial interest in the case or does not want to continue the appeal.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5138, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2116 Effect of dismissal of request for Council review or request for hearing.
The dismissal of a request for Council review or denial of a request for review of a dismissal issued by an ALJ or attorney adjudicator is binding and not subject to further review unless reopened and vacated by the Council. The Council's dismissal of a request for hearing is also binding and not subject to judicial review.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5138, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2118 Obtaining evidence from the Council.
An enrollee may request and receive a copy of all or part of the record of the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's action, including any index of the administrative record, documentary evidence, and a copy of the audio recording of the oral proceedings. However, the enrollee may be asked to pay the costs of providing these items. If an enrollee requests evidence from the Council and an opportunity to comment on that evidence, the time beginning with the Council's receipt of the request for evidence through the expiration of the time granted for the enrollee's response will not be counted toward the adjudication deadline.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5138, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2120 Filing briefs with the Council.
Upon request, the Council will give the enrollee requesting review a reasonable opportunity to file a brief or other written statement about the facts and law relevant to the case. Unless the enrollee requesting review files the brief or other statement with the request for review, the time beginning with the date of receipt of the request to submit the brief and ending with the date the brief is received by the Council will not be counted toward the adjudication timeframe set forth in § 423.2100. The Council may also request, but not require, CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor to file a brief or position paper if the Council determines that it is necessary to resolve the issues in the case. The Council cannot draw any adverse inference if CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor either participates, or decides not to participate in Council review.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5138, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2122 What evidence may be submitted to the Council.
(a) Appeal before the Council on request for review of ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision. (1) If the Council is reviewing an ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision, the Council will consider the evidence contained in the record of the proceedings before the ALJ or attorney adjudicator, and any new evidence that relates to the period before the coverage determination or at-risk determination. If the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision decides a new issue that the enrollee was not afforded an opportunity to address at the OMHA level, the Council considers any evidence related to that issue that is submitted with the request for review.
(2) If the Council determines that additional evidence is needed to resolve the issues in the case and the administrative record indicates that the previous decision-makers have not attempted to obtain the evidence, the Council may remand the case to an ALJ or attorney adjudicator to obtain the evidence and issue a new decision.
(3) The Council will not consider any new evidence submitted regarding a change in condition of an enrollee after a coverage determination or at-risk determination is made. The Council will remand a case to the Part D IRE if the Council determines that the enrollee wishes to have evidence on his or her change in condition after the coverage determination or at-risk determination considered.
(b) Subpoenas. When it is reasonably necessary for the full presentation of a case, the Council may, on its own initiative, issue subpoenas requiring an enrollee or Part D plan sponsor to make books, records, correspondence, papers, or other documents that are material to an issue at the hearing available for inspection and copying. The Council may not issue a subpoena to CMS, or the IRE to compel the production of evidence.
(1) To the extent a subpoena compels disclosure of a matter for which an objection based on privilege, or other protection from disclosure such as case preparation, confidentiality or undue burden, was made before the Council, the Secretary may review immediately that subpoena or a portion of the subpoena.
(2) Upon notice to the Council that an enrollee or Part D plan sponsor intends to seek the Secretary review of the subpoena, the Council must stay all proceedings affected by the subpoena, tolling the time period for the Council to issue a final action or remand a case in response to a request for review for 15 calendar days or until the Secretary makes a decision with respect to the review request, whichever occurs first.
(3) If the Secretary does not grant review within the time allotted for the stay, the stay is lifted and the subpoena stands.
(c) Enforcement. (1) If the CouncilC determines that an enrollee or other person or entity subject to a subpoena issued under this section has refused to comply with the subpoena, the Council may request the Secretary to seek enforcement of the subpoena in accordance with section 205(e) of the Act, 42 U.S.C. 405(e).
(2) After submitting the enforcement request, the time period for the Council to issue a final action or remand a case in response to a request for review is stayed for 15 calendar days or until the Secretary makes a decision with respect to the enforcement request, whichever occurs first.
(3) Any enforcement request by the Council must consist of a written notice to the Secretary describing in detail the Council's findings of noncompliance and its specific request for enforcement, and providing a copy of the subpoena and evidence of its receipt by certified mail by the enrollee or other person or entity subject to the subpoena.
(4) The Council must promptly mail a copy of the notice and related documents to the enrollee or other person or entity subject to the subpoena, and to any other affected person.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5138, Jan. 17, 2017; 83 FR 16754, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 423.2124 Oral argument.
An enrollee may request to appear before the Council to present oral argument.
(a) The Council grants a request for oral argument if it decides that the case raises an important question of law, policy, or fact that cannot be readily decided based on written submissions alone.
(b) The Council may decide on its own that oral argument is necessary to decide the issues in the case. If the Council decides to hear oral argument, it informs the enrollee of the time and place of the oral argument at least 10 calendar days before the scheduled date or, in the case of an expedited review, at least 2 calendar days before the scheduled date.
(c) In case of a previously unrepresented enrollee, a newly hired representative may request an extension of time for preparation of the oral argument and the Council must consider whether the extension is reasonable.
(d) The Council may also request, but not require, CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor to appear before it if the Council determines that it may be helpful in resolving the issues in the case.
(e) The Council cannot draw any adverse inference if CMS, the IRE, and/or the Part D plan sponsor decide not to participate in the oral argument.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5138, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2126 Case remanded by the Council.
(a) When the Council may remand a case to the ALJ or attorney adjudicator. (1) The Council may remand a case in which additional evidence is needed or additional action by the ALJ or attorney adjudicator is required. The Council will designate in its remand order whether the ALJ or attorney adjudicator will issue a decision or a recommended decision on remand.
(2) Action by ALJ or attorney adjudicator on remand. The ALJ or attorney adjudicator will take any action that is ordered by the Council and may take any additional action that is not inconsistent with the Council's remand order.
(3) Notice when case is returned with a recommended decision. When the ALJ or attorney adjudicator sends a case to the Council with a recommended decision, a notice is mailed to the enrollee at his or her last known address. The notice tells the enrollee that the case was sent to the Council, explains the rules for filing briefs or other written statements with the Council, and includes a copy of the recommended decision.
(4) Filing briefs with the Council when ALJ or attorney adjudicator issues recommended decision. (i) An enrollee may file with the Council briefs or other written statements about the facts and law relevant to the case within 20 calendar days of the date on the recommended decision or with the request for review for expedited appeals. An enrollee may ask the Council for additional time to file a brief or written statement. The Council will extend this period, as appropriate, if the enrollee shows that he or she has good cause for requesting the extension.
(ii) All other rules for filing briefs with and obtaining evidence from the Council follow the procedures explained in this subpart.
(5) Procedures before the Council. (i) The Council, after receiving a recommended decision, will conduct proceedings and issue its decision or dismissal according to the procedures explained in this subpart.
(ii) If the Council determines that more evidence is required, it may again remand the case to an ALJ or attorney adjudicator for further inquiry into the issues, rehearing if applicable, receipt of evidence, and another decision or recommended decision. However, if the Council decides that it can get the additional evidence more quickly, it will take appropriate action.
(b) When the Council must remand a case to the Part D IRE. The Council will remand a case to the appropriate Part D IRE if the Council determines that the enrollee wishes evidence on his or her change in condition after the coverage determination or at-risk determination to be considered in the appeal.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5138, Jan. 17, 2017; 83 FR 16754, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 423.2128 Action of the Council.
(a) After it has reviewed all the evidence in the administrative record and any additional evidence received, subject to the limitations on Council consideration of additional evidence in § 423.2122, the Council will make a decision or remand the case to an ALJ or attorney adjudicator.
(b) The Council may adopt, modify, or reverse the ALJ or attorney adjudicator decision or recommended decision.
(c) The Council mails a copy of its decision to the enrollee at his or her last known address, to CMS, to the IRE, and to the Part D plan sponsor.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5139, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2130 Effect of the Council's decision.
The Council's decision is final and binding unless a Federal District Court issues a decision modifying the Council's decision or the decision is revised as the result of a reopening in accordance with § 423.1980. An enrollee may file an action in a Federal District Court within 60 calendar days after the date the enrollee receives written notice of the Council's decision.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5139, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2134 Extension of time to file action in Federal District Court.
(a) An enrollee may request that the time for filing an action in a Federal District Court be extended.
(b) The request must:
(1) Be in writing.
(2) Give the reasons why the action was not filed within the stated time period.
(3) Be filed with the Council.
(c) If the enrollee shows that he or she had good cause for missing the deadline, the time period will be extended. To determine whether good cause exists, the Council uses the standards specified in §§ 405.942(b)(2) or (b)(3) of this chapter.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5139, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2136 Judicial review.
(a) General rule—(1) Review of Council decision. To the extent authorized by sections 1876(c)(5)(B) and 1860D-4(h) of the Act, an enrollee may obtain a court review of a Council decision if—
(i) It is a final decision of the Secretary; and
(ii) The amount in controversy meets the threshold requirements of § 423.2006.
(2) Review of ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision. To the extent authorized by sections 1876(c)(5)(B) and 1860D-4(h) of the Act, the enrollee may request judicial review of an ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's decision if—
(i) The Council denied the enrollee's request for review; and
(ii) The amount in controversy meets the threshold requirements of § 423.2006.
(b) Court in which to file civil action. (1) Any civil action described in paragraph (a) of this section must be filed in the District Court of the United States for the judicial district in which the enrollee resides.
(2) If the enrollee does not reside within any judicial district, the civil action must be filed in the District Court of the United States for the District of Columbia.
(c) Time for filing civil action. (1) Any civil action described in paragraph (a) of this section must be filed within the time periods specified in § 423.2130 or § 423.2134, as applicable.
(2) For purposes of this section, the date of receipt of the notice of the Council's decision shall be presumed to be 5 calendar days after the date of the notice, unless there is a reasonable showing to the contrary.
(3) Where a case is certified for judicial review in accordance with the expedited access to judicial review process in § 423.1990, the civil action must be filed within 60 calendar days after receipt of the review entity's certification, except where the time is extended by the ALJ or attorney adjudicator or Council, as applicable, upon a showing of good cause.
(d) Proper defendant. (1) In any civil action described in paragraph (a) of this section, the Secretary of HHS, in his or her official capacity, is the proper defendant. Any civil action properly filed shall survive notwithstanding any change of the person holding the Office of the Secretary of HHS or any vacancy in such office.
(2) If the complaint is erroneously filed against the United States or against any agency, officer, or employee of the United States other than the Secretary, the plaintiff enrollee will be notified that he or she has named an incorrect defendant and is granted 60 calendar days from the date of receipt of the notice in which to commence the action against the correct defendant, the Secretary.
(e) Standard of review. (1) Under section 205(g) of the Act, the findings of the Secretary of HHS as to any fact, if supported by substantial evidence, are conclusive.
(2) When the Secretary's decision is adverse to an enrollee due to an enrollee's failure to submit proof in conformity with a regulation prescribed under section 205(a) of the Act pertaining to the type of proof an enrollee must offer to establish entitlement to payment, the court will review only whether the proof conforms with the regulation and the validity of the regulation.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5139, Jan. 17, 2017; 84 FR 19874, May 7, 2019]
§ 423.2138 Case remanded by a Federal District Court.
When a Federal District Court remands a case to the Secretary for further consideration, unless the court order specifies otherwise, the Council, acting on behalf of the Secretary, may make a decision, or it may remand the case to an ALJ or attorney adjudicator with instructions to take action and either issue a decision, take other action, or return the case to the Council with a recommended decision. If the Council remands a case, the procedures specified in § 423.2140 will be followed.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5139, Jan. 17, 2017]
§ 423.2140 Council Review of ALJ or attorney adjudicator decision in a case remanded by a Federal District Court.
(a) General rules. (1) In accordance with § 423.2138, when a case is remanded by a Federal District Court for further consideration and the Council remands the case to an ALJ or attorney adjudicator, a decision subsequently issued by the ALJ or attorney adjudicator becomes the final decision of the Secretary unless the Council assumes jurisdiction.
(2) The Council may assume jurisdiction based on written exceptions to the decision of the ALJ or attorney adjudicator that an enrollee files with the Council or based on its authority under paragraph (c) of this section.
(3) The Council either makes a new, independent decision based on the entire record that will be the final decision of the Secretary after remand, or remands the case to an ALJ or attorney adjudicator for further proceedings.
(b) An enrollee files exceptions disagreeing with the decision of the ALJ or attorney adjudicator. (1) If an enrollee disagrees with an ALJ or attorney adjudicator decision described in paragraph (a) of this section, in whole or in part, he or she may file exceptions to the decision with the Council Council .
(2) Exceptions may be filed by submitting a written statement to the Council setting forth the reasons for disagreeing with the decision of the ALJ or attorney adjudicator.
(i) The enrollee must file exceptions within 30 calendar days of the date the enrollee receives the decision of the ALJ or attorney adjudicator or submit a written request for an extension within the 30 calendar day period.
(ii) The Council will grant a timely request for a 30 calendar day extension. A request for an extension of more than 30 calendar days must include a statement of reasons as to why the enrollee needs the additional time and may be granted if the Council finds good cause under the standard established in §§ 405.942(b)(2) or (b)(3) of this chapter.
(3) If written exceptions are timely filed, the Council considers the enrollee's reasons for disagreeing with the decision of the ALJ or attorney adjudicator. If the Council concludes that there is no reason to change the decision of the ALJ or attorney adjudicator, it will issue a notice addressing the exceptions and explaining why no change in the decision of the ALJ or attorney adjudicator is warranted. In this instance, the decision of the ALJ or attorney adjudicator is the final decision of the Secretary after remand.
(4) When an enrollee files written exceptions to the decision of the ALJ, the Council may assume jurisdiction at any time. If the Council assumes jurisdiction, it makes a new, independent decision based on its consideration of the entire record adopting, modifying, or reversing the decision of the ALJ or attorney adjudicator or remanding the case to an ALJ or attorney adjudicator for further proceedings, including a new decision. The new decision of the Council is the final decision of the Secretary after remand.
(c) Council assumes jurisdiction without exceptions being filed. (1) Any time within 60 calendar days after the date of the written decision of the ALJ or attorney adjudicator, the Council may decide to assume jurisdiction of the case even though no written exceptions have been filed.
(2) Notice of this action is mailed to the enrollee at his or her last known address.
(3) The enrollee will be provided with the opportunity to file a brief or other written statement with the Council about the facts and law relevant to the case.
(4) After the brief or other written statement is received or the time allowed (usually 30 calendar days) for submitting them has expired, the Council will either issue a final decision of the Secretary affirming, modifying, or reversing the decision of the ALJ, or remand the case to an ALJ or attorney adjudicator for further proceedings, including a new decision.
(d) Exceptions are not filed and the Council does not otherwise assume jurisdiction. If no exceptions are filed and the Council does not assume jurisdiction over the case within 60 calendar days after the date of the ALJ's or attorney adjudicator's written decision, the decision of the ALJ or attorney adjudicator becomes the final decision of the Secretary after remand.
[74 FR 65363, Dec. 9, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 5139, Jan. 17, 2017]
Subpart V Part D Communication Requirements
Source: 73 FR 54222, Sept. 18, 2008, unless otherwise noted.
§ 423.2260 Definitions.
The definitions in this section apply for this subpart unless the context indicates otherwise.
Advertisement (Ad) means a read, written, visual, oral, watched, or heard bid for, or call to attention. Advertisements can be considered communication or marketing based on the intent and content of the message.
Alternate format means used to convey information to individuals with visual, speech, physical, hearing, and intellectual disabilities (for example, braille, large print, audio).
Banner means a type of advertisement feature typically used in television ads that is intended to be brief, and flashes limited information across a screen for the sole purpose of enticing a prospective enrollee to contact the Part D sponsor (for example, obtain more information) or to alert the viewer that information is forthcoming.
Banner-like advertisement is an advertisement that uses a banner-like feature, that is typically found in some media other than television (for example, outdoors and on the internet).
Communications means activities and use of materials created or administered by the Part D sponsor or any downstream entity to provide information to current and prospective enrollees. Marketing is a subset of communications.
Marketing means communications materials and activities that meet both the following standards for intent and content:
(1) Intended, as determined under paragraph (1)(ii) of this definition, to do any of the following:
(i)(A) Draw a beneficiary's attention to a Part D plan or plans.
(B) Influence a beneficiary's decision making process when making a Part D plan selection.
(C) Influence a beneficiary's decision to stay enrolled in a Part D plan (that is, retention-based marketing).
(ii) In evaluating the intent of an activity or material, CMS will consider objective information including, but not limited to, the audience of the activity or material, other information communicated by the activity or material, timing, and other context of the activity or material and is not limited to the Part D sponsor's stated intent.
(2) Include or address content regarding any of the following:
(i) The plan's benefits, benefits structure, premiums or cost sharing.
(ii) Measuring or ranking standards (for example, Star Ratings or plan comparisons).
Outdoor advertising (ODA) means outdoor material intended to capture the attention of a passing audience (for example, billboards, signs attached to transportation vehicles). ODA may be a communication or marketing material.
Third-party marketing organization (TPMO) are organizations and individuals, including independent agents and brokers, who are compensated to perform lead generation, marketing, sales, and enrollment related functions as a part of the chain of enrollment (the steps taken by a beneficiary from becoming aware of a Part D plan or plans to making an enrollment decision). TPMOs may be a first tier, downstream or related entity (FDRs), as defined under § 423.4, but may also be entities that are not FDRs but provide services to a Part D sponsor or a Part D sponsor's FDR.
[86 FR 6121, Jan. 19, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 27901, May 9, 2022]
§ 423.2261 Submission, review, and distribution of materials.
(a) General requirements. Part D sponsors must submit all marketing materials, all election forms, and certain designated communications materials for CMS review.
(1) The Health Plan Management System (HPMS) Marketing Module is the primary system of record for the collection, review, and storage of materials that must be submitted for review.
(2) Materials must be submitted to the HPMS Marketing Module by the Part D sponsor or, where materials have been developed by a Third Party Marketing Organization for multiple Part D sponsors or plans, by a Third Party Marketing Organization with prior review of each Part D sponsor on whose behalf the materials were created or will be used.
(3)(i) Part D sponsors offering dual eligible special needs plans with exclusively aligned enrollment subject to § 422.107(e) must submit all materials for the contract in HPMS under the Part D sponsor's contract number.
(ii) Part D sponsors may not submit materials for the contract under the organization's Multi-Contract Entity number and third-party marketing organizations may not submit materials under the Multi-Plan number as described in § 423.2262(d)(2)(i).
(b) CMS review of marketing materials and election forms. Part D sponsors may not distribute or otherwise make available any marketing materials or election forms unless one of the following occurs:
(1) CMS has reviewed and approved the material.
(2) The material has been deemed approved; that is, CMS has not rendered a disposition for the material within 45 days (or 10 days if using CMS model or standardized marketing materials as outlined in § 422.2267(e) of this chapter) of submission to CMS.
(3) The material has been accepted under File and Use, as follows:
(i) The Part D sponsor may distribute certain types of marketing materials, designated by CMS based on the material's content, audience, and intended use, as they apply to potential risk to the beneficiary, 5 days following the submission.
(ii) The Part D sponsor must certify that the material meets all applicable CMS communications and marketing requirements in §§ 423.2260 through 423.2267.
(c) CMS review of non-marketing communications materials. CMS does not require submission, or submission and approval, of communications materials prior to use, other than the following exceptions.
(1) Certain designated communications materials that are critical to beneficiaries understanding or accessing their benefits (for example, the Evidence of Coverage (EOC).
(2) Communications materials that, based on feedback such as complaints or data gathered through reviews, warrant additional oversight as determined by CMS, to ensure the information being received by beneficiaries is accurate.
(d) Standards for CMS review. CMS reviews materials to ensure the following:
(1) Compliance with all applicable requirements under §§ 423.2260 through 423.2267.
(2) Benefit and cost information is an accurate reflection of what is contained in the Part D sponsor's bid.
(3) CMS may determine, upon review of such materials, that the materials must be modified, or may no longer be used.
[86 FR 6122, Jan. 19, 2021, as amended at 88 FR 22340, Apr. 12, 2023; 91 FR 17592, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.2262 General communications materials and activity requirements.
Part D sponsors may not mislead, confuse, or provide materially inaccurate information to current or potential enrollees.
(a) General rules. Part D sponsors must ensure their statements and the terminology used in communications activities and materials adhere to the following requirements:
(1) Part D sponsors may not do any of the following:
(i) Engage in activities that could mislead or confuse Medicare beneficiaries, or misrepresent the Part D sponsor.
(ii) Engage in any discriminatory activity such as attempting to recruit Medicare beneficiaries from higher income areas without making comparable efforts to enroll Medicare beneficiaries from lower income areas, or vice versa.
(iii) Target potential enrollees based on higher or lower income levels.
(iv) Target potential enrollees based on health status.
(v) State or imply plans are only available to seniors rather than to all Medicare beneficiaries.
(vi) Employ Part D plan names that suggest that a plan is not available to all Medicare beneficiaries.
(vii) Display the names or logos or both of co-branded network pharmacies on the sponsor's member identification card, unless the pharmacy names or logos or both are related to the member selection of specific pharmacies.
(viii) Use a plan name that does not include the plan type. The plan type should be included at the end of the plan name, for example, “Super Medicare Drug Plan (PDP)”. Part D sponsors are not required to repeat the plan type when the plan name is used multiple times in the same material.
(ix) Claim they are recommended or endorsed by CMS, Medicare, the Secretary, or HHS.
(x) Convey that a failure to pay premium will not result in disenrollment except for factually accurate descriptions of the PDP sponsor's policies adopted in accordance with § 423.44(b)(1) and (d)(1) of this chapter.
(xi) Use the term “free” to describe a $0 premium, any type of reduction in premium, reduction in deductibles or cost sharing, low-income subsidy, or cost sharing pertaining to dual eligible individuals.
(xii) State or imply a plan is available only to or is designed for Medicaid beneficiaries.
(xiii) Market a Part D plan not designed to serve dual eligible beneficiaries as if it were a plan designed to serve dual eligible beneficiaries.
(xiv) Target marketing efforts primarily to dual eligible individuals.
(xv) Claim a relationship with the state Medicaid agency, unless a contract to coordinate Medicaid services for enrollees in that plan is in place.
(xvi) Use of the Medicare name, CMS logo, and products or information issued by the Federal Government, including the Medicare card in a misleading way. Use of the Medicare card image is permitted only with authorization from CMS.
(2) Part D sponsors may do the following:
(i) State that the Part D sponsor is approved to participate in Medicare programs or is contracted to administer Medicare benefits or both.
(ii) Use the term “Medicare-approved” to describe benefits or services in materials or both.
(b) Product endorsements and testimonials. (1) Product endorsements and testimonials may take any of the following forms:
(i) Television or video ads.
(ii) Radio ads.
(iii) Print ads.
(iv) Social media ads. In cases of social media, the use of a previous post, whether or not associated with or originated by the Part D sponsor, is considered a product endorsement or testimonial.
(v) Other types of ads.
(2) Part D sponsors may use individuals to endorse the Part D sponsor's product provided the endorsement or testimonial adheres to the following requirements:
(i) The speaker must identify the Part D sponsor's product or company by name.
(ii) Medicare beneficiaries endorsing or promoting the Part D sponsor must have been an enrollee at the time the endorsement or testimonial was created.
(iii) The endorsement or testimonial must clearly state that the individual was paid for the endorsement or testimonial, if applicable.
(iv) If an individual is used (for example, an actor) to portray a real or fictitious situation, the advertisement must state that it is an actor portrayal.
(c) Requirements when including certain telephone numbers in materials. (1) Part D sponsors must adhere to the following requirements for including certain telephone numbers in materials:
(i) When a Part D sponsor includes its customer service number, the hours of operation must be prominently included at least once.
(ii) When a Part D sponsor includes its customer service number, it must provide a toll-free TTY number in conjunction with the customer service number in the same font size.
(iii) On every material where 1-800-MEDICARE or Medicare TTY appears, the Part D sponsor must prominently include, at least once, the hours and days of operation for 1-800-MEDICARE (that is, 24 hours a day/7 days a week).
(2) The following advertisement types are exempt from these requirements:
(i) Outdoor advertising.
(ii) Banners or banner-like ads.
(iii) Radio advertisements and sponsorships.
(d) Standardized material identification (SMID). (1) Part D sponsors must use a standardized method of identification for oversight and tracking of materials received by beneficiaries.
(2) The SMID consists of the following three parts:
(i) The Part D sponsor's contract or Multi-Contract Entity (MCE) number, (that is, “S” for PDPs, or “Y” for MCE, a means of identification available for Plans/Part D sponsors that have multiple PDP contracts) followed by an underscore, except that the SMID for multi-plan marketing materials must begin with the word “MULTI-PLAN” instead of the Part D sponsor's contract number (for example, S1234_abc123_C or MULTI-PLAN_efg456_M).
(ii) A series of alpha numeric characters (at the Part D sponsor's discretion) unique to the material followed by an underscore.
(iii) An uppercase “C” for communication materials or an uppercase “M” for marketing materials (for example, S1234_abc123_C or S5678_efg456_M).
(3) The SMID is required on all materials except the following:
(i) Membership ID card.
(ii) Envelopes, radio ads, outdoor advertisements, banners, banner-like ads, and social media comments and posts.
(iii) OMB-approved forms/documents, except those materials specified in § 423.2267.
(iv) Corporate notices or forms (that is, not Part D-specific) meeting the definition of communications such as privacy notices and authorization to disclose protected health information (PHI).
(v) Agent-developed communications materials that are not marketing.
(4) Non-English and alternate format materials, based on previously created materials, may have the same SMID as the material on which they are based.
[86 FR 6122, Jan. 19, 2021, as amended at 88 FR 22340, Apr. 12, 2023; 91 FR 17592, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.2263 General marketing requirements.
Marketing is a subset of communications and therefore must follow the requirements outlined in § 423.2262 as well as this section. Marketing (as defined in § 423.2260) must additionally meet the following requirements:
(a) Part D sponsors may begin marketing prospective plan year offerings on October 1 of each year for the following contract year. Part D sponsors may market the current and prospective year simultaneously provided materials clearly indicate what year is being discussed.
(b) In marketing, Part D sponsors may not do any of the following:
(1) Provide cash or other monetary rebates as an inducement for enrollment or otherwise.
(2) Offer gifts to beneficiaries, unless the gifts are of nominal value (as governed by guidance published by the HHS OIG), are offered to similarly situated beneficiaries without regard to whether or not the beneficiary enrolls, and are not in the form of cash or other monetary rebates.
(3) Provide meals to potential enrollees regardless of value.
(4) Market non-health care related products to prospective enrollees during any Part D sales activity or presentation. This is considered cross-selling and is prohibited.
(5) Compare their plan to other plans, unless the information is accurate, not misleading, and can be supported by the Part D sponsor making the comparison.
(6) Display the names or logos or both of pharmacy co-branding partners on marketing materials, unless the materials clearly indicate via a disclaimer or in the body that “Other pharmacies are available in the network.”
(7) Knowingly target or send unsolicited marketing materials to any Part D enrollee during the Open Enrollment Period (OEP).
(i) During the OEP, a Part D sponsors may do any of the following:
(A) Conduct marketing activities that focus on other enrollment opportunities, including but not limited to marketing to age-ins (who have not yet made an enrollment decision), marketing by 5-star plans regarding their continuous enrollment special election period (SEP), and marketing to dual-eligible and LIS beneficiaries who, in general, may make changes once per calendar quarter during the first nine months of the year;
(B) Send marketing materials when a beneficiary makes a proactive request;
(C) At the beneficiary's request, have one-on-one meetings with a sales agent;
(D) At the beneficiary's request, provide information on the OEP through the call center; and
(E) Include educational information, excluding marketing, on the Part D sponsor's website about the existence of OEP.
(ii) During the OEP, a Part D sponsors may not:
(A) Send unsolicited materials advertising the ability or opportunity to make an additional enrollment change or referencing the OEP;
(B) Specifically target beneficiaries who are in the OEP because they made a choice during Annual Enrollment Period (AEP) by purchase of mailing lists or other means of identification;
(C) Engage in or promote agent or broker activities that intend to target the OEP as an opportunity to make further sales; or
(D) Call or otherwise contact former enrollees who have selected a new plan during the AEP.
(8) Advertise benefits that are not available to beneficiaries in the service area(s) where the marketing appears, unless the advertisement is in local media that serves the service area(s) where the benefits are available and reaching beneficiaries who reside in other service areas is unavoidable.
(9) Market any products or plans, benefits, or costs, unless the Part D sponsor or marketing name(s) as listed in HPMS of the entities offering the referenced products or plans, benefits, or costs are identified in the marketing material.
(i) Part D sponsor or marketing names must be in 12-point font in print and may not be in the form of a disclaimer or in fine print.
(ii) For television, online, or social media, the Part D sponsor or marketing name(s) must be either read at the same pace as the phone number or must be displayed throughout the entire advertisement in a font size equivalent to the advertised phone number, contact information or benefits.
(iii) For radio or other voice-based advertisements, Part D sponsor or marketing names must be read at the same pace as phone numbers or contact information.
(10) Part D sponsors may not include information about savings available to potential enrollees that are based on a comparison of typical expenses borne by uninsured individuals, unpaid costs of dually eligible beneficiaries, or other unrealized costs of a Medicare beneficiary.
(c) The following requirements apply to how Part D sponsors must display CMS-issued Star Ratings:
(1) References to individual Star Rating measure(s) must also include references to the overall Star Rating for MA-PDs and the summary rating for PDP plans.
(2) May not use an individual underlying category, domain, or measure rating to imply overall higher Star Ratings.
(3) Must be clear that the rating is out of 5 stars.
(4) Must clearly identify the Star Ratings contract year.
(5) May only market the Star Ratings in the service area(s) for which the Star Rating is applicable unless using Star Ratings to convey overall Part D sponsor performance (for example, “Plan X has achieved 4.5 stars in Montgomery, Chester, and Delaware Counties), in which case the Part D sponsor must do so in a way that is not confusing or misleading.
(6) The following requirements apply to all 5 Star PDP contracts:
(i) May not market the 5-star special enrollment period, as defined in § 423.38(c)(20), after November 30 of each year if the contract has not received an overall 5 star for the next contract year.
(ii) May use CMS' 5- star icon or may create their own icon.
(7) The following requirements apply to all Low Performing MA contracts:
(i) The Low Performing Icon must be included on all materials about or referencing the specific contract's Star Ratings.
(ii) Must state the Low Performing Icon means that the Part D sponsor's contract received a summary rating of 2.5 stars or below in Part D for the last 3 years.
(iii) May not attempt to refute or minimize Low Performing Status.
[86 FR 6123, Jan. 19, 2021, as amended at 88 FR 22340, Apr. 12, 2023]
§ 423.2264 Beneficiary contact.
For the purpose of this section, beneficiary contact means any outreach activities to a beneficiary or a beneficiary's caregivers by the Part D sponsor or its agents and brokers.
(a) Unsolicited contact. Subject to the rules for contact for plan business in paragraph (b) of this section, the following rules apply when materials or activities are given or supplied to a beneficiary or their caregiver without prior request:
(1) Part D sponsors may make unsolicited direct contact by conventional mail and other print media (for example, advertisements and direct mail) or email (provided every email contains an opt-out option).
(2) Part D sponsors may not do any of the following if unsolicited:
(i) Use door to door solicitation, including leaving information of any kind, except that information may be left when an appointment is pre-scheduled but the beneficiary is not home.
(A) Contact is unsolicited door-to-door contact unless an appointment, at the beneficiary's home at the applicable time and date, was previously scheduled.
(B) [Reserved]
(ii) Approach enrollees in common areas such as parking lots, hallways, lobbies.
(iii) Send direct messages from social media platforms.
(iv) Use telephone solicitation (that is, cold calling), robocalls, text messages, or voicemail messages, including, but not limited to, the following:
(A) Calls based on referrals.
(B) Calls to former enrollees who have disenrolled or those in the process of disenrolling, except to conduct disenrollment surveys for quality improvement purposes.
(C) Calls to beneficiaries who attended a sales event, unless the beneficiary gave express permission to be contacted.
(D) Calls to prospective enrollees to confirm receipt of mailed information.
(3) Calls are not considered unsolicited if the beneficiary provides consent or initiates contact with the plan. For example, returning phone calls or calling an individual who has completed a business reply card requesting contact is not considered unsolicited.
(b) Contact for plan business. Part D sponsors may contact current, and to a more limited extent, former members, including those enrolled in other products offered by the parent organization, to discuss plan business, in accordance with the following requirements:
(1) A Part D sponsor may conduct the following activities as plan business:
(i) Call current enrollees, including those in non-Medicare products, to discuss Medicare products. Examples of such calls include, but are not limited to the following:
(A) Enrollees aging into Medicare from commercial products.
(B) Existing enrollees, including Medicaid enrollees, to discuss other Medicare products or plan benefits.
(C) Members in an MA or cost plan to discuss other Medicare products.
(ii) Call beneficiaries who submit enrollment applications to conduct business related to enrollment.
(iii) With prior CMS approval, call LIS enrollees that a plan is prospectively losing due to reassignment. CMS decisions to approve calls are for limited circumstances based on the following:
(A) The proximity of cost of the losing plan as compared to the national benchmark; and
(B) The selection of plans in the service area that are below the benchmark.
(iv) Agents/brokers calling clients who are enrolled in other products they may sell, such as automotive or home insurance.
(v) Part D sponsors may not make unsolicited calls about other lines of business as a means of generating leads for Medicare plans.
(2) If the Part D sponsor reaches out to beneficiaries regarding plan business, as outlined in this section, the Part D sponsor must provide notice to all beneficiaries whom the plan contacts as least once annually, in writing, of the individual's ability to opt out of future calls regarding plan business.
(c) Events with beneficiaries. Part D sponsors and their agent or brokers may hold educational events, marketing or sales events, and personal marketing appointments to meet with Medicare beneficiaries, either face-to-face or virtually. The requirements for each type of event are as follows:
(1) Educational events must be advertised as such and be designed to generally inform beneficiaries about Medicare, including Medicare Advantage, Prescription Drug programs, or any other Medicare program.
(i) At educational events, Part D sponsors and agents/brokers may not market specific Part D sponsors or benefits.
(ii) Part D sponsors holding or participating in educational events may do any of the following:
(A) Distribute communication materials.
(B) Answer beneficiary initiated questions pertaining to Part D plans.
(C) Distribute business cards.
(D) Make available and receive beneficiary contact information, including Business Reply Cards and Scope of Appointment forms.
(iii) Part D sponsors holding or participating in educational events may not conduct sales or marketing presentations or distribute or accept plan applications.
(iv) Part D sponsors may schedule appointments with residents of long-term care facilities (for example, nursing homes, assisted living facilities, board and care homes) upon a resident's request. If a resident did not request an appointment, any visit by an agent or broker is prohibited as unsolicited door-to-door marketing.
(2) Marketing or sales events are group events that fall within the definition of marketing at § 423.2260.
(i) If a marketing event directly follows an educational event, the beneficiary must be notified that the educational event is ending and a marketing event will begin shortly and be given a sufficient opportunity to leave the educational event prior to the start of the marketing event.
(ii) Part D sponsors holding or participating in marketing events may do any of the following:
(A) Provide marketing materials.
(B) Distribute and accept plan applications.
(C) Collect Scope of Appointment forms for future personal marketing appointments.
(D) Conduct marketing presentations.
(iii) Part D sponsors holding or participating in marketing events may not do any of the following:
(A) Require sign in sheets or require attendees to provide contact information as a prerequisite for attending an event.
(B) Conduct activities, including health screenings, health surveys, or other activities that are used for or could be viewed as being used to target a subset of members (that is “cherry-picking”).
(C) Use information collected for raffles or drawings for any purpose other than raffles or drawings.
(3) Personal marketing appointments are those appointments that are tailored to an individual or small group (for example, a married couple) for purposes of discussing marketing topics. Personal marketing appointments are not defined by the location.
(i) Prior to the personal marketing appointment, the Part D plan (or agent or broker, as applicable) must agree upon and record the Scope of Appointment with the beneficiary(ies). The Scope of Appointment must be in writing for in-person personal marketing appointments.
(ii) Part D sponsors holding a personal marketing appointment may do any of the following:
(A) Provide marketing materials.
(B) Distribute and accept plan applications.
(C) Conduct marketing presentations.
(D) Review the individual needs of the beneficiary including, but not limited to, health care needs and history, commonly used medications, and financial concerns.
(iii) Part D sponsors holding a personal marketing appointment may not do any of the following:
(A) Market any health care related product during a marketing appointment beyond the scope agreed upon by the beneficiary, and documented by the plan in a Scope of Appointment, business reply card, or request to receive additional information, which is valid for 12 months following the date of beneficiary's signature date or the date of the beneficiary's initial request for information.
(B) Market additional health related lines of plan business not identified prior to an individual appointment without a separate Scope of Appointment, identifying the additional lines of business to be discussed; such Scope of Appointment is valid for 12 months following the beneficiary's signature date.
(C) Market non-health related products such as annuities.
[86 FR 6124, Jan. 19, 2021, as amended at 88 FR 22340, Apr. 12, 2023; 88 FR 34780, May 31, 2023; 91 FR 17592, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.2265 Websites.
As required under § 423.128(d)(2), Part D sponsors must have a website.
(a) General website requirements. (1) Part D sponsor websites must meet all of the following requirements:
(i) Maintain current year contract content through December 31 of each year.
(ii) Notify users when they will leave the Part D sponsor's Medicare site.
(iii) Include or provide access to (for example, through a hyperlink) applicable notices, statements, disclosures, or disclaimers with corresponding content. Overarching disclaimers, such as the Federal Contracting Statement, are not required on every page.
(iv) Reflect the most current information within 30 days of any material change
(v) Keep PDP content separate and distinct from other lines of business, including Medicare Supplemental Plans.
(2) Part D sponsor websites may not do any of the following:
(i) Require beneficiaries to enter any information other than zip code, county, or state for access to non-beneficiary-specific website content.
(ii) Provide links to foreign drug sales, including advertising links.
(iii) State that the Part D sponsor is not responsible for the content of their social media pages or the website of any first tier, downstream, or related entity that provides information on behalf of the Part D sponsor.
(b) Required content. A Part D sponsor's websites must include the following content:
(1) A toll-free customer service number, TTY number, and days and hours of operation.
(2) A physical or Post Office Box address.
(3) A PDF or copy of a printable pharmacy directory.
(4) A searchable pharmacy directory.
(5) A searchable formulary.
(6) Information on enrollees' and Part D sponsors' rights and responsibilities upon disenrollment. Part D sponsors may either post this information or provide specific information on where it is located in the Evidence of Coverage together with a link to that document.
(7) A description of and information on how to file a grievance, request an organization determination, and an appeal.
(8) Prominently displayed link to the Medicare.gov electronic complaint.
(9) A Notice of Privacy Practices as required under the HIPAA Privacy Rule (45 CFR 164.520).
(10) Prescription Drug Transition Policy.
(11) LIS Premium Summary Chart.
(12) Prescription Drug Transition Policy.
(13) A separate section or page about MTM programs providing the following:
(i) Explanation of MTM program, including eligibility requirements, the purpose and benefits of MTM, how to obtain MTM service documents including the Medication list, that the service is free, and a summary of services.
(ii) Information on how to obtain information about the MTM program, including how the member will know they are eligible and enrolled into the MTM program, the comprehensive medication review and targeted medication reviews, a description of how reviews are conducted and delivered, including time commitments and materials beneficiaries will receive.
(14) Instructions on how to appoint a representative including a link to the downloadable version of the CMS Appointment of Representative Form (CMS Form-1696).
(15) Enrollment instructions and forms.
(16) Information about the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan as described in § 423.137(m)(2).
(c) Required posted materials. A Part D sponsor's website must provide access to the following materials, in a printable format, within the timeframes specified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section.
(1) The following materials for each plan year must be posted on the website by October 15 prior to the beginning of the plan year:
(i) Evidence of Coverage.
(ii) Annual Notice of Change (for renewing plans).
(iii) Summary of Benefits.
(iv) Pharmacy Directory.
(v) Formulary.
(vi) Utilization Management Forms for physicians and enrollees.
(2) The following materials must be posted on the website throughout the year and be updated as required:
(i) Prior Authorization Forms for Physicians and Enrollees.
(ii) Part D Model Coverage Determination and Redetermination Request Forms.
(iii) Exception request forms for physicians (which must be posted by January 1 for new plans).
(iv) CMS Star Ratings document, which must be posted within 21 days after its release on the Medicare Plan Finder.
[86 FR 6125, Jan. 19, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 27901, May 9, 2022; 90 FR 15920, Apr. 15, 2025]
§ 423.2266 Activities with healthcare providers or in the healthcare setting.
(a) Where marketing is prohibited. The requirements in paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section apply to activities in the health care setting. Marketing activities and materials are not permitted in areas where care is being administered, including but not limited to the following:
(1) Exam rooms.
(2) Hospital patient rooms.
(3) Treatment areas where patients interact with a provider and his/her clinical team and receive treatment (including such areas in dialysis treatment facilities).
(4) Pharmacy counter areas.
(b) Where marketing is permitted. Marketing activities and materials are permitted in common areas within the health care setting, including the following:
(1) Common entryways.
(2) Vestibules.
(3) Waiting rooms.
(4) Hospital or nursing home cafeterias.
(5) Community, recreational, or conference rooms.
(c) Provider-initiated activities. Provider-initiated activities are activities conducted by a provider at the request of the patient, or as a matter of a course of treatment, and occur when meeting with the patient as part of the professional relationship between the provider and patient. Provider-initiated activities do not include activities conducted at the request of the Part D sponsor or pursuant to the network participation agreement between the Part D sponsor and the provider. Provider-initiated activities that meet this definition in this paragraph (c) fall outside of the definition of marketing in § 423.2260. Permissible provider-initiated activities include:
(1) Distributing unaltered, printed materials created by CMS, such as reports from Medicare Plan Finder, the “Medicare & You” handbook, or “Medicare Options Compare” (from https://www.medicare.gov) including in areas where care is delivered.
(2) Providing the names of Part D sponsors with which they contract or participate or both.
(3) Answering questions or discussing the merits of a Part D plan or plans, including cost sharing and benefit information including in areas where care is delivered.
(4) Referring patients to other sources of information, such as State Health Insurance Assistance Program (SHIP) representatives, plan marketing representatives, State Medicaid Office, local Social Security Offices, CMS' website at https://www.medicare.gov, or 1-800-MEDICARE.
(5) Referring patients to Part D marketing materials available in common areas.
(6) Providing information and assistance in applying for the LIS.
(7) Announcing new or continuing affiliations with Part D sponsors, once a contractual agreement is signed. Announcements may be made through any means of distribution.
(d) Plan-initiated provider activities. Plan-initiated provider activities are those activities conducted by a provider at the request of a Part D sponsor. During a plan-initiated provider activity, the provider is acting on behalf of the Part D sponsor. For the purpose of plan-initiated activities, the Part D sponsor is responsible for compliance with all applicable regulatory requirements.
(1) During plan-initiated provider activities, Part D sponsors must ensure that the provider does not:
(i) Accept/collect scope of appointment forms.
(ii) Accept Medicare enrollment applications.
(iii) Make phone calls or direct, urge, or attempt to persuade their patients to enroll in a specific plan based on financial or any other interests of the provider.
(iv) Mail marketing materials on behalf of a Part D sponsor.
(v) Offer inducements to persuade patients to enroll with a particular Part D plan or sponsor.
(vi) Conduct health screenings as a marketing activity.
(vii) Distribute marketing materials or enrollment forms in areas where care is being delivered.
(viii) Offer anything of value to induce enrollees to select the provider.
(ix) Accept compensation from the Part D sponsor for any marketing or enrollment activities performed on behalf of the Part D sponsor.
(2) During plan-initiated provider activities, the provider may do any of the following:
(i) Make available, distribute, and display communications materials, including in areas where care is being delivered.
(ii) Provide or make available marketing materials and enrollment forms in common areas.
(e) Part D sponsor activities in the healthcare setting. Part D sponsor activities in the health care setting are those activities, including marketing activities that are conducted by Part D sponsor or on behalf of the Part D sponsor, or by any downstream entity, but not by a provider. All marketing must comply with the requirements in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. However, during Part D sponsor activities, the following is permitted:
(1) Accepting and collect Scope of Appointment forms.
(2) Accepting enrollment forms.
(3) Making available, distributing, and displaying communications materials, including in areas where care is being delivered.
[86 FR 6125, Jan. 19, 2021]
§ 423.2267 Required materials and content.
For information CMS deems to be vital to the beneficiary, including information related to enrollment, benefits, health, and rights, the agency may develop materials or content that are either standardized or provided in a model form. Such materials and content are collectively referred to as required.
(a) Standards for required materials and content. All required materials and content, regardless of categorization as standardized in paragraph (b) of this section or model in paragraph (c) of this section, must meet the following:
(1) Be in a 12pt font, Times New Roman or equivalent.
(2) For markets with a significant non-English speaking population, be in the language of these individuals. Specifically, Part D sponsors must translate required materials into any non-English language that is the primary language of at least 5 percent of the individuals in a plan benefit package (PBP) service area.
(3) Be provided to enrollees on a standing basis in any non-English language identified in paragraphs (a)(2) and (4) of this section and/or accessible format using auxiliary aids and services upon receiving a request for the materials in a non-English language or accessible format or when otherwise learning of the enrollee's primary language and/or need for an accessible format. This requirement also applies to the individualized plans of care described in § 422.101(f)(1)(ii) of this chapter for special needs plan enrollees.
(4) For any fully integrated dual eligible special needs plan or highly integrated dual eligible special needs plan as defined at § 422.2 of this chapter, or applicable integrated plan as defined at § 422.561 of this chapter, be translated into the language(s) required by the Medicaid translation standard as specified through their capitated Medicaid managed care contract in addition to the language(s) required by the Medicare translation standard in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
(5) Be provided to the beneficiary within CMS's specified timeframes.
(b) Standardized materials. Standardized materials and content are required materials and content that must be used in the form and manner provided by CMS.
(1) When CMS issues standardized material or content, a Part D sponsor must use the document without alteration except for the following:
(i) Populating variable fields.
(ii) Correcting grammatical errors.
(iii) Adding customer service phone numbers.
(iv) Adding plan name, logo, or both.
(v) Deleting content that does not pertain to the plan type (for example, removing MA language for a Part D plan).
(vi) Adding the SMID.
(vii) A Notice of Privacy Practices as required under the HIPAA Privacy Rule (45 CFR 164.520).
(2) When CMS issues standardized content, Part D sponsors—
(3) The Part D sponsor may develop accompanying language for standardized material or content, provided that language does not conflict with the standardized material or content. For example, CMS may issue standardized content associated with an appeal notification and Part D sponsor may draft a letter that includes the standardized content in the body of the letter; the remaining language in the letter is at the sponsor's discretion, provided it does not conflict with the standardized content or other regulatory standards.
(c) Model materials. Model materials and content are those required materials and content created by CMS as an example of how to convey beneficiary information. When drafting required materials or content based on CMS models, Part D sponsors:
(1) Must accurately convey the vital information in the required material or content to the beneficiary, although the Part D sponsor is not required to use CMS model materials or content verbatim; and
(2) Must follow CMS's specified order of content, when specified.
(d) Delivery of required materials. Part D sponsors must mail required materials in hard copy or provide them electronically, following the requirements in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section.
(1) For hard copy mailed materials, each enrollee must receive his or her own copy, except in cases of non-beneficiary-specific material(s) where the Part D sponsor has determined multiple enrollees are living in the same household and it has reason to believe the enrollees are related. In that case, the Part D sponsor may mail one copy to the household. The Part D sponsor must provide all enrollees an opt-out process so the enrollees can each receive his or her own copy, instead of a copy to the household. Materials specific to an individual beneficiary must always be mailed to that individual.
(2) Materials may be delivered electronically following the requirements in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section.
(i) Without prior authorization from the enrollee, Part D sponsors may mail new and current enrollees a notice informing enrollees how to electronically access the following required materials: the Evidence of Coverage, Provider and Pharmacy Directories, and Formulary. The following requirements apply:
(A) The Part D sponsor may mail one notice for all materials or multiple notices.
(B) Notices for prospective year materials may not be mailed prior to September 1 of each year, but must be sent in time for an enrollee to access the specified materials by October 15 of each year.
(C) The Part D sponsor may send the notice throughout the year to new enrollees.
(D) The notice must include the website address to access the materials, the date the materials will be available if not currently available, and a phone number to request that hard copy materials be mailed.
(E) The notice must provide the enrollee with the option to request hardcopy materials. Requests may be material specific, and must have the option of a one-time request or a permanent request that must stay in place until the enrollee chooses to receive electronic materials again.
(F) Hard copies of requested materials must be sent within three business days of the request.
(ii) With prior authorization from the enrollee, the Part D sponsor may provide any required material or content electronically. To do so, the Part D sponsor must do all of the following:
(A) Obtain prior consent from the enrollee. The consent must specify both the media type and the specific materials being provided in that media type.
(B) Provide instructions on how and when enrollees can access the materials.
(C) Have a process through which an enrollee can request hard copies be mailed, providing the beneficiary with the option of a one-time request or a permanent request (which must stay in place until the enrollee chooses to receive electronic materials again), and with the option of requesting hard copies for all or a subset of materials. Hard copies must be mailed within three business days of the request.
(D) Have a process for automatic mailing of hard copies when electronic versions or the chosen media type is undeliverable.
(e) CMS required materials and content. The following are required materials that must be provided to current and prospective enrollees, as applicable, in the form and manner outlined in this section. Unless otherwise noted or instructed by CMS and subject to § 423.2263(a) of this chapter, required materials may be sent once a fully executed contract is in place, but no later than the due dates listed for each material in this section.
(1) Evidence of Coverage (EOC). The EOC is a standardized communications material through which certain required information (under § 423.128(b)) must be provided annually and must be provided:
(i) To current enrollees of plan by October 15, prior to the year to which the EOC applies.
(ii) To new enrollees within 10 calendar days from receipt of CMS confirmation of enrollment or by last day of month prior to effective date, whichever is later.
(2) Part D explanation of benefits (EOB). The EOB is a model communications material through which plans must provide the information required under § 423.128(e). Part D sponsors must provide enrollees with an EOB no later than the end of the month following any month in which the enrollee utilized their prescription drug benefit.
(3) Annual Notice of Change (ANOC). The ANOC is a standardized marketing material through which plans must provide the information required under § 423.128(g)(2) annually.
(i) Must send for enrollee receipt no later than September 30 of each year.
(ii) Enrollees with an October 1, November 1, or December 1 effective date must receive within 10 calendar days from receipt of CMS confirmation of enrollment or by last day of month prior to effective date, whichever is later.
(4) Pre-enrollment checklist (PECL). The PECL is a standardized communications material that plans must provide to prospective enrollees with the enrollment form, so that the enrollees understand important plan benefits and rules. For telephonic enrollments the contents of the PECL must be reviewed with the prospective enrollee prior to the completion of the enrollment. It references information on the following:
(i) The EOC.
(ii) Provider directory.
(iii) Pharmacy directory.
(iv) Formulary.
(v) Premiums/copayments/coinsurance.
(vi) Emergency/urgent coverage.
(vii) Plan-type rules.
(viii) Effect on current coverage.
(5) Summary of Benefits (SB). Part D sponsors must disseminate a summary of highly utilized coverage that include benefits and cost sharing to prospective enrollees, known as the SB. The SB is a model marketing material. It must be in a clear and accurate format.
(i) The SB must be provided with an enrollment form as follows:
(A) In hardcopy with a paper enrollment form.
(B) For online enrollment, the SB must be made available electronically (for example, via a link) prior to the completion and submission of enrollment request.
(C) For telephonic enrollment, the beneficiary must be verbally told where the SB can be accessed.
(ii) The SB must include the following information:
(A) Information on prescription drug expenses, including:
(1) Monthly plan premium
(2) Deductible; the initial coverage phase; coverage gap for a year preceding 2025; and catastrophic coverage.
(3) A statement that costs may differ based on pharmacy type or status (for example, preferred/non-preferred, mail order, long-term care (LTC) or home infusion, and 30- or 90-day supply), when applicable.
(4) For dual eligible enrollees with differing levels of cost must state how cost sharing and benefits differ depending on the level of Medicaid eligibility.
(B) Plan sponsors may describe or identify other health related benefits in the SB.
(6) Enrollment/Election form. This is the model communications material through which plans must provide the information required under § 423.32(b).
(7) Enrollment Notice. This is a model communications material through which plans must provide the information required under § 423.32(d).
(8) Disenrollment Notice. This is a model communications material through which plans must provide the information required under § 423.36(b)(2).
(9) Formulary. This is a model communications material through which Part D sponsors must provide information required under § 423.128(b)(4).
(i) Must be provided to current enrollees of plan by October 15 of each year.
(ii) Must also provide to new enrollees within 10 calendar days from receipt of CMS confirmation of enrollment or by last day of month prior to effective date, whichever is later.
(10) Low Income Subsidy (LIS) Notice. This is a model communications content through which Part D sponsors must notify potential enrollees of what their plan premium will be once they are eligible for Extra Help and receive the low-income subsidy.
(11) Low Income Subsidy (LIS) Rider. This is a model communications material provided to all enrollees who qualify for Extra Help. In the LIS Rider, the Part D sponsors must convey how much help the beneficiary will receive in the benefit year toward their Part D premium, deductible, and copayments provide to all beneficiaries who qualify for Extra Help.
(i) The LIS Rider must be provided at least once per year by September 30.
(ii) The LIS Rider must be sent to enrollees who qualify for Extra Help or have a change in LIS levels within 30 days of receiving notification from CMS.
(12) Midyear Change Notification. This is a model communications material through which plans must provide a notice to enrollees when there is a midyear change in benefits or plan rules, under the following timelines:
(i) Notices of changes in plan rules, unless otherwise addressed elsewhere in the regulation, must be provided 30 days in advance.
(ii) National Coverage Determination (NCD) changes announced or finalized less than 30 days before effective date, a notification is required as soon as possible.
(iii) Midyear NCD or legislative changes must be provided no later than 30 days after the NCD is announced or the legislative change is effective.
(A) Plans may include the change in next plan mass mailing (for example, newsletter), provided it is within 30 days.
(B) The notice must also appear on the MA organization's website.
(13) Non-renewal notice. This is a standardized communications material through which plans must provide the information required under § 423.507.
(i) The Non-renewal Notice must be provided at least 90 calendar days before the date on which the nonrenewal is effective. For contracts ending on December 31, the notice must be dated October 2 to ensure national consistency in the application of Medigap Guaranteed Issue (GI) rights to all enrollees, except for those enrollees in Medicare-Medicaid Plans (MMPs) and special needs plans (SNPs). Information about non-renewals or service area reductions may not be released to the public, including the Non-renewal Notice in this section, until CMS provides notification to the plan.
(ii) The Non-renewal Notice must do all of the following:
(A) Inform the enrollee that the plan will no longer be offered and the date the plan will end.
(B) Provide information about any applicable open enrollment periods or special election periods or both (for example, Medicare open enrollment, non-renewal special election period), including the last day the enrollee has to make a Medicare prescription drug plan selection.
(C) Explain what the enrollee must do to continue receiving Medicare coverage and what will happen if the enrollee chooses to do nothing.
(D) As required under § 423.507(a)(2)(ii)(A), provide a CMS-approved written description of alternative MA plan, MA-PD plan, and PDP options available for obtaining qualified Medicare services within the beneficiary's region in the enrollee's notice.
(E) Specify when coverage will start after a new Medicare plan is chosen.
(F) List 1-800-MEDICARE contact information together with other organizations that may be able to assist with comparing plans (for example, SHIPs).
(G) Include the Part D sponsor's call center telephone number, TTY number, and hours and days of operation.
(14) Part D Transition Letter. This is a model communications material that must be provided to the beneficiary when they receive a transition fill for a nonformulary drug. The Part D Transition Letter must be sent within three days of adjudication of temporary transition fill.
(15) Pharmacy Directory. This is a model communications material through which Part D sponsors must provide the information required under § 423.128. The pharmacy directory must meet all of the following:
(i) Be provided to current enrollees by October 15 of the year prior to the applicable year.
(ii) Be provided to new enrollees within 10 calendars days from receipt of CMS confirmation of enrollment or by last day of month prior to effective date, whichever is later.
(iii) Be provided to current enrollees upon request, within three business days of the request.
(iv) Be updated any time the Part D sponsor becomes aware of changes.
(A) All updates to the online pharmacy directories must be completed within 30 days of receiving information requiring update.
(B)(1) Updates to hardcopy provider directories must be completed within 30 days.
(2) Hardcopy directories that include separate updates via addenda are considered up-to-date.
(16) Prescription transfer letter. This is a model communications material that must be sent when a Part D sponsor requests permission from an enrollee to fill a prescription at a different network pharmacy than the one currently being used by enrollee.
(17) Star Ratings Document. This is a standardized marketing material through which Star Ratings information is conveyed to prospective enrollees.
(i) The Star Ratings Document is generated through HPMS.
(ii) The Star Ratings Document must be provided with an enrollment form as follows:
(A) In hardcopy with a paper enrollment form.
(B) For online enrollment, made available electronically (for example, via a link) prior to the completion and submission of enrollment request.
(C) For telephonic enrollment, the beneficiary must be verbally told where they can access the Star Ratings Document.
(iii) New Part D sponsors that have no Star Ratings are not required to provide the Star Ratings Document until the following contract year.
(iv) Updated Star Ratings must be used within 21 calendar days of release of updated information on Medicare Plan Finder.
(v) Updated Star Ratings must not be used until CMS releases Star Ratings on Medicare Plan Finder.
(18) Coverage Determination Notices. This is a model communications material through which plans must provide the information under § 423.568.
(19) Excluded Provider Notices. This is a model communications material through which plans must notify enrollees when a provider they use has been excluded from participating in the Medicare program based on an OIG exclusion or the CMS preclusion list.
(20) Notice of Denial of Medicare Prescription Drug Coverage. This is a standardized material used to convey detailed descriptions of denied drug coverage and appeal rights.
(21) Medicare Prescription Drug Coverage and Your Rights. This is a standardized communications material used to convey a beneficiary's appeal rights when a drug cannot be filled at point-of-sale.
(22) Medicare Part D Coverage Determination Request Form. This is a model communications material used to collect additional information from a prescriber.
(23) Request for Additional Information. This is a standardized communications material used by the Part D sponsor to request a beneficiary obtain additional information from the prescriber regarding a beneficiary's exception request.
(24) Notice of Right to an Expedited Grievance. This is a model communications material used to convey a Medicare beneficiary's rights to request that a decision be made on a grievance or appeal within a shorter timeframe.
(25) Notice of Inquiry. This is a model communications material from a prescription drug plan informing a beneficiary if a drug is covered by the formulary.
(26) Notice of Case Status. This is a model communications material used to inform a beneficiary of the denial of an appeal and additional appeal rights.
(27) Request for Reconsideration of Medicare Prescription Drug Denial. This is a model communications material used to inform the beneficiary of rights to an independent review of a Part D sponsor's decision.
(28) Notice of Redetermination. This is a model communications material used to convey instructions for requesting an appeal of an adverse coverage determination.
(29) LEP Reconsideration Request Form. This is a model communication used to request an appeal of a decision on an LEP by the independent review entity.
(30) Request for Administrative Law Judge (ALJ) Hearing or Review of Dismissal. This is a model communication used by an enrollee to request a hearing by the ALJ or a review of the IRE dismissal.
(31) Appointment of Representative (AOR). This is a standardized material used to assign an individual to act on behalf of a beneficiary for the purpose of an appeal, grievance, or coverage determination.
(32) Member ID card. The member ID card is a model communications material that plans must provide to enrollees as required under § 423.128(d)(2). The member ID card—
(i) Must be provided to new enrollees within 10 calendars days from receipt of CMS confirmation of enrollment or by the last day of month prior to the plan effective date, whichever is later;
(ii) Must include the Part D sponsor's—
(A) Website address;
(B) Customer service number (the member ID card is excluded from the hours of operations requirement under § 423.2262(c)(1)(i)); and
(C) Contract/PBP number;
(iii) Must include, if issued for a preferred provider organization (PPO) and PFFS plan, the phrase “Medicare limiting charges apply.”;
(iv) May not use a member's Social Security number (SSN), in whole or in part;
(v) Must be updated whenever information on a member's existing card changes; in such cases an updated card must be provided to the member;
(vi) Is excluded from the translation requirement under paragraphs (a)(2) through (4) of this section;
(vii) Is excluded from the 12-point font size requirement under paragraph (a)(1) of this section; and
(viii) For dual eligible special needs plans that are applicable integrated plans, as defined in § 422.561 of this chapter, must be an integrated member ID card that serves as the ID card for both the Medicare and Medicaid plans in which the enrollee is enrolled, beginning no later than contract year 2027.
(33) [Reserved]
(34) Federal Contracting Statement. This is model content through which plans must convey that they have a contract with Medicare and that enrollment in the plan depends on contract renewal.
(i) The Federal Contracting Statement must include all of the following:
(A) Legal or marketing name of the organization.
(B) Type of plan (for example PDP).
(C) A statement that the organization has a contract with Medicare (when applicable, Part D sponsors may incorporate a statement that the organization has a contract with the State/Medicaid program).
(D) A statement that enrollment depends on contract renewal.
(ii) Part D sponsors must include the Federal Contracting Statement on all marketing materials with the exception of the following:
(A) Banner and banner-like advertisements.
(B) Outdoor advertisements.
(C) Text messages.
(D) Social media.
(E) Envelopes
(35) Star Ratings Disclaimer. This is model content through which plans must:
(i) Convey that plan sponsors are evaluated yearly by Medicare
(ii) Convey that the ratings are based on a 5-star rating system
(iii) Include the model content in disclaimer form or within the material whenever Star Ratings are mentioned in marketing materials, with the exception of when Star Ratings are published on small objects (that is, a give-away items such as a pens or rulers).
(36) Accommodations Disclaimer. This is model content through which plans must:
(i) Convey that accommodations for persons with special needs is available
(ii) Provide a telephone number and TTY number
(iii) Include the model content in disclaimer form or within the body of the material on any advertisement of invitation to all events as described under § 423.2264(c).
(37) Mailing Statements. This is standardized content. It consists of statements on envelopes that Part D sponsor must include when mailing information to current members, as follows:
(i) Part D sponsors must include the following statement when mailing information about the enrollee's current plan: “Important [Insert Plan Name] information.”
(ii) Part D sponsors must include the following statement when mailing health and wellness information “Health and wellness or prevention information.”
(iii) The Part D sponsor must include the plan name; however, if the plan name is elsewhere on the envelope, the plan name does not need to be repeated in the disclaimer.
(iv) Delegated or sub-contracted entities and downstream entities that conduct mailings on behalf of a multiple Part D sponsors must also comply with this requirement, however, they do not have to include a plan name.
(38) Promotional Give-Away Disclaimer. This is model content. The disclaimer consists of a statement that must make clear that there is no obligation to enroll in a plan, and must be included when offering a promotional give-away such as a drawing, prizes, or a free gift.
(39) Provider Co-Branded Material Disclaimer. This is model content through which Part D sponsors must:
(i) Convey, as applicable, that other pharmacies, physicians or providers are available in the plan's network.
(ii) Include the model content in disclaimer form or within the material whenever co-branding relationships with network provider are mentioned.
(40) Limited access to preferred cost-sharing pharmacies. This is standardized content that must—
(i) Be used on all materials mentioning preferred pharmacies when there is limited access to preferred pharmacies; and
(ii) Include the following language: “<insert organization/plan name>'s pharmacy network includes limited lower-cost, preferred pharmacies in <insert geographic area type(s) and state(s) for which plan is an outlier)>. The lower costs advertised in our plan materials for these pharmacies may not be available at the pharmacy you use. For up-to-date information about our network pharmacies, including whether there are any lower-cost preferred pharmacies in your area, please call <insert Member Services phone number and TTY> or consult the online pharmacy directory at <insert website>.”
(41) Third-party marketing organization disclaimer. This is standardized content. If a TPMO does not sell for all Part D sponsors in the service area the disclaimer consists of the statement: “We do not offer every plan available in your area. Currently we represent [insert number of organizations] organizations which offer [insert number of plans] products in your area. Please contact Medicare.gov or 1-800-MEDICARE to get information on all of your options.” If the TPMO sells for all Part D sponsors in the service area the disclaimer consists of the statement: “Currently we represent [insert number of organizations] organizations which offer [insert number of plans] products in your area. You can always contact Medicare.gov or 1-800-MEDICARE for help with plan choices.” The Part D sponsor must ensure that the disclaimer is as follows:
(i) Used by any TPMO, as defined under § 422.2260, that sells plans on behalf of more than one Part D sponsor.
(ii) Verbally conveyed during sales calls prior to the discussion of any benefits.
(iii) Electronically conveyed when communicating with a beneficiary through email, online chat, or other electronic means of communication.
(iv) Prominently displayed on TPMO websites.
(v) Included in any marketing materials, including print materials and television advertisements, developed, used or distributed by the TPMO.
(42) [Reserved]
(43) Comprehensive medication review—written summary. This is the standardized communications material Part D sponsors must provide to all MTM program enrollees who receive a comprehensive medication review, as required under § 423.153(d)(1)(vii)(B).
(44) Safe disposal information. This is model communications material Part D sponsors must provide to all enrollees targeted for its MTM program, as required under § 423.153(d)(1)(vii)(E).
(45) Election request form. This is a model communications material that Part D sponsors must provide to allow enrollees to request to opt into the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan, as required under § 423.137(d)(10)(i).
(46) Notice of election approval. This is a model communications material that Part D sponsors must provide upon accepting a Medicare Prescription Payment Plan election request, as required under § 423.137(d)(10)(ii).
(47) Medicare Prescription Payment Plan Likely to Benefit Notice. This is a standardized communications material that Part D sponsors must provide to enrollees identified as being likely to benefit from opting into the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan, as required under § 423.137(e)(4).
(48) Notice of failure to pay. This is a model communications material that Part D sponsors must provide to Medicare Prescription Payment Plan participants who fail to pay a program bill, as required under § 423.137(f)(2)(ii)(C).
(49) Involuntary termination notice. This is a model communications material that Part D sponsors must provide to Medicare Prescription Payment Plan participants who are being involuntarily terminated from the program due to failure to pay, as required under § 423.137(f)(2)(ii)(D).
(50) Voluntary termination notice. This is a model communications material that Part D sponsors must provide to Medicare Prescription Payment Plan participants who request to voluntarily leave the program, as required under § 423.137(f)(2)(i)(A)(2).
(51) Renewal notice. This is a model communications material that Part D sponsors must send to Medicare Prescription Payment Plan participants alerting them that their participation in the program will automatically renew for the subsequent plan year, as required under § 423.137(d)(10)(iv).
[86 FR 6126, Jan. 19, 2021, as amended at 86 FR 29528, June 2, 2021; 87 FR 27901, May 9, 2022; 88 FR 22341, Apr. 12, 2023; 88 FR 34780, May 31, 2023; 89 FR 30842, Apr. 23, 2024; 90 FR 15920, Apr. 15, 2025; 91 FR 17592, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.2272 Licensing of marketing representatives and confirmation of marketing resources.
In its marketing, the Part D organization must—
(a) Demonstrate to CMS's satisfaction that marketing resources are allocated to marketing to the disabled Medicare population as well as beneficiaries age 65 and over.
(b) Establish and maintain a system for confirming that enrolled beneficiaries have in fact enrolled in the PDP and understand the rules applicable under the plan.
(c) Employ as marketing representatives only individuals who are licensed by the State to conduct direct marketing activities (as defined in the Medicare Marketing Guidelines) in that State, and whom the sponsor has informed that State it has appointed, consistent with the appointment process provided for under State law.
(d) Report to the State in which the MAO appoints an agent or broker, the termination of any such agent or broker, including the reasons for such termination if State law requires that the reasons for the termination be reported.
(e) Establish and implement an oversight plan that monitors agent and broker activities, identifies non-compliance with CMS requirements, and reports non-compliance to CMS.
[73 FR 54222, Sept. 18, 2008, as amended at 73 FR 54253, Sept. 18, 2008; 76 FR 21577, Apr. 15, 2011; 83 FR 16755, Apr. 16, 2018; 88 FR 22341, Apr. 12, 2023]
§ 423.2274 Agent, broker, and other third-party requirements.
If a Part D sponsor uses agents and brokers to sell its Medicare Part D plans, the requirements in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section are applicable. If a Part D sponsor makes payments to third parties, the requirements in paragraph (f) of this section are applicable.
(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following definitions are applicable:
Compensation. (i) Includes monetary or non-monetary remuneration of any kind relating to the sale, renewal, or services related to a plan or product offered by a Part D sponsor including, but not limited to the following:
(A) Commissions.
(B) Bonuses.
(C) Gifts.
(D) Prizes or Awards.
(E) Beginning with contract year 2025, payment of fees to comply with state appointment laws, training, certification, and testing costs.
(F) Beginning with contract year 2025, reimbursement for mileage to, and from, appointments with beneficiaries.
(G) Beginning with contract year 2025, reimbursement for actual costs associated with beneficiary sales appointments such as venue rent, snacks, and materials.
(H) Beginning with contract year 2025, any other payments made to an agent or broker that are tied to enrollment, related to an enrollment in a Part D plan or product, or for services conducted as a part of the relationship associated with the enrollment into a Part D plan or product.
(ii) Does not include any of the following:
(A) Payment of fees to comply with State appointment laws, training, certification, and testing costs.
(B) Reimbursement for mileage to, and from, appointments with beneficiaries.
(C) Reimbursement for actual costs associated with beneficiary sales appointments such as venue rent, snacks, and materials.
Fair market value (FMV) means, for purposes of evaluating agent or broker compensation under the requirements of this section only, the amount that CMS determines could reasonably be expected to be paid for an enrollment or continued enrollment into a Part D plan. Beginning January 1, 2021, the national FMV is 81. In contract year 2025, there will be a one-time increase of $100 to the FMV to account for administrative payments included under the compensation rate. For subsequent years, FMV is calculated by adding the current year FMV and the produce of the current year FMV and Annual Percentage Increase for Part D, which is published for each year in the rate announcement issued under § 422.312.
Initial enrollment year means the first year that a beneficiary is enrolled in a plan versus subsequent years (c.f., renewal year) that a beneficiary remains enrolled in a plan.
Like plan type means one of the following:
(i) PDP replaced with another PDP.
(ii) MA or MA-PD replaced with another MA or MA-PD.
(iii) Cost plan replaced with another cost plan.
Plan year and enrollment year mean the year beginning January 1 and ending December 31.
Renewal year means all years following the initial enrollment year in the same plan or in different plan that is a like plan type.
Unlike plan type means one of the following:
(i) An MA or MA-PD plan to a PDP or Section 1876 Cost Plan.
(ii) A PDP to a Section 1876 Cost Plan or an MA or MA-PD plan.
(iii) A Section 1876 Cost Plan to an MA or MA-PD plan or PDP.
(b) Agent/broker requirements. Agents and brokers who represent Part D sponsors must follow the requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section. Representation includes selling products (including Medicare Advantage plans, Medicare Advantage-Prescription Drug plans, Medicare Prescription Drug plans, and section 1876 Cost plans) as well as outreach to existing or potential beneficiaries and answering or potentially answering questions from existing or potential beneficiaries.
(1) Be licensed and appointed under State law (if required under applicable State law).
(2) Be trained and tested annually as required under paragraph (c)(4) of this section, and achieve an 85 percent or higher on all forms of testing.
(3) Secure and document a Scope of Appointment prior to a personal marketing appointment.
(c) Part D sponsor oversight. Part D sponsors must oversee first tier, downstream, and related entities that represent Part D sponsor to ensure agents and brokers abide by all applicable State and Federal laws, regulations, and requirements. Part D sponsors must do all of the following:
(1) As required under applicable State law, employ as marketing representatives only individuals who are licensed by the State to conduct marketing (as defined in this subpart) of health insurance in that State, and whom the Part D sponsor has informed that State it has appointed, consistent with the appointment process for agents and brokers provided for under State law.
(2) As required under applicable State law, report the termination of an agent or broker to the State and the reason for termination if required by state law.
(3) Report to CMS all enrollments made by unlicensed agents or brokers and for-cause terminations of agents or brokers.
(4) On an annual basis, provide training and testing to agents and brokers on Medicare rules and regulations, the plan products that agents and brokers will sell including any details specific to each plan product, and relevant State and Federal requirements.
(5) On an annual basis for plan years through 2024, by the last Friday in July, report to CMS whether the MA organization intends to use employed, captive, or independent agents or brokers in the upcoming plan year and the specific rates or range of rates the plan will pay independent agents and brokers. Following the reporting deadline, MA organizations may not change their decisions related to agent or broker type, or their compensation rates and ranges, until the next plan year.
(6) On an annual basis by October 1, have in place full compensation structures for the following plan year. The structure must include details on compensation dissemination, including specifying payment amounts for initial enrollment year and renewal year compensation.
(7) Submit agent or broker marketing materials to CMS through HPMS prior to use, following the requirements for marketing materials in this subpart.
(8) Ensure beneficiaries are not charged marketing consulting fees when considering enrollment in Part D plans.
(9) Establish and maintain a system for confirming all of the following:
(i) Beneficiaries enrolled by agents or brokers understand the product, including the rules applicable under the plan.
(ii) Agents and brokers appropriately complete Scope of Appointment records for all personal marketing appointments (including telephonic and walk-in).
(10) Demonstrate that marketing resources are allocated to marketing to the disabled Medicare population as well as to Medicare beneficiaries age 65 and over.
(11) Must comply with State requests for information about the performance of a licensed agent or broker as part of a state investigation into the individual's conduct. CMS will establish and maintain a memorandum of understanding (MOU) to share compliance and oversight information with States that agree to the MOU.
(12) Ensure that, prior to an enrollment CMS' required questions and topics regarding beneficiary needs in a health plan choice are fully discussed. Topics include information regarding pharmacies (that is, whether or not the beneficiary's current pharmacy is in the plan's network), prescription drug coverage and costs (including whether or not the beneficiary's current prescriptions are covered), premiums, and other services or incentives.
(13) Beginning with contract year 2025, ensure that no provision of a contract with an agent, broker, or other TPMO has a direct or indirect effect of creating an incentive that would reasonably be expected to inhibit an agent or broker's ability to objectively assess and recommend which plan best fits the health care needs of a beneficiary.
(d) Compensation requirements. Part D sponsors must ensure they meet the requirements in paragraphs (d)(1) through (5) of this section in order to pay compensation. These compensation requirements only apply to independent agents and brokers.
(1) General rules. (i) MA organizations may only pay agents or brokers who meet the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section.
(ii) For contract years through contract year 2024, Part D sponsors may determine, through their contracts, the amount of compensation to be paid, provided it does not exceed limitations outlined in this section. Beginning with contract year 2025, Part D sponsors are limited to the compensation amounts outlined in this section.
(iii) Part D sponsors may determine their payment schedule (for example, monthly or quarterly). Payments (including payments for AEP enrollments) must be made during the year of the beneficiary's enrollment.
(iv) Part D sponsors may only pay compensation for the number of months a member is enrolled.
(2) Initial enrollment year compensation. For each enrollment in an initial enrollment year for contract years through contract year 2024, Part D sponsors may pay compensation at or below FMV.
(i) Part D sponsors may pay either a full or pro-rated initial enrollment year compensation for:
(A) A beneficiary's first year of enrollment in any plan; or
(B) A beneficiary's move from an employer group plan to a non-employer group plan (either within the same parent organization or between parent organizations).
(ii) Part D sponsors must pay pro-rated initial enrollment year compensation for:
(A) A beneficiary's plan change(s) during their initial enrollment year.
(B) A beneficiary's selection of an “unlike plan type” change. In that case, the new plan would only pay the months that the beneficiary is enrolled, and the previous plan would recoup the months that the beneficiary was not in the plan.
(3) Renewal compensation. For each enrollment in a renewal year for contract years through contract year 2024, Part D sponsors may pay compensation at a rate of up to 50 percent of FMV. For contract years beginning with contract year 2025, for each enrollment in a renewal year, MA organizations may pay compensation at 50 percent of FMV.
(i) Part D sponsors may pay compensation for a renewal year:
(A) In any year following the initial enrollment year the beneficiary remains in the same plan; or
(B) When a beneficiary enrolls in a new “like plan type”.
(ii) [Reserved]
(4) Other compensation scenarios. (i) When a beneficiary enrolls in a PDP, the Part D sponsor may pay only the PDP compensation (and not compensation for MA enrollment under § 422.2274 of this chapter).
(ii) When a beneficiary enrolls in both a section 1876 Cost Plan and a stand-alone PDP, the 1876 Cost Plan sponsor may pay compensation for the cost plan enrollment and the Part D sponsor must pay compensation for the Part D enrollment.
(iii) When a beneficiary enrolls in a MA-only plan and a PDP, the MA plan may pay for the MA plan enrollment and the Part D sponsor may pay for the PDP enrollment.
(5) Additional compensation, payment, and compensation recovery requirements (Charge-backs). (i) Part D sponsors must retroactively pay or recoup funds for retroactive beneficiary changes for the current and previous calendar years. Part D sponsors may choose to recoup or pay compensation for years prior to the previous calendar year, but they must do both (recoup amounts owed and pay amounts due) during the same year.
(ii) Compensation recovery is required when:
(A) A beneficiary makes any plan change (regardless of the parent organization) within the first three months of enrollment (known as rapid disenrollment), except as provided in paragraph (d)(5)(iii) of this section.
(B) Any other time period a beneficiary is not enrolled in a plan, but the plan paid compensation based on that time period.
(iii) Rapid disenrollment compensation recovery does not apply when:
(A) A beneficiary enrolls effective October 1, November 1, or December 1 and subsequently uses the Annual Election Period to change plans for an effective date of January 1.
(B) A beneficiary's enrollment change is not in the best interests of the Medicare program, including for the following reasons:
(1) Other creditable coverage (for example, an employer plan).
(2) Moving into or out of an institution.
(3) Gain or loss of employer/union sponsored coverage.
(4) Plan termination, non-renewal, or CMS imposed sanction.
(5) To coordinate with Part D enrollment periods or the State Pharmaceutical Assistance Program.
(6) Becoming LIS or dually eligible for Medicare and Medicaid.
(7) Qualifying for another plan based on special needs.
(8) Due to an auto, facilitated, or passive enrollment.
(9) Death.
(10) Moving out of the service area.
(11) Non-payment of premium.
(12) Loss of entitlement or retroactive notice of entitlement.
(13) Moving into a 5-star plan.
(14) Moving from an LPI plan into a plan with three or more stars.
(iv)(A) When rapid disenrollment compensation recovery applies, the entire compensation must be recovered.
(B) For other compensation recovery, plans must recover a pro-rated amount of compensation (whether paid for an initial enrollment year or renewal year) from an agent or broker equal to the number of months not enrolled.
(1) If a plan has paid full initial compensation, and the enrollee disenrolls prior to the end of the enrollment year, the total number of months not enrolled (including months prior to the effective date of enrollment) must be recovered from the agent or broker.
(2) Example: A beneficiary enrolls upon turning 65 effective April 1 and disenrolls September 30 of the same year. The plan paid full initial enrollment year compensation. Recovery is equal to 6/12ths of the initial enrollment year compensation (for January through March and October through December).
(e) Payments other than compensation (administrative payments). (1) For contract years through contract year 2024, payments for services other than enrollment of beneficiaries (for example, training, customer service, agent recruitment, operational overhead, or assistance with completion of health risk assessments) must not exceed the value of those services in the marketplace.
(2) Beginning with contract year 2025, administrative payments are included in the calculation of enrollment-based compensation.
(f) Payments for referrals. Payments may be made to individuals for the referral (including a recommendation, provision, or other means of referring beneficiaries), recommendation, provision, or other means of referring beneficiaries to an agent, broker or other entity for potential enrollment into a plan. The payment may not exceed $100 for a referral into an MA or MA-PD plan and $25 for a referral into a PDP plan.
(g) TPMO oversight. In addition to any applicable FDR requirements under § 423.505(i), when doing business with a TPMO, either directly or indirectly through a downstream entity, Part D sponsor must implement the following as a part of their oversight of TPMOs:
(1) When TPMOs is not otherwise an FDR, the Part D sponsor is responsible for ensuring that the TPMO adheres to any requirements that apply to the Part D sponsor.
(2) Contracts, written arrangements, and agreements between the TPMO and a Part D plan, or between a TPMO and a Part D plan's FDR, must ensure the TPMO:
(i) Discloses to the plan any subcontracted relationships used for marketing, lead generation, and enrollment.
(ii) All marketing and sales calls, including the audio portion of calls conducted via web-based technology, must be recorded and retained in their entirety for a minimum period of 6 years. For the first 3 years of the retention period, records must be maintained in audio format. For years 4, 5, and 6, records may be maintained in either audio format or as complete and accurate transcript recordings.
(iii) Report to plans monthly any staff disciplinary actions or violations of any requirements that apply to the Part D sponsor associated with beneficiary interaction to the plan.
(iv) Use the TPMO disclaimer as required under § 423.2267(e)(41).
(3) Ensure that the TPMO, when conducting lead generating activities, either directly or indirectly for a Part D sponsor, must, when applicable:
(i) Disclose to the beneficiary that his or her information will be provided to a licensed agent for future contact. This disclosure must be provided:
(A) Verbally when communicating with a beneficiary through telephone;
(B) In writing when communicating with a beneficiary through mail or other paper; and
(C) Electronically when communicating with a beneficiary through email, online chat, or other electronic messaging platform.
(ii) When applicable, disclose to the beneficiary that he or she is being transferred to a licensed agent who can enroll him or her into a new plan.
(4) Beginning October 1, 2024, personal beneficiary data collected by a TPMO for marketing or enrolling them into a Part D plan may only be shared with another TPMO when prior express written consent is given by the beneficiary. Prior express written consent from the beneficiary to share the information and be contacted for marketing or enrollment purposes must be obtained through a clear and conspicuous disclosure that lists each entity receiving the data and allows the beneficiary to consent or reject to the sharing of their data with each individual TPMO.
[86 FR 6129, Jan. 19, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 27901, May 9, 2022; 88 FR 22342, Apr. 12, 2023; 89 FR 30842, Apr. 23, 2024; 91 FR 17592, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.2276 Employer group retiree marketing.
Part D sponsors may develop marketing materials designed for members of an employer group who are eligible for employer-sponsored benefits through the Part D sponsor, and furnish these materials only to the group members. These materials are not subject to CMS prior review and approval.
Subpart W Medicare Coverage Gap Discount Program
Source: 77 FR 22172, Apr. 12, 2012, unless otherwise noted.
§ 423.2300 Scope.
(a) Scope. This subpart sets forth the requirements for the Medicare coverage gap discount program based on provisions included in sections 1860D-14A and 1860D-43 of the Act, as follows:
(1) Condition for coverage of applicable drugs under Part D.
(2) The Medicare Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreement.
(3) Coverage gap discount payment processes for Part D sponsors.
(4) Provision of applicable discounts on applicable drugs for applicable beneficiaries.
(5) Manufacturer audit and dispute resolution processes.
(6) Resolution of beneficiary disputes involving coverage gap discounts.
(7) Compliance monitoring and civil money penalties.
(8) The termination of the Medicare Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreement.
(b) Applicability. The requirements of this subpart apply before January 1, 2025, and, with respect to applicable drugs dispensed prior to such date, continue to apply on and after January 1, 2025.
[77 FR 22172, Apr. 12, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 17592, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.2305 Definitions.
As used in this subpart and for purposes of the Coverage Gap Discount Program, unless otherwise specified—
Applicable discount means, with respect to a plan year before 2019, 50 percent or, with respect to plan year 2019 through plan year 2024, 70 percent of the portion of the negotiated price (as defined in this section) of the applicable drug of a manufacturer that falls within the coverage gap and that remains after such negotiated price is reduced by any supplemental benefits that are available.
Medicare Part D discount information means the information sent from CMS or the TPA to the manufacturer along with each quarterly invoice that is derived from applicable data elements available on prescription drug events as determined by CMS.
Negotiated price for purposes of the Coverage Gap Discount Program, means the price for a covered Part D drug that—
(1) The Part D sponsor (or other intermediary contracting organization) and the network dispensing pharmacy or other network dispensing provider have negotiated as the lowest possible reimbursement such network entity will receive, in total, for a particular drug;
(i) Includes all price concessions (as defined in § 423.100) from network pharmacies or other network providers; and
(ii) Excludes additional contingent amounts, such as incentive fees, if these amounts increase prices;
(2) Is reduced by those discounts, direct or indirect subsidies, rebates, non-pharmacy price concessions, and direct or indirect remuneration that the Part D sponsor has elected to pass through to Part D enrollees at the point-of-sale; and
(3) Excludes any dispensing fee or vaccine administration fee for the applicable drug.
(4) In connection with applicable drugs dispensed by an out-of-network provider in accordance with the applicable beneficiary's Part D plan out-of-network policies, the negotiated price means the plan allowance as set forth in § 423.124, less any dispensing fee or vaccine administration fee.
Other health or prescription drug coverage means any coverage or financial assistance under other health benefit plans or programs that provide coverage or financial assistance for the purchase or provision of prescription drug coverage on behalf of applicable beneficiaries, including, in the case of employer group health or waiver plans, other than basic prescription drug coverage as defined in § 423.100.
[77 FR 22172, Apr. 12, 2012, as amended at 86 FR 6131, Jan. 19, 2021; 87 FR 27902, May 9, 2022; 91 FR 17593, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.2310 Condition for coverage of drugs under Part D.
(a) Covered Part D drug coverage requirement. Except as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, in order for coverage to be available under Medicare Part D for applicable drugs of a manufacturer, the manufacturer must do all of the following:
(1) Participate in the Coverage Gap Discount Program.
(2) Have entered into and have in effect an agreement described in § 423.2315(b).
(3) Have entered into and have in effect, under terms and conditions specified by CMS, a contract with the TPA.
(b) Exception to covered drug coverage requirement. Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to an applicable drug if CMS has made a determination that the availability of the applicable drug is essential to the health of beneficiaries enrolled in Medicare Part D.
[77 FR 22172, Apr. 12, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 17593, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.2315 Medicare Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreement.
(a) General rule. The Medicare Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreement between the manufacturer and CMS must contain the provisions specified in paragraph (b) of this section, and may contain such other provisions as are established in a model agreement consistent with section 1860D-14A (a)(1) of the Act.
(b) Agreement requirements. The manufacturer agrees to the following:
(1) All the applicable requirements and conditions set forth in this part and general instructions.
(2) Reimburse all applicable discounts provided by Part D sponsors on behalf of the manufacturer for all applicable drugs having NDCs with the manufacturer's FDA-assigned labeler code(s) invoiced to the manufacturer within a maximum of 3 years of the date of dispensing based upon information reported to CMS by Part D sponsors.
(3) Pay each Part D sponsor in the manner specified by CMS within 38 calendar days of receipt of the invoice and Medicare Part D Discount Information for the applicable discounts included on the invoice, except as specified in § 423.2330(c)(3).
(4) Provide CMS with all labeler codes for all the manufacturer's applicable drugs and to promptly update such list with any additional labeler codes for applicable drugs no later than 3 business days after learning of a new code assigned by the FDA.
(5) Collect, have available, and maintain appropriate data, including data related to manufacturer's labeler codes, FDA drug approvals, FDA NDC Directory listings, NDC last lot expiration dates, utilization and pricing information relied on by the manufacturer to dispute quarterly invoices, and any other data CMS determines are necessary to carry out the Coverage Gap Discount Program, for a period of not less than 10 years from the date of payment of the invoice.
(6) Comply with the audit and dispute resolution requirements in § 423.2330.
(7) Electronically list and maintain up-to-date electronic FDA listings of all NDCs of the manufacturer, including providing timely information about discontinued drugs to enable the publication of accurate information regarding what drugs, identified by NDC, are in current distribution.
(8) Maintain up-to-date NDC listings with the electronic database vendors for which the manufacturer provides NDCs for pharmacy claims processing.
(9) Enter into and have in effect, under terms and conditions specified by CMS, an agreement with the TPA that has a contract with CMS under section 1860D-14(A)(d)(3) of the Act.
(10) Pay quarterly invoices directly to accounts established by Part D sponsors via electronic funds transfer, or other manner if specified by CMS, within the time period specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section and within 5 business days of the transfer to provide the TPA with electronic documentation of such payment in a manner specified by CMS.
(11) Use information disclosed to the manufacturer on the invoice, as part of the Medicare Part D Discount Information, or upon audit or dispute only for purposes of paying the discount under the Coverage Gap Discount Program.
(c) Timing and length of agreement. (1) For 2011, a manufacturer must enter into a Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreement not later than 30 days after the date of establishment of the model Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreement.
(2) For 2012 and subsequent years prior to 2025, for a Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreement to be effective for a year, a manufacturer must enter into such Agreement not later than January 30th of the preceding year.
(3) Unless terminated in accordance with § 423.2345, the initial period of a Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreement is 24 months and the agreement is automatically renewed for a 1-year period on January first each year for a period of 1 year thereafter.
(d) Compliance with requirements for administration of the Program. Each manufacturer with an agreement in effect under this subpart must comply with the requirements imposed by CMS or the third party administrator (as defined in § 423.2305) for purposes of administering the program.
[77 FR 22172, Apr. 12, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 17593, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.2320 Payment processes for Part D sponsors.
(a) Interim payments. CMS provides monthly interim coverage gap discount program payments as necessary for Part D sponsors to advance coverage gap discounts to beneficiaries.
(b) Coverage Gap Discount Reconciliation. CMS reconciles interim payments with invoiced manufacturer discount amounts made available to each Part D plan's enrollee under the Coverage Gap Discount Program.
(c) Manufacturer bankruptcy. In the event that a manufacturer declares bankruptcy, as described in Title 11 of the United States Code, and as a result of the bankruptcy, does not pay the quarterly invoices described in § 423.2315(b)(10) used for a particular contract year's Coverage Gap Discount Reconciliation described in paragraph (b) of this section, CMS adjusts the Coverage Gap Discount Reconciliation amount of each of the affected Part D sponsors to account for the total unpaid quarterly invoiced amount owed to each of the Part D sponsors for that particular contract year being reconciled.
[77 FR 22172, Apr. 12, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 7965, Feb. 12, 2015; 91 FR 17593, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.2325 Provision of applicable discounts.
(a) General rule. On behalf of the manufacturers, Part D sponsors must provide applicable beneficiaries with applicable discounts on applicable drugs at the point-of-sale.
(b) Discount determination. (1) Part D sponsors must determine the following:
(i) Whether an enrollee is an applicable beneficiary (as defined in § 423.100).
(ii) Whether a Part D drug is an applicable drug (as defined in § 423.100).
(iii) The amount of the applicable discount (as defined in § 423.2305) to be provided at the point-of-sale.
(2) Part D sponsors must make retroactive adjustments to the applicable discount as necessary to reflect changes to the claim or beneficiary eligibility determined after the date of dispensing.
(3) Part D sponsors must determine whether any affected beneficiaries need to be notified by the Part D sponsor that an applicable drug is eligible for Part D coverage whenever CMS specifies a retroactive effective date for a labeler code and notify such beneficiaries.
(c) Exception to point-of-sale requirement. Part D sponsors must provide an applicable discount for applicable drugs submitted by applicable beneficiaries via paper claims, including out-of-network and in-network paper claims, if such claims are payable under the Part D plan.
(d) Collection of data. Part D sponsors must provide CMS with appropriate data on the applicable discounts provided by the Part D sponsors in a manner specified by CMS.
(e) Supplemental benefits. (1) An applicable discount must be applied to beneficiary cost-sharing after supplemental benefits (as defined in § 423.100) have been applied to the claim for an applicable drug.
(2) No applicable discount is available if supplemental benefits (as defined in § 423.100) eliminate the coverage gap so that a beneficiary has zero cost-sharing.
(f) Other health or prescription drug coverage. An applicable discount must be applied to beneficiary cost-sharing when Part D is the primary payer before any other health or prescription drug coverage is applied.
(g) Pharmacy prompt payment. Part D sponsors must reimburse a network pharmacy (as defined in § 423.100) the amount of the applicable discount no later than the applicable number of calendar days after the date of dispensing of an applicable drug. For long-term care and home infusion pharmacies, the date of dispensing can be interpreted as the date the pharmacy submits the discounted claim for reimbursement.
(h) Treatment of employer group waiver plans. As of 2014, Part D sponsors offering employer group waiver plans must provide applicable discounts to applicable beneficiaries who are employer group waiver plan enrollees as determined consistent with the defined standard benefit.
[77 FR 22172, Apr. 12, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 7966, Feb. 12, 2015]
§ 423.2330 Manufacturer discount payment audit and dispute resolution.
(a) Third-party Administration (TPA) audits. (1) Manufacturers participating in the Coverage Gap Discount Program may conduct periodic audits, no more often than annually, directly or through third parties as specified in this section.
(2) The manufacturer must provide the TPA with 60 days notice of the reasonable basis for the audit and a description of the information required for the audit.
(3) The manufacturer must have the right to audit a statistically significant sample of data and information held by the TPA that were used to determine applicable discounts for applicable drugs having NDCs with the manufacturer's FDA-assigned labeler code(s). Such data and information will be made available on-site, and with the exception of work papers, such information cannot be removed from the audit site.
(4) The auditor for the manufacturer may release only an opinion of the audit results and is prohibited from releasing other information obtained from the audit, including work papers, to its client, employer, or any other party.
(b) Manufacturer audits. (1) A manufacturer is subject to periodic audit by CMS no more often than annually, directly or through third parties, as specified in this section.
(2) CMS provides the manufacturer with 60 days notice of the audit and a description of the information required for the audit.
(3) CMS has the right to audit appropriate data, including data related to a manufacturer's FDA-assigned labeler codes, NDC last lot expiration dates, utilization, and pricing information relied on by the manufacturer to dispute quarterly invoices, and any other data CMS determines are necessary to carry out the Coverage Gap Discount Program.
(c) Dispute resolution. (1) Manufacturers may dispute applicable discounts invoiced to the manufacturer on quarterly invoices by providing notice of the dispute to the TPA in a manner specified by CMS within 60 days of receipt of the information that is the subject of the dispute.
(2) Such notice must be accompanied by supporting evidence that is material, specific, and related to the dispute in a manner specified by CMS.
(3) The manufacturer must not withhold any invoiced discount payments pending dispute resolution with the sole exception of invoiced amounts for applicable drugs that do not have labeler codes provided by the manufacturer to CMS in accordance with § 423.2315(b)(4). If payment is withheld in accordance with this paragraph, the manufacturer must notify the TPA and applicable Part D sponsors within 38 days of receipt of the applicable invoice that payment is being withheld for this reason.
(4) If the manufacturer receives an unfavorable determination from the TPA, or the dispute is not resolved within 60 calendar days of the TPA's receipt of the notice of dispute, the manufacturer may request review by the independent review entity contracted by CMS within—
(i) Thirty calendar days of the unfavorable determination; or
(ii) Ninety calendar days after the TPA's receipt of the notice of dispute if dispute is not resolved within 60 days, whichever is earlier.
(5) The independent review entity must make a determination within 90 calendar days of receipt of the manufacturer's request for review.
(6)(i) CMS or a manufacturer that receives an unfavorable determination from the independent review entity may request review by the CMS Administrator within 30 calendar days of receipt of the notification of such determination.
(ii) The decision of the CMS Administrator is final and binding.
(7) CMS adjusts future invoices (or implements an alternative reimbursement process if determined necessary by CMS) if the dispute is resolved in favor of the manufacturer.
[77 FR 22172, Apr. 12, 2012, as amended at 85 FR 72909, Nov. 16, 2020; 91 FR 17593, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.2335 Beneficiary dispute resolution.
The Part D coverage determination and appeals process as described in §§ 423.558 through 423.638 applies to beneficiary disputes involving the availability and amount of applicable discounts under the Coverage Gap Discount Program.
[77 FR 22172, Apr. 12, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 17593, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.2340 Compliance monitoring and civil money penalties.
(a) General rule. CMS monitors compliance by a manufacturer with the terms of the Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreement.
(b) Basis for imposing civil money penalties. CMS imposes a civil money penalty (CMP) on a manufacturer that fails to provide applicable beneficiaries applicable discounts for applicable drugs of the manufacturer in accordance with the Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreement.
(c) Determination of the civil money penalty amounts. CMS imposes a CMP for each failure by a manufacturer to provide an applicable discount in accordance with the Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreement equal to the sum of the following:
(1) The amount of applicable discount the manufacturer would have paid under the Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreement, which will then be used to pay the applicable discount that the manufacturer had failed to provide.
(2) Twenty-five percent of such amount.
(d) Procedures for imposing civil money penalties. If CMS makes a determination to impose a CMP described in paragraph (c) of this section, CMS sends a written notice of its decision to impose a CMP to include the following:
(1) A description of the basis for the determination.
(2) The basis for the penalty.
(3) The amount of the penalty.
(4) The date the penalty is due.
(5) The manufacturer's right to a hearing (as specified in § 423.1006).
(6) Information about where to file the request for hearing.
(e) Collection of civil money penalties imposed by CMS. (1) When a manufacturer does not request a hearing, CMS initiates the collection of the CMP following the expiration of the timeframe for requesting an ALJ hearing as specified in § 423.1020.
(2) If a manufacturer requests a hearing and the Administrator upholds CMS' decision to impose a CMP, CMS may initiate collection of the CMP once the Administrator's decision is final.
(f) Other applicable provisions. The provisions of section 1128A of the Act (except subsections (a) and (b) of section of 1128A of the Act) apply to CMPs under this section to the same extent that they apply to a CMP or procedure under section 1128A(a) of the Act.
[77 FR 22172, Apr. 12, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 17593, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.2345 Termination of Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreement.
(a)(1) CMS may terminate the Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreement for a knowing and willful violation of the requirements of the agreement or other good cause shown in relation to the manufacturer's participation in the Coverage Gap Discount Program.
(2) The termination must not be effective earlier than 30 days after the date of notice to the manufacturer of such termination and must not be effective prior to resolution of timely appeal requests received in accordance with paragraphs (a)(4) and (5) of this section.
(3)(i) CMS provides the manufacturer with an opportunity to cure any ground for termination for cause or to show the manufacturer is in compliance with the Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreement within 30 calendar days of receipt of the written termination notice.
(ii) If the manufacturer cures the violation, or establishes that it was in compliance within the cure period, CMS repeals the termination notice by written notice.
(4) CMS provides upon request a manufacturer with a hearing with the hearing officer concerning such termination if requested in writing within 15 calendar days of receiving notice of the termination. The hearing takes place prior to the effective date of the termination with sufficient time for such effective date to be repealed if CMS determines appropriate.
(5)(i) CMS or a manufacturer that has received an unfavorable determination from the hearing officer may request review by the CMS Administrator within 30 calendar days of receipt of the notification of such determination.
(ii) The decision of the CMS Administrator is final and binding.
(b)(1) The manufacturer may terminate the Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreement for any reason.
(2) Such termination is effective as of the day after the end of the calendar year if the termination occurs before January 30 of a calendar year, or as of the day after the end of the succeeding calendar year if the termination occurs on or after January 30 of a calendar year.
(c) Any termination does not affect the manufacturer's responsibility to reimburse Part D sponsors for applicable discounts incurred before the effective date of the termination.
(d) Upon the effective date of termination of the Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreement, CMS ceases releasing data to the manufacturer except as necessary to ensure that the manufacturer reimburses applicable discounts for previous time periods in which the Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreement was in effect, and notifies the manufacturer to destroy data files provided by CMS under the Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreement.
(e) Manufacturer reinstatement is available only upon payment of any and all outstanding applicable discounts incurred during any previous period under the Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreement. The timing of any such reinstatement is consistent with the requirements for entering into a Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreement under § 423.2315(c) of this subpart.
(f) Subject to § 423.2300(b), all Coverage Gap Discount Program Agreements under this subpart are terminated as of January 1, 2025.
[77 FR 22172, Apr. 12, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 17593, Apr. 6, 2026]
Subpart X Requirements for a Minimum Medical Loss Ratio
Source: 78 FR 31310, May 23, 2013, unless otherwise noted.
§ 423.2400 Basis and scope.
This subpart is based on sections 1857(e)(4), 1860D-12(b)(3)(D), and 1106 of the Act, and sets forth medical loss ratio requirements for Part D sponsors, financial penalties and sanctions against Part D sponsors when minimum medical loss ratios are not achieved by Part D sponsors and release of medical loss ratio data to entities outside of CMS.
[81 FR 80558, Nov. 15, 2016]
§ 423.2401 Definitions.
Non-claims costs means those expenses for administrative services that are not—
(1) Incurred claims (as provided in § 423.2420(b)(2) through (b)(4));
(2) Expenditures on quality improving activities (as provided in § 423.2430);
(3) Licensing and regulatory fees (as provided in § 423.2420(c)(2)(i)); or
(4) State and Federal taxes and assessments (as provided in § 423.2420(c)(2)(ii) and (iii)).
§ 423.2410 General requirements.
(a) For contracts beginning in 2014 or subsequent contract years, a Part D sponsor (defined at § 423.4) is required to report the information required under § 423.2460 for each contract under this part for each contract year.
(b) If CMS determines for a contract year that a Part D sponsor has an MLR for a contract that is less than 0.85, the Part D sponsor must remit to CMS an amount equal to the product of the following:
(1) The total revenue of the prescription drug plan for the contract year.
(2) The difference between 0.85 and the MLR for the contract year.
(c) If CMS determines that a Part D sponsor has an MLR for a contract that is less than 0.85 for 3 or more consecutive contract years, CMS does not permit the enrollment of new enrollees under the contract for coverage during the second succeeding contract year.
(d) If CMS determines that a Part D sponsor has an MLR for a contract that is less than 0.85 for 5 consecutive contract years, CMS terminates the contract under the authority at 423.509(b)(1) and (d) effective as of the second succeeding contract year.
[78 FR 31310, May 23, 2013; 78 FR 43821, July 22, 2013; 83 FR 16756, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 423.2420 Calculation of medical loss ratio.
(a) Determination of the MLR. (1) The MLR for each contract under this part is the ratio of the numerator (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section) to the denominator (as defined in paragraph (c) of this section). An MLR may be increased by a credibility adjustment according to the rules at § 423.2440, or subject to an adjustment determined by CMS to be warranted based on exceptional circumstances for areas outside the 50 states and the District of Columbia.
(2) The MLR must reflect costs and revenues for benefits described at § 423.104(d) through (f). The MLR for MA-PD plans (defined at § 422.2 of this chapter) must also reflect costs and revenues for benefits described at § 422.100(c) of this chapter.
(b) Determining the MLR numerator. (1) For a contract year, the numerator of the MLR for a Part D prescription drug contract must equal the sum of paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section and must be in accordance with paragraphs (b)(5) and (b)(6) of this section.
(i) Incurred claims for all enrollees, as defined in paragraphs (b)(2) through (4) of this section.
(ii) The expenditures under the contract for activities that improve health care quality, as defined in § 423.2430;
(2) Incurred claims for prescription drug costs. Incurred claims must include the following:
(i) Direct drug costs that are actually paid (as defined in § 423.308, which are net of prescription drug rebates and other direct or indirect remuneration as defined herein) by the Part D sponsor.
(ii) Unpaid claims reserves for the current contract year, including claims reported in the process of adjustment.
(iii) Percentage withholds from payments made to contracted providers.
(iv) Claims incurred but not reported based on past experience, and modified to reflect current conditions such as changes in exposure, claim frequency or severity.
(v) Changes in other claims-related reserves.
(vi) Claims that are recoverable for anticipated coordination of benefits.
(vii) Claims payments recoveries received as a result of subrogation.
(viii) [Reserved]
(ix) Reserves for contingent benefits and the Part D claim portion of lawsuits.
(3) Adjustments that must be deducted from incurred claims include the following:
(i) Overpayment recoveries received from providers.
(4) Exclusions from incurred claims. The following amounts must not be included in incurred claims:
(i) Non-claims costs, as defined in § 423.2401, which include the following:
(A) Amounts paid to third party vendors for secondary network savings.
(B) Amounts paid to third party vendors for any of the following:
(1) Network development.
(2) Administrative fees.
(3) Claims processing.
(4) Utilization management.
(C) Amounts paid, including amounts paid to a pharmacy, for professional or administrative services that do not represent compensation or reimbursement for covered services provided to an enrollee, such as the following:
(1) Medical record copying costs.
(2) Attorneys' fees.
(3) Subrogation vendor fees.
(4) Bona fide service fees.
(5) Compensation to any of the following:
(i) Paraprofessionals.
(ii) Janitors.
(iii) Quality assurance analysts.
(iv) Administrative supervisors.
(v) Secretaries to medical personnel.
(vi) Medical record clerks.
(D) Unsettled balances from the Medicare Prescription Payment Plan.
(ii) Amounts paid to CMS as a remittance under § 423.2410(b).
(iii) Prospective Manufacturer Discount Program Payments.
(iv) Selected Drug Subsidy Program Payments.
(v) Inflation Reduction Act Subsidy Amounts.
(5) Incurred claims under this part for policies issued by one Part D sponsor and later assumed by another entity must be reported by the assuming organization for the entire MLR reporting year during which the policies were assumed and no incurred claims under this part for that contract year must be reported by the ceding Part D sponsor.
(6) Reinsured incurred claims for a block of business that was subject to indemnity reinsurance and administrative agreements effective before March 23, 2010, for which the assuming entity is responsible for 100 percent of the ceding entity's financial risk and takes on all of the administration of the block, must be reported by the assuming issuer and must not be reported by the ceding issuer.
(c) Determining the MLR denominator. For a contract year, the denominator of the MLR for a Part D prescription drug contract must equal the total revenue under the contract. Total revenue under the contract is as described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, net of deductions described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, taking into account the exclusions described in and paragraph (c)(3) of this section, and be in accordance with paragraphs (c)(4) and (5) of this section.
(1) CMS' payments to the Part D sponsor for all enrollees under a contract, reported on a direct basis, including the following:
(i) Payments under § 423.329(a)(1) and (2).
(ii) Payment adjustments resulting from reconciliation per § 423.329(c)(2)(ii).
(iii) All premiums paid by or on behalf of enrollees to the Part D sponsor as a condition of receiving coverage under a Part D plan, including CMS' payments for low income premium subsidies under § 422.304(b)(2) of this chapter.
(iv) All unpaid premium amounts that a Part D sponsor could have collected from enrollees in the Part D plan(s) under the contract.
(v) All changes in unearned premium reserves.
(vi) Payments under § 423.315(e).
(2) The following amounts must be deducted from total revenue in calculating the MLR:
(i) Licensing and regulatory fees. Statutory assessments to defray operating expenses of any State or Federal department, such as the “user fee” described in section 1857(e)(2) of the Act, and examination fees in lieu of premium taxes as specified by State law.
(ii) Federal taxes and assessments. All Federal taxes and assessments allocated to health insurance coverage.
(iii) State taxes and assessments. State taxes and assessments, such as the following:
(A) Any industry-wide (or subset) assessments (other than surcharges on specific claims) paid to the State directly.
(B) Guaranty fund assessments.
(C) Assessments of State industrial boards or other boards for operating expenses or for benefits to sick employed persons in connection with disability benefit laws or similar taxes levied by States.
(D) State income, excise, and business taxes other than premium taxes.
(iv) Community benefit expenditures. Community benefit expenditures are payments made by a Federal income tax-exempt Part D sponsor for community benefit expenditures as defined in paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, limited to the amount defined in paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(B) of this section, and allocated to a contract as required under paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
(A) Community benefit expenditures means expenditures for activities or programs that seek to achieve the objectives of improving access to health services, enhancing public health and relief of government burden.
(B) Such payment may be deducted up to the limit of either 3 percent of total revenue under this part or the highest premium tax rate in the State for which the Part D sponsor is licensed, multiplied by the Part D sponsor's earned premium for the contract.
(3) The following amounts must not be included in total revenue:
(i) The amount of unpaid premiums for which the Part D sponsor can demonstrate to CMS that it made a reasonable effort to collect.
(ii) Coverage Gap Discount Program payments under § 423.2320.
(4) Total revenue (as defined at § 423.2420(c)) of this chapter) for policies issued by one Part D sponsor and later assumed by another entity must be reported by the assuming entity for the entire MLR reporting year during which the policies were assumed and no revenue under this part for that contract year must be reported by the ceding Part D sponsor.
(5) Total revenue (as defined at § 423.2420(c) of this chapter) that is reinsured for a block of business that was subject to indemnity reinsurance and administrative agreements effective before March 23, 2010, for which the assuming entity is responsible for 100 percent of the ceding entity's financial risk and takes on all of the administration of the block, must be reported by the assuming issuer and must not be reported by the ceding issuer.
(d) Allocation of expenses—(1) General requirements. (i) Each expense must be included under only one type of expense, unless a portion of the expense fits under the definition of or criteria for one type of expense and the remainder fits into a different type of expense, in which case the expense must be pro-rated between types of expenses.
(ii) Expenditures that benefit multiple contracts, or contracts other than those being reported, including but not limited to those that are for or benefit self-funded plans, must be reported on a pro rata share.
(2) Description of the methods used to allocate expenses. (i) Allocation to each category must be based on a generally accepted accounting method that is expected to yield the most accurate results. Specific identification of an expense with an activity that is represented by one of the categories in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section will generally be the most accurate method.
(ii) Shared expenses, including expenses under the terms of a management contract, must be apportioned pro rata to the entities incurring the expense.
(iii)(A) Any basis adopted to apportion expenses must be that which is expected to yield the most accurate results and may result from special studies of employee activities, salary ratios, premium ratios or similar analyses.
(B) Expenses that relate solely to the operations of a reporting entity, such as personnel costs associated with the adjusting and paying of claims, must be borne solely by the reporting entity and are not to be apportioned to other entities within a group.
[78 FR 31310, May 23, 2013; 78 FR 43821, July 22, 2013; 83 FR 16756, Apr. 16, 2018; 90 FR 15920, Apr. 15, 2025; 91 FR 17593, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.2430 Activities that improve health care quality.
(a) Activity requirements. (1) Activities conducted by a Part D sponsor to improve quality must either—
(i) Fall into one of the categories in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and meet all of the requirements in paragraph (a)(3) of this section; or
(ii) Be listed in paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
(2) Categories of quality improving activities. The activity must be designed to achieve one or more of the following:
(i) To improve health outcomes through the implementation of activities such as quality reporting, effective case management, care coordination, chronic disease management, and medication and care compliance initiatives, including through the use of the medical homes model as defined for purposes of section 3602 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, for treatment or services under the plan or coverage.
(ii) To prevent hospital readmissions through a comprehensive program for hospital discharge that includes patient-centered education and counseling, comprehensive discharge planning, and post-discharge reinforcement by an appropriate health care professional.
(iii) To improve patient safety and reduce medical errors through the appropriate use of best clinical practices, evidence-based medicine, and health information technology under the plan or coverage.
(iv) To promote health and wellness.
(v) To enhance the use of health care data to improve quality, transparency, and outcomes and support meaningful use of health information technology. Activities, such as Health Information Technology (HIT) expenses, are required to accomplish the activities that improve health care quality and that are designed for use by health plans, health care providers, or enrollees for the electronic creation, maintenance, access, or exchange of health information, and are consistent with meaningful use requirements, and which may in whole or in part improve quality of care, or provide the technological infrastructure to enhance current quality improving activities or make new quality improvement initiatives possible.
(3) The activity must be designed for all of the following:
(i) To improve health quality.
(ii) To increase the likelihood of desired health outcomes in ways that are capable of being objectively measured and of producing verifiable results and achievements.
(iii) To be directed toward individual enrollees or incurred for the benefit of specified segments of enrollees or provide health improvements to the population beyond those enrolled in coverage as long as no additional costs are incurred due to the non-enrollees.
(iv) To be grounded in evidence-based medicine, widely accepted best clinical practice, or criteria issued by recognized professional medical associations, accreditation bodies, government agencies or other nationally recognized health care quality organizations.
(4)(i) Medication Therapy Management Programs meeting the requirements of § 423.153(d).
(ii) Fraud reduction activities, including fraud prevention, fraud detection, and fraud recovery.
(b) Exclusions. Expenditures and activities that must not be included in quality improving activities include, but are not limited to, the following:
(1) Those that are designed primarily to control or contain costs other than those that are related to fraud reduction.
(2) The pro rata share of expenses that are for lines of business or products other than those being reported, including but not limited to, those that are for or benefit self-funded plans.
(3) Those which otherwise meet the definitions for quality improving activities but which were paid for with grant money or other funding separate from premium revenue.
(4) Those activities that can be billed or allocated by a pharmacy for care delivery and that are reimbursed as clinical services.
(5) Establishing or maintaining a claims adjudication system, including costs directly related to upgrades in health information technology that are designed primarily or solely to improve claims payment capabilities (and that are not related to fraud reduction activities under paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section) or to meet regulatory requirements for processing claims, including ICD-10 implementation costs in excess of 0.3 percent of total revenue under this part, and maintenance of ICD-10 code sets adopted in accordance with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), 42 U.S.C. 1320d-2, as amended.
(6) That portion of the activities of health care professional hotlines that does not meet the definition of activities that improve health quality.
(7) All retrospective and concurrent utilization review.
(8) [Reserved]
(9) The cost of developing and executing pharmacy contracts and fees associated with establishing or managing a pharmacy network, including fees paid to a vendor for the same reason.
(10) Pharmacy network credentialing.
(11) Marketing expenses.
(12) Costs associated with calculating and administering individual enrollee or employee incentives.
(13) That portion of prospective utilization review that does not meet the definition of activities that improve health quality.
(14) Any function or activity not expressly permitted by CMS under this part.
[78 FR 31310, May 23, 2013, as amended at 83 FR 16756, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 423.2440 Credibility adjustment.
(a) A Part D sponsor may add the credibility adjustment specified under paragraph (e) of this section to a contract's MLR if the contract's experience is partially credible, as defined in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
(b) A Part D sponsor may not add a credibility adjustment to a contract's MLR if the contract's experience is fully credible, as defined in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
(c) For those contract years for which a contract has non-credible experience, as defined in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, sanctions under § 423.2410(b) through (d) will not apply.
(d)(1) A contract's experience is partially credible if it is based on the experience of at least 4,800 member months and fewer than or equal to 360,000 member months.
(2) A contract's experience is fully credible if it is based on the experience of more than 360,000 member months.
(3) A contract's experience is non-credible if it is based on the experience of fewer than 4,800 member months.
(e) The credibility adjustment for partially credible experience is determined based on the number of member months for all enrollees under the contract and the factors shown in Table 1 of this section. When the number of member months used to determine credibility exactly matches a member month category listed in Table 1 of this section, the value associated with that number of member months is the credibility adjustment. The credibility adjustment for a number of member months between the values shown in Table 1 of this section is determined by linear interpolation.
Table 1 to § 423.2440—Credibility Adjustments for Part D Contracts
Member months | Credibility adjustment (additional percentage points)
<4,800 | N/A (Non-credible).
4,800 | 8.4%.
12,000 | 5.3%.
24,000 | 3.7%.
48,000 | 2.6%.
120,000 | 1.7%.
240,000 | 1.2%.
360,000 | 1.0%.
>360,000 | 0.0% (Fully credible).
[85 FR 33911, June 2, 2020]
§ 423.2450 [Reserved]
§ 423.2460 Reporting requirements.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, for each contract year, each Part D sponsor must submit to CMS, in a timeframe and manner specified by CMS, a report that includes the data needed by the Part D sponsor to calculate and verify the medical loss ratio (MLR) and remittance amount, if any, for each contract under this part, including the amount of incurred claims for prescription drugs, supplemental benefits, total revenue, expenditures on quality improving activities, non-claims costs, taxes, licensing and regulatory fees, and any remittance owed to CMS under § 423.2410.
(b) For contract years 2018 through 2022, each Part D sponsor must submit to CMS, in a timeframe and manner specified by CMS, the following information:
(1) Fully credible and partially credible contracts. For each contract under this part that has fully credible or partially credible experience, as determined in accordance with § 423.2440(d), the Part D sponsor must report to CMS the MLR for the contract and the amount of any remittance owed to CMS under § 423.2410.
(2) Non-credible contracts. For each contract under this part that has non-credible experience, as determined in accordance with § 423.2440(d), the Part D sponsor must report to CMS that the contract is non-credible.
(c) Total revenue included as part of the MLR calculation must be net of all projected reconciliations.
(d) Subject to paragraph (e) of this section, the MLR is reported once, and is not reopened as a result of any payment reconciliation processes.
(e) With respect to a Part D sponsor that has already submitted to CMS the MLR report or MLR data required under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, respectively, for a contract for a contract year, paragraph (d) of this section does not prohibit resubmission of the MLR report or MLR data for the purpose of correcting the prior MLR report or data submission. Such resubmission must be authorized or directed by CMS, and upon receipt and acceptance by CMS, is regarded as the contract's MLR report or data submission for the contract year for purposes of this subpart.
[83 FR 16756, Apr. 16, 2018, as amended at 87 FR 27902, May 9, 2022]
§ 423.2470 Remittance to CMS if the applicable MLR requirement is not met.
(a) General requirement. For each contract year, a Part D sponsor must provide a remittance to CMS if the contract's MLR does not meet the minimum percentage required by § 423.2410(b).
(b) Amount of remittance. For each contract that does not meet MLR requirement for a contract year, the Part D sponsor must remit to CMS the amount by which the MLR requirement exceeds the contract's actual MLR multiplied by the total revenue of the contract, as provided in § 423.2420(c), for the contract year.
(c) Timing of remittance. CMS will deduct the remittance from plan payments in a timely manner after the MLR is reported, on a schedule determined by CMS.
(d) Treatment of remittance. Payment to CMS must not be included in the numerator or denominator of any year's MLR.
§ 423.2480 MLR review and non-compliance.
To ensure the accuracy of MLR reporting, CMS conducts selected review of data submitted under § 423.2460 to determine that the MLRs and remittance amounts under § 423.2410(b) and sanctions under § 423.2410(c) and (d), were accurately calculated, reported, and applied.
(a) The reviews will include a validation of amounts included in both the numerator and denominator of the MLR calculation reported to CMS.
(b) Part D sponsors are required to maintain evidence of the amounts reported to CMS and to validate all data necessary to calculate MLRs.
(c)(1) Documents and records must be maintained for 10 years from the date such calculations were reported to CMS with respect to a given contract year.
(2) Part D sponsors must require any third party vendor supplying drug cost contracting and claim adjudication services to the Part D sponsors to provide all underlying data associated with MLR reporting to that Part D sponsor in a timely manner, when requested by the Part D sponsor, regardless of current contractual limitations, in order to validate the accuracy of MLR reporting.
(d) Data submitted under § 423.2460, calculations, or any other MLR submission required by this subpart found to be materially incorrect or fraudulent—
(1) Are noted by CMS;
(2) Appropriate remittance amounts are recouped by CMS; and
(3) Sanctions may be imposed by CMS as provided in § 423.752.
[78 FR 31310, May 23, 2013, as amended at 83 FR 16756, Apr. 16, 2018]
§ 423.2490 Release of Part D MLR data.
(a) Terminology. Subject to the exclusions in paragraph (b) of this section, Part D MLR data consists of the information submitted under § 423.2460.
(b) Exclusions from Part D MLR data. For the purpose of this section, the following items are excluded from Part D MLR data:
(1) Narrative descriptions that Part D sponsors submit to support the information reported to CMS pursuant to the reporting requirements at § 423.2460, such as descriptions of expense allocation methods.
(2) Information that is reported at the plan level, such as the number of member months associated with each plan under a contract, including information submitted for a contract consisting of only one plan.
(3) Any information that could be used to identify Medicare beneficiaries or other individuals.
(4) MLR review correspondence.
(5) Any information for a contract for those contract years for which the contract is determined to be non-credible, as defined in accordance with § 423.2440(d).
(c) Data release. CMS releases to the public Part D MLR data, for each contract for each contract year, no earlier than 18 months after the end of the applicable contract year
[81 FR 80558, Nov. 15, 2016, as amended at 83 FR 16756, Apr. 16, 2018]
Subpart Y Transitional Coverage and Retroactive Medicare Part D Coverage for Certain Low-Income Beneficiaries Through the Limited Income Newly Eligible Transition (LI NET) Program
Source: 88 FR 22342, Apr. 12, 2023, unless otherwise noted.
§ 423.2500 Basis and scope.
(a) Basis. This subpart is based on section 1860D-14 of the Social Security Act.
(b) Scope. This subpart sets forth the requirements for the Limited Income Newly Eligible Transition (LI NET) program that begins no later than January 1, 2024. Under this program, eligible individuals are provided transitional coverage for Part D drugs.
§ 423.2504 LI NET eligibility and enrollment.
(a) Eligibility. An individual is eligible for LI NET coverage if they satisfy the criteria at paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section.
(1) LIS-eligible. The individual is a low-income subsidy eligible individual as defined at § 423.773 and—
(i) Has not yet enrolled in a prescription drug plan or an MA-PD plan; or
(ii) Has enrolled in a prescription drug plan or MA-PD plan but their coverage has not yet taken effect.
(2) Immediate need individuals. An individual who states their eligibility for LIS and immediate need for their prescription, but whose eligibility as defined at § 423.773 cannot be confirmed at the point-of-sale, will be granted immediate need LI NET coverage.
(3) Documentation of LIS eligibility. Individuals may provide documentation to the LI NET sponsor to demonstrate LIS eligibility. Documentation may include, but is not limited to:
(i) A copy of the beneficiary's Medicaid card that includes their name and the eligibility date;
(ii) A copy of a letter from the State or SSA showing LIS or “Extra Help” status;
(iii) The date that a verification call was made to the State Medicaid Agency, the name and telephone number of the State staff person who verified the Medicaid period, and the Medicaid eligibility dates confirmed on the call;
(iv) A copy of a State document that confirms active Medicaid status;
(v) A screen-print from the State's Medicaid systems showing Medicaid status; or
(vi) Evidence at point-of-sale of recent Medicaid billing and payment in the pharmacy's patient profile.
(4) Confirmation of LIS eligibility. CMS uses documentation submitted under paragraph (a)(3) of this section to confirm LIS eligibility.
(5) Inability to confirmation of eligibility. If CMS cannot confirm an immediate need individual's eligibility during the period of LI NET coverage, the individual will not be auto-enrolled into a standalone Part D plan in accordance with § 423.34(d) following their LI NET coverage.
(b) Enrollment. Individuals who are eligible for LI NET as defined in § 423.2504 are enrolled into the LI NET program as follows:
(1) Automatic enrollment. Beneficiaries who are LIS-eligible and whose auto-enrollment into a Part D plan (as outlined in § 423.34(d)(1)) has not taken effect will be automatically enrolled by CMS into the LI NET program unless the beneficiary has affirmatively declined enrollment in Part D per § 423.34(e);
(2) Point-of-sale enrollment. An individual who is not automatically enrolled in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section and whose claim is submitted at the point-of-sale and accepted by the LI NET sponsor will be enrolled into the LI NET program by the LI NET sponsor; or
(3) Direct reimbursement request. An individual described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section who is not automatically enrolled in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) or at the point-of-sale as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section and who submits a direct reimbursement request form, receipts for reimbursement for eligible claims paid out of pocket (with and optional documentation of LIS eligibility listed in paragraph (a)(3) of this section), will be retroactively enrolled into the LI NET program by the LI NET sponsor. The LI NET sponsor has 14 calendar days to reply with a coverage decision; or
(4) LI NET application form. An individual who is not enrolled through one of the methods in paragraphs (b)(1) though (3) of this section may submit an LI NET application form to the LI NET sponsor (with optional documentation of LIS eligibility listed in paragraph (a)(3) of this section). If no documentation is submitted and accepted, the LI NET sponsor will periodically check for eligibility and enroll applicants once LIS eligibility is confirmed.
(c) Duration of LI NET enrollment. (1) Enrollment begins on the first day of the month an individual is identified as eligible under this section and ends after 2 months, with a longer LI NET enrollment for those with retroactive coverage per paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
(2) Retroactive LI NET coverage begins on the date an individual is identified as eligible for a low-income subsidy as a full-benefit dual eligible or an SSI benefit recipient, or 36 months prior to the date such individual enrolls in (or opts out of) Part D coverage, whichever is later. LI NET coverage ends with enrollment into a Part D plan or opting out of Part D coverage.
(d) Ending LI NET enrollment. An individual's enrollment in the LI NET program ends when:
(1) The individual is auto-enrolled into a standalone Part D plan in accordance with the guidelines at § 423.34(d) and that coverage has taken effect.
(2) The individual elects another Part D plan and that coverage has taken effect.
(3) The individual voluntarily disenrolls from the LI NET program.
(4) The individual is involuntarily disenrolled under § 423.44(b).
(5) LIS eligibility for an individual in LI NET due to an immediate need cannot be confirmed within the period of LI NET coverage.
§ 423.2508 LI NET benefits and beneficiary protections.
(a) Formulary. The LI NET program provides access to all Part D drugs under an open formulary.
(b) Network. The LI NET sponsor must allow its network and out-of-network pharmacies that are in good standing to process claims under the program. Licensed pharmacies are considered to be in good standing for the LI NET program so long as they: are not revoked from Medicare under § 424.535; do not appear on the Office of Inspector General's list of entities excluded from Federally funded health care programs pursuant to section 1128 of the Act or from Medicare and State health care programs under section 1156 of the Act (unless waived by the OIG); do not appear on the preclusion list as defined at § 423.100; and do not have a determination by the LI NET sponsor of a credible allegation of fraud as defined at § 423.4.
(c) Safety. The following provisions necessary to improve patient safety and ensure appropriate dispensing of medication apply to the LI NET program and LI NET sponsor, as applicable:
(1) Sections 423.153(b) and (c) for dispensing and point-of-sale safety edits;
(2) Section 423.154 for appropriate dispensing of prescription drugs in long-term care facilities;
(3) Sections 423.159 and 423.160 for electronic prescribing, excepting the requirements pertaining to formulary standards in § 423.160(b)(5);
(4) Section 423.162 for QIO activities; and
(5) Section 423.165 for compliance deemed on the basis of accreditation.
(d) Cost sharing. (1) LI NET beneficiaries under § 423.2504(a)(1) will pay the applicable cost sharing for their low-income category as established for each year in the Rate Announcement publication specified in § 422.312 of this chapter.
(2) LI NET beneficiaries under § 423.2504(a)(2) will pay the cost sharing associated with the category of non-institutionalized full-benefit dual eligible individuals with incomes above 100% of the Federal poverty level and full-subsidy-non-FBDE individuals. If the beneficiary is later confirmed to belong to a different LIS category, the LI NET sponsor must reimburse the beneficiary for the difference between the cost sharing they paid versus what they would have paid in their LIS category.
(e) Appeals. LI NET enrollees have rights with respect to Part D grievances, coverage determinations, and appeals processes set out in subpart M of this part.
§ 423.2512 LI NET sponsor requirements.
The LI NET program is administered by one or more Part D sponsor(s) that meet all of the requirements in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section.
(a) Pharmacies and access to Part D drugs. (1) The LI NET sponsor must be a PDP sponsor that has an established contracted pharmacy network in all geographic areas of the United States in which low-income subsidies are available.
(2) The LI NET sponsor must meet the requirements for providing access to Part D drugs under § 423.120(a), (c), and (d).
(b) Experience. The LI NET sponsor must have a minimum of two consecutive years contracting with CMS as a Part D sponsor.
(c) Other LI NET sponsor requirements. The LI NET sponsor must:
(1) Have the technical capability and the infrastructure to provide immediate, current, and retroactive coverage for LI NET enrollees;
(2) Have the technical capability to develop the infrastructure necessary for verifying Medicaid dual eligibility status for presumed eligible LI NET enrollees.
(3) Identify, develop, and conduct outreach plans in consultation with CMS targeting key stakeholders to inform them about the LI NET program.
(4) Establish and manage a toll-free customer call center per § 423.128(d)(1) and fax line that can be accessed by pharmacy providers and beneficiaries, or others acting on their behalf, for purposes that include but are not limited to: handling inquiries about services under the LI NET program, providing the status of eligibility or claims, and having the ability to accept supporting documentation.
(5) Timely respond to beneficiary requests for reimbursement of claims by issuing reimbursement for eligible claims submitted by beneficiaries no later than 30 days after receipt, or, if the drug is not covered, the LI NET sponsor has 14 days to send communication to the beneficiary with a reason for the denial.
(6) Adjudicate claims from out-of-network pharmacies that are in good standing (as defined in § 423.2508(b)) according to the LI NET sponsor's standard reimbursement for their network pharmacies.
§ 423.2516 Selection of LI NET sponsor and contracting provisions.
(a) Appointment by CMS. CMS appoints a Part D sponsor that meets the requirements at § 423.2512 to serve as the LI NET sponsor.
(b) Selection criteria. In appointing a LI NET sponsor, CMS evaluates the following:
(1) Experience covering low-income beneficiaries, including but not limited to enrolling and providing coverage to low-income subsidy individuals as defined in § 423.34;
(2) Pharmacy access as outlined in § 423.120;
(3) Past performance, including Star Ratings (as detailed in § 423.186), previous intermediate sanctions (as detailed in § 423.750), and consistent with past performance in § 423.503(b); and
(4) Ability to meet the requirements listed in § 423.505 that are not waived under § 423.2536.
(c) Term of appointment. The term of the appointment will be ongoing provided mutual agreement between CMS and the selected party, subject to an annual contracting and bid process (per § 423.2524(b)) to determine payment rates for the upcoming year.
§ 423.2518 Intermediate sanctions for the LI NET sponsor.
In the event it is determined that the LI NET sponsor violated its contract, CMS may impose intermediate sanctions as outlined in subpart O of this part.
§ 423.2520 Non-renewal or termination of appointment.
(a) Notice of non-renewal. If the LI NET sponsor decides for any reason to non-renew its existing contract, it must notify CMS by January 1 of the year before the next contract year. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, if CMS decides for any reason to non-renew the existing contract with the incumbent LI NET sponsor, CMS notifies the LI NET sponsor by January 1 of the year before the next contract year.
(b) Selection of successor and transition period. After a notice of non-renewal or termination, CMS selects a successor for the LI NET contract from among potentially eligible entities (as detailed in § 423.2516). The outgoing LI NET sponsor must coordinate with the successor for a period of no less than 3 months to ensure seamless transition of the LI NET program, including timely transfer of any data or files.
(c) Immediate termination for cause. (1) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, CMS may immediately terminate the existing LI NET contract for any of the reasons specified at § 423.509(a)(4)(i) and (xii) or § (b)(2)(i)(A) and (B).
(2) CMS sends notice of an immediate termination as specified at § 423.509(b)(2)(ii).
(d) Appeal rights. Subpart N of this part applies to a termination under paragraph (c) of this section.
§ 423.2524 Bidding and payments to LI NET sponsor.
(a) Source of payments. CMS payments under this section are made from the Medicare Prescription Drug Account.
(b) Submission of bids and related information. (1) The submission of LI NET bids and related information must follow the requirements and limitations in § 423.265(b), (c), (d)(1), (d)(2)(i), (ii), (iv), and (v), (d)(4) and (6), and (e).
(2) The review, negotiation, and approval of the LI NET bid would follow the provisions in § 423.272(a) and (b)(1) and (4).
(3) Basic rule for bid. The bid must reflect the LI NET sponsor's estimate of its revenue needs for Payment Rates A and B per paragraph (c) of this section.
(c) Monthly payments. CMS provides advance monthly LI NET payments equal to the sum of Payment Rates A and B as established in the LI NET sponsor's approved bid, as outlined in paragraph (b) of this section. LI NET payments are made on a prospective per-member, per-month basis.
(1) Payment Rate A is an annual rate of payment for projected administrative costs. An annual percentage-based cap on Payment Rate A limiting the year over year increase to Payment Rate A is set as part of the bid review and negotiation under § 423.272(a).
(i) For the 2024 plan year, the LI NET sponsor includes in its bid the assumption that Payment Rate A cannot exceed a 2% increase from the prior year's Payment A, which is a figure CMS will provide to the LI NET sponsor.
(ii) For the 2025 plan year and subsequent plan years, the LI NET sponsor will specify its assumption for any increase needed to the prior year's Payment Rate A, submitting justification to CMS in their bid if the cap exceeds 2%.
(2) Payment Rate B reflects the projected net costs of the Part D drugs dispensed to individuals who receive the LI NET benefit.
(d) Payment reconciliation and risk corridors—(1) Reconciliation. CMS conducts LI NET payment reconciliation each year for Payment Rates A and B after the annual PDE data submission deadline has passed and makes the resulting payment adjustment consistent with § 423.343(a).
(2) Risk corridors. As part of LI NET payment reconciliation, CMS will apply risk corridors to Payment Rate B as follows:
(i) There will be no risk sharing in the symmetrical 1% risk corridor around the target amount as defined in § 423.308.
(ii) There will be symmetrical risk sharing of 0.1% beyond the 1% risk corridor.
(iii) To carry out this section, § 423.336(c) applies to LI NET.
(e) Reopening. The LI NET contract will be subject to payment reopenings per § 423.346 as applicable.
(f) Payment appeals. The LI NET sponsor can appeal under § 423.350.
(g) Overpayments. The overpayment provisions at §§ 423.352 and 423.360 apply to LI NET.
§ 423.2536 Waiver of Part D program requirements.
CMS waives the following Part D program requirements for the LI NET program:
(a) General information. Paragraphs (1) and (3)(B) of section 1860D-4(a) of the Act (relating to dissemination of general information; availability of information on changes in formulary through the internet).
(b) Formularies. Subparagraphs (A) and (B) of section 1860D-4(b)(3) of the Act (relating to requirements on development and application of formularies; formulary development) and formulary requirements in §§ 423.120(b) and 423.128(e)(5) and (6).
(c) Medicare Prescription Payment Plan. Section 423.137.
(d) Cost control and quality improvement requirements. Provisions under subpart D of this part, including requirements about medication therapy management, are waived except for the provisions in § 423.2508(c)(1) through (5).
(1) Section 423.153(b) and (c) for dispensing and point-of-sale safety edits;
(2) Section 423.154 for appropriate dispensing of prescription drugs in long-term care facilities;
(3) Sections 423.159 and 423.160 for electronic prescribing, excepting the requirements pertaining to formulary standards in § 423.160(b)(5);
(4) Section 423.162 for QIO activities; and
(5) Section 423.165 for compliance deemed on the basis of accreditation.
(e) Out-of-network access. Section 423.124 Special rules for out-of-network access to Part D drugs at out-of-network pharmacies, except for § 423.124(a)(2), which applies to LI NET.
(f) Medicare contract determinations and appeals. Subpart N, except for the provisions that apply to LI NET in § 423.2520(d).
(g) Risk-sharing arrangements. Section 423.336(a), (b), and (d).
(h) Certification of accuracy of data for price comparison. Section 423.505(k)(6).
(i) Part D communication requirements. Portions of subpart V of this part related to Part D communication requirements that are inapplicable to LI NET, including:
(1) Section 423.2265(b)(4), (5), (11), (13), and (16);
(2) Section 423.2265(c);
(3) Section 423.2266(a);
(4) Section 423.2267(e)(3) through (5), (9) through (12), (14) through (17), (25), (29), (33), and (45) through (51); and
(5) Section 423.2274.
(j) Medicare Coverage Gap Discount Program. Subpart W of this part.
(k) Requirements for a minimum medical loss ratio. Subpart X of this part.
(l) Recovery audit contractor Part C appeals process. Subpart Z of this part.
(m) Provision of specific information. Section 423.128(d)(1)(i)(A).
[88 FR 22342, Apr. 12, 2023; 88 FR 34780, May 31, 2023; 90 FR 15920, Apr. 15, 2025; 91 FR 17593, Apr. 6, 2026]
Subpart Z Appeals Process for Part D Program Integrity Prescription Drug Event Record Review Audits
Source: 79 FR 29967, May 23, 2014, unless otherwise noted.
§ 423.2600 Payment appeals.
Medicare Part D plan sponsors may appeal program integrity prescription drug event record review audit determinations.
(a) Issues eligible for appeal. (1) CMS's application of Part D policy(ies).
(2) Factual or data errors.
(b) Issues ineligible for appeal. (1) The Part D plan sponsor's failure to submit documentation in the timeframes specified by CMS during the audit.
(2) The program integrity prescription drug event record review audit methodology.
[91 FR 17594, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.2605 Request for reconsideration.
(a) Time for filing a request. The request for reconsideration must be filed with the designated independent reviewer within 60 calendar days from the date of the close out letter received by the Part D plan sponsor.
(b) Content of request. (1) The request for reconsideration must be in writing and specify the findings or issues with which the Part D plan sponsor disagrees.
(2) The Part D plan sponsor must include with its request all supporting documentary evidence it wishes the independent reviewer to consider.
(i) This material must be submitted in the format requested by CMS.
(ii) Documentation, evidence, or substantiation submitted after the filing of the reconsideration request will not be considered.
(c) CMS Rebuttal. CMS may file a rebuttal to the Part D plan sponsor's reconsideration request.
(1) The rebuttal must be submitted within 30 calendar days of the review entity's notification to CMS that it has received the Part D plan sponsor's reconsideration request.
(2) CMS sends its rebuttal to the Part D plan sponsor at the same time it is submitted to the independent reviewer.
(d) Review entity. An independent reviewer conducts the reconsideration. The independent reviewer reviews the demand for repayment, the evidence and findings upon which it was based, and any evidence that the Part D plan sponsor or CMS submitted in accordance with this section.
(e) Notification of decision. The independent reviewer decides the reconsideration within 60 calendar days after the timeframe for filing a rebuttal has expired, and sends a written decision to the Part D plan sponsor and CMS, explaining the basis for the decision.
(f) Effect of decision. A reconsideration decision is final and binding unless the Part D plan sponsor requests a hearing official review in accordance with § 423.2610.
(g) Right to hearing official review. A Part D plan sponsor that is dissatisfied with the independent reviewer's reconsideration decision is entitled to a hearing official review as provided in § 423.2610.
[79 FR 29967, May 23, 2014, as amended at 91 FR 17594, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.2610 Hearing official review.
(a) Time for filing a request. A Part D plan sponsor must file with CMS a request for a hearing official review within 30 calendar days from the date of the independent reviewer's issuance of a determination.
(b) Content of the request. (1) The request must be in writing and must provide evidence or reasons or both to substantiate the request.
(2) The Part D plan sponsor must submit with its request all supporting documentation, evidence, and substantiation that it wants to be considered.
(3) No new evidence may be submitted.
(4) Documentation, evidence, or substantiation submitted after the filing of the request will not be considered.
(c) CMS rebuttal. CMS may file a rebuttal to the Part D plan sponsor's hearing official review request.
(1) The rebuttal must be submitted within 30 calendar days of the Part D plan sponsor's submission of its hearing official review request.
(2) CMS sends its rebuttal to the Part D plan sponsor at the same time it is submitted to the hearing official.
(d) Conducting a review. A CMS-designated hearing official conducts the hearing on the record.
(1) The hearing is not to be conducted live or via telephone unless the hearing official, in his or her sole discretion, requests a live or telephonic hearing.
(2) In all cases, the hearing official's review is limited to information that meets one or more of the following:
(i) The CMS used in making its determinations.
(ii) The independent reviewer used in making its determinations.
(iii) The Part D plan sponsor submits with its hearing request.
(iv) CMS submits in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
(3) Neither the Part D plan sponsor nor CMS is permitted to submit new evidence.
(e) Hearing official decision. The CMS hearing official decides the case within 60 calendar days after the timeframe for filing a rebuttal has expired and sends a written decision to the Part D plan sponsor and CMS, explaining the basis for the decision.
(f) Effect of hearing official decision. The hearing official's decision is final and binding, unless the decision is reversed or modified by the CMS Administrator in accordance with § 423.2615.
[79 FR 29967, May 23, 2014, as amended at 91 FR 17594, Apr. 6, 2026]
§ 423.2615 Review by the Administrator.
(a) Request for review by Administrator. If a Part D plan sponsor is dissatisfied with the hearing official's decision, it may request that the CMS Administrator review the decision.
(1) The request must be filed with the CMS Administrator within 30 calendar days of the date of the hearing official's decision.
(2) The request must provide evidence or reasons to substantiate the request.
(b) Content of request. The Part D plan sponsor must submit with its request all supporting documentation, evidence, and substantiation that it wants to be considered.
(1) Documentation, evidence, or substantiation submitted after the filing of the request will not be considered.
(2) Neither the Part D plan sponsor nor CMS is permitted to submit new evidence.
(c) Discretionary review. After receiving a request for review, the CMS Administrator has the discretion to review the hearing official's decision in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section or to decline to review said decision.
(d) Notification of decision whether to review. The CMS Administrator notifies the Part D plan sponsor within 30 calendar days of receiving the Part D plan sponsor's hearing request of whether he or she intends to review the hearing official's decision. If the Administrator agrees to review the hearing official's decision, CMS may file a rebuttal statement within 30 days of the Administrator's notice to the plan sponsor that the request for review has been accepted. CMS sends its rebuttal statement to the plan sponsor at the same time it is submitted to the Administrator. If the CMS Administrator declines to review the hearing official's decision, the hearing official's decision is final and binding.
(e) Administrator Review. If the CMS Administrator agrees to review the hearing official's decision, he or she determines, after reviewing the hearing record, and any arguments submitted by the Part D plan sponsor or CMS in accordance with this section, whether the determination should be upheld, reversed, or modified. The CMS Administrator furnishes a written decision, which is final and binding, to the Part D plan sponsor and to CMS within 45 calendar days after the timeframe for filing a rebuttal has expired.
[79 FR 29967, May 23, 2014, as amended at 91 FR 17594, Apr. 6, 2026]
Subpart AA Medicare Part D Manufacturer Discount Program
Source: 91 FR 17594, Apr. 6, 2026, unless otherwise noted.
§ 423.2700 Basis and scope.
(a) Basis. This subpart implements section 1860D-14C of the Act and provisions included in section 1860D-43 of the Act.
(b) Scope. This subpart sets forth the requirements of the Medicare Part D Manufacturer Discount Program, which requires manufacturers to pay discounts for brand-name drugs and biological products when dispensed to Part D enrollees in the initial and catastrophic coverage phases of the Part D benefit, under the terms of an agreement with CMS, in order for such drugs to be coverable under Part D.
§ 423.2704 Definitions.
As used in this subpart and for purposes of the Manufacturer Discount Program, unless otherwise specified—
Agreement holder means a manufacturer that has executed and has in effect its own Manufacturer Discount Program agreement in accordance with § 423.2708(b)(1).
Applicable discount has the meaning set forth at § 423.2712.
Applicable LIS percent has the meaning set forth at § 423.2712(d)(1).
Applicable small manufacturer percent has the meaning set forth at § 423.2712(d)(2).
Covered Part D drug has the meaning set forth at § 423.100.
Dispute submission deadline means the date that is 60 calendar days from the date of the invoice containing the information that is the subject of the agreement holder's dispute.
Negotiated price has the meaning set forth at § 423.100, and with respect to an applicable drug under the Manufacturer Discount Program, such negotiated price includes any dispensing fee and, if applicable, any vaccine administration fee and sales tax.
Network pharmacy has the meaning set forth at § 423.100.
Part D drug has the meaning set forth at § 423.100.
Primary manufacturer has the meaning given such term pursuant to applicable regulations and guidance for the Medicare Drug Price Negotiation Program.
Specified drug means, with respect to a specified manufacturer, for 2021, an applicable drug that is produced, prepared, propagated, compounded, converted, or processed by the specified manufacturer.
Specified small manufacturer drug means, with respect to a specified small manufacturer, for 2021, an applicable drug that is produced, prepared, propagated, compounded, converted, or processed by the specified small manufacturer.
Total expenditures means with respect to—
(1) Part D, the total gross covered prescription drug costs, as defined in § 423.308; and
(2) Part B, the total Medicare allowed amount (i.e., total allowed charges), inclusive of beneficiary cost sharing, for Part B drugs and biologicals, except that expenditures for a drug or biological that are bundled or packaged into the payment for another service are excluded.
§ 423.2708 Conditions for coverage of drugs under Part D.
(a) General rule. Except as specified in paragraph (c) of this section, in order for coverage to be available under Part D for a Part D drug of a manufacturer that is an applicable drug or a selected drug during a price applicability period—
(1) The FDA-assigned labeler code of such applicable drug or selected drug must be covered by a Manufacturer Discount Program agreement (described at § 423.2752) that is in effect;
(2) The manufacturer must participate in the Manufacturer Discount Program in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section; and
(3) The manufacturer must have entered into and have in effect a Manufacturer Discount Program agreement in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) Participation in the Manufacturer Discount Program. A manufacturer is considered to participate in the Manufacturer Discount Program and to have entered into and have in effect a Manufacturer Discount Program agreement for the purposes of paragraph (a) of this section if the manufacturer does either of the following:
(1) Executes and has in effect its own Manufacturer Discount Program agreement.
(2) Participates in the Manufacturer Discount Program by means of an arrangement whereby its labeler code(s) is covered by another manufacturer's Manufacturer Discount Program agreement that is in effect.
(c) Exception. Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to an applicable drug that is not covered by a Manufacturer Discount Program agreement if CMS has made a determination that the availability of the drug is essential to the health of Part D enrollees. This exception to the general rule in paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to any applicable drug or selected drug of a manufacturer for any period described in section 5000D(c)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 with respect to such manufacturer.
(d) Non-applicable drugs. Coverage under Part D is available for non-applicable drugs (as defined at § 423.100) of a manufacturer regardless of whether the manufacturer participates in the Manufacturer Discount Program or has a Manufacturer Discount Program agreement in effect.
§ 423.2712 Applicable discounts.
(a) Defined. For purposes of the Manufacturer Discount Program, applicable discount means, subject to the requirements of this section, with respect to an applicable drug of a manufacturer dispensed during a year to an applicable beneficiary who has—
(1) Not incurred costs, as defined at § 423.100, for covered Part D drugs (as defined at § 423.100) in the year that are equal to or exceed the annual out-of-pocket threshold specified at § 423.104(d)(5)(iii) for the year, 10 percent of the negotiated price of such drug; and
(2) Incurred costs, as defined in § 423.100, for covered Part D drugs (as defined at § 423.100) in the year that are equal to or exceed the annual out-of-pocket threshold specified at § 423.104(d)(5)(iii) for the year, 20 percent of the negotiated price of such drug.
(b) Application of supplemental benefits. For Part D plans offering supplemental benefits (as defined in § 423.100), the value of any applicable discount under the Manufacturer Discount Program is calculated before the application of supplemental benefits.
(c) Application of other coverage. The applicable discount is calculated before any coverage or financial assistance under another health or prescription drug benefit plan or program that provides prescription drug coverage or financial assistance.
(d) Application of discount phase-in for specified manufacturers and specified small manufacturers—(1) Applicable LIS percent. For an applicable drug of a specified manufacturer (as described at § 423.2716(a)) that is marketed as of August 16, 2022 (as described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section) and dispensed for an applicable beneficiary who is a subsidy eligible individual (as defined in section 1860D-14(a)(3) of the Act), the applicable discount is as follows:
(i) For the individual who has not incurred costs equal to or exceeding the annual out-of-pocket threshold for the year—
(A) For 2025, 1 percent;
(B) For 2026, 2 percent;
(C) For 2027, 5 percent;
(D) For 2028, 8 percent; and
(E) For 2029 and each subsequent year, 10 percent.
(ii) For the individual who has incurred costs equal to or exceeding the annual out-of-pocket threshold for the year—
(A) For 2025, 1 percent;
(B) For 2026, 2 percent;
(C) For 2027, 5 percent;
(D) For 2028, 8 percent;
(E) For 2029, 10 percent;
(F) For 2030, 15 percent; and
(G) For 2031 and each subsequent year, 20 percent.
(2) Applicable small manufacturer percent. For an applicable drug of a specified small manufacturer (as described at § 423.2716(b)) that is marketed as of August 16, 2022 (as described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section) and dispensed for an applicable beneficiary, the applicable discount is as follows:
(i) For the individual who has not incurred costs equal to or exceeding the annual out-of-pocket threshold for the year—
(A) For 2025, 1 percent;
(B) For 2026, 2 percent;
(C) For 2027, 5 percent;
(D) For 2028, 8 percent; and
(E) For 2029 and each subsequent year, 10 percent.
(ii) For the individual who has incurred costs equal to or exceeding the annual out-of-pocket threshold for the year—
(A) For 2025, 1 percent;
(B) For 2026, 2 percent;
(C) For 2027, 5 percent;
(D) For 2028, 8 percent;
(E) For 2029, 10 percent;
(F) For 2030, 15 percent; and
(G) For 2031 and each subsequent year, 20 percent.
(3) An applicable drug of a specified manufacturer or a specified small manufacturer, as applicable, is considered to have been marketed as of August 16, 2022 if the applicable drug had Part D expenditures on or before August 16, 2022, and did not have a marketing end date on the FDA NDC SPL Data Elements File before August 17, 2022.
(e) Straddle claims. In the case of a claim for an applicable drug for an applicable beneficiary that straddles multiple phases of the Part D benefit for claims that do not fall entirely—
(1) Above the annual deductible specified at § 423.104(d)(1), the manufacturer provides the applicable discount on only the portion of the negotiated price that falls above the deductible; and
(2) Below or entirely above the annual out-of-pocket threshold specified at § 423.104(d)(5)(iii), the manufacturer provides the applicable discount on each portion of the negotiated price in accordance with this section based on the benefit phase into which each portion of the negotiated price falls.
(f) Claims not subject to discount. The following claims involving an applicable drug are not subject to discounts under the Manufacturer Discount Program:
(1) Medicare Secondary Payer claims.
(2) Medicaid Subrogation claims.
(3) Non-standard format coordination of benefits claims.
(4) Manual claims with a service provider identification qualifier of “Other”.
(g) Impact of applicable discount on enrollee cost sharing. (1) Except as specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, the applicable discount does not affect the application of the standard 25 percent coinsurance under § 423.104(d)(2) or the application of the copayment amount under § 423.104(d)(5).
(2) If, after the applicable discount is applied to the negotiated price of an applicable drug, the enrollee cost sharing specified under the plan would exceed such negotiated price minus the applicable discount, the enrollee cost sharing is the negotiated price minus the applicable discount.
§ 423.2716 Phase-in of applicable discount for certain manufacturers.
(a) Specified manufacturer. Subject to the limitation with respect to manufacturer acquisitions described at § 423.2724, a specified manufacturer is a manufacturer of an applicable drug that, in 2021, had—
(1) A Coverage Gap Discount Program agreement, as described at § 423.2315, in effect in accordance with § 423.2720(a)(1);
(2) Total expenditures for all of its specified drugs (as defined in § 423.2704) covered by a Coverage Gap Discount Program agreement for 2021 and covered under Part D in 2021 represented less than 1.0 percent of total expenditures for all Part D drugs in 2021; and
(3) Total expenditures for all of its specified drugs that are single source drugs and biological products for which payment may be made under Part B in 2021 represented less than 1.0 percent of the total expenditures under Part B for all drugs or biological products in 2021.
(b) Specified small manufacturer. Subject to the limitation with respect to manufacturer acquisition described at § 423.2724, a specified small manufacturer is a manufacturer of an applicable drug that, in 2021—
(1) Is a specified manufacturer as described in paragraph (a) of this section; and
(2) The total expenditures under Part D for any one of its specified small manufacturer drugs covered under a Coverage Gap Discount Program agreement for 2021 and covered under Part D in 2021 are equal to or greater than 80 percent of the total expenditures for all its specified small manufacturer drugs covered under Part D in 2021.
(c) Aggregation rule. All entities, including corporations, partnerships, proprietorships, and other entities treated as a single employer under subsection (a) or (b) of section 52 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 are treated as one manufacturer for purposes of this section.
§ 423.2720 Determination of phase-in eligibility.
For each manufacturer with one or more FDA-assigned labeler codes covered by a Manufacturer Discount Program agreement, CMS will determine whether the manufacturer is a specified manufacturer or a specified small manufacturer when the manufacturer executes a Manufacturer Discount Program agreement, or, in the case of a manufacturer whose FDA-assigned labeler code(s) is covered by another manufacturer's Manufacturer Discount Program agreement, when such labeler code(s) is first added to such agreement. In applying the aggregation rule at § 423.2716(c), CMS will attribute expenditures for a drug to a manufacturer based on the NDC(s) for the drug, as reported on PDE records. Specifically, CMS will match the labeler code extracted from the first 5 digits of each NDC to the manufacturer to whom the labeler code is assigned by the FDA.
(a) Identification of specified manufacturers. (1) A manufacturer is considered to have had a Coverage Gap Discount Program agreement in 2021, as specified at § 423.2716(a)(1), if the manufacturer—
(i) Had a Coverage Gap Discount Program agreement in effect during 2021; or
(ii) Participated in the Coverage Gap Discount Program in 2021 by means of an arrangement whereby its labeler code(s) was covered by another manufacturer's Coverage Gap Discount Program agreement in effect during 2021.
(2) Part D total expenditures. In calculating the Part D total expenditures for 2021, CMS will include the total expenditures, as defined at § 423.2704, reported on all final action, non-delete PDE records submitted as of June 30, 2022 for all Part D drugs with dates of dispensing in benefit year 2021.
(i) For purposes of calculating each manufacturer's Part D total expenditures for applicable drugs and percent share of Part D total expenditures for 2021, CMS will—
(A) Identify the relevant NDCs attributable to the manufacturer as reported on the PDE record based on the manufacturer's FDA-assigned labeler code extracted from the first 5 digits of each NDC;
(B) Calculate the Part D total expenditures for applicable drugs of the manufacturer by summing the 2021 Part D total expenditures for all relevant NDCs attributable to the manufacturer; and
(C) Divide the 2021 Part D total expenditures for all applicable drugs of the manufacturer by the 2021 Part D total expenditures for all Part D drugs, then multiply by 100 to calculate the manufacturer's percent share.
(ii) If the manufacturer's Part D total expenditures for its applicable drugs are less than 1.0 percent of the 2021 Part D total expenditures, CMS will consider the manufacturer to have satisfied the Part D total expenditure criterion for specified manufacturer phase-in eligibility, specified at § 423.2716(a)(2).
(3) Part B total expenditures. In calculating the Part B total expenditures for all drugs and biological products for 2021, CMS will include all Part B Carrier, durable medical equipment (DME), and Outpatient Medicare Part B Fee-for-Service claim line items with a drug- or biological product-related Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) code submitted as of December 31, 2022.
(i) For purposes of calculating each manufacturer's Part B total expenditures for applicable drugs that are single source drugs and biological products and each manufacturer's percent share of Part B total expenditures for 2021, CMS will—
(A) Map all identified HCPCS codes to NDCs;
(B) Identify all mapped HCPCS codes in paragraph (a)(3)(i)(A) of this section that map to NDCs associated with single source drugs or biological products;
(C) Identify all mapped HCPCS codes identified in paragraph (a)(3)(i)(B) of this section that map only to NDCs associated with single source drugs or biological products of the same manufacturer, consistent with the aggregation rule at § 423.2716(c), based on the manufacturer's FDA-assigned labeler code(s) extracted from the first 5 digits of each NDC;
(D) Attribute 2021 Part B total expenditures for all applicable drugs that are single source drugs or biological products identified in paragraph (a)(3)(i)(C) of this section to each manufacturer, consistent with the aggregation rule at § 423.2716(c), based on the manufacturer's FDA-assigned labeler code(s) extracted from the first 5 digits of each NDC; and
(E) Divide the 2021 Part B total expenditures attributed to each manufacturer in paragraph (a)(3)(i)(D) of this section by the 2021 Part B total expenditures for all drugs and biological products, then multiply by 100 to calculate the manufacturer's percent share.
(ii) If the manufacturer's Part B total expenditures for its applicable drugs that are single source drugs and biologicals are less than 1.0 percent of the 2021 Part B total expenditures, CMS will consider the manufacturer to have satisfied the Part B total expenditure criterion for specified manufacturer phase-in eligibility, specified at § 423.2716(a)(3).
(b) Identification of specified small manufacturers. (1) For each specified manufacturer identified in paragraph (a) of this section, CMS will determine if the 2021 total expenditures under Part D for any one of the manufacturer's specified drugs covered under a Coverage Gap Discount Program agreement for 2021, and covered under Part D in 2021, are equal to or greater than 80 percent of the total expenditures for all of its specified drugs covered under Part D in 2021, as required under § 423.2716(b)(2), as follows.
(i) Identification of specified small manufacturer drugs. (A) For purposes of this section, one specified small manufacturer drug includes—
(1) For drug products, all dosage forms and strengths of a drug with the same active moiety and the same holder of the new drug application (NDA), as described in section 505(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, inclusive of products that are marketed under different NDAs.
(2) For biological products, all dosage forms and strengths of the biological product with the same active ingredient and the same holder of the biologics license application (BLA), as described in section 351(a) of the Public Health Service Act, inclusive of products that are marketed under different BLAs.
(B) CMS will identify the holder of the NDA or BLA as reported in Drugs@FDA or the FDA Purple Book, respectively.
(C) If a drug is a fixed combination drug, as described in 21 CFR 300.50, with two or more active ingredients or active moieties, the distinct combination of active ingredients or active moieties will be considered one active ingredient or active moiety for the purpose of identifying a specified small manufacturer drug.
(D) CMS will attribute 2021 Part D total expenditures for one specified small manufacturer drug, including authorized generic drugs and repackaged and relabeled drugs, as applicable, to a specified manufacturer based on the NDC(s) for the drug, as reported on PDE records, by matching the labeler code extracted from the first 5 digits of each NDC to the manufacturer to whom the labeler code is assigned by the FDA.
(ii) Calculation of Part D total expenditures for each drug for 2021. CMS will calculate the Part D total expenditures for each drug, aggregated in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, attributable to the manufacturer by summing the Part D total expenditures for all NDCs under each drug as reported on all final action, non-delete PDE records submitted as of June 30, 2022, with dates of dispensing in benefit year 2021.
(iii) Calculation of each specified drug's percent share of the specified manufacturer's Part D total expenditures for applicable drugs for 2021. CMS will divide the 2021 Part D total expenditures for each drug, aggregated in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, by the 2021 Part D total expenditures for all applicable drugs of the manufacturer, as determined under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, then multiply by 100 to determine the percent share.
(iv) Part D total expenditures for a specific drug for 2021 and small manufacturer phase-in eligibility. If the 2021 Part D total expenditures for one specified drug of the manufacturer are equal to or greater than 80 percent of the manufacturer's 2021 Part D total expenditures for all of its specified drugs, CMS will consider the manufacturer to have satisfied the criterion at § 423.2716(b)(2) for specified small manufacturer phase-in eligibility.
(2) [Reserved]
(c) Written notice of determination. (1) CMS will issue a phase-in eligibility determination notice to each manufacturer that has executed and has in effect a Manufacturer Discount Program agreement when such determination is made, delivered by electronic mail, to the primary point of contact as identified by the manufacturer.
(2) In the case of a manufacturer that participates in the Manufacturer Discount Program by means of an arrangement whereby its labeler code(s) is covered by another manufacturer's Manufacturer Discount Program agreement, CMS will issue a phase-in eligibility determination notice to the agreement holder.
§ 423.2724 Effect of manufacturer acquisition on phase-in eligibility.
For purposes of the Manufacturer Discount Program, when a manufacturer acquires another manufacturer after 2021 (that is, the acquired manufacturer becomes part of such acquiring manufacturer under the aggregation rule at § 423.2716(c)), the acquired manufacturer assumes the phase-in status of the acquiring manufacturer, effective at the beginning of the plan year immediately following the acquisition or, for an acquisition before 2025, effective January 1, 2025.
§ 423.2728 Recalculation of phase-in eligibility determination.
(a) Right to request a recalculation. A manufacturer that has received a phase-in eligibility determination notice, as described at § 423.2720(c), may request a recalculation of such determination in accordance with the requirements of this section.
(b) Timeframe and method of filing. A manufacturer that seeks a recalculation of its phase-in eligibility determination must file the request, in the manner specified by CMS, no later than 30 calendar days from the date the phase-in eligibility determination notice is electronically sent to the manufacturer. In order to receive consideration, the recalculation request must clearly describe the issue(s) forming the basis of the request and must include supporting documentation.
(c) Disposition and notification. After consideration of the issues raised, CMS will decide whether to perform the recalculation, and will issue a written decision to the manufacturer that will include CMS's decision about whether to perform the requested recalculation and, if such recalculation is performed, the resulting eligibility determination. The decision is final and binding, subject to the requirements of the Manufacturer Discount Program under section 1860D-14C of the Act, this subpart, and the Manufacturer Discount Program agreement.
(d) Limitation. The recalculation process cannot be used to request or be granted an exception to the requirements set forth in statute that determine eligibility for the specified manufacturer or specified small manufacturer phase-in.
§ 423.2732 Use of third party administrator.
(a) CMS will engage a third party administrator (TPA) to assist in the administration of the Manufacturer Discount Program, which may include and is not limited to facilitating—
(1) Manufacturer Discount Program invoicing;
(2) The receipt and distribution of funds of a manufacturer; and
(3) The dispute resolution process described in § 423.2764.
(b) Agreement holders must—
(1) Enter into and have in effect, under the terms and conditions specified by CMS, an agreement with the TPA in order to participate in the Manufacturer Discount Program. The TPA agreement will only terminate upon the termination of the Manufacturer Discount Program agreement; and
(2) Establish and maintain electronic connectivity with the TPA for the purpose of timely transmission of data and funds.
§ 423.2736 Requirement for point-of-sale discounts.
(a) Point-of-sale discounts. Part D sponsors must provide applicable discounts on applicable drugs at the point of sale on behalf of the manufacturer. As part of this process, plan sponsors must determine—
(1) Whether an enrollee is an applicable beneficiary as described in § 423.100;
(2) Whether a drug is an applicable drug as described in § 423.100; and
(3) The amount of the discount, in accordance with § 423.2712.
(b) Direct member reimbursement (DMR). Part D sponsors must provide applicable discounts on claims for applicable drugs submitted by applicable beneficiaries as DMRs, including out-of-network and in-network paper claims, if such claims are payable under the Part D plan. While the sponsor must account for the discount in adjudicating the DMR request and the associated PDE submitted to CMS, the point-of-sale requirement does not apply.
(c) Pharmacy prompt payment. Part D sponsors must reimburse a network pharmacy (as defined in § 423.100) the amount of the applicable discount within the applicable number of calendar days (as defined in § 423.100) of the date of dispensing (as defined in § 423.100) of an applicable drug, consistent with § 423.520.
(d) Prescription drug event (PDE) requirements. Part D sponsors must report the applicable discounts made available to their enrollees under the Manufacturer Discount Program on the PDE records associated with such discounts.
(e) Retroactive adjustments. Part D sponsors must make retroactive adjustments to applicable discounts as necessary to reflect applicable changes, including changes to the claim, beneficiary eligibility, or benefit phase determined after the date of dispensing.
§ 423.2740 Negative invoice payment process for Part D sponsors.
(a) CMS will invoice negative amounts to Part D sponsors when a PDE(s) which had been previously invoiced is deleted or adjusted such that the reported Manufacturer Discount Program discount amount is less than originally invoiced.
(b) Part D sponsors are required to pay such negative invoice amounts in the manner specified by CMS within 38 calendar days of receipt of the invoice.
§ 423.2744 Prospective payments to Part D sponsors.
(a) General rule. CMS will provide monthly prospective Manufacturer Discount Program payments to Part D sponsors for sponsors to advance manufacturer discounts as specified in § 423.2736(a) and reimburse network pharmacies as specified in § 423.2736(c).
(b) Exception. CMS will not provide prospective Manufacturer Discount Program payments to employer group waiver plans.
(c) Reconciliation. CMS will reconcile prospective Manufacturer Discount Program payments in accordance with subpart G of this part.
(d) Manufacturer bankruptcy. In the event that an agreement holder declares bankruptcy, as described in title 11 of the United States Code, and as a result of such bankruptcy does not pay the invoiced amounts described in § 423.2756(a), CMS will adjust the Manufacturer Discount Program reconciliation amount for affected Part D sponsors to account for the invoiced amounts owed for the contract year being reconciled. The Government reserves the right to file a proof-of-claim and take any other action under bankruptcy law, as appropriate, to attempt to recover such unpaid amounts and any civil money penalties imposed by CMS under this part.
§ 423.2748 Requirement to use the Health Plan Management System.
Agreement holders are required to maintain Health Plan Management System (HPMS) access and use the HPMS to—
(a) Provide and maintain required information, as specified by CMS;
(b) Attest to the completeness and accuracy of data necessary for CMS to determine whether the manufacturer qualifies as a specified manufacturer or specified small manufacturer, as described at § 423.2716;
(c) Execute a Manufacturer Discount Program agreement and a TPA agreement; and
(d) As otherwise specified by CMS to administer the program.
§ 423.2752 Manufacturer Discount Program agreement.
Manufacturers that are agreement holders, as defined in § 423.2704, must comply with all requirements of this section.
(a) Requirements of agreement. The manufacturer must do all of the following:
(1) Reimburse, within the required 38-day timeframe, all applicable discounts invoiced to the manufacturer, consistent with the requirements at § 423.2756(b).
(2) Provide CMS with all labeler codes covered by the agreement.
(3) Ensure that the labeler codes provided to CMS under paragraph (a)(2) of this section include, at a minimum, all labeler codes assigned by the FDA to the manufacturer, in accordance with § 423.2756(c)(3).
(4) Comply with the requirements established by CMS for purposes of administering the Manufacturer Discount Program and monitoring compliance with such program, including providing the manufacturer's Employer Identification Number (EIN) and other identifying information to CMS upon request.
(5) Comply with the requirements related to the provision and maintenance of data at § 423.2756(c).
(6) Enter into and have in effect, under the terms and conditions specified by CMS, an agreement with the TPA, as described at § 423.2732(b)(1), and comply with such agreement and all TPA instructions, processes, and requirements.
(7) Provide and attest to information in the manner and form specified by CMS as necessary for CMS to determine eligibility for and implement the specified manufacturer and specified small manufacturer phase-ins described at § 423.2716.
(8) Agree that, no less than 30 days after the date CMS determines that a primary manufacturer of a selected drug has, in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, provided notice to CMS of its decision not to enter into or continue its participation in the Medicare Drug Price Negotiation Program and to discontinue its applicable agreements under the Medicaid Drug Rebate Program and the Manufacturer Discount Program, none of the drugs of such primary manufacturer will be covered by the manufacturer's Manufacturer Discount Program agreement.
(9) Comply with all other requirements of the Manufacturer Discount Program.
(b) Agreement term and renewal. (1) A Manufacturer Discount Program agreement described in this section is valid for an initial term of not less than 12 months and automatically renews for a period of 1 year on each subsequent January 1, except as described in paragraph (b)(3) this section, unless terminated in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
(2) For calendar year 2025, an agreement holder must enter into such agreement no later than March 1, 2024, and the initial 12-month term of such agreement begins on January 1, 2025 and ends on December 31, 2025.
(3) For calendar year 2026 and subsequent years, a Manufacturer Discount Program agreement will become effective on the first day of a calendar quarter as follows:
(i) An agreement holder must enter into the agreement no later than the last day of the first month of a calendar quarter in order for the agreement to be effective on the first day of the next calendar quarter.
(ii) If an agreement holder enters into the agreement after the last day of the first month of a particular calendar quarter, the agreement becomes effective on the first day of the second calendar quarter after the calendar quarter in which the manufacturer entered into the agreement.
(iii) An initial term that begins on January 1 will end on December 31 of the same calendar year. An initial term that begins on April 1, July 1, or October 1 will end on December 31 of the following calendar year.
(c) Termination of Manufacturer Discount Program agreement—(1) Termination by CMS. (i) CMS may terminate a Manufacturer Discount Program agreement for a knowing and willful violation of the requirements of such agreement or other good cause shown in relation to a manufacturer's participation in the Manufacturer Discount Program, including good cause as set forth in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
(ii) CMS may terminate a Manufacturer Discount Program agreement for good cause, in the case of a primary manufacturer under the Medicare Drug Price Negotiation Program, upon submission of a request from such manufacturer to terminate its applicable agreements under the Manufacturer Discount Program in connection with a notice of the primary manufacturer's decision that it is unwilling to participate in, or continue its participation in, the Medicare Drug Price Negotiation Program. If CMS determines such a notice complies with all requirements set forth in applicable regulations and guidance for the Medicare Drug Price Negotiation Program, the primary manufacturer's request will constitute good cause under paragraph (c)(1) of this section to terminate the primary manufacturer's applicable agreements under the Manufacturer Discount Program. The primary manufacturer's applicable agreements include any Manufacturer Discount Program agreement for which the primary manufacturer is the agreement holder, as well as any arrangement under § 423.2708(b)(2) in which FDA-assigned labeler codes of the primary manufacturer are covered under the Manufacturer Discount Program agreement of another manufacturer. If applicable, CMS will effectuate termination of coverage of such FDA-assigned labeler codes of the primary manufacturer that are covered under the Manufacturer Discount Program agreement of another manufacturer in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(v)(A)(1) of this section.
(iii) Any termination by CMS must not be effective earlier than 30 days from the date of the notice to the manufacturer of such termination. If a hearing is timely requested by the manufacturer in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section, such termination must not be effective prior to resolution of timely appeal requests received in accordance with the requirements of this section.
(iv) CMS will provide, upon written request, a manufacturer a hearing concerning a termination by CMS as follows:
(A) This hearing will take place prior to the effective date of the termination with sufficient time for the termination to be repealed prior to the effective date if CMS determines repeal would be appropriate. If a manufacturer or CMS receives an unfavorable decision from the hearing officer, the manufacturer or CMS may request review by the CMS Administrator within 30 calendar days of receipt of the notification of such determination. The decision of the CMS Administrator is final and binding.
(B) A timely request for a hearing before a hearing officer or review by the CMS Administrator will stay termination until the parties have exhausted their appeal rights under the Manufacturer Discount Program, which means either the timeframes to pursue a hearing before a hearing officer or review by the CMS Administrator have passed or a final decision by the Administrator has been issued and there is no remaining opportunity to request further administrative review.
(C) In the case of a termination by CMS under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section with respect to a primary manufacturer under the Medicare Drug Price Negotiation Program, the hearing will be held solely on the papers. The only question to be decided in such hearing is whether the primary manufacturer has asked to rescind its request to terminate under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section prior to the effective date of the termination. If so, CMS will automatically grant such request from the primary manufacturer to rescind its request to terminate under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
(v) In addition to the termination under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section of any Manufacturer Discount Program agreement for which the primary manufacturer is the agreement holder, CMS will effectuate the removal of labeler code(s) that are covered under the Manufacturer Discount Program agreement of another manufacturer and termination of coverage of any specific NDC(s) of applicable drugs and selected drugs of a primary manufacturer that are covered under the Manufacturer Discount Program agreement of another manufacturer as follows:
(A) If a primary manufacturer provides notice to CMS that it is unwilling to participate in, or continue its participation in, the Medicare Drug Price Negotiation Program, consistent with paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, no earlier than 30 days from the date CMS sends the notice of termination to the manufacturer in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, CMS will effectuate—
(1) The removal of the FDA-assigned labeler code(s) of the primary manufacturer from any Manufacturer Discount Program agreement of another manufacturer whereby such labeler codes of the primary manufacturer are covered in accordance with § 423.2708(b)(2); and
(2) The termination of coverage under any Manufacturer Discount Program agreement specific to NDCs of applicable drugs and selected drugs for which the primary manufacturer is the holder of the new drug application or biologics license application. Such termination of coverage under this paragraph (c)(1)(v)(A)(2) will apply to all applicable drug and selected drug NDCs of the primary manufacturer for which the labeler code is assigned to a manufacturer other than the primary manufacturer and for which the primary manufacturer is the new drug application or biologics license application holder for such drug.
(B) The removal of labeler code(s) in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(v)(A)(1) of this section and the termination of coverage specific to NDCs in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(v)(A)(2) of this section do not affect the agreement holder's responsibility to reimburse Part D sponsors for applicable discounts for applicable drugs with such labeler code(s) or such NDCs that were incurred under the agreement before the effective date of removal or termination.
(2) Termination by the manufacturer. An agreement holder may terminate its Manufacturer Discount Program agreement for any reason. The effective date of the termination is as follows:
(i) If the agreement holder notifies CMS of its intent to terminate before January 31 of a calendar year, January 1 of the succeeding calendar year.
(ii) If the agreement holder notifies CMS of its intent to terminate on or after January 31 of a calendar year, January 1 of the second succeeding calendar year.
(3) Post-termination obligations. Termination of a Manufacturer Discount Program agreement under the requirements of this section does not affect the agreement holder's responsibility to reimburse Part D sponsors for applicable discounts for applicable drugs having NDCs with labeler code(s) covered by such agreement that were incurred under the agreement prior to the effective date of the termination.
(4) Reinstatement. Reinstatement in the Manufacturer Discount Program subsequent to termination is available to a manufacturer only upon payment of any and all outstanding applicable discounts and penalties incurred under any previous Manufacturer Discount Program agreement or Coverage Gap Discount Program agreement. The timing of the reinstatement must be consistent with the requirements at § 423.2752(b).
(d) Automatic assignment upon change of ownership. In the event of a change in ownership of a manufacturer that is an agreement holder, the Manufacturer Discount Program agreement is automatically assigned to the new owner, and all terms and conditions of the agreement remain in effect as to the new owner unless terminated in accordance with requirements at § 423.2752(c). The new agreement holder agrees to be bound by and to perform all the duties and responsibilities under the Manufacturer Discount Program, and assumes all obligations and liabilities of, and all claims incurred against, the prior agreement holder under the Manufacturer Discount Program agreement whether arising before or after the effective date of the change of ownership.
§ 423.2756 Manufacturer requirements.
Manufacturers that are agreement holders, as defined at § 423.2704, must comply with all requirements of this section.
(a) Manufacturer invoicing. CMS will—
(1) Calculate the amounts owed for applicable discounts for applicable drugs having NDCs with a labeler code covered by the agreement holder's Manufacturer Discount Program agreement;
(2) Itemize invoices at the NDC level;
(3) Invoice the agreement holder on a quarterly basis, consistent with the published invoicing calendar; and
(4) Invoice manufacturer discount amounts from accepted PDE data for 37 months following the end of the benefit year.
(b) Requirement for timely payment. (1) Agreement holders that are invoiced in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section are required to pay invoiced amounts within 38 calendar days of receipt of the invoice, in the manner specified by CMS, except as specified in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section.
(2) If an invoice deadline falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday, the payment timeframe is extended to the first day thereafter which is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday.
(3) Agreement holders are not permitted to withhold payment for any invoiced amount, including a disputed amount while a dispute is pending under § 423.2764, except when the basis for the dispute is that the invoiced amount does not correspond to NDCs of labeler codes covered by the agreement holder's Manufacturer Discount Program agreement. If payment is withheld in such an instance, the agreement holder must notify the TPA within 38 calendar days of the manufacturer's receipt of the applicable invoice that payment is being withheld for this reason.
(c) Reporting requirements—(1) General. Agreement holders are required to collect, have available, and maintain appropriate data related to the labeler codes covered by their Manufacturer Discount Program agreement, and maintain such data for a period of not less than 10 years from the date of payment of the invoice.
(2) Manufacturer ownership. Agreement holders must—
(i) Provide and attest to ownership and other data, in the form and manner specified by CMS, as necessary for CMS to determine eligibility for and implement the discount phase-ins described at § 423.2716;
(ii) Notify CMS of a change in their ownership no later than 30 calendar days after the agreement holder executes a legal obligation for such an arrangement and no later than 45 calendar days prior to such change in ownership taking effect; and
(iii) If the agreement holder covers the FDA-assigned labeler code(s) of another manufacturer by its Manufacturer Discount Program agreement in accordance with § 423.2708(b)(2), comply with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section with respect to such other manufacturer.
(3) Labeler codes. (i) An agreement holder is required to cover by its agreement all labeler codes assigned by the FDA to the agreement holder that contain NDCs for the agreement holder's applicable drugs and selected drugs.
(ii) Consistent with § 423.2708(b)(2), an agreement holder may cover by its Manufacturer Discount Program agreement applicable drugs or selected drugs with labeler code(s) assigned by the FDA to another manufacturer, provided the other manufacturer has not executed and does not have in effect its own Manufacturer Discount Program agreement in accordance with § 423.2708(b)(1).
(iii) Agreement holders must provide to CMS:
(A) All labeler codes assigned by the FDA to the agreement holder that contain NDCs for the agreement holder's applicable drugs and selected drugs, consistent with paragraph (c)(3)(iv) of this section.
(B) All labeler codes assigned by the FDA to another manufacturer that the agreement holder covers by its Manufacturer Discount Program agreement and for which the agreement holder agrees to pay discounts.
(iv) Agreement holders must provide labeler code(s) newly assigned by the FDA to the agreement holder to CMS no later than 3 business days after receiving written notification of the labeler code(s) from the FDA, and in advance of providing any NDCs associated with such newly assigned labeler codes to electronic database vendors.
(v) Agreement holders must maintain the list of labeler codes covered by their Manufacturer Discount Program agreement, in the manner specified by CMS. Failure to update labeler codes covered by a Manufacturer Discount Program agreement in accordance with the requirements in this section and applicable CMS guidance does not change an agreement holder's obligation to pay invoiced amounts for applicable drugs.
(4) FDA and related records. (i) Agreement holders must:
(A) Ensure that all of their FDA-assigned labeler codes that contain NDCs for any of their applicable drugs or selected drugs are properly listed on the FDA NDC Directory;
(B) Electronically list all NDCs of their applicable drugs or selected drugs with the FDA in advance of commercial distribution of the product(s);
(C) Maintain up-to-date electronic FDA registrations and listings of all NDCs, including the timely removal of discontinued NDCs from the FDA NDC Directory; and
(D) Maintain up-to-date listings with electronic database vendors to whom they provide their NDCs for pharmacy claims processing.
(ii) If such agreement holder's Manufacturer Discount Program agreement covers labeler code(s) that are assigned by the FDA to another manufacturer that participates in the Manufacturer Discount Program in accordance with § 423.2708(b)(2), the agreement holder must ensure that the requirements of this section are met with respect to such labeler codes.
(d) Transfer of labeler codes. Agreement holders are permitted to transfer labeler code(s) from one Manufacturer Discount Program agreement to another provided that the transfer is consistent with the requirements of this subpart and the Manufacturer Discount Program agreement and is approved by CMS.
§ 423.2760 Audits.
(a) Manufacturer audits of TPA data. (1) An agreement holder may conduct periodic audits, no more often than annually, of the TPA data and information used to determine discounts for applicable drugs covered by the agreement holder's Manufacturer Discount Program agreement, directly or through third parties.
(2) The agreement holder must provide the TPA with 60 calendar days' notice of the reasonable basis for the audit and a description of the information required for the audit.
(3) The audit is limited as follows:
(i) The data provided to the agreement holder conducting the audit is limited to a statistically significant random sample of data held by the TPA that were used to determine applicable discounts for applicable drugs having NDCs with labeler codes covered by the agreement holder's Manufacturer Discount Program agreement.
(ii) Manufacturers are not permitted to audit CMS records or the records of Part D sponsors beyond the data provided to the TPA, which includes claim-level information.
(iii) Audits must occur at a location specified by the TPA and, with the exception of work papers, audit data cannot be removed from such specified location.
(iv) The auditor for the agreement holder may release only an opinion of the audit results and is prohibited from releasing other information obtained from the audit, including work papers, to its client, employer, or any other party.
(b) CMS audits of manufacturers. (1) An agreement holder is subject to periodic audit by CMS no more often than annually, directly or through third parties, as specified in this section.
(2) CMS must provide the agreement holder with 60 calendar days' notice of the reasonable basis for the audit and a description of the information required for the audit.
(3) CMS has the right to audit appropriate data, including data related to labeler codes covered by the agreement holder's Manufacturer Discount Program agreement and related NDC last lot expiration dates, utilization, and pricing information relied on by the agreement holder to dispute quarterly invoices, and any other data CMS determines necessary to evaluate compliance with the requirements of the Manufacturer Discount Program.
§ 423.2764 Dispute resolution.
(a) Initial disputes. Agreement holders may dispute applicable discounts invoiced to such agreement holder under § 423.2756(a).
(1) Timeframe and method of filing. Initial disputes must be filed, in the manner specified by CMS, no later than the dispute submission deadline, as defined at § 423.2704. The agreement holder must explain why it believes the invoiced discount amount is in error and must provide supporting evidence that is material, specific, and related to the dispute.
(2) Timeframe for making a determination. CMS will issue a written determination on an initial dispute no later than 60 calendar days from the dispute submission deadline.
(b) Independent review. An agreement holder that receives an unfavorable determination from CMS on its initial dispute or has not received a determination within 60 calendar days from the dispute submission deadline, may request review by the independent review entity (IRE) contracted by CMS.
(1) Timeframe and method of filing. A request for review by the IRE must be filed, in the manner specified by CMS, no later than the earlier of the following:
(i) Thirty calendar days from the unfavorable determination on the initial dispute.
(ii) Ninety calendar days from the dispute submission deadline, if no determination was made within 60 calendar days of the dispute submission deadline.
(2) Information considered. In addition to the information provided by the agreement holder, the IRE considers information received from CMS, the TPA, the Part D sponsor, or other sources. The IRE may request additional information from the agreement holder for the purpose of considering the appeal. Failure to comply with this request for additional information within the timeframe specified may result in the IRE issuing a denial.
(3) Timeframe for making a decision. The IRE issues a written decision to the agreement holder and to CMS no later than 90 calendar days from receipt of the request.
(4) Notice requirements. The IRE decision must include all of the following:
(i) A clear statement indicating whether the decision is favorable or unfavorable to the agreement holder.
(ii) An explanation of the rationale for the IRE's decision.
(iii) Instructions on how to request a review by the CMS Administrator.
(5) Effect of IRE decision. A decision by the IRE is binding on all parties unless the agreement holder or CMS files a valid request for review by the CMS Administrator under the process described in paragraph (c) of this section.
(c) Review by the CMS Administrator. (1) CMS or an agreement holder that receives an unfavorable decision by the IRE may request a review of a determination from the IRE by the CMS Administrator.
(2) A request for review by the CMS Administrator must be filed, in the manner specified by CMS, no later than 30 calendar days from the date of the IRE decision.
(3) The CMS Administrator issues a written decision to both parties.
(4) A decision by the CMS Administrator is final and binding.
(d) Adjustment to invoiced amounts. CMS adjusts future invoices (or implements an alternative reimbursement process if determined necessary) if the dispute is resolved in favor of the agreement holder.
(e) Limitation. The dispute resolution process described in this section must not be used to dispute a decision by CMS to terminate an agreement holder's participation in the Manufacturer Discount Program under § 423.2752(c)(1) or a decision by CMS about a manufacturer's eligibility for discount phase-ins described at § 423.2720.
§ 423.2768 Civil money penalties.
(a) General rule. An agreement holder that fails to provide, in accordance with the terms of its Manufacturer Discount Program agreement and the requirements of the Manufacturer Discount Program, applicable discounts for applicable drugs covered by the agreement holder's Manufacturer Discount Program agreement and dispensed to applicable beneficiaries is subject to a civil money penalty for each such failure.
(b) Notice of non-compliance. When an agreement holder fails to make a timely payment as required under § 423.2756(b), CMS will issue to the agreement holder a notice of non-compliance with information about the violation. The agreement holder has 5 business days from the date of the notice to respond to CMS.
(c) Determination of the civil money penalty amounts. CMS must impose a civil money penalty for each failure equal to the sum of:
(1) The amount an agreement holder would have paid with respect to the applicable discount; and
(2) Twenty-five percent of such amount.
(d) Notice to impose civil money penalties. If CMS makes a determination to impose a civil money penalty as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section, CMS will send to the agreement holder a written notice of such determination that includes all of the following:
(1) A description of the basis for the determination.
(2) The basis for the penalty.
(3) The amount of the penalty.
(4) The date the penalty is due.
(5) The agreement holder's right to a hearing as set forth in paragraph (e) of this section.
(6) Information about where to file the request for a hearing.
(e) Appeal procedures for civil money penalties. An agreement holder has a right to a hearing following a decision by CMS to impose a civil money penalty according to the administrative appeal process and procedures established in subpart T of this part.
(f) Collection. (1) CMS may not collect a civil money penalty until the affected party (as defined in § 423.1002) has received notice and the opportunity for a hearing under section 1128A(c)(2) of the Act.
(2) An agreement holder that has received from CMS a notice of determination to impose a civil money penalty must pay such civil money penalty in full within 60 calendar days of the date of the CMS notice of determination, except as provided in paragraph (f)(3) of this section.
(3) If the agreement holder requests a hearing to appeal in accordance with subpart T of this part, the civil money penalty is due, as applicable, once the administrative process specified in subpart T has concluded.
(4) CMS will initiate the collection of a civil money penalty owed by an agreement holder either following the expiration of 60 days from the date of the CMS notice of determination to impose a civil money penalty, or if later, the conclusion of the administrative process specified in subpart T of this part, as applicable.
(g) Other applicable provisions. The provisions of section 1128A of the Act (except subsections (a) and (b) of section 1128A of the Act) apply to civil money penalties under this section to the same extent that they apply to a civil money penalty or procedures under section 1128A of the Act.
(h) Bankruptcy. In the event an agreement holder declares bankruptcy, as described in title 11 of the United States Code, and as a result of such bankruptcy, fails to pay the total sum of the civil money penalties imposed, the government reserves the right to file a proof-of-claim and take any other action under bankruptcy law, as appropriate, to attempt to recover such unpaid amounts and any civil money penalties imposed by CMS under this part.
PART 424 CONDITIONS FOR MEDICARE PAYMENT
Authority: 42 U.S.C. 1302 and 1395hh.
Source: 53 FR 6634, Mar. 2, 1988, unless otherwise noted.
Subpart A General Provisions
§ 424.1 Basis and scope.
(a) Statutory basis. (1) This part is based on the indicated provisions of the following sections of the Act:
1814—Basic conditions for, and limitations on, Medicare payments for Part A services.
1815—Payment to providers for Part A services.
1820—Conditions for designating certain hospitals as critical assess hospitals.
1833(e)—Requirement to furnish information to determine payment.
1834(a)—Payment for durable medical equipment.
1834(j)—Requirements for suppliers of medical equipment and supplies.
1835—Procedures for payment to providers for Part B services.
1842(b)(3)(B)(ii)—Assignment of Part B Medicare claims.
1842(b)(6)—Payment to entities other than the supplier.
1848—Payment for physician services.
1870(e) and (f)—Settlement of claims after death of the beneficiary.
(2) Section 424.444(c) is also based on section 216(j) of the Act.
(b) Scope. This part sets forth certain specific conditions and limitations applicable to Medicare payments and cites other conditions and limitations set forth elsewhere in this chapter. This subpart A provides a general overview. Other subparts deal specifically with—
(1) The requirement that the need for services be certified and that a physician establish a plan of treatment (subpart B);
(2) The procedures and time limits for filing claims (subpart C);
(3) The individuals or entities to whom payment may be made (subparts D and E);
(4) The limitations on assignment and reassignment of claims (subpart F);
(5) Special requirements that apply to services furnished by nonparticipating U.S. hospitals and foreign hospitals (subparts G and H); and
(6) The replacement and reclamation of Medicare payment checks (subpart M).
(c) Other applicable rules. Except for § 424.40(c)(3), this part does not deal with the conditions for payment of rural health clinic (RHC) services, Federally qualified health center (FQHC) services, or ambulatory surgical center (ASC) services. Those conditions are set forth in part 405, subpart X, and part 481 subpart A of this chapter for RHC and FQHC services; and in part 416 of this chapter, for ASC services. The rules for physician certification of terminal illness, required in connection with hospice care, are set forth in § 418.22 of this chapter.
[53 FR 6634, Mar. 2, 1988, as amended at 60 FR 38271, July 26, 1995; 60 FR 50442, Sept. 29, 1995; 62 FR 46035, Aug. 29, 1997; 71 FR 20775, Apr. 21, 2006; 71 FR 48409, Aug. 18, 2006]
§ 424.3 Definitions.
As used in this part, unless the context indicates otherwise—
HCPCS means Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System.
ICD-9-CM means International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision, Clinical Modification.
Nonparticipating hospital means a hospital that does not have in effect a provider agreement to participate in Medicare.
Participating hospital means a hospital that has in effect a provider agreement to participate in Medicare.
[53 FR 6634, Mar. 2, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 10299, Mar. 4, 1994; 63 FR 26311, May 12, 1998; 70 FR 45055, Aug. 4, 2005]
§ 424.5 Basic conditions.
(a) As a basis for Medicare payment, the following conditions must be met:
(1) Types of services. The services must be—
(i) Covered services, as specified in part 409 or part 410 of this chapter; or
(ii) Services excluded from coverage as custodial care or services not reasonable and necessary, but reimbursable in accordance with §§ 405.332 through 405.334 of this chapter, pertaining to limitation of liability.
(2) Sources of services. The services must have been furnished by a provider, nonparticipating hospital, or supplier that was, at the time it furnished the services, qualified to have payment made for them.
(3) Beneficiary of services. Except as provided in § 409.68 of this chapter, the services must have been furnished while the individual was eligible to have payment made for them. (Section 409.68 provides for payment of inpatient hospital services furnished before the hospital is notified that the beneficiary has exhausted the Medicare benefits available for the current benefit period.)
(4) Certification of need for services. When required, the provider must obtain certification and recertification of the need for the services in accordance with subpart B of this part.
(5) Claim for payment. The provider, supplier, or beneficiary, as appropriate, must file a claim that includes or makes reference to a request for payment, in accordance with subpart C of this part.
(6) Sufficient information. The provider, supplier, or beneficiary, as appropriate, must furnish to the intermediary or carrier sufficient information to determine whether payment is due and the amount of payment.
(b) Additional conditions applicable in certain circumstances or to certain services are set forth in other sections of this part.
[53 FR 6635, Mar. 2, 1988; 53 FR 12945, Apr. 20, 1988; 60 FR 38271, July 26, 1995]
§ 424.7 General limitations.
(a) Utilization review finding on medical necessity. When a QIO or a UR committee notifies a hospital or SNF of its finding that further services are not medically necessary, the following rules apply:
(1) Hospitals subject to PPS. Payment may not be made for inpatient hospital services furnished by a PPS hospital after the second day after the day on which the hospital received the notice.
(2) Hospitals not subject to PPS and SNFs—(i) Basic rule. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, payment may not be made for inpatient hospital services or posthospital SNF care furnished after the day on which the hospital or SNF received the notice.
(ii) Exception. Payment may be made for 1 or 2 additional days if the QIO or UR committee approves them as necessary for planning for post-discharge care.
(b) Failure to make timely utilization review. Payment may not be made for inpatient hospital services or posthospital SNF care furnished, after the 20th consecutive day of a stay, to an individual who is admitted to the hospital or SNF after CMS has determined that the hospital or SNF has failed to make timely utilization review in long stay cases. (This provision does not apply to a hospital or SNF for which a QIO has assumed binding review.)
[53 FR 6635, Mar. 2, 1988; 53 FR 12945, Apr. 20, 1988]
Subpart B Certification and Plan Requirements
§ 424.10 Purpose and scope.
(a) Purpose. The physician has a major role in determining utilization of health services furnished by providers. The physician decides upon admissions, orders tests, drugs, and treatments, and determines the length of stay. Accordingly, sections 1814(a)(2) and 1835(a)(2) of the Act establish as a condition for Medicare payment that a physician certify the necessity of the services and, in some instances, recertify the continued need for those services.
Section 1814(a)(2) of the Act also permits nurse practitioners, clinical nurse specialists, or physician assistants to certify and recertify the need for post-hospital extended care services.
(b) Scope. This subpart sets forth the timing, content, and signature requirements for certification and recertification with respect to certain Medicare services furnished by providers.
[60 FR 38271, July 26, 1995, as amended at 78 FR 47968, Aug. 6, 2013]
§ 424.11 General procedures.
(a) Responsibility of the provider. The provider must—
(1) Obtain the required certification and recertification statements;
(2) Keep them on file for verification by the intermediary, if necessary; and
(3) Certify, on the appropriate billing form, that the statements have been obtained and are on file.
(b) Obtaining the certification and recertification statements. No specific procedures or forms are required for certification and recertification statements. The provider may adopt any method that permits verification. The certification and recertification statements may be entered on forms, notes, or records that the appropriate individual signs, or on a special separate form. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section for delayed certifications, there must be a separate signed statement for each certification or recertification. If supporting information for the signed statement is contained in other provider records (such as physicians' progress notes), it need not be repeated in the statement itself.
(c) Required information. The succeeding sections of this subpart set forth specific information required for different types of services.
(d) Timeliness. (1) The succeeding sections of this subpart also specify the timeframes for certification and for initial and subsequent recertifications.
(2) A hospital or SNF may provide for obtaining a certification or recertification earlier than required by these regulations or vary the timeframe (within the prescribed outer limits) for different diagnostic or clinical categories.
(3) Delayed certification and recertification statements are acceptable when there is a legitimate reason for delay. (For instance, the patient was unaware of his or her entitlement when he or she was treated.) Delayed certification and recertification statements must include an explanation of the reasons for the delay.
(4) A delayed certification may be included with one or more recertifications on a single signed statement.
(5) For all inpatient hospital services, including inpatient psychiatric facility services, a delayed certification may not extend past discharge.
(e) Limitation on authorization to sign statements. A certification or recertification statement may be signed only by one of the following:
(1) A physician who is a doctor of medicine or osteopathy.
(2) A dentist in the circumstances specified in § 424.13(d).
(3) A doctor of podiatric medicine if his or her certification is consistent with the functions he or she is authorized to perform under State law.
(4) A nurse practitioner or clinical nurse specialist as defined in paragraph (e)(5) or (e)(6) of this section, or a physician assistant as defined in section 1861(aa)(5)(A) of the Act, in the circumstances specified in § 424.20(e).
(5) For purposes of this section, to qualify as a nurse practitioner, an individual must—
(i) Be a registered professional nurse who is currently licensed to practice nursing in the State where he or she practices; be authorized to perform the services of a nurse practitioner in accordance with State law; and have a master's degree in nursing;
(ii) Be certified as a nurse practitioner by a professional association recognized by CMS that has, at a minimum, eligibility requirements that meet the standards in paragraph (e)(5)(i) of this section; or
(iii) Meet the requirements for a nurse practitioner set forth in paragraph (e)(5)(i) of this section, except for the master's degree requirement, and have received before August 25, 1998 a certificate of completion from a formal advanced practice program that prepares registered nurses to perform an expanded role in the delivery of primary care.
(6) For purposes of this section, to qualify as a clinical nurse specialist, an individual must—
(i) Be a registered professional nurse who is currently licensed to practice nursing in the State where he or she practices; be authorized to perform the services of a clinical nurse specialist in accordance with State law; and have a master's degree in a defined clinical area of nursing;
(ii) Be certified as a clinical nurse specialist by a professional association recognized by CMS that has at a minimum, eligibility requirements that meet the standards in paragraph (e)(6)(i) of this section; or
(iii) Meet the requirements for a clinical nurse specialist set forth in paragraph (e)(6)(i) of this section, except for the master's degree requirement, and have received before August 25, 1998 a certificate of completion from a formal advanced practice program that prepares registered nurses to perform an expanded role in the delivery of primary care.
[53 FR 6634, Mar. 2, 1988, as amended at 56 FR 8845, Mar. 1, 1991; 60 FR 38272, July 26, 1995; 78 FR 47968, Aug. 6, 2013; 78 FR 50969, Aug. 19, 2013; 79 FR 50359, Aug. 22, 2014; 83 FR 41706, Aug. 17, 2018]
§ 424.13 Requirements for inpatient services of hospitals other than inpatient psychiatric facilities.
(a) Content of certification and recertification. Medicare Part A pays for inpatient hospital services (other than inpatient psychiatric facility services) for cases that are 20 inpatient days or more, or are outlier cases under subpart F of part 412 of this chapter, only if a physician certifies or recertifies the following:
(1) The reasons for either—
(i) Continued hospitalization of the patient for medical treatment or medically required diagnostic study; or
(ii) Special or unusual services for cost outlier cases (under the prospective payment system set forth in subpart F of part 412 of this chapter).
(2) The estimated time the patient will need to remain in the hospital.
(3) The plans for posthospital care, if appropriate.
(b) Timing of certification. For outlier cases under subpart F of part 412 of this chapter, the certification must be signed and documented in the medical record and as specified in paragraphs (e) through (h) of this section. For all other cases, the certification must be signed and documented no later than 20 days into the hospital stay.
(c) Certification of need for hospitalization when a SNF bed is not available. (1) The physician may certify or recertify need for continued hospitalization if he or she finds that the patient could receive proper treatment in a SNF but no bed is available in a participating SNF.
(2) If this is the basis for the physician's certification or recertification, the required statement must so indicate; and the certifying physician is expected to continue efforts to place the patient in a participating SNF as soon as a bed becomes available.
(d) Signatures—(1) Basic rule. Except as specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, certifications and recertifications must be signed by the physician responsible for the case, or by another physician who has knowledge of the case and who is authorized to do so by the responsible physician or by the hospital's medical staff.
(2) Exception. If the intermediary requests certification of the need to admit a patient in connection with dental procedures, because his or her underlying medical condition and clinical status or the severity of the dental procedures require hospitalization, that certification may be signed by the dentist caring for the patient.
(e) Timing of certifications and recertifications: Outlier cases not subject to the prospective payment system (PPS). (1) For outlier cases that are not subject to the PPS, certification is required no later than as of the 12th day of hospitalization. A hospital may, at its option, provide for the certification to be made earlier, or it may vary the timing of the certification within the 12-day period by diagnostic or clinical categories.
(2) The first recertification is required no later than as of the 18th day of hospitalization.
(3) Subsequent recertifications are required at intervals established by the UR committee (on a case-by-case basis if it so chooses), but no less frequently than every 30 days.
(f) Timing of certification and recertification: Outlier cases subject to PPS. For outlier cases subject to the PPS, certification is required as follows:
(1) For day outlier cases, certification is required no later than 1 day after the hospital reasonably assumes that the case meets the outlier criteria, established in accordance with § 412.80(a)(1)(i) of this chapter, or no later than 20 days into the hospital stay, whichever is earlier. The first and subsequent recertifications are required at intervals established by the UR committee (on a case-by-case basis if it so chooses) but not less frequently than every 30 days.
(2) For cost outlier cases, certification is required no later than the date on which the hospital requests cost outlier payment or 20 days into the hospital stay, whichever is earlier. If possible, certification must be made before the hospital incurs costs for which it will seek cost outlier payment. In cost outlier cases, the first and subsequent recertifications are required at intervals established by the UR committee (on a case-by-case basis if it so chooses).
(g) Recertification requirement fulfilled by utilization review. (1) At the hospital's option, extended stay review by its UR committee may take the place of the second and subsequent recertifications required for outlier cases not subject to PPS and for PPS day-outlier cases.
(2) A utilization review that is used to fulfill the recertification requirement is considered timely if performed no later than the seventh day after the day the recertification would have been required. The next recertification would need to be made no later than the 30th day following such review; if review by the UR committee took the place of this recertification, the review could be performed as late as the seventh day following the 30th day.
(h) Description of procedures. The hospital must have available on file a written description that specifies the time schedule for certifications and recertifications, and indicates whether utilization review of long-stay cases fulfills the requirement for second and subsequent recertifications of all outlier cases not subject to PPS and of PPS day outlier cases.
[78 FR 50969, Aug. 19, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 67033, Nov. 10, 2014]
§ 424.14 Requirements for inpatient services of inpatient psychiatric facilities.
(a) Requirements for certification and recertification: General considerations. Certification begins with the order for inpatient admission. The content requirements differ from those for other hospitals because the care furnished in inpatient psychiatric facilities is often purely custodial and thus not covered under Medicare. The purpose of the statements, therefore, is to help ensure that Medicare pays only for services of the type appropriate for Medicare coverage. Accordingly, Medicare Part A pays for inpatient services in an inpatient psychiatric facility only if a physician certifies and recertifies the need for services consistent with the requirements of this section, as appropriate.
(b) Content of certification. The physician must certify—
(1) That inpatient psychiatric services were required for treatment that could reasonably be expected to improve the patient's condition, or for diagnostic study.
(2) That the inpatient psychiatric services were provided in accordance with § 412.3 of this chapter.
(c) Content of recertification. (1) Inpatient services furnished since the previous certification or recertification were, and continue to be, required—
(i) For treatment that could reasonably be expected to improve the patient's condition; or
(ii) For diagnostic study; and
(2) The hospital records show that the services furnished were—
(i) Intensive treatment services;
(ii) Admission and related services necessary for diagnostic study; or
(iii) Equivalent services.
(3) The patient continues to need, on a daily basis, active treatment furnished directly by or requiring the supervision of inpatient psychiatric facility personnel.
(d) Timing of certification and recertification. (1) Certification is required at the time of admission or as soon thereafter as is reasonable and practicable, and must be completed and documented in the medical record prior to discharge.
(2) The first recertification is required as of the 12th day of hospitalization. Subsequent recertifications are required at intervals established by the UR committee (on a case-by-case basis if it so chooses), but no less frequently than every 30 days.
(e) Other requirements. Inpatient psychiatric facilities must also meet the requirements set forth in § 424.13(c), (d), (g), and (h).
[53 FR 6634, Mar. 2, 1988, as amended at 71 FR 27087, May 9, 2006; 71 FR 37504, June 30, 2006; 78 FR 50970, Aug. 19, 2013]
§ 424.15 Requirements for inpatient CAH services.
(a) Medicare Part A pays for inpatient CAH services only if a physician certifies that the individual may reasonably be expected to be discharged or transferred to a hospital within 96 hours after admission to the CAH, and that the services are provided in accordance with § 412.3 of this chapter.
(b) Certification begins with the order for inpatient admission. All certification requirements must be completed, signed, and documented in the medical record no later than 1 day before the date on which the claim for payment for the inpatient CAH service is submitted.
[78 FR 50970, Aug. 19, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 50359, Aug. 22, 2014]
§ 424.16 Timing of certification for individual admitted to a hospital before entitlement to Medicare benefits.
(a) Basic rule. If an indivdual is admitted to a hospital before becoming entitled to Medicare benefits (for instance, before attaining age 65), the day of entitlement (instead of the day of admission) is the starting point for the time limits specified in subpart B of this part for certification and recertification.
(b) Example. (Hospital that is not a psychiatric hospital and is not subject to PPS). For a patient who is admitted on August 15 and becomes entitled on September 1—
(1) The certification is required no later than September 12;
(2) The first recertification is required no later than September 18; and
(3) Subsequent recertifications are required at least every 30 days after September 18.
[53 FR 6635, Mar. 2, 1988; 53 FR 12945, Apr. 20, 1988, as amended at 78 FR 50970, Aug. 19, 2013]
§ 424.20 Requirements for posthospital SNF care.
Medicare Part A pays for posthospital SNF care furnished by an SNF, or a hospital or CAH with a swing-bed approval, only if the certification and recertification for services are consistent with the content of paragraph (a) or (c) of this section, as appropriate.
(a) Content of certification—(1) General requirements. Posthospital SNF care is or was required because—
(i) The individual needs or needed on a daily basis skilled nursing care (furnished directly by or requiring the supervision of skilled nursing personnel) or other skilled rehabilitation services that, as a practical matter, can only be provided in an SNF or a swing-bed hospital on an inpatient basis, and the SNF care is or was needed for a condition for which the individual received inpatient care in a participating hospital or a qualified hospital, as defined in § 409.3 of this chapter, or for a new condition that arose while the individual was receiving care in the SNF or swing-bed hospital for a condition for which he or she received inpatient care in a participating or qualified hospital; or
(ii) The individual has been correctly assigned one of the case-mix classifiers that CMS designates as representing the required level of care, as provided in § 409.30 of this chapter.
(2) Special requirement for certifications performed prior to July 1, 2002: A swing-bed hospital with more than 49 beds (but fewer than 100) that does not transfer a swing-bed patient to a SNF within 5 days of the availability date. Transfer of the extended care patient to the SNF is not medically appropriate.
(b) Timing of certification—(1) General rule. The certification must be obtained at the time of admission or as soon thereafter as is reasonable and practicable.
(2) Special rules for certain swing-bed hospitals. For swing-bed hospitals with more than 49 beds that are approved after March 31, 1988, the extended care patient's physician has 5 days (excluding weekends and holidays) beginning on the availability date as defined in § 413.114(b), to certify that the transfer of the extended care patient is not medically appropriate.
(c) Content of recertifications. (1) The reasons for the continued need for posthospital SNF care:
(2) The estimated time the individual will need to remain in the SNF;
(3) Plans for home care, if any; and
(4) If appropriate, the fact that continued services are needed for a condition that arose after admission to the SNF and while the individual was still under treatment for the condition for which he or she had received inpatient hospital services.
(d) Timing of recertifications. (1) The first recertification is required no later than the 14th day of posthospital SNF care.
(2) Subsequent recertifications are required at least every 30 days after the first recertification.
(e) Signature. Certification and recertification statements may be signed by—
(1) The physician responsible for the case or, with his or her authorization, by a physician on the SNF staff or a physician who is available in case of an emergency and has knowledge of the case; or
(2) A physician extender (that is, a nurse practitioner, a clinical nurse specialist, or a physician assistant as those terms are defined in section 1861(aa)(5) of the Act) who does not have a direct or indirect employment relationship with the facility but who is working in collaboration with a physician. For purposes of this section—
(i) Collaboration. (A) Collaboration means a process whereby a physician extender works with a doctor of medicine or osteopathy to deliver health care services.
(B) The services are delivered within the scope of the physician extender's professional expertise, with medical direction and appropriate supervision as provided for in guidelines jointly developed by the physician extender and the physician or other mechanisms defined by Federal regulations and the law of the State in which the services are performed.
(ii) Types of employment relationships. (A) Direct employment relationship. A direct employment relationship with the facility is one in which the physician extender meets the common law definition of the facility's “employee,” as specified in §§ 404.1005, 404.1007, and 404.1009 of title 20 of the regulations. When a physician extender meets this definition with respect to an entity other than the facility itself, and that entity has an agreement with the facility for the provision of nursing services under § 409.21 of this subchapter, the facility is considered to have an indirect employment relationship with the physician extender.
(B) Indirect employment relationship. (1) When a physician extender meets the definition of a direct employment relationship in paragraph (e)(2)(ii)(A) of this section with respect to an entity other than the facility itself, and that entity has an agreement with the facility for the provision of nursing services under § 409.21 of this subchapter, the facility is considered to have an indirect employment relationship with the physician extender.
(2) An indirect employment relationship does not exist if the agreement between the entity and the facility involves only the performance of delegated physician tasks under § 483.30(e) of this chapter.
(f) Recertification requirement fulfilled by utilization review. A SNF may substitute utilization review of extended stay cases for the second and subsequent recertifications, if it includes this procedure in its utilization review plan.
(g) Description of procedures. The SNF must have available on file a written description that specifies the certification and recertification time schedule and indicates whether utilization review is used as an alternative to the second and subsequent recertifications.
[53 FR 6634, Mar. 2, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 37275, Sept. 7, 1989; 58 FR 30671, May 26, 1993; 60 FR 38272, July 26, 1995; 62 FR 46037, Aug. 29, 1997; 63 FR 26311, May 12, 1998; 63 FR 53307, Oct. 5, 1998; 66 FR 39600, July 31, 2001; 70 FR 45055, Aug. 4, 2005; 75 FR 73626, Nov. 29, 2010; 82 FR 36635, Aug. 4, 2017; 83 FR 39290, Aug. 8, 2018]
§ 424.22 Requirements for home health services.
Medicare Part A or Part B pays for home health services only if a physician or allowed practitioner as defined at § 484.2 of this chapter certifies and recertifies the content specified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (b)(2) of this section, as appropriate.
(a) Certification—(1) Content of certification. As a condition for payment of home health services under Medicare Part A or Medicare Part B, a physician or allowed practitioner must certify the patient's eligibility for the home health benefit, as outlined in sections 1814(a)(2)(C) and 1835(a)(2)(A) of the Act, as follows in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (v) of this section. The patient's medical record, as specified in paragraph (c) of this section, must support the certification of eligibility as outlined in paragraph (a)(1)(i) through (v) of this section.
(i) The individual needs or needed intermittent skilled nursing care, or physical therapy or speech-language pathology services as defined in § 409.42(c) of this chapter. If a patient's underlying condition or complication requires a registered nurse to ensure that essential non-skilled care is achieving its purpose, and necessitates a registered nurse be involved in the development, management, and evaluation of a patient's care plan, the physician or allowed practitioner will include a brief narrative describing the clinical justification of this need. If the narrative is part of the certification form, then the narrative must be located immediately prior to the physician or allowed practitioner's signature signature. If the narrative exists as an addendum to the certification form, in addition to the physician or allowed practitioner's signature signature on the certification form, the physician or allowed practitioner must sign immediately following the narrative in the addendum.
(ii) Home health services are or were required because the individual is or was confined to the home, as defined in sections 1835(a) and 1814(a) of the Act, except when receiving outpatient services.
(iii) A plan for furnishing the services has been established and will be or was periodically reviewed by a physician or allowed practitioner and who is not precluded from performing this function under paragraph (d) of this section.
(iv) The services will be or were furnished while the individual was under the care of a physician or allowed practitioner.
(v) A face-to-face patient encounter, which is related to the primary reason the patient requires home health services, occurred no more than 90 days prior to the home health start of care date or within 30 days of the start of the home health care and was performed by physician or non-physician practitioner defined in paragraph (a)(1)(v)(A) of this section. The certifying physician or certifying allowed practitioner must also document the date of the encounter as part of the certification.
(A) The face-to-face encounter must be performed by one of the following:
(1) A physician (as defined at § 484.2 of this chapter).
(2) A nurse practitioner (as defined at § 484.2 of this chapter).
(3) A clinical nurse specialist (as defined at § 484.2 of this chapter).
(4) A physician assistant (as defined at § 484.2 of this chapter).
(5) A certified nurse-midwife (as defined in section 1861(gg) of the Act) as authorized by State law.
(B) The face-to-face patient encounter may occur through telehealth, in compliance with section 1834(m) of the Act and subject to the list of payable Medicare telehealth services established by the applicable physician fee schedule regulation.
(2) Timing and signature. The certification of need for home health services must be obtained at the time the plan of care is established or as soon thereafter as possible and must be signed and dated by the physician or allowed practitioner who establishes the plan.
(b) Recertification—(1) Timing and signature of recertification. Recertification is required at least every 60 days when there is a need for continuous home health care after an initial 60-day episode. Recertification should occur at the time the plan of care is reviewed, and must be signed and dated by the physician or allowed practitioner who reviews the plan of care. Recertification is required at least every 60 days unless there is a—
(i) Beneficiary elected transfer; or
(ii) Discharge with goals met and/or no expectation of a return to home health care.
(2) Content and basis of recertification. As a condition for payment of home health services under Medicare Part A or Medicare Part B, if there is a continuing need for home health services, a physician or allowed practitioner must recertify the patient's continued eligibility for the home health benefit as outlined in sections 1814(a)(2)(C) and 1835(a)(2)(A) of the Act, as set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, and as specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section.
(i) Need for occupational therapy may be the basis for continuing services that were initiated because the individual needed skilled nursing care or physical therapy or speech therapy.
(ii) If a patient's underlying condition or complication requires a registered nurse to ensure that essential non-skilled care is achieving its purpose, and necessitates a registered nurse be involved in the development, management, and evaluation of a patient's care plan, the physician or allowed practitioner must include a brief narrative describing the clinical justification of this need. If the narrative—
(A) Is part of the recertification form, then the narrative must be located immediately prior to the physician or allowed practitioner's signature.
(B) Exists as an addendum to the recertification form, in addition to the physician or allowed practitioner's signature on the recertification form, the physician or allowed practitioner must sign immediately following the narrative in the addendum.
(c) Determining patient eligibility for Medicare home health services. (1) Documentation in the certifying physician or allowed practitioner's medical record or the acute/post-acute care facility's medical records (if the patient was directly admitted to home health) or both must be used as the basis for certification of the patient's eligibility for home health as described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (b) of this section. Documentation from the HHA may also be used to support the basis for certification of home health eligibility, but only if the following requirements are met:
(i) The documentation from the HHA can be corroborated by other medical record entries in the certifying physician or allowed practitioner's medical record for the patient or the acute/post-acute care facility's medical record for the patient or both, thereby creating a clinically consistent picture that the patient is eligible for Medicare home health services.
(ii)(A) The certifying physician or allowed practitioner signs and dates the HHA documentation demonstrating that the documentation from the HHA was considered when certifying patient eligibility for Medicare home health services.
(B) HHA documentation can include, but is not limited to, the patient's plan of care required under § 409.43 of this chapter, or the initial or comprehensive assessment of the patient required under § 484.55 of this chapter.
(2) The documentation must be provided upon request to review entities or CMS or both. If the documentation used as the basis for the certification of eligibility is not sufficient to demonstrate that the patient is or was eligible to receive services under the Medicare home health benefit, payment is not rendered for home health services provided.
(d) Limitation of the performance of physician or allowed practitioner's certification and plan of care functions. The need for home health services to be provided by an HHA may not be certified or recertified, and a plan of care may not be established and reviewed, by any physician or allowed practitioner who has a financial relationship as defined in § 411.354 of this chapter, with that HHA, unless the physician or allowed practitioner's relationship meets one of the exceptions in section 1877 of the Act, which sets forth general exceptions to the referral prohibition related to both ownership/investment and compensation; exceptions to the referral prohibition related to ownership or investment interests; and exceptions to the referral prohibition related to compensation arrangements.
(1) If a physician or allowed practitioner has a financial relationship as defined in § 411.354 of this chapter, with an HHA, the physician or allowed practitioner may not certify or recertify need for home health services provided by that HHA, establish or review a plan of treatment for such services, or conduct the face-to-face encounter required under sections 1814(a)(2)(C) and 1835(a)(2)(A) of the Act unless the financial relationship meets one of the exceptions set forth in § 411.355 through § 411.357 of this chapter.
(2) A Nonphysician practitioner may not perform the face-to-face encounter required under sections 1814(a)(2)(C) and 1835(a)(2)(A) of the Act if such encounter would be prohibited under paragraph (d)(1) if the nonphysician practitioner were a physician.
[53 FR 6638, Mar. 2, 1988; 53 FR 12945, Apr. 20, 1988; 56 FR 8845, Mar. 1, 1991, as amended at 65 FR 41211, July 3, 2000; 66 FR 962, Jan. 4, 2001; 70 FR 70334, Nov. 21, 2005; 72 FR 51098, Sept. 5, 2007; 74 FR 58133, Nov. 10, 2009; 75 FR 70463, Nov. 17, 2010; 76 FR 9503, Feb. 18, 2011; 76 FR 68606, Nov. 4, 2011; 77 FR 67163, Nov. 8, 2012; 79 FR 66116, Nov. 6, 2014; 80 FR 68717, Nov. 5, 2015; 83 FR 56627, Nov. 13, 2018; 85 FR 27624, May 8, 2020; 90 FR 55607, Dec. 2, 2025]
§ 424.24 Requirements for medical and other health services furnished by providers under Medicare Part B.
(a) Exempted services. Certification is not required for the following:
(1) Hospital services and supplies incident to physicians' services furnished to outpatients. The exemption applies to drugs and biologicals that cannot be self-administered, but not to partial hospitalization services, as set forth in paragraph (e) of this section.
(2) Outpatient hospital diagnostic services, including necessary drugs and biologicals, ordinarily furnished or arranged for by a hospital for the purpose of diagnostic study.
(b) General rule. Medicare Part B pays for medical and other health services furnished by providers (and not exempted under paragraph (a) of this section) only if a physician certifies the content specified in paragraph (c)(1) or (4), (d)(1), or (e)(1) of this section, as appropriate.
(c) Outpatient physical therapy, occupational therapy, and speech-language pathology services—(1) Content of certification. (i) The individual needs, or needed, physical therapy, occupational therapy, or speech-language pathology services.
(ii) The services were furnished while the individual was under the care of a physician, nurse practitioner, clinical nurse specialist, or physician assistant.
(iii) The services were furnished under a plan of treatment that meets the requirements of § 410.61 of this chapter.
(2) Timing. The initial certification must be obtained as soon as possible after the plan is established.
(3) Signature. (i) If the plan of treatment is established by a physician, nurse practitioner, clinical nurse specialist, or physician assistant, the certification must be signed by that physician or nonphysician practitioner.
(ii) If the plan of treatment is established by a physical therapist, occupational therapist, or speech-language pathologist, the certification must be signed by a physician or by a nurse practitioner, clinical nurse specialist, or physician assistant who has knowledge of the case, except as specified in paragraph (c)(5) of this section.
(4) Recertification—(i) Timing. Recertification is required at least every 90 days.
(ii) Content. When it is recertified, the plan or other documentation in the patient's record must indicate the continuing need for physical therapy, occupational therapy or speech-language pathology services.
(iii) Signature. The physician, nurse practitioner, clinical nurse specialist, or physician assistant who reviews the plan must recertify the plan by signing the medical record.
(5) Treatment plan. If the plan of treatment is established by a physical therapist, occupational therapist, or speech-language pathologist, and there is a written order or referral from the individual's physician, nurse practitioner (NP), physician assistant (PA), or clinical nurse specialist (CNS) in the patient's record and the therapist has documented evidence that the plan of treatment has been delivered to the physician, NP, PA, or CNS within 30 days of completion of the initial evaluation, the certification does not need to be signed by a physician, NP, CNS, or PA who has knowledge of the case. If there is no written order or referral from the individual's physician, NP, CNS, or PA, in the patient's record, the therapist must obtain the signature of the physician, NP, PA, or CNS on the plan of treatment in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section. No references to an order or referral in this subsection shall be construed to require an order or referral for outpatient physical therapy, occupational therapy, or speech-language pathology services.
(d) Intensive outpatient services: Content of certification and plan of treatment requirements—
(1) Content of certification. (i) The individual requires such services for a minimum of 9 hours per week.
(ii) The services are or were furnished while the individual was under the care of a physician.
(iii) The services were furnished under a written plan of treatment that meets the requirements of paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
(2) Plan of treatment requirements. (i) The plan is an individualized plan that is established and is periodically reviewed by a physician in consultation with appropriate staff participating in the program, and that sets forth—
(A) The physician's diagnosis;
(B) The type, amount, duration, and frequency of the services; and
(C) The treatment goals under the plan.
(ii) The physician determines the frequency and duration of the services taking into account accepted norms of medical practice and a reasonable expectation of improvement in the patient's condition.
(3) Recertification requirements—(i) Signature. The physician recertification must be signed by a physician who is treating the patient and has knowledge of the patient's response to treatment.
(ii) Timing. Recertifications are required at intervals established by the provider, but no less frequently than every 60 days.
(iii) Content. The recertification must specify that the patient continues to require at least 9 hours of intensive outpatient services and describe the following:
(A) The patient's response to the therapeutic interventions provided by the intensive outpatient program.
(B) The patient's psychiatric symptoms that continue to place the patient at risk of relapse or hospitalization.
(C) Treatment goals for coordination of services to facilitate discharge from the intensive outpatient program.
(e) Partial hospitalization services: Content of certification and plan of treatment requirements—(1) Content of certification. (i) The individual requires such services for a minimum of 20 hours per week and would require inpatient psychiatric care if the partial hospitalization services were not provided.
(ii) The services are or were furnished while the individual was under the care of a physician.
(iii) The services were furnished under a written plan of treatment that meets the requirements of paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
(2) Plan of treatment requirements. (i) The plan is an individualized plan that is established and is periodically reviewed by a physician in consultation with appropriate staff participating in the program, and that sets forth—
(A) The physician's diagnosis;
(B) The type, amount, duration, and frequency of the services; and
(C) The treatment goals under the plan.
(ii) The physician determines the frequency and duration of the services taking into account accepted norms of medical practice and a reasonable expectation of improvement in the patient's condition.
(3) Recertification requirements—(i) Signature. The physician recertification must be signed by a physician who is treating the patient and has knowledge of the patient's response to treatment.
(ii) Timing. The first recertification is required as of the 18th day of partial hospitalization services. Subsequent recertifications are required at intervals established by the provider, but no less frequently than every 30 days.
(iii) Content. The recertification must specify that the patient would otherwise require inpatient psychiatric care in the absence of continued stay in the partial hospitalization program and describe the following:
(A) The patient's response to the therapeutic interventions provided by the partial hospitalization program.
(B) The patient's psychiatric symptoms that continue to place the patient at risk of hospitalization.
(C) Treatment goals for coordination of services to facilitate discharge from the partial hospitalization program.
(f) Blood glucose testing. For each blood glucose test, the physician must certify that the test is medically necessary. A physician's standing order is not sufficient to order a series of blood glucose tests payable under the clinical laboratory fee schedule.
(g) All other covered medical and other health services furnished by providers—(1) Content of certification. The services were medically necessary,
(2) Signature. The certificate must be signed by a physician, nurse practioner, clinical nurse specialist, or physician assistant who has knowledge of the case.
(3) Timing. The physician, nurse practioner, clinical nurse specialist, or physician assistant may provide certification at the time the services are furnished or, if services are provided on a continuing basis, either at the beginning or at the end of a series of visits.
(4) Recertification. Recertification of continued need for services is not required.
[53 FR 6638, Mar. 2, 1988; 53 FR 12945, Apr. 20, 1988, as amended at 56 FR 8845, 8853, Mar. 1, 1991; 63 FR 58912, Nov. 2, 1998; 65 FR 18548, Apr. 7, 2000; 71 FR 69788, Dec. 1, 2006; 72 FR 66405, Nov. 27, 2007; 88 FR 82182, Nov. 22, 2023; 89 FR 98565, Dec. 9, 2024]
§ 424.27 Requirements for comprehensive outpatient rehabilitation facility (CORF) services.
Medicare Part B pays for CORF services only if a physician certifies, and the facility physician recertifies, the content specified in paragraphs (a) and (b)(2) of this section, as appropriate.
(a) Certification: Content. (1) The services were required because the individual needed skilled rehabilitation services;
(2) The services were furnished while the individual was under the care of a physician; and
(3) A written plan of treatment has been established and is reviewed periodically by a physician.
(b) Recertification—(1) Timing. Recertification is required at least every 60 days for respiratory therapy services and every 90 days for physical therapy, occupational therapy, and speech-language pathology services based on review by a facility physician or the referring physician who, when appropriate, consults with the professional personnel who furnish the services.
(2) Content. (i) The plan is being followed;
(ii) The patient is making progress in attaining the rehabilitation goals; and,
(iii) The treatment is not having any harmful effect on the patient.
[53 FR 6634, Mar. 2, 1988, as amended at 72 FR 66405, Nov. 27, 2007]
Subpart C Claims for Payment
§ 424.30 Scope.
This subpart sets forth the requirements, procedures, and time limits for claiming Medicare payments. Claims must be filed in all cases except when services are furnished on a prepaid capitation basis by an MA organization, or through cost settlement with either a health maintenance organization (HMO), a competitive medical plan (CMP), or a health care prepayment plan (HCPP), or as part of a demonstration. Therefore, claims must be filed by hospitals seeking IME payment under § 412.105(g) of this chapter, and/or direct GME payment under § 413.76(c) of this chapter, and/or nursing or allied health education payment under § 413.87 of this chapter associated with inpatient services furnished on a prepaid capitation basis by an MA organization. Hospitals that must report patient data for purposes of the DSH payment adjustment under § 412.106 of this chapter for inpatient services furnished on a prepaid capitation basis by an MA organization, or through cost settlement with an HMO/CMP, or as part of a demonstration, are required to file claims by submitting no pay bills for such inpatients. Special procedures for claiming payment after the beneficiary has died and for certain bills paid by organizations are set forth in subpart E of this part.
[77 FR 53682, Aug. 31, 2012]
§ 424.32 Basic requirements for all claims.
(a) A claim must meet the following requirements:
(1) A claim must be filed with the appropriate intermediary or carrier on a form prescribed by CMS in accordance with CMS instructions.
(2) A claim for physician services, clinical psychologist services, or clinical social worker services must include appropriate diagnostic coding for those services using ICD-9-CM.
(3) A claim must be signed by the beneficiary or on behalf of the beneficiary (in accordance with § 424.36).
(4) A claim must be filed within the time limits specified in § 424.44.
(5) All Part B claims for services furnished to SNF residents (whether filed by the SNF or by another entity) must include the SNF's Medicare provider number and appropriate HCPCS coding.
(b) The prescribed forms for claims are the following:
CMS-1450—Uniform Institutional Provider Bill. (This form is for institutional provider billing for Medicare inpatient, outpatient and home health services.) CMS-1490S—Request for Medicare payment. (For use by a patient to request payment for medical expenses.) CMS-1500—Health Insurance Claim Form. (For use by physicians and other suppliers to request payment for medical services.) CMS-1660—Request for Information-Medicare Payment for Services to a Patient now Deceased. (For use in requesting amounts payable under title XVIII to a deceased beneficiary.)
(c) Where claims forms are available. Excluding forms CMS-1450 and CMS-1500, all claims forms prescribed for use in the Medicare program are distributed free-of-charge to the public, institutions, or organizations. The CMS-1450 and CMS-1500 may be obtained only by commercial purchase. All other claims forms can be obtained upon request from CMS or any Social Security branch or district office, or from Medicare intermediaries or carriers. The CMS-1490S is also available at local Social Security Offices.
(d) Submission of electronic claims—(1) Definitions. For purposes of this paragraph, the following terms have the following meanings:
(i) Claim means a transaction defined at 45 CFR 162.1101(a).
(ii) Electronic claim means a claim that is submitted via electronic media. A claim submitted via direct data entry is considered to be an electronic claim.
(iii) Direct data entry is defined at 45 CFR 162.103.
(iv) Electronic media is defined at 45 CFR 160.103.
(v) Initial Medicare claim means a claim submitted to Medicare for payment under Part A or Part B of the Medicare Program under title XVIII of the Act for initial processing, including claims sent to Medicare for the first time for secondary payment purposes. Initial Medicare claim excludes any adjustment or appeal of a previously submitted claim, and claims submitted for payment under Part C of the Medicare program under title XVIII of the Act.
(vi) Physician, practitioner, facility, or supplier is a Medicare provider or supplier other than a provider of services.
(vii) Provider of services means a provider of services as defined in section 1861(u) of the Act.
(viii) Small provider of services or small supplier means—
(A) A provider of services with fewer than 25 full-time equivalent employees; or
(B) A physician, practitioner, facility, or supplier with fewer than 10 full-time equivalent employees.
(2) Submission of electronic claims required. Except for claims to which paragraph (d)(3) or (d)(4) of this section applies, an initial Medicare claim may be paid only if submitted as an electronic claim for processing by the Medicare fiscal intermediary or carrier that serves the physician, practitioner, facility, supplier, or provider of services. This requirement does not apply to any other transactions, including adjustment or appeal of the initial Medicare claim.
(3) Exceptions to requirement to submit electronic claims. The requirement of paragraph (d)(2) of this section is waived for any initial Medicare claim when—
(i) There is no method available for the submission of an electronic claim. This exception includes claims submitted by Medicare beneficiaries and situations in which the standard adopted by the Secretary at 45 FR 162.1102 does not support all of the information necessary for payment of the claim. The Secretary may identify situations coming within this exception in guidance.
(ii) The entity submitting the claim is a small provider of services or small supplier.
(4) Unusual cases. The Secretary may waive the requirement of paragraph (d)(2) of this section in unusual cases as the Secretary finds appropriate. Unusual cases are deemed to exist in the following situations:
(i) The submission of dental claims.
(ii) There is a service interruption in the mode of submitting the electronic claim that is outside the control of the entity submitting the claim, for the period of the interruption.
(iii) The entity submitting the claim submits fewer than 10 claims to Medicare per month, on average.
(iv) The entity submitting the claim only furnishes services outside of the U.S. territory.
(v) On demonstration, satisfactory to the Secretary, of other extraordinary circumstances precluding submission of electronic claims.
(5) Effective date. This paragraph (d) is effective October 16, 2003, and applies to claims submitted on or after October 16, 2003.
[53 FR 6639, Mar. 2, 1988; 53 FR 12945, Apr. 20, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 10299, Mar. 4, 1994; 63 FR 26311, May 12, 1998; 63 FR 53307, Oct. 5, 1998; 66 FR 39601, July 31, 2001; 68 FR 48813, Aug. 15, 2003; 70 FR 71020, Nov. 25, 2005; 71 FR 48143, Aug. 18, 2006; 72 FR 66405, Nov. 27, 2007]
§ 424.33 Additional requirements: Claims for services of providers and claims by suppliers and nonparticipating hospitals.
All claims for services of providers and all claims by suppliers and nonparticipating hospitals must be—
(a) Filed by the provider, supplier, or hospital; and
(b) Signed by the provider, supplier, or hospital unless CMS instructions waive this requirement.
§ 424.34 Additional requirements: Beneficiary's claim for direct payment.
(a) Basic rule. A beneficiary's claim for direct payment for services furnished by a supplier, or by a nonparticipating hospital that has not elected to claim payment for emergency services, must include an itemized bill or a “report of services”, as specified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
(b) Itemized bill from the hospital or supplier. The itemized bill for the services, which may be receipted or unpaid, must include all of the following information:
(1) The name and address of—
(i) The beneficiary;
(ii) The supplier or nonparticipating hospital that furnished the services; and
(iii) The physician who prescribed the services if they were furnished by a supplier other than the physician.
(2) The place where each service was furnished, e.g., home, office, independent laboratory, hospital.
(3) The date each service was furnished.
(4) A listing of the services in sufficient detail to permit determination of payment under the fee schedule for physicians' services; for itemized bills from physicians, appropriate diagnostic coding using ICD-9-CM must be used.
(5) The charges for each service.
(c) Report of services furnished by a supplier. For Medicare Part B services furnished by a supplier, the beneficiary claims may include the “Report of Services” portion of the appropriate claims form, completed by the supplier in accordance with CMS instructions, in lieu of an itemized bill.
[53 FR 6634, Mar. 2, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 10299, Mar. 4, 1994; 59 FR 26740, May 24, 1994]
§ 424.36 Signature requirements.
(a) General rule. The beneficiary's own signature is required on the claim unless the beneficiary has died or the provisions of paragraphs (b), (c), or (d) of this section apply. For purposes of this section, “the claim” includes the actual claim form or such other form that contains adequate notice to the beneficiary or other authorized individual that the purpose of the signature is to authorize a provider or supplier to submit a claim to Medicare for specified services furnished to the beneficiary.
(b) Who may sign when the beneficiary is incapable. If the beneficiary is physically or mentally incapable of signing the claim, the claim may be signed on his or her behalf by one of the following:
(1) The beneficiary's legal guardian.
(2) A relative or other person who receives social security or other governmental benefits on the beneficiary's behalf.
(3) A relative or other person who arranges for the beneficiary's treatment or exercises other responsibility for his or her affairs.
(4) A representative of an agency or institution that did not furnish the services for which payment is claimed but furnished other care, services, or assistance to the beneficiary.
(5) A representative of the provider or of the nonparticipating hospital claiming payment for services it has furnished if the provider or nonparticipating hospital is unable to have the claim signed in accordance with paragraph (b)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section after making reasonable efforts to locate and obtain the signature of one of the individuals specified in paragraph (b)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section.
(6) An ambulance provider or supplier with respect to emergency or nonemergency ambulance transport services, if the following conditions and documentation requirements are met.
(i) None of the individuals listed in paragraph (b)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section was available or willing to sign the claim on behalf of the beneficiary at the time the service was provided;
(ii) The ambulance provider or supplier maintains in its files the following information and documentation for a period of at least four years from the date of service:
(A) A contemporaneous statement, signed by an ambulance employee present during the trip to the receiving facility, that, at the time the service was provided, the beneficiary was physically or mentally incapable of signing the claim and that none of the individuals listed in paragraph (b)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section were available or willing to sign the claim on behalf of the beneficiary, and
(B) Documentation with the date and time the beneficiary was transported, and the name and location of the facility that received the beneficiary, and
(C) Either of the following:
(1) A signed contemporaneous statement from a representative of the facility that received the beneficiary, which documents the name of the beneficiary and the date and time the beneficiary was received by that facility; or
(2) The requested information from a representative of the hospital or facility using a secondary form of verification obtained at a later date, but prior to submitting the claim to Medicare for payment. Secondary forms of verification include a copy of any of the following:
(i) The signed patient care/trip report;
(ii) The facility or hospital registration/admission sheet;
(iii) The patient medical record;
(iv) The facility or hospital log; or
(v) Other internal facility or hospital records.
(c) Who may sign if the beneficiary was not present for the service. If a provider, nonparticipating hospital, or supplier files a claim for services that involved no personal contact between the provider, hospital, or supplier and the beneficiary (for example, a physician sent a blood sample to the provider for diagnostic tests), a representative of the provider, hospital, or supplier may sign the claim on the beneficiary's behalf.
(d) Claims by entities that provide coverage complementary to Medicare. A claim by an entity that provides coverage complementary to Medicare Part B may be signed by the entity on the beneficiary's behalf.
(e) Acceptance of other signatures for good cause. If good cause is shown, CMS may honor a claim signed by a party other than those specified in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section.
[53 FR 6640, Mar. 2, 1988; 53 FR 12945, Apr. 20, 1988, as amended at 53 FR 28388, July 28, 1988; 72 FR 66406, Nov. 27, 2007; 73 FR 2432, Jan. 15, 2008; 73 FR 66938, Nov. 19, 2008]
§ 424.37 Evidence of authority to sign on behalf of the beneficiary.
(a) Beneficiary incapable. When a party specified in § 424.36(b) signs a claim or request for payment statement, he or she must also submit a brief statement that—
(1) Describes his or her relationship to the beneficiary; and
(2) Explains the circumstances that make it impractical for the beneficiary to sign the claim or statement.
(b) Beneficiary not present for services. When a representative of the provider, nonparticipating hospital, or supplier signs a claim or request for payment statement under § 424.36(c), he or she must explain why it was not possible to obtain the beneficiary's signature. (For example: “Patient not physically present for test.”)
[53 FR 6640, Mar. 2, 1988; 53 FR 12945, Apr. 20, 1988]
§ 424.40 Request for payment effective for more than one claim.
(a) Basic procedure. A separate request for payment statement prescribed by CMS and signed by the beneficiary (or by his or her representative) may be included in claims by reference, in the circumstances specified in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section.
(b) Claims filed by a provider or nonparticipating hospital—(1) Inpatient services. A signed request for payment statement, included in the first claim for Part A services furnished by a facility (a participating hospital or SNF, or a nonparticipating hospital that has elected to claim payment) during a beneficiary's period of confinement, may be effective for all claims for Part A services the facility furnishes that beneficiary during that confinement.
(2) Home health services and outpatient physical therapy or speech pathology services. A signed request for payment statement, included in the first claim for home health services or outpatient physical therapy or speech pathology services furnished by a provider under a plan of treatment, may be effective for all claims for home health services or outpatient physical therapy or speech pathology services furnished by the provider under that plan of treatment.
(c) Signed statement in the provider record—(1) Services to inpatients. A signed request for payment statement in the files of a participating hospital or SNF may be effective for all claims for services furnished to the beneficiary during a single inpatient stay in that facility—
(i) By the hospital or SNF;
(ii) By physicians, if their services are billed by the hospital or SNF in its name; or
(iii) By physicians who bill separately, if the services were furnished in the hospital or SNF.
(2) Services to outpatients: Providers and renal dialysis facilities. A signed request for payment statement retained in the provider's or facility's files may be effective indefinitely, for all claims for services furnished to that beneficiary on an outpatient basis—
(i) By the provider or facility;
(ii) By physicians whose services are billed by the provider or facility in its name; or
(iii) By physicians who bill separately, if the services were furnished in the provider or facility.
(3) Services to outpatients: Independent rural health clinics and Federally qualified health centers. A signed request for payment statement retained in the clinic's or center's files may be effective indefinitely for all claims for services furnished to that beneficiary by the clinic.
(d) Signed statement in the supplier's record. A signed request for payment statement retained in the supplier's file may be effective indefinitely subject to the following restrictions:
(1) This policy does not apply to unassigned claims for rental of durable medical equipment (DME).
(2) With respect to assigned claims for rental or purchase of DME, a new statement is required if another item of equipment is rented or purchased.
[53 FR 6634, Mar. 2, 1988, as amended at 57 FR 24982, June 12, 1992]
§ 424.44 Time limits for filing claims.
(a) Time limits. (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (e) of this section, for services furnished on or after January 1, 2010, the claim must be filed no later than the close of the period ending 1 calendar year after the date of service.
(2) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (e) of this section and except for services furnished during the last 3 months of 2009, for services furnished before January 1, 2010, the claim must be filed—
(i) On or before December 31 of the following year for services that were furnished during the first 9 months of a calendar year; and
(ii) On or before December 31st of the second following year for services that were furnished during the last 3 months of the calendar year.
(3) For services furnished during the last 3 months of CY 2009 all claims must be filed no later than December 31, 2010.
(b) Exceptions to time limits. Exceptions to the time limits for filing claims include the following:
(1) The time for filing a claim will be extended if CMS or one of its contractors determines that a failure to meet the deadline in paragraph (a) of this section was caused by error or misrepresentation of an employee, Medicare contractor (including Medicare Administrative Contractor, intermediary, or carrier), or agent of HHS that was performing Medicare functions and acting within the scope of its authority.
(2) The time for filing a claim will be extended if CMS or one of its contractors determines that a failure to meet the deadline in paragraph (a) of this section is caused by all of the following conditions:
(i) At the time the service was furnished the beneficiary was not entitled to Medicare.
(ii) The beneficiary subsequently received notification of Medicare entitlement effective retroactively to or before the date of the furnished service.
(3) The time for filing a claim will be extended if CMS or one of its contractors determines that a failure to meet the deadline in paragraph (a) of this section is caused by all of the following conditions:
(i) At the time the service was furnished the beneficiary was not entitled to Medicare.
(ii) The beneficiary subsequently received notification of Medicare entitlement effective retroactively to or before the date of the furnished service.
(iii) A State Medicaid agency recovered the Medicaid payment for the furnished service from a provider or supplier 6 months or more after the service was furnished.
(4) The time for filing a claim will be extended if CMS or one of its contractors determines that a failure to meet the deadline in paragraph (a) of this section is caused by all of the following conditions:
(i) At the time the service was furnished the beneficiary was enrolled in a Medicare Advantage plan or Program of All-inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE) provider organization.
(ii) The beneficiary was subsequently disenrolled from the Medicare Advantage plan or Program of All-inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE) provider organization effective retroactively to or before the date of the furnished service.
(iii) The Medicare Advantage plan or Program of All-inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE) provider organization recovered its payment for the furnished service from a provider or supplier 6 months or more after the service was furnished.
(5) Extension of time. (i) If CMS or one of its contractors determines that a failure to meet the deadline specified in paragraph (a) of this section was caused by error or misrepresentation of an employee, Medicare contractor (including Medicare Administrative Contractor, intermediary, or carrier), or agent of HHS that was performing Medicare functions and acting within the scope of its authority, the time to file a claim will be extended through the last day of the sixth calendar month following the month in which either the beneficiary or the provider or supplier received notification that the error or misrepresentation referenced in paragraph (b)(1) of this section was corrected. No extension of time will be granted for paragraph (b)(1) when the request for that exception is made to CMS or one of its contractors more than 4 years after the date of service.
(ii) If CMS or one of its contractors determines that both of the conditions are met in paragraph (b)(2) of this section but that all of the conditions in paragraph (b)(3) are not satisfied, the time to file a claim will be extended through the last day of the sixth calendar month following the month in which either the beneficiary or the provider or supplier received notification of Medicare entitlement effective retroactively to or before the date of the furnished service.
(iii) If CMS or one of its contractors determines that all of the conditions are met in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the time to file a claim will be extended through the last day of the sixth calendar month following the month in which the State Medicaid agency recovered the Medicaid payment for the furnished service from the provider or supplier.
(iv) If CMS or one of its contractors determines that all of the conditions are met in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, the time to file a claim will be extended through the last day of the sixth calendar month following the month in which the Medicare Advantage plan or Program of All-inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE) provider organization recovered its payment for the furnished service from the provider or supplier.
(c) Extension of period ending on a nonworkday. If the last day of the period allowed under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section falls on a Federal nonworkday (a Saturday, Sunday, legal holiday, or a day which by statute or Executive Order is declared to be a nonworkday for Federal employees), the time is extended to the next succeeding workday.
(d) Outpatient diabetes self-management training. CMS makes payment in half-hour increments to an entity for the furnishing of outpatient diabetes self-management training on or after the approval date CMS approves the entity to furnish the services under part 410, subpart H of this chapter.
(e) As specified in §§ 424.520 and 424.521 of this subpart, there are restrictions on the ability of the following newly-enrolled suppliers to submit claims for items or services furnished prior to the effective date of their Medicare billing privileges:
(1) Physician or nonphysician practitioner organizations.
(2) Physicians.
(3) Nonphysician practitioners.
(4) Independent diagnostic testing facilities.
[53 FR 6634, Mar. 2, 1988, as amended at 65 FR 83153, Dec. 29, 2000; 73 FR 69939, Nov. 19, 2008; 75 FR 73627, Nov. 29, 2010]
Subpart D To Whom Payment Is Ordinarily Made
§ 424.50 Scope.
(a) This subpart specifies to whom Medicare payment is ordinarily made for different kinds of services.
(b) Subpart E of this part sets forth provisions applicable in special situations.
(c) Subpart F of this part specifies the exceptional circumstances under which payment may be made to an assignee or reassignee.
§ 424.51 Payment to the provider.
(a) Basic rule. Except as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, Medicare pays the provider for services furnished by a provider.
(b) Exception. Medicare pays the beneficiary for outpatient hospital services if the hospital has collected an amount in excess of the unmet deductible and coinsurance, as specified in § 489.30(b)(4) of this chapter.
§ 424.52 Payment to a nonparticipating hospital.
Medicare pays a nonparticipating hospital for the following services, if covered, in the specified circumstances:
(a) Emergency inpatient and outpatient services furnished by a U.S. hospital, if the hospital has in effect an election to claim payment in accordance with subpart G of this part.
(b) Certain medical and other health services covered under Medicare Part B and furnished by a U.S. hospital, if the hospital meets the requirements of § 424.55 for payment as a supplier.
(c) Emergency or nonemergency inpatient services furnished by a foreign hospital if the hospital has in effect an election to claim payment in accordance with subpart G of this part.
§ 424.53 Payment to the beneficiary.
Medicare pays the beneficiary for the following services, if covered, in the specified circumstances:
(a) Emergency inpatient and outpatient services furnished by a nonparticipating U.S. hospital that has not elected to claim payment in accordance with subpart G of this part.
(b) Certain medical and other health services covered under Medicare Part B and furnished by a nonparticipating U.S. hospital, if the hospital does not receive assigned payment as a supplier under § 424.55.
(c) Emergency or nonemergency services furnished by a foreign hospital if the hospital does not have in effect an election to claim payment in accordance with subpart H of this part.
(d) Physician and ambulance services furnished outside the United States.
(e) Services furnished by a supplier if the claim has not been assigned to the supplier.
§ 424.54 Payment to the beneficiary's legal guardian or representative payee.
Medicare may pay amounts due a beneficiary to the beneficiary's legal guardian or representative payee.
§ 424.55 Payment to the supplier.
(a) Medicare pays the supplier for covered services if the beneficiary (or the person authorized to request payment on the beneficiary's behalf) assigns the claim to the supplier and the supplier accepts assignment.
(b) In accepting assignment, the supplier agrees to the following:
(1) To accept, as full charge for the service, the amount approved by the carrier as the basis for determining the Medicare Part B payment (the reasonable charge or the lesser of the fee schedule amount and the actual charge).
(2) To limit charges to the beneficiary or any other source as follows:
(i) To collect nothing for those services for which Medicare pays 100 percent of the Medicare approved amount.
(ii) To collect only the difference between the Medicare approved amount and the Medicare Part B payment (for example, the amount of any reduction in incurred expenses under § 410.155(c), any applicable deductible amount, and any applicable coinsurance amount) for services for which Medicare pays less than 100 percent of the approved amount.
(3) Not to charge the beneficiary when Medicare paid for services determined to be “not reasonable or necessary” if—
(i) The beneficiary was without fault in the overpayment; and
(ii) The determination that the payment was incorrect was made by the carrier after the third year following the year in which the carrier sent notice to the beneficiary that it approved the payment.
(c) Exception. In situations when payment under the Act can only be made on an assignment-related basis or when payment is for services furnished by a participating physician or supplier, the beneficiary (or the person authorized to request payment on the beneficiary's behalf) is not required to assign the claim to the supplier in order for an assignment to be effective.
(d) For purposes of claims for services submitted by an MDPP supplier (as defined at § 410.79(b) of this chapter), Medicare deems such claims to have been assigned by the beneficiary (or the person authorized to request payment on the beneficiary's behalf) and the assignment accepted by the MDPP supplier.
[53 FR 6634, Mar. 2, 1988, as amended at 63 FR 20130, Apr. 23, 1998; 69 FR 66426, Nov. 15, 2004; 82 FR 53364, Nov. 15, 2017]
§ 424.56 Payment to a beneficiary and to a supplier.
(a) Conditions for split payment. If the beneficiary assigns the claim after paying part of the bill, payment may be made partly to the beneficiary and partly to the supplier.
(b) Payment to the supplier. Payment to the supplier who submits the assigned claim is for whichever of the following amounts is less:
(1) The reasonable charge minus the amount the beneficiary had already paid to the supplier; or
(2) The full Part B benefit due for the services furnished.
(c) Payment to the beneficiary. Any part of the Part B benefit which, on the basis of paragraph (b) of this section, is not payable to the supplier, is paid to the beneficiary.
(d) Examples.
Example 1.An assigned bill of $300 on which partial payment of $100 has been made is submitted to the carrier. The carrier determines that $300 is the reasonable charge for the service furnished. Total payment due is 80 percent of $300 or $240. Of this amount, $200 (the difference between the $100 partial payment and the $300 reasonable charge) is paid to the supplier. The remaining $40 is paid to the beneficiary.
Example 2.An assigned bill of $325 on which partial payment of $275 has been made is submitted to the carrier. The carrier determines that $275 is the reasonable charge for the services. Total payment due is 80 percent of $275 or $220. The $220 is paid to the beneficiary, since any payment to the supplier, when added to the $275 partial payment would exceed the reasonable charge for the services furnished.
[53 FR 6641, Mar. 2, 1988; 53 FR 12945, Apr. 20, 1988]
§ 424.57 Special payment rules for items furnished by DMEPOS suppliers and issuance of DMEPOS supplier billing privileges.
(a) Definitions. As used in this section, the following definitions apply:
Accredited DMEPOS suppliers means suppliers that have been accredited by a recognized independent accreditation organization approved by CMS in accordance with the requirements at § 424.58.
Affiliate means a person or organization that is related to another person or organization through a compensation arrangement or ownership.
Assessment means a sum certain that CMS or the Office of Inspector General (OIG) may assess against a DMEPOS supplier under Titles XI, XVIII, or XXI of the Social Security Act or as specified in this chapter.
Attended facility-based polysomnogram means a comprehensive diagnostic sleep test including at least electroencephalography, electro-oculography, electromyography, heart rate or electrocardiography, airflow, breathing effort, and arterial oxygen saturation furnished in a sleep laboratory facility in which a technologist supervises the recording during sleep time and has the ability to intervene if needed.
Authorized surety means a surety that has been issued a Certificate of Authority by the U.S. Department of the Treasury as an acceptable surety on Federal bonds and the certificate has neither expired nor been revoked.
Civil money penalty (CMP) means a sum that CMS has the authority, as implemented by 42 CFR 402.1(c); or OIG has the authority, under section 1128A of the Act or 42 CFR part 1003, to impose on a supplier as a penalty.
CMS approved accreditation organization means a recognized independent accreditation organization approved by CMS under § 424.58.
Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device means a machine that introduces air into the breathing passages at pressures high enough to overcome obstructions in the airway in order to improve airflow. The airway pressure delivered into the upper airway is continuous during both inspiration and expiration.
DMEPOS stands for durable medical equipment, prosthetics, orthotics and supplies.
DMEPOS supplier means an entity or individual, including a physician or a Part A provider, which sells or rents Part B covered items to Medicare beneficiaries and which meets the standards in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
Final adverse action means one or more of the following actions:
(i) A Medicare-imposed revocation of any Medicare billing privileges.
(ii) Suspension or revocation of a license to provide health care by any State licensing authority.
(iii) Revocation for failure to meet DMEPOS quality standards.
(iv) A conviction of a Federal or State felony offense (as defined in § 424.535(a)(3)(i) within the last 10 years preceding enrollment, revalidation, or re-enrollment.
(v) An exclusion or debarment from participation in a Federal or State health care program.
Government-operated supplier is a DMEPOS supplier owned or operated by a Federal, State, or Tribal entity.
Independent accreditation organization means an accreditation organization that accredits a supplier of DMEPOS and other items and services for a specific DMEPOS product category or a full line of DMEPOS product categories.
Medicare covered items means medical equipment and supplies as defined in section 1834(j)(5) of the Act.
Penal sum is the maximum obligation of the surety if a loss occurs.
Rider means a notice issued by a surety that a change in the bond has occurred or will occur.
Sleep test means an attended or unattended diagnostic test for a sleep disorder whether performed in or out of a sleep laboratory. The ‘provider of the sleep test’ is the individual or entity that directly or indirectly administers and/or interprets the sleep test and/or furnishes the sleep test device used to administer the sleep test.
Sufficient evidence means documents CMS may supply to the surety in order to establish that a DMEPOS supplier had received Medicare funds in excess of the amount due and payable under the statute and regulations, the amount of a CMP, or the amount of some other assessment against the DMEPOS supplier.
Surety bond means a bond issued by one or more sureties under 31 U.S.C. 9304 through 9308 and 31 CFR parts 223, 224, and 225.
Unpaid claim means an overpayment made by the Medicare program to the DMEPOS supplier for which the DMEPOS supplier is responsible, plus accrued interest that is effective 90 days after the date of the notice sent to the DMEPOS supplier of the overpayment. If a written agreement for payment, acceptable to CMS, is made, an unpaid claim also means a Medicare overpayment for which the DMEPOS supplier is responsible, plus accrued interest after the DME supplier's default on the arrangement.
(b) General rule. A DMEPOS supplier must meet the following conditions in order to be eligible to receive payment for a Medicare-covered item:
(1) The supplier has submitted a completed application to CMS to furnish Medicare-covered items including required enrollment forms. (The supplier must enroll separate physical locations it uses to furnish Medicare-covered DMEPOS, with the exception of locations that it uses solely as warehouses or repair facilities.)
(2) The item was furnished on or after the date CMS issued to the supplier a DMEPOS supplier number conveying billing privileges. (CMS issues only one supplier number for each location.) This requirement does not apply to items furnished incident to a physician's service.
(3) CMS has not revoked or excluded the DMEPOS supplier's privileges during the period which the item was furnished has not been revoked or excluded.
(4) A supplier that furnishes a drug used as a Medicare-covered supply with durable medical equipment or prosthetic devices must be licensed by the State to dispense drugs (A supplier of drugs must bill and receive payment for the drug in its own name. A physician, who is enrolled as a DMEPOS supplier, may dispense, and bill for, drugs under this standard if authorized by the State as part of the physician's license.)
(5) The supplier has furnished to CMS all information or documentation required to process the claim.
(6) The supplier is in compliance with all conditions of payment in paragraph (b) of this section, as well as with paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, at the time the item or service is furnished.
(c) Application certification standards. The supplier must meet and must certify in its application for billing privileges that it meets and will continue to meet the following standards:
(1) Operates its business and furnishes Medicare-covered items in compliance with the following applicable laws:
(i) Federal regulatory requirements that specify requirements for the provision of DMEPOS and ensure accessibility for the disabled.
(ii) State licensure and regulatory requirements. If a State requires licensure to furnish certain items or services, a DMEPOS supplier—
(A) Must be licensed to provide the item or service; and
(B) May contract with a licensed individual or other entity to provide the licensed services unless expressly prohibited by State law.
(2) Has not made, or caused to be made, any false statement or misrepresentation of a material fact on its application for billing privileges. (The supplier must provide complete and accurate information in response to questions on its application for billing privileges. The supplier must report to CMS any changes in information supplied on the application within 30 days of the change.);
(3) Must have the application for billing privileges signed by an individual whose signature binds a supplier;
(4) Fills orders, frabicates, or fits items from its own inventory or by contracting with other companies for the purchase of items necessary to fill the order. If it does, it must provide, upon request, copies of contracts or other documentation showing compliance with this standard. A supplier may not contract with any entity that is currently excluded from the Medicare program, any State health care programs, or from any other Federal Government Executive Branch procurement or nonprocurement program or activity;
(5) Advises beneficiaries that they may either rent or purchase inexpensive or routinely purchased durable medical equipment, and of the purchase option for capped rental durable medical equipment, as defined in § 414.220(a) of this subchapter. (The supplier must provide, upon request, documentation that it has provided beneficiaries with this information, in the form of copies of letters, logs, or signed notices.);
(6) Honors all warranties expressed and implied under applicable State law. A supplier must not charge the beneficiary or the Medicare program for the repair or replacement of Medicare covered items or for services covered under warranty. This standard applies to all purchased and rented items, including capped rental items, as described in § 414.229 of this subchapter. The supplier must provide, upon request, documentation that it has provided beneficiaries with information about Medicare covered items covered under warranty, in the form of copies of letters, logs, or signed notices;
(7) Maintains a physical facility on an appropriate site. An appropriate site must meet all of the following:
(i) Must meet the following criteria:
(A)(1) Except for orthotic and prosthetic personnel described in paragraph (c)(7)(i)(A)(2) of this section, maintains a practice location that is at least 200 square feet beginning—
(i) September 27, 2010 for a prospective DMEPOS supplier;
(ii) The first day after termination of an expiring lease for an existing DMEPOS supplier with a lease that expires on or after September 27, 2010 and before September 27, 2013; or
(iii) September 27, 2013, for an existing DMEPOS supplier with a lease that expires on or after September 27, 2013.
(2) Orthotic and prosthetic personnel providing custom fabricated orthotics or prosthetics in private practice do not have to meet the practice location requirements in paragraph (c)(7)(i)(A)(1) of this section if the orthotic and prosthetic personnel are—
(i) State-licensed; or
(ii) Practicing in a State that does not offer State licensure for orthotic and prosthetic personnel.
(B) Is in a location that is accessible to the public, Medicare beneficiaries, CMS, NSC, and its agents. (The location must not be in a gated community or other area where access is restricted.)
(C) Is accessible and staffed during posted hours of operation.
(D) Maintains a permanent visible sign in plain view and posts hours of operation. If the supplier's place of business is located within a building complex, the sign must be visible at the main entrance of the building or the hours can be posted at the entrance of the supplier.
(E) Except for business records that are stored in centralized location as described in paragraph (c)(7)(ii) of this section, is in a location that contains space for storing business records (including the supplier's delivery, maintenance, and beneficiary communication records).
(F) Is in a location that contains space for retaining the necessary ordering and referring documentation specified in § 424.516(f).
(ii) May be the centralized location for all of the business records and the ordering and referring documentation of a multisite supplier.
(iii) May be a “closed door” business, such as a pharmacy or supplier providing services only to beneficiaries residing in a nursing home, that complies with all applicable Federal, State, and local laws and regulations. “Closed door” businesses must comply with all the requirements in this paragraph.
(8) Permits CMS, the NSC, or agents of CMS or the NSC to conduct on-site inspections to ascertain supplier compliance with the requirements of this section.
(9) Maintains a primary business telephone that is operating at the appropriate site listed under the name of the business locally or toll-free for beneficiaries.
(i) Cellular phones, beepers, or pagers must not be used as the primary business telephone.
(ii) Calls must not be exclusively forwarded from the primary business telephone listed under the name of the business to a cellular phone, beeper, or pager.
(iii) Answering machines, answering services, facsimile machines or combination of these options must not be used exclusively as the primary business telephone during posted operating hours.
(10) Has a comprehensive liability insurance policy in the amount of at least $300,000 that covers both the supplier's place of business and all customers and employees of the supplier.
(i) In the case of a supplier that manufactures its own items, this insurance must also cover product liability and completed operations.
(ii) Failure to maintain required insurance at all times results in revocation of the supplier's billing privileges retroactive to the date the insurance lapsed.
(iii) An authorized official of the supplier (as that term is defined in § 424.502) must sign the liability insurance policy.
(11) Must agree not to contact a beneficiary by telephone when supplying a Medicare-covered item unless one of the following applies:
(i) The individual has given written permission to the supplier to contact them by telephone concerning the furnishing of a Medicare-covered item that is to be rented or purchased.
(ii) The supplier has furnished a Medicare-covered item to the individual and the supplier is contacting the individual to coordinate the delivery of the item.
(iii) If the contact concerns the furnishing of a Medicare-covered item other than a covered item already furnished to the individual, the supplier has furnished at least one covered item to the individual during the 15-month period preceding the date on which the supplier makes such contact.
(12) Must be responsible for the delivery of Medicare covered items to beneficiaries and maintain proof of delivery. (The supplier must document that it or another qualified party has at an appropriate time, provided beneficiaries with necessary information and instructions on how to use Medicare-covered items safely and effectively);
(13) Must answer questions and respond to complaints a beneficiary has about the Medicare-covered item that was sold or rented. A supplier must refer beneficiaries with Medicare questions to the appropriate carrier. A supplier must maintain documentation of contacts with beneficiaries regarding complaints or questions;
(14) Must maintain and replace at no charge or repair directly, or through a service contract with another company, Medicare-covered items it has rented to beneficiaries. The item must function as required and intended after being repaired or replaced;
(15) Must accept returns from beneficiaries of substandard (less than full quality for the particular item or unsuitable items, inappropriate for the beneficiary at the time it was fitted and rented or sold);
(16) Must disclose these supplier standards to each beneficiary to whom it supplies a Medicare-covered item;
(17) Must comply with the disclosure provisions in § 420.206 of this subchapter;
(18) Must not convey or reassign a supplier number;
(19) Must have a complaint resolution protocol to address beneficiary complaints that relate to supplier standards in paragraph (c) of this section and keep written complaints, related correspondence and any notes of actions taken in response to written and oral complaints. Failure to maintain such information may be considered evidence that supplier standards have not been met. (This information must be kept at its physical facility and made available to CMS, upon request.);
(20) Must maintain the following information on all written and oral beneficiary complaints, including telephone complaints, it receives:
(i) The name, address, telephone number, and health insurance claim number of the beneficiary.
(ii) A summary of the complaint; the date it was received; the name of the person receiving the complaint, and a summary of actions taken to resolve the complaint.
(iii) If an investigation was not conducted, the name of the person making the decision and the reason for the decision.
(21) Provides to CMS, upon request, any information required by the Medicare statute and implementing regulations.
(22)(i) All suppliers of DMEPOS and other items and services, and all of their locations whether owned or subcontracted, must meet the DMEPOS quality standards and be separately accredited to enroll in and bill Medicare.
(ii) The accreditation must indicate the specific products and services for which the DMEPOS supplier is accredited in order for the supplier to receive payment for those specific products and services.
(iii) An accredited DMEPOS supplier may be denied enrollment, or its enrollment may be revoked, if CMS determines that it is not compliant with the DMEPOS quality standards.
(23) All DMEPOS suppliers must notify their DMEPOS accrediting organization when a new DMEPOS location is opened.
(24) All accredited DMEPOS suppliers must be surveyed and reaccredited at least once every 12 months.
(25) All DMEPOS suppliers must disclose upon enrollment all products and services, including the addition of new product lines for which they are seeking accreditation. If a new product line is added after enrollment, the DMEPOS supplier will be responsible for notifying the accrediting body of the new product so that the DMEPOS supplier can be re-surveyed and accredited for these new products.
(26) Must meet the surety bond requirements specified in paragraph (d) of this section.
(27) Must obtain oxygen from a State-licensed oxygen supplier (applicable only to those suppliers in States that require oxygen licensure.)
(28) Is required to maintain ordering and referring documentation consistent with the provisions found in § 424.516(f)
(29)(i) Except as specified in paragraph (c)(29)(ii) of this section, is prohibited from sharing a practice location with any other Medicare supplier or provider.
(ii) The prohibition specified in paragraph (c)(29)(i) of this section is not applicable at a practice location that meets one of the following:
(A) Where a physician whose services are defined in section 1848(j)(3) of the Act or a nonphysician practitioner, as described in section 1842(b)(18)(C) of the Act, furnishes items to his or her own patient as part of his or her professional service.
(B) Where a physical or occupational therapist whose services are defined in sections 1861(p) and 1861(g) of the Act, furnishes items to his or her own patient as part of his or her professional service.
(C) Where a DMEPOS supplier is co-located with and owned by an enrolled Medicare provider (as described in § 489.2(b) of this chapter). The DMEPOS supplier—
(1) Must operate as a separate unit; and
(2) Meet all other DMEPOS supplier standards.
(30)(i) Except as specified in paragraph (c)(30)(ii) of this section, is open to the public a minimum of 30 hours per week.
(ii) The provision of paragraph (c)(30)(i) of this section is not applicable at a practice location where a—
(A) Physician whose services are defined in section 1848(j)(3) of the Act furnishes items to his or her own patient(s) as part of his or her professional service;
(B) A physical or occupational therapist whose services are defined in sections 1861(p) and 1861(g) of the Act furnishes items to his or her own patient(s) as part of his or her professional service; or
(C) DMEPOS supplier is working with custom made orthotics and prosthetics.
(d) Surety bonds requirements—(1) Effective date of surety bond requirements—(i) DMEPOS suppliers seeking enrollment or with a change in ownership. Except as provided in paragraph (d)(15) of this section, beginning May 4, 2009, DMEPOS suppliers seeking to enroll or to change the ownership of a supplier of DMEPOS must meet the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section for each assigned NPI for which the DMEPOS supplier is seeking to obtain Medicare billing privileges.
(ii) Existing DMEPOS suppliers. Except as provided in paragraph (d)(15) of this section, beginning October 2, 2009, each Medicare-enrolled DMEPOS supplier must meet the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section for each assigned NPI to which Medicare has granted billing privileges.
(2) Minimum requirements for a DMEPOS supplier. (i) A DMEPOS supplier enrolling in the Medicare program, making a change in ownership, or responding to a revalidation or reenrollment request must submit to the CMS contractor a surety bond from an authorized surety of $50,000 and, if required by the CMS contractor, an elevated bond amount as described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section with its paper or electronic Medicare enrollment application (CMS-855S, OMB number 0938-1056). The term of the initial surety bond must be effective on the date that the application is submitted to the CMS contractor.
(ii) A supplier that seeks to become an enrolled DMEPOS supplier through a purchase or transfer of assets or ownership interest must submit to the CMS contractor surety bond from an authorized surety of $50,000 and, if required by the CMS contractor, an elevated bond amount as described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section that is effective from the date of the purchase or transfer in order to exercise billing privileges as of that date. If the bond is effective at a later date, the effective date of the new DMEPOS supplier billing privileges is the effective date of the surety bond as validated by the CMS contractor.
(iii) A DMEPOS supplier enrolling a new practice location must submit to the CMS contractor a new surety bond from an authorized surety or an amendment or rider to the existing bond, showing that the new practice location is covered by an additional base surety bond of $50,000 or, as necessary, an elevated surety bond amount as described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
(3) Elevated surety bond amounts. (i) If required, a DMEPOS supplier must obtain and maintain a base surety bond in the amount of $50,000 as specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section and an elevated surety bond in the amount prescribed by the CMS contractor as described in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section.
(ii) The CMS contractor prescribes an elevated surety bond amount of $50,000 per occurrence of an adverse legal action within the 10 years preceding enrollment, revalidation, or reenrollment, as defined in paragraph (a) of this section.
(4) Type and terms of the surety bond—(i) Type of bond. A DMEPOS supplier must submit a bond that is continuous.
(ii) Minimum requirements of liability coverage. (A) The terms of the bond submitted by a DMEPOS supplier for the purpose of complying with this section must meet the minimum requirements of liability coverage ($50,000) and surety and DMEPOS supplier responsibility as set forth in this section.
(B) CMS requires a DMEPOS supplier to submit a bond that on its face reflects the requirements of this section. CMS revokes or denies a DMEPOS supplier's billing privileges based upon the submission of a bond that does not reflect the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section.
(5) Specific surety bond requirements. (i) The bond must guarantee that the surety will, within 30 days of receiving written notice from CMS containing sufficient evidence to establish the surety's liability under the bond of unpaid claims, CMPs, or assessments, pay CMS a total of up to the full penal amount of the bond in the following amounts:
(A) The amount of any unpaid claim, plus accrued interest, for which the DMEPOS supplier is responsible.
(B) The amount of any unpaid claims, CMPs, or assessments imposed by CMS or OIG on the DMEPOS supplier, plus accrued interest.
(ii) The bond must provide the following: The surety is liable for unpaid claims, CMPs, or assessments that occur during the term of the bond.
(iii) If the DMEPOS supplier fails to furnish a bond meeting the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section, fails to submit a rider when required, or if the DMEPOS supplier's billing privileges are revoked, the last bond or rider submitted by the DMEPOS supplier remains in effect until the last day of the surety bond coverage period and the surety remains liable for unpaid claims, CMPs, or assessments that—
(A) CMS or the OIG imposes or asserts against the DMEPOS supplier based on overpayments or other events that took place during the term of the bond or rider; and
(B) Were imposed or assessed by CMS or the OIG during the 2 years following the date that the DMEPOS supplier failed to submit a bond or required rider, or the date the DMEPOS supplier's billing privileges were terminated, whichever is later.
(6) Cancellation of a bond and lapse of surety bond coverage. (i) A DMEPOS supplier may cancel its surety bond and must provide written notice at least 30 days before the effective date of the cancellation to the CMS contractor and the surety.
(ii) Cancellation of a surety bond is grounds for revocation of the DMEPOS supplier's Medicare billing privileges unless the DMEPOS supplier provides a new bond before the effective date of the cancellation. The liability of the surety continues through the termination effective date.
(iii) If CMS receives notification of a lapse in bond coverage from the surety, the DMEPOS supplier's billing privileges are revoked. During this lapse, Medicare does not pay for items or services furnished during the gap in coverage, and the DMEPOS supplier is held liable for the items or services (that is, the DMEPOS supplier would not be permitted to charge the beneficiary for the items or services).
(iv) The surety must immediately notify the CMS contractor if there is a lapse in the surety's coverage of the DMEPOS supplier's coverage.
(7) Actions under the surety bond. The bond must provide that actions under the bond may be brought by CMS or by CMS contractors.
(8) Required surety information on the surety bond. The bond must provide the surety's name, street address or post office box number, city, state, and zip code.
(9) Change of surety. A DMEPOS supplier that obtains a replacement surety bond from a different surety to cover the remaining term of a previously obtained bond must submit the new surety bond to the CMS contractor at least 30 days prior to the expiration of the previous surety bond. There must be no gap in the coverage of the surety bond periods. If a gap in coverage exists, the CMS contractor revokes the DMEPOS supplier's billing privileges and does not pay for any items or services furnished by the DMEPOS supplier during the period for which no bond coverage was available. If a DMEPOS supplier changes its surety during the term of the bond, the new surety is responsible for any overpayments, CMPs, or assessments incurred by the DMEPOS supplier beginning with the effective date of the new surety bond. The previous surety is responsible for any overpayments, CMPs, or assessments that occurred up to the date of the change of surety.
(10) Parties to the surety bond. The surety bond must name the DMEPOS supplier as Principal, CMS as Obligee, and the surety (and its heirs, executors, administrators, successors and assignees, jointly and severally) as surety.
(11) Effect of DMEPOS supplier's failure to obtain, maintain, and timely file a surety bond.
(i) CMS revokes the DMEPOS supplier's billing privileges if an enrolled DMEPOS supplier fails to obtain, file timely, or maintain a surety bond as specified in this subpart and CMS instructions. Notwithstanding paragraph (e) of this section, the revocation is effective the date the bond lapsed and any payments for items furnished on or after that date must be repaid to CMS by the DMEPOS supplier.
(ii) CMS denies billing privileges to a DMEPOS supplier if the supplier seeking to become an enrolled DMEPOS supplier fails to obtain and file timely a surety bond as specified with this subpart and CMS instructions.
(12) Evidence of DMEPOS supplier's compliance. CMS may at any time require a DMEPOS supplier to show compliance with the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section.
(13) Effect of subsequent DMEPOS supplier payment. If a surety has paid an amount to CMS on the basis of liability incurred under a bond and CMS subsequently collects from the DMEPOS supplier, in whole or in part, on the unpaid claim, CMPs, or assessment that was the basis for the surety's liability, CMS reimburses the surety the amount that it collected from the DMEPOS supplier, up to the amount paid by the surety to CMS, provided the surety has no other liability to CMS under the bond.
(14) Effect of review reversing determination. If a surety has paid CMS on the basis of liability incurred under a surety bond and to the extent the DMEPOS supplier that obtained the bond is subsequently successful in appealing the determination that was the basis of the unpaid claim, CMP, or assessment that caused the DMEPOS supplier to pay CMS under the bond, CMS refunds the DMEPOS supplier the amount the DMEPOS supplier paid to CMS to the extent that the amount relates to the matter that was successfully appealed, provided all review, including judicial review, has been completed on the matter.
(15) Exception to the surety bond requirement—(i) Qualifying entities and requirements. (A) Government-operated DMEPOS suppliers are provided an exception to the surety bond requirement if the DMEPOS supplier has provided CMS with a comparable surety bond under State law.
(B) State-licensed orthotic and prosthetic personnel in private practice making custom made orthotics and prosthetics are provided an exception to the surety bond requirement if—
(1) The business is solely-owned and operated by the orthotic and prosthetic personnel, and
(2) The business is only billing for orthotic, prosthetics, and supplies.
(C) Physicians and nonphysician practitioners as defined in section 1842(b)(18) of the Act are provided an exception to the surety bond requirement when items are furnished only to the physician or nonphysician practitioner's own patients as part of his or her physician service.
(D) Physical and occupational therapists in private practice are provided an exception to the surety bond requirement if—
(1) The business is solely-owned and operated by the physical or occupational therapist;
(2) The items are furnished only to the physical or occupational therapist's own patients as part of his or her professional service; and
(3) The business is only billing for orthotics, prosthetics, and supplies.
(ii) Loss of a DMEPOS supplier exception. A DMEPOS supplier that no longer qualifies for an exception as described in paragraph (d)(15)(i) of this section must submit a surety bond to the CMS contractor in accordance with requirements of paragraph (d) of this section within 60 days after it knows or has reason to know that it no longer meets the criteria for an exception.
(e) Failure to meet standards—(1) Revocation. CMS revokes a supplier's billing privileges if it is found not to meet the conditions or standards in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. Except as otherwise provided in this section, the revocation effective date is as specified in § 424.535.
(2) Overpayments associated with final adverse actions. CMS or a CMS contractor may reopen (in accordance with § 405.980 of this chapter) all Medicare claims paid on or after the date of a final adverse action (as defined in paragraph (a) of this section) in order to establish an overpayment determination.
(f) Payment prohibition. No Medicare payment will be made to the supplier of a CPAP device if that supplier, or its affiliate, is directly or indirectly the provider of the sleep test used to diagnose the beneficiary with obstructive sleep apnea. This prohibition does not apply if the sleep test is an attended facility-based polysomnogram.
(g) Revalidation of billing privileges. A supplier must revalidate its application for billing privileges every 3 years after the billing privileges are first granted. (Each supplier must complete a new application for billing privileges 3 years after its last revalidation.)
(h) Change in majority ownership. A supplier must comply with the provisions of § 424.551 if it undergoes a change in majority ownership.
[65 FR 60377, Oct. 11, 2000, as amended at 71 FR 48409, Aug. 18, 2006; 73 FR 69939, Nov. 19, 2008; 75 FR 52648, Aug. 27, 2010; 76 FR 5962, Feb. 2, 2011; 77 FR 14994, Mar. 14, 2012; 79 FR 69773, Nov. 24, 2014; 87 FR 70231, Nov. 18, 2022; 90 FR 55607, Dec. 2, 2025]
§ 424.58 Accreditation.
(a) Scope and purpose. This part implements section 1834(a)(20)(B) of the Act, which requires the Secretary to designate and approve one or more independent accreditation organizations for purposes of enforcing the DMEPOS quality standards for suppliers of DMEPOS and other items or services. Section 1847(b)(2)(A)(i) of the Act requires a DMEPOS supplier to meet the DMEPOS quality standards under section 1834(a)(20) of the Act before being awarded a contract.
(b) Definitions. The following definitions apply to the provisions in this section:
Complaint means an allegation from any party and via any format that one of the DMEPOS accrediting organization's accredited DMEPOS suppliers may be non-compliant with one or more DMEPOS quality standards or other applicable CMS requirement. The complaint need not involve actual or potential beneficiary harm.
Immediate family member means any person with whom the accrediting organization owner(s), surveyors or employees have a lineal or immediate familial or marital relationship, including all of the following:
(i) A husband or wife.
(ii) Birth or adoptive parent, child, or sibling.
(iii) Stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, or stepsister.
(iv) Father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law.
(v) Grandparent or grandchild.
(vi) Spouse of a grandparent or grandchild.
Immediate jeopardy means a situation in which the DMEPOS supplier's non-compliance with one or more DMEPOS quality standards or other applicable CMS requirement has caused, or is likely to cause, serious injury, harm, impairment, or death to a patient or to the health and safety of the general public.
Reasonable assurance means that a DMEPOS accrediting organization has demonstrated to CMS' satisfaction all of the following:
(i) Its DMEPOS accreditation program requirements meet or exceed the Medicare program requirements.
(ii) The DMEPOS suppliers that the DMEPOS accrediting organization accredits meet or exceed Medicare program requirements.
(iii) The DMEPOS accrediting organization is compliant with all provisions of this section.
Unannounced survey means both of the following:
(i) A survey that is conducted without any prior notice of any type (through any means of communication or forum) to the DMEPOS supplier to be surveyed such that the supplier does not expect the survey until the surveyors arrive.
(ii) The DMEPOS accrediting organization schedules its surveys so that DMEPOS suppliers cannot predict when they will be performed.
(c) Initial application procedures—(1) Required information. An independent DMEPOS accrediting organization applying for initial approval of its DMEPOS accreditation program is required to furnish CMS with all the following information and materials to demonstrate that the DMEPOS accrediting organization provides reasonable assurance (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section) regarding its program.
(i) A list of the types of DMEPOS supplies, products, and services for which the organization is requesting approval.
(ii) A detailed comparison of the organization's accreditation requirements and standards with the applicable DMEPOS quality standards, such as a crosswalk.
(iii) A detailed description of the organization's operational, survey, and other accreditation processes to confirm that the DMEPOS suppliers it accredits meet or exceed the DMEPOS quality standards and Medicare program requirements. This must include all of the following:
(A) Procedures for performing unannounced surveys.
(B) Frequency of the surveys performed.
(C) Copies of the organization's survey forms.
(D) Guidelines and instructions to surveyors.
(E) Quality review processes for deficiencies identified with accreditation requirements.
(F) Dispute resolution processes and policies when there is a negative survey finding or decision.
(G) If the DMEPOS accrediting organization has the discretion to perform a survey in certain instances, how it determines whether to perform one. This must include a suggested methodology for sampling locations for surveys under a single tax identification number or organization.
(iv) Procedures used to notify DMEPOS suppliers of compliance or noncompliance with the accreditation requirements.
(v) Procedures used to monitor the correction of deficiencies found during an accreditation survey.
(vi) Procedures for coordinating surveys with another DMEPOS accrediting organization if the organization does not accredit all supplies, products, and services the DMEPOS supplier provides.
(vii) Detailed professional information about the individuals who perform surveys for the DMEPOS accrediting organization, including the size and composition of accreditation survey teams for each type of DMEPOS supplier accredited, and the education and experience requirements that surveyors must meet. The information must also include the following:
(A) The content and frequency of the continuing education training provided to survey personnel.
(B) The evaluation systems used to monitor the performance of individual surveyors and survey teams.
(C) Policies and procedures for a surveyor or institutional affiliate of the DMEPOS accrediting organization that participates in a survey or accreditation decision regarding a DMEPOS supplier with which that individual or institution is professionally or financially affiliated.
(D) The organization's policies and procedures to avoid conflicts of interest and the appearance thereof involving individuals who conduct surveys or participate in accreditation decisions. This must include the organization's policies and procedures for all of the following:
(1) The separation of its consulting services from its accreditation services.
(2) Protecting the integrity of the DMEPOS accrediting organization's accreditation program (including the requirements of paragraphs (m) and (n) of this section).
(3) The prevention and handling of potential or actual conflicts of interest that could arise from situations in which a DMEPOS accrediting organization owner, surveyor, or employee has an interest in, or relationship with, a DMEPOS supplier to which the accrediting organization provides accreditation services. Such interests or relationships include, but are not limited to the following:
(i) Being employed as a DMEPOS accrediting organization surveyor.
(ii) Being employed by a DMEPOS supplier that is accredited by the DMEPOS accrediting organization.
(iii) Having an ownership, financial, or investment interest in a DMEPOS supplier that is accredited by the DMEPOS accrediting organization.
(iv) Serving as a director of or trustee for a DMEPOS supplier that is accredited by the DMEPOS accrediting organization.
(v) Serving on a utilization review committee of a DMEPOS supplier that is accredited by the DMEPOS accrediting organization.
(vi) Accepting fees or payments from a DMEPOS supplier or group of DMEPOS suppliers that is/are accredited by the DMEPOS accrediting organization.
(vii) Accepting fees for personal services, contract services, referral services, or for furnishing supplies to a DMEPOS supplier that is accredited by the DMEPOS accrediting organization.
(viii) Providing consulting services to a DMEPOS supplier that the DMEPOS accrediting organization accredits.
(ix) Having any immediate family member (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section) engaged in any of the activities described in paragraphs (c)(1)(vii)(D)(3)(i) through (viii) of this section.
(x) Engaging in any activities during the course of the survey of the facility that would be or cause a conflict of interest.
(4) For notifying CMS when a conflict of interest is discovered.
(5) For the purposes of this section, a conflict of interest exists when a DMEPOS accrediting organization, the DMEPOS accrediting organization's successors, transferees, or assigns, the DMEPOS accrediting organization owner(s), surveyors, or employees, or the immediate family members of the DMEPOS accrediting organization owners(s), surveyors and other employees have an employment, business, financial or other type of interest in or relationship with a DMEPOS supplier that the DMEPOS accrediting organization accredits.
(E) The organization's policies and procedures for ensuring it has an adequate number of surveyors at all times.
(viii) Its processes for identifying and correcting deficiencies within its DMEPOS accreditation program.
(ix) A description of the organization's data management, analysis and reporting system for its surveys and accreditation decisions, including the kinds of reports, tables, and other displays generated by that system. This must also include a detailed description of how the organization uses its data to ensure the compliance of its DMEPOS accreditation program with Medicare program requirements.
(x) Procedures for responding to, investigating, and (as applicable) closing out complaints against accredited facilities, including policies and procedures regarding coordination of these activities with appropriate licensing bodies, ombudsman programs, the applicable National Provider Enrollment contractor, and CMS. This must also include a detailed outline of all of the following:
(A) The steps and research the DMEPOS accrediting organization will undertake in its initial review of the complaint as described in paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
(B) How the DMEPOS accrediting organization determines whether, in accordance with a complaint, non-compliance with a DMEPOS quality standard or other applicable CMS requirement exists, including the information it considers in its review and when and how it would take action against the DMEPOS supplier.
(xi) The organization's policies and procedures for notifying CMS of DMEPOS suppliers that fail to meet the DMEPOS accrediting organization's requirements.
(xii) A description of all types, categories, and durations of accreditations offered by the organization.
(xiii) A list of the following:
(A) All currently accredited DMEPOS suppliers.
(B) The types, categories, and product codes of accreditation currently held by each DMEPOS supplier.
(C) The effective and expiration dates of each DMEPOS supplier's current accreditation.
(D) The upcoming survey cycles for all DMEPOS suppliers' accreditation surveys scheduled to be performed by the organization.
(xiv) A written presentation that demonstrates the organization's ability to furnish CMS with electronic data in ASCII comparable code.
(xv) A resource analysis that demonstrates that the organization's staffing, funding, and other resources are adequate to perform fully the required surveys and related activities.
(xvi) Information that demonstrates the DMEPOS accrediting organization's knowledge, expertise, and experience in DMEPOS.
(xvii) Information about the DMEPOS accrediting organization's ability to conduct timely reviews of DMEPOS supplier accreditation applications.
(xviii) A description of the organization's accreditation decision-making process. This includes its policies and procedures for approving, denying, or terminating accreditation status for DMEPOS suppliers that fail to meet the DMEPOS accrediting organization's standards or requirements. This must include an explanation of the reasons for which it will deny or terminate a supplier's accreditation.
(xix) Policies and procedures for both of the following:
(A) Determining whether and when a survey is performed (for example, the DMEPOS supplier is providing a new item type). This includes the circumstances under which the DMEPOS accrediting organization will impose a corrective action plan (CAP) in lieu of performing a follow-up survey for an identified DMEPOS supplier deficiency.
(B) Ensuring that all onsite surveys are unannounced, including procedures that protect against unannounced surveys becoming known to the DMEPOS supplier before the visit.
(xx) Policies and procedures regarding when the DMEPOS accrediting organization will apply a CAP to a DMEPOS supplier. This must include the following:
(A) The specific circumstances under which the DMEPOS accrediting organization will apply a CAP as opposed to, as applicable, denying or terminating accreditation and the rationale for why the accrediting organization believes a CAP in these situations is more appropriate.
(B) How a CAP is developed, implemented, and enforced, including the following:
(1) How the DMEPOS accrediting organization determines whether a CAP is acceptable.
(2) The requirements of (and the timeframe and deadline for) the DMEPOS supplier's resumption of compliance.
(3) How the DMEPOS accrediting organization determines whether the DMEPOS supplier has resumed compliance and maintains compliance.
(4) The circumstances under which the DMEPOS accrediting organization will impose a CAP in lieu of performing a follow-up survey for an identified DMEPOS supplier deficiency.
(xxi) An explanation of the following:
(A) What the DMEPOS accrediting organization considers to be a DMEPOS supplier deficiency and how it defines the term deficiency.
(B) Whether the DMEPOS accrediting organization has different levels of DMEPOS supplier deficiencies.
(xxii) In performing the functions described in this section, its processes for both of the following:
(A) Detecting and addressing potential fraud, waste, and abuse by DMEPOS suppliers (including identifying the accrediting organization's definitions of the terms fraud, waste, and abuse).
(B) Reporting this activity to CMS and, as applicable, law enforcement.
(xxiii) A statement on the DMEPOS accrediting organization's letterhead that is signed and dated by the accrediting organization's chief executive officer (or similar official with authority to commit the organization to adhere to Medicare laws and regulations) acknowledging that, as a condition for CMS approval or continued approval of a DMEPOS accrediting organization's accreditation program, the organization agrees to all of the following:
(A) Provide CMS, within 3 business days of CMS's request, both of the following:
(1) Any of the information described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section.
(2) Any other information CMS deems necessary to facilitate its oversight of the DMEPOS accrediting organization's accreditation program.
(B) Provide CMS written notification when an accreditation survey or complaint investigation identifies an immediate jeopardy situation (as that term is defined in paragraph (b) of this section). Consistent with paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section, this notice must be provided within 2 business days of the finding.
(C) Provide written notification to CMS of any proposed changes to the DMEPOS accrediting organization's accreditation program and that it will not implement the proposed changes without prior written notice of continued program approval from CMS consistent with paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
(D) Notify CMS in writing of any decision to terminate, revoke, withdraw, or amend the accreditation status of a specific DMEPOS supplier within 3 business days of the date the organization took such action.
(E) Notify CMS of any decision to apply a CAP to a specific DMEPOS supplier within 10 calendar days of the decision. This notification must include the following:
(1) The reason for the decision.
(2) A detailed explanation and justification as to why the DMEPOS accrediting organization applied a CAP instead of, as applicable, denying or terminating the DMEPOS supplier's accreditation.
(3) The details of the DMEPOS supplier's CAP.
(F) Submit timely, accurate, and complete data to support CMS's evaluation of the DMEPOS accrediting organization's performance.
(1) Data to be submitted includes, but is not limited to, DMEPOS supplier identifying information, survey schedules, survey findings, and notices of accreditation decisions.
(2) The organization must submit necessary data according to the instructions and timeframes CMS specifies.
(G) In response to a written notice from CMS to the organization of a change in the CMS quality standards, survey process, or other requirement, provide CMS with proposed corresponding changes in the organization's requirements for its DMEPOS accreditation program to ensure continued comparability with the CMS quality standards, survey process, and requirements. This includes compliance with the following requirements:
(1) Submission of the data required in paragraph (e)(7) of this section.
(2) The proposed changes must be submitted to CMS within 30 calendar days of the date of the written CMS notice to the organization.
(3) The organization must not implement its proposed corresponding changes without prior CMS approval.
(H) Apply and adhere to in its accreditation activities any CMS-established—
(1) Definition(s) of deficiency; and
(2) Deficiency levels and categories.
(I) The DMEPOS accrediting organization will permit its surveyors to serve as witnesses if CMS takes an adverse action based on accreditation findings.
(J) If CMS permits the DMEPOS accrediting organization to perform surveys via a sampling process, the accrediting organization:
(1) Will submit to CMS its planned sampling methodology in detail; and
(2) Will not undertake sampling until CMS has approved the accrediting organization's submitted methodology.
(K) Will not include the following as patient medical records in its DMEPOS supplier surveys:
(1) Mock files.
(2) Fictional patient records.
(3) Simulated documentation.
(4) Templates.
(5) Duplicate patient records.
(L) Have a binding written agreement with each DMEPOS supplier the DMEPOS accrediting organization accredits regarding whether the accrediting organization, the supplier in question, or both will assume the costs of a survey that CMS directs the accrediting organization to perform in accordance with paragraph (e)(8)(ii) of this section.
(M) Submit all required information to CMS both before and after approval of its DMEPOS accreditation program in a truthful, accurate, and complete manner.
(N) Adhere to all of the requirements of this section at all times, including the policies, procedures, practices, and agreements it outlined in paragraph (c) of this section as part of its initial or reapproval application and any CMS-approved changes thereto under paragraph (e)(2) or (7) of this section.
(2) Additional information needed. If CMS determines that additional information is necessary to make a determination for approval or denial of the organization's initial application, CMS notifies the organization and affords it an opportunity to provide the additional information.
(3) Withdrawing an application. A DMEPOS accrediting organization may withdraw its initial application for CMS' approval of its DMEPOS accreditation program at any time before CMS posts the notice described in paragraph (c)(6) of this section.
(4) Reasons for denial. CMS may deny a DMEPOS accrediting organization's application for any of the following reasons:
(i) The DMEPOS accrediting organization has failed to comply with all application, data, and agreement submission requirements outlined in this paragraph (c).
(ii) The DMEPOS accrediting organization has failed to provide reasonable assurance (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section).
(iii) The current number of CMS-approved DMEPOS accreditation programs is sufficient to ensure the continued administration of CMS' DMEPOS accreditation program.
(iv) The DMEPOS accrediting organization's DMEPOS accreditation program was previously terminated, suspended, or placed on probation by CMS under, respectively, paragraph (h), (i), or (j) of this section.
(v) The DMEPOS accrediting organization, or any owner (as defined in § 424.502), managing employee (as defined in § 424.502), governing body member, W-2 or contracted surveyor, or W-2 or contracted health care or administrative or management services personnel thereof—
(A) Is excluded by the Office of Inspector General (OIG) from Medicare, Medicaid, and any other Federal health care program;
(B) Is debarred, suspended, or otherwise excluded from participating in any Federal procurement or non-procurement activity in accordance with section 2455 of the Federal Acquisition Streamlining Act (FASA);
(C) Within the preceding 10 years—
(1) Was convicted of a Federal or State felony offense that CMS determines is detrimental to the best interests of the Medicare program and its beneficiaries;
(2) Has had a Medicare enrollment revoked under § 424.535;
(3) Has had a license to provide health care suspended or revoked by any State licensing authority; or
(4) Has been suspended or terminated from participating in a Federal or State health care program.
(vi) The DMEPOS accrediting organization has submitted false or misleading information on its application in order to gain CMS approval or reapproval as a DMEPOS accrediting organization.
(vii) The AO is non-compliant with any provision in this section.
(viii) CMS otherwise determines that approval of the applicant as a DMEPOS AO would not be in the best interests of the Medicare program and its beneficiaries.
(5) Notice of approval or denial of application. CMS sends to the DMEPOS accrediting organization a notice of its decision to approve or deny the application within 210 calendar days from the date CMS determines the accrediting organization's application is complete. The final notice specifies the following:
(i) The basis for the decision.
(ii) If applicable, the effective date of approval.
(iii) If applicable, the term of the approval (not to exceed 6 years).
(6) Decision announcement. CMS announces on its website its decision to approve or deny the DMEPOS accrediting organization's application.
(i) This announcement is posted within 210 calendar days from the date that CMS determines that the DMEPOS accrediting organization's application was complete.
(ii) If the application is approved, the posting states the approval's effective date (no later than the announcement's posting date) and length (6 years or less).
(7) Term of approval. CMS may approve a DMEPOS accreditation organization for any period up to a maximum of 6 years.
(d) Reapproval process—(1) General requirement—(i) Timeline for submission. Except as stated in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, an approved DMEPOS accrediting organization that seeks to continue as such must apply for reapproval of accreditation no later than 9 months before the expiration of its current term of approval. If the organization fails to do so, CMS, at its discretion, may provide the organization an additional 30 days to reapply.
(ii) Discretion to request reapproval applications. CMS may require DMEPOS accrediting organizations to submit reapproval applications under this paragraph (d) any time after January 1, 2026. An application must be submitted within 60 calendar days of CMS' submission request. Failure to submit the application results in the termination of the DMEPOS accrediting organization's approval.
(2) Submission of information and statements. As part of its reapproval application, the DMEPOS accrediting organization must submit all information and statements identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. CMS may also request information under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
(3) Withdrawing an application. A DMEPOS accrediting organization may withdraw its reapproval application for CMS' approval of its DMEPOS accreditation program at any time before CMS posts the notice described in paragraph (d)(6) of this section.
(4) Denial reasons. CMS may deny a DMEPOS accrediting organization's reapproval application for any of the reasons described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
(5) Notice of approval or denial of application. CMS sends a notice of its decision to approve or deny the DMEPOS accrediting organization's reapproval application within 210 calendar days from the date CMS determines the accrediting organization's reapproval application is complete. The final notice specifies the following:
(i) The basis for the decision.
(ii) If applicable, the effective date of reapproval.
(iii) If applicable, the term of the reapproval (not to exceed 6 years).
(6) Decision announcement. CMS announces on its website its decision to reapprove or deny the DMEPOS accrediting organization's reapproval application.
(i) This announcement is posted within 210 calendar days from the date that CMS determines that the DMEPOS accrediting organization's reapproval application was complete.
(ii) If the reapproval application is approved, the posting states the reapproval's effective date (no later than the announcement's posting date) and length (6 years or less).
(7) Term of approval. CMS may reapprove a DMEPOS accreditation organization for any period up to a maximum of 6 years.
(e) Ongoing responsibilities of a CMS-approved DMEPOS accrediting organization. A DMEPOS accrediting organization approved by CMS must undertake the following activities on an ongoing basis:
(1) Submission of information. (i) On a monthly basis, provide to CMS all the following in written format (either electronic or hard copy):
(A) Copies of all accreditation survey results and reports, together with any survey related information that CMS may require. This includes both of the following:
(1) CAPs and summaries of findings with respect to unmet CMS requirements.
(2) The instances where the DMEPOS accrediting organization had the discretion to perform a survey (for example, sampling) but decided not to, including the reason(s) for the organization's decision.
(B) Notice of all accreditation decisions.
(C) Notice of all resolved deficiencies.
(D) Information about any supplier of DMEPOS and other items and services against which the CMS-approved DMEPOS accrediting organization has taken remedial or adverse action, including termination of the supplier's accreditation.
(ii) CMS may at any time request the DMEPOS accrediting organization to submit any of the information described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section or any other data CMS deems necessary to facilitate its oversight of the accrediting organization's DMEPOS accreditation program. This information must be furnished to CMS within 3 business days of the request.
(iii) Within 2 business days of identifying an immediate jeopardy deficiency of a DMEPOS supplier, provide CMS with written notice of the deficiency and any adverse action implemented by the DMEPOS accrediting organization.
(2) Standard or requirement changes. Provide written notice of any proposed changes to its accreditation standards, requirements, or survey process. This includes the addition, modification, or removal of a new DMEPOS product service category to the list of categories for which the organization accredits DMEPOS suppliers.
(i) The notice must be submitted to CMS no less than 60 calendar days before the proposal's planned effective date. It must include the following:
(A) A detailed description of the changes and the rationale for them.
(B) A detailed crosswalk (in table format) that states the exact language of the organization's revised accreditation requirements and the applicable Medicare requirements for each.
(ii) CMS communicates to the DMEPOS accrediting organization in writing its approval or disapproval of the proposal within 30 calendar days of the proposed change's effective date.
(iii) CMS approval is required before the DMEPOS accrediting organization can implement the change. If the organization implements the changes before or without CMS' approval, CMS may terminate its approval of the accrediting organization.
(3) Addressing complaints. (i) Upon receipt of a complaint—
(A) Notify CMS in writing of the complaint no later than 5 calendar days after receipt;
(B) Using the DMEPOS accrediting organization's policies and procedures described in paragraph (c)(1)(x) of this section, perform an initial review of the complaint to determine whether, based on the complaint and any other information, the DMEPOS supplier may be non-compliant with one or more DMEPOS quality standards or other applicable CMS requirement; and
(C) Perform a survey of the DMEPOS supplier if the DMEPOS accrediting organization's initial review concludes that such non-compliance may exist. This survey must be performed no later than 21 calendar days after the accrediting organization received the initial complaint.
(ii) No later than 10 calendar days after completing the action in, as applicable, paragraph (e)(3)(i)(B) or (C) of this section, notify CMS in writing of the result of the initial review or, as applicable, the survey. The notice must include information regarding any action the DMEPOS accrediting organization took or plans to take with respect to the DMEPOS supplier, such as a termination of accreditation or a CAP.
(4) CAPs. Notify CMS in writing of any decision to apply a CAP to a specific DMEPOS supplier within 10 calendar days of the decision. This notification must include all of the following:
(i) The reason for the decision.
(ii) A detailed explanation and justification as to why the DMEPOS accrediting organization applied a CAP instead of, as applicable, denying or terminating the DMEPOS supplier's accreditation.
(iii) The details of the DMEPOS supplier's CAP (for example, deadline for compliance, the DMEPOS accrediting organization's plans for enforcement and ensuring compliance).
(5) Denials and terminations. (i) Notify CMS in writing of any decision to deny accreditation to (or terminate, revoke, withdraw, or amend the accreditation of) a DMEPOS supplier within 5 calendar days of the decision. This notification must include the reason for the denial or termination.
(ii)(A) Notwithstanding any other provision in this section, the DMEPOS accrediting organization must deny accreditation to (or terminate the accreditation of) a DMEPOS supplier if—
(1) The supplier does not meet the licensure requirements in § 424.57(c)(1)(ii);
(2) The supplier is not operational (as that term is defined in § 424.502);
(3) The supplier's location does not meet the accessibility requirements in § 424.57(c)(7)(i)(B);
(4) The supplier's Medicare enrollment is revoked due to non-compliance with one or more DMEPOS quality standards and the reenrollment bar under § 424.535(c) has not expired; or
(5) Directed by CMS.
(B) If paragraph (e)(5)(ii)(A)(5) of this section applies, the DMEPOS accrediting organization must do the following:
(1) Deny or terminate the DMEPOS supplier's accreditation no later than 3 business days after receiving written notice from CMS to do so.
(2) Notify CMS in writing that it has taken this action within 5 business days of receiving the written notice from CMS.
(6) Provide an annual summary of data related to accreditation. Provide, on an annual basis, summary data specified by CMS that relate to the past year's accreditation activities and trends.
(7) Notification of change from CMS. (i) Within 30 calendar days of receipt of a written notice from CMS to the organization of a change in the quality standards, survey process, or other requirement, provide CMS with proposed corresponding changes to the organization's requirements for its CMS-approved DMEPOS accreditation program to ensure continued comparability with the CMS quality standards, survey process, or other requirements. This includes all of the following:
(A) An acknowledgment of CMS's notification of the change.
(B) A revised cross walk reflecting the new requirements.
(C) An explanation of how the DMEPOS accrediting organization plans to alter its standards to conform to CMS's new requirements, within the timeframes specified in the notification it received from CMS.
(ii) The DMEPOS accrediting organization must not implement its proposed corresponding changes without prior CMS approval.
(8) Performance of surveys. (i) Except as otherwise directed or permitted in writing by CMS (for example, allowing sampling), the DMEPOS accrediting organization must—
(A) Perform a survey of all DMEPOS supplier locations for which the supplier seeks accreditation or reaccreditation with the DMEPOS accrediting organization. This includes, but is not limited to, accreditations for a new item type the supplier has not previously furnished or as required under § 424.551;
(B) Perform all surveys as unannounced surveys; and
(C) Not accredit the DMEPOS supplier before the survey is performed and the DMEPOS accrediting organization determines that the supplier is compliant with the quality standards.
(ii) CMS may, at any time, direct the DMEPOS accrediting organization to perform a survey of an accredited DMEPOS supplier or a group thereof. Existence of an actual or suspected supplier deficiency is not a requirement for CMS to direct the performance of a survey of a supplier.
(iii) When performing a survey, the DMEPOS accrediting organization must also confirm that the DMEPOS supplier meets the licensure requirements in § 424.57(c).
(9) Surveyor witnesses. Permit its surveyors to serve as witnesses if CMS takes an adverse action based on accreditation findings.
(10) Data entry. If directed by CMS, enter accreditation, survey, product code, and other data into a CMS-designated system.
(11) Relationships. The DMEPOS accrediting organization, or any owner (as defined in § 424.502), managing employee (as defined in § 424.502), governing body member, or any W-2 or contracted surveyor, health care, administrative. or management personnel thereof, must not have any of the following:
(i) A current exclusion by the OIG from Medicare, Medicaid, and any other Federal health care program.
(ii) A current debarment, suspension, or exclusion from participating in any other Federal procurement or non-procurement activity in accordance with section 2455 of the Federal Acquisition Streamlining Act (FASA).
(iii) Within the preceding 10 years—
(A) A conviction of a Federal or State felony offense that CMS determines is detrimental to the best interests of the Medicare program and its beneficiaries;
(B) A Medicare enrollment revocation under § 424.535;
(C) A suspension or revocation of a license to provide health care by any State licensing authority; or
(D) A suspension or termination from participating in a Federal or State health care program.
(f) Continuing federal oversight of approved DMEPOS accrediting organizations. CMS evaluates the performance of each CMS-approved DMEPOS accreditation program on an ongoing basis. Means of monitoring include, but are not limited to, the reviews identified in this paragraph (f).
(1) Equivalency review. CMS may, at any time, compare the DMEPOS accrediting organization's standards and its application and enforcement of those standards to the comparable CMS requirements and processes.
(2) Validation survey of DMEPOS supplier—(i) Survey scope. CMS may survey suppliers of DMEPOS and other items and services accredited under this section in order to validate the DMEPOS accrediting organization's survey process. Surveys can be comprehensive or focus on certain standards or requirements.
(ii) Authorization. A DMEPOS supplier selected for a validation survey must—
(A) Authorize the validation survey to take place; and
(B) Permit the CMS survey team to monitor the correction of any deficiencies found during the validation survey.
(iii) Failure to authorize. If a DMEPOS supplier selected for a validation survey fails to comply with the requirements of paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, it is deemed to no longer meet the DMEPOS supplier quality standards and may have its enrollment revoked.
(iv) Non-compliance. If a validation survey results in a finding that the DMEPOS supplier is not in compliance with one or more DMEPOS supplier quality standards, the supplier no longer meets the DMEPOS quality standards and may have its enrollment revoked.
(3) Deficiencies. (i) With respect to DMEPOS supplier compliance with the quality standards, CMS has the discretion to do all of the following:
(A) Define the term deficiency.
(B) Establish levels and categories of deficiencies.
(C) Revise the quality standards.
(ii) In its DMEPOS accreditation activities, the DMEPOS accrediting organization must apply and adhere to all of the following:
(A) Any CMS-established definition of deficiency.
(B) All CMS-established levels and categories of deficiencies.
(C) All CMS-established quality standards.
(4) Review of DMEPOS accrediting organization. (i)(A) CMS may at any time and for any reason conduct a review of the DMEPOS accrediting organization's processes or performance to:
(1) Verify the organization's representations to CMS; or
(2) Assess the organization's compliance with its own policies and procedures, the provisions of this section, and all other CMS requirements.
(B) The scope, length, and timing of the review are within CMS' discretion. Evidence of the DMEPOS accrediting organization's potential non-compliance with any element addressed in paragraph (f)(4)(i)(A) of this section is not a prerequisite for performing a review.
(ii) Types of CMS reviews include, but are not limited, the following, and may be performed collectively or individually:
(A) Equivalency reviews under paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
(B) Conducting surveys of accredited DMEPOS suppliers under paragraph (f)(2) of this section.
(C) Examining the results of a DMEPOS accrediting organization's surveys of DMEPOS suppliers.
(D) Observing a DMEPOS accrediting organization's onsite surveys and other audits of DMEPOS suppliers.
(E) Conducting onsite inspections of the DMEPOS accrediting organization's operations and offices.
(F) Requesting and reviewing documents.
(G) Interviewing DMEPOS accrediting organization staff.
(H) Observing an accreditation organization's internal meetings concerning the accreditation process.
(g) Voluntary termination of CMS-approved DMEPOS accreditation program—(1) Timing. A DMEPOS accrediting organization may voluntarily terminate its CMS-approved accreditation program at any time. In doing so, the accrediting organization must do all of the following:
(i) Notify CMS of its decision to voluntarily terminate its approved DMEPOS accreditation program at least 120 calendar days in advance of the effective date of the termination.
(ii) Provide written notice at least 90 days in advance of the effective date of the termination to each of its accredited DMEPOS suppliers but not before notifying CMS of its decision in accordance with paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section. The notice to each supplier must do the following:
(A) Describe the provisions in paragraph (g)(2) of this section regarding the expiration dates of the DMEPOS supplier's accreditation with the terminating DMEPOS accrediting organization.
(B) Inform the DMEPOS supplier that any lapse in its accreditation (including between the date its existing accreditation with the terminating DMEPOS accrediting organization expires and the effective date of its accreditation with a different accrediting organization) may result in the revocation of its enrollment under § 424.535.
(2) Supplier continuation of accreditation. Unless the DMEPOS supplier is otherwise determined to be non-compliant with the quality standards or other requirement for accreditation, the supplier's accreditation with the terminating DMEPOS accrediting organization remains in effect until the earlier of the following:
(i) The expiration of its current term of accreditation with the terminating DMEPOS accrediting organization.
(ii) The effective date of its accreditation with a different CMS-approved DMEPOS accrediting organization.
(h) Involuntary termination—(1) Reasons for termination. (i) CMS may terminate a DMEPOS accrediting organization's approval for any of the following reasons:
(A) CMS determines that the DMEPOS accrediting organization no longer demonstrates reasonable assurance (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section).
(B) CMS determines that the continued approval of a CMS-approved DMEPOS accreditation program of any DMEPOS accrediting organization poses an immediate jeopardy to the patients of the entities accredited under that program, or the continued approval otherwise constitutes a hazard to the public health.
(C) CMS determines that the DMEPOS accrediting organization is non-compliant with any provision of this section. This includes, but is not limited to, situations where the accrediting organization has failed to do either of the following:
(1) Comply with a term or condition of a statement or agreement in paragraph (c)(1)(xxiii) of this section.
(2) Adhere to a policy, procedure, or practice it outlined under paragraph (c) of this section as part of its initial application or reapproval application or a CMS-approved change thereto under paragraph (e)(2) or (7) of this section.
(D) There is a pattern or practice of the DMEPOS accrediting organization's accredited DMEPOS suppliers being revoked under § 424.535(a) for failing to comply with the quality standards.
(ii) CMS may terminate the DMEPOS accrediting organization's DMEPOS accreditation program effective the date of the letter described in paragraph (h)(2) of this section or any date thereafter.
(2) Notification to DMEPOS accrediting organization. CMS notifies the DMEPOS accrediting organization in writing of its decision to terminate the organization's accreditation approval. The notice must include all of the following:
(i) The reason for the termination.
(ii) The effective date of the termination.
(3) Announcement. CMS announces its termination decision (and the effective date thereof) on its website.
(4) Notification to DMEPOS suppliers. A DMEPOS accrediting organization whose CMS approval of its DMEPOS accreditation program has been terminated must notify, in writing, each of its accredited DMEPOS suppliers of the termination of CMS approval and its implications no later than 30 calendar days after the CMS website announcement described in paragraph (h)(3) of this section. The notice to each DMEPOS supplier must do all of the following:
(i) Describe the provisions in paragraph (h)(6) of this section regarding the expiration dates of the DMEPOS supplier's accreditation with the terminated DMEPOS accrediting organization.
(ii) Inform the DMEPOS supplier that any lapse in its accreditation (including between the date its existing accreditation with the terminated DMEPOS accrediting organization expires and the effective date of its accreditation with a different DMEPOS accrediting organization) results in the revocation of its enrollment under § 424.535.
(5) Collaboration. If CMS terminates a DMEPOS accrediting organization's approved status, the DMEPOS accrediting organization must work collaboratively with CMS to direct its accredited DMEPOS suppliers to the remaining CMS-approved DMEPOS accrediting organizations within a reasonable period of time.
(6) Continued accreditation. (i) Unless the DMEPOS supplier is otherwise determined to be non-compliant with the quality standards or other requirement for accreditation, the supplier's accreditation with the terminated DMEPOS accrediting organization remains in effect until the earliest of one of the following:
(A) The expiration of its current term of accreditation with the terminated DMEPOS accrediting organization.
(B) The effective date of its accreditation with a different CMS-approved DMEPOS accrediting organization.
(C) A date specified by CMS based on the circumstances of the termination of the DMEPOS accrediting organization's approval.
(ii) In the event paragraph (h)(6)(i)(C) of this section is applicable, CMS notifies the affected DMEPOS supplier in writing of the deadline by which the supplier must be reaccredited.
(7) Refunds. If CMS terminates a DMEPOS accrediting organization's approved status, the terminated organization must refund to a DMEPOS supplier all payments the supplier made to the organization—
(i) As part of the DMEPOS supplier's request for accreditation or reaccreditation; and
(ii) Prior to the organization's notification to the DMEPOS supplier of its final decision regarding the supplier's request.
(i) Suspension—(1) Reasons for suspension. CMS may suspend a DMEPOS accrediting organization's approval for any of the following reasons:
(i) CMS determines that the DMEPOS accrediting organization no longer demonstrates reasonable assurance (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section).
(ii) CMS determines that the DMEPOS accrediting organization is non-compliant with any provision of this section. This can include, but is not limited to, situations where the DMEPOS accrediting organization has failed to do either of the following:
(A) Comply with a term or condition of a statement or agreement in paragraph (c)(1)(xxiii) of this section.
(B) Adhere to a policy, procedure, or practice it outlined under paragraph (c) of this section as part of its initial application or reapproval application or a CMS-approved change thereto under paragraph (e)(2) or (7) of this section.
(iii) There is a pattern or practice of the DMEPOS accrediting organization's accredited DMEPOS suppliers being revoked under § 424.535 for failing to comply with the DMEPOS quality standards.
(2) Components of a suspension. (i) Except as otherwise specified or permitted by CMS, a DMEPOS accrediting organization may not perform any Medicare DMEPOS accreditation activities while suspended.
(ii) CMS determines the length of the suspension, which lasts no longer than 1 year. Upon the expiration of the suspension period, CMS either lifts the suspension or terminates the organization's approval in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section.
(iii) CMS may suspend the DMEPOS accrediting organization's DMEPOS accreditation program effective the date of the letter described in paragraph (i)(3) of this section or any date thereafter.
(3) Notification to DMEPOS accrediting organization. (i) CMS notifies the DMEPOS accrediting organization in writing of its decision to suspend the organization's accreditation approval. The notice must include the following:
(A) The reason(s) for the suspension.
(B) The effective date and length of the suspension.
(C) The terms of the suspension.
(D) The steps the DMEPOS accrediting organization must take to have the suspension lifted.
(ii) No later than 3 calendar days after the date it receives the notice of suspension, the DMEPOS accrediting organization must notify CMS in writing its acknowledgment of receipt of such notice.
(iii) No later than 3 calendar days after receipt of such acknowledgment, CMS publishes on its website a notice of its decision to suspend its approval of the organization's DMEPOS accreditation program.
(4) Status of DMEPOS suppliers. (i) The accreditation status of DMEPOS suppliers currently accredited by the suspended DMEPOS accrediting organization remains in effect through the length of the suspension unless—
(A) The DMEPOS supplier's current term of accreditation with the suspended DMEPOS accrediting organization expires during the suspension;
(B) The DMEPOS supplier is otherwise determined to be non-compliant with the quality standards or other requirement for accreditation; or
(C) CMS specifies a different accreditation termination date based on the circumstances of the suspension of the DMEPOS accrediting organization's DMEPOS accreditation program.
(ii)(A) If paragraph (i)(4)(i)(A) of this section applies, the DMEPOS supplier must be reaccredited by—
(1) Its current DMEPOS accrediting organization if the suspension has been lifted; or
(2) A different CMS-approved DMEPOS accrediting organization.
(B) If paragraph (i)(4)(i)(C) of this section applies, CMS notifies the affected DMEPOS supplier in writing of the deadline by which the supplier must be reaccredited.
(iii) Any lapse in the DMEPOS supplier's accreditation (including between the date its existing accreditation with the suspended DMEPOS accrediting organization expires and the effective date of its accreditation with a different accrediting organization) may result in the revocation of its enrollment under § 424.535(a).
(5) Lifting of suspension. (i) CMS lifts a DMEPOS accrediting organization's suspension if it determines all of the following:
(A) The reasons for the suspension no longer exist.
(B) The DMEPOS accrediting organization demonstrates reasonable assurance (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section).
(C) The DMEPOS accrediting organization is in compliance with all provisions of this section.
(ii) If the suspension is lifted:
(A) CMS notifies the DMEPOS accrediting organization thereof in writing.
(B) No later than 3 calendar days after the date it receives the notice described in paragraph (i)(5)(i)(A) of this section, the DMEPOS accrediting organization must notify CMS in writing its acknowledgment of receipt of such notice.
(C) No later than 3 calendar days after receipt of such acknowledgment, CMS publishes on its website a notice of the lifting of the suspension.
(6) Refunds. If CMS suspends a DMEPOS accrediting organization's DMEPOS accreditation program, the accrediting organization must refund to a DMEPOS supplier all payments the supplier made to the organization—
(i) As part of the DMEPOS supplier's request for accreditation or reaccreditation; and
(ii) Prior to the organization's notification to the DMEPOS supplier of its final decision regarding the supplier's request.
(7) Multiple suspensions. Nothing in this paragraph (i) prohibits CMS from suspending the organization's DMEPOS accreditation program more than once.
(j) Probation—(1) Placement on probation. CMS may place a DMEPOS accrediting organization's DMEPOS accreditation program on probation and require the organization's successful completion of a corrective action plan (CAP) if CMS determines any of the following:
(i) The DMEPOS accrediting organization no longer demonstrates reasonable assurance (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section).
(ii) The DMEPOS accrediting organization is non-compliant with any provision of this section. This can include, but is not limited to, situations where the accrediting organization has failed to—
(A) Comply with a term or condition of a statement or agreement in paragraph (c)(1)(xxiii) of this section; or
(B) Adhere to a policy, procedure, or practice it outlined under paragraph (c) of this section as part of its—
(1) Initial or reapproval application; or
(2) A CMS-approved change thereto under paragraph (e)(2) or (7) of this section.
(iii) There is a pattern or practice of the DMEPOS accrediting organization's accredited DMEPOS suppliers being revoked under § 424.535(a) for failing to comply with the quality standards.
(iv) The DMEPOS organization's period of suspension under paragraph (i) of this section has expired and CMS determines that a subsequent probationary period and CAP are warranted.
(2) Notification to accrediting organization. (i) CMS notifies the DMEPOS accrediting organization in writing of the probation. The notice must include the following:
(A) The reason(s) for CMS' decision.
(B) The length of the probationary period, which must not exceed 1 year.
(C) The terms of the CAP.
(D) The requirements and deadline for achieving compliance.
(E) A description of how CMS will monitor the DMEPOS accrediting organization's efforts to resume compliance (for example, requests for information, surveys).
(ii) Except as otherwise prescribed in the CAP, the DMEPOS accrediting organization may continue its accreditation activities as normal.
(3) Conclusion of period. (i) At the conclusion of the probationary period, CMS notifies the DMEPOS accrediting organization in writing of the following:
(A) Whether the DMEPOS accrediting organization is compliant with all requirements of this section.
(B) The reason for the determination in paragraph (j)(3)(i)(A) of this section.
(C) The consequences of the determination (for example, termination or suspension of accreditation, successful completion of and cessation of the probationary period and CAP).
(ii) If CMS determines that the DMEPOS accrediting organization has resumed compliance with all requirements of this section, CMS may do all of the following:
(A) Send the notice described in paragraph (j)(3)(i) of this section.
(B) Terminate the probationary period.
(C) End the CAP before the conclusion of the assigned probationary period.
(k) Noncompliance actions. (1) CMS may impose a certain action in paragraph (h), (i), or (j) of this section in lieu of another such action specified in paragraph (h), (i), or (j) of this section if the same ground(s) for the action exists.
(2) CMS may terminate—
(i) A probation period (either before or in accordance with the probationary period's original expiration date) and impose a suspension or termination if grounds for either action exist.
(ii) A suspension (either before or in accordance with the suspension's original expiration date) and impose a termination if a basis for doing so exists.
(l) Reconsiderations and rebuttals—(1) Reconsiderations. (i) A DMEPOS accrediting organization may request a reconsideration under part 498 of the following CMS initial determinations identified in § 498.3(b)(21) and (22):
(A) Denial of the DMEPOS accrediting organization's application for initial approval of its DMEPOS accreditation program under paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
(B) Denial of the DMEPOS accrediting organization's application for reapproval of its DMEPOS accreditation program under paragraph (d)(4) of this section.
(C) Termination of the DMEPOS accrediting organization's approval of its DMEPOS accreditation program under paragraph (h)(1) of this section.
(2) Rebuttals. (i)(A) If a DMEPOS accrediting organization receives notice from CMS that its DMEPOS accreditation program has been suspended or placed on probation in accordance with paragraph (i) or (j) of this section, the DMEPOS accrediting organization has 15 calendar days from the date of the written notice of the suspension or probation to submit a rebuttal to CMS.
(B) CMS may, at its discretion, extend the 15-day time-period referenced in paragraph (l)(2)(i)(A) of this section.
(ii) A rebuttal submitted under this section must—
(A) Be in writing;
(B) Specify the facts or issues about which the DMEPOS accrediting organization disagrees with CMS' determination, as well as the reasons for disagreement;
(C) Submit all documentation the DMEPOS accrediting organization wants CMS to consider in its review of its determination; and
(D) Be submitted in the form of a letter that is signed and dated by the DMEPOS accrediting organization's CEO (or similar official with authority to commit the organization to adhere to Medicare laws and regulations) or a legal representative (as defined in § 498.10 of this chapter).
(1) If the legal representative is an attorney, the attorney must include a statement that he or she has the authority to represent the accrediting organization; this statement would be sufficient to constitute notice of such authority.
(2) If the legal representative is not an attorney, the accrediting organization must file with CMS written notice of the appointment of a representative; this notice of appointment must be signed and dated by, as applicable, the accrediting organization's CEO (or similar official with authority to commit the organization to adhere to Medicare laws and regulations) or a legal representative.
(iii) The DMEPOS accrediting organization's failure to submit a rebuttal that is both timely under paragraph (l)(2)(i) of this section and fully compliant with all of the requirements of paragraph (l)(2)(ii) of this section constitutes a waiver of all rebuttal rights under this section.
(iv) Upon receipt of a timely and compliant rebuttal, CMS reviews the rebuttal to determine whether the imposition of the suspension or probation is correct.
(v) CMS is not required to delay the imposition of the suspension or probation pending the completion of the CMS review described in paragraph (l)(2)(iv) of this section.
(vi) A determination made under paragraph (i) or (j) of this section is not an initial determination under § 498.3(b) of this chapter and therefore not appealable.
(m) Restrictions on consulting—(1) Definition. For purposes of this paragraph (m) only, the terms consulting and consulting services mean those services provided by a DMEPOS accrediting organization (or its consulting division or separate business entity (such as a company or corporation) that provides such services) for the review of a DMEPOS supplier's standards, processes, policies, and functions for compliance with the accrediting organization's standards, the DMEPOS quality standards, or other Medicare requirements through simulation of a real survey, such as a mock survey, with comprehensive written reports of findings and early intervention and action to correct deficiencies prior to an actual accreditation survey.
(2) Prohibitions. Except as provided in paragraph (m)(3) of this section, an accrediting organization or its consulting division or separate business entity (such as a company or corporation that provides consulting) may not provide consulting services in the following instances:
(i) To any new DMEPOS supplier before the initial accreditation survey has been completed.
(A) For purposes of this paragraph (m)(2)(i), the term initial survey means the first accreditation survey performed of a supplier by a DMEPOS accrediting organization that has not previously received accreditation services from that accrediting organization.
(B) If a supplier is voluntarily or involuntarily terminated from the services of a DMEPOS accrediting organization and later retains the services of the same or a new DMEPOS accrediting organization, the first accreditation survey performed by the same or new DMEPOS accrediting organization of that supplier would be considered an initial accreditation survey.
(ii) To a DMEPOS supplier that the DMEPOS accrediting organization accredits within 6 months prior to the next scheduled re-accreditation survey of that supplier. For purposes of this paragraph (m)(2)(ii), the term re-accreditation survey means any subsequent accreditation survey performed by the accrediting organization following the initial survey.
(iii) To a DMEPOS supplier to which the DMEPOS accrediting organization provides accreditation services, in response to a complaint received by the accrediting organization regarding that supplier.
(3) Circumstances permitting consulting. A DMEPOS accrediting organization, its consulting division, or separate business entity, such as a company or corporation that provides consulting, may provide consulting to the DMEPOS suppliers it accredits only under the following circumstances:
(i) During the 6-month period after an initial or re-accreditation survey is performed.
(ii) To address complaints received and investigated by CMS or its contractor regarding a DMEPOS accrediting organization's accredited DMEPOS supplier in which one or more immediate jeopardy deficiencies or grounds for revocation of enrollment under § 424.535 are identified. Such consulting by an accrediting organization may occur only after CMS or the CMS contractor investigation is completed and must only address those issues identified in the investigation.
(iii) Consulting services provided to DMEPOS suppliers that the DMEPOS accrediting organization does not accredit at the time the consulting services are furnished.
(iv) General education provided by the DMEPOS accrediting organization about its DMEPOS accreditation program.
(4) Submission of report. The DMEPOS accrediting organization must provide to CMS upon CMS' request and with each initial and reapproval application under paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section a report containing the following information:
(i) Whether the DMEPOS accrediting organization or an associated consulting division or company established by the accrediting organization provides consulting services.
(ii) The names, National Provider Identifiers, and addresses of all DMEPOS suppliers to which the DMEPOS accrediting organization or its associated consulting division or company has provided consulting services during the previous 6-month period.
(iii) The dates the consulting services were provided to each DMEPOS supplier.
(iv) Whether the DMEPOS accrediting organization has ever provided, or is currently providing, accreditation services to any DMEPOS supplier listed in this report.
(v) For each DMEPOS supplier listed in this report, the date—
(A) Of the most recent accreditation survey performed; and
(B) That the next re-accreditation survey is due to be performed.
(vi) A description of the consulting services provided to each DMEPOS supplier listed in this report.
(5) Consulting firewall policies and procedures. (i) A DMEPOS accrediting organization, its consulting division, or separate business entity (such as a company or corporation that provides consulting services to the DMEPOS suppliers the accrediting organization accredits) must have and adhere to written consulting policies and procedures, which, at a minimum, must include the following:
(A) The DMEPOS accrediting organization's consulting services must be provided by a separate division of the accrediting organization or separate business entity, such as a company or corporation, that is separate from the accrediting organization's accreditation division.
(B) A DMEPOS accrediting organization's consulting division or separate business entity must maintain separate staff from that of the accrediting organization's accreditation divisions to ensure that the consulting division staff do not perform the accrediting organization's accreditation division functions and that the accrediting organization's accreditation division staff do not perform consulting division functions.
(C) A DMEPOS accrediting organization's accreditation staff and surveyors are prohibited from marketing the accrediting organization's consulting services to the accrediting organization's accreditation clients.
(ii) A DMEPOS accrediting organization that provides consulting services must submit its written consulting firewall policies and procedures to CMS by a date specified by CMS and with each application submitted seeking initial CMS approval or reapproval of their DMEPOS accreditation programs.
(n) Conflicts of interest—(1) General prohibition regarding relationships. (i) If a DMEPOS accrediting organization owner, surveyor, or employee (currently or within the previous 2 years) has or had an interest in or relationship (as described in paragraph (c)(1)(vii)(D) of this section) with a DMEPOS supplier that is accredited by the DMEPOS accrediting organization, the accrediting organization owner, surveyor, or employee is not permitted to do any of the following:
(A) Participate in the survey of that DMEPOS supplier.
(B) Have input into the results of the survey and accreditation for that DMEPOS supplier.
(C) Have involvement with the pre-or post-survey activities for that DMEPOS supplier.
(D) Have contact with or access to the records for the survey and accreditation of that DMEPOS supplier.
(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (n)(1), the term immediate family member has the same meaning as that term is defined in paragraph (b) of this section.
(iii) CMS may request at any time outside of the initial approval and reapproval processes that the DMEPOS accrediting organization furnish any and all information required under paragraph (c)(1)(vii)(D) of this section.
(2) CMS Contractor. An entity may not serve as a CMS-approved DMEPOS accrediting organization if it is currently a CMS contractor (or an owner or subsidiary thereof (regardless of the ownership percentage involved)) with any oversight responsibility of DMEPOS suppliers.
(o) Change of ownership. A DMEPOS accrediting organization that wishes to undergo a change of ownership is subject to the requirements of § 488.5(f).
[71 FR 48409, Aug. 18, 2006, as amended at 90 FR 55607, Dec. 2, 2025]
Subpart E To Whom Payment is Made in Special Situations
§ 424.60 Scope.
(a) This subpart sets forth provisions applicable to payment after the beneficiary's death and payment to entities that provide coverage complementary to Medicare Part B.
(b) The provisions applicable to payment for services excluded as custodial care or services not reasonable and necessary are set forth in §§ 405.332 through 405.336 of this chapter.
[53 FR 6634, Mar. 2, 1988, as amended at 53 FR 28388, July 28, 1988]
§ 424.62 Payment after beneficiary's death: Bill has been paid.
(a) Scope. This section specifies the persons whom Medicare pays, and the conditions for payments, when the beneficiary has died and the bill has been paid.
(b) Situation. (1) The beneficiary has received covered services for which he could receive direct payment under § 424.53.
(2) The beneficiary died without receiving Medicare payment.
(3) The bill has been paid.
(c) Persons whom Medicare pays. In the situation described in paragraph (b) of this section, Medicare pays the following persons in the specified circumstances:
(1) The person or persons who, without a legal obligation to do so, paid for the services with their own funds, before or after the beneficiary's death.
(2) The legal representative of the beneficiary's estate if the services were paid for by the beneficiary before he or she died, or with funds from the estate.
(3) If the deceased beneficiary or his or her estate paid for the services and no legal representative of the estate has been appointed, the survivors, in the following order of priority:
(i) The person found by SSA to be the surviving spouse, if he or she was either living in the same household with the deceased at the time of death, or was, for the month of death, entitled to monthly social security or railroad retirement benefits on the basis of the same earnings record as the deceased beneficiary;
(ii) The child or children, who were, for the month of death, entitled to monthly social security or railroad retirement benefits on the basis of the same earnings record as the deceased (and, if there is more than one child, in equal parts to each child);
(iii) The parent or parents, who were, for the month of death, entitled to monthly social security or railroad retirement benefits on the basis of the same earnings record as the deceased (and, if there is more than one parent, in equal parts to each parent);
(iv) The person found by SSA to be the surviving spouse who was not living in the same household with the deceased at the time of death and was not, for the month of death, entitled to monthly social security or railroad retirement benefits on the basis of the same earnings record as the deceased beneficiary;
(v) The child or children who were not entitled to monthly social security or railroad retirement benefits on the basis of the same earnings record as the deceased (and, if there is more than one child, in equal parts to each child);
(vi) The parent or parents who were not entitled to monthly social security or railroad retirement benefits on the basis of the same earnings record as the deceased (and, if there is more than one parent, in equal parts to each parent).
(4) If none of the listed relatives survive, no payment is made.
(5) If the services were paid for by a person other than the deceased beneficiary, and that person died before payment was completed, Medicare does not pay that person's estate. Medicare pays a surviving relative of the deceased beneficiary in accordance with the priorities in paragraph (c)(3) of this section. If none of those relatives survive. Medicare pays the legal representative of the deceased beneficiary's estate. If there is no legal representative of the estate, no payment is made.
(d) Amount of payment. The amount of payment is the amount due, including unnegotiated checks issued for the purpose of making direct payment to the beneficiary.
(e) Conditions for payment. For payment to be made under this section—
(1) The person who claims payment must meet the following requirements:
(i) Submit a claim on a CMS-prescribed form and an itemized bill in accordance with the requirements of this subpart. (See paragraph (g) of this section for an exception.)
(ii) Provide evidence that the services were furnished if the intermediary or carrier requests it.
(iii) Provide evidence of payment of the bill and of the identity of the person who paid it.
(2) If a person claims payment as the legal representative of the deceased beneficiary's estate, he or she must also submit a copy of the papers showing appointment as legal representative.
(3) If a person claims payment as a survivor of the beneficiary, he or she must also submit evidence, if the intermediary or carrier requests it, that he or she is highest on the priority list of paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
(f) Evidence of payment. Evidence of payment may be—
(1) A receipted bill, or a properly completed “Report of Services” section of a claim form, showing who paid the bill;
(2) A cancelled check;
(3) A written statement from the provider or supplier or an authorized staff member; or
(4) Other probative evidence.
(g) Exception: Claim submitted before beneficiary died. If a claim and itemized bill has been submitted by or on behalf of the beneficiary before he or she died, submission of another claim form and itemized bill is not required; any written request by the person seeking payment is sufficient.
§ 424.64 Payment after beneficiary's death: Bill has not been paid.
(a) Scope. This section specifies whom Medicare pays, and the conditions for payment when the beneficiary has died and the bill has not been paid.
(b) Situation. (1) The beneficiary has received covered Part B services furnished by a physician or other supplier.
(2) The beneficiary died without making an assignment to the physician or other supplier or receiving Medicare payment.
(3) The bill has not been paid.
(c) To whom payment is made. In the situation described in paragraph (b) of this section, Medicare pays as follows:
(1) Payment to the supplier. Medicare pays the physician or other supplier if he or she—
(i) Files a claim on a CMS-prescribed form in accordance with the applicable requirements of this subpart;
(ii) Upon request from the carrier, provides evidence that the services for which it claims payment were, in fact, furnished; and
(iii) Agrees in writing to accept the reasonable charge as the full charge for the services.
(2) Payment to a person who assumes legal obligation to pay for the services. If the physician or other supplier does not agree to accept the reasonable charge as full charge for the service, Medicare pays any person who submits to the carrier all of the following:
(i) A statement indicating that he or she has assumed legal obligation to pay for the services.
(ii) A claim on a CMS-prescribed form in accordance with the requirements of this subpart. (If a claim had been submitted by or on behalf of the beneficiary before he or she died, submission of another claim form is not required; a written request by the person seeking payment meets the requirement for a claim.)
(iii) An itemized bill that identifies the claimant as the person to whom the physician or other supplier holds responsible for payment. (If such an itemized bill had been submitted by or on behalf of the beneficiary before he or she died, submission of another itemized bill is not required.)
(iv) If the intermediary or carrier requests it, evidence that the services were actually furnished.
[53 FR 6634, Mar. 2, 1988, as amended at 53 FR 28388, July 28, 1988]
§ 424.66 Payment to entities that provide coverage complementary to Medicare Part B.
(a) Conditions for payment. Medicare may pay an entity for Part B services furnished by a physician or other supplier if the entity meets all of the following requirements:
(1) Provides coverage of the service under a complementary health benefit plan (this is, the coverage that the plan provides is complementary to Medicare benefits and covers only the amount by which the Part B payment falls short of the approved charge for the service under the plan).
(2) Has paid the person who provided the service an amount (including the amount payable under the Medicare program) that the person accepts as full payment.
(3) Has the written authorization of the beneficiary (or of a person authorized to sign claims on his behalf under § 424.36) to receive the Part B payment for the services for which the entity pays.
(4) Relieves the beneficiary of liability for payment for the service and will not seek any reimbursement from the beneficiary, his or her survivors or estate.
(5) Submits any information CMS or the carrier may request, including an itemized physician or supplier bill, in order to apply the requirements under the Medicare program.
(6) Identifies and excludes from its requests for payment all services for which Medicare is the secondary payer.
(b) Services paid for by the entity. An entity is not required to pay and claim reimbursement for all Part B services furnished to members of its plans. However, if it does not pay and claim reimbursement for all those services, it must establish in advance precise criteria for identifying the services for which it will pay and claim reimbursement.
[53 FR 28388, July 28, 1988; 53 FR 40231, Oct. 14, 1988]
§ 424.67 Enrollment requirements for opioid treatment programs (OTP).
(a) General enrollment requirement. In order for a program or eligible professional (as that term is defined in section 1848(k)(3)(B) of the Act) to receive Medicare payment for the provision of opioid use disorder treatment services, the provider must qualify as an OTP (as that term is defined in § 8.2 of this title) and enroll in the Medicare program under the provisions of this section and of subpart P of this part.
(b) Specific requirements and standards for enrollment. To enroll in the Medicare program, an OTP must meet all of the following requirements and standards:
(1) Fully complete and submit, as applicable, the Form CMS-855A or Form CMS-855B application (or their successor applications) and any applicable supplement or attachment thereto to its applicable Medicare contractor. This includes, but is not limited to, the following:
(i) Maintain and submit to CMS (via the applicable supplement or attachment) a list of all physicians, other eligible professionals, and pharmacists (regardless of whether the individual is a W-2 employee of the OTP) who are legally authorized to prescribe, order, or dispense controlled substances on behalf of the OTP. The list must include the physician's, other eligible professional's, or pharmacist's:
(A) First and last name, and middle initial.
(B) Social Security Number.
(C) National Provider Identifier.
(D) License number (if applicable).
(ii) Certifying via the Form CMS-855A or Form CMS-855B (as applicable) and/or the applicable supplement or attachment thereto that the OTP meets and will continue to meet the specific requirements and standards for enrollment described in paragraphs (b) and (e) of this section.
(2) Comply with the application fee requirements in § 424.514. (This includes OTPs enrolling under the circumstances described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.)
(3)(i) Except as stated in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, successfully complete the assigned categorical risk level screening required under, as applicable, § 424.518(b) and (c).
(ii) For currently enrolled OTPs that are changing their OTP enrollment from a Form CMS-855B enrollment to a Form CMS-855A enrollment, or vice versa, successfully complete the limited level of categorical screening under § 424.518(a) if the OTP has already completed, as applicable, the moderate or high level of categorical screening under § 424.518(b) or (c), respectively.
(4)(i) Have a current, valid certification by SAMHSA for an opioid treatment program consistent with the provisions and requirements of § 8.11 of this title.
(ii) A provisional certification under § 8.11(e) of this title does not meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section.
(5) Report on the Form CMS-855A or Form CMS-855B (as applicable) and/or any applicable supplement all OTP staff who meet the definition of “managing employee” in § 424.502. Such individuals include, but are not limited to, the following:
(i) Medical director (as described in § 8.2 of this title).
(ii) Program sponsor (as described in § 8.2 of this title).
(6)(i)(A) Must not employ or contract with a prescribing or ordering physician or eligible professional or with any individual legally authorized to dispense narcotics who, within the preceding 10 years, has been convicted (as that term is defined in 42 CFR 1001.2) of a Federal or State felony that CMS deems detrimental to the best interests of the Medicare program and its beneficiaries based on the same categories of detrimental felonies, as well as case by case detrimental determinations, found at § 424.535(a)(3).
(B) Paragraph (b)(6)(i)(A) of this section applies regardless of whether the individual in question is:
(1) Currently dispensing narcotics at or on behalf of the OTP; or
(2) A W-2 employee of the OTP.
(ii) Must not employ or contract with any personnel (regardless of whether the individual is a W-2 employee of the OTP) who is revoked from Medicare under § 424.535 or any other applicable section in Title 42, or who is on the preclusion list under § 422.222 or § 423.120(c)(6) of this chapter.
(iii) Must not employ or contract with any personnel (regardless of whether the individual is a W-2 employee of the OTP) who has a prior adverse action by a State oversight board, including, but not limited to, a reprimand, fine, or restriction, for a case or situation involving patient harm that CMS deems detrimental to the best interests of the Medicare program and its beneficiaries. CMS will consider the factors enumerated at § 424.535(a)(22) in each case of patient harm that potentially applies to this paragraph.
(7)(i) Sign (and adhere to the term of) a provider agreement in accordance with the provisions of part 489 of this chapter.
(ii) An OTP's appeals under part 498 of a Medicare revocation (under § 424.535) and a provider agreement termination (under § 489.53 of this chapter) must be filed jointly and, as applicable, considered jointly by CMS under part 498 of this chapter.
(8) Comply with all other applicable requirements for enrollment specified in this section and in subpart P of this part.
(c) Clarification of required enrollment forms. (1) An OTP may only be enrolled as an OTP via the Form CMS-855A or Form CMS-855B but not both.
(2) If a currently enrolled OTP is changing its OTP enrollment from a Form CMS-855B enrollment to a Form CMS-855A enrollment, or vice versa, the effective date of billing that was established for the OTP's prior enrollment under §§ 424.520(d) and 424.521(a) is applied to the OTP's new enrollment.
(d) Denial of enrollment. CMS may deny an OTP's enrollment application on any of the following grounds:
(1)(i) The provider does not have a current, valid certification by SAMHSA as required under paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section or fails to meet any other applicable requirement in this section.
(ii) Any of the denial reasons in § 424.530 applies.
(2) An OTP may appeal the denial of its enrollment application under part 498 of this chapter.
(e) Continued compliance, standards, and reasons for revocation. (1) Upon and after enrollment, an OTP—
(i) Must remain validly certified by SAMHSA as required under § 8.11 of this title.
(ii) Remains subject to, and must remain in full compliance with, the provisions of this section and of subpart P of this part. This includes, but is not limited to, the provisions of paragraph (b)(6) of this section, the revalidation provisions in § 424.515, and the deactivation and reactivation provisions in § 424.540.
(iii) Upon revalidation, successfully complete the moderate categorical risk level screening required under § 424.518(b).
(2) CMS may revoke an OTP's enrollment on any of the following grounds:
(i) The provider does not have a current, valid certification by SAMHSA as required under paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section or fails to meet any other applicable requirement or standard in this section, including, but not limited to, the OTP standards in paragraphs (b)(6) and (e)(1) of this section.
(ii) Any of the revocation reasons in § 424.535 applies.
(3) An OTP may appeal the revocation of its enrollment under part 498 of this title.
(f) Claim payment. For an OTP to receive payment for furnished drugs:
(1) The prescribing or medication ordering physician's or other eligible professional's National Provider Identifier must be listed on Field 17 of the Form CMS-1500; and
(2) All other applicable requirements of this section, this part, and part 8 of this title must be met.
(g) Relation to part 8 of this title. Nothing in this section shall be construed as:
(1) Supplanting any of the provisions in part 8 of this title; or
(2) Eliminating an OTP's obligation to maintain compliance with all applicable provisions in part 8 of this title.
[84 FR 63202, Nov. 15, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 85038, Dec. 28, 2020]
§ 424.68 Enrollment requirements for home infusion therapy suppliers.
(a) Definition. For purposes of this section, a home infusion therapy supplier means a supplier of home infusion therapy that meets all of the following requirements:
(1) Furnishes infusion therapy to individuals with acute or chronic conditions requiring administration of home infusion drugs.
(2) Ensures the safe and effective provision and administration of home infusion therapy on a 7-day-a-week, 24-hour-a-day basis.
(3) Is accredited by an organization designated by the Secretary in accordance with section 1834(u)(5) of the Act.
(4) Is enrolled in Medicare as a home infusion therapy supplier consistent with the provisions of this section and subpart P of this part.
(b) General requirement. For a supplier to receive Medicare payment for the provision of home infusion therapy supplier services, the supplier must qualify as a home infusion therapy supplier (as defined in this section) and be in compliance with all applicable provisions of this section and of subpart P of this part.
(c) Specific requirements for enrollment. To enroll in the Medicare program as a home infusion therapy supplier, a home infusion therapy supplier must meet all of the following requirements:
(1)(i) Fully complete and submit the Form CMS-855B application (or its electronic or successor application) to its applicable Medicare contractor.
(ii) Certify via the Form CMS-855B that the home infusion therapy supplier meets and will continue to meet the specific requirements and standards for enrollment described in this section and in subpart P of this part.
(2) Comply with the application fee requirements in § 424.514.
(3) Be currently and validly accredited as a home infusion therapy supplier by a CMS-recognized home infusion therapy supplier accreditation organization.
(4) Comply with § 414.1515 of this chapter and all provisions of part 486, subpart I of this chapter.
(5) Successfully complete the limited categorical risk level of screening under § 424.518.
(d) Denial of enrollment. (1) Enrollment denial by CMS. CMS may deny a supplier's enrollment application as a home infusion therapy supplier on either of the following grounds:
(i) The supplier does not meet all of the requirements for enrollment outlined in § 424.68 and in subpart P of this part.
(ii) Any of the applicable denial reasons in § 424.530.
(2) Appeal of an enrollment denial. A supplier may appeal the denial of its enrollment application as a home infusion therapy supplier under part 498 of this chapter.
(e) Continued compliance, standards, and reasons for revocation. (1) Upon and after enrollment, a home infusion therapy supplier—
(i) Must remain currently and validly accredited as described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
(ii) Remains subject to, and must remain in full compliance with, all of the provisions of—
(A) This section;
(B) Subpart P of this part;
(C) Section 414.1515 of this chapter; and
(D) Part 486, subpart I of this chapter.
(2) CMS may revoke a home infusion therapy supplier's enrollment on any of the following grounds:
(i) The supplier does not meet the accreditation requirements as described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
(ii) The supplier does not comply with all of the provisions of—
(A) This section;
(B) Subpart P of this part;
(C) Section 414.1515 of this chapter; and
(D) Part 486, subpart I of this chapter; or
(iii) Any of the revocation reasons in § 424.535 applies.
(3) A home infusion therapy supplier may appeal the revocation of its enrollment under part 498 of this chapter.
[85 FR 70355, Nov. 4, 2020]
Subpart F Limitations on Assignment and Reassignment of Claims
§ 424.70 Basis and scope.
(a) Statutory basis. This subpart implements sections 1815(c) and 1842(b)(6) of the Act, which establish limitations on who may receive payments due a provider or supplier of services or a beneficiary.
(b) Scope. This subpart—
(1) Prohibits the assignment, reassignment, or other transfer of the right to Medicare payments except under specified conditions;
(2) Sets forth the sanctions that CMS may impose on a provider or supplier that violates this prohibition, or on a supplier that violates the conditions to which it agreed in accepting assignment from the individual; and
(3) Specifies the conditions for payment under court-ordered assignments or reassignments.
§ 424.71 Definitions.
As used in this subpart, unless the context indicates otherwise—
Court of competent jurisdiction means a court that has jurisdiction over the subject matter and the parties before it.
Facility means a hospital or other institution that furnishes health care services to inpatients.
Entity means a person, group, or facility that is enrolled in the Medicare program.
Power of attorney means any written documents by which a principal authorizes an agent to—
(1) Receive, in the agent's name, any payments due the principal;
(2) Negotiate checks payable to the principal; or
(3) Receive, in any other manner, direct payment of amounts due the principal.
[53 FR 6634, Mar. 2, 1988, as amended at 69 FR 66426, Nov. 15, 2004]
§ 424.73 Prohibition of assignment of claims by providers.
(a) Basic prohibition. Except as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, Medicare does not pay amounts that are due a provider to any other person under assignment, or power of attorney, or any other direct payment arrangement.
(b) Exceptions to the prohibition—(1) Payment to a government agency or entity. Subject to the requirements of the Assignment of Claims Act (31 U.S.C. 3727), Medicare may pay a government agency or entity under an assignment by the provider.
(2) Payment under assignment established by court order. Medicare may pay under an assignment established by, or in accordance with, the order of a court of competent jurisdiction if the assignment meets the conditions set forth in § 424.90.
(3) Payment to an agent. Medicare may pay an agent who furnishes billing and collection services to the provider if the following conditions are met:
(i) The agent receives the payment under an agency agreement with the provider;
(ii) The agent's compensation is not related in any way to the dollar amounts billed or collected;
(iii) The agent's compensation is not dependent upon the actual collection of payment;
(iv) The agent acts under payment disposition instructions that the provider may modify or revoke at any time; and
(v) The agent, in receiving the payment, acts only on behalf of the provider.
Payment to an agent will always be made in the name of the provider.
§ 424.74 Termination of provider agreement.
CMS may terminate a provider agreement, in accordance with § 489.53(a)(1) of this chapter, if the provider—
(a) Executes or continues a power of attorney, or enters into or continues any other arrangement, that authorizes or permits payment contrary to the provisions of this subpart; or
(b) Fails to furnish, upon request by CMS or the intermediary, evidence necessary to establish compliance with the requirements of this subpart.
§ 424.80 Prohibition of reassignment of claims by suppliers.
(a) Basic prohibition. Except as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, Medicare does not pay amounts that are due a supplier under an assignment to any other person under reassignment, power of attorney, or any other direct arrangement. Nothing in this section alters a party's obligations under the anti-kickback statute (section 1128B(b) of the Act), the physician self-referral prohibition (section 1877 of the Act), the rules regarding physician billing for purchased diagnostic tests (§ 414.50 of this chapter), the rules regarding payment for services and supplies incident to a physician's professional services (§ 410.26 of this chapter), or any other applicable Medicare laws, rules, or regulations.
(b) Exceptions to the basic rule—(1) Payment to employer. Medicare may pay the supplier's employer if the supplier is required, as a condition of employment, to turn over to the employer the fees for his or her services.
(2) Payment to an entity under a contractual arrangement. Medicare may pay an entity enrolled in the Medicare program if there is a contractual arrangement between the entity and the supplier under which the entity bills for the supplier's services, subject to the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section.
(3) Payment to a government agency or entity. Subject to the requirements of the Assignment of Claims Act (31 U.S.C. 3727), Medicare may pay a government agency or entity under a reassignment by the supplier.
(4) Payment under a reassignment established by court order. Medicare may pay under a reassignment established by, or in accordance with, the order of a court competent jurisdiction, if the reassignment meets the conditions set forth in § 424.90.
(5) Payment to an agent. Medicare may pay an agent who furnishes billing and collection services to the supplier, or to the employer, facility, or system specified in paragraphs (b) (1), (2) and (3) of this section, if the conditions of § 424.73(b)(3) for payment to a provider's agent are met by the agent of the supplier or of the employer, facility, or system. Payment to an agent will always be made in the name of the supplier or the employer, facility, or system.
(c) Rules applicable to an employer or entity. An employer or entity that may receive payment under paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section is considered the supplier of those services for purposes of subparts C, D, and E of this part, subject to the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section.
(d) Reassignment to an entity under an employer-employee relationship or under a contractual arrangement: Conditions and limitations—(1) Liability of the parties. An entity enrolled in the Medicare program that receives payment under a contractual arrangement under paragraph (b)(2) of this section and the supplier that otherwise receives payment are jointly and severally responsible for any Medicare overpayment to that entity.
(2) Access to records. The supplier who furnishes the service has unrestricted access to claims submitted by an entity for services provided by that supplier. This paragraph applies irrespective of whether the supplier is an employee or whether the service is provided under a contractual arrangement. If an entity refuses to provide, upon request, the billing information to the supplier performing the service, the entity's right to receive reassigned benefits may be revoked under § 424.82(c)(3).
(3) Reassignment of the technical or professional component of a diagnostic test. If a physician or other supplier bills for the technical or professional component of a diagnostic test covered under section 1861(s)(3) of the Act and paid for under part 414 of this chapter (other than clinical diagnostic laboratory tests paid under section 1833(a)(2)(D) of the Act, which are subject to the special rules set forth in section 1833(h)(5)(A) of the Act) following a reassignment from a physician or other supplier who performed the technical or professional component, the amount payable to the billing physician or other supplier may be subject to the limits specified in § 414.50 of this chapter.
[53 FR 6634, Mar. 2, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 4027, Jan. 27, 1989; 69 FR 66426, Nov. 15, 2004; 70 FR 16722, Apr. 1, 2005; 71 FR 69788, Dec. 1, 2006; 72 FR 66406, Nov. 27, 2007]
§ 424.82 Revocation of right to receive assigned benefits.
(a) Scope. This section sets forth the conditions and procedures for revocation of the right of a supplier or other party to receive Medicare payments.
(b) Definition. As used in this section, other party means an employer, facility, or health care delivery system to which Medicare may make payment under § 424.80(b) (1), (2), or (3).
(c) Basis for revocation. CMS may revoke the right of a supplier or other party to receive Medicare payments if the supplier or other party, after warning by CMS or the carrier—
(1) Violates the terms of assignment in § 424.55(b).
(2) Continues collection efforts or fails to refund moneys incorrectly collected, in violation of the terms of assignment in § 424.55(b).
(3) Executes or continues in effect a reassignment or power of attorney or any other arrangement that seeks to obtain payment contrary to the provisions of § 424.80; or
(4) Fails to furnish evidence necessary to establish its compliance with the requirements of § 424.80.
(d) Proposed revocation: Notice and opportunity for review. If CMS proposes to revoke the right to payment in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, it will send the supplier or other party a written notice that—
(1) States the reasons for the proposed revocation; and
(2) Provides an opportunity for the supplier or other party to submit written argument and evidence against the proposed revocation. CMS usually allows 15 days from the date on the notice, but may extend or reduce the time as circumstances require.
(e) Actual revocation: Timing, notice, and opportunity for hearing—(1) Timing. CMS determines whether to revoke after considering any written argument or evidence submitted by the supplier or other party or, if none is submitted, at the expiration of the period specified in the notice of proposed revocation.
(2) Notice and opportunity for hearing. The notice of revocation specifies—
(i) The reasons for the revocation;
(ii) That the revocation is effective as of the date on the notice;
(iii) That the supplier or other party may, within 60 days from the date on the notice (or a longer period if the notice so specifies), request an administrative hearing and may be represented by counsel or other qualified representative.
(iv) That the carrier will withhold payment on any claims submitted by the supplier or other party until the period for requesting a hearing expires or, if a hearing is requested, until the hearing officer issues a decision;
(v) That if the hearing decision reverses the revocation, the carrier will pay the supplier's or other party's claims; and
(vi) That if a hearing is not requested or the hearing decision upholds the revocation, payment will be made to the beneficiary or to another person or agency authorized to receive payment on his or her behalf.
[53 FR 6644, Mar. 2, 1988; 53 FR 12945, Apr. 20, 1988]
§ 424.83 Hearings on revocation of right to receive assigned benefits.
If the supplier or other party requests a hearing under § 424.82(e)(2)—
(a) The hearing is conducted—
(1) By a CMS hearing official who was not involved in the decision to revoke; and
(2) In accordance with the procedures set forth in §§ 405.824 through 405.833 (but excepting § 405.832(d)) and 405.860 through 405.872 of this chapter. In applying those procedures, “CMS” is substituted for “carrier”; and “hearing official”, for “hearing officer”.
(b) As soon as practicable after the close of the hearing, the official who conducted it issues a hearing decision that—
(1) Is based on all the evidence presented at the hearing and included in the hearing record; and
(2) Contains findings of fact and a statement of reasons.
§ 424.84 Final determination on revocation of right to receive assigned benefits.
(a) Basis of final determination—(1) Final determination without a hearing. If the supplier or other party does not request a hearing, CMS's revocation determination becomes final at the end of the period specified in the notice of revocation.
(2) Final determination following a hearing. If there is a hearing, the hearing decision constitutes CMS's final determination.
(b) Notice of final determination. CMS sends the supplier or other party a written notice of the final determination and, if there was a hearing, includes a copy of the hearing decision.
(c) Application of the final determination—(1) A final determination not to revoke is the final administrative decision by CMS on the matter.
(2) A final determination to revoke remains in effect until CMS finds that the reason for the revocation has been removed and that there is reasonable assurance that it will not recur.
(d) Effect of revocation when supplier or other party has a financial interest in another entity. Revocation of the party's right to accept assignment also applies to any corporation, partnership, or other entity in which the party, directly or indirectly, has or acquires all or all but a nominal part of the financial interest.
[53 FR 6644, Mar. 2, 1988; 53 FR 12945, Apr. 20, 1988]
§ 424.86 Prohibition of assignment of claims by beneficiaries.
(a) Basic prohibition. Except as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, Medicare does not pay amounts that are due a beneficiary under § 424.53 to any other person under assignment, power of attorney, or any other direct payment arrangement.
(b) Exceptions—(1) Payment to a government agency or entity. Subject to the requirements of the Assignment of Claims Act (31 U.S.C. 3727), Medicare may pay a government agency or entity under an assignment by a beneficiary (or by the beneficiary's legal guardian or representative payee).
(2) Payment under an assignment established by court order. Medicare may pay under an assignment established by, or in accordance with, a court order if the assignment meets the conditions set forth in § 424.90.
§ 424.90 Court ordered assignments: Conditions and limitations.
(a) Conditions for acceptance. An assignment or reassignment established by or in accordance with a court order is effective for Medicare payments only if—
(1) Someone files a certified copy of the court order and of the executed assignment or reassignment (if it was necessary to execute one) with the intermediary or carrier responsible for processing the claim; and
(2) The assignment or reassignment—
(i) Applies to all Medicare benefits payable to a particular person or entity during a specified or indefinite time period; or
(ii) Specifies a particular amount of money, payable to a particular person or entity by a particular intermediary or carrier.
(b) Retention of authority to reduce interim payments to providers. A court-ordered assignment does not preclude the intermediary or carrier from reducing interim payments, as set forth in § 413.64(i) of this chapter, if the provider or assignee is in imminent danger of insolvency or bankruptcy.
(c) Liability of the parties. The party that receives payments under a court-ordered assignment or reassignment that meets the conditions of paragraph (a) of this section and the party that would have received payment if the court order had not been issued are jointly and severally responsible for any Medicare overpayment to the former.
Subpart G Special Conditions: Emergency Services Furnished by a Nonparticipating Hospital
§ 424.100 Scope.
This subpart sets forth procedures and criteria that are followed in determining whether Medicare will pay for emergency services furnished by a hospital that is located in the United States and does not have in effect a provider agreement, that is, an agreement to participate in Medicare.
§ 424.101 Definitions.
As used in this subpart, unless the context indicates otherwise—
Emergency services means inpatient or outpatient hospital services that are necessary to prevent death or serious impairment of health and, because of the danger to life or health, require use of the most accessible hospital available and equipped to furnish those services.
Hospital means a facility that—
(1) Is primarily engaged in providing, by or under the supervision of doctors of medicine or osteopathy, inpatient services for the diagnosis, treatment, and care or rehabilitation of persons who are sick, injured, or disabled;
(2) Is not primarily engaged in providing skilled nursing care and related services for patients who require medical or nursing care, as described in section 1861(j)(1)(A) of the Act;
(3) Provides 24-hour nursing service in accordance with section 1861(e)(5) of the Act; and
(4) Is licensed, or is approved as meeting the standards for licensing, by the State or local licensing agency.
Reasonable charges means customary charges insofar as they are reasonable.
§ 424.102 Situations that do not constitute an emergency.
Without additional evidence of a threat to life or health, the following situations do not in themselves indicate a need for emergency services:
(a) Lack of care at home.
(b) Lack of transportation to a participating hospital.
(c) Death of the patient in the hospital.
§ 424.103 Conditions for payment for emergency services.
Medicare pays for emergency services furnished to a beneficiary by a nonparticipating hospital or under arrangements made by such a hospital if the conditions of this section are met.
(a) General requirements. (1) The services are of the type that Medicare would pay for if they were furnished by a participating hospital.
(2) The hospital has in effect an election to claim payment for all emergency services furnished in a calendar year in accordance with § 424.104.
(3) The need for emergency services arose while the beneficiary was not an inpatient in a hospital.
(4) In the case of inpatient hospital services, the services are furnished during a period in which the beneficiary could not be safely discharged or transferred to a participating hospital or other institution.
(5) The determination that the hospital was the most accessible hospital available and equipped to furnish the services is made in accordance with § 424.106.
(b) Medical information requirements. A physician (or, if appropriate, the hospital) submits medical information that—
(1) Describes the nature of the emergency and specifies why it required that the beneficiary be treated in the most accessible hospital;
(2) Establishes that all the conditions in paragraph (a) of this section are met; and
(3) Indicates when the emergency ended, which, for inpatient hospital services, is the earliest date on which the beneficiary could be safely discharged or transferred to a participating hospital or other institution.
§ 424.104 Election to claim payment for emergency services furnished during a calendar year.
(a) Terms of the election. The hospital agrees to the following:
(1) To comply with the provisions of subpart C of part 489 of this chapter relating to charges for items and services the hospital may make to the beneficiary, or any other person on his or her behalf.
(2) To comply with the provisions of subpart D of part 489 of this chapter relating to proper disposition of monies incorrectly collected from, or on behalf of a beneficiary.
(3) To request payment under the Medicare program based on amounts specified in § 413.74 of this chapter.
(b) Filing of election statement. An election statement must be filed on a form designated by CMS, signed by an authorized official of the hospital, and either received by CMS, or postmarked, before the close of the calendar year of election.
(c) Acceptance and effective date of election. If CMS accepts the election statement, the election is effective as of the earliest day of the calendar year of election from which CMS determines the hospital has been in continuous compliance with the requirements of section 1814(d) of the Act.
(d) Appeal by hospital. Any hospital dissatisfied with a determination that it does not qualify to claim reimbursement shall be entitled to appeal the determination as provided in part 498 of this chapter.
(e) Conditions for reinstatement after notice of failure to continue to qualify. If CMS has notified a hospital that it no longer qualifies to receive reimbursement for a calendar year, CMS will not accept another election statement from that hospital until CMS finds that—
(1) The reason for its failure to qualify has been removed; and
(2) There is reasonable assurance that it will not recur.
§ 424.106 Criteria for determining whether the hospital was the most accessible.
(a) Basic requirement. (1) The hospital must be the most accessible one available and equipped to furnish the services.
(2) CMS determines accessibility based on the factors specified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section and the conditions set forth in paragraph (d) of this section.
(b) Factors that are considered. CMS considers the following factors in determining whether a nonparticipating hospital in a rural area meets the accessibility requirements:
(1) The relative distances of participating and nonparticipating hospitals in the area.
(2) The transportation facilities available to these hospitals.
(3) The quality of the roads to each hospital.
(4) The availability of beds at each hospital.
(5) Any other factors that bear on whether or not the services could be provided sooner in the nonparticipating hospitals than in a participating hospital in the general area.
In urban and suburban areas where both participating and nonparticipating hospitals are similarly available, CMS presumes that the services could have been provided in a participating hospital unless clear and convincing evidence shows that there was a medical or practical need to use the nonparticipating hospital.
(c) Factors that are not considered. CMS gives no consideration to the following factors in determining whether the nonparticipating hospital was the most accessible hospital:
(1) The personal preference of the beneficiary, the physician, or members of the family.
(2) The fact that the attending physician did not have staff privileges in a participating hospital which was available and the most accessible to the beneficiary.
(3) The location of previous medical records.
(d) Conditions under which the accessibility requirement is met. If a beneficiary must be taken to a hospital immediately for required diagnosis and treatment, the nonparticipating hospital meets the accessibility requirement if—
(1) It was the nearest hospital to the point where the emergency occurred, it was medically equipped to handle the type of emergency, and it was the most accessible, on the basis of the factors specified in paragraph (b) of this section; or
(2) There was a closer participating hospital equipped to handle the emergency, but the participating hospital did not have a bed available or would not accept the individual.
§ 424.108 Payment to a hospital.
(a) Conditions for payment. Medicare pays the hospital for emergency services if the hospital—
(1) Has in effect a statement of election to claim payment for all covered emergency services furnished during a calendar year, in accordance with § 424.104;
(2) Claims payment in accordance with § 424.32; and
(3) Submits evidence requested by CMS to establish that the services meet the requirements of this subpart.
(b) Subsequent claims. If the hospital files subsequent claims because the initial claim did not include all the services furnished, those claims must include physicians' statements that—
(1) Contain sufficient information to clearly establish that, when the additional services were furnished, the emergency still existed; and
(2) Indicate when the emergency ended, which, for inpatient hospital services, is the earliest date on which the beneficiary could be safely discharged or transferred to a participating hospital or other institution.
§ 424.109 Payment to the beneficiary.
Medicare pays the beneficiary for emergency services if the following conditions are met:
(a) The hospital does not have in effect an election to claim payment.
(b) The beneficiary, or someone on his or her behalf, submits—
(1) A claim that meets the requirements of § 424.32;
(2) An itemized hospital bill; and
(3) Evidence requested by CMS to establish that the services meet the requirements of this subpart.
Subpart H Special Conditions: Services Furnished in a Foreign Country
§ 424.120 Scope.
This subpart sets forth the conditions for payment for services furnished in a foreign country.
§ 424.121 Scope of payments.
Subject to the conditions set forth in this subpart—
(a) Medicare Part A pays, in the amounts specified in § 413.74 of this chapter, for emergency and nonemergency inpatient hospital services furnished by a foreign hospital.
(b) Medicare Part B pays for certain physicians' services and ambulance services furnished in connection with covered inpatient care in a foreign hospital, as specified in § 424.124.
(c) All other services furnished outside the United States are excluded from Medicare coverage, as specified in § 411.9 of this chapter.
[53 FR 6634, Mar. 2, 1988, as amended at 71 FR 48143, Aug. 18, 2006]
§ 424.122 Conditions for payment for emergency inpatient hospital services.
Medicare Part A pays for emergency inpatient hospital services furnished by a foreign hospital if the following conditions are met:
(a) At the time of the emergency that required the inpatient hospital services, the beneficiary was—
(1) In the United States; or
(2) In Canada traveling between Alaska and another State without unreasonable delay and by the most direct route.
(b) The foreign hospital was closer to, or more accessible from, the site of the emergency than the nearest United States hospital equipped to deal with, and available to treat, the individual's illness or injury.
(c) The conditions for payment for emergency services set forth in § 424.103 are met.
(d) The hospital is a hospital as defined in § 424.101, and is licensed, or approved as meeting the conditions for licensing, by the appropriate agency of the country in which it is located.
(e) The determination of whether the hospital was more accessible is made in accordance with § 424.106.
§ 424.123 Conditions for payment for nonemergency inpatient services furnished by a hospital closer to the individual's residence.
Medicare Part A pays for inpatient hospital services furnished by a foreign hospital if the following conditions are met:
(a) The beneficiary is a resident of the United States.
(b) The foreign hospital is closer or more accessible to the beneficiary's residence than the nearest United States hospital equipped to deal with, and available to treat, the individual's illness or injury.
(c) The foreign hospital is—
(1) A hospital as defined in § 424.101 and, it is licensed, or approved as meeting the conditions for licensing, by the appropriate agency of the country in which it is located; and
(2) Accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) or accredited or approved by a program of the country where it is located under standards the CMS finds to be essentially equivalent to those of the JCAHO.
(d) The services are covered services that Medicare would pay for if they were furnished by a participating hospital.
[53 FR 6634, Mar. 2, 1988, as amended at 71 FR 48143, Aug. 18, 2006]
§ 424.124 Conditions for payment for physician services and ambulance services.
(a) Basic rules. Medicare Part B pays for physician and ambulance services if—
(1) They are furnished—
(i) To an individual who is entitled to Part B benefits; and
(ii) In connection with covered inpatient hospital services; and
(2) They meet the conditions set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
(b) Physician services. (1) The physician services are services covered under Medicare Part B and are furnished—
(i) In the hospital, during a period of covered inpatient services; or
(ii) Outside the hospital, on the day of admission and for the same condition that required inpatient admission; and
(2) The physician is legally authorized to practice in the country where he or she furnishes the services.
(c) Ambulance services. The ambulance services are—
(1) Necessary because the use of other means of transportation is contraindicated by the beneficiary's condition; and
(2) Furnished by an ambulance that meets the definition in § 410.41 of this chapter.
[53 FR 6646, Mar. 2, 1988; 53 FR 12945, Apr. 20, 1988; 64 FR 3649, Jan. 25, 1999]
§ 424.126 Payment to the hospital.
(a) Conditions for payment. Medicare pays the hospital if it—
(1) Has in effect an election that—
(i) Meets the requirements set forth in § 424.104; and
(ii) Reflects the hospital's intent to claim for all covered services furnished during a calendar year.
(2) Claims payment in accordance with §§ 424.32 and 413.74 of this chapter; and
(3) Submits evidence requested by CMS to establish that the services meet the requirements of this subpart.
(b) Amount of payment. Payment is made (in accordance with § 413.74 of this chapter) on the basis of 100 percent of the hospital's customary charges, subject to the applicable deductible and coinsurance provisions set forth elsewhere in this chapter.
§ 424.127 Payment to the beneficiary.
(a) Conditions for payment of inpatient hospital services. Medicare pays the beneficiary if—
(1) The hospital does not have in effect an election to claim payment; and
(2) The beneficiary, or someone on his or her behalf, submits—
(i) A claim in accordance with § 424.32;
(ii) An itemized hospital bill; and
(iii) Evidence requested by CMS to establish that the services meet the requirements of this subpart.
(b) Amount payable for inpatient hospital services. The amount payable to the beneficiary is determined in accordance with § 424.109(b).
(c) Conditions for payment for Part B services. Medicare pays the beneficiary for physicians' services and ambulance services as specified in § 424.121, if an itemized bill for the services is submitted by the beneficiary or someone on his or her behalf and the conditions of § 424.126(a) (2) and (3) are met.
(d) The amount payable to the beneficiary is determined in accordance with § 410.152 of this chapter.
Subpart I Requirements for Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program Suppliers and Beneficiary Engagement Incentives Under the Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program Expanded Model
Source: 82 FR 53364, Nov. 15, 2017, unless otherwise noted.
§ 424.200 Scope.
This subpart specifies the requirements for Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program suppliers and beneficiary engagement incentives under the Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program expanded model.
§ 424.205 Requirements for Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program suppliers.
(a) Definitions. In addition to the definitions specified at § 410.79(b) and § 414.84(a) of this subchapter, the following definitions apply to this section:
Administrative location means a physical location associated with the MDPP supplier's operations where they are the primary operator in the space, from where coaches are dispatched or based, and where MDPP services may or may not be furnished.
Coach means an individual who furnishes MDPP services on behalf of an MDPP supplier as an employee, contractor, or volunteer.
Coach eligibility end date means the end date indicated by the MDPP supplier in submitting a change to the supplier's MDPP enrollment application in accordance with paragraph (c)(5) of this section that removed the coach's information, or the date the supplier itself was revoked from or withdrew its Medicare enrollment as an MDPP supplier.
Coach eligibility start date, means the start date indicated by the MDPP supplier when submitting the coach's information on the MDPP enrollment application.
Community setting means a location where the MDPP supplier furnishes MDPP services outside of their administrative locations. A community setting is a location open to the public not primarily associated with the supplier. Community settings may include, for example, church basements or multipurpose rooms in recreation centers.
Eligible coach means an individual who CMS has screened and has determined can provide MDPP services on behalf of an MDPP supplier in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
Ineligible coach means an individual whom CMS has screened and has determined cannot provide MDPP services on behalf of an MDPP supplier in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
(b) Conditions for MDPP supplier enrollment. An entity may enroll as an MDPP supplier only if it satisfies the following requirements and all other applicable Medicare enrollment requirements:
(1) Has either preliminary, full, full plus CDC DPRP recognition.
(2) Maintains an active and valid TIN and NPI at the organizational level.
(3) Has passed screening requirements as follows:
(i) Upon initial enrollment, at a “high” categorical risk in accordance with § 424.518(c)(2); and
(ii) Upon revalidation, at a “moderate” categorical risk in accordance with § 424.518(b)(2).
(4) Maintains, and submits to CMS through the CMS-approved enrollment application, a roster of all coaches who will be furnishing MDPP services on the entity's behalf that includes each coach's first and last names, middle initial (if applicable), date of birth, Social Security Number (SSN), active and valid NPI, coach eligibility start date, and coach eligibility end date (if applicable). This roster must be updated in accordance with paragraph (c)(5) of this section.
(5) The Medicare provider enrollment application fee does not apply to all Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program (MDPP) suppliers that submit an enrollment application on or after January 1, 2022.
(6) Meets and certifies in its CMS-approved enrollment application that it meets and will continue to meet the supplier enrollment standards described in paragraph (c) of this section.
(7) Revalidates its Medicare enrollment every 5 years after the effective date of enrollment.
(c) Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program supplier standards. An MDPP supplier must meet and must certify in its CMS-approved enrollment application that it meets and will continue to meet the following standards.
(1) The MDPP supplier must have and maintain preliminary, full, or full plus CDC DPRP recognition.
(2) The MDPP supplier must not currently have its billing privileges terminated for-cause or be excluded by a State Medicaid agency.
(3) The MDPP supplier must not include on the roster of coaches, described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section and updated in accordance with paragraph (c)(5) of this section, nor permit MDPP services to be furnished by, any individual coach who meets any of ineligibility criteria outlined in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
(4) The MDPP supplier must maintain at least one administrative location. All administrative locations maintained by the MDPP supplier must be located at an appropriate site and be reported on the CMS-approved enrollment application. An appropriate site for such an administrative location would include all of the following characteristics:
(i) Signage posted on the exterior of the building or suite, in a building directory, or on materials located inside of the building. Such signage may include, for example, the MDPP supplier's legal business name or DBA, as well as hours of operation.
(ii) Open for business during stated operational hours.
(iii) Employees, staff, or volunteers present during operational hours; and
(iv) Not a private residence.
(5) The MDPP supplier must update its enrollment application within 30 days of any changes of ownership, changes to the coach roster (including due to coach ineligibility or because the coach is no longer an employee, contractor, or volunteer of the MDPP supplier), and final adverse action history, and report all other changes, including but not limited to changes in the MDPP supplier's administrative location(s), to CMS within 90 days of the reportable event.
(6) The MDPP supplier must maintain a primary business telephone that operates either at administrative locations described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section or directly where services are furnished, if services are furnished in community settings. The associated telephone number must be listed with either the legal or doing business as name of the supplier in public view, including on Web sites, flyers, and materials.
(7) The MDPP supplier must not knowingly sell to or allow another individual or entity to use its supplier billing number.
(8) Subject to paragraph (c)(8)(i) of this section, the MDPP supplier must not deny an MDPP beneficiary access to MDPP services during the MDPP services period described in § 410.79(c)(2) of this chapter, including on the basis of the beneficiary's weight, health status, or achievement of performance goals.
(i) Suppliers may deny an MDPP beneficiary access to MDPP services during the MDPP services period only under one of the following conditions:
(A) The MDPP beneficiary no longer meets the eligibility criteria for MDPP services under § 410.79(c)(1) of this chapter.
(B) The MDPP supplier lacks the self-determined publicly-posted capacity to furnish MDPP services to a given MDPP beneficiary.
(C) The MDPP supplier determines that the MDPP beneficiary significantly disrupts the session for other MDPP beneficiaries or becomes abusive.
(ii) MDPP suppliers must maintain a record of the number of MDPP beneficiaries for whom it declined access away for the reasons outlined in paragraphs (c)(8)(i)(B) and (C) of this section, to include the date each such beneficiary was declined access. For beneficiaries who were declined access for the reasons described in paragraph (c)(8)(i)(C) of this section, the MDPP supplier must document details of the occurrence(s), including date(s) of the behavior, any remediation efforts taken by the MDPP supplier, and final action (for example, dismissal from an MDPP session or denial from future sessions) in the beneficiary's MDPP records.
(9) The MDPP supplier and other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to MDPP services on the MDPP supplier's behalf must not unduly coerce an MDPP beneficiary's decision to change or not to change to a different MDPP supplier, including through the use of pressure, intimidation, or bribery.
(10) Except as allowed under paragraph (c)(8) of this section, the MDPP supplier must offer an MDPP beneficiary no fewer than all of the following:
(i) 16 in-person, distance learning, or Online core sessions no more frequently than weekly for the first 6 months of the MDPP services period, which begins on the date of attendance at the first core session.
(ii) One in-person, distance learning, or Online core maintenance session each month during months 7 through 12 (6 months total) of the MDPP services period.
(11) Before the initial core session is furnished, the MDPP supplier must disclose detailed information about the set of MDPP services to each MDPP beneficiary to whom it wishes to begin furnishing MDPP services. Such information must include all of the following:
(i) Eligibility requirements under § 410.79(c)(1) of this chapter, including the once-per-lifetime nature of MDPP services.
(ii) Minimum coverage requirements under § 410.79(c)(2).
(iii) The MDPP supplier standards as specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
(12) The MDPP supplier must answer MDPP beneficiaries' questions about MDPP services and respond to MDPP-related complaints within a reasonable timeframe. An MDPP supplier must implement a complaint resolution protocol and maintain documentation of all beneficiary contact regarding such complaints, including the name and Medicare Beneficiary Identifier of the beneficiary, a summary of the complaint, related correspondences, notes of actions taken, and the names and/or NPIs of individuals who took such actions on behalf of the MDPP supplier. Failure to maintain a complaint resolution protocol or to retain information regarding MDPP related complaints in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section may be considered evidence that the MPPP supplier standards have not been met. This information must be kept at each administrative location and made available to CMS or its contractors upon request.
(13) The MDPP supplier must maintain a crosswalk file which indicates how beneficiary identifications for the purposes of CDC performance data requirements correspond to corresponding beneficiary health insurance claims numbers or Medicare Beneficiary Identifiers for each MDPP beneficiary receiving MDPP services from the MDPP supplier. The MDPP supplier must submit the crosswalk file to CMS or its contractor.
(14) The MDPP supplier must submit performance data for MDPP beneficiaries who ever attended ongoing maintenance sessions with data elements consistent with the CDC's DPRP standards for data elements required for the core services period.
(15) The MDPP supplier must allow CMS or its agents to conduct onsite inspections or recordkeeping reviews in order to ascertain the MDPP supplier's compliance with these standards, and must adhere to the documentation requirements as outlined in paragraph (f) of this section.
(d) Coach eligibility—(1) Criteria. To furnish MDPP services to a beneficiary, an MDPP coach must not:
(i) Currently have Medicare billing privileges revoked and be currently subject to the reenrollment bar.
(ii) Currently have its Medicaid billing privileges terminated for-cause or be excluded by a State Medicaid agency.
(iii) Currently be excluded from any other Federal health care program, as defined in 42 CFR 1001.2, in accordance with section 1128, 1128A, 1156, 1842, 1862, 1867 or 1892 of the Act.
(iv) Currently be debarred, suspended, or otherwise excluded from participating in any other Federal procurement or nonprocurement program or activity in accordance with the Federal Acquisition Streamlining Act implementing regulations and the Department of Health and Human Services nonprocurement common rule at 45 CFR part 76.
(v) Have, in the previous 10 years, one of the following State or Federal felony convictions:
(A) Crimes against persons, such as murder, rape, assault, and other similar crimes for which the individual was convicted, as defined under 42 CFR 1001.2, had a guilty plea or adjudicated pretrial diversion.
(B) Financial crimes, such as extortion, embezzlement, income tax evasion, insurance fraud and other similar crimes for which the individual was convicted, as defined under 42 CFR 1001.2, had a guilty plea or adjudicated pretrial diversion.
(C) Any felony that placed Medicare or its beneficiaries at immediate risk, such as a malpractice suit that results in the individual being convicted, as defined under 42 CFR 1001.2, had a guilty plea or adjudicated pretrial diversion of criminal neglect or misconduct.
(D) Any felonies for which the individual was convicted, as defined under 42 CFR 1001.2, had a guilty plea or adjudicated pretrial diversion that would result in mandatory exclusion under section 1128(a) of the Act.
(2) CMS determination of coach eligibility. CMS will screen each individual identified on the roster of coaches included with the supplier's enrollment application described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section and updated in accordance with paragraph (c)(5) of this section to verify that the individual coach does not meet any of the conditions specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section and that the coach can provide MDPP services on behalf of an MDPP supplier. For each individual coach successfully screened by CMS, his or her eligibility start date becomes effective and remains effective until an MDPP supplier or CMS takes action that results in an eligibility end date.
(e) Effective date for billing privileges. (1) For MDPP suppliers initially enrolling and for newly established administrative locations that result in a new enrollment record or Provider Transaction Access Number, the effective date for Medicare billing privileges for MDPP suppliers is—
(i) The later of—
(A) The date of filing of a Medicare enrollment application that was subsequently approved by a Medicare contractor;
(B) The date of filing of a corrective action plan that was subsequently approved by a Medicare contractor; or
(C) The date that the supplier first began furnishing services at a new administrative location that resulted in a new enrollment record or Provider Transaction Access Number.
(ii) Under no circumstances should the effective date of billing privileges for any MDPP supplier be prior to April 1, 2018.
(2) For any newly established administrative locations that do not result in a new enrollment record or Provider Transaction Access Number, the existing billing privilege effective date for their Provider Transaction Access Number will apply, but not earlier than April 1, 2018.
(f) Documentation retention and provision requirements. An MDPP supplier must maintain all documentation related to participation in the MDPP in accordance with all applicable Federal and State laws. The MDPP supplier must provide to CMS, a contractor acting on CMS' behalf, the Office of the Inspector General, and the Comptroller General or their designee(s) scheduled and unscheduled access to the MDPP supplier's records, including, but not limited to, all books, contracts, records, documents, and other evidence sufficient to enable the audit, evaluation, inspection, or investigation of the MDPP supplier's compliance with the MDPP expanded model's requirements, including the MDPP expanded model requirements for in-kind beneficiary incentive engagements in § 424.210 of this chapter in the event that the MDPP supplier chooses to offer such incentives to any MDPP beneficiary.
(1) The documentation for the first core session must be established contemporaneous with the furnishing of MDPP services and must include at least all of the following:
(i) Organizational information, including MDPP supplier name, CDC DPRP number, and NPI.
(ii) Basic beneficiary information for each MDPP beneficiary in attendance, including but not limited to beneficiary name, MBI, and age.
(iii) Evidence that each such beneficiary satisfied the eligibility requirements under § 410.79(c) of this chapter at the time of service.
(2) The documentation for each MDPP session attended by an MDPP must be established contemporaneous with the furnishing of MDPP services and must include at least all of the following:
(i) Documentation of the type of session (in-person, distance learning, or Online).
(ii) Identification of which CDC-approved DPRP curriculum was associated with the session.
(iii) The NPI of the coach who furnished the session.
(iv) The date and place of service of the session.
(v) Each MDPP's beneficiary's weight and date weight taken, in a form and manner as specified by CMS.
(3) If an MDPP supplier chooses to offer in-kind beneficiary engagement incentives to MDPP beneficiaries as permitted under § 424.210, the records maintained by the MDPP supplier in accordance with this section must also include the information required by § 424.210(e).
(4) An MDPP supplier is required to maintain and handle any beneficiary information related to MDPP, including Personally Identifiable Information (PII) and Protected Health Information (PHI), as would be required under HIPAA, other applicable state and federal privacy laws, and CMS standards.
(5) The MDPP supplier's records must include an attestation from the MDPP supplier that, as applicable, the MDPP beneficiary for which it is submitting a claim—
(i) Has achieved required minimum weight loss as measured in accordance with § 410.79(e)(3)(iii) of this chapter during a core session or core maintenance session furnished by that supplier, if the claim submitted is for a performance payment under § 414.84(b)(1) of this chapter.
(ii) Has achieved required minimum weight loss as measured in accordance with § 410.79(c)(ii) during a core session or core maintenance session furnished by that supplier, if the claim submitted is for a performance payment under § 414.84(b)(1) of this chapter.
(iii) Has achieved at least a 9-percent weight loss percentage as measured in accordance with § 410.79(e)(3)(iii) of this chapter during a core session or core maintenance session furnished by that supplier, if the claim submitted is for a performance payment under § 414.84(b)(2) of this chapter.
(iv) Has achieved at least a 9-percent weight loss percentage as measured in in accordance with § 410.79(c)(ii) during a core session or core maintenance session furnished by that supplier, if the claim submitted is for a performance payment under § 414.84(b)(2) of this chapter.
(6) The MDPP supplier must maintain all records required under this section for a period of 10 years from the last day of the MDPP beneficiary's receipt of MDPP services provided by the MDPP supplier or from the date of completion of any audit, evaluation, inspection, or investigation, whichever is later, unless either of the following apply:
(i) CMS determines that there is a special need to retain a particular record or group of records for a longer period and notifies the MDPP supplier at least 30 calendar days before the normal disposition rate; or
(ii) There has been a dispute or allegation of fraud or similar fault against the MDPP supplier, in which case the records must be maintained for an additional 6 years from the date of any resulting final resolution of the dispute or allegation of fraud or similar fault, as defined at § 405.902 of this chapter.
(g) Denial or revocation of MDPP supplier enrollment. (1) An MDPP supplier is subject to enrollment denial or revocation of its MDPP supplier enrollment for one or more of the following reasons:
(i) Failure to meet enrollment requirements. The MDPP supplier does not satisfy the conditions specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
(A) An enrollment denial under this paragraph (g)(1)(i) is considered an enrollment denial under § 424.530(a)(1) or (18).
(B) A revocation under this paragraph (h)(1)(i) is considered a revocation under § 424.535(a)(1) or (23).
(C) An MDPP supplier that does not satisfy the requirements in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may become eligible to bill for MDPP services again if it successfully achieves preliminary, full, or full plus CDC DPRP recognition, and successfully enrolls again in Medicare as an MDPP supplier after any applicable reenrollment bar has expired.
(ii) Failure to meet MDPP supplier standards. The MDPP supplier fails to meet the standards specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
(A) An enrollment denial under this paragraph (g)(1)(ii) is considered an enrollment denial under § 424.530(a)(1) or (18).
(B) A revocation under this paragraph (g)(1)(ii) is considered a revocation under § 424.535(a)(1) or (23).
(iii) Application of existing enrollment denial reasons. One of the enrollment denial reasons specified in § 424.530(a)(1) or (18) applies.
(iv) Application of existing revocation reasons. One of the revocation reasons specified in § 424.535(a)(1) or (23) applies.
(v) Use of an ineligible coach. (A) The MDPP supplier knowingly allows an ineligible coach to furnish MDPP services to Medicare beneficiaries. Knowingly means that the MDPP supplier received an enrollment denial or revocation notice based on failing to meet the standard specified in § 424.205(c)(3), was provided notice by CMS or contractors working on its behalf of this coach's ineligibility including the reason(s) for ineligibility, submitted a corrective action plan (CAP) to remove the coach and become compliant therefore maintaining its enrollment, but continued to allow the coach to provide MDPP services in violation of the CAP.
(B) Revocation under this paragraph (g)(1)(v) is subject to the following requirements:
(1) The revocation becomes effective 30 days after CMS or the CMS contractor mails notice of its determination to the MDPP supplier.
(2) For the revocation authority under this paragraph (h)(1)(v), MDPP suppliers are barred from participating in the Medicare program from the date of the revocation, which begins 30 days after CMS or its contractor mails notice of the revocation, until the end of the reenrollment bar, which lasts a minimum of 1 year, but not greater than 3 years, depending on the severity of the basis for revocation.
(3) A revoked MDPP supplier must, within 60 calendar days after the effective date of revocation, submit all claims for items and services furnished before the date of the revocation letter.
(2) An MDPP supplier may appeal an enrollment denial or revocation decision in accordance with the procedures specified in part 498 of this chapter. References to suppliers in that section apply to MDPP suppliers.
[82 FR 53364, Nov. 15, 2017,as amended at 86 FR 65682, Nov. 19, 2021; 88 FR 79540, Nov. 16, 2023; 89 FR 98565, Dec. 9, 2024; 90 FR 50014, Nov. 5, 2025; 90 FR 55617, Dec. 2, 2025]
§ 424.210 Beneficiary engagement incentives under the Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program expanded model.
(a) Definitions. In addition to the definitions specified at § 410.79(b) and § 424.205(a) of this chapter, the following definition applies to this section:
Engagement incentive period means the period of time during which an MDPP supplier may furnish in-kind beneficiary engagement incentives to a given MDPP beneficiary to whom the MDPP supplier is furnishing MDPP services. This period begins when an MDPP supplier furnishes any MDPP service to an MDPP eligible beneficiary and ends when one of the following occurs, whichever occurs first:
(i) The MDPP beneficiary's MDPP services period ends as described in § 410.79(c)(3) of this chapter.
(ii) The MDPP supplier knows the MDPP beneficiary will no longer be receiving MDPP services from the MDPP supplier.
(iii) The MDPP supplier has not had direct contact, either in-person, by telephone, or via other telecommunications technology, with the MDPP beneficiary for more than 90 consecutive calendar days during the MDPP services period.
(b) General. An MDPP supplier may choose to furnish an item or service as an in-kind beneficiary engagement incentive to an MDPP beneficiary only during the engagement incentive period, subject to the following conditions:
(1) The item or service must be furnished directly to an MDPP beneficiary by an MDPP supplier or by an agent of the MDPP supplier, such as a coach, under the MDPP supplier's direction and control.
(2) The item or service must be reasonably connected to the CDC-approved National Diabetes Prevention Program curriculum furnished to the MDPP beneficiary during a core session or core maintenance session furnished by the MDPP supplier.
(3) The item or service must be a preventive care item or service or an item or service that advances a clinical goal, as specified in paragraph (d) of this section, for an MDPP beneficiary by engaging him or her in better managing his or her own health.
(4) The item or service must not be tied to the receipt of items or services outside of the MDPP services.
(5) The item or service must not be tied to the receipt of items or services from a particular provider, supplier, or coach.
(6) The availability of the item or service must not be advertised or promoted as an in-kind beneficiary engagement incentive available to an MDPP beneficiary receiving MDPP services from the MDPP supplier except that an MDPP beneficiary may be made aware of the availability of the item or service at the time the MDPP beneficiary could reasonably benefit from it during the engagement incentive period.
(7) The cost of the item or service must not be shifted to another Federal health care program, as defined at section 1128B(f) of the Act.
(8) The cost of the item or service must not be shifted to an MDPP beneficiary.
(c) Technology furnished to an MDPP beneficiary. In-kind beneficiary engagement incentives involving technology furnished by an MDPP supplier to an MDPP beneficiary are subject to the following conditions:
(1) Items or services involving technology may not, in the aggregate, exceed $1,000 in retail value for any one MDPP beneficiary.
(2) Items or services involving technology must be the minimum necessary to advance a clinical goal, as specified in paragraph (d) of this section, for an MDPP beneficiary.
(3) Items involving technology exceeding $100 in retail value must—
(i) Remain the property of the MDPP supplier; and
(ii) Be retrieved from the MDPP beneficiary at the end of the engagement incentive period. The MDPP supplier must document all retrieval attempts, including the ultimate date of retrieval, in accordance with paragraph (e)(3) of this section. Documented diligent, good faith attempts to retrieve items of technology will be deemed to meet the retrieval requirement.
(d) Clinical goals of the MDPP expanded model. The following are the clinical goals for MDPP beneficiaries that may be advanced through in-kind beneficiary engagement incentives:
(1) Attendance at core sessions or core maintenance sessions.
(2) Weight loss.
(3) Long-term dietary change.
(4) Adherence to long-term health behavior changes.
(e) Documentation of beneficiary engagement incentives. In addition to the documentation requirements at § 424.205(g), an MDPP supplier must maintain documentation of items and services furnished as in-kind beneficiary engagement incentives that exceed $25 in retail value.
(1) The documentation must be established contemporaneous with the furnishing of the in-kind items and services and must include at least the following:
(i) The date the item or service is furnished.
(ii) The identity of the MDPP beneficiary to whom the item or service is furnished.
(iii) The agent of the MDPP supplier that furnished the item or service, if applicable.
(iv) A description of the item or service.
(v) The retail value of the item or service.
(vi) Documentation establishing that the item or service was furnished to the MDPP beneficiary during the engagement incentive period.
(2) Documentation regarding items or services that are furnished to the MDPP beneficiary for use on an ongoing basis during the engagement incentive period, including items involving technology exceeding $100 in retail value, must also include contemporaneous documentation establishing that the MDPP beneficiary is in the engagement incentive period throughout the time period that the MDPP beneficiary possesses or has access to the item or service furnished by the MDPP supplier.
(3) The documentation regarding items involving technology exceeding $100 in retail value must also include contemporaneous documentation of any attempt to retrieve the item as required by paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section.
(4) The MDPP supplier must retain and provide access to the documentation required in this section in accordance with § 424.205(g).
[82 FR 53364, Nov. 15, 2017, as amended at 88 FR 79540, Nov. 16, 2023]
J Subparts J-L [Reserved]
Subpart M Replacement and Reclamation of Medicare Payments
§ 424.350 Replacement of checks that are lost, stolen, defaced, mutilated, destroyed, or paid on forged endorsements.
(a) U.S. Government checks—(1) Responsibility. The Treasury Department is responsible for the investigation and settlement of claims in connection with Treasury checks issued on behalf of CMS.
(2) Action by CMS. CMS forwards reports of lost, stolen, defaced, mutilated, destroyed, or forged Treasury checks to the Treasury Department disbursing center responsible for issuing checks.
(3) Action by the Treasury Department. The Treasury Department will replace and begin reclamation of Treasury checks in accordance with Treasury Department regulations (31 CFR parts 235, 240, and 245).
(b) Intermediary and carrier benefit checks. Checks issued by intermediaries and carriers are drawn on commercial banks and are not subject to the Federal laws and Treasury Department regulations that govern Treasury checks. Replacement procedures are carried out in accordance with § 424.352 under applicable State law (including any Federal banking laws or regulations that may affect the relevant State proceedings).
[58 FR 65129, Dec. 13, 1993]
§ 424.352 Intermediary and carrier checks that are lost, stolen, defaced, mutilated, destroyed or paid on forged endorsements.
(a) When an intermediary or carrier is notified by a payee that a check has been lost, stolen, defaced, mutilated, destroyed, or paid on forged endorsement, the intermediary or carrier contacts the commercial bank on whose paper the check was drawn and determines whether the check has been negotiated.
(b) If the check has been negotiated—
(1) The intermediary or carrier provides the payee with a copy of the check and other pertinent information (such as a claim form, affidavit or questionnaire to be completed by the payee) required to pursue his or her claim in accordance with State law and commercial banking regulations.
(2) To pursue the claim, the payee must examine the check and certify (by completing the claim form, questionnaire or affidavit) that the endorsement is not the payee's.
(3) The claim form and other pertinent information is sent to the intermediary or carrier for review and processing of the claim.
(4) The intermediary or carrier reviews the payee's claim. If the intermediary or carrier determines that the claim appears to be valid, it forwards the claim and a copy of the check to the issuing bank. The intermediary or carrier takes further action to recover the proceeds of the check in accordance with the State law and regulations.
(5) Once the intermediary or carrier recovers the proceeds of the initial check, the intermediary or carrier issues a replacement check to the payee.
(6) If the bank of first deposit refuses to settle on the check for good cause, the payee must pursue the claim on his or her own and the intermediary or carrier will not reissue the check to the payee.
(c) If the check has not been negotiated—
(1) The intermediary or carrier arranges with the bank to stop payment on the check; and
(2) Except as provided in paragraph (d), the intermediary or carrier reissues the check to the payee.
(d) No check may be reissued under (c)(2) unless the claim for a replacement check is received by the intermediary or carrier no later than 1 year from the date of issuance of the original check, unless State law (including any applicable Federal banking laws or regulations that may affect the relevant State proceeding) provides a longer period which will control.
[58 FR 65130, Dec. 13, 1993]
N Subparts N-O [Reserved]
Subpart P Requirements for Establishing and Maintaining Medicare Billing Privileges
Source: 71 FR 20776, Apr. 21, 2006, unless otherwise noted.
§ 424.500 Scope.
The provisions of this subpart contain the requirements for enrollment, periodic resubmission and certification of enrollment information for revalidation, and timely reporting of updates and changes to enrollment information. These requirements apply to all providers and suppliers except for physicians and practitioners who have entered into a private contract with a beneficiary as described in part 405, subpart D of this chapter. Providers and suppliers must meet and maintain these enrollment requirements to bill either the Medicare program or its beneficiaries for Medicare covered services or supplies.
§ 424.502 Definitions.
As used in this subpart, unless the context indicates otherwise—
Additional disclosable party means, with respect to a skilled nursing facility defined at section 1819(a) of the Act, any person or entity who does any of the following:
(1)(i) Exercises operational, financial, or managerial control over the facility or a part thereof;
(ii) Provides policies or procedures for any of the operations of the facility; or
(iii) Provides financial or cash management services to the facility.
(2)(i) Leases or subleases real property to the facility; or
(ii) Owns a whole or part interest equal to or exceeding 5 percent of the total value of such real property.
(3) Provides—
(i) Management or administrative services;
(ii) Management or clinical consulting services; or
(iii) Accounting or financial services to the facility.
Affiliation means, for purposes of applying § 424.519, any of the following:
(1) A 5 percent or greater direct or indirect ownership interest that an individual or entity has in another organization.
(2) A general or limited partnership interest (regardless of the percentage) that an individual or entity has in another organization.
(3) An interest in which an individual or entity exercises operational or managerial control over, or directly or indirectly conducts, the day-to-day operations of another organization (including, for purposes of this paragraph (3), sole proprietorships), either under contract or through some other arrangement, regardless of whether or not the managing individual or entity is a W-2 employee of the organization.
(4) An interest in which an individual is acting as an officer or director of a corporation.
(5) Any reassignment relationship under § 424.80.
Approve/Approval means the enrolling provider or supplier has been determined to be eligible under Medicare rules and regulations to receive a Medicare billing number and be granted Medicare billing privileges.
Authorized official means an appointed official (for example, chief executive officer, chief financial officer, general partner, chairman of the board, or direct owner) to whom the organization has granted the legal authority to enroll it in the Medicare program, to make changes or updates to the organization's status in the Medicare program, and to commit the organization to fully abide by the statutes, regulations, and program instructions of the Medicare program. For purposes of this definition only, the term “organization” means the enrolling entity as identified by its legal business name and tax identification number.
Change in majority ownership occurs when an individual or organization acquires more than a 50 percent direct ownership interest in an HHA or hospice during the 36 months following the HHA's or hospice's initial enrollment into the Medicare program or the 36 months following the HHA's or hospice's most recent change in majority ownership (including asset sale, stock transfer, merger, and consolidation). This includes an individual or organization that acquires majority ownership in an HHA or hospice through the cumulative effect of asset sales, stock transfers, consolidations, or mergers during the 36-month period after Medicare billing privileges are conveyed or the 36-month period following the HHA's or hospice's most recent change in majority ownership.
Deactivate means, except in the situations described in § 424.547, that the provider or supplier's billing privileges were stopped, but can be restored upon the submission of updated information.
Delegated official means an individual who is delegated by the “Authorized Official,” the authority to report changes and updates to the enrollment record. The delegated official must be an individual with ownership or control interest in, or be a W-2 managing employee of the provider or supplier.
Deny/Denial means the enrolling provider or supplier has been determined to be ineligible to receive Medicare billing privileges for Medicare covered items or services provided to Medicare beneficiaries.
Director means a director of a corporation, regardless of whether the provider or supplier is a non-profit entity. This includes any member of the corporation's governing body irrespective of the precise title of either the board or the member.
Disclosable event means, for purposes of § 424.519, any of the following:
(1) Currently has an uncollected debt to Medicare, Medicaid, or CHIP, regardless of—
(i) The amount of the debt;
(ii) Whether the debt is currently being repaid (for example, as part of a repayment plan); or
(iii) Whether the debt is currently being appealed;
(2) Has been or is subject to a payment suspension under a federal health care program (as that latter term is defined in section 1128B(f) of the Act), regardless of when the payment suspension occurred or was imposed;
(3) Has been or is excluded by the OIG from participation in Medicare, Medicaid, or CHIP, regardless of whether the exclusion is currently being appealed or when the exclusion occurred or was imposed; or
(4) Has had its Medicare, Medicaid, or CHIP enrollment denied, revoked, or terminated, regardless of—
(i) The reason for the denial, revocation, or termination;
(ii) Whether the denial, revocation, or termination is currently being appealed; or
(iii) When the denial, revocation, or termination occurred or was imposed.
Enroll/Enrollment means the process that Medicare uses to establish eligibility to submit claims for Medicare-covered items and services, and the process that Medicare uses to establish eligibility to order or certify Medicare-covered items and services. The process includes—
(1) Identification of a provider or supplier;
(2) Except for those suppliers that complete the CMS-855O form, CMS-identified equivalent, successor form or process for the sole purpose of obtaining eligibility to order or certify Medicare-covered items and services, validating the provider or supplier's eligibility to provide items or services to Medicare beneficiaries;
(3) Identification and confirmation of the provider or supplier's practice location(s) and owner(s); and
(4) Except for those suppliers that complete the CMS-855O form, CMS-identified equivalent, successor form or process for the sole purpose of obtaining eligibility to order or certify Medicare-covered items and services, granting the Medicare provider or supplier Medicare billing privileges.
Enrollment application means a CMS-approved paper enrollment application or an electronic Medicare enrollment process approved by OMB.
Final adverse action means one or more of the following actions:
(1) A Medicare-imposed revocation of any Medicare billing privileges;
(2) Suspension or revocation of a license to provide health care by any State licensing authority;
(3) Revocation or suspension by an accreditation organization;
(4) A conviction of a Federal or State felony offense (as defined in § 424.535(a)(3)(i)) within the last 10 years preceding enrollment, revalidation, or re-enrollment; or
(5) An exclusion or debarment from participation in a Federal or State health care program.
Indirect ownership interest means as follows:
(1)(i) Any ownership interest in an entity that has an ownership interest in the enrolling or enrolled provider or supplier.
(ii) Any ownership interest in an indirect owner of the enrolling or enrolled provider or supplier.
(2) The amount of indirect ownership interest is determined by multiplying the percentages of ownership in each entity. For example, if A owns 10 percent of the stock in a corporation that owns 80 percent of the provider or supplier, A's interest equates to an 8 percent indirect ownership interest in the provider or supplier and must be reported on the enrollment application. Conversely, if B owns 80 percent of the stock of a corporation that owns 5 percent of the stock of the provider or supplier, B's interest equates to a 4 percent indirect ownership interest in the provider or supplier and need not be reported.
Institutional provider means any provider or supplier that submits a paper Medicare enrollment application using the CMS-855A, CMS-855B (not including physician and nonphysician practitioner organizations), CMS-855S, or an associated internet-based PECOS enrollment application.
Managing employee means—
(1) A general manager, business manager, administrator, director, or other individual that exercises operational or managerial control over, or who directly or indirectly conducts, the day-to-day operation of the provider or supplier, either under contract or through some other arrangement, whether or not the individual is a W-2 employee of the provider or supplier. For purposes of this definition, this includes, but is not limited to, a hospice or skilled nursing facility administrator and a hospice or skilled nursing facility medical director.
(2) With respect to the additional requirements at § 424.516(g) for a skilled nursing facility defined at section 1819(a) of the Act, an individual, including a general manager, business manager, administrator, director, or consultant, who directly or indirectly manages, advises, or supervises any element of the practices, finances, or operations of the facility.
Managing organization means an entity that exercises operational or managerial control over, or that directly or indirectly conducts, the day-to-day operations of the provider or supplier, either under contract or through some other arrangement.
NPI stands for National Provider Identifier.
Officer means an officer of a corporation, regardless of whether the provider or supplier is a non-profit entity.
Operational means the provider or supplier has a qualified physical practice location, is open to the public for the purpose of providing health care related services, is prepared to submit valid Medicare claims, and is properly staffed, equipped, and stocked (as applicable, based on the type of facility or organization, provider or supplier specialty, or the services or items being rendered), to furnish these items or services.
Organizational structure means, with respect to a skilled nursing facility defined at section 1819(a) of the Act, in the case of any of the following:
(1) A corporation. The officers, directors, and shareholders of the corporation who have an ownership interest in the corporation which is equal to or exceeds 5 percent.
(2) A limited liability company. The members and managers of the limited liability company including, as applicable, what percentage each member and manager has of the ownership interest in the limited liability company.
(3) A general partnership. The partners of the general partnership.
(4) A limited partnership. The general partners and any limited partners of the limited partnership who have an ownership interest in the limited partnership which is equal to or exceeds 10 percent.
(5) A trust. The trustees of the trust.
(6) An individual. Contact information for the individual.
Owner means any individual or entity that has any partnership interest in, or that has 5 percent or more direct or indirect ownership of the provider or supplier as defined in sections 1124 and 1124A(A) of the Act.
PECOS stands for Internet-based Provider Enrollment, Chain, and Ownership System.
Physician or nonphysician practitioner organization means any physician or nonphysician practitioner entity that enrolls in the Medicare program as a sole proprietorship or organizational entity.
Private equity company means, for purposes of this subpart only, a publicly traded or non-publicly traded company that collects capital investments from individuals or entities and purchases a direct or indirect ownership share of a provider.
Real estate investment trust means, for purposes of this subpart only, a real estate investment trust as defined in 26 U.S.C. 856.
Reject/Rejected means that the provider or supplier's enrollment application was not processed due to incomplete information, or that additional information or corrected information was not received from the provider or supplier in a timely manner.
Revoke/Revocation means that the provider or supplier's billing privileges are terminated.
State oversight board means, for purposes of §§ 424.530(a)(15) and 424.535(a)(22) only, any State administrative body or organization, such as (but not limited to) a medical board, licensing agency, or accreditation body, that directly or indirectly oversees or regulates the provision of health care within the State.
Supplier means, for purposes of this subpart, all of the following:
(1) The individuals and entities that qualify as suppliers under § 400.202.
(2) Physical therapists in private practice.
(3) Occupational therapists in private practice.
(4) Speech-language pathologists.
Voluntary termination means that a provider or supplier, including an individual physician or nonphysician practitioner, submits written confirmation to CMS of its decision to discontinue enrollment in the Medicare program.
[71 FR 20776, Apr. 21, 2006, as amended at 73 FR 69939, Nov. 19, 2008; 75 FR 70464, Nov. 17, 2010; 75 FR 73628, Nov. 29, 2010; 76 FR 5962, Feb. 2, 2011; 79 FR 72531, Dec. 5, 2014; 82 FR 53368, Nov. 15, 2017; 84 FR 47852, Sept. 10, 2019; 84 FR 63203, Nov. 15, 2019; 86 FR 65682, Nov. 19, 2021; 87 FR 70231, Nov. 18, 2022; 88 FR 77877, Nov. 13, 2023; 88 FR 79540, Nov. 16, 2023; 88 FR 80168, Nov. 17, 2023; 90 FR 55617, Dec. 2, 2025]
§ 424.505 Basic enrollment requirement.
To receive payment for covered Medicare items or services from either Medicare (in the case of an assigned claim) or a Medicare beneficiary (in the case of an unassigned claim), a provider or supplier must be enrolled in the Medicare program. Except for those suppliers that complete the CMS-855O form or CMS-identified equivalent, successor form or process for the sole purpose of obtaining eligibility to order or certify Medicare-covered items and services; once enrolled the provider or supplier receives billing privileges and is issued a valid billing number effective for the date a claim was submitted for an item that was furnished or a service that was rendered. (See 45 CFR part 162 for information on the National Provider Identifier and its use as the Medicare billing number.)
[71 FR 20776, Apr. 21, 2006, as amended at 79 FR 72531, Dec. 5, 2014]
§ 424.506 National Provider Identifier (NPI) on all enrollment applications and claims.
(a) Definition. Eligible professional means any of the professionals specified in section 1848(k)(3)(B) of the Act.
(b) Enrollment requirements. (1) A provider or a supplier that is eligible for an NPI must do the following:
(i) Report its NPI on its Medicare enrollment application.
(ii) If the provider or supplier was in the Medicare program before obtaining an NPI and the provider's or the supplier's NPI is not in the provider's or supplier's Medicare enrollment record, the provider or supplier must update its Medicare enrollment record by submitting its NPI using either of the following:
(A) The applicable paper CMS-855 form.
(B) Internet-based PECOS.
(2) A physician or eligible professional who has validly opted-out of the Medicare program is not required to submit a Medicare enrollment application for any reason, including to order or certify.
(c) Claims reporting requirements. (1) A provider or supplier that is enrolled in Medicare and submits a paper or an electronic claim must include its NPI and the NPI(s) of any other provider(s) or supplier(s) identified on the claim.
(2) A Medicare beneficiary who submits a claim for service to Medicare—
(i) Must include the legal name of any provider or supplier who is required to be identified in that claim; and
(ii) May, if known to the beneficiary, include the National Provider Identifier (NPI) of any provider or supplier who is required to be identified in that claim.
(3) A Medicare contractor will reject a claim from a provider or a supplier if the required NPI(s) is not reported.
[75 FR 24448, May 5, 2010, as amended at 77 FR 25317, Apr. 27, 2012]
§ 424.507 Ordering covered items and services for Medicare beneficiaries.
(a) Conditions for payment of claims for ordered covered imaging and clinical laboratory services and items of durable medical equipment, prosthetics, orthotics, and supplies (DMEPOS)—(1) Ordered covered imaging, clinical laboratory services, and DMEPOS item claims. To receive payment for ordered imaging, clinical laboratory services, and DMEPOS items (excluding home health services described in § 424.507(b), and Part B drugs), a provider or supplier must meet all of the following requirements:
(i) The ordered covered imaging, clinical laboratory services, and DMEPOS items (excluding home health services described in paragraph (b) of this section, and Part B drugs) must have been ordered by a physician or, when permitted, an eligible professional (as defined in § 424.506(a) of this part).
(ii) The claim from the provider or supplier must contain the legal name and the National Provider Identifier (NPI) of the physician or the eligible professional (as defined in § 424.506(a) of this part) who ordered the item or service.
(iii) The physician or, when permitted, other eligible professional, as defined in § 424.506(a), who ordered the item or service must—
(A) Be identified by his or her legal name;
(B) Be identified by his or her NPI; and
(C)(1) Be enrolled in Medicare in an approved status; or
(2) Have validly opted-out of the Medicare program.
(iv) If the item or service is ordered by—
(A) An unlicensed resident (as defined in § 413.75), or by a non-enrolled licensed resident (as defined in § 413.75), the claim must identify a teaching physician, who must be enrolled in Medicare in an approved status, as follows:
(1) As the ordering supplier.
(2) By his or her legal name.
(3) By his/her NPI.
(B) A licensed resident (as defined in § 413.75), he or she must have a provisional license or be otherwise permitted by State law, where the resident is enrolled in an approved graduate medical education program, to practice or order such items and services, the claim must identify by legal name and NPI the—
(1) Resident, who is enrolled in Medicare in an approved status to order; or
(2) Teaching physician, who is enrolled in Medicare in an approved status.
(2) Part B beneficiary claims. To receive payment for ordered covered items and services listed at § 424.507(a), a beneficiary's claim must meet all of the following requirements:
(i) The physician or, when permitted, other eligible professional (as defined § 424.506(a)) who ordered the item or service must—
(A) Be identified by his or her legal name; and
(B)(1) Be enrolled in Medicare in an approved status; or
(2) Have validly opted out of the Medicare program.
(ii) If the item or service is ordered by—
(A) An unlicensed resident (as defined in § 413.75) or a non-enrolled licensed resident, (as defined in § 413.75) the claim must identify a teaching physician, who must be enrolled in Medicare in an approved status as follows:
(1) As the ordering supplier.
(2) By his or her legal name.
(B) A licensed resident (as defined in § 413.75), he or she must have a provisional license or are otherwise permitted by State law, where the resident is enrolled in an approved graduate medical education program, to practice or to order such items and services, the claim must identify by legal name the—
(1) Resident, who is enrolled in Medicare in an approved status to order; or
(2) Teaching physician, who is enrolled in Medicare in an approved status.
(b) Conditions for payment of claims for covered home health and hospice services. To receive payment for covered Part A or Part B home health services or for covered hospice services, a provider's home health or hospice services claim must meet all of the following requirements:
(1) The ordering/certifying physician for hospice or home health services, or, for home health services, the ordering/certifying physician assistant, nurse practitioner, or clinical nurse specialist working in accordance with State law, must meet all of the following requirements:
(i) Be identified by his or her legal name.
(ii) Be identified by his or her NPI.
(iii)(A) Be enrolled in Medicare in an approved status; or
(B) Have validly opted-out of the Medicare program.
(2) If the services were ordered/certified by—
(i) An unlicensed resident, as defined in § 413.75, or by a non-enrolled licensed resident, as defined in § 413.75, the claim must identify a teaching physician who must be enrolled in Medicare in an approved status—
(A) As the ordering/certifying supplier;
(B) By his or her legal name; and
(C) By his or her NPI.
(ii) A licensed resident (as defined in § 413.75), he or she must have a provisional license or are otherwise permitted by State law, where the resident is enrolled in an approved graduate medical education program, to practice or to order/certify such items and services, the claim must identify by legal name and NPI the—
(A) Resident, who is enrolled in Medicare in an approved status to order; or
(B) Teaching physician, who is enrolled in Medicare in an approved status.
(3) For claims for hospice services, the requirements of this paragraph (b) apply with respect to any physician described in § 418.22(c) of this chapter who made the applicable certification described in § 418.22(c) of this chapter.
(c) Denial of provider- or supplier-submitted claims. Notwithstanding § 424.506(c)(3), a Medicare contractor denies a claim from a provider or a supplier for covered items and services described in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section if the claim does not meet the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) and (b) of this section, respectively.
(d) Denial of beneficiary-submitted claims. A Medicare contractor denies a claim from a Medicare beneficiary for covered items or services described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section if the claim does not meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
[77 FR 25317, Apr. 27, 2012, as amended at 85 FR 27625, May 8, 2020; 88 FR 51199, Aug. 2, 2023]
§ 424.510 Requirements for enrolling in the Medicare program.
(a)(1) Providers and suppliers must submit enrollment information on the applicable enrollment application. Once the provider or supplier successfully completes the enrollment process, including, if applicable, a State survey and certification or accreditation process, CMS enrolls the provider or supplier into the Medicare program.
(2) To be enrolled to furnish Medicare-covered items and services, a provider or supplier must meet the requirements specified in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
(3) To be enrolled solely to order and certify Medicare items or services, a physician or non-physician practitioner must meet the requirements specified in paragraph (d) of this section except for paragraphs (d)(2)(iii)(B), (d)(2)(iv), (d)(3)(ii), and (d)(5), (6), and (9) of this section.
(b) The effective dates for reimbursement are specified in § 489.13 of this chapter for providers and suppliers requiring State survey or certification or accreditation, § 424.5 and § 424.44 for non-surveyed or certified/accredited suppliers, and § 424.57 and section 1834(j)(1)(A) of the Act for DMEPOS suppliers.
(c) The effective date for reimbursement for providers and suppliers seeking accreditation from a CMS-approved accreditation organization as specified in § 489.13.
(d) Providers and suppliers must meet the following enrollment requirements:
(1) Submittal of the enrollment application. A provider or supplier must submit a complete enrollment application and supporting documentation to the designated Medicare fee-for-service contractor.
(2) Content of the enrollment application. Each submitted enrollment application must include the following:
(i) Complete, accurate, and truthful responses to all information requested within each section as applicable to the provider or supplier type.
(ii) Submission of all documentation required by CMS under this or other statutory or regulatory authority, or under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, to uniquely identify the provider or supplier. This documentation may include, but is not limited to, proof of the legal business name, practice location, social security number (SSN), tax identification number (TIN), National Provider Identifier (NPI), if issued, and owners of the business.
(iii) Submission of all documentation, including the following:
(A) All applicable Federal and State licenses, certifications including, but not limited to Federal Aviation Administration.
(B) Documentation associated with regulatory and statutory requirements necessary to establish a provider's or supplier's eligibility to furnish Medicare covered items or services to beneficiaries in the Medicare program.
(C) Any other documentation needed to verify and confirm the information furnished on the enrollment application. This includes, but is not limited to, documentation regarding the provider's or supplier's ownership or management.
(iv) At the time of enrollment, an enrollment change request, revalidation or change of Medicare contractors where the provider or supplier was already receiving payments via EFT, providers and suppliers must agree to receive Medicare payments via EFT, if not already receiving payment through EFT. In order to receive Medicare payments via EFT, providers and suppliers must submit the CMS-588 form.
(3) Signature(s) required on the enrollment application. The certification statement found on the enrollment application must be signed by an individual who has the authority to bind the provider or supplier, both legally and financially, to the requirements set forth in this chapter. This person must also have an ownership or control interest in the provider or supplier, as that term is defined in section 1124(a)(3) of the Act, such as, the general partner, chairman of the board, chief financial officer, chief executive officer, president, or hold a position of similar status and authority within the provider or supplier organization. The signature attests that the information submitted is accurate and that the provider or supplier is aware of, and abides by, all applicable statutes, regulations, and program instructions.
(i) Requirements. The signature requirements specified in paragraphs (d)(3)(i)(A) through (C) of this section outline who must sign the enrollment application for an enrolling provider or supplier. In the case of—
(A) An individual practitioner, the applying practitioner.
(B) A sole proprietorship, the applying sole proprietor.
(C) A corporation, partnership, group, limited liability company, or other organization (hereafter referred to collectively in this section as an organization), an authorized official, as defined in § 424.502. When an authorized official signs the certification statement on behalf of an organization, the signed statement is considered legally binding upon the organization.
(ii) Delegation of authority. The original enrollment application submitted for an organization's initial enrollment and all subsequent enrollment applications submitted for periodic revalidation of the organization's enrollment data (as required to maintain enrollment in the Medicare program) must be signed by an authorized official. Any updates or changes reported outside of the initial enrollment or periodic revalidation process may be signed by a delegated official(s) of the organization. The delegated official's signature binds the organization both legally and financially, as if the signature was that of the authorized official. Before the delegation of authority is established, the only acceptable signature on the enrollment application to report updates or changes to the enrollment information is that of the authorized official currently on file with Medicare. Once the delegation of authority is established, the only acceptable signatures on correspondence to report updates or changes to the enrollment information are those of the authorized official and the person(s) to whom this authority is delegated in accordance with the requirements described in this section. Individual practitioners and sole proprietors cannot delegate signature authority when submitting an enrollment application for any reason. All enrollment applications submitted by individual practitioners and sole proprietors must be signed by the enrolling or enrolled individual. Each delegation of authority to a delegated official must—
(A) Be assigned by the authorized official currently on file with CMS;
(B) Be submitted to CMS using the appropriate enrollment application or CMS established electronic enrollment process;
(C) Include the title and SSN of each person delegated authority to update or change the organization's enrollment information;
(D) Be an individual that has an ownership or control interest in the organization or is a W-2 managing employee as defined in section 1126(b) of the Act; and
(E) Be signed by the authorized official and the delegated official(s) of the organization.
(4) Verification of information. The information submitted by the provider or supplier on the applicable enrollment application must be such that CMS can validate it for accuracy at the time of submission.
(5) Completion of any applicable State surveys, certifications, and provider agreements. The providers or suppliers who are mandated under the provision in part 488 of this chapter to be surveyed or certified by the State survey and certification agency, and to also enter into and sign a provider agreement as outlined in part 489 of this chapter, must also meet those requirements as part of the process to obtain Medicare billing privileges.
(6) Ability to furnish Medicare covered items or services. The provider or supplier must be operational to furnish Medicare covered items or services before being granted Medicare billing privileges.
(7) Additional requirements. Providers and suppliers must meet the provisions of § 424.520 regarding additional compliance and reporting requirements.
(8) On-site review. CMS reserves the right, when deemed necessary, to perform on-site inspections of a provider or supplier to verify that the enrollment information submitted to CMS or its agents is accurate and to determine compliance with Medicare enrollment requirements. Site visits for enrollment purposes do not affect those site visits performed for establishing compliance with conditions of participation.
(i) Medicare Part A providers. CMS determines, upon on-site review, that the provider is no longer operational to furnish Medicare covered items or services, or the provider fails to satisfy any of the Medicare enrollment requirements.
(ii) Medicare Part B suppliers. CMS determines, upon review that the supplier is no longer operational to furnish Medicare covered items or services, or the supplier has failed to satisfy any or all of the Medicare enrollment requirements, or has failed to furnish Medicare covered items or services as required by the statute or regulations.
(9) In order to obtain enrollment and to maintain enrollment for the first three months after Medicare billing privileges are conveyed, a home health agency must satisfy the home health “initial reserve operating funds” requirement as set forth in § 489.28 of this chapter.
(10) Legal responsibility. All providers and suppliers are legally responsible for the accuracy, completeness, and truthfulness of all information they provide on or with their applications, regardless of whether another party completed the application.
(e) Providers and suppliers must—
(1) Agree to receive Medicare payment via electronic funds transfer (EFT) at the time of enrollment, revalidation, change of Medicare contractors where the provider or supplier was already receiving payments via EFT or submission of an enrollment change request; and
(2) Submit the CMS-588 form to receive Medicare payment via electronic funds transfer.
[71 FR 20776, Apr. 21, 2006, as amended at 73 FR 36461, June 27, 2008; 75 FR 50418, Aug. 16, 2010; 75 FR 70464, Nov. 17, 2010; 75 FR 73628, Nov. 29, 2010; 77 FR 29030, July 16, 2012; 79 FR 72531, Dec. 5, 2014; 90 FR 55617, Dec. 2, 2025]
§ 424.514 Application fee.
(a) Application fee requirements for prospective institutional providers. Beginning on or after March 25, 2011, prospective institutional providers that are submitting an initial application or currently enrolled institutional providers that are submitting an application to establish a new practice location must submit either or both of the following:
(1) The applicable application fee.
(2) A request for a hardship exception to the application fee at the time of filing a Medicare enrollment application.
(b) Application fee requirements for revalidating institutional providers. Beginning March 25, 2011, institutional providers that are subject to CMS revalidation efforts must submit either or both of the following:
(1) The applicable application fee.
(2) A request for a hardship exception to the application fee at the time of filing a Medicare enrollment application.
(c) Hardship exception for disaster areas. CMS will assess on a case-by-case basis whether institutional providers enrolling in a geographic area that is a Presidentially-declared disaster under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121-5206 (Stafford Act) should receive an exception to the application fee.
(d) Application fee. The application fee and associated requirements are as follows:
(1) For 2010, $500.00.
(2) For 2011 and subsequent years—
(i) Is adjusted by the percentage change in the consumer price index for all urban consumers (all items; United States city average) for the 12-month period ending with June of the previous year;
(ii) Is effective from January 1 to December 31 of a calendar year;
(iii) Is based on the submission of an initial application, application to establish a new practice location or the submission of an application in response to a CMS revalidation request;
(iv) Must be in the amount calculated by CMS in effect for the year during which the application for enrollment is being submitted;
(v) Is nonrefundable, except if submitted with one of the following:
(A) A request for hardship exception that is subsequently approved;
(B) An application that is rejected prior to initiation of screening processes;
(C) An application that is subsequently denied as a result of the imposition of a temporary moratorium;
(e) Denial or revocation based on application fee. A Medicare contractor may deny or revoke Medicare billing privileges of a provider or supplier based on noncompliance if, in the absence of a written request for a hardship exception from the application fee that accompanies a Medicare enrollment application, the bank account on which the check that is submitted with the enrollment application is drawn does not contain sufficient funds to pay the application fee.
(f) Information needed for submission of a hardship exception request. A provider or supplier requesting an exception from the application fee must include with its enrollment application a letter that describes the hardship and why the hardship justifies an exception.
(g) Failure to submit application fee or hardship exception request. A Medicare contractor may—
(1) Reject an enrollment application from a newly-enrolling institutional provider that, with the exceptions described in § 424.514(b), is not accompanied by the application fee or by a letter requesting a hardship exception from the application fee.
(2) Revoke the billing privileges of a currently enrolled institutional provider that, with the exceptions described in § 424.514(b), is not accompanied by the application fee or by a letter requesting a hardship exception from the application fee.
(3)(i) Notwithstanding the foregoing, the contractor must first inform the provider that the application fee was not submitted in accordance with this section.
(ii) Within 30 days after the date of the notification, the contractor may reject the application of the newly-enrolling institutional provider or revoke the billing privileges of the currently enrolled institutional provider that has not submitted the fee.
(h) Consideration of hardship exception request. CMS has 60 days in which to approve or disapprove a hardship exception request. If a provider submits a request for hardship exception to the fee and the provider or supplier has not already submitted the fee consistent with provisions in § 424.514(a) and (b), and the request for hardship exception is not approved, CMS notifies the provider or supplier that the hardship exception request was not approved and allows the provider or supplier 30 days from the date of notification to submit the application fee.
(1) A Medicare contractor does not—
(i) Begin processing an enrollment application that is accompanied by a hardship exception request until CMS has made a decision to approve or disapprove the hardship exception request; and
(ii) Deny an enrollment application that is accompanied by a hardship exception request unless the hardship exception request is denied by CMS and the provider or supplier fails to submit the required application fee within 30 days of being notified that the request for a hardship exception was denied.
(2) A hardship exception determination made by CMS is appealable using § 405.874 of this chapter.
[76 FR 5962, Feb. 2, 2011]
§ 424.515 Requirements for reporting changes and updates to, and the periodic revalidation of Medicare enrollment information.
To maintain Medicare billing privileges, a provider or supplier (other than a DMEPOS supplier) must resubmit and recertify the accuracy of its enrollment information every 5 years. All providers and suppliers currently billing the Medicare program or initially enrolling in the Medicare program are required to complete the applicable enrollment application. The provider or supplier then enters a 5-year revalidation cycle once a completed enrollment application is submitted and validated. (Ambulance service providers must continue to resubmit enrollment information in accordance with § 410.41(c)(2) of this chapter and DMEPOS suppliers must continue to renew enrollment in accordance with § 424.57(g)). The requirements for the resubmission, recertification and reverification of enrollment information include the following:
(a) Submission of the enrollment application and supporting documentation. The provider or supplier must meet the submission, content, signature, verification, operational, inspection, and other requirements outlined in § 424.510.
(1) CMS contacts each provider or supplier directly when it is time to revalidate their enrollment information.
(2) A provider or supplier must submit to CMS the applicable enrollment application with complete and accurate information and applicable supporting documentation within 60 calendar days of our notification to resubmit and certify to the accuracy of its enrollment information.
(b) Completion of any applicable State surveys, certifications and provider agreements. A new certification and a new provider agreement are not required for the purpose of resubmission and certification for revalidation of enrollment information. Providers and suppliers must continue to meet the requirements of parts 488 and 489 of this chapter, or any currently established supplier agreement, if applicable.
(c) On-site inspections. CMS reserves the right to perform on-site inspections of a provider or supplier to verify that the information submitted to CMS or its agents is accurate and to determine compliance with Medicare enrollment requirements. Site visits for enrollment purposes do not affect those site visits performed for establishing compliance with conditions of participation.
(1) Medicare Part A providers. CMS determines, upon on-site review, that the provider is no longer operational to furnish Medicare covered items or services, or the provider fails to satisfy any of the Medicare enrollment requirements.
(2) Medicare Part B suppliers. CMS determines, upon review that the supplier is no longer operational to furnish Medicare covered items or services, or the supplier has failed to satisfy any or all of the Medicare enrollment requirements, or has failed to furnish Medicare covered items or services as required by the statute or regulations.
(d) Off Cycle revalidations. (1) CMS reserves the right to perform off cycle revalidations in addition to the regular 5-year revalidations and may request that a provider or supplier recertify the accuracy of the enrollment information when warranted to assess and confirm the validity of the enrollment information maintained by CMS. Off cycle revalidations may be triggered as a result of random checks, information indicating local health care fraud problems, national initiatives, complaints, or other reasons that cause CMS to question the compliance of the provider or supplier with Medicare enrollment requirements. Off cycle revalidations may be accompanied by site visits.
(2) CMS reserve the right to adjust the routine 5-year revalidation schedule if we determine that revalidation should occur on a more frequent basis due to complaints or evidence we receive indicating noncompliance with the statute or regulations by specific provider or supplier types. The schedule may also be on a less frequent basis if we determine that the integrity of and compliance with the statute and regulations by specific provider or supplier types indicates that less frequent validation is justified. If a change occurs, CMS notifies all affected providers and suppliers at least 90 days in advance of implementing the change.
(3) CMS revalidates enrollment information for ambulance service suppliers in accordance with § 410.41(c)(2) of this chapter (Requirements for ambulance suppliers), and DMEPOS suppliers renews enrollment in accordance with § 424.57(g) (Special payment rules for items furnished by DMEPOS suppliers and issuance of DMEPOS supplier billing numbers).
(e) Additional off-cycle revalidation. On or after March 23, 2012, Medicare providers and suppliers, including DMEPOS suppliers, may be required to revalidate their enrollment outside the routine 5-year revalidation cycle (3-year DMEPOS supplier revalidation cycle).
(1) CMS will contact providers or suppliers to revalidate their enrollment for off-cycle revalidation.
(2) As with all revalidations, revalidations described in this paragraph are conducted in accordance with the screening procedures specified at § 424.518.
[71 FR 20776, Apr. 21, 2006, as amended at 76 FR 5963, Feb. 2, 2011; 79 FR 69775, Nov. 24, 2014]
§ 424.516 Additional provider and supplier requirements for enrolling and maintaining active enrollment status in the Medicare program.
(a) Certifying compliance. CMS enrolls and maintains an active enrollment status for a provider or supplier when that provider or supplier certifies that it meets, and continues to meet, and CMS verifies that it meets, and continues to meet, all of the following requirements:
(1) Compliance with title XVIII of the Act and applicable Medicare regulations.
(2) Compliance with Federal and State licensure, certification, and regulatory requirements, as required, based on the type of services or supplies the provider or supplier type will furnish and bill Medicare.
(3) Not employing or contracting with individuals or entities that meet either of the following conditions:
(i) Excluded from participation in any Federal health care programs, for the provision of items and services covered under the programs, in violation of section 1128A(a)(6) of the Act.
(ii) Debarred by the General Services Administration (GSA) from any other Executive Branch procurement or nonprocurement programs or activities, in accordance with the Federal Acquisition and Streamlining Act of 1994, and with the HHS Common Rule at 45 CFR part 76.
(b) Reporting requirements Independent Diagnostic Testing Facilities (IDTFs). IDTF reporting requirements are specified in § 410.33(g)(2) of this chapter.
(c) Reporting requirements DMEPOS suppliers. DMEPOS reporting requirements are specified in § 424.57(c)(2).
(d) Reporting requirements for physicians, nonphysician practitioners, and physician and nonphysician practitioner organizations. Physicians, nonphysician practitioners, and physician and nonphysician practitioner organizations must report the following reportable events to their Medicare contractor within the specified timeframes:
(1) Within 30 days—
(i) A change of ownership;
(ii) Any adverse legal action; or
(iii) A change, addition, or deletion of a practice location.
(2) All other changes in enrollment must be reported within 90 days.
(e) Reporting requirements for all other providers and suppliers. Reporting requirements for all other providers and suppliers not identified in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section, with the exception of MDPP suppliers whose reporting requirements are established at § 424.205(d), must report to CMS the following information within the specified timeframes:
(1) Within 30 days for a change of ownership or control (including changes in authorized official(s) or delegated official(s)), an adverse legal action, or a change, addition, or deletion of a practice location.
(2) All other changes to enrollment must be reported within 90 days.
(3) Within 30 days of any revocation or suspension of a Federal or State license or certification including Federal Aviation Administration certifications, an air ambulance supplier must report a revocation or suspension of its license or certification to the applicable Medicare contractor. The following FAA certifications must be reported:
(i) Specific pilot certifications including but not limited to instrument and medical certifications.
(ii) Airworthiness certification.
(f) Maintaining and providing access to documentation. (1)(i) A provider or a supplier that furnishes covered ordered, certified, referred, or prescribed Part A or B services, items or drugs is required to—
(A) Maintain documentation (as described in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section) for 7 years from the date of service; and
(B) Upon the request of CMS or a Medicare contractor, to provide access to that documentation (as described in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section).
(ii) The documentation includes written and electronic documents (including the NPI of the physician or, when permitted, other eligible professional who ordered, certified, referred, or prescribed the Part A or B service, item, or drug) relating to written orders, certifications, referrals, prescriptions, and requests for payments for Part A or B services, items or drugs.
(2)(i) A physician or, when permitted, an eligible professional who orders, certifies, refers, or prescribes Part A or B services, items or drugs is required to—
(A) Maintain documentation (as described in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section) for 7 years from the date of the service; and
(B) Upon request of CMS or a Medicare contractor, to provide access to that documentation (as described in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section).
(ii) The documentation includes written and electronic documents (including the NPI of the physician or, when permitted, other eligible professional who ordered, certified, referred, or prescribed the Part A or B service, item, or drug) relating to written orders, certifications, referrals, prescriptions or requests for payments for Part A or B services, items, or drugs.
(g) Skilled nursing facilities. (1) In addition to all other applicable reporting requirements in this subpart, a skilled nursing facility (as defined in section 1819(a) of the Act) must disclose upon initial enrollment (which, for purposes of this paragraph (g), also includes a change of ownership under 42 CFR 489.18) and revalidation the following information:
(i) Each member of the governing body of the facility, including the name, title, and period of service for each such member.
(ii) Each person or entity who is an officer, director, member, partner, trustee, or managing employee (as defined in § 424.502) of the facility, including the name, title, and period of service of each such person or entity.
(iii) Each person or entity who is an additional disclosable party of the facility (as defined in § 424.502).
(iv) The organizational structure (as defined in § 424.502) of each additional disclosable party of the facility and a description of the relationship of each such additional disclosable party to the facility and to one another.
(2) The skilled nursing facility need not disclose the same information described in paragraph (g)(1) of this section more than once on the same enrollment application submission.
(3) The skilled nursing facility must report any change to any of the information described in paragraph (g)(1) of this section consistent with the applicable timeframes in paragraph (e) of this section.
[73 FR 69939, Nov. 19, 2008; 73 FR 80304, Dec. 31, 2008, as amended at 75 FR 24449, May 5, 2010; 75 FR 73628, Nov. 29, 2010; 77 FR 25318, Apr. 27, 2012; 82 FR 53368, Nov. 15, 2017; 84 FR 47852, Sept. 10, 2019; 88 FR 79541, Nov. 16, 2023; 88 FR 80168, Nov. 17, 2023; 90 FR 55617, Dec. 2, 2025]
§ 424.517 Onsite review.
(a) CMS reserves the right, when deemed necessary, to perform onsite review of a provider or supplier to verify that the enrollment information submitted to CMS or its agents is accurate and to determine compliance with Medicare enrollment requirements. Site visits for enrollment purposes do not affect those site visits performed for establishing compliance with conditions of participation. Based upon the results of CMS's onsite review, the provider may be subject to denial or revocation of Medicare billing privileges as specified in § 424.530 or § 424.535 of this part.
(1) Medicare Part A providers. CMS determines, upon on-site review, that the provider meets either of the following conditions:
(i) Is unable to furnish Medicare-covered items or services.
(ii) Has failed to satisfy any of the Medicare enrollment requirements.
(2) Medicare Part B providers. CMS determines, upon review, that the supplier meets any of the following conditions:
(i) Is unable to furnish Medicare-covered items or services.
(ii) Has failed to satisfy any or all of the Medicare enrollment requirements.
(iii) Has failed to furnish Medicare covered items or services as required by the statute or regulations.
(b) [Reserved]
[73 FR 66940, Nov. 19, 2008]
§ 424.518 Screening levels for Medicare providers and suppliers.
A Medicare contractor is required to screen all initial applications, revalidation applications, change of ownership applications pursuant to 42 CFR 489.18, applications to add a new practice location, and applications to report any new owner (regardless of ownership percentage) pursuant to a change of information or other enrollment transaction under title 42, based on a CMS assessment of risk and assignment to a level of “limited,” “moderate,” or “high.”
(a) Limited categorical risk—(1) Limited categorical risk: Provider and supplier categories. CMS has designated the following providers and suppliers as “limited” categorical risk:
(i) Physician or nonphysician practitioners (including nurse practitioners, CRNAs, occupational therapists, speech/language pathologists, and audiologists) and medical groups or clinics.
(ii) Ambulatory surgical centers.
(iii) Competitive Acquisition Program/Part B Vendors.
(iv) End-stage renal disease facilities.
(v) Federally qualified health centers.
(vi) Histocompatibility laboratories.
(vii) Home infusion therapy suppliers.
(viii) Hospitals, including critical access hospitals, rural emergency hospitals, Department of Veterans Affairs hospitals, and other federally owned hospital facilities.
(ix) Health programs operated by an Indian Health Program (as defined in section 4(12) of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act) or an urban Indian organization (as defined in section 4(29) of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act) that receives funding from the Indian Health Service pursuant to Title V of the Indian Health Care Improvement Act.
(x) Mammography screening centers.
(xi) Mass immunization roster billers
(xii) Opioid treatment programs (if § 424.67(b)(3)(ii) applies).
(xiii) Organ procurement organizations.
(xiv) Pharmacies newly enrolling or revalidating via the CMS-855B application.
(xv) Radiation therapy centers.
(xvi) Religious non-medical health care institutions.
(xvii) Rural health clinics.
(2) Limited screening level: Screening requirements. When CMS designates a provider or supplier as a “limited” categorical level of risk, the Medicare contractor does all of the following:
(i) Verifies that a provider or supplier meets all applicable Federal regulations and State requirements for the provider or supplier type prior to making an enrollment determination.
(ii) Conducts license verifications, including licensure verifications across State lines for physicians or nonphysician practitioners and providers and suppliers that obtain or maintain Medicare billing privileges as a result of State licensure, including State licensure in States other than where the provider or supplier is enrolling.
(iii) Conducts database checks on a pre- and post-enrollment basis to ensure that providers and suppliers continue to meet the enrollment criteria for their provider/supplier type.
(b) Moderate categorical risk—(1) Moderate categorical risk: Provider and supplier categories. CMS has designated the following providers and suppliers as “moderate” categorical risk:
(i) Ambulance service suppliers.
(ii) Community mental health centers.
(iii) Comprehensive outpatient rehabilitation facilities.
(iv) Independent clinical laboratories.
(v) Independent diagnostic testing facilities.
(vi) Physical therapists enrolling as individuals or as group practices.
(vii) Portable x-ray suppliers.
(viii) Prospective (newly enrolling) and revalidating opioid treatment programs that have been fully and continuously certified by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA) since October 23, 2018.
(ix) Revalidating opioid treatment programs that have not been fully and continuously certified by SAMHSA since October 23, 2018, revalidating DMEPOS suppliers, revalidating MDPP suppliers, revalidating HHAs, revalidating SNFs, and revalidating hospices to which CMS applied the fingerprinting requirements outlined in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section upon the provider's or supplier's—
(A) New/initial enrollment; or
(B) Revalidation after CMS waived the fingerprinting requirements, under the circumstances described in paragraph (c)(1)(viii) of this section, when the provider or supplier initially enrolled in Medicare.
(2) Moderate screening level: Screening requirements. When CMS designates a provider or supplier as a “moderate” categorical level of risk, the Medicare contractor does all of the following:
(i) Performs the “limited” screening requirements described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
(ii) Conducts an on-site visit.
(c) High categorical risk—(1) High categorical risk: Provider and supplier categories. CMS has designated the following provider and supplier types as “high” categorical risk:
(i) Prospective (newly enrolling) home health agencies.
(ii) Prospective (newly enrolling) DMEPOS suppliers.
(iii) Prospective (newly enrolling) MDPP suppliers
(iv) Prospective (newly enrolling) opioid treatment programs that have not been fully and continuously certified by SAMHSA since October 23, 2018.
(v) Prospective (newly enrolling) (SNFs).
(vi) Prospective (newly enrolling) hospices.
(vii) Enrolled opioid treatment programs that have not been fully and continuously certified by SAMHSA since October 23, 2018, DMEPOS suppliers, MDPP suppliers, HHAs, SNFs, and hospices that are submitting a change of ownership application pursuant to 42 CFR 489.18 or reporting any new owner (regardless of ownership percentage) pursuant to a change of information or other enrollment transaction under title 42.
(viii) Except as stated in paragraph (b)(1)(ix) of this section, revalidating opioid treatment programs that have not been fully and continuously certified by SAMHSA since October 23, 2018, revalidating DMEPOS suppliers, revalidating MDPP suppliers, revalidating HHAs, revalidating SNFs, and revalidating hospices for which, upon their new/initial enrollment, CMS waived the fingerprinting requirements outlined in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section in accordance with applicable legal authority due to a national, state, or local emergency declared under existing law.
(2) High screening level: Screening requirements. When CMS designates a provider or supplier as a “high” categorical level of risk, the Medicare contractor does all of the following:
(i) Performs the “limited” and “moderate” screening requirements described in paragraphs (a)(2) and (b)(2) of this section.
(ii)(A) Requires the submission of a set of fingerprints for a national background check from all individuals who maintain a 5 percent or greater direct or indirect ownership interest in the provider or supplier; and
(B) Conducts a fingerprint-based criminal history record check of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's Integrated Automated Fingerprint Identification System on all individuals who maintain a 5 percent or greater direct or indirect ownership interest in the provider or supplier.
(3) Adjustment in the categorical risk. CMS adjusts the screening level from “limited” or “moderate” to “high” if any of the following occur:
(i) CMS imposes a payment suspension on a provider or supplier at any time in the last 10 years.
(ii) The provider or supplier—
(A) Has been excluded from Medicare by the OIG; or
(B) Had billing privileges revoked by a Medicare contractor within the previous 10 years and is attempting to establish additional Medicare billing privileges by—
(1) Enrolling as a new provider or supplier; or
(2) Billing privileges for a new practice location;
(C) Has been terminated or is otherwise precluded from billing Medicaid;
(D) Has been excluded from any Federal health care program; or
(E) Has been subject to any final adverse action, as defined at § 424.502, within the previous 10 years.
(iii) CMS lifts a temporary moratorium for a particular provider or supplier type and a provider or supplier that was prevented from enrolling based on the moratorium, applies for enrollment as a Medicare provider or supplier at any time within 6 months from the date the moratorium was lifted.
(4) Any screening level adjustment under paragraph (c)(3) of this section also applies to all other enrolled and prospective providers and suppliers that have the same legal business name and tax identification number as the provider or supplier for which the screening level under paragraph (c)(3) of this section was originally raised.
(d) Fingerprinting requirements. An individual subject to the fingerprint-based criminal history record check requirement specified in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section—
(1) Must submit a set of fingerprints for a national background check.
(i) Upon submission of a Medicare enrollment application; or
(ii) Within 30 days of a Medicare contractor request.
(2) In the event the individual(s) required to submit fingerprints under paragraph (c)(2) of this section fail to submit such fingerprints in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the provider or supplier will have its billing privileges—
(i) Denied under § 424.530(a)(1); or
(ii) Revoked under § 424.535(a)(1).
[76 FR 5963, Feb. 2, 2011, as amended at 82 FR 53368, Nov. 15, 2017; 84 FR 63203, Nov. 15, 2019; 85 FR 70355, Nov. 4, 2020; 85 FR 85038, Dec. 28, 2020; 87 FR 70231, Nov. 18, 2022; 87 FR 72293, Nov. 23, 2022; 88 FR 77877, Nov. 13, 2023]
§ 424.519 Disclosure of affiliations.
(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section only, the following terms apply to the definition of disclosable event in § 424.502:
(1) “Uncollected debt” only applies to the following:
(i) Medicare, Medicaid, or CHIP overpayments for which CMS or the state has sent notice of the debt to the affiliated provider or supplier.
(ii) Civil money penalties imposed under this title.
(iii) Assessments imposed under this title.
(2) “Revoked,” “Revocation,” “Terminated,” and “Termination” include situations where the affiliated provider or supplier voluntarily terminated its Medicare, Medicaid, or CHIP enrollment to avoid a potential revocation or termination.
(b) General. Upon a CMS request, an initially enrolling or revalidating provider or supplier must disclose any and all affiliations that it or any of its owning or managing employees or organizations (consistent with the terms “owner” and “managing employee” as defined in § 424.502) has or, within the previous 5 years, had with a currently or formerly enrolled Medicare, Medicaid, or CHIP provider or supplier that has a disclosable event (as defined in § 424.502). CMS will request such disclosures when it has determined that the initially enrolling or revalidating provider or supplier may have at least one such affiliation.
(c) Information. The provider or supplier must disclose the following information about each reported affiliation:
(1) General identifying data about the affiliated provider or supplier. This includes the following:
(i) Legal name as reported to the Internal Revenue Service or the Social Security Administration (if the affiliated provider or supplier is an individual).
(ii) “Doing business as” name (if applicable).
(iii) Tax identification number.
(iv) NPI.
(2) Reason for disclosing the affiliated provider or supplier.
(3) Specific data regarding the affiliation relationship, including the following:
(i) Length of the relationship.
(ii) Type of relationship.
(iii) Degree of affiliation.
(4) If the affiliation has ended, the reason for the termination.
(d) Mechanism. The information required to be disclosed under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section must be furnished to CMS or its contractors via the Form CMS-855 application (paper or the internet-based PECOS enrollment process).
(e) Denial or revocation. The failure of the provider or supplier to fully and completely disclose the information specified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section when the provider or supplier knew or should reasonably have known of this information may result in either of the following:
(1) The denial of the provider's or supplier's initial enrollment application under § 424.530(a)(1) and, if applicable, § 424.530(a)(4).
(2) The revocation of the provider's or supplier's Medicare enrollment under § 424.535(a)(1) and, if applicable, § 424.535(a)(4).
(f) Undue risk. Upon receiving the information described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, CMS determines whether any of the disclosed affiliations poses an undue risk of fraud, waste, or abuse by considering the following factors:
(1) The duration of the affiliation.
(2) Whether the affiliation still exists and, if not, how long ago it ended.
(3) The degree and extent of the affiliation.
(4) If applicable, the reason for the termination of the affiliation.
(5) Regarding the affiliated provider's or supplier's disclosable event under paragraph (b) of this section:
(i) The type of disclosable event.
(ii) When the disclosable event occurred or was imposed.
(iii) Whether the affiliation existed when the disclosable event occurred or was imposed.
(iv) If the disclosable event is an uncollected debt:
(A) The amount of the debt.
(B) Whether the affiliated provider or supplier is repaying the debt.
(C) To whom the debt is owed.
(v) If a denial, revocation, termination, exclusion, or payment suspension is involved, the reason for the disclosable event.
(6) Any other evidence that CMS deems relevant to its determination.
(g) Determination of undue risk. A determination by CMS that a particular affiliation poses an undue risk of fraud, waste, or abuse will result in, as applicable, the denial of the provider's or supplier's initial enrollment application under § 424.530(a)(13) or the revocation of the provider's or supplier's Medicare enrollment under § 424.535(a)(19).
(h) Duplicate data. A provider or supplier is not required to report affiliation data in that portion of the Form CMS-855 application that collects affiliation information if the same data is being reported in the “owning or managing control” (or its successor) section of the Form CMS-855 application.
(i) Undisclosed affiliations. CMS may apply § 424.530(a)(13) or § 424.535(a)(19) to situations where a disclosable affiliation (as described in § 424.519(b) and (c)) poses an undue risk of fraud, waste or abuse, but the provider or supplier has not yet reported or is not required at that time to report the affiliation to CMS.
[84 FR 47853, Sept. 10, 2019]
§ 424.520 Effective date of Medicare billing privileges.
(a) Surveyed, certified or accredited providers and suppliers. The effective date for billing privileges for providers and suppliers requiring State survey, certification or accreditation is specified in § 489.13 of this chapter. If a provider or supplier is seeking accreditation from a CMS-approved accreditation organization, the effective date is specified in § 489.13.
(b) Independent Diagnostic Testing Facilities. The effective date for billing privileges for IDTFs is specified in § 410.33(i) of this chapter.
(c) DMEPOS suppliers. The effective date for billing privileges for DMEPOS suppliers is specified in § 424.57(b) of this subpart and section 1834(j)(1)(A) of the Act.
(d) Additional provider and supplier types. (1) The effective date of billing privileges for the provider and supplier types identified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section is the later of—
(i) The date of filing of a Medicare enrollment application that was subsequently approved by a Medicare contractor; or
(ii) The date that the provider or supplier first began furnishing services at a new practice location.
(2) The provider and supplier types to which paragraph (d)(1) of this section applies are as follows:
(i) Physicians.
(ii) Non-physician practitioners.
(iii) Physician organizations.
(iv) Non-physician practitioner organizations.
(v) Ambulance suppliers.
(vi) Opioid treatment programs.
(vii) Part B hospital departments.
(viii) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment labs.
(ix) Intensive cardiac rehabilitation facilities.
(x) Mammography centers.
(xi) Mass immunizers/pharmacies.
(xii) Radiation therapy centers.
(xiii) Home infusion therapy suppliers.
(xiv) Physical therapists.
(xv) Occupational therapists.
(xvi) Speech language pathologists.
[73 FR 69940, Nov. 19, 2008, as amended at 75 FR 50418, Aug. 16, 2010; 79 FR 72531, Dec. 5, 2014; 84 FR 63203, Nov. 15, 2019; 85 FR 70355, Nov. 4, 2020; 86 FR 62419, Nov. 9, 2021]
§ 424.521 Request for payment by certain provider and supplier types.
(a) Request for payment by certain provider and supplier types. (1) The providers and suppliers identified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section may retrospectively bill for services when the provider or supplier has met all program requirements (including State licensure requirements), and services were provided at the enrolled practice location for up to—
(i) Thirty days prior to their effective date if circumstances precluded enrollment in advance of providing services to Medicare beneficiaries; or
(ii) Ninety days prior to their effective date if a Presidentially-declared disaster under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121-5206 (Stafford Act) precluded enrollment in advance of providing services to Medicare beneficiaries.
(2) The provider and supplier types to which paragraph (a)(1) of this section applies are as follows:
(i) Physicians.
(ii) Non-physician practitioners.
(iii) Physician organizations.
(iv) Non-physician practitioner organizations.
(v) Ambulance suppliers.
(vi) Opioid treatment programs.
(vii) Part B hospital departments.
(viii) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment labs.
(ix) Intensive cardiac rehabilitation facilities.
(x) Mammography centers.
(xi) Mass immunizers/pharmacies.
(xii) Radiation therapy centers.
(xiii) Home infusion therapy suppliers.
(xiv) Physical therapists.
(xv) Occupational therapists.
(xvi) Speech language pathologists.
(b) [Reserved]
[79 FR 72531, Dec. 5, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 63203, Nov. 15, 2019; 85 FR 70355, Nov. 4, 2020; 86 FR 62419, Nov. 9, 2021]
§ 424.522 Additional effective dates.
(a) Reassignments. (1) The effective date of a reassignment of benefits under § 424.80 is the later of the dates identified in § 424.520(d)(1)(i) and (ii).
(2) Retrospective billing in accordance with a reassignment of benefits and as described in § 424.521(a)(1) is permissible if the circumstances in § 424.521(a)(1) are applicable.
(b) Form CMS-855O enrollment. The effective date of a Form CMS-855O enrollment is the date on which the Medicare contractor received the Form CMS-855O application if all other requirements are met.
[86 FR 62419, Nov. 9, 2021, as amended at 90 FR 55617, Dec. 2, 2025]
§ 424.525 Rejection of a provider's or supplier's application for Medicare enrollment.
(a) Reasons for rejection. CMS may reject a provider's or supplier's enrollment application for any of the following reasons:
(1) The provider or supplier fails to furnish complete information on the provider/supplier enrollment application within 30 calendar days from the date of the Medicare contractor's request for the missing information. This includes the following situations:
(i) The application is missing data required by CMS or the Medicare contractor to process the application (such as, but not limited to, names, Social Security Number, contact information, and practice location information).
(ii) The application is unsigned or undated.
(iii) The application contains a copied or stamped signature.
(iv) The application is signed more than 120 days prior to the date on which the Medicare contractor received the application.
(v) The application is signed by a person unauthorized to do so under this subpart.
(vi) For paper applications, the required certification statement is missing.
(vii) The paper application is completed in pencil.
(viii) The application is submitted via fax or e-mail when the provider or supplier was not otherwise permitted to do so.
(ix) The provider or supplier failed to submit all of the forms needed to process a Form CMS-855 reassignment package within 30 days of receipt.
(x) The provider or supplier submitted the incorrect Form CMS-855 application.
(2) The provider or supplier fails to furnish all required supporting documentation within 30 calendar days of submitting the enrollment application.
(3) The Prospective institutional provider or supplier does not submit the application fee in the designated amount or a hardship waiver request with the Medicare enrollment application at the time of filing.
(b) Extension of 30-day period. CMS, at its discretion, may choose to extend the 30 day period if CMS determines that the provider or supplier is actively working with CMS to resolve any outstanding issues.
(c) Resubmission after rejection. To enroll in Medicare and obtain Medicare billing privileges after notification of a rejected enrollment application, the provider or supplier must complete and submit a new enrollment application and submit all supporting documentation for CMS review and approval.
(d) Additional review. Enrollment applications that are rejected are not afforded appeal rights.
(e) Applicability. Except as otherwise specified in the applicable reason for rejection under paragraph (a) of this section, this section applies to all CMS Medicare provider enrollment application submissions, including, but not limited to, the following:
(1) Form CMS-855 initial applications, change of information requests, changes of ownership, revalidations, and reactivations.
(2) Form CMS-588 (Electronic Funds Transfer (EFT) Authorization Agreement) submissions.
(3) Form CMS-20134 (Medicare Enrollment Application; Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program (MDPP) Suppliers) submissions.
(4) Any electronic or successor versions of the forms identified in paragraphs (e)(1) through (3) of this section.
[71 FR 20776, Apr. 21, 2006, as amended at 73 FR 36461, June 27, 2008; 76 FR 5964, Feb. 2, 2011; 86 FR 62419, Nov. 9, 2021]
Editor's Note:At 86 FR 62419, Nov. 9, 2021, paragraph (a)(3) was amended by removing the phrase “prospective provider” and adding the word “provider” in its place; however, the phrase does not exist.
§ 424.526 Return of a provider's or supplier's enrollment application.
(a) Reasons for return. CMS may return a provider's or supplier's enrollment application for any of the following reasons:
(1) The provider or supplier sent its paper Form CMS-855, Form CMS-588, or Form CMS-20134 application to the incorrect Medicare contractor for processing.
(2) The Medicare contractor received the application more than 60 days prior to the effective date listed on the application. (This paragraph (a)(2) does not apply to providers and suppliers submitting a Form CMS-855A application, ambulatory surgical centers, or portable x-ray suppliers.)
(3) The seller or buyer in a change of ownership submitted its Form CMS-855A or Form CMS-855B application more than 90 days prior to the anticipated date of the sale.
(4) The Medicare contractor received an initial application more than 180 days prior to the effective date listed on the application from a provider or supplier submitting a Form CMS-855A application, an ambulatory surgical center, or a portable x-ray supplier.
(5) The Medicare contractor confirms that the provider or supplier submitted an initial enrollment application prior to the expiration of the time period in which it is entitled to appeal the denial of its previously submitted application.
(6) The provider or supplier submitted an initial enrollment application prior to the expiration of their existing re-enrollment bar under § 424.535 or reapplication bar under § 424.530(f).
(7) The application is not needed for (or is inapplicable to) the transaction in question.
(8) The provider or supplier submitted a revalidation application more than 7 months prior to the provider's or supplier's revalidation due date.
(9) A Medicare Diabetes Prevention Program supplier submitted an application with a coach start date more than 30 days in the future.
(10) The provider or supplier requests that their application be withdrawn prior to or during the Medicare contractor's processing thereof.
(11) The provider or supplier submits an application that is an exact duplicate of an application that has already been processed or is currently being processed or is pending processing.
(12) The provider or supplier submits a paper Form CMS-855 or Form CMS-20134 enrollment application that is outdated or has been superseded by a revised version.
(13) The provider or supplier submits a Form CMS-855A or Form CMS-855B initial application followed by a Form CMS-855A or Form CMS-855B change of ownership application. If the Medicare contractor—
(i) Has not yet made a recommendation for approval concerning the initial application, both applications may be returned.
(ii) Has made a recommendation for approval concerning the initial application, the Medicare contractor may return the change of ownership application. If, per the Medicare contractor's written request, the provider or supplier fails to submit a new initial Form CMS-855A or Form CMS-855B application containing the new owner's information within 30 days of the date of the letter, the Medicare contractor may return the originally submitted initial Form CMS-855A or Form CMS-855B application.
(b) Appeals. A provider or supplier is not afforded appeal rights if their application is returned under this section.
(c) Applicability. Except as otherwise specified in the applicable return reason under paragraph (a) of this section, this section applies to all CMS Medicare provider enrollment application submissions including, but not limited to, the following:
(1) Form CMS-855 initial applications, change of information requests, changes of ownership, revalidations, and reactivations.
(2) Form CMS-588 submissions.
(3) Form CMS-20134 submissions.
(4) Any electronic or successor versions of the forms identified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section.
[86 FR 62420, Nov. 9, 2021]
§ 424.527 Provisional period of enhanced oversight.
(a) New provider or supplier. Exclusively for purposes of both section 1866(j)(3) of the Act and this § 424.527, the term “new provider or supplier” is defined as any of the following:
(1) A newly enrolling Medicare provider or supplier. (This includes providers that are required to enroll as a new provider in accordance with the change in majority ownership provisions in § 424.550(b).)
(2) A certified provider or certified supplier undergoing a change of ownership consistent with the principles of 42 CFR 489.18. (This includes providers that qualify under § 424.550(b)(2) for an exception from the change in majority ownership requirements in § 424.550(b)(1) but which are undergoing a change of ownership under 42 CFR 489.18).
(3) A provider or supplier (including an HHA or hospice) undergoing a 100 percent change of ownership via a change of information request under § 424.516.
(4) A provider or supplier reactivating the provider's or supplier's Medicare enrollment and billing privileges in accordance with § 424.540(b).
(b) Effective date. The effective date of a provisional period of enhanced oversight that is commenced under section 1866(j)(3) of the Act is the date on which the new provider or supplier submits its first claim.
[88 FR 77877, Nov. 13, 2023, as amended at 89 FR 88485, Nov. 7, 2024]
§ 424.530 Denial of enrollment in the Medicare program.
(a) Reasons for denial. CMS may deny a provider's or supplier's enrollment in the Medicare program for the following reasons:
(1) Noncompliance. The provider or supplier is determined to not be in compliance with the enrollment requirements described in this title 42, or in the enrollment application applicable for its provider or supplier type, and has not submitted a plan of corrective action as outlined in part 488 of this chapter.
(2) Provider or supplier conduct. (i) The provider or supplier, or any owner, managing employee, managing organization, officer, director, authorized or delegated official, medical director, supervising physician, or other health care or administrative or management services personnel furnishing services payable by a federal health care program, of the provider or supplier is—
(A) Excluded from the Medicare, Medicaid, and any other Federal health care program, as defined in § 1001.2 of this chapter, in accordance with section 1128, 1128A, 1156, 1842, 1862, 1867 or 1892 of the Act.
(B) Debarred, suspended, or otherwise excluded from participating in any other Federal procurement or nonprocurement activity in accordance with section 2455 of the Federal Acquisition Streamlining Act (FASA).
(ii) The individuals and organizations identified in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section include, but are not limited to, W-2 employees and contracted individuals and organizations of the provider or supplier.
(3) Felonies. The provider, supplier, or any owner, managing employee, managing organization, officer, or director of the provider or supplier was, within the preceding 10 years, convicted (as that term is defined in 42 CFR 1001.2) of a Federal or State felony offense that CMS determines is detrimental to the best interests of the Medicare program and its beneficiaries.
(i) Offenses include, but are not limited in scope or severity to—
(A) Felony crimes against persons, such as murder, rape, assault, and other similar crimes for which the individual was convicted, including guilty pleas and adjudicated pretrial diversions.
(B) Financial crimes, such as extortion, embezzlement, income tax evasion, insurance fraud and other similar crimes for which the individual was convicted, including guilty pleas and adjudicated pretrial diversions.
(C) Any felony that placed the Medicare program or its beneficiaries at immediate risk, such as a malpractice suit that results in a conviction of criminal neglect or misconduct.
(D) Any felonies that would result in mandatory exclusion under section 1128(a) of the Act.
(ii) Denials based on felony convictions are for a period to be determined by the Secretary, but not less than 10 years from the date of conviction if the individual has been convicted on one previous occasion for one or more offenses.
(iii) The individuals and organizations identified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section include, but are not limited to, W-2 employees and contracted individuals and organizations of the provider or supplier.
(4) False or misleading information. The provider or supplier has submitted false or misleading information on the enrollment application to gain enrollment in the Medicare program. (Offenders may be referred to the Office of Inspector General for investigation and possible criminal, civil, or administrative sanctions.)
(5) On-site review. Upon on-site review or other reliable evidence, CMS determines that the provider or supplier:
(i) Is not operational to furnish Medicare-covered items or services; or
(ii) Otherwise fails to satisfy any Medicare enrollment requirement.
(6) Medicare debt. (i) The enrolling provider, supplier, or owner thereof (as defined in § 424.502), has an existing Medicare debt.
(ii) The enrolling provider, supplier, or owner (as defined in § 424.502) thereof was previously the owner (as defined in § 424.502) of a provider or supplier that had a Medicare debt that existed when the latter's enrollment was voluntarily terminated, involuntarily terminated, or revoked, and all of the following criteria are met:
(A) The owner left the provider or supplier with the Medicare debt within 1 year before or after that provider or supplier's voluntary termination, involuntary termination or revocation.
(B) The Medicare debt has not been fully repaid.
(C) CMS determines that the uncollected debt poses an undue risk of fraud, waste, or abuse. In making this determination, CMS considers the following factors:
(1) The amount of the Medicare debt.
(2) The length and timeframe that the enrolling provider, supplier, or owner thereof was an owner of the prior entity.
(3) The percentage of the enrolling provider, supplier, or owner's ownership of the prior entity.
(4) Whether the Medicare debt is currently being appealed.
(5) Whether the enrolling provider, supplier, or owner thereof was an owner of the prior entity at the time the Medicare debt was incurred.
(iii) A denial of Medicare enrollment under this paragraph (a)(6) can be avoided if the enrolling provider, supplier or owner thereof does either of the following:
(A)(1) Satisfies the criteria set forth in § 401.607; and
(2) Agrees to a CMS-approved extended repayment schedule for the entire outstanding Medicare debt.
(B) Repays the debt in full.
(7) Payment suspension. (i) The provider or supplier, or any owning or managing employee or organization of the provider or supplier, is currently under a Medicare or Medicaid payment suspension as defined in §§ 405.370 through 405.372 or in § 455.23 of this chapter.
(ii) CMS may apply the provision in this paragraph (a)(7) to the provider or supplier under any of the provider's, supplier's, or owning or managing employee's or organization's current or former names, numerical identifiers, or business identities or to any of its existing enrollments.
(iii) In determining whether a denial is appropriate, CMS considers the following factors:
(A) The specific behavior in question.
(B) Whether the provider or supplier is the subject of other similar investigations.
(C) Any other information that CMS deems relevant to its determination.
(8) Initial Reserve Operating Funds. (i) CMS or its designated Medicare contractor may deny Medicare billing privileges if, within 30 days of a CMS or Medicare contractor request, a home health agency (HHA) cannot furnish supporting documentation which verifies that the HHA meets the initial reserve operating funds requirement found in § 489.28(a) of this title.
(ii) CMS may deny Medicare billing privileges upon an HHA applicant's failure to satisfy the initial reserve operating funds requirement found in 42 CFR 489.28(a).
(9) Application fee/hardship exception. An institutional provider's or supplier's hardship exception request is not granted, and the provider or supplier does not submit the application fee within 30 days of notification that the hardship exception request was not approved.
(10) Temporary moratorium. A provider or supplier submits an enrollment application for a practice location in a geographic area where CMS has imposed a temporary moratorium.
(11) Prescribing authority. (i) A physician or other eligible professional's Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) Certificate of Registration to dispense a controlled substance is currently suspended or revoked or is surrendered in response to an order to show cause;
(ii) The applicable licensing or administrative body for any State in which a physician or eligible professional practices has suspended or revoked the physician or eligible professional's ability to prescribe one or more drugs, and such suspension or revocation is in effect on the date the physician or eligible professional submits his or her enrollment application to the Medicare contractor.
(12) Revoked under different name, numerical identifier or business identity. The provider or supplier is currently revoked under a different name, numerical identifier, or business identity, and the applicable reenrollment bar period has not expired. In determining whether a provider or supplier is a currently revoked provider or supplier under a different name, numerical identifier, or business identity, CMS investigates the degree of commonality by considering the following factors:
(i) Owning and managing employees and organizations (regardless of whether they have been disclosed on the Form CMS-855 application).
(ii) Geographic location.
(iii) Provider or supplier type.
(iv) Business structure.
(v) Any evidence indicating that the two parties are similar or that the provider or supplier was created to circumvent the revocation or reenrollment bar.
(13) Affiliation that poses undue risk. CMS determines that the provider or supplier has or has had an affiliation under § 424.519 that poses an undue risk of fraud, waste, or abuse to the Medicare program.
(14) Other program termination or suspension. (i) The provider or supplier is currently terminated or suspended (or otherwise barred) from participation in a State Medicaid program or any other federal health care program, or the provider's or supplier's license is currently revoked or suspended in a State other than that in which the provider or supplier is enrolling. In determining whether a denial under this paragraph (a)(14) is appropriate, CMS considers the following factors:
(A) The reason(s) for the termination, suspension, or revocation.
(B) Whether, as applicable, the provider or supplier is currently terminated or suspended (or otherwise barred) from more than one program (for example, more than one State's Medicaid program), has been subject to any other sanctions during its participation in other programs or by any other State licensing boards or has had any other final adverse actions (as that term is defined in § 424.502) imposed against it.
(C) Any other information that CMS deems relevant to its determination.
(ii) CMS may apply paragraph (a)(14)(i) of this section to the provider or supplier under any of its current or former names, numerical identifiers or business identities, and regardless of whether any appeals are pending.
(15) Patient harm. (i) The physician or other eligible professional (as that term is defined in 1848(k)(3)(B) of the Act) has been subject to prior action from a State oversight board, Federal or State health care program, Independent Review Organization (IRO) determination(s), or any other equivalent governmental body or program that oversees, regulates, or administers the provision of health care with underlying facts reflecting improper physician or other eligible professional conduct that led to patient harm. In determining whether a denial is appropriate, CMS considers the following factors:
(A) The nature of the patient harm.
(B) The nature of the physician's or other eligible professional's conduct.
(C) The number and type(s) of sanctions or disciplinary actions that have been imposed against the physician or other eligible professional by a State oversight board, IRO, Federal or State health care program, or any other equivalent governmental body or program that oversees, regulates, or administers the provision of health care. Such actions include, but are not limited to in scope or degree:
(1) License restriction(s) pertaining to certain procedures or practices.
(2) Required compliance appearances before State oversight board members.
(3) License restriction(s) regarding the ability to treat certain types of patients (for example, cannot be alone with members of a different gender after a sexual offense charge).
(4) Administrative/monetary penalties.
(5) Formal reprimand(s).
(D) If applicable, the nature of the IRO determination(s).
(E) The number of patients impacted by the physician's or other eligible professional's conduct and the degree of harm thereto or impact upon.
(ii) Paragraph (a)(15)(i) of this section does not apply to actions or orders pertaining exclusively to either of the following:
(A) Required participation in rehabilitation or mental/behavioral health programs; or
(B) Required abstinence from drugs or alcohol and random drug testing.
(16) [Reserved]
(17) False Claims Act (FCA). (i) The provider or supplier, or any owner, managing employee or organization, officer, or director of the provider or supplier, has had a civil judgment under the FCA (31 U.S.C. 3729 through 3733) imposed against them within the previous 10 years.
(ii) In determining whether a denial under this paragraph is appropriate, CMS considers the following factors:
(A) The number of provider or supplier actions that the judgment incorporates (for example, the number of false claims submitted).
(B) The types of provider or supplier actions involved.
(C) The monetary amount of the judgment.
(D) When the judgment occurred.
(E) Whether the provider or supplier has any history of final adverse actions (as that term is defined in § 424.502 of this chapter).
(F) Any other information that CMS deems relevant to its determination.
(18) Supplier standard or condition violation. (i) The independent diagnostic testing facility is non-compliant with any provision in § 410.33(g).
(ii) The DMEPOS supplier is non-compliant with any provision in § 424.57(c).
(iii) The opioid treatment program is non-compliant with any provision in § 424.67(b).
(iv) The home infusion therapy supplier is non-compliant with any provision in § 424.68(c).
(v) The Medicare diabetes prevention program is non-compliant with any provision in § 424.205(b) or (c).
(b) Resubmission after denial. A provider or supplier that is denied enrollment in the Medicare program cannot submit a new enrollment application until the following has occurred if the denial:
(1) Was not appealed, the provider or supplier may reapply after its appeal rights have lapsed.
(2) Was appealed, the provider or supplier may reapply after notification that the determination was upheld.
(c) Reversal of denial. If the denial was due to adverse activity (sanction, exclusion, debt, felony) of an owner, managing employee, managing organization, officer, director, authorized or delegated official, medical director, supervising physician, or other health care personnel of the provider or supplier furnishing Medicare reimbursable services, the denial may be reversed if the provider or supplier terminates and submits proof that it has terminated its business relationship with that individual or organization within 30 days of the denial notification.
(d) Additional review. When a provider or supplier is denied enrollment in Medicare, CMS automatically reviews all other related Medicare enrollment files that the denied provider or supplier has an association with (for example, as an owner or managing employee) to determine if the denial warrants an adverse action of the associated Medicare provider or supplier.
(e) Effective date of denial. Denial becomes effective within 30 days of the initial denial notification.
(f) Reapplication bar. CMS may prohibit a prospective provider or supplier from enrolling in Medicare for up to 10 years if its enrollment application is denied because the provider or supplier submitted false or misleading information on or with (or omitted information from) its application in order to gain enrollment in the Medicare program.
(1) The reapplication bar applies to the prospective provider or supplier under any of its current, former, or future names, numerical identifiers or business identities.
(2) CMS determines the bar's length by considering the following factors:
(i) The materiality of the information in question.
(ii) Whether there is evidence to suggest that the provider or supplier purposely furnished false or misleading information or deliberately withheld information.
(iii) Whether the provider or supplier has any history of final adverse actions or Medicare or Medicaid payment suspensions.
(iv) Any other information that CMS deems relevant to its determination.
(3)(i) A provider or supplier that is currently subject to a reapplication bar under paragraph (f) of this section may not order, refer, certify, or prescribe Medicare-covered services, items, or drugs.
(ii) Medicare does not pay for any otherwise covered service, item, or drug that is ordered, referred, certified, or prescribed by a provider or supplier that is currently under a reapplication bar.
[71 FR 20776, Apr. 21, 2006, as amended at 73 FR 69940, Nov. 19, 2008; 75 FR 70464, Nov. 17, 2010; 76 FR 5964, Feb. 2, 2011; 79 FR 29968, May 23, 2014; 79 FR 72531, Dec. 5, 2014; 84 FR 47853, Sept. 10, 2019; 84 FR 63203, Nov. 15, 2019; 86 FR 65682, Nov. 19, 2021; 87 FR 70231, Nov. 18, 2022; 88 FR 77878, Nov. 13, 2023; 88 FR 79541, Nov. 16, 2023; 90 FR 55617, Dec. 2, 2025]
§ 424.535 Revocation of enrollment in the Medicare program.
(a) Reasons for revocation. CMS may revoke a currently enrolled provider or supplier's Medicare enrollment and any corresponding provider agreement or supplier agreement for the following reasons:
(1) Noncompliance. The provider or supplier is determined to not be in compliance with the enrollment requirements described in this title 42, or in the enrollment application applicable for its provider or supplier type, and has not submitted a plan of corrective action as outlined in part 488 of this chapter. The provider or supplier may also be determined not to be in compliance if it has failed to pay any user fees as assessed under part 488 of this chapter.
(i) CMS may request additional documentation from the provider or supplier to determine compliance if adverse information is received or otherwise found concerning the provider or supplier.
(ii) Requested additional documentation must be submitted within 60 calendar days of request.
(2) Provider or supplier conduct. (i) The provider or supplier, or any owner, managing employee, managing organization, officer, director, authorized or delegated official, medical director, supervising physician, or other health care or administrative or management services personnel furnishing services payable by a Federal health care program, of the provider or supplier is—
(A) Excluded from the Medicare, Medicaid, and any other Federal health care program, as defined in § 1001.2 of this chapter, in accordance with section 1128, 1128A, 1156, 1842, 1862, 1867 or 1892 of the Act.
(B) Debarred, suspended, or otherwise excluded from participating in any other Federal procurement or nonprocurement activity in accordance with the FASA implementing regulations and the Department of Health and Human Services nonprocurement common rule at 45 CFR part 76.
(ii) The individuals and organizations identified in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section include, but are not limited to, W-2 employees and contracted individuals and organizations of the provider or supplier.
(3) Felonies.
(i) The provider, supplier, or any owner, managing employee, managing organization, officer, or director of the provider or supplier was, within the preceding 10 years, convicted (as that term is defined in 42 CFR 1001.2) of a Federal or State felony offense that CMS determines is detrimental to the best interests of the Medicare program and its beneficiaries.
(ii) Offenses include, but are not limited in scope or severity to—
(A) Felony crimes against persons, such as murder, rape, assault, and other similar crimes for which the individual was convicted, including guilty pleas and adjudicated pretrial diversions.
(B) Financial crimes, such as extortion, embezzlement, income tax evasion, insurance fraud and other similar crimes for which the individual was convicted, including guilty pleas and adjudicated pretrial diversions.
(C) Any felony that placed the Medicare program or its beneficiaries at immediate risk, such as a malpractice suit that results in a conviction of criminal neglect or misconduct.
(D) Any felonies that would result in mandatory exclusion under section 1128(a) of the Act.
(iii) Revocations based on felony convictions are for a period to be determined by the Secretary, but not less than 10 years from the date of conviction if the individual has been convicted on one previous occasion for one or more offenses.
(iv) The individuals and organizations identified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section include, but are not limited to, W-2 employees and contracted individuals and organizations of the provider or supplier.
(4) False or misleading information. The provider or supplier certified as “true” misleading or false information on the enrollment application to be enrolled or maintain enrollment in the Medicare program. (Offenders may be subject to either fines or imprisonment, or both, in accordance with current law and regulations.)
(5) On-site review. Upon on-site review or other reliable evidence, CMS determines that the provider or supplier is either of the following:
(i) No longer operational to furnish Medicare-covered items or services.
(ii) Otherwise fails to satisfy any Medicare enrollment requirement.
(6) Grounds related to provider and supplier screening requirements. (i)(A) An institutional provider does not submit an application fee or hardship exception request that meets the requirements set forth in § 424.514 with the Medicare revalidation application; or
(B) The hardship exception is not granted and the institutional provider does not submit the applicable application form or application fee within 30 days of being notified that the hardship exception request was denied.
(ii)(A) Either of the following occurs:
(1) CMS is not able to deposit the full application amount into a government-owned account.
(2) The funds are not able to be credited to the U.S. Treasury.
(B) The provider or supplier lacks sufficient funds in the account at the banking institution whose name is imprinted on the check or other banking instrument to pay the application fee; or
(C) There is any other reason why CMS or its Medicare contractor is unable to deposit the application fee into a government-owned account.
(7) Misuse of billing number. The provider or supplier knowingly sells to or allows another individual or entity to use its billing number. This does not include those providers or suppliers who enter into a valid reassignment of benefits as specified in § 424.80 or a change of ownership as outlined in § 489.18 of this chapter.
(8) Abuse of billing privileges. Abuse of billing privileges includes either of the following:
(i) The provider or supplier submits a claim or claims for services that could not have been furnished to a specific individual on the date of service. These instances include but are not limited to the following situations:
(A) Where the beneficiary is deceased.
(B) The directing physician or beneficiary is not in the state or country when services were furnished.
(C) When the equipment necessary for testing is not present where the testing is said to have occurred.
(D) The beneficiary attests that the item(s) or service(s) identified on the provider's or supplier's claim or claims was not or were not rendered or furnished.
(ii) CMS determines that the provider or supplier has a pattern or practice of submitting claims that fail to meet Medicare requirements. In making this determination, CMS considers, as appropriate or applicable, the following:
(A) The percentage of submitted claims that were denied during the period under consideration.
(B) Whether the provider or supplier has any history of final adverse actions and the nature of any such actions.
(C) The type of billing non-compliance and the specific facts surrounding said non-compliance (to the extent this can be determined).
(D) Any other information regarding the provider or supplier's specific circumstances that CMS deems relevant to its determination.
(iii) The effective date of a revocation under this paragraph (a)(8) is—
(A) For revocations under paragraph (a)(8)(i) of this section, the earliest date of service on the claim or claims that is or are triggering the revocation; and
(B) For revocations under paragraph (a)(8)(ii), the last date of service on the claims in question.
(9) Failure to report. The provider or supplier did not comply with the reporting requirements specified in § 424.516(d) or (e), § 410.33(g)(2) of this chapter, or § 424.57(c)(2). In determining whether a revocation under this paragraph (a)(9) is appropriate, CMS considers the following factors:
(i) Whether the data in question was reported.
(ii) If the data was reported, how belatedly.
(iii) The materiality of the data in question.
(iv) Any other information that CMS deems relevant to its determination.
(10) Failure to document or provide CMS access to documentation. (i) The provider or supplier did not comply with the documentation or CMS access requirements specified in § 424.516(f) of this subpart.
(ii) A provider or supplier that meets the revocation criteria specified in paragraph (a)(10)(i) of this section, is subject to revocation for a period of not more than 1 year for each act of noncompliance.
(11) Initial reserve operating funds. CMS or its designated Medicare contractor may revoke the Medicare billing privileges of an HHA and the corresponding provider agreement if, within 30 days of a CMS or Medicare contractor request, the HHA cannot furnish supporting documentation verifying that the HHA meets the initial reserve operating funds requirement found in 42 CFR 489.28(a).
(12) Other program termination. (i) The provider or supplier is terminated, revoked or otherwise barred from participation in a State Medicaid program or any other federal health care program. In determining whether a revocation under this paragraph (a)(12) is appropriate, CMS considers the following factors:
(A) The reason(s) for the termination or revocation.
(B) Whether the provider or supplier is currently terminated, revoked or otherwise barred from more than one program (for example, more than one State's Medicaid program) or has been subject to any other sanctions during its participation in other programs.
(C) Any other information that CMS deems relevant to its determination.
(ii) Medicare may not revoke unless and until a provider or supplier has exhausted all applicable appeal rights or the timeframe for filing an appeal has expired without the provider or supplier filing an appeal.
(iii) CMS may apply paragraph (a)(12)(i) of this section to the provider or supplier under any of its current or former names, numerical identifiers or business identities.
(13) Prescribing authority. (i) A physician or other eligible professional's Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) Certificate of Registration to dispense a controlled substance is currently suspended or revoked or is surrendered in response to an order to show cause;
(ii) The applicable licensing or administrative body for any state in which the physician or eligible professional practices suspends or revokes the physician or eligible professional's ability to prescribe one or more drugs.
(14) Improper prescribing practices. CMS determines that the physician or eligible professional has a pattern or practice of prescribing Medicare-covered drugs that falls into one of the following categories:
(i) The pattern or practice is abusive or represents a threat to the health and safety of Medicare beneficiaries or both. In making this determination, CMS considers the following factors:
(A) Whether there are diagnoses to support the indications for which the drugs were prescribed.
(B) Whether there are instances when the necessary evaluation of the patient for whom the drug was prescribed could not have occurred (for example, the patient was deceased or out of state at the time of the alleged office visit).
(C) Whether the physician or eligible professional has prescribed controlled substances in excessive dosages that are linked to patient overdoses.
(D) The number and type(s) of disciplinary actions taken against the physician or eligible professional by the licensing body or medical board for the State or States in which he or she practices, and the reason(s) for the action(s).
(E) Whether the physician or eligible professional has any history of “final adverse actions” (as that term is defined in § 424.502).
(F) The number and type(s) of malpractice suits that have been filed against the physician or eligible professional related to prescribing that have resulted in a final judgment against the physician or eligible professional or in which the physician or eligible professional has paid a settlement to the plaintiff(s) (to the extent this can be determined).
(G) Whether any State Medicaid program or any other public or private health insurance program has restricted, suspended, revoked, or terminated the physician or eligible professional's ability to prescribe medications, and the reason(s) for any such restriction, suspension, revocation, or termination.
(H) Any other relevant information provided to CMS.
(ii) The pattern or practice of prescribing fails to meet Medicare requirements. In making this determination, CMS considers the following factors:
(A) Whether the physician or eligible professional has a pattern or practice of prescribing without valid prescribing authority.
(B) Whether the physician or eligible professional has a pattern or practice of prescribing for controlled substances outside the scope of the prescriber's DEA registration.
(C) Whether the physician or eligible professional has a pattern or practice of prescribing drugs for indications that were not medically accepted—that is, for indications neither approved by the FDA nor medically accepted under section 1860D-2(e)(4) of the Act—and whether there is evidence that the physician or eligible professional acted in reckless disregard for the health and safety of the patient.
(15) False Claims Act (FCA). (i) The provider or supplier, or any owner, managing employee or organization, officer, or director of the provider or supplier, has had a civil judgment under the FCA (31 U.S.C. 3729 through 3733) imposed against them within the previous 10 years.
(ii) In determining whether a revocation under this paragraph is appropriate, CMS considers the following factors:
(A) The number of provider or supplier actions that the judgment incorporates (for example, the number of false claims submitted).
(B) The types of provider or supplier actions involved.
(C) The monetary amount of the judgment.
(D) When the judgment occurred.
(E) Whether the provider or supplier has any history of final adverse actions (as that term is defined in § 424.502).
(F) Any other information that CMS deems relevant to its determination.
(16) [Reserved]
(17) Debt referred to the United States Department of Treasury. (i) The provider or supplier failed to repay a debt that CMS appropriately referred to the United States Department of Treasury. In determining whether a revocation under this paragraph (a)(17) is appropriate, CMS considers the following factors:
(A) The reason(s) for the failure to fully repay the debt (to the extent this can be determined).
(B) Whether the provider or supplier has attempted to repay the debt (to the extent this can be determined).
(C) Whether the provider or supplier has responded to CMS' requests for payment (to the extent this can be determined).
(D) Whether the provider or supplier has any history of final adverse actions or Medicare or Medicaid payment suspensions.
(E) The amount of the debt.
(F) Any other evidence that CMS deems relevant to its determination.
(ii) Paragraph (17)(i) of this paragraph does not apply to the following situations:
(A) The provider's or supplier's Medicare debt has been discharged by a bankruptcy court; or
(B) The administrative appeals process concerning the debt has not been exhausted or the timeframe for filing such an appeal (at the appropriate level of appeal) has not expired.
(18) Revoked under different name, numerical identifier or business identity. The provider or supplier is currently revoked under a different name, numerical identifier, or business identity, and the applicable reenrollment bar period has not expired. In determining whether a provider or supplier is a currently revoked provider or supplier under a different name, numerical identifier, or business identity, CMS investigates the degree of commonality by considering the following factors:
(i) Owning and managing employees and organizations (regardless of whether they have been disclosed on the Form CMS-855 application).
(ii) Geographic location.
(iii) Provider or supplier type.
(iv) Business structure.
(v) Any evidence indicating that the two parties are similar or that the provider or supplier was created to circumvent the revocation or reenrollment bar.
(19) Affiliation that poses an undue risk. CMS determines that the provider or supplier has or has had an affiliation under § 424.519 that poses an undue risk of fraud, waste, or abuse to the Medicare program.
(20) Billing from non-compliant location. CMS may revoke a provider's or supplier's Medicare enrollment or enrollments, even if all of the practice locations associated with a particular enrollment comply with Medicare enrollment requirements, if the provider or supplier billed for services performed at or items furnished from a location that it knew or should have known did not comply with Medicare enrollment requirements. In determining whether and how many of the provider's or supplier's enrollments, involving the non-compliant location or other locations, should be revoked, CMS considers the following factors:
(i) The reason(s) for and the specific facts behind the location's non-compliance.
(ii) The number of additional locations involved.
(iii) Whether the provider or supplier has any history of final adverse actions or Medicare or Medicaid payment suspensions.
(iv) The degree of risk that the location's continuance poses to the Medicare Trust Funds.
(v) The length of time that the non-compliant location was non-compliant.
(vi) The amount that was billed for services performed at or items furnished from the non-compliant location.
(vii) Any other evidence that CMS deems relevant to its determination.
(21) Abusive ordering, certifying, referring, or prescribing of Part A or B services, items or drugs. The physician or eligible professional has a pattern or practice of ordering, certifying, referring, or prescribing Medicare Part A or B services, items, or drugs that is abusive, represents a threat to the health and safety of Medicare beneficiaries, or otherwise fails to meet Medicare requirements. In making its determination as to whether such a pattern or practice exists, CMS considers the following factors:
(i) Whether the physician's or eligible professional's diagnoses support the orders, certifications, referrals or prescriptions in question.
(ii) Whether there are instances where the necessary evaluation of the patient for whom the service, item or drug was ordered, certified, referred, or prescribed could not have occurred (for example, the patient was deceased or out of state at the time of the alleged office visit).
(iii) The number and type(s) of disciplinary actions taken against the physician or eligible professional by the licensing body or medical board for the state or states in which he or she practices, and the reason(s) for the action(s).
(iv) Whether the physician or eligible professional has any history of final adverse actions (as that term is defined in § 424.502).
(v) The length of time over which the pattern or practice has continued.
(vi) How long the physician or eligible professional has been enrolled in Medicare.
(vii) The number and type(s) of malpractice suits that have been filed against the physician or eligible professional related to ordering, certifying, referring or prescribing that have resulted in a final judgment against the physician or eligible professional or in which the physician or eligible professional has paid a settlement to the plaintiff(s) (to the extent this can be determined).
(viii) Whether any State Medicaid program or any other public or private health insurance program has restricted, suspended, revoked, or terminated the physician's or eligible professional's ability to practice medicine, and the reason(s) for any such restriction, suspension, revocation, or termination.
(ix) Any other information that CMS deems relevant to its determination.
(22) Patient harm. (i) The physician or other eligible professional (as that term is defined in 1848(k)(3)(B) of the Act) has been subject to prior action from a State oversight board, Federal or State health care program, Independent Review Organization (IRO) determination(s), or any other equivalent governmental body or program that oversees, regulates, or administers the provision of health care with underlying facts reflecting improper physician or other eligible professional conduct that led to patient harm. In determining whether a revocation is appropriate, CMS considers the following factors:
(A) The nature of the patient harm.
(B) The nature of the physician's or other eligible professional's conduct.
(C) The number and type(s) of sanctions or disciplinary actions that have been imposed against the physician or other eligible professional by the State oversight board, IRO, Federal or State health care program, or any other equivalent governmental body or program that oversees, regulates, or administers the provision of health care. Such actions include, but are not limited to in scope or degree:
(1) License restriction(s) pertaining to certain procedures or practices.
(2) Required compliance appearances before State medical board members.
(3) License restriction(s) regarding the ability to treat certain types of patients (for example, cannot be alone with members of a different gender after a sexual offense charge).
(4) Administrative or monetary penalties.
(5) Formal reprimand(s).
(D) If applicable, the nature of the IRO determination(s).
(E) The number of patients impacted by the physician's or other eligible professional's conduct and the degree of harm thereto or impact upon.
(ii) Paragraph (a)(22)(i) of this section does not apply to actions or orders pertaining exclusively to either of the following:
(A) Required participation in rehabilitation or mental/behavioral health programs; or
(B) Required abstinence from drugs or alcohol and random drug testing.
(23) Supplier standard or condition violation. (i) The independent diagnostic testing facility is non-compliant with any provision in 42 CFR 410.33(g).
(ii) The DMEPOS supplier is non-compliant with any provision in § 424.57(c).
(iii) The opioid treatment program is non-compliant with any provision in § 424.67(b) or (e).
(iv) The home infusion therapy supplier is non-compliant with any provision in § 424.68(c) or (e).
(v) The Medicare diabetes prevention program is non-compliant with any provision in § 424.205(b) or (c).
(b) Effect of revocation on provider agreements. When a provider's or supplier's billing privilege is revoked, any provider agreement in effect at the time of revocation is terminated effective with the date of revocation.
(c) Reapplying after revocation. (1) After a provider or supplier has had their enrollment revoked, they are barred from participating in the Medicare program from the effective date of the revocation until the end of the reenrollment bar. The reenrollment bar—
(i) Begins 30 days after CMS or its contractor mails notice of the revocation and lasts a minimum of 1 year, but not greater than 10 years (except for the situations described in paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section), depending on the severity of the basis for revocation.
(ii) Does not apply in the event a revocation of Medicare enrollment is imposed under paragraph (a)(1) of this section based upon a provider's or supplier's failure to respond timely to a revalidation request or other request for information.
(2)(i) CMS may add up to 3 more years to the provider's or supplier's reenrollment bar (even if such period exceeds the 10-year period identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section) if it determines that the provider or supplier is attempting to circumvent its existing reenrollment bar by enrolling in Medicare under a different name, numerical identifier or business identity.
(ii) A provider's or supplier's appeal rights regarding paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section—
(A) Are governed by part 498 of this chapter; and
(B) Do not extend to the imposition of the original reenrollment bar under paragraph (c)(1) of this section; and
(C) Are limited to any additional years imposed under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section.
(3) CMS may impose a reenrollment bar of up to 20 years on a provider or supplier if the provider or supplier is being revoked from Medicare for the second time. In determining the length of the reenrollment bar under this paragraph (c)(3), CMS considers the following factors:
(i) The reasons for the revocations.
(ii) The length of time between the revocations.
(iii) Whether the provider or supplier has any history of final adverse actions (other than Medicare revocations) or Medicare or Medicaid payment suspensions.
(iv) Any other information that CMS deems relevant to its determination.
(4) A reenrollment bar applies to a provider or supplier under any of its current, former or future names, numerical identifiers or business identities.
(d) Re-enrollment after revocation. If a provider or supplier seeks to re-establish enrollment in the Medicare program after notification that its billing privileges is revoked (either after the appeals process is exhausted or in place of the appeals process), the following conditions apply:
(1) The provider or supplier must re-enroll in the Medicare program through the completion and submission of a new applicable enrollment application and applicable documentation, as a new provider or supplier, for validation by CMS.
(2) Providers must be resurveyed and recertified by the State survey agency as a new provider and must establish a new provider agreement with CMS's Regional Office.
(e) Reversal of revocation. If the revocation was due to adverse activity (sanction, exclusion, or felony) against the provider's or supplier's owner, managing employee, managing organization, officer, director, authorized or delegated official, medical director, supervising physician, or other health care or administrative or management services personnel furnishing services payable by a Federal health care program, the revocation may be reversed if the provider or supplier terminates and submits proof that it has terminated its business relationship with that party within 15 days of the revocation notification.
(f) Additional review. When a provider or supplier is revoked from the Medicare program, CMS automatically reviews all other related Medicare enrollment files that the revoked provider or supplier has an association with (for example, as an owner or managing employee) to determine if the revocation warrants an adverse action of the associated Medicare provider or supplier.
(g) Effective date of revocation. (1) Except as described in paragraphs (a)(8)(iii) and (g)(2) and (3) of this section, a revocation becomes effective 30 days after CMS or the CMS contractor mails notice of its determination to the provider or supplier.
(2) Except as described in paragraph (g)(3) of this section, the revocation effective dates in the situations identified in this paragraph (g)(2) are as follows:
(i) For revocations based on a Federal exclusion or debarment, the date of the exclusion or debarment.
(ii) For revocations based on a felony conviction, the date of the felony conviction.
(iii) For revocations based on a State license suspension or revocation, the date of the license suspension or revocation.
(iv) For revocations based on a CMS determination that the provider's or supplier's practice location is non-operational, the date on which the provider's or supplier's practice location was no longer operational (per CMS' or the CMS contractor's determination).
(v) For revocations based on a State license surrender in lieu of further disciplinary action, the date of the license surrender.
(vi) For revocations based on termination from a Federal health care program other than Medicare (for example, Medicaid), the date of the termination.
(vii) For revocations based on termination of a provider agreement under part 489 of this chapter, and as applicable to the type of provider involved, the later of the following:
(A) The date of the provider agreement termination; or
(B) The date that CMS establishes under § 489.55.
(viii) For revocations based on a lapse in the IDTF's comprehensive liability insurance under § 410.33(g)(6) of this chapter, the date the insurance lapsed.
(ix) For revocations based on the provider's or supplier's submission of false or misleading information on the enrollment application, the date the application's certification statement was signed.
(x) For revocations based on the provider's or supplier's failure to timely report a change of ownership or adverse legal action, or a change, addition, or deletion of a practice location, the day after the date by which the provider or supplier was required to report the change, addition, or deletion.
(xi) For revocations based on the surrender of the provider's or supplier's provider's Drug Enforcement Administration certificate of registration in response to a show cause order, the date the certificate was surrendered.
(xii) For revocations based on a State's suspension or revocation of the physician's or practitioner's ability to prescribe one or more drugs, the date of the suspension or revocation.
(xiii) For revocations of any of the provider's or supplier's other enrollments under paragraph (i) of this section, the effective date of the revocation that triggered the revocation(s) of the other enrollment(s).
(xiv) For revocations based on a DMEPOS supplier's non-compliance with a condition or standard in § 424.57(b) or (c), respectively, the date on which the non-compliance began.
(xv) For revocations based on § 424.535(a)(23), the effective dates are as follows:
(A) If the standard or condition violation involves the suspension, revocation, or termination (or surrender in lieu of further disciplinary action) of the provider's or supplier's Federal or State license, certification, accreditation, or MDPP recognition, the effective date is the date of the license, certification, accreditation, or MDPP recognition suspension, revocation, termination, or surrender.
(B) If the standard or condition violation involves a non-operational practice location, the effective date is the date the non-operational status began.
(C) If the standard violation involves a felony conviction of an individual or entity described in § 424.67(b)(6)(i), the effective date is the date of the felony conviction.
(D) For all standard violations not addressed in this paragraph (g)(2), the effective date in paragraph (g)(1) of this section applies if the effective date in paragraph (g)(3) of this section does not.
(3) If the action that resulted in the revocation occurred prior to the effective date of the provider's or supplier's enrollment, the effective date of the revocation is the same as the effective date of enrollment.
(h) Submission of claims for services furnished before revocation. (1)(i) Except for HHAs as described in paragraph (h)(1)(ii) of this section, a revoked provider or supplier must, within 60 calendar days after the effective date of revocation, submit all claims for items and services furnished before the date of the revocation letter.
(ii) A revoked HHA must submit all claims for items and services within 60 days after the later of the following:
(A) The effective date of the revocation.
(B) The date that the HHA's last payable episode ends.
(2) Nothing in this paragraph (h) impacts the requirements of § 424.44 regarding the timely filing of claims.
(i) Extension of revocation. (1) If a provider's or supplier's Medicare enrollment is revoked under paragraph (a) of this section, CMS may revoke any and all of the provider's or supplier's Medicare enrollments, including those under different names, numerical identifiers or business identities and those under different types.
(2) In determining whether to revoke a provider's or supplier's other enrollments under this paragraph (i), CMS considers the following factors:
(i) The reason for the revocation and the facts of the case.
(ii) Whether any final adverse actions have been imposed against the provider or supplier regarding its other enrollments.
(iii) The number and type(s) of other enrollments.
(iv) Any other information that CMS deems relevant to its determination.
(j) Voluntary termination. (1) CMS may revoke a provider's or supplier's Medicare enrollment if CMS determines that the provider or supplier voluntarily terminated its Medicare enrollment in order to avoid a revocation under paragraph (a) of this section that CMS would have imposed had the provider or supplier remained enrolled in Medicare. In making its determination, CMS considers the following factors:
(i) Whether there is evidence to suggest that the provider knew or should have known that it was or would be out of compliance with Medicare requirements.
(ii) Whether there is evidence to suggest that the provider knew or should have known that its Medicare enrollment would be revoked.
(iii) Whether there is evidence to suggest that the provider voluntarily terminated its Medicare enrollment in order to circumvent such revocation.
(iv) Any other evidence or information that CMS deems relevant to its determination.
(2) A revocation under paragraph (j)(1) of this section is effective the day before the Medicare contractor receives the provider's or supplier's Form CMS-855 voluntary termination application.
[71 FR 20776, Apr. 21, 2006, as amended at 72 FR 53648, Sept. 19, 2007; 73 FR 36461, June 27, 2008; 73 FR 69940, Nov. 19, 2008; 75 FR 24449, May 5, 2010; 75 FR 70465, Nov. 17, 2010; 76 FR 5964, Feb. 2, 2011; 77 FR 25318, Apr. 27, 2012; 77 FR 29030, May 16, 2012; 79 FR 29968, May 23, 2014; 79 FR 72532, Dec. 5, 2014; 84 FR 47854, Sept. 10, 2019; 84 FR 63204, Nov. 15, 2019; 86 FR 65682, Nov. 19, 2021; 87 FR 70232, Nov. 18, 2022; 88 FR 79541, Nov. 16, 2023; 90 FR 55618, Dec. 2, 2025]
§ 424.540 Deactivation of Medicare billing privileges.
(a) Reasons for deactivation. CMS may deactivate the Medicare billing privileges of a provider or supplier for any of the following reasons:
(1) The provider or supplier does not submit any Medicare claims for 6 consecutive calendar months. The 6 month period will begin the 1st day of the 1st month without a claims submission through the last day of the 6th month without a submitted claim.
(2) The provider or supplier does not report a change to the information supplied on the enrollment application within the applicable time period required under this title.
(3) The provider or supplier does not furnish complete and accurate information and all supporting documentation within 90 calendar days of receipt of notification from CMS to submit an enrollment application and supporting documentation, or resubmit and certify to the accuracy of its enrollment information.
(4) The provider or supplier is not in compliance with all enrollment requirements in this title.
(5) The provider's or supplier's practice location is non-operational or otherwise invalid.
(6) The provider or supplier is deceased.
(7) The provider or supplier is voluntarily withdrawing from Medicare.
(8) The provider is the seller in an HHA, hospice, or DMEPOS supplier change of ownership under § 424.550(b)(1).
(b) Reactivation of billing privileges.
(1) In order for a deactivated provider or supplier to reactivate its Medicare billing privileges, the provider or supplier must recertify that its enrollment information currently on file with Medicare is correct, furnish any missing information as appropriate, and be in compliance with all applicable enrollment requirements in this title.
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) of this section, CMS may, for any reason, require a deactivated provider or supplier to, as a prerequisite for reactivating its billing privileges, submit a complete Form CMS-855 application.
(3) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, reactivation of Medicare billing privileges does not require a new certification of the provider or supplier by the State survey agency or the establishment of a new provider agreement.
(i) An HHA whose Medicare billing privileges are deactivated under the provisions found at paragraph (a) of this section must obtain an initial State survey or accreditation by an approved accreditation organization before its Medicare billing privileges can be reactivated.
(ii) [Reserved]
(c) Effect of deactivation. The deactivation of Medicare billing privileges does not have any effect on a provider's or supplier's participation agreement or any conditions of participation.
(d) Effective dates. (1)(i) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, the effective date of a deactivation is the date on which the deactivation is imposed under this section.
(ii) A retroactive deactivation effective date (based on the date that the provider's or supplier's action or non-compliance occurred or commenced (as applicable)) may be imposed in the following instances:
(A) For the deactivation reasons in paragraphs (a)(2) through (4) of this section, the effective date is the date on which the provider or supplier became non-compliant.
(B) For the deactivation reason in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, the effective date is the date on which the provider's or supplier's practice location became non-operational or otherwise invalid.
(C) For the deactivation reason in paragraph (a)(6) of this section, the effective date is the date of death of the provider or supplier.
(D) For the deactivation reason in paragraph (a)(7) of this section, the effective date is the date on which the provider or supplier voluntarily withdrew from Medicare.
(E) For the deactivation reason in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, the effective date is the date of the sale.
(2) The effective date of a reactivation of billing privileges under this section is the date on which the Medicare contractor received the provider's or supplier's reactivation submission that was processed to approval by the Medicare contractor.
(e) Payment prohibition. A provider or supplier may not receive payment for services or items furnished while deactivated under this section.
[71 FR 20776, Apr. 21, 2006, as amended at 74 FR 58134, Nov. 10, 2009; 77 FR 29030, May 16, 2012; 84 FR 47856, Sept. 10, 2019; 86 FR 62420, Nov. 9, 2021; 88 FR 77878, Nov. 13, 2023; 90 FR 55618, Dec. 2, 2025]
§ 424.541 Stay of enrollment.
(a)(1) CMS may stay an enrolled provider's or supplier's enrollment if the provider or supplier:
(i) Is non-compliant with at least one enrollment requirement in this title. (This includes situations where its change of information or revalidation application was rejected under § 424.525(a)(1) or (2).)
(ii) Can remedy the non-compliance via the submission of, as applicable to the situation, a Form CMS-855, Form CMS-20134, or Form CMS-588 change of information or revalidation application.
(2) During the period of any stay imposed under this section, the following apply:
(i) The provider or supplier remains enrolled in Medicare;
(ii)(A) Except as stated in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, claims submitted by the provider or supplier with dates of service within the stay period will be rejected.
(B) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A), claims submitted by the provider or supplier with dates of service within the stay period are eligible for payment (and may be resubmitted by the provider or supplier within applicable timeframes specified in Title 42) if:
(1) CMS or its contractor determines that the provider or supplier has resumed compliance with all Medicare enrollment requirements in Title 42; and
(2) The stay ends (as described in paragraph (a)(5) of this section) on or before the expiration of the originally designated stay period.
(3)(i) The effective date of a stay of enrollment is, as applicable—
(A) The date on which the provider's or supplier's non-compliance began; or
(B) The date on which the provider's or supplier's change of information or revalidation application was rejected under § 424.525.
(ii) CMS may establish a stay of enrollment for any period up to a maximum of 60 days.
(4) CMS notifies the affected provider or supplier in writing of the imposition of the stay.
(5) A stay of enrollment ends on the date on which CMS or its contractor determines that the provider or supplier has resumed compliance with all Medicare enrollment requirements in this title or the day after the CMS-assigned stay period expires, whichever occurs first.
(b)(1) If a provider or supplier receives written notice from CMS or its contractor that the provider or supplier is subject to a stay under this section, the provider or supplier has 15 calendar days from the date of the written notice to submit a rebuttal to the stay as described in paragraph (b) of this section.
(2) CMS may, at its discretion, extend the 15-day time-period referenced in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(3) Any rebuttal submitted pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section must:
(i) Be in writing.
(ii) Specify the facts or issues about which the provider or supplier disagrees with the stay's imposition and/or the effective date, and the reasons for disagreement.
(iii) Submit all documentation the provider or supplier wants CMS to consider in its review of the stay.
(iv) Be submitted in the form of a letter that is signed and dated by the individual supplier (if enrolled as an individual physician or nonphysician practitioner), the authorized official or delegated official (as those terms are defined in § 424.502), or a legal representative (as defined in 42 CFR 498.10). If the legal representative is an attorney, the attorney must include a statement that he or she has the authority to represent the provider or supplier; this statement is sufficient to constitute notice of such authority. If the legal representative is not an attorney, the provider or supplier must file with CMS written notice of the appointment of a representative; this notice of appointment must be signed and dated by, as applicable, the individual supplier, the authorized official or delegated official, or a legal representative.
(4) The provider's or supplier's failure to submit a rebuttal that is both timely under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and fully compliant with all of the requirements of paragraph (b)(3) of this section constitutes a waiver of all rebuttal rights under this section.
(5) Upon receipt of a timely and compliant stay rebuttal, CMS reviews the rebuttal to determine whether the imposition of the stay and/or the effective date thereof are correct.
(6) A determination made under paragraph (b) of this section is not an initial determination under 42 CFR 498.3(b) and therefore not appealable.
(7) Nothing in paragraph (b) of this section requires CMS to delay the imposition of a stay pending the completion of the review described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
(8)(i) Nothing in paragraph (b) of this section requires CMS to delay the imposition of a deactivation or revocation, pending the completion of the review described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
(ii)(A) If CMS deactivates the provider or supplier during the stay, any rebuttal to the stay that the provider or supplier submits that meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section is combined and considered with the provider's or supplier's rebuttal to the deactivation under § 424.546 if CMS has not yet made a determination on the stay rebuttal pursuant to this section.
(B) In all cases other than that described in paragraph (b)(8)(ii)(A) of this section, a stay rebuttal that was submitted in compliance with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section is considered separately and independently of any review of any other rebuttal or, for revocations, appeal under 42 CFR part 498.
[88 FR 79542, Nov. 16, 2023, as amended at 89 FR 9784, Feb. 12, 2024; 90 FR 55618, Dec. 2, 2025]
§ 424.542 Prohibition on ordering, certifying, referring, or prescribing based on felony conviction.
(a) General prohibition. A physician or other eligible professional (regardless of whether he or she is or was enrolled in Medicare) who has had a felony conviction within the previous 10 years that CMS determines is detrimental to the best interests of the Medicare program and its beneficiaries may not order, refer, certify, or prescribe Medicare-covered services, items, or drugs.
(b) Payment. Medicare does not pay for any otherwise covered service, item, or drug that is ordered, referred, certified, or prescribed by a physician or other eligible professional (as that term is defined in section 1848(k)(3)(B) of the Act) who has had a felony conviction within the previous 10 years that CMS determines is detrimental to the best interests of the Medicare program and its beneficiaries.
[88 FR 77878, Nov. 13, 2023]
§ 424.545 Provider and supplier appeal rights.
(a) General. A prospective provider or supplier that is denied enrollment in the Medicare program, or a provider or supplier whose Medicare enrollment has been revoked may appeal CMS' decision in accordance with part 498, subpart A of this chapter.
(1) Appeals resulting in the termination of a provider agreement. (i) When revocation of billing privileges also results in the termination of a corresponding provider agreement, the provider may appeal CMS' decision in accordance with part 498 of this chapter with the final decision of the appeal applying to both the billing privileges and the provider agreement.
(ii) When a provider appeals the revocation of billing privileges and the termination of its provider agreement, there will be one appeals process which will address both matters. The appeal procedures for revocation of Medicare billing privileges will apply.
(2) Payment of unpaid claims. Payment is not made during the appeals process. If the provider or supplier is successful in overturning a denial or revocation, unpaid claims for services furnished during the overturned period may be resubmitted.
(b) A provider or supplier whose billing privileges are deactivated may file a rebuttal in accordance with § 424.546 of this chapter.
(c) The provider or supplier must be able to demonstrate that it meets the enrollment requirements and it must be able to make available any documents and records that support the provisions of this regulation and the Medicare enrollment application if requested by CMS or its agents.
[71 FR 20776, Apr. 21, 2006, as amended at 73 FR 36461, June 27, 2008; 86 FR 65683, Nov. 19, 2021]
§ 424.546 Deactivation rebuttals.
(a) Rebuttal submittal period. (1) If a provider or supplier receives written notice from CMS or its contractor that the provider's or supplier's billing privileges are to be or have been deactivated under § 424.540, the provider or supplier has 15 calendar days from the date of the written notice to submit a rebuttal to CMS as permitted under § 424.545(b).
(2) CMS may, at its discretion, extend the 15-day time-period referenced in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
(b) Rebuttal requirements. A rebuttal submitted pursuant to this section and § 424.545(b) must:
(1) Be in writing.
(2) Specify the facts or issues about which the provider or supplier disagrees with the deactivation's imposition and/or the effective date, and the reasons for disagreement.
(3) Submit all documentation the provider or supplier wants CMS to consider in its review of the deactivation.
(4) Be submitted in the form of a letter that is signed and dated by the individual supplier (if enrolled as an individual physician or nonphysician practitioner), the authorized official or delegated official (as those terms are defined in 42 CFR 424.502), or a legal representative (as defined in 42 CFR 498.10). If the legal representative is an attorney, the attorney must include a statement that he or she has the authority to represent the provider or supplier; this statement is sufficient to constitute notice of such authority. If the legal representative is not an attorney, the provider or supplier must file with CMS written notice of the appointment of a representative; this notice of appointment must be signed and dated by, as applicable, the individual supplier, the authorized official or delegated official, or a legal representative.
(c) Waiver of rebuttal rights. The provider's or supplier's failure to submit a rebuttal that is both timely under paragraph (a) of this section and fully compliant with all of the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section constitutes a waiver of all rebuttal rights under this section and § 424.545(b).
(d) CMS review. Upon receipt of a timely and compliant deactivation rebuttal, CMS reviews the rebuttal to determine whether the imposition of the deactivation and/or the designated effective date are correct.
(e) Imposition. Nothing in this section or in § 424.545(b) requires CMS to delay the imposition of a deactivation pending the completion of the review described in paragraph (d) of this section.
(f) Initial determination. A determination made under this section is not an initial determination under § 498.3(b) of this chapter and therefore not appealable.
[86 FR 65683, Nov. 19, 2021]
§ 424.547 Deactivation based on ordering, certifying, or referring services and items.
(a)(1) CMS may deactivate a physician's or practitioner's ability to order, certify, or refer the Medicare services and items identified in § 424.507(a) and (b) if the individual:
(i) Is enrolled via the Form CMS-855O application solely to order, certify, or refer Medicare services or items; and
(ii) Has not been listed as the ordering, certifying, or referring individual on a Medicare Part A or B claim received in the previous 12 consecutive months.
(2) For purposes of this section only, the term deactivate means that the physician's or practitioner's ability to order, certify, or refer Medicare services or items has been stopped but can be restored upon the submission of updated information.
(b)(1) For a deactivated physician or practitioner to reactivate an ability to order, certify, or refer Medicare services and items, the individual must recertify that the enrollment information currently on file with Medicare is correct, furnish any missing information as appropriate, and be in compliance with all applicable enrollment requirements in this title.
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) of this section, CMS may, for any reason, require a deactivated physician or practitioner to, as a prerequisite for reactivating the ability to order, certify, or refer, submit a complete Form CMS-855O application.
(c) The effective date of a reactivation of an ability to order, certify, or refer Medicare services and items under this section is the date on which the Medicare contractor received the individual's reactivation submission that was processed to approval.
(d) A physician or practitioner may not order, certify, or refer the Medicare services or items described in § 424.507(a) and (b) while deactivated under this section.
[90 FR 55618, Dec. 2, 2025]
§ 424.550 Prohibitions on the sale or transfer of billing privileges.
(a) General rule. A provider or supplier is prohibited from selling its Medicare billing number or privileges to any individual or entity, or allowing another individual or entity to use its Medicare billing number.
(b) Change of ownership. In the case of a provider undergoing a change of ownership in accordance with part 489, subpart A of this chapter, the current owner and the prospective new owner must complete and submit enrollment applications before completion of the change of ownership. If the current owner fails to complete and submit an enrollment application to report the change, the current owner may be sanctioned or penalized, even after the date of ownership change, in accordance with §§ 424.520, 424.540, and 489.53 of this chapter. If the prospective new owner fails to submit a new enrollment application containing information concerning the new owner within 30 days of the change of ownership, CMS may deactivate the Medicare billing number. If an incomplete enrollment application is submitted, CMS may also deactivate the Medicare billing number based upon material omissions on the submitted enrollment application, or based on preliminary information received or determined by CMS that makes CMS question whether the new owner is ultimately granted a final transference of the provider agreement.
(1) Unless an exception in paragraph (b)(2) of this section applies, if there is a change in majority ownership of a home health agency (HHA) or hospice by sale (including asset sales, stock transfers, mergers, and consolidations) within 36 months after the effective date of the HHA's or hospice's initial enrollment in Medicare or within 36 months after the HHA's or hospice's most recent change in majority ownership, the provider agreement and Medicare billing privileges do not convey to the new owner. The prospective provider/owner of the HHA or hospice must instead do both of the following:
(i) Enroll in the Medicare program as a new (initial) HHA or hospice under the provisions of § 424.510 of this subpart.
(ii) Obtain a State survey or an accreditation from an approved accreditation organization.
(2)(i) The HHA or hospice submitted 2 consecutive years of full cost reports since initial enrollment or the last change in majority ownership, whichever is later. For purposes of the exception in this paragraph (b)(2)(i), low utilization or no utilization cost reports do not qualify as full cost reports.
(ii) An HHA's or hospice's parent company is undergoing an internal corporate restructuring, such as a merger or consolidation.
(iii) The owners of an existing HHA or hospice are changing the HHA's or hospice's existing business structure (for example, from a corporation to a partnership (general or limited); from an LLC to a corporation; from a partnership (general or limited) to an LLC) and the owners remain the same.
(iv) An individual owner of an HHA or hospice dies.
(c) Suppliers not covered by part 489 of this chapter. For those suppliers not covered by part 489 of this chapter, any change in the ownership or control of that supplier must be reported on the enrollment application within 30 days of the change as noted in § 424.540(a)(2). Generally, a change of ownership that also changes the tax identification number requires the completion and submission of a new enrollment application from the new owner.
[71 FR 20776, Apr. 21, 2006, as amended at 74 FR 58134, Nov. 10, 2009; 75 FR 70465, Nov. 17, 2010; 75 FR 76293, Dec. 8, 2010; 86 FR 62421, Nov. 9, 2021; 88 FR 77878, Nov. 13, 2023]
§ 424.551 DMEPOS supplier changes in majority ownership.
(a) Definition. For purposes of this section only, a change in majority ownership occurs when an individual or organization acquires more than a 50 percent direct ownership interest in a DMEPOS supplier during the 36 months following the DMEPOS supplier's initial enrollment into the Medicare program or the 36 months following the DMEPOS supplier's most recent change in majority ownership (including asset sale, stock transfer, merger, and consolidation). This includes an individual or organization that acquires majority ownership in a DMEPOS supplier through the cumulative effect of asset sales, stock transfers, consolidations, or mergers during the 36-month period after Medicare billing privileges are conveyed or the 36-month period following the DMEPOS supplier's most recent change in majority ownership.
(b) General principle. Unless an exception in paragraph (c) of this section applies, if there is a change in majority ownership of a DMEPOS supplier by sale (including asset sales, stock transfers, mergers, and consolidations) within 36 months after the effective date of the DMEPOS supplier's initial enrollment in Medicare or within 36 months after the DMEPOS supplier's most recent change in majority ownership, the Medicare billing privileges do not convey to the new owner. The prospective owner of the DMEPOS supplier must instead do both of the following:
(1) Enroll in the Medicare program as a new DMEPOS supplier under the provisions of § 424.510.
(2) Undergo a survey by, and obtain a new accreditation from, a CMS-approved DMEPOS accrediting organization in accordance with §§ 424.57 and 424.58.
(c) Exceptions. The following situations are exceptions to the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section:
(1) A DMEPOS supplier's parent company is undergoing an internal corporate restructuring, such as a merger or consolidation.
(2) The owners of the existing DMEPOS supplier are changing the DMEPOS supplier's current business structure (for example, from a corporation to a partnership (general or limited); from a limited liability company (LLC) to a corporation; or from a general or limited to an LLC) and the owners remain the same.
(3) An individual owner of the DMEPOS supplier dies.
[90 FR 55618, Dec. 2, 2025]
§ 424.555 Payment liability.
(a) No payment may be made for otherwise Medicare covered items or services furnished to a Medicare beneficiary by suppliers of durable medical equipment, prosthetics, orthotics, and other supplies unless the supplier obtains (and renews, as set forth in section 1834(j) of the Act) Medicare billing privileges.
(b) No payment may be made for otherwise Medicare covered items or services furnished to a Medicare beneficiary by a provider or supplier if the billing privileges of the provider or supplier are deactivated, denied, or revoked, or if the provider or supplier is currently under a stay of enrollment (except as stated in § 424.541(a)(2)(ii)(B)). The Medicare beneficiary has no financial responsibility for expenses, and the provider or supplier must refund on a timely basis to the Medicare beneficiary any amounts collected from the Medicare beneficiary for these otherwise Medicare covered items or services.
(c) If any provider or supplier furnishes an otherwise Medicare covered item or service for which payment may not be made by reason of paragraph (b) of this section, any expense incurred for such otherwise Medicare covered item or service shall be the responsibility of the provider or supplier. The provider or supplier may also be criminally liable for pursuing payments that may not be made by reason of paragraph (b) of this section, in accordance with section 1128B(a)(3) of the Act.
[71 FR 20776, Apr. 21, 2006, as amended at 88 FR 79543, Nov. 16, 2023]
§ 424.565 Overpayment.
A physician or nonphysician practitioner organization, physician or nonphysician practitioner that does not comply with the reporting requirements specified in § 424.516(d)(1)(ii) and (iii) of this subpart is assessed an overpayment back to the date of the final adverse action or change in practice location. Overpayments are processed in accordance with part 405 subpart C of this chapter.
[73 FR 69941, Nov. 19, 2008]
§ 424.570 Moratoria on newly enrolling Medicare providers and suppliers.
(a) Temporary moratoria—(1) General rules. (i) CMS may impose a moratorium on the enrollment of new Medicare providers and suppliers of a particular type or the establishment of new practice locations of a particular type in a particular geographic area.
(ii) CMS will announce the temporary enrollment moratorium in a Federal Register document that includes the rationale for imposition of the temporary enrollment moratorium.
(iii) The temporary moratorium does not apply to any of the following:
(A) Changes in practice location (except if the location is changing from a location outside the moratorium area to a location inside the moratorium area).
(B) Changes in provider or supplier information, such as phone numbers.
(C) Changes in ownership (except changes in ownership of home health agencies that would require an initial enrollment).
(iv) A temporary moratorium does not apply to any enrollment application that has been received by the Medicare contractor prior to the date the moratorium is imposed.
(2) Imposition of a temporary moratoria. CMS may impose the temporary moratorium if—
(i) CMS determines that there is a significant potential for fraud, waste or abuse with respect to a particular provider or supplier type or particular geographic area or both. CMS's determination is based on its review of existing data, and without limitation, identifies a trend that appears to be associated with a high risk of fraud, waste or abuse, such as a—
(A) Highly disproportionate number of providers or suppliers in a category relative to the number of beneficiaries; or
(B) Rapid increase in enrollment applications within a category;
(ii) A State Medicaid program has imposed a moratorium on a group of Medicaid providers or suppliers that are also eligible to enroll in the Medicare program;
(iii) A State has imposed a moratorium on enrollment in a particular geographic area or on a particular provider or supplier type or both; or
(iv) CMS, in consultation the HHS OIG or the Department of Justice or both and with the approval of the CMS Administrator identifies either or both of the following as having a significant potential for fraud, waste or abuse in the Medicare program:
(A) A particular provider or supplier type.
(B) Any particular geographic area.
(b) Duration of moratoria. A moratorium under this section may be imposed for a period of 6 months and, if deemed necessary by CMS, may be extended in 6-month increments. CMS will publish a document in the Federal Register when it extends a moratorium.
(c) Denial of enrollment: Moratoria. A Medicare contractor denies the enrollment application of a provider or supplier if the provider or supplier is subject to a moratorium as specified in paragraph (a) of this section.
(d) Lifting moratoria. CMS will publish a document in the Federal Register when a moratorium is lifted. CMS may lift a temporary moratorium at any time after imposition of the moratorium if one of the following occur:
(1) The President declares an area a disaster under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 5121-5206 (Stafford Act).
(2) Circumstances warranting the imposition of a moratorium have abated or CMS has implemented program safeguards to address the program vulnerability.
(3) The Secretary has declared a public health emergency under section 319 of the Public Health Service Act in the area subject to a temporary moratorium.
(4) In the judgment of the Secretary, the moratorium is no longer needed.
[76 FR 5965, Feb. 2, 2011, as amended at 84 FR 47856, Sept. 10, 2019]
§ 424.575 Rural emergency hospitals.
(a) A rural emergency hospital (as defined in § 485.502 of this chapter) must comply with all applicable provisions in this subpart in order to enroll and maintain enrollment in Medicare.
(b) A provider that was enrolled in Medicare as of December 27, 2020, as a critical access hospital or a hospital (as defined in section 1886(d)(1)(B) of the Social Security Act) with not more than 50 beds located in a county (or equivalent unit of local government) in a rural area (as defined in section 1886(d)(2)(D) of the Social Security Act) (or treated as being located in a rural area pursuant to section 1886(d)(8)(E) of the Social Security Act) converts its existing enrollment to that of a rural emergency hospital (as defined in § 485.502 of this chapter) via a Form CMS-855A change of information application per § 424.516 rather than a Form CMS-855A initial enrollment application.
[87 FR 72293, Nov. 23, 2022]
PART 425 MEDICARE SHARED SAVINGS PROGRAM
Authority: 42 U.S.C. 1302, 1306, 1395hh, and 1395jjj.
Source: 76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, unless otherwise noted.
Subpart A General Provisions
§ 425.10 Basis and scope.
(a) Basis. This part implements section 1899 of the Act by establishing a shared savings program that promotes accountability for a patient population, coordinates items and services under Medicare parts A and B, and encourages investment in infrastructure and redesigned care processes for high quality and efficient services. The regulations under this part must not be construed to affect the payment, coverage, program integrity, and other requirements that apply to providers and suppliers under FFS Medicare, except as permitted under section 1899(f) of the Act.
(b) Scope. This part sets forth the following:
(1) The eligibility requirements for an ACO to participate in the Medicare Shared Savings Program (Shared Savings Program).
(2) Application procedures and provisions of the participation agreement.
(3) Program requirements and beneficiary protections.
(4) The method for assigning Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries to ACOs.
(5) Quality performance standards, reporting requirements, and data sharing.
(6) Payment criteria and methodologies (one-sided model and two-sided models).
(7) Compliance monitoring and sanctions for noncompliance.
(8) Reconsideration review process.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32833, June 9, 2015]
§ 425.20 Definitions.
As used in this part, unless otherwise indicated—
Accountable care organization (ACO) means a legal entity that is recognized and authorized under applicable State, Federal, or Tribal law, is identified by a Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN), and is formed by one or more ACO participants(s) that is(are) defined at § 425.102(a) and may also include any other ACO participants described at § 425.102(b).
ACO participant means an entity identified by a Medicare-enrolled billing TIN through which one or more ACO providers/suppliers bill Medicare, that alone or together with one or more other ACO participants compose an ACO, and that is included on the list of ACO participants that is required under § 425.118.
ACO participant agreement means the written agreement (as required at § 425.116) between the ACO and ACO participant in which the ACO participant agrees to participate in, and comply with, the requirements of the Shared Savings Program.
ACO professional means an individual who is Medicare-enrolled and bills for items and services furnished to Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries under a Medicare billing number assigned to the TIN of an ACO participant in accordance with applicable Medicare regulations and who is either of the following:
(1) A physician legally authorized to practice medicine and surgery by the State in which he or she performs such function or action.
(2) A practitioner who is one of the following:
(i) A physician assistant (as defined at § 410.74(a)(2) of this chapter).
(ii) A nurse practitioner (as defined at § 410.75(b) of this chapter).
(iii) A clinical nurse specialist (as defined at § 410.76(b) of this chapter).
ACO provider/supplier means an individual or entity that meets all of the following:
(1) Is a—
(i) Provider (as defined at § 400.202 of this chapter); or
(ii) Supplier (as defined at § 400.202 of this chapter).
(2) Is enrolled in Medicare.
(3) Bills for items and services furnished to Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries during the agreement period under a Medicare billing number assigned to the TIN of an ACO participant in accordance with applicable Medicare regulations.
(4) Is included on the list of ACO providers/suppliers that is required under § 425.118.
ACO's regional service area means all counties where one or more beneficiaries assigned to the ACO reside.
Agreement period means the term of the participation agreement.
Antitrust Agency means the Department of Justice or Federal Trade Commission.
Assignable beneficiary means a Medicare fee-for-service beneficiary who receives at least one primary care service with a date of service during a specified 12-month assignment window from a Medicare-enrolled physician who is a primary care physician or who has one of the specialty designations included in § 425.402(c). For performance year 2025 and subsequent performance years, a Medicare fee-for-service beneficiary who does not meet this requirement but who meets both of the following criteria will also be considered an assignable beneficiary—
(1) Receives at least one primary care service with a date of service during a specified 24-month expanded window for assignment from a Medicare-enrolled physician who is a primary care physician or who has one of the specialty designations included in § 425.402(c).
(2) Receives at least one primary care service with a date of service during a specified 12-month assignment window from a Medicare-enrolled practitioner who is one of the following:
(i) A physician assistant (as defined at § 410.74(a)(2) of this chapter).
(ii) A nurse practitioner (as defined at § 410.75(b) of this chapter).
(iii) A clinical nurse specialist (as defined at § 410.76(b) of this chapter).
Assignment means the operational process by which CMS determines whether a beneficiary has chosen to receive a sufficient level of the requisite primary care services from ACO professionals so that the ACO may be appropriately designated as exercising basic responsibility for that beneficiary's care during a given benchmark or performance year.
Assignment window means the 12-month period used to assign beneficiaries to an ACO, or to identify assignable beneficiaries, or both.
At-risk beneficiary means, but is not limited to, a beneficiary who—
(1) Has a high risk score on the CMS-HCC risk adjustment model;
(2) Is considered high cost due to having two or more hospitalizations or emergency room visits each year;
(3) Is dually eligible for Medicare and Medicaid;
(4) Has a high utilization pattern;
(5) Has one or more chronic conditions;
(6) Has had a recent diagnosis that is expected to result in increased cost;
(7) Is entitled to Medicare because of disability; or
(8) Is diagnosed with a mental health or substance abuse disorder.
Beneficiary eligible for Medicare CQMs means a beneficiary identified for purposes of reporting Medicare CQMs for ACOs participating in the Medicare Shared Savings Program (Medicare CQMs), who is either of the following:
(1) A Medicare fee-for-service beneficiary (as defined at § 425.20) who -
(i) Meets the criteria for a beneficiary to be assigned to an ACO described at § 425.401(a); and
(ii)(A) For performance year 2024, had at least one claim with a date of service during the measurement period from an ACO professional who is a primary care physician or who has one of the specialty designations included in § 425.402(c), or who is a physician assistant, nurse practitioner, or clinical nurse specialist.
(B) For performance year 2025 and subsequent performance years, had at least one primary care service with a date of service during the applicable performance year from an ACO professional who is a primary care physician or who has one of the specialty designations included in § 425.402(c), or who is a physician assistant, nurse practitioner, or clinical nurse specialist.
(2) A Medicare fee-for-service beneficiary who is assigned to an ACO in accordance with § 425.402(e) because the beneficiary designated an ACO professional participating in an ACO as responsible for coordinating their overall care.
BY stands for benchmark year.
Certified Electronic Health Record Technology (CEHRT) has the same meaning given this term under § 414.1305 of this chapter.
Continuously assigned beneficiary means a beneficiary assigned to the ACO in the current performance year who was either assigned to or received a primary care service from any of the ACO participants during the assignment window for the most recent prior benchmark or performance year.
Covered professional services has the same meaning given these terms under section 1848(k)(3)(A) of the Act.
Critical access hospital (CAH) has the same meaning given this term under § 400.202 of this chapter.
Eligible clinician has the same meaning given this term under § 414.1305 of this chapter.
Eligible professional has the meanings given this term under section 1848(k)(3)(B) of the Act.
Expanded window for assignment means the 24-month period used to assign beneficiaries to an ACO, or to identify assignable beneficiaries, or both that includes the applicable 12-month assignment window and the preceding 12 months.
Experienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives means an ACO that CMS determines meets the criteria in either paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition.
(1) The ACO is the same legal entity as a current or previous ACO that is participating in, or has participated in, a performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiative as defined under this section, or that deferred its entry into a second Shared Savings Program agreement period under a two-sided model under § 425.200(e).
(2) Forty percent or more of the ACO's ACO participants participated in a performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiative, or in an ACO that deferred its entry into a second Shared Savings Program agreement period under a two-sided model under § 425.200(e), in any of the 5 most recent performance years. An ACO participant is considered to have participated in a performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiative if the ACO participant TIN was or will be included in financial reconciliation for one or more performance years under such initiative during any of the 5 most recent performance years.
Federally qualified health center (FQHC) has the same meaning given to this term under § 405.2401(b) of this chapter.
High revenue ACO means an ACO whose total Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service revenue of its ACO participants based on revenue for the most recent calendar year for which 12 months of data are available, is at least 35 percent of the total Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for the ACO's assigned beneficiaries based on expenditures for the most recent calendar year for which 12 months of data are available.
Hospital means a hospital as defined in section 1886(d)(1)(B) of the Act.
Inexperienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives means an ACO that CMS determines meets all of the following:
(1) The ACO is a legal entity that has not participated in any performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiative as defined under this section, and has not deferred its entry into a second Shared Savings Program agreement period under a two-sided model under § 425.200(e).
(2) Less than 40 percent of the ACO's ACO participants participated in a performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiative, or in an ACO that deferred its entry into a second Shared Savings Program agreement period under a two-sided model under § 425.200(e), in each of the 5 most recent performance years. An ACO participant is considered to have participated in a performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiative if the ACO participant TIN was or will be included in financial reconciliation for one or more performance years under such initiative during any of the 5 most recent performance years.
Low revenue ACO means an ACO whose total Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service revenue of its ACO participants based on revenue for the most recent calendar year for which 12 months of data are available, is less than 35 percent of the total Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for the ACO's assigned beneficiaries based on expenditures for the most recent calendar year for which 12 months of data are available.
Marketing materials and activities include, but are not limited to, general audience materials such as brochures, advertisements, outreach events, letters to beneficiaries, Web pages, data sharing opt out letters, mailings, social media, or other activities conducted by or on behalf of the ACO, or by ACO participants, or ACO providers/suppliers participating in the ACO, when used to educate, solicit, notify, or contact Medicare beneficiaries or providers and suppliers regarding the Shared Savings Program. The following beneficiary communications are not marketing materials and activities: Certain informational materials customized or limited to a subset of beneficiaries; materials that do not include information about the ACO, its ACO participants, or its ACO providers/suppliers; materials that cover beneficiary-specific billing and claims issues or other specific individual health related issues; educational information on specific medical conditions (for example, flu shot reminders), written referrals for health care items and services, and materials or activities that do not constitute “marketing” under 45 CFR 164.501 and 164.508(a)(3)(i).
Medicare fee-for-service beneficiary means an individual who is—
(1) Enrolled in the original Medicare fee-for-service program under both parts A and B; and
(2) Not enrolled in any of the following:
(i) A MA plan under part C.
(ii) An eligible organization under section 1876 of the Act.
(iii) A PACE program under section 1894 of the Act.
Medicare Shared Savings Program (Shared Savings Program) means the program, established under section 1899 of the Act and implemented in this part.
Newly assigned beneficiary means a beneficiary that is assigned to the ACO in the current performance year who was neither assigned to nor received a primary care service from any of the ACO participants during the assignment window for the most recent prior benchmark or performance year.
One-sided model means a model under which the ACO may share savings with the Medicare program, if it meets the requirements for doing so, but is not liable for sharing any losses incurred under subpart G of this part.
Participation agreement means the written agreement required under § 425.208(a) between the ACO and CMS that, along with the regulations in this part, govern the ACO's participation in the Shared Savings Program.
Performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiative means, for purposes of this part, an initiative implemented by CMS that requires an ACO to participate under a two-sided model during its agreement period, including the following options and initiatives:
(1) Participation options within the Shared Savings Program as follows:
(i) For performance years beginning prior to January 1, 2023, BASIC track (Levels A through E).
(ii) For performance years beginning January 1, 2023 and in subsequent years, BASIC track (Levels C through E).
(iii) ENHANCED track.
(iv) Track 2.
(2) The Innovation Center ACO models under which an ACO accepts risk for shared losses as follows:
(i) Pioneer ACO Model.
(ii) Next Generation ACO Model.
(iii) Comprehensive ESRD Care Model two-sided risk tracks.
(iv) Track 1+ Model.
(3) Other initiatives involving two-sided risk as may be specified by CMS.
Performance year means the 12-month period beginning on January 1 of each year during the agreement period, unless otherwise specified in § 425.200(c) or noted in the participation agreement.
Physician means a doctor of medicine or osteopathy (as defined in section 1861(r)(1) of the Act).
Physician Quality Reporting System (PQRS) means the quality reporting system established under section 1848(k) of the Act.
Primary care physician means:
(1) For performance years 2012 through 2015, a physician included in an attestation by the ACO as provided under § 425.404 for services furnished in an FQHC or RHC, or a physician who has a primary care specialty designation of internal medicine, general practice, family practice, or geriatric medicine;
(2) For performance years 2016 through 2018, a physician included in an attestation by the ACO as provided under § 425.404 for services furnished in an FQHC or RHC, or a physician who has a primary care specialty designation of internal medicine, general practice, family practice, geriatric medicine, or pediatric medicine; and
(3) For performance year 2019 and subsequent years, a physician who has a primary care specialty designation of internal medicine, general practice, family practice, geriatric medicine, or pediatric medicine.
Primary care services means the set of services identified by the HCPCS and revenue center codes designated under § 425.400(c).
Quality measures means the measures defined by the Secretary, under section 1899 of the Act, to assess the quality of care furnished by an ACO, such as measures of clinical processes and outcomes, patient and, where practicable, caregiver experience of care and utilization.
Re-entering ACO means an ACO that does not meet the definition of a renewing ACO and meets either of the following conditions:
(1) Is the same legal entity as an ACO, as defined in this section, that previously participated in the program and is applying to participate in the program after a break in participation, because it is either—
(i) An ACO whose participation agreement expired without having been renewed; or
(ii) An ACO whose participation agreement was terminated under § 425.218 or § 425.220.
(2) Is a new legal entity that has never participated in the Shared Savings Program and is applying to participate in the program and more than 50 percent of its ACO participants were included on the ACO participant list under § 425.118, of the same ACO in any of the 5 most recent performance years prior to the agreement start date.
Renewing ACO means an ACO that continues its participation in the program for a consecutive agreement period, without a break in participation, because it is either—
(1) An ACO whose participation agreement expired and that immediately enters a new agreement period to continue its participation in the program; or
(2) An ACO that terminated its current participation agreement under § 425.220 and immediately enters a new agreement period to continue its participation in the program.
Reporting period, for purposes of subpart F of this part, means the calendar year from January 1 to December 31.
Rural health clinic (RHC) has the same meaning given to this term under § 405.2401(b) of this chapter.
Shared losses means a portion of the ACO's performance year Medicare fee-for-service Parts A and B expenditures, above the applicable benchmark, it must repay to CMS. An ACO's eligibility for shared losses will be determined for each performance year. For an ACO requesting interim payment, shared losses may result from the interim payment calculation.
Shared savings means a portion of the ACO's performance year Medicare fee-for-service Parts A and B expenditures, below the applicable benchmark, it is eligible to receive payment for from CMS. An ACO's eligibility for shared savings will be determined for each performance year. For an ACO requesting interim payment, shared savings may result from the interim payment system calculation.
Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN) means a Federal taxpayer identification number or employer identification number as defined by the IRS in 26 CFR 301.6109-1.
Two-sided model means a model under which the ACO may share savings with the Medicare program, if it meets the requirements for doing so, and is also liable for sharing any losses incurred under subpart G of this part.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32833, June 9, 2015; 80 FR 71385, Nov. 16, 2015; 81 FR 38013, June 10, 2016; 82 FR 53368, Nov. 15, 2017; 83 FR 60092, Nov. 23, 2018; 83 FR 68062, Dec. 31, 2018; 87 FR 70232, Nov. 18, 2022; 88 FR 79543, Nov. 16, 2023; 90 FR 50014, Nov. 5, 2025]
Subpart B Shared Savings Program Eligibility Requirements
§ 425.100 General.
(a) Under the Shared Savings Program, ACO participants may work together to manage and coordinate care for Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries through an ACO that meets the criteria specified in this part. The ACO must become accountable for the quality, cost, and overall care of the Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries assigned to the ACO.
(b) An ACO is eligible to receive payments for shared savings under subpart G of this part if all of the following conditions are met:
(1) The ACO meets or exceeds the applicable minimum savings rate established under §§ 425.604, 425.605 (except as provided under § 425.605(h)), 425.606, 425.609, or 425.610.
(2) The ACO meets the minimum quality performance standards established under § 425.500 (for performance years or a performance period beginning on or before January 1, 2020), or under the quality performance standard established under § 425.512 (for performance years beginning on or after January 1, 2021).
(3) The ACO otherwise maintains its eligibility to participate in the Shared Savings Program under this part.
(c) ACOs that operate under a two-sided model and meet or exceed a minimum loss rate established under § 425.605, § 425.606, § 425.609 or § 425.610 must share losses with the Medicare program under subpart G of the part.
(d) An ACO is eligible to receive advance investment payments if it meets the criteria under § 425.630(b).
(e) An ACO is eligible to receive prepaid shared savings if it meets the criteria under § 425.640(b).
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32834, June 9, 2015; 83 FR 60092, Nov. 23, 2018; 83 FR 68083, Dec. 31, 2018; 85 FR 85038, Dec. 28, 2020; 87 FR 70232, Nov. 18, 2022; 89 FR 98566, Dec. 9, 2024]
§ 425.102 Eligible providers and suppliers.
(a) The following ACO participants or combinations of ACO participants are eligible to form an ACO that may apply to participate in the Shared Savings Program:
(1) ACO professionals in group practice arrangements.
(2) Networks of individual practices of ACO professionals.
(3) Partnerships or joint venture arrangements between hospitals and ACO professionals.
(4) Hospitals employing ACO professionals.
(5) CAHs that bill under Method II (as described in § 413.70(b)(3) of this chapter).
(6) RHCs.
(7) FQHCs.
(8) Teaching hospitals that have elected under § 415.160 of this subchapter to receive payment on a reasonable cost basis for the direct medical and surgical services of their physicians.
(b) Other ACO participants that are not identified in paragraph (a) of this section are eligible to participate through an ACO formed by one or more of the ACO participants identified in paragraph (a) of this section.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 71386, Nov. 16, 2015]
§ 425.104 Legal entity.
(a) An ACO must be a legal entity, formed under applicable State, Federal, or Tribal law, and authorized to conduct business in each State in which it operates for purposes of the following:
(1) Receiving and distributing shared savings.
(2) Repaying shared losses or other monies determined to be owed to CMS.
(3) Establishing, reporting, and ensuring provider compliance with health care quality criteria, including quality performance standards.
(4) Fulfilling other ACO functions identified in this part.
(b) An ACO formed by two or more ACO participants, each of which is identified by a unique TIN, must be a legal entity separate from any of its ACO participants.
(c) An ACO formed by a single ACO participant may use its existing legal entity and governing body, provided it satisfies the other requirements in §§ 425.104 and 425.106.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32834, June 9, 2015]
§ 425.106 Shared governance.
(a) General rule. (1) An ACO must maintain an identifiable governing body with ultimate authority to execute the functions of an ACO as defined under this part, including but not limited to, the processes defined under § 425.112 to promote evidence-based medicine and patient engagement, to report on quality and cost measures, and to coordinate care.
(2) The governing body of the ACO must satisfy all of the following criteria:
(i) Be the same as the governing body of the legal entity that is the ACO.
(ii) Be separate and unique to the ACO and must not be the same as the governing body of any ACO participant, except as provided in § 425.104(c).
(iii) Satisfy all other requirements of this section.
(b) Responsibilities of the governing body and its members. (1) The governing body must have responsibility for oversight and strategic direction of the ACO, holding ACO management accountable for the ACO's activities as described in this part.
(2) The governing body must have a transparent governing process.
(3) The governing body members must have a fiduciary duty to the ACO, including the duty of loyalty, and must act consistent with that fiduciary duty.
(c) Composition and control of the governing body. (1) The ACO must—
(i) Establish a mechanism for shared governance among the ACO participants or combinations of ACO participants (as identified in § 425.102(a)) that formed the ACO; and
(ii) Provide for meaningful participation in the composition and control of the ACO's governing body for ACO participants or their designated representatives.
(2) The ACO governing body must include a Medicare beneficiary who—
(i) Is served by the ACO;
(ii) Is not an ACO provider/supplier;
(iii) Does not have a conflict of interest with the ACO; and
(iv) Does not have an immediate family member who has a conflict of interest with the ACO.
(3) At least 75 percent control of the ACO's governing body must be held by ACO participants.
(4) The governing body members may serve in a similar or complementary manner for an ACO participant.
(5)(i) In cases in which the composition of the ACO's governing body does not meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the ACO must describe why it seeks to differ from these requirements and how the ACO will provide meaningful representation in ACO governance by Medicare beneficiaries.
(ii) For agreement periods beginning before January 1, 2024, in cases in which the composition of the ACO's governing body does not meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(3) of this section, the ACO must describe why it seeks to differ from these requirements and how the ACO will involve ACO participants in innovative ways in ACO governance.
(d) Conflict of interest. The ACO governing body must have a conflict of interest policy that applies to members of the governing body. The conflict of interest policy must—
(1) Require each member of the governing body to disclose relevant financial interests; and
(2) Provide a procedure to determine whether a conflict of interest exists and set forth a process to address any conflicts that arise.
(3) The conflict of interest policy must address remedial action for members of the governing body that fail to comply with the policy.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32835, June 9, 2015; 88 FR 79544, Nov. 16, 2023]
§ 425.108 Leadership and management.
(a) An ACO must have a leadership and management structure that includes clinical and administrative systems that align with and support the goals of the Shared Savings Program and the aims of better care for individuals, better health for populations, and lower growth in expenditures.
(b) The ACO's operations must be managed by an executive, officer, manager, general partner, or similar party whose appointment and removal are under the control of the ACO's governing body and whose leadership team has demonstrated the ability to influence or direct clinical practice to improve efficiency processes and outcomes.
(c) Clinical management and oversight must be managed by a senior-level medical director. The medical director must be all of the following:
(1) A board-certified physician.
(2) Licensed in a State in which the ACO operates.
(3) Physically present on a regular basis at any clinic, office or other location of the ACO, an ACO participant, or an ACO provider/supplier.
(d) Each ACO participant and each ACO provider/supplier must demonstrate a meaningful commitment to the mission of the ACO to ensure the ACO's likely success.
(1) Meaningful commitment may include, for example, a sufficient financial or human investment (for example, time and effort) in the ongoing operations of the ACO such that the potential loss or recoupment of the investment is likely to motivate the ACO participant and ACO provider/supplier to achieve the ACO's mission under the Shared Savings Program.
(2) A meaningful commitment can be shown when an ACO participant or ACO provider/supplier agrees to comply with and implement the ACO's processes required by § 425.112 and is held accountable for meeting the ACO's performance standards for each required process.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32835, June 9, 2015]
§ 425.110 Number of ACO professionals and beneficiaries.
(a)(1) The ACO must include primary care ACO professionals that are sufficient for the number of Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries assigned to the ACO under subpart E of this part. The ACO must have at least 5,000 assigned beneficiaries.
(2) For agreement periods beginning before January 1, 2027, CMS deems an ACO to have initially satisfied the requirement to have at least 5,000 assigned beneficiaries as specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section if 5,000 or more beneficiaries are historically assigned to the ACO participants in each of the 3 benchmark years, as calculated using the assignment methodology set forth in subpart E of this part. In the case of the third benchmark year, CMS uses the most recent data available to estimate the number of assigned beneficiaries.
(3) For agreement periods beginning on or after January 1, 2027, CMS determines whether an ACO has 5,000 or more beneficiaries historically assigned to the ACO participants in each of the 3 benchmark years, as calculated using the assignment methodology set forth in subpart E of this part. In the case of the third benchmark year, CMS uses the most recent data available to estimate the number of assigned beneficiaries.
(i) CMS deems an ACO to have initially satisfied the requirement to have at least 5,000 assigned beneficiaries as specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section if 5,000 or more beneficiaries are historically assigned to the ACO participants in the third benchmark year.
(ii) If an ACO has fewer than 5,000 assigned beneficiaries in either the first benchmark year, the second benchmark year, or both, the ACO may only participate under the BASIC track in accordance with § 425.600(h)(3).
(b) If at any time during the performance year, an ACO's assigned population falls below 5,000, the ACO may be subject to the actions described in §§ 425.216 and 425.218.
(1) While under a CAP, the ACO remains eligible for shared savings and liable for shared losses.
(2) For performance years starting before January 1, 2025, if the ACO's assigned population is not at least 5,000 by the end of the performance year specified by CMS in its request for a corrective action plan (CAP), CMS terminates the participation agreement and the ACO is not eligible to share in savings for that performance year.
(3) In determining financial performance for an ACO with fewer than 5,000 assigned beneficiaries, the MSR/MLR is calculated as follows:
(i) For ACOs with a variable MSR and MLR (if applicable), the MSR and MLR (if applicable) are set at a level consistent with the number of assigned beneficiaries.
(ii) For performance years starting before July 1, 2019, for ACOs with a fixed MSR/MLR, the MSR/MLR remains fixed at the level consistent with the choice of MSR and MLR that the ACO made at the start of the agreement period.
(iii) For performance years starting on July 1, 2019 and in subsequent years, for ACOs that selected a fixed MSR/MLR at the start of the agreement period or prior to entering a two-sided model during their agreement period, the MSR/MLR is calculated as follows:
(A) The MSR/MLR is set at a level based on the number of beneficiaries assigned to the ACO.
(1) The MSR is the same as the MSR that would apply in a one-sided model under § 425.604(b) (for Track 2 ACOs) or § 425.605(b)(1) (for BASIC track and ENHANCED track ACOs) and is based on the number of assigned beneficiaries.
(2) The MLR is equal to the negative MSR.
(B) The MSR and MLR revert to the fixed level previously selected by the ACO for any subsequent performance year in the agreement period in which the ACO's assigned beneficiary population is 5,000 or more.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32835, June 9, 2015; 81 FR 80559, Nov. 15, 2016; 83 FR 68063, Dec. 31, 2018; 89 FR 98566, Dec. 9, 2024; 90 FR 50015, Nov. 5, 2025]
§ 425.112 Required processes and patient-centeredness criteria.
(a) General. (1) An ACO must—
(i) Promote evidence-based medicine and beneficiary engagement, internally report on quality and cost metrics, and coordinate care;
(ii) Adopt a focus on patient centeredness that is promoted by the governing body and integrated into practice by leadership and management working with the organization's health care teams; and
(iii) Have defined processes to fulfill these requirements.
(2) An ACO must have a qualified healthcare professional responsible for the ACO's quality assurance and improvement program, which must include the defined processes included in paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) of this section.
(3) For each process specified in paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) of this section, the ACO must—
(i) Require ACO participants and ACO providers/suppliers to comply with and implement each process (and subelement thereof), including the remedial processes and penalties (including the potential for expulsion) applicable to ACO participants and ACO providers/suppliers for failure to comply with and implement the required process; and
(ii) Employ its internal assessments of cost and quality of care to improve continuously the ACO's care practices.
(b) Required processes. The ACO must define, establish, implement, evaluate, and periodically update processes to accomplish the following:
(1) Promote evidence-based medicine. These processes must cover diagnoses with significant potential for the ACO to achieve quality improvements taking into account the circumstances of individual beneficiaries.
(2) Promote patient engagement. These processes must address the following areas:
(i) Compliance with patient experience of care survey requirements in § 425.500 or § 425.510, as applicable.
(ii) Compliance with beneficiary representative requirements in § 425.106.
(iii) A process for evaluating the health needs of the ACO's population, including consideration of diversity in its patient populations, and a plan to address the needs of its population.
(A) In its plan to address the needs of its population, the ACO must describe how it intends to partner with community stakeholders to improve the health of its population.
(B) An ACO that has a stakeholder organization serving on its governing body will be deemed to have satisfied the requirement to partner with community stakeholders.
(iv) Communication of clinical knowledge/evidence-based medicine to beneficiaries in a way that is understandable to them.
(v) Beneficiary engagement and shared decision-making that takes into account the beneficiaries' unique needs, preferences, values, and priorities;
(vi) Written standards in place for beneficiary access and communication, and a process in place for beneficiaries to access their medical record.
(3) Develop an infrastructure for its ACO participants and ACO providers/suppliers to internally report on quality and cost metrics that enables the ACO to monitor, provide feedback, and evaluate its ACO participants and ACO provider(s)/supplier(s) performance and to use these results to improve care over time.
(4) Coordinate care across and among primary care physicians, specialists, and acute and post-acute providers and suppliers. The ACO must—
(i) Define its methods and processes established to coordinate care throughout an episode of care and during its transitions, such as discharge from a hospital or transfer of care from a primary care physician to a specialist (both inside and outside the ACO); and
(ii) Have a written plan to:
(A) Implement an individualized care program that promotes improved outcomes for, at a minimum, the ACO's high-risk and multiple chronic condition patients.
(B) Identify additional target populations that would benefit from individualized care plans. Individualized care plans must take into account the community resources available to the individual.
(C) Encourage and promote use of enabling technologies for improving care coordination for beneficiaries. Enabling technologies may include one or more of the following:
(1) Electronic health records and other health IT tools.
(2) Telehealth services, including remote patient monitoring.
(3) Electronic exchange of health information.
(4) Other electronic tools to engage beneficiaries in their care.
(D) Partner with long-term and post-acute care providers, both inside and outside the ACO, to improve care coordination for its assigned beneficiaries.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32835, June 9, 2015; 82 FR 53368, Nov. 15, 2017; 85 FR 85038, Dec. 28, 2020]
§ 425.114 Participation in other shared savings initiatives.
(a) ACOs may not participate in the Shared Savings Program if they include an ACO participant that participates in the independence at home medical practice pilot program under section 1866E of the Act, a model tested or expanded under section 1115A of the Act that involves shared savings, or any other Medicare initiative that involves shared savings.
(b) CMS will review and deny an ACO's application if any ACO participants are participating in another Medicare initiative that involves shared savings payments.
(c) CMS will determine an appropriate method to ensure no duplication in payments for beneficiaries assigned to other shared savings programs or initiatives, including initiatives involving dually eligible beneficiaries, when such other shared savings programs have an assignment methodology that is different from the Shared Savings Program.
§ 425.116 Agreements with ACO participants and ACO providers/suppliers.
(a) ACO participant agreements. For performance year 2017 and subsequent performance years, the ACO must have an ACO participant agreement with each ACO participant that complies with the following criteria:
(1) The only parties to the agreement are the ACO and the ACO participant.
(2) The agreement must be signed on behalf of the ACO and the ACO participant by individuals who are authorized to bind the ACO and the ACO participant, respectively.
(3) The agreement must expressly require the ACO participant to agree, and to ensure that each ACO provider/supplier billing through the TIN of the ACO participant agrees, to participate in the Shared Savings Program and to comply with the requirements of the Shared Savings Program and all other applicable laws and regulations (including, but not limited to, those specified at § 425.208(b)).
(4) The agreement must set forth the ACO participant's rights and obligations in, and representation by, the ACO, including without limitation, the quality reporting requirements set forth in subpart F of this part, the beneficiary notification requirements set forth at § 425.312, and how participation in the Shared Savings Program affects the ability of the ACO participant and its ACO providers/suppliers to participate in other Medicare demonstration projects or programs that involve shared savings.
(5) The agreement must describe how the opportunity to receive shared savings or other financial arrangements will encourage the ACO participant to adhere to the quality assurance and improvement program and evidence-based medicine guidelines established by the ACO.
(6) The agreement must require the ACO participant to update its enrollment information, including the addition and deletion of ACO professionals and ACO providers/suppliers billing through the TIN of the ACO participant, on a timely basis in accordance with Medicare program requirements and to notify the ACO of any such changes within 30 days after the change.
(7) The agreement must permit the ACO to take remedial action against the ACO participant, and must require the ACO participant to take remedial action against its ACO providers/suppliers, including imposition of a corrective action plan, denial of incentive payments, and termination of the ACO participant agreement, to address noncompliance with the requirements of the Shared Savings Program and other program integrity issues, including those identified by CMS.
(8) The agreement must be for a term of at least 1 performance year and must articulate potential consequences for early termination from the ACO.
(9) The agreement must require completion of a close-out process upon termination or expiration of the agreement that requires the ACO participant to furnish all data necessary to complete the annual assessment of the ACO's quality of care and addresses other relevant matters.
(b) Agreements with ACO providers/suppliers. ACOs have the option of contracting directly with its ACO providers/suppliers regarding items and services furnished to beneficiaries aligned to the ACO. For performance year 2017 and subsequent performance years, an ACO's agreement with an ACO provider/supplier regarding such items and services must satisfy the following criteria:
(1) The only parties to the agreement are the ACO and the ACO provider/supplier.
(2) The agreement must be signed by the ACO provider/supplier and by an individual who is authorized to bind the ACO.
(3) The agreement must expressly require the ACO provider/supplier to agree to participate in the Shared Savings Program and to comply with the requirements of the Shared Savings Program and all other applicable laws and regulations (including, but not limited to, those specified at § 425.208(b)).
(4) The agreement must set forth the ACO provider's/supplier's rights and obligations in, and representation by, the ACO, including without limitation, the quality reporting requirements set forth in subpart F of this part, the beneficiary notification requirements set forth at § 425.312, and how participation in the Shared Savings Program affects the ability of the ACO provider/supplier to participate in other Medicare demonstration projects or programs that involve shared savings.
(5) The agreement must describe how the opportunity to receive shared savings or other financial arrangements will encourage the ACO provider/supplier to adhere to the quality assurance and improvement program and evidence-based medicine guidelines established by the ACO.
(6) The agreement must require the ACO provider/supplier to—
(i) Update its enrollment information on a timely basis in accordance with Medicare program requirements; and
(ii) Notify the ACO of any such changes within 30 days after the change.
(7) The agreement must permit the ACO to take remedial action including the following against the ACO provider/supplier to address noncompliance with the requirements of the Shared Savings Program and other program integrity issues, including those identified by CMS:
(i) Imposition of a corrective action plan.
(ii) Denial of incentive payments.
(iii) Termination of the ACO participant agreement.
(c) Submission of agreements. The ACO must submit an executed ACO participant agreement for each ACO participant that it requests to add to its list of ACO participants in accordance with § 425.118. The agreements may be submitted in the form and manner set forth in § 425.204(c)(6) or as otherwise specified by CMS.
[80 FR 32835, June 9, 2015; as amended at 86 FR 65683, Nov. 19, 2021]
§ 425.118 Required reporting of ACO participants and ACO providers/suppliers.
(a) List requirements. (1) The ACO must maintain, update, and submit to CMS an accurate and complete list identifying each ACO participant (including its Medicare-enrolled TIN) and each ACO provider/supplier (including its NPI or other identifier) in accordance with this section.
(2) Before the start of an agreement period, before each performance year thereafter, and at such other times as specified by CMS, the ACO must submit to CMS an ACO participant list and an ACO provider/supplier list. The ACO may request consideration of claims billed under merged and acquired Medicare-enrolled TINs in accordance with the process set forth at § 425.204(g).
(3) The ACO must certify the submitted lists in accordance with § 425.302(a)(2).
(4) All Medicare enrolled individuals and entities that have reassigned their right to receive Medicare payment to the TIN of the ACO participant must be included on the ACO provider/supplier list and must agree to participate in the ACO and comply with the requirements of the Shared Savings Program before the ACO submits the ACO participant list and the ACO provider/supplier list.
(b) Changes to the ACO participant list—(1) Additions. (i) An ACO must submit to CMS a request to add an entity and its Medicare enrolled TIN to its ACO participant list. This request must be submitted at such time and in the form and manner specified by CMS.
(ii) If CMS approves the request, the entity and its Medicare enrolled TIN is added to the ACO participant list effective January 1 of the following performance year.
(iii) CMS may deny the request on the basis that the entity is not eligible to be an ACO participant or on the basis of the results of the screening performed under § 425.305(a).
(2) Deletions. (i) An ACO must notify CMS no later than 30 days after the termination of an ACO participant agreement. Such notice must be submitted in the form and manner specified by CMS and must include the termination date of the ACO participant agreement.
(ii) The entity is deleted from the ACO participant list as of the termination date of the ACO participant agreement.
(3) Change of ownership for ACO participant. No later than 30 days after an ACO participant has undergone a change of ownership that has resulted in a change to its Medicare enrolled TIN, whereby the surviving Medicare enrolled TIN has no Medicare billing claims history, the ACO must submit a change request to CMS.
(i) The change request and supporting documentation must be submitted in the form and manner specified by CMS.
(ii)(A) CMS has sole discretion to approve the change request.
(B) If CMS approves the change request, the ACO participant TIN is updated in the ACO participant list in the form and manner specified by CMS.
(4) Adjustments. (i) CMS annually adjusts an ACO's assignment, historical benchmark, the quality reporting sample, and the obligation of the ACO to report on behalf of eligible professionals that bill under the TIN of an ACO participant for certain CMS quality initiatives to reflect the addition or deletion of entities from the list of ACO participants that is submitted to CMS before the start of a performance year in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.
(ii) Absent unusual circumstances, CMS does not make adjustments during the performance year to the ACO's assignment, historical benchmark, performance year financial calculations, the quality reporting sample, or the obligation of the ACO to report on behalf of eligible professionals that bill under the TIN of an ACO participant for certain CMS quality initiatives to reflect the addition or deletion of entities from the ACO participant list that become effective during the performance year. CMS has sole discretion to determine whether unusual circumstances exist that would warrant such adjustments.
(iii) In alignment with changes approved under paragraph (b)(3) of this section, CMS adjusts the ACO's assignment, performance year financial calculations, and the requirement that the ACO submit quality data under § 425.508 and § 425.510 on behalf of eligible professionals that bill under the TIN of an ACO participant. When processed during applicable Quality Payment Program snapshot dates for the relevant Performance Period, the adjustment includes the surviving Medicare enrolled TIN with no Medicare billing claims history on the ACO participant list as the change becomes effective during the performance year.
(c) Changes to the ACO provider/supplier list—(1) Additions. (i) An ACO must notify CMS within 30 days after an individual or entity becomes a Medicare-enrolled provider or supplier that bills for items and services it furnishes to Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries under a billing number assigned to the TIN of an ACO participant. The notice must be submitted in the form and manner specified by CMS.
(ii) If the ACO timely submits notice to CMS, the addition of an individual or entity to the ACO provider/supplier list is effective on the date specified in the notice furnished to CMS, but no earlier than 30 days before the date of the notice. If the ACO fails to submit timely notice to CMS, the addition of an individual or entity to the ACO provider/supplier list is effective on the date of the notice.
(2) Deletions. (i) An ACO must notify CMS no later than 30 days after an individual or entity ceases to be a Medicare-enrolled provider or supplier that bills for items and services it furnishes to Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries under a billing number assigned to the TIN of an ACO participant. The notice must be submitted in the form and manner specified by CMS.
(ii) The deletion of an ACO provider/supplier from the ACO provider/supplier list is effective on the date the individual or entity ceased to be a Medicare-enrolled provider or supplier that bills for items and services it furnishes to Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries under a billing number assigned to the TIN of an ACO participant.
(d) Update of Medicare enrollment information. The ACO must ensure that all changes to enrollment information for ACO participants and ACO providers/suppliers, including changes to reassignment of the right to receive Medicare payment, are reported to CMS consistent with § 424.516.
[80 FR 32836, June 9, 2015, as amended at 83 FR 68063, Dec. 31, 2018; 90 FR 50015, Nov. 5, 2025]
Subpart C Application Procedures and Participation Agreement
§ 425.200 Participation agreement with CMS.
(a) General. In order to participate in the Shared Savings Program, an ACO must enter into a participation agreement with CMS for a period of not less than the number of years specified in this section.
(b) Agreement period. (1) For 2012. For applications that are approved to participate in the Shared Savings Program for 2012, the start date for the participation agreement will be one of the following:
(i) April 1, 2012 (term of the participation agreement is 3 years and 9 months).
(ii) July 1, 2012 (term of the participation agreement is 3 years and 6 months).
(2) For 2013 and through 2016.
(i) The start date is January 1 of that year; and
(ii) The term of the participation agreement is 3 years unless all of the following conditions are met to extend the participation agreement by 6 months:
(A) The ACO entered an agreement period starting on January 1, 2016.
(B) The ACO elects to extend its agreement period until June 30, 2019.
(1) The ACO's election to extend its agreement period is made in the form and manner and according to the timeframe established by CMS; and
(2) An ACO executive who has the authority to legally bind the ACO must certify the election described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B) of this section.
(3) For 2017 and 2018.
(i) The start date is January 1 of that year; and
(ii) The term of the participation agreement is 3 years, except as follows:
(A) For an ACO whose first agreement period in Track 1 began in 2014 or 2015, in which case the term of the ACO's initial agreement period under Track 1 (as described under § 425.604) may be extended, at the ACO's option, for an additional year for a total of 4 performance years if the conditions specified in paragraph (e) of this section are met.
(B) For an ACO whose agreement period started on January 1, 2018, the term of the participation agreement is extended by 12 months if both of the following conditions are met:
(1) The ACO elects to extend the participation agreement for a fourth performance year until December 31, 2021.
(2) The ACO's election to extend its agreement period is made in the form and manner and by a deadline established by CMS.
(4) For 2019. (i) The start date is January 1, 2019, and the term of the participation agreement is 3 years for ACOs whose first agreement period began in 2015 and who deferred renewal of their participation agreement under paragraph (e) of this section; or
(ii) The start date is July 1, 2019, and the term of the participation agreement is 5 years and 6 months.
(5) For 2020 and subsequent years. (i) The start date is January 1 of that year; and
(ii) The term of the participation agreement is 5 years.
(c) Performance year. The ACO's performance year under the participation agreement is the 12 month period beginning on January 1 of each year during the term of the participation agreement unless otherwise noted in its participation agreement, and except as follows:
(1) For an ACO with a start date of April 1, 2012, or July 1, 2012, the ACO's first performance year is defined as 21 months or 18 months, respectively.
(2) For an ACO that entered a first or second agreement period with a start date of January 1, 2016, and that elects to extend its agreement period by a 6-month period under paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, the ACO's fourth performance year is the 6-month period between January 1, 2019, and June 30, 2019.
(3) For an ACO that entered an agreement period with a start date of July 1, 2019, the ACO's first performance year of the agreement period is defined as the 6-month period between July 1, 2019, and December 31, 2019.
(d) Submission of measures. For each performance year of the agreement period, ACOs must submit measures in the form and manner required by CMS according to § 425.500(c) or § 425.510, as applicable, and as applicable according to §§ 425.608 and 425.609.
(e) Optional fourth year. (1) To qualify for a fourth performance year as described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, the ACO must meet all of the following conditions:
(i) The ACO's first agreement period in the Shared Savings Program under Track 1 began in 2014 or 2015.
(ii) Is currently participating in its first agreement period under Track 1.
(iii) Has requested renewal of its participation agreement in accordance with § 425.224.
(iv) Has selected a two-sided model (as described under § 425.606 or § 425.610 of this part) in its renewal request.
(v) Has requested an extension of its current agreement period and a 1-year deferral of the start of its second agreement period in a form and manner specified by CMS.
(vi) CMS approves the ACO's renewal, extension, and deferral requests.
(2) An ACO that is approved for renewal, extension, and deferral that terminates its participation agreement before the start of the first performance year of the second agreement period is—
(i) Considered to have terminated its participation agreement for the second agreement period under § 425.220; and
(ii) Not eligible to participate in the Shared Savings Program again until after the date on which the term of that second agreement period would have expired if the ACO had not terminated its participation, consistent with § 425.222.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32837, June 9, 2015; 81 FR 38013, June 10, 2016; 83 FR 60092, Nov. 23, 2018; 83 FR 68063, Dec. 31, 2018; 85 FR 27625, May 8, 2020; 85 FR 85038, Dec. 28, 2020]
§ 425.202 Application procedures.
(a) General rules. (1) In order to obtain a determination regarding whether it meets the requirements to participate in the Shared Savings Program, a prospective ACO must submit a complete application in the form and manner required by CMS by the deadline established by CMS.
(2) An ACO executive who has the authority to legally bind the ACO must certify to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief that the information contained in the application is accurate, complete, and truthful.
(3) An ACO that seeks to participate in the Shared Savings Program must agree that CMS can share a copy of their application with the Antitrust Agencies.
(b) Condensed application form. For determining eligibility for agreement periods beginning before July 1, 2019: (1) PGP demonstration sites applying to participate in the Shared Savings Program will have an opportunity to complete a condensed application form.
(2) A Pioneer ACO may use a condensed application form to apply for participation in the Shared Savings Program if it satisfies all of the following criteria:
(i) The applicant is the same legal entity as the Pioneer ACO.
(ii) The applicant's ACO participant list does not contain any ACO participant TINs that did not appear on the “Confirmed Annual TIN/NPI List” (as defined in the Pioneer ACO Model Innovation Agreement with CMS) for the applicant ACO's last full performance year in the Pioneer ACO Model.
(iii) The applicant is not applying to participate in the one-sided model.
(c) Application review. CMS reviews applications in accordance with § 425.206.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32837, June 9, 2015; 83 FR 68063, Dec. 31, 2018; 89 FR 98566, Dec. 9, 2024]
§ 425.204 Content of the application.
(a) Accountability for beneficiaries. As part of its application and participation agreement, the ACO must certify that the ACO, its ACO participants, and its ACO providers/suppliers have agreed to become accountable for the quality, cost, and overall care of the Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries assigned to the ACO.
(b) Prior participation. Upon request by CMS during the application cycle, the ACO must submit information regarding prior participation in the Medicare Shared Savings Program by the ACO, its ACO participants, or its ACO providers/suppliers, including such information as may be necessary for CMS to determine whether to approve an ACO's application in accordance with § 425.224(b).
(2) The ACO must specify whether the related participation agreement is currently active or has been terminated. If it has been terminated, the ACO must specify whether the termination was voluntary or involuntary.
(3) If the ACO, ACO participant, or ACO provider/supplier was previously terminated from the Shared Savings Program, the ACO must identify the cause of termination and what safeguards are now in place to enable the ACO, ACO participant, or ACO provider/supplier to participate in the program for the full term of the participation agreement.
(c) Eligibility. (1) As part of its application, an ACO must certify that the ACO satisfies the requirements set forth in this part. Upon request, the ACO must submit the following supporting materials to demonstrate that it satisfies the requirements set forth in this part:
(i) Documents (for example, ACO participant agreements, agreements with ACO providers/suppliers, employment contracts, and operating policies) sufficient to describe the ACO participants' and ACO providers'/suppliers' rights and obligations in and representation by the ACO, and how the opportunity to receive shared savings or other financial arrangements will encourage ACO participants and ACO providers/suppliers to adhere to the quality assurance and improvement program and evidence-based clinical guidelines.
(ii) A description, or documents sufficient to describe, how the ACO will implement the required processes and patient-centeredness criteria under § 425.112, including descriptions of the remedial processes and penalties (including the potential for expulsion) that will apply if an ACO participant or an ACO provider/supplier fails to comply with and implement these processes.
(iii) Materials documenting the ACO's organization and management structure, including an organizational chart, a list of committees (including names of committee members) and their structures, and job descriptions for senior administrative and clinical leaders specifically noted in § 425.108 and § 425.112(a)(2).
(iv) Evidence that the governing body—
(A) Is an identifiable body;
(B) Represents a mechanism for shared governance for ACO participants;
(C) Is composed of representatives of its ACO participants; and
(D) Is at least 75 percent controlled by its ACO participants.
(v) Evidence that the governing body includes a Medicare beneficiary representative(s) served by the ACO who does not have a conflict of interest with the ACO, and who has no immediate family member with conflict of interest with the ACO.
(vi) A copy of the ACO's compliance plan or documentation describing the plan that will be put in place at the time the participation agreement with CMS becomes effective.
(2) Upon request, the ACO must provide copies of all documents effectuating the ACO's formation and operation, including, without limitation the following:
(i) Charters.
(ii) By-laws.
(iii) Articles of incorporation.
(iv) Partnership agreement.
(v) Joint venture agreement.
(vi) Management or asset purchase agreements.
(vii) Financial statements and records.
(viii) Resumes and other documentation required for leaders of the ACO.
(3) If an ACO requests an exception to the governing body requirement in § 425.106(c)(2) or (c)(3), the ACO must describe—
(i) Why it seeks to differ from the requirement; and
(ii) If seeking an exception to § 425.106(c)(2), how the ACO will provide meaningful representation in ACO governance by Medicare beneficiaries.
(iii) If seeking an exception to the requirement at § 425.106(c)(3), for agreement periods beginning before January 1, 2024, why the ACO is unable to meet the requirement and how it will involve ACO participants in innovative ways in ACO governance.
(4)(i) An ACO must certify that it is recognized as a legal entity in the State, Federal or Tribal area in which it was established and that it is authorized to conduct business in each State or Tribal area in which it operates.
(ii) An ACO formed among two or more ACO participants must provide evidence in its application that it is a legal entity separate from any of the ACO participants.
(5) The ACO must provide CMS with such information regarding its ACO participants and its ACO providers/suppliers participating in the program as is necessary to implement the program.
(i) The ACO must submit a list of all ACO participants and ACO providers/suppliers in accordance with § 425.118.
(ii) ACOs must also submit any other specific identifying information as required by CMS in the application process.
(iii) The ACO must certify the accuracy of this information.
(6) Upon request by CMS during the application cycle or at any point during an agreement period, the ACO must submit documents demonstrating that its ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, and other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to ACO activities are required to comply with the requirements of the Shared Savings Program. Upon such a request, the evidence to be submitted must include, without limitation, sample or form agreements and, in the case of ACO participant agreements, the first and signature page(s) of each executed ACO participant agreement. CMS may request all pages of an executed ACO participant agreement to confirm that it conforms to the sample form agreement submitted by the ACO. The ACO must certify that all of its ACO participant agreements comply with the requirements of this part.
(d) Distribution of savings. As part of its application to participate in the Shared Savings Program, an ACO must certify it has a mechanism and plan to receive and use payments for shared savings, including criteria for distributing shared savings among its ACO participants and ACO providers/suppliers.
(e) Selection of track and option for interim payment calculation. (1) As part of its application, an ACO must specify the Track for which it is applying (as described in § 425.600).
(2)(i) An ACO applying to participate in the program with a start date of April 1, 2012 or July 1, 2012, has the option of requesting an interim payment calculation based on the financial performance for its first 12 months of program participation and quality performance for CY 2012.
(ii) An ACO must request interim payment calculation as part of its application to participate in the Shared Savings Program.
(f) Assurance of ability to repay. (1) An ACO must have the ability to repay all shared losses for which it may be liable under a two-sided model and any prepaid shared savings determined to be owed.
(2) An ACO that will participate in a two-sided model must establish one or more of the following repayment mechanisms in an amount and by a deadline specified by CMS in accordance with this section:
(i) An escrow account with an insured institution.
(ii) A surety bond from a company included on the U.S. Department of Treasury's List of Certified Companies.
(iii) A line of credit at an insured institution (as evidenced by a letter of credit that the Medicare program can draw upon).
(3) An ACO that will participate under a two-sided model of the Shared Savings Program must submit for CMS approval documentation that it is capable of repaying shared losses that it may incur during its agreement period, including details supporting the adequacy of the repayment mechanism. If the ACO will receive prepaid shared savings, the repayment mechanism must also support repayment of prepaid shared savings in accordance with § 425.640.
(i) An ACO participating in Track 2 must demonstrate the adequacy of its repayment mechanism prior to any change in the terms and type of the repayment mechanism, and at such other times as requested by CMS.
(ii) An ACO entering an agreement period in Levels C, D, or E of the BASIC track or the ENHANCED track must demonstrate the adequacy of its repayment mechanism prior to the start of its agreement period, prior to any change in the terms and type of the repayment mechanism, and at such other times as requested by CMS.
(iii) An ACO entering an agreement period in Level A or Level B of the BASIC track must demonstrate the adequacy of its repayment mechanism prior to the start of any performance year in which it either elects to participate in, or is automatically transitioned to, a two-sided model, Level C, Level D, or Level E of the BASIC track, prior to any change in the terms and type of the repayment mechanism, and at such other times as requested by CMS.
(iv) An ACO that has submitted a request to renew its participation agreement must submit as part of the renewal request documentation demonstrating the adequacy of the repayment mechanism that could be used to repay any shared losses incurred and prepaid shared savings determined to be owed for performance years in the next agreement period. The repayment mechanism applicable to the new agreement period may be the same repayment mechanism currently used by the ACO, provided that the ACO submits documentation establishing that the duration of the existing repayment mechanism has been revised to comply with paragraph (f)(6)(ii) of this section, and the amount of the repayment mechanism complies with paragraph (f)(4) of this section.
(v) As part of its application, a re-entering ACO must submit documentation demonstrating the adequacy of the repayment mechanism that could be used to repay any shared losses incurred for performance years in the next agreement period. The repayment mechanism applicable to the new agreement period may be the same repayment mechanism currently used by the re-entering ACO, provided that the ACO is the same legal entity as an ACO that previously participated in the program, and the ACO submits documentation establishing that the duration of the existing repayment mechanism has been revised to comply with paragraph (f)(6)(ii) of this section and the amount of the repayment mechanism complies with paragraph (f)(4) of this section.
(4) CMS calculates the amount of the repayment mechanism as follows:
(i) For a Track 2 ACO, the repayment mechanism amount must be equal to at least 1 percent of the total per capita Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for the ACO's assigned beneficiaries, based on expenditures used to calculate the benchmark for the applicable agreement period, as estimated by CMS at the time of application.
(ii) For a BASIC track or ENHANCED track ACO, the repayment mechanism amount must be equal to the lesser of the following:
(A) One-half percent of the total per capita Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for the ACO's assigned beneficiaries, based on expenditures and the number of assigned beneficiaries for the most recent calendar year for which 12 months of data are available.
(B) One percent of the total Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service revenue of its ACO participants, based on revenue for the most recent calendar year for which 12 months of data are available, and based on the ACO's number of assigned beneficiaries for the most recent calendar year for which 12 months of data are available.
(iii) CMS recalculates the ACO's repayment mechanism amount for the second and each subsequent performance year in the agreement period in accordance with paragraph (f)(4)(ii) of this section based on the certified ACO participant list for the relevant performance year, except that the number of assigned beneficiaries used in the calculations is the number of beneficiaries assigned to the ACO at the beginning of the relevant performance year under § 425.400(a)(2)(i) (for ACOs under preliminary prospective assignment with retrospective reconciliation) or § 425.400(a)(3)(i) (for ACOs under prospective assignment).
(A) If the recalculated repayment mechanism amount exceeds the existing repayment mechanism amount by at least $1,000,000, CMS notifies the ACO in writing that the amount of its repayment mechanism must be increased to the recalculated repayment mechanism amount.
(B) Within 90 days after receipt of such written notice from CMS, the ACO must submit for CMS approval documentation that the amount of its repayment mechanism has been increased to the amount specified by CMS.
(iv)(A) In the case of an ACO that has submitted a request to enter a new participation agreement for an agreement period starting on or after January 1, 2022 and is a renewing ACO or a re-entering ACO that is the same legal entity as an ACO that previously participated in the program: If the ACO wishes to use its existing repayment mechanism to establish its ability to repay any shared losses incurred and prepaid shared savings determined to be owed for performance years in the new agreement period, the amount of the repayment mechanism must be equal to at least the amount calculated by CMS in accordance with paragraph (f)(4)(ii) of this section.
(B) Under the following circumstances, an ACO that renewed its participation agreement for an agreement period beginning on July 1, 2019, or January 1, 2020, may elect to decrease the amount of its repayment mechanism.
(1) The ACO elected to continue to use its existing repayment mechanism for the agreement period beginning on July 1, 2019, or January 1, 2020, and the amount of that repayment mechanism was greater than the repayment mechanism amount estimated at the time of renewal application according to paragraph (f)(4)(ii) of this section.
(2) The repayment mechanism amount for performance year 2021, as recalculated pursuant to paragraph (f)(4)(iii) of this section, is less than the existing repayment mechanism amount.
(3) CMS will notify the ACO in writing if the ACO may elect to decrease the amount of its repayment mechanism pursuant to this paragraph (f)(4)(iv)(B). The ACO must submit such election, together with revised repayment mechanism documentation, in a form and manner and by a deadline specified by CMS. CMS will review the revised repayment mechanism documentation and may reject the election if the repayment mechanism documentation does not comply with the requirements of this paragraph (f).
(v)(A) An ACO that established a repayment mechanism to support its participation in a two-sided model beginning on July 1, 2019, January 1, 2020, or January 1, 2021, may elect to decrease the amount of its repayment mechanism if the repayment mechanism amount for performance year 2022, as recalculated pursuant to paragraph (f)(4)(iii) of this section, is less than the existing repayment mechanism amount.
(B) CMS will notify the ACO in writing if the ACO may elect to decrease the amount of its repayment mechanism pursuant to this paragraph (f)(4)(v). The ACO must submit such election, and revised repayment mechanism documentation, in a form and manner and by a deadline specified by CMS. CMS will review the revised repayment mechanism documentation and may reject the election if the repayment mechanism documentation does not comply with the requirements of this paragraph (f).
(5) After the repayment mechanism has been used to repay any portion of shared losses owed or prepaid shared savings determined to be owed to CMS, the ACO must replenish the amount of funds available through the repayment mechanism within 90 days. The resulting amount available through the repayment mechanism must be at least the amount specified by CMS in accordance with paragraph (f)(4) of this section.
(6) The repayment mechanism must be in effect for the duration of the ACO's participation under a two-sided model plus 12 months following the conclusion of the agreement period, except as otherwise specified in this section.
(i) For an ACO that is establishing a new repayment mechanism to meet this requirement, the repayment mechanism must satisfy one of the following criteria:
(A) The repayment mechanism covers the entire duration of the ACO's participation under a two-sided risk model plus 12 months following the conclusion of the agreement period.
(B) The repayment mechanism covers a term of at least the first two performance years in which the ACO is participating under a two-sided model and provides for automatic, annual 12-month extensions of the repayment mechanism such that the repayment mechanism will eventually remain in effect for the duration of the agreement period plus 12 months following the conclusion of the agreement period.
(ii) For a renewing ACO, or a re-entering ACO that is the same legal entity as an ACO that previously participated in the program, that wishes to use its existing repayment mechanism to establish its ability to repay any shared losses incurred and prepaid shared savings determined to be owed for performance years in the new agreement period, the existing repayment mechanism must be amended to meet one of the following criteria.
(A) The duration of the existing repayment mechanism is extended by an amount of time that covers the duration of the new agreement period plus 12 months following the conclusion of the new agreement period.
(B) The duration of the existing repayment mechanism is extended, if necessary, to cover a term of at least the first two performance years of the new agreement period and provides for automatic, annual 12-month extensions of the repayment mechanism such that the repayment mechanism will eventually remain in effect for the duration of the new agreement period plus 12 months following the conclusion of the new agreement period.
(iii) CMS may require the ACO to extend the duration of the repayment mechanism if necessary to ensure that the ACO fully repays CMS any shared losses or prepaid shared savings determined to be owed for each of the performance years of the agreement period.
(iv) The repayment mechanism may be terminated at the earliest of the following conditions:
(A) The ACO has fully repaid CMS any shared losses owed or prepaid shared savings determined to be owed for each of the performance years of the agreement period under a two-sided model.
(B) CMS has exhausted the amount reserved by the ACO's repayment mechanism and the arrangement does not need to be maintained to support the ACO's participation under the Shared Savings Program.
(C) CMS determines that the ACO does not owe any shared losses or prepaid shared savings under the Shared Savings Program for any of the performance years of the agreement period.
(g) Consideration of claims billed under merged and acquired entities' TINs. An ACO may request that CMS consider, for purposes of beneficiary assignment and establishing the ACO's benchmark under §§ 425.601, 425.602, 425.603, or 425.652, claims billed under the TINs of entities that have been acquired through sale or merger by an ACO participant.
(1) The ACO may include an acquired entity's TIN on its ACO participant list under the following circumstances:
(i) The ACO participant has subsumed the acquired entity's TIN in its entirety, including all of the providers and suppliers that reassigned their right to receive Medicare payment to the acquired entity's TIN.
(ii) Each provider or supplier that previously reassigned his or her right to receive Medicare payment to the acquired entity's TIN has reassigned his or her right to receive Medicare payment to the TIN of the acquiring ACO participant and has been added to the ACO provider/supplier list under paragraph (c)(5) of the section.
(iii) The acquired entity's TIN is no longer used to bill Medicare.
(2) The ACO must submit the following supporting documentation in the form and manner specified by CMS.
(i) An attestation that—
(A) Identifies by TIN both the acquired entity and the ACO participant that acquired it;
(B) Specifies that all the providers and suppliers that previously reassigned their right to receive Medicare payment to the acquired entity's TIN have reassigned such right to the TIN of the identified ACO participant and have been added to the ACO provider/supplier list under paragraph (c)(5) of this section; and
(C) Specifies that the acquired entity's TIN is no longer used to bill Medicare.
(ii) Documentation sufficient to demonstrate that the acquired entity's TIN was merged with or purchased by the ACO participant.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32837, June 9, 2015; 81 FR 80559, Nov. 15, 2016; 82 FR 53369, Nov. 15, 2017; 83 FR 68063, Dec. 31, 2018; 85 FR 85038, Dec. 28, 2020; 86 FR 65683, Nov. 19, 2021; 87 FR 70232, Nov. 18, 2022; 88 FR 79544, Nov. 16, 2023; 89 FR 98566, Dec. 9, 2024]
§ 425.206 Evaluation procedures for applications.
(a) Basis for evaluation and determination. (1) CMS evaluates an ACO's application to determine whether an applicant satisfies the requirements of this part and is qualified to participate in the Shared Savings Program, and approves or denies applications accordingly. Applications are approved or denied on the basis of the following:
(i) Information contained in and submitted with the application by an application deadline specified by CMS.
(ii) Supplemental information that was submitted in response to a CMS request and by a deadline specified by CMS.
(iii) Other information available to CMS.
(2) CMS notifies an ACO applicant when supplemental information is required for CMS to make a determination on the ACO's application and provides an opportunity for the ACO to submit the information.
(3) CMS may deny an application if an ACO applicant fails to submit requested information by the deadlines established by CMS.
(b) Notice of determination. (1) CMS notifies in writing each applicant ACO of its determination to approve or deny the ACO's application to participate in the Shared Savings Program.
(2) If CMS denies the application, the notice will indicate that the ACO is not qualified to participate in the Shared Savings Program, specify the reasons why the ACO is not so qualified, and inform the ACO of its right to request reconsideration review in accordance with the procedures specified in subpart I of this part.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32838, June 9, 2015]
§ 425.208 Provisions of participation agreement.
(a) General rules. (1) Upon being notified by CMS of its approval to participate in the Shared Savings Program, an executive of that ACO who has the ability to legally bind the ACO must sign and submit to CMS a participation agreement.
(2) Under the participation agreement the ACO must agree to comply with the provisions of this part in order to participate in the Shared Savings Program.
(b) Compliance with laws. The ACO must agree, and must require its ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, and other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to the ACO's activities to agree, or to comply with all applicable laws including, but not limited to, the following:
(1) Federal criminal law.
(2) The False Claims Act (31 U.S.C. 3729 et seq.).
(3) The anti-kickback statute (42 U.S.C. 1320a-7b(b)).
(4) The civil monetary penalties law (42 U.S.C. 1320a-7a).
(5) The physician self-referral law (42 U.S.C. 1395nn).
(6) The information blocking provision of the 21st Century Cures Act (42 U.S.C. 300jj-52).
(c) Certifications. (1) The ACO must agree, as a condition of participating in the program and receiving any shared savings payment, that an individual with the authority to legally bind the ACO will certify the accuracy, completeness, and truthfulness of any data or information requested by or submitted to CMS, including, but not limited to, the application form, participation agreement, and any quality data or other information on which CMS bases its calculation of shared savings payments and shared losses.
(2) Certifications must meet the requirements at § 425.302.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 89 FR 54717, July 1, 2024]
§ 425.210 Application of agreement to ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, and others.
(a) The ACO must provide a copy of its participation agreement with CMS to all ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, and other individuals and entities involved in ACO governance.
(b) All contracts or arrangements between or among the ACO, ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, and other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to ACO activities must require compliance with the requirements and conditions of this part, including, but not limited to, those specified in the participation agreement with CMS.
§ 425.212 Changes to program requirements during the agreement period.
(a) An ACO is subject to all regulatory changes that become effective during the agreement period, with the exception of the following program areas, unless otherwise required by statute:
(1) Eligibility requirements concerning the structure and governance of ACOs.
(2) Calculation of sharing rate.
(b) In those instances where there are changes in law or regulations, the ACO will be required to submit to CMS for review and approval, as a supplement to its original application, an explanation detailing how it will modify its processes to address these changes in law or regulations.
(c) If an ACO does not modify its processes to address a change in law or regulations, it will be placed on a CAP. If the ACO fails to effectuate the necessary modifications while under the CAP, the ACO will be terminated from the Shared Savings Program using the procedures in § 425.218.
(d) An ACO will be permitted to terminate its agreement, in those instances where Shared Savings Program statutory and regulatory standards are established during the agreement period which the ACO believes will impact its ability to continue to participate in the Shared Savings Program.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32838, June 9, 2015]
§ 425.214 Managing changes to the ACO during the agreement period.
(a)(1) An ACO must notify CMS within 30 days of any significant change.
(2) An ACO's failure to notify CMS of a significant change does not preclude CMS from determining that the ACO has experienced a significant change.
(3) A “significant change” occurs when an ACO is no longer able to meet the eligibility or program requirements of this part.
(b) Upon becoming aware of a significant change or receiving an ACO's notice of a significant change described in paragraph (b) of this section, CMS reevaluates the ACO's eligibility to continue to participate in the Shared Savings Program and may request additional documentation. CMS may make a determination that includes one of the following:
(1) The ACO may continue to operate under the new structure.
(2) The ACO structure is so different from the initially approved ACO that it must terminate its participation agreement and submit a new application for participation.
(3) The ACO no longer meets the eligibility criteria for the program and its participation agreement must be terminated.
(4) CMS and the ACO may mutually decide to terminate the participation agreement.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32838, June 9, 2015]
§ 425.216 Actions prior to termination.
(a) Pre-termination actions. (1) If CMS concludes that termination of an ACO from the Shared Savings Program is warranted, CMS may take one or more of the following actions prior to termination of the ACO from the Shared Savings Program.
(i) Provide a warning notice to the ACO regarding noncompliance with one or more program requirements.
(ii) Request a CAP from the ACO.
(iii) Place the ACO on a special monitoring plan.
(2) Nothing in this part, including the actions set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, negates, diminishes, or otherwise alters the applicability of other laws, rules, or regulations, including, but not limited to, the Sherman Act (15 U.S.C. 1 et seq.), the Clayton Act (15 U.S.C. 12), and the Federal Trade Commission Act (15 U.S.C. 45 et seq.).
(b) Corrective action plans. (1) The ACO must submit a CAP for CMS approval by the deadline indicated on the notice of violation.
(i) The CAP must address what actions the ACO will take to ensure that the ACO, ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers or other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to the ACO's activities or both correct any deficiencies and comply with all applicable Shared Savings Program requirements.
(ii) The ACO's performance will be monitored and evaluated during and after the CAP process.
(2) CMS may terminate the participation agreement if the ACO fails to submit, obtain approval for, or implement a CAP, or fails to demonstrate improved performance upon completion of the CAP.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32839, June 9, 2015]
§ 425.218 Termination of the participation agreement by CMS.
(a) General. CMS may terminate the participation agreement with an ACO when an ACO, the ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers or other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to ACO activities fail to comply with any of the requirements of the Shared Savings Program under this part.
(b) Grounds for termination by CMS. CMS may terminate the participation agreement for reasons including, but not limited to the following:
(1) Non-compliance with eligibility and other requirements described in this part.
(2) The imposition of sanctions or other actions taken against the ACO by an accrediting organization, State, Federal or local government agency leading to inability of the ACO to comply with the requirements under this part.
(3) Violations of any applicable laws, rules, or regulations that are relevant to ACO operations, including, but not limited to, the laws specified at § 425.208(b).
(4) Failure to comply with CMS requests for documentation or other information by the deadline specified by CMS.
(5) Submitting false or fraudulent data or information.
(c) CMS may immediately terminate a participation agreement without taking any of the pre-termination actions set forth in § 425.216.
(d) Notice of termination by CMS. CMS notifies an ACO in writing of its decision to terminate the participation agreement.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32839, June 9, 2015; 89 FR 54717, July 1, 2024]
§ 425.220 Termination of the participation agreement by the ACO.
(a) Notice of termination. An ACO must provide at least 30 days advance written notice to CMS and its ACO participants of its decision to terminate the participation agreement and the effective date of its termination.
(b) [Reserved]
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32839, June 9, 2015; 83 FR 68064, Dec. 31, 2018]
§ 425.221 Close-out procedures and payment consequences of early termination.
(a) Close-out procedures. (1) An ACO whose participation agreement has expired or is terminated by CMS under § 425.218 or by the ACO under § 425.220 must implement close-out procedures including but not limited to the following issues in a form and manner and by a deadline specified by CMS:
(i) Notice to ACO participants of termination.
(ii) Record retention.
(iii) Data sharing.
(iv) Quality reporting.
(v) Beneficiary continuity of care.
(2) ACOs that fail to complete close-out procedures in the form and manner and by the deadline specified by CMS will not be eligible to share in savings.
(b) Payment consequences of early termination. (1) Receipt of shared savings. (i) Except as set forth in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, an ACO that terminates its participation agreement under § 425.220 is eligible to receive shared savings for the performance year during which the termination becomes effective only if all of the following conditions are met:
(A) CMS designates or approves an effective date of termination of the last calendar day of the performance year.
(B) The ACO has completed all close-out procedures by the deadline specified by CMS.
(C) The ACO has satisfied the criteria for sharing in savings for the performance year.
(ii) If the participation agreement is terminated at any time by CMS under § 425.218, the ACO is not eligible to receive shared savings for the performance year during which the termination becomes effective.
(2) Payment of shared losses. (i) Except as set forth in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, for performance years beginning before July 1, 2019, an ACO under a two-sided model is not liable for any shared losses if its participation agreement is terminated effective before the last calendar day of a performance year.
(ii) Except as set forth in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, for performance years beginning on July 1, 2019 and subsequent performance years, an ACO under a two-sided model is liable for a pro-rated share of any shared losses, as calculated in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section, if its participation agreement is terminated effective before the last calendar day of a performance year.
(A) An ACO under a two-sided model that terminates its participation agreement under § 425.220 with an effective date of termination after June 30th of a 12-month performance year is liable for a pro-rated share of any shared losses determined for the performance year during which the termination becomes effective.
(B) An ACO under a two-sided model whose participation agreement is terminated by CMS under § 425.218 is liable for a pro-rated share of any shared losses determined for the performance year during which the termination becomes effective.
(iii) The pro-rated share of losses described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section is calculated as follows:
(A) In the case of a 12-month performance year, the shared losses incurred during the 12 months of the performance year are multiplied by the quotient equal to the number of months of participation in the program during the performance year, including the month in which the termination was effective, divided by 12.
(B) In the case of a 6-month performance year beginning July 1, 2019, the shared losses incurred during CY 2019 are multiplied by the quotient equal to the number of months of participation in the program during the performance year, including the month in which the termination was effective, divided by 12.
(3) Exceptions. (i) An ACO starting a 12-month performance year on January 1, 2019, that terminates its participation agreement with an effective date of termination of June 30, 2019, and that enters a new agreement period beginning on July 1, 2019, is eligible for pro-rated shared savings or liable for pro-rated shared losses for the 6-month period from January 1, 2019, through June 30, 2019, as determined in accordance with § 425.609.
(ii) An ACO under a two-sided model that terminates its participation agreement under § 425.220 during the 6-month performance year beginning July 1, 2019, with an effective date of termination prior to the last calendar day of the performance year is not liable for shared losses incurred during the performance year.
[80 FR 32839, June 9, 2015, as amended at 83 FR 60092, Nov. 23, 2018; 83 FR 68064, Dec. 31, 2018]
§ 425.222 Eligibility to re-enter the program for agreement periods beginning before July 1, 2019.
(a) For purposes of determining the eligibility of a re-entering ACO to enter an agreement period beginning before July 1, 2019, the ACO may participate in the Shared Savings Program again only after the date on which the term of its original participation agreement would have expired if the ACO had not been terminated.
(b) For purposes of determining the eligibility of a re-entering ACO to enter an agreement period beginning before July 1, 2019, an ACO whose participation agreement was previously terminated must demonstrate in its application that it has corrected the deficiencies that caused it to be terminated from the Shared Savings Program and has processes in place to ensure that it remains in compliance with the terms of the new participation agreement.
(c) For purposes of determining the eligibility of a re-entering ACO to enter an agreement period beginning before July 1, 2019, an ACO whose participation agreement was previously terminated or expired without having been renewed may re-enter the program for a subsequent agreement period.
(1) If the termination occurred less than half way through the agreement period, an ACO that was previously under a one-sided model may reenter the program under the one-sided model or a two-sided model. If the ACO reenters the program under the one-sided model, the ACO will be considered to be in the same agreement period under the one-sided model as it was at the time of termination.
(2) If the termination occurred more than half way through the agreement period, an ACO that was previously in its first agreement period under the one-sided model may reenter the program under the one-sided model or a two-sided model. If the ACO reenters the program under the one-sided model, the ACO will be considered to be in its second agreement period under the one-sided model. An ACO that was previously in its second agreement period under the one-sided model must reenter the program under a two-sided model.
(3) Regardless of the date of termination, an ACO that was previously under a two-sided model may only reapply for participation in a two-sided model.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32839, June 9, 2015; 83 FR 68065, Dec. 31, 2018]
§ 425.224 Application procedures for renewing ACOs and re-entering ACOs.
(a) General rules. A renewing ACO or a re-entering ACO may apply to enter a new participation agreement with CMS for participation in the Shared Savings Program.
(1) In order to obtain a determination regarding whether it meets the requirements to participate in the Shared Savings Program, the ACO must submit a complete application in the form and manner and by the deadline specified by CMS.
(2) An ACO executive who has the authority to legally bind the ACO must certify to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief that the information contained in the application is accurate, complete, and truthful.
(3) An ACO that seeks to enter a new participation agreement under the Shared Savings Program must agree that CMS can share a copy of its application with the Antitrust Agencies.
(4) The ACO must select a participation option in accordance with the requirements specified in § 425.600. Regardless of the date of termination or expiration of the participation agreement, a renewing ACO or re-entering ACO that was previously under a two-sided model may only reapply for participation in a two-sided model.
(b) Review of application. (1) CMS determines whether to approve a renewing ACO's or re-entering ACO's application based on an evaluation of all of the following factors:
(i) Whether the ACO satisfies the criteria for operating under the selected risk track.
(ii) The ACO's history of noncompliance with the requirements of the Shared Savings Program, including, but not limited to, the following factors:
(A) Whether the ACO demonstrated a pattern of failure to meet both the quality performance standard and alternative quality performance standard (if applicable) or met any of the criteria for termination under § 425.316(c)(1)(ii), (c)(2)(ii), or (c)(3)(ii).
(B) For 2 performance years of the ACO's previous agreement period, regardless of whether the years are in consecutive order, whether the average per capita Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for the ACO's assigned beneficiary population exceeded its updated benchmark by an amount equal to or exceeding either of the following:
(1) The ACO's negative MSR, under a one-sided model.
(2) The ACO's MLR, under a two-sided model.
(C) Whether the ACO failed to repay shared losses in full within 90 days as required under subpart G of this part for any performance year of the ACO's previous agreement period in a two-sided model.
(D) For an ACO that has participated in a two-sided model authorized under section 1115A of the Act, whether the ACO failed to repay shared losses for any performance year as required under the terms of the ACO's participation agreement for such model.
(iii) Whether the ACO has demonstrated in its application that it has corrected the deficiencies that caused any noncompliance identified in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section to occur, and any other factors that may have caused the ACO to be terminated from the Shared Savings Program, and has processes in place to ensure that it remains in compliance with the terms of the new participation agreement.
(iv) Whether the ACO has established that it is in compliance with the eligibility and other requirements of the Shared Savings Program to enter a new participation agreement, including the ability to repay losses by establishing an adequate repayment mechanism under § 425.204(f), if applicable.
(v) The results of a program integrity screening of the ACO, its ACO participants, and its ACO providers/suppliers (conducted in accordance with § 425.305(a)).
(2) Applications are approved or denied on the basis of the following information:
(i) Information contained in and submitted with the application by a deadline specified by CMS.
(ii) Supplemental information that was submitted by a deadline specified by CMS in response to a CMS request for information.
(iii) Other information available to CMS.
(3) CMS notifies the ACO when supplemental information is required for CMS to make such a determination and provides an opportunity for the ACO to submit the information.
(c) Notice of determination. (1) CMS notifies the ACO in writing of its determination to approve or deny the ACO's application.
(2) If CMS denies the application, the notice of determination—
(i) Specifies the reasons for the denial; and
(ii) Informs the ACO of its right to request reconsideration review in accordance with the procedures specified in subpart I of this part.
[80 FR 32839, June 9, 2015, as amended at 83 FR 68065, Dec. 31, 2018; 85 FR 85039, Dec. 28, 2020; 87 FR 70232, Nov. 18, 2022; 89 FR 98566, Dec. 9, 2024; 90 FR 50015, Nov. 5, 2025]
§ 425.226 Annual participation elections.
(a) General. This section applies to ACOs in agreement periods beginning on July 1, 2019, and in subsequent years. Before the start of a performance year, an ACO may make elections related to its participation in the Shared Savings Program, as specified in this section, effective at the start of the applicable performance year and for the remaining years of the agreement period, unless superseded by a later election in accordance with this section.
(1) Selection of beneficiary assignment methodology. An ACO may select the assignment methodology that CMS employs for assignment of beneficiaries under subpart E of this part. An ACO may select either of the following:
(i) Preliminary prospective assignment with retrospective reconciliation, as described in § 425.400(a)(2).
(ii) Prospective assignment, as described in § 425.400(a)(3).
(2) Selection of BASIC track level. An ACO participating under the BASIC track in the glide path may select a higher level of risk and potential reward, as provided in this section.
(i) An ACO participating under the BASIC track's glide path may elect to transition to a higher level of risk and potential reward within the glide path than the level of risk and potential reward that the ACO would be automatically transitioned to in the applicable year as specified in § 425.605(d)(1). The automatic transition to higher levels of risk and potential reward within the BASIC track's glide path continues to apply to all subsequent years of the agreement period in the BASIC track.
(ii) An ACO transitioning to a higher level of risk and potential reward under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section must meet all requirements to participate under the selected level of performance-based risk, including both of the following:
(A) Establishing an adequate repayment mechanism as specified under § 425.204(f).
(B) Selecting a MSR/MLR from the options specified under § 425.605(b).
(b) Election procedures. (1) All annual elections must be made in a form and manner and according to the timeframe established by CMS.
(2) ACO executive who has the authority to legally bind the ACO must certify the elections described in this section.
[83 FR 68066, Dec. 31, 2018]
Subpart D Program Requirements and Beneficiary Protections
§ 425.300 Compliance plan.
(a) The ACO must have a compliance plan that includes at least the following elements:
(1) A designated compliance official or individual who is not legal counsel to the ACO and reports directly to the ACO's governing body.
(2) Mechanisms for identifying and addressing compliance problems related to the ACO's operations and performance.
(3) A method for employees or contractors of the ACO, ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, and other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to ACO activities to anonymously report suspected problems related to the ACO to the compliance officer.
(4) Compliance training for the ACO, the ACO participants, and the ACO providers/suppliers.
(5) A requirement for the ACO to report probable violations of law to an appropriate law enforcement agency.
(b)(1) ACOs that are existing entities may use the current compliance officer if the compliance officer meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
(2) An ACO's compliance plan must be in compliance with and be updated periodically to reflect changes in law and regulations.
§ 425.302 Program requirements for data submission and certifications.
(a) Requirements for data submission and certification. (1) The ACO, its ACO participants, its ACO providers/suppliers or individuals or other entities performing functions or services related to ACO activities must submit all data and information, including data on measures designated by CMS under § 425.500 or § 425.510, as applicable, in a form and manner specified by CMS.
(2) Certification of data upon submission. With respect to data and information that are generated or submitted by the ACO, ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, or other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to ACO activities, an individual with the authority to legally bind the individual or entity submitting such data or information must certify the accuracy, completeness, and truthfulness of the data and information to the best of his or her knowledge information and belief.
(3) Annual certification. At the end of each performance year, an individual with the legal authority to bind the ACO must certify to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief—
(i) That the ACO, its ACO participants, its ACO providers/suppliers, and other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to ACO activities are in compliance with program requirements;
(ii) The accuracy, completeness, and truthfulness of all data and information that are generated or submitted by the ACO, ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, or other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to ACO activities, including any quality data or other information or data relied upon by CMS in determining the ACO's eligibility for, and the amount of a shared savings payment or the amount of shared losses or other monies owed to CMS; and
(iii) For performance years starting on January 1, 2019 through 2024, the percentage of eligible clinicians participating in the ACO that use CEHRT to document and communicate clinical care to their patients or other health care providers meets or exceeds the applicable percentage specified by CMS at § 425.506(f).
(iv) That the ACO has moved all advance investment payments received during that performance year into a designated advance investment payments account established under § 425.630(e) and the advance investment payments have been dispersed only for allowable uses.
(b) [Reserved]
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 83 FR 60092, Nov. 23, 2018; 85 FR 85039, Dec. 28, 2020; 87 FR 70232, Nov. 18, 2022; 88 FR 79544, Nov. 16, 2023]
§ 425.304 Beneficiary incentives.
(a) General. (1) Except as set forth in this section, or as otherwise permitted by law, ACOs, ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, and other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to ACO activities are prohibited from providing gifts or other remuneration to beneficiaries as inducements for receiving items or services from or remaining in, an ACO or with ACO providers/suppliers in a particular ACO or receiving items or services from ACO participants or ACO providers/suppliers.
(2) Nothing in this section shall be construed as prohibiting an ACO from using shared savings received under this part to cover the cost of an in-kind item or service or incentive payment provided to a beneficiary under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.
(b) In-kind incentives. ACOs, ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, and other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to ACO activities may provide in-kind items or services to Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries if all of the following conditions are satisfied:
(1) There is a reasonable connection between the items and services and the medical care of the beneficiary.
(2) The items or services are preventive care items or services or advance a clinical goal for the beneficiary, including adherence to a treatment regime, adherence to a drug regime, adherence to a follow-up care plan, or management of a chronic disease or condition.
(3) The in-kind item or service is not a Medicare-covered item or service for the beneficiary on the date the in-kind item or service is furnished to the beneficiary.
(c) Monetary incentives—(1) General. For performance years beginning on July 1, 2019 and for subsequent performance years, an ACO that is participating under Track 2, Levels C, D, or E of the BASIC track, or the ENHANCED track may, in accordance with this section, establish a beneficiary incentive program to provide monetary incentive payments to Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries who receive a qualifying service.
(2) Application procedures. (i) To establish or reestablish a beneficiary incentive program, an ACO must submit a complete application in the form and manner and by a deadline specified by CMS.
(ii) CMS evaluates an ACO's application to determine whether the ACO satisfies the requirements of this section, and approves or denies the application.
(iii) If an ACO wishes to make a material change to its CMS-approved beneficiary incentive program, the ACO must submit a description of the material change to CMS in a form and manner and by a deadline specified by CMS. CMS will promptly evaluate the proposed material change and approve or reject it.
(3) Beneficiary incentive program requirements. An ACO must begin to operate its approved beneficiary incentive program beginning on July 1, 2019 or January 1 of the relevant performance year.
(i) Duration. (A) Subject to the termination provision at paragraph (c)(7) of this section, an ACO must operate its approved beneficiary incentive program for an initial period of 18 months in the case of an ACO approved to operate a beneficiary incentive program beginning on July 1, 2019, or 12 months in the case of an ACO approved to operate a beneficiary incentive program beginning on January 1 of a performance year.
(B) For each consecutive year that an ACO wishes to operate its beneficiary incentive program after the CMS-approved initial period, it must certify all of the following by a deadline specified by CMS:
(1) Its intent to continue to operate the beneficiary incentive program for the entirety of the relevant performance year.
(2) That the beneficiary incentive program meets all applicable requirements.
(ii) Beneficiary eligibility. A fee-for-service beneficiary is eligible to receive an incentive payment under a beneficiary incentive program if the beneficiary is assigned to the ACO through either of the following:
(A) Preliminary prospective assignment, as described in § 425.400(a)(2).
(B) Prospective assignment, as described in § 425.400(a)(3).
(iii) Qualifying service. For purposes of this section, a qualifying service is a primary care service (as defined in § 425.20) with respect to which coinsurance applies under Part B, if the service is furnished through an ACO by one of the following:
(A) An ACO professional who has a primary care specialty designation included in the definition of primary care physician under § 425.20.
(B) An ACO professional who is a physician assistant, nurse practitioner, or certified nurse specialist.
(C) A FQHC or RHC.
(iv) Incentive payments. (A) An ACO that establishes a beneficiary incentive program must furnish an incentive payment for each qualifying service furnished to a beneficiary described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section in accordance with this section.
(B) Each incentive payment made by an ACO under a beneficiary incentive program must satisfy all of the following conditions:
(1) The incentive payment is in the form of a check, debit card, or a traceable cash equivalent.
(2) The value of the incentive payment does not exceed $20, as adjusted annually by the percentage increase in the consumer price index for all urban consumers (United States city average) for the 12-month period ending with June of the previous year, rounded to the nearest whole dollar amount.
(3) The incentive payment is provided by the ACO to the beneficiary no later than 30 days after a qualifying service is furnished.
(C) An ACO must furnish incentive payments in the same amount to each eligible Medicare fee-for-service beneficiary without regard to enrollment of such beneficiary in a Medicare supplemental policy (described in section 1882(g)(1) of the Act), in a State Medicaid plan under title XIX or a waiver of such a plan, or in any other health insurance policy or health benefit plan.
(4) Program integrity requirements—(i) Record retention. An ACO that establishes a beneficiary incentive program must maintain records related to the beneficiary incentive program that include the following:
(A) Identification of each beneficiary that received an incentive payment, including beneficiary name and HICN or Medicare beneficiary identifier.
(B) The type and amount of each incentive payment made to each beneficiary.
(C) The date each beneficiary received a qualifying service, the corresponding HCPCS code for the qualifying service, and identification of the ACO provider/supplier that furnished the qualifying service.
(D) The date the ACO provided each incentive payment to each beneficiary.
(ii) Source of funding. (A) An ACO must not use funds from any entity or organization outside of the ACO to establish or operate a beneficiary incentive program.
(B) An ACO must not directly, through insurance, or otherwise, bill or otherwise shift the cost of establishing or operating a beneficiary incentive program to a Federal health care program.
(iii) Beneficiary notifications. An ACO or its ACO participants shall notify assigned beneficiaries of the availability of the beneficiary incentive program in accordance with § 425.312(b).
(iv) Marketing prohibition. Except for the beneficiary notifications required under this section, the beneficiary incentive program is not the subject of marketing materials and activities, including but not limited to, an advertisement or solicitation to a beneficiary or any potential patient whose care is paid for in whole or in part by a Federal health care program (as defined at 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7b(f)).
(5) Effect on program calculations. CMS disregards incentive payments made by an ACO under paragraph (c) of this section in calculating an ACO's benchmarks, estimated average per capita Medicare expenditures, and shared savings and losses.
(6) Income exemptions. Incentive payments made under a beneficiary incentive program are not considered income or resources or otherwise taken into account for purposes of either of the following:
(i) Determining eligibility for benefits or assistance (or the amount or extent of benefits or assistance) under any Federal program or under any State or local program financed in whole or in part with Federal funds.
(ii) Any Federal or State laws relating to taxation.
(7) Termination. CMS may require an ACO to terminate its beneficiary incentive program at any time for either of the following:
(i) Failure to comply with the requirements of this section.
(ii) Any of the grounds for ACO termination set forth in § 425.218(b).
(d) Application of the CMS-sponsored model patient incentives safe harbor. CMS has determined that the Federal anti-kickback statute safe harbor for CMS-sponsored model patient incentives (§ 1001.952(ii)(2) of this title) is available to protect remuneration furnished in the prepaid shared savings option of the Shared Savings Program in the form of direct beneficiary services that meets all safe harbor requirements set forth in § 1001.952(ii) of this title.
[83 FR 68066, Dec. 31, 2018, as amended at 89 FR 98566, Dec. 9, 2024]
§ 425.305 Other program safeguards.
(a) Screening of ACO applicants. (1) ACOs, ACO participants, and ACO providers/suppliers are reviewed during the Shared Savings Program application process and periodically thereafter with regard to their program integrity history, including any history of Medicare program exclusions or other sanctions and affiliations with individuals or entities that have a history of program integrity issues. Program integrity history issues include, but are not limited to, a history of Medicare program exclusions or other sanctions, noncompliance with the requirements of the Shared Savings Program, or violations of laws specified at § 425.208(b).
(2) ACOs, ACO participants, or ACO providers/suppliers whose screening reveals a history of program integrity issues or affiliations with individuals or entities that have a history of program integrity issues may be subject to denial of their Shared Savings Program applications or the imposition of additional safeguards or assurances against program integrity risks.
(b) Prohibition on certain required referrals and cost shifting. ACOs, ACO participants, and ACO providers/suppliers are prohibited from doing the following:
(1) Conditioning the participation of ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to ACO activities in the ACO on referrals of Federal health care program business that the ACO, its ACO participants, or ACO providers/suppliers or other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to ACO activities know or should know is being (or would be) provided to beneficiaries who are not assigned to the ACO.
(2) Requiring that beneficiaries be referred only to ACO participants or ACO providers/suppliers within the ACO or to any other provider or supplier, except that the prohibition does not apply to referrals made by employees or contractors who are operating within the scope of their employment or contractual arrangement to the employer or contracting entity, provided that the employees and contractors remain free to make referrals without restriction or limitation if the beneficiary expresses a preference for a different provider, practitioner, or supplier; the beneficiary's insurer determines the provider, practitioner, or supplier; or the referral is not in the beneficiary's best medical interests in the judgment of the referring party.
[83 FR 68067, Dec. 31, 2018, as amended at 89 FR 54717, July 1, 2024]
§ 425.306 Participant agreement and exclusivity of ACO participants.
(a) Each ACO participant must commit to the term of the participation agreement and sign an ACO participant agreement that complies with the requirements of this part.
(b)(1) Except as specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, ACO participants are not required to be exclusive to one Shared Savings Program ACO.
(2) Each ACO participant that submits claims for services used to determine the ACO's assigned population under subpart E of this part must be exclusive to one Shared Savings Program ACO. If, during a benchmark or performance year (including the 3-month claims runout for such benchmark or performance year), an ACO participant that participates in more than one ACO submits claims for services used in assignment under subpart E of this part, then:
(i) CMS will not consider any services billed through the TIN of the ACO participant when performing assignment under subpart E of this part for the benchmark or performance year.
(ii) The ACO may be subject to the pre-termination actions set forth in § 425.216, termination under § 425.218, or both.
[80 FR 32840, June 9, 2015, as amended at 82 FR 53369, Nov. 15, 2017]
§ 425.308 Public reporting and transparency.
(a) ACO public reporting Web page. Each ACO must create and maintain a dedicated Web page on which it publicly reports the information set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. The ACO must report the address of such Web page to CMS in a form and manner specified by CMS and must notify CMS of changes to the web address in the form and manner specified by CMS.
(b) Information to be reported. The ACO must publicly report the following information in a standardized format specified by CMS:
(1) Name and location.
(2) Primary contact.
(3) Organizational information, including all of the following:
(i) Identification of ACO participants.
(ii) Identification of participants in joint ventures between ACO professionals and hospitals.
(iii) Identification of the members of its governing body.
(iv) Identification of key clinical and administrative leadership.
(v) Identification of associated committees and committee leadership.
(vi) Identification of the types of ACO participants or combinations of ACO participants (as listed in § 425.102(a)) that formed the ACO.
(4) Shared savings and losses information, including the following:
(i) Amount of any payment of shared savings received by the ACO or shared losses owed to CMS.
(ii) Total proportion of shared savings invested in infrastructure, redesigned care processes and other resources required to support the three-part aim goals of better health for populations, better care for individuals and lower growth in expenditures, including the proportion distributed among ACO participants.
(5) The ACO's performance on all quality measures.
(6) Use of payment rule waivers under § 425.612, if applicable, or telehealth services under § 425.613, if applicable, or both.
(7) Information about a beneficiary incentive program established under § 425.304(c), if applicable, including the following, for each performance year:
(i) Total number of beneficiaries who received an incentive payment.
(ii) Total number of incentive payments furnished.
(iii) HCPCS codes associated with any qualifying service for which an incentive payment was furnished.
(iv) Total value of all incentive payments furnished.
(v) Total of each type of incentive payment (for example, check or debit card) furnished.
(8) Information, updated annually about the ACO's use of advance investment payments under § 425.630, for each performance year, including the following:
(i) The ACO's spend plan.
(ii) The total amount of any advance investment payments received from CMS.
(iii) An itemization of how advance investment payments were spent during the year, including expenditure categories, the dollar amounts spent on the various categories, any changes to the spend plan submitted under § 425.630(d), and such other information as may be specified by CMS.
(9) For performance year 2025 and subsequent performance years, the total number of ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, and ACO professionals that are MIPS eligible clinicians, Qualifying APM Participants (QPs), or Partial Qualifying APM Participants (Partial QPs) (each as defined at § 414.1305 of this chapter) that earn a MIPS performance category score for the MIPS Promoting Interoperability performance category as set forth in § 425.507 that is comprised of the following—
(i) The number of ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, and ACO professionals that meet the requirements of § 425.507(a) and are not excluded under § 425.507(b) for the applicable performance year; and
(ii) The number of ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, and ACO professionals that are excluded under § 425.507(b) that voluntarily reported and received a MIPS Promoting Interoperability performance category score for the applicable performance year.
(10) Information updated annually about the ACO's use of prepaid shared savings under § 425.640, for each performance year, including the following:
(i) Total amount of any prepaid shared savings received from CMS.
(ii) The ACO's spend plan.
(iii) An itemization of how prepaid shared savings were spent during the year, including expenditure categories, the dollar amounts spent on the various categories, information about which groups of beneficiaries received direct beneficiary services that were purchased with prepaid shared savings and investments that were made in the ACO with prepaid shared savings, how these direct beneficiary services were provided to beneficiaries and how the direct beneficiary services and investments supported the care of beneficiaries, any changes to the spend plan as submitted under § 425.640(d)(2) (if applicable), and such other information as may be specified by CMS.
(c) Approval of public reporting information. Information reported on an ACO's public reporting Web page in compliance with the requirements of the standardized format specified by CMS is not subject to marketing review and approval under § 425.310.
(d) Public reporting by CMS. CMS may publicly report ACO-specific information, including but not limited to the ACO public reporting Web page address and the information required to be publicly reported under paragraph (b) of this section.
[80 FR 32840, June 9, 2015, as amended at 83 FR 68068, Dec. 31, 2018; 87 FR 70232, Nov. 18, 2022; 88 FR 79544, Nov. 16, 2023; 89 FR 98566, Dec. 9, 2024]
§ 425.310 Marketing requirements.
(a) Requirements. Marketing materials and activities must:
(1) Use template language developed by CMS, if available.
(2) Not be used in a discriminatory manner or for discriminatory purposes.
(3) Comply with § 425.304 regarding beneficiary incentives.
(4) Not be materially inaccurate or misleading.
(b) Monitoring. (1) CMS may request the submission of marketing materials and activities at any time. If CMS determines that the marketing materials and activities do not comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, CMS will issue written notice of disapproval to the ACO.
(2) The ACO shall discontinue, and require its ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, and other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to ACO activities to discontinue, use of any marketing materials or activities disapproved by CMS.
(c) Sanctions. Failure to comply with this section will subject the ACO to the penalties set forth in § 425.216, termination under § 425.218, or both.
[87 FR 70233, Nov. 18, 2022]
§ 425.312 Beneficiary notifications.
(a) Notifications to fee-for-service beneficiaries. (1) An ACO shall ensure that Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries are notified about all of the following in the manner set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section:
(i) That each ACO participant and its ACO providers/suppliers are participating in the Shared Savings Program.
(ii) The beneficiary's opportunity to decline claims data sharing under § 425.708.
(iii) Beginning July 1, 2019, the beneficiary's ability to, and the process by which, he or she may identify or change identification of the individual he or she designated for purposes of voluntary alignment (as described in § 425.402(e)).
(2) Notification of the information specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be carried out through the following methods:
(i) By an ACO participant posting signs in all of its facilities.
(ii) By an ACO participant making standardized written notices available upon request in all settings in which beneficiaries receive primary care services.
(iii) In the case of an ACO that has selected preliminary prospective assignment with retrospective reconciliation, by the ACO or ACO participant providing each beneficiary who received at least one primary care service during the assignment window or applicable expanded window for assignment (as defined in § 425.20) from a physician who is an ACO professional in the ACO and who is a primary care physician as defined under § 425.20 or who has one of the primary specialty designations included in § 425.402(c), a FQHC or RHC that is part of the ACO, or an ACO professional in the ACO whom the beneficiary designated as responsible for coordinating their overall care under § 425.402(e) with a standardized written notice at least once during an agreement period in the form and manner specified by CMS. The standardized written notice must be furnished to all of these beneficiaries prior to or at the first primary care service visit during the first performance year in which the beneficiary receives a primary care service from an ACO participant.
(iv) In the case of an ACO that has selected prospective assignment, by the ACO or ACO participant providing each prospectively assigned beneficiary with a standardized written notice at least once during an agreement period in the form and manner specified by CMS. The standardized written notice must be furnished during the performance year for which the beneficiary is prospectively assigned to the ACO.
(v) Following the provision of the standardized written notice to a beneficiary, as specified in paragraphs (a)(2)(iii) and (iv) of this section, the ACO or ACO participant must provide a verbal or written follow-up communication to the beneficiary.
(A) The follow-up communication must occur no later than 180 days from the date the standardized written notice was provided.
(B) The ACO must retain a record of all beneficiaries receiving the follow-up communication, and the form and manner in which the communication was made available to the beneficiary. The ACO must make these records available to CMS upon request.
(b) Beneficiary incentive program notifications. (1) Beginning July 1, 2019, an ACO that operates a beneficiary incentive program under § 425.304(c) shall ensure that the ACO or its ACO participants notify assigned beneficiaries of the availability of the beneficiary incentive program, including a description of the qualifying services for which an assigned beneficiary is eligible to receive an incentive payment (as described in § 425.304(c)).
(2) Notification of the information specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must be carried out by an ACO or ACO participant during each relevant performance year by providing each assigned beneficiary with a standardized written notice prior to or at the first primary care visit of the performance year in the form and manner specified by CMS.
(c) The beneficiary notifications under this section meet the definition of marketing materials and activities under § 425.20 and therefore must meet all applicable marketing requirements described in § 425.310.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32840, June 9, 2015; 83 FR 68068, Dec. 31, 2018; 86 FR 65684, Nov. 19, 2021; 87 FR 70233, Nov. 18, 2022; 89 FR 98566, Dec. 9, 2024]
§ 425.314 Audits and record retention.
(a) Right to audit. The ACO must agree, and must require its ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, and other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to ACO activities to agree, that the CMS, DHHS, the Comptroller General, the Federal Government or their designees have the right to audit, inspect, investigate, and evaluate any books, contracts, records, documents and other evidence of the ACO, ACO participants, and ACO providers/suppliers, and other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to ACO activities that pertain to all of the following:
(1) The ACO's compliance with Shared Savings Program.
(2) The quality of services performed and determination of amount due to or from CMS under the participation agreement.
(3) The ability of the ACO to bear the risk of potential losses and to repay any losses to CMS.
(4) The ACO's operation of a beneficiary incentive program.
(b) Maintenance of records. An ACO must agree, and must require its ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, and other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to ACO activities to agree to the following:
(1) To maintain and give CMS, DHHS, the Comptroller General, the Federal Government or their designees access to all books, contracts, records, documents, and other evidence (including data related to Medicare utilization and costs, quality performance measures, shared savings distributions, information related to operation of a beneficiary incentive program, and other financial arrangements related to ACO activities) sufficient to enable the audit, evaluation, investigation, and inspection of the ACO's compliance with program requirements, quality of services performed, right to any shared savings payment, or obligation to repay losses, ability to bear the risk of potential losses, and ability to repay any losses to CMS.
(2) To maintain such books, contracts, records, documents, and other evidence for a period of 10 years from the final date of the agreement period or from the date of completion of any audit, evaluation, or inspection, whichever is later, unless—
(i) CMS determines there is a special need to retain a particular record or group of records for a longer period and notifies the ACO at least 30 days before the normal disposition date; or
(ii) There has been a termination, dispute, or allegation of fraud or similar fault against the ACO, its ACO participants, its ACO providers/suppliers, or other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to ACO activities, in which case ACOs must retain records for an additional 6 years from the date of any resulting final resolution of the termination, dispute, or allegation of fraud or similar fault.
(c) Responsibility of the ACO. Notwithstanding any arrangements between or among an ACO, ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, and other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to ACO activities, the ACO must have ultimate responsibility for adhering to and otherwise fully complying with all terms and conditions of its participation agreement with CMS, including the requirements set forth in this section.
(d) OIG authority. None of the provisions of this part limit or restrict OIG's authority to audit, evaluate, investigate, or inspect the ACO, its ACO participants, its ACO providers/suppliers and other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to ACO activities.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32840, June 9, 2015; 81 FR 38013, June 10, 2016; 83 FR 68068, Dec. 31, 2018]
§ 425.315 Reopening determinations of ACO shared savings or shared losses to correct financial reconciliation calculations.
(a) Reopenings. (1) If CMS determines that the amount of shared savings due to the ACO or the amount of shared losses owed by the ACO has been calculated in error, CMS may reopen the initial determination or a final agency determination under subpart I of this part and issue a revised initial determination:
(i) At any time in the case of fraud or similar fault as defined in § 405.902; or
(ii) Not later than 4 years after the date of the notification to the ACO of the initial determination of savings or losses for the relevant performance year under § 425.604(f), § 425.605(e), § 425.606(h), § 425.609(e) or § 425.610(h), for good cause.
(2) Good cause may be established when—
(i) There is new and material evidence that was not available or known at the time of the payment determination and may result in a different conclusion; or
(ii) The evidence that was considered in making the payment determination clearly shows on its face that an obvious error was made at the time of the payment determination.
(3) A change of legal interpretation or policy by CMS in a regulation, CMS ruling or CMS general instruction, whether made in response to judicial precedent or otherwise, is not a basis for reopening a payment determination under this section.
(4) CMS has the sole discretion to determine whether to reopen a payment determination under this section.
(b) Reopening requests. An ACO may request a reopening in a form and manner specified by CMS and consistent with the timeframes for a reopening specified in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
[81 FR 38013, June 10, 2016, as amended at 83 FR 60092, Nov. 23, 2018; 83 FR 68068, Dec. 31, 2018; 89 FR 98567, Dec. 9, 2024]
§ 425.316 Monitoring of ACOs.
(a) General rule. (1) In order to ensure that the ACO continues to satisfy the eligibility and program requirements under this part, CMS monitors and assesses the performance of ACOs, their ACO participants, and ACO providers/suppliers.
(2) CMS employs a range of methods to monitor and assess the performance of ACOs, ACO participants, and ACO providers/suppliers, including but not limited to any of the following, as appropriate:
(i) Analysis of specific financial and quality measurement data reported by the ACO as well as aggregate annual and quarterly reports.
(ii) Analysis of beneficiary and provider complaints.
(iii) Audits (including, for example, analysis of claims, chart review (medical record), beneficiary survey reviews, coding audits, on-site compliance reviews).
(b) Monitoring ACO avoidance of at-risk beneficiaries. (1) CMS may use one or more of the methods described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section (as appropriate) to identify trends and patterns suggesting that an ACO has avoided at-risk beneficiaries. The results of these analyses may subsequently require further investigation and follow-up with beneficiaries or the ACO and its ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, or other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to the ACO's activities, in order to substantiate cases of beneficiary avoidance.
(2)(i) CMS, at its sole discretion, may take any of the pre-termination actions set forth in § 425.216(a)(1) or immediately terminate, if it determines that an ACO, its ACO participants, any ACO providers/suppliers, or other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to the ACO's activities avoids at-risk beneficiaries.
(ii) If CMS requires the ACO to submit a CAP, the ACO will—
(A) Submit a CAP that addresses actions the ACO will take to ensure that the ACO, ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, or other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to the ACO's activities cease avoidance of at-risk beneficiaries.
(B) Not receive any shared savings payments during the time it is under the CAP.
(C) Not be eligible to receive shared savings for the performance year attributable to the time that necessitated the CAP (the time period during which the ACO avoided at risk beneficiaries).
(iii) CMS will re-evaluate the ACO during and after the CAP implementation period to determine if the ACO has continued to avoid at-risk beneficiaries. The ACO will be terminated if CMS determines that the ACO has continued to avoid at-risk beneficiaries during or after the CAP implementation period.
(c) Monitoring ACO compliance with quality performance standards. To identify ACOs that are not meeting the quality performance standards, CMS will review an ACO's submission of quality measurement data under § 425.500 or § 425.512. CMS may request additional documentation from an ACO, ACO participants, or ACO providers/suppliers, as appropriate. If an ACO does not meet quality performance standards or fails to report on one or more quality measures, CMS will take the following actions:
(1) For performance years (or a performance period) beginning on or before January 1, 2020. (i) The ACO may be given a warning for the first time it fails to meet the minimum attainment level on at least 70 percent of the measures, as determined under § 425.502, in one or more domains and may be subject to a CAP. CMS may forgo the issuance of the warning letter depending on the nature and severity of the noncompliance and instead subject the ACO to actions set forth at § 425.216 or immediately terminate the ACO's participation agreement under § 425.218.
(ii) The ACO's compliance with the quality performance standards will be re-evaluated the following year. If the ACO continues to fail to meet the quality performance standard in the following year, the agreement will be terminated.
(iii) An ACO will not qualify to share in savings in any year it fails to report accurately, completely, and timely on the quality performance measures.
(2) For performance years beginning on or after January 1, 2021 and before January 1, 2026. (i) If the ACO fails to meet the quality performance standard, CMS may take one or more of the actions prior to termination specified in § 425.216. Depending on the nature and severity of the noncompliance, CMS may forgo pre-termination actions and may immediately terminate the ACO's participation agreement under § 425.218.
(ii) CMS will terminate an ACO's participation agreement under any of the following circumstances:
(A) The ACO fails to meet the quality performance standard for 2 consecutive performance years within an agreement period.
(B) The ACO fails to meet the quality performance standard for any 3 performance years within an agreement period, regardless of whether the years are in consecutive order.
(C) A renewing ACO or re-entering ACO fails to meet the quality performance standard for the last performance year of the ACO's previous agreement period and this occurrence was either the second consecutive performance year of failed quality performance or the third nonconsecutive performance year of failed quality performance during the previous agreement period.
(D) A renewing ACO or re-entering ACO fails to meet the quality performance standard for 2 consecutive performance years across 2 agreement periods, specifically the last performance year of the ACO's previous agreement period and the first performance year of the ACO's new agreement period.
(3) For performance years beginning on or after January 1, 2026.
(i) If the ACO fails to meet both the quality performance standard and the alternative quality performance standard, CMS may take one or more of the actions prior to termination specified in § 425.216. Depending on the nature and severity of the noncompliance, CMS may forgo pre-termination actions and may immediately terminate the ACO's participation agreement under § 425.218.
(ii) CMS terminates an ACO's participation agreement under any of the following circumstances:
(A) The ACO fails to meet both the quality performance standard and the alternative quality performance standard for 2 consecutive performance years within an agreement period.
(B) The ACO fails to meet both the quality performance standard and the alternative quality performance standard for any 3 performance years within an agreement period, regardless of whether the years are in consecutive order.
(C) A renewing ACO or re-entering ACO fails to meet both the quality performance standard and the alternative quality performance standard for the last performance year of the ACO's previous agreement period and this occurrence was either the second consecutive performance year of failed quality performance or the third nonconsecutive performance year of failed quality performance during the previous agreement period.
(D) A renewing ACO or re-entering ACO fails to meet both the quality performance standard and the alternative quality performance standard for 2 consecutive performance years across 2 agreement periods, specifically the last performance year of the ACO's previous agreement period and the first performance year of the ACO's new agreement period.
(d) Monitoring ACO financial performance. (1) For performance years beginning on July 1, 2019 and subsequent performance years, CMS determines whether the Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for the ACO's assigned beneficiaries for the performance year exceed the ACO's updated benchmark by an amount equal to or exceeding either the ACO's negative MSR under a one-sided model, or the ACO's MLR under a two-sided model.
(2) If the Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for the ACO's assigned beneficiaries for the performance year exceed the ACO's updated benchmark as specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, CMS may take any of the pre-termination actions set forth in § 425.216.
(3) If the Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for the ACO's assigned beneficiaries for the performance year exceed the ACO's updated benchmark as specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section for another performance year of the agreement period, CMS may immediately or with advance notice terminate the ACO's participation agreement under § 425.218.
(e) Monitoring ACO eligibility for advance investment payments. (1) CMS monitors an ACO that receives advance investment payments pursuant to § 425.630 for changes in its ACO participants that may cause the ACO to no longer meet the standards specified in § 425.630(b)(3) and (4).
(2) If CMS determines that an ACO participating in advance investment payments became experienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives during its first or second performance year of its agreement period or that the ACO became a high revenue ACO during any performance year of its agreement period, CMS—
(i) Will cease payment of advance investment payments no later than the quarter after the ACO became experienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives or became a high revenue ACO.
(ii) May take compliance action as specified in §§ 425.216 and 425.218.
(3) If an ACO remains an ACO experienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives or a high revenue ACO after a deadline specified by CMS pursuant to compliance action under this section, the ACO must repay all advance investment payments it received. CMS will provide written notification to the ACO of the amount due and the ACO must pay such amount no later than 90 days after the receipt of such notification.
(f) Monitoring ACO eligibility for and use of prepaid shared savings. (1) CMS monitors an ACO that receives prepaid shared savings pursuant to § 425.640 to ensure ACO compliance with § 425.640(e) and to determine whether it would be appropriate to withhold or terminate an ACO's prepaid shared savings under § 425.640(h).
(2) If CMS determines that an ACO receiving prepaid shared savings is using the funds for a prohibited use under § 425.640(e)(2), fails to spend the funding in accordance with § 425.640(e)(1)(i) and (ii), or spends more than 50 percent of the estimated annual payment amount on staffing and healthcare infrastructure CMS:
(i) Will require the ACO to reallocate the funding as permitted by § 425.640(e) and submit an updated spend plan demonstrating the reallocation by a deadline specified by CMS.
(ii) May take compliance action as specified in §§ 425.216, 425.218, and 425.640(h)(1).
(3) If an ACO fails to reallocate prepaid shared savings it received as described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section by a deadline specified by CMS, the ACO must repay all prepaid shared savings it received and may be subject to compliance action as specified in §§ 425.216 and 425.218. CMS will provide written notification to the ACO of the amount due and the ACO must pay such amount no later than 90 days after the receipt of such notification.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32840, June 9, 2015; 81 FR 80559, Nov. 15, 2016; 83 FR 68069, Dec. 31, 2018; 85 FR 85039, Dec. 28, 2020; 87 FR 70233, Nov. 18, 2022; 88 FR 79544, Nov. 16, 2023; 89 FR 98567, Dec. 9, 2024; 90 FR 50015, Nov. 5, 2025]
Subpart E Assignment of Beneficiaries
§ 425.400 General.
(a)(1) General. CMS employs the assignment methodology described in § 425.402 and § 425.404 for purposes of benchmarking, preliminary prospective assignment (including quarterly updates), retrospective reconciliation, and prospective assignment.
(i) A Medicare fee-for-service beneficiary is assigned to an ACO if the—
(A) Beneficiary meets the eligibility criteria under § 425.401(a); and
(B) Beneficiary's utilization of primary care services meets the criteria established under the assignment methodology described in § 425.402 and § 425.404.
(ii) CMS applies a step-wise process based on the beneficiary's utilization of primary care services provided under Title XVIII by a physician who is an ACO professional during each performance year for which shared savings are to be determined and, with respect to ACOs participating in a 6-month performance year during CY 2019, during the entirety of CY 2019 as specified in § 425.609.
(2) Preliminary prospective assignment with retrospective reconciliation. (i) Medicare assigns beneficiaries in a preliminary manner at the beginning of a performance year based on most recent data available.
(ii) Assignment will be updated quarterly based on the most recent 12 or 24 months of data, as applicable, under the methodology described in §§ 425.402 and 425.404.
(iii) In determining final assignment for a benchmark or performance year, CMS will exclude any services furnished during the benchmark or performance year that are billed through the TIN of an ACO participant that is an ACO participant in more than one ACO.
(3) Prospective assignment. (i) Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries are prospectively assigned to an ACO at the beginning of each benchmark or performance year based on the beneficiary's use of primary care services in the most recent 12 or 24 months, as applicable, for which data are available, using the assignment methodology described in §§ 425.402 and 425.404.
(ii) Beneficiaries that are prospectively assigned to an ACO under paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section will remain assigned to the ACO at the end of the benchmark or performance year unless they meet any of the exclusion criteria under § 425.401(b).
(4) Assignment methodology applied to ACO. (i) For agreement periods beginning before July 1, 2019, the applicable assignment methodology is determined based on track as specified in § 425.600(a).
(A) Preliminary prospective assignment with retrospective reconciliation as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section applies to Track 1 and Track 2 ACOs.
(B) Prospective assignment as described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section applies to Track 3 ACOs.
(ii) For agreement periods beginning on July 1, 2019 and in subsequent years, an ACO may select the assignment methodology that CMS employs for assignment of beneficiaries under this subpart.
(A) An ACO may select either of the following:
(1) Preliminary prospective assignment with retrospective reconciliation, as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
(2) Prospective assignment, as described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
(B) This selection is made prior to the start of each agreement period, and may be modified prior to the start of each performance year as specified in § 425.226.
(b) Beneficiary assignment to an ACO is for purposes of determining the population of Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries for whose care the ACO is accountable under subpart F of this part, and for determining whether an ACO has achieved savings under subpart G of this part, and in no way diminishes or restricts the rights of beneficiaries assigned to an ACO to exercise free choice in determining where to receive health care services.
(c) Primary care services for purposes of assigning beneficiaries are identified by selected HCPCS/CPT codes, or revenue center codes.
(1) Primary care service codes are as follows:
(i) For performance years 2012 through 2015:
(A) CPT codes:
(1) 99201 through 99215.
(2) 99304 through 99340.
(3) 99341 through 99350.
(B) HCPCS codes G0402 (the code for the Welcome to Medicare visit) and G0438 and G0439 (codes for the annual wellness visits).
(C) Revenue center codes 0521, 0522, 0524, and 0525 submitted by FQHCs (for services furnished prior to January 1, 2011), or by RHCs.
(ii) For performance year 2016 as follows:
(A) CPT codes:
(1) 99201 through 99215.
(2) 99304 through 99340.
(3) 99341 through 99350.
(4) 99495, 99496, and 99490.
(B) HCPCS codes:
(1) G0402 (the code for the Welcome to Medicare visit) and
(2) G0438 and G0439 (codes for the annual wellness visits).
(3) G0463 for services furnished in ETA hospitals.
(C) Revenue center codes 0521, 0522, 0524, and 0525 submitted by FQHCs (for services furnished prior to January 1, 2011), or by RHCs.
(iii) For performance years 2017 and 2018 as follows:
(A) CPT codes:
(1) 99201 through 99215.
(2) 99304 through 99318 (excluding claims including the POS 31 modifier).
(3) 99319 through 99340.
(4) 99341 through 99350.
(5) 99495, 99496, and 99490.
(B) HCPCS Codes:
(1) G0402 (the code for the Welcome to Medicare visit) and
(2) G0438 and G0439 (codes for the annual wellness visits).
(3) G0463 for services furnished in ETA hospitals.
(C) Revenue center codes 0521, 0522, 0524, and 0525 submitted by FQHCs (for services furnished prior to January 1, 2011), or by RHCs.
(iv) For performance years (or a performance period) during 2019, and performance year 2020 as follows:
(A) CPT codes:
(1) 99201 through 99215 (codes for office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of a patient).
(2) 99304 through 99318 (codes for professional services furnished in a nursing facility; services identified by these codes furnished in a SNF are excluded).
(3) 99319 through 99340 (codes for patient domiciliary, rest home, or custodial care visit).
(4) 99341 through 99350 (codes for evaluation and management services furnished in a patients' home for claims identified by place of service modifier 12).
(5) 99487, 99489 and 99490 (codes for chronic care management).
(6) 99495 and 99496 (codes for transitional care management services).
(7) 99497 and 99498 (codes for advance care planning).
(8) 96160 and 96161 (codes for administration of health risk assessment).
(9) 99354 and 99355 (add-on codes, for prolonged evaluation and management or psychotherapy services beyond the typical service time of the primary procedure; when the base code is also a primary care service code under this paragraph (c)(1)).
(10) 99484, 99492, 99493 and 99494 (codes for behavioral health integration services).
(B) HCPCS codes:
(1) G0402 (the code for the Welcome to Medicare visit) and
(2) G0438 and G0439 (codes for the annual wellness visits).
(3) G0463 for services furnished in ETA hospitals.
(4) G0506 (code for chronic care management).
(5) G0444 (codes for annual depression screening service).
(6) G0442 (code for alcohol misuse screening service).
(7) G0443 (code for alcohol misuse counseling service).
(v) For the performance year starting on January 1, 2021:
(A) CPT codes:
(1) 96160 and 96161 (codes for administration of health risk assessment).
(2) 99201 through 99215 (codes for office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of a patient).
(3) 99304 through 99318 (codes for professional services furnished in a nursing facility; professional services or services reported on an FQHC or RHC claim identified by these codes are excluded when furnished in a SNF).
(4) 99319 through 99340 (codes for patient domiciliary, rest home, or custodial care visit).
(5) 99341 through 99350 (codes for evaluation and management services furnished in a patient's home for claims identified by place of service modifier 12).
(6) 99354 and 99355 (add-on codes, for prolonged evaluation and management or psychotherapy services beyond the typical service time of the primary procedure; when the base code is also a primary care service code under this paragraph (c)(1)(v)).
(7) 99421, 99422, and 99423 (codes for online digital evaluation and management).
(8) 99439 (code for non-complex chronic care management).
(9) 99483 (code for assessment of and care planning for patients with cognitive impairment).
(10) 99484, 99492, 99493 and 99494 (codes for behavioral health integration services).
(11) 99487, 99489, 99490 and 99491 (codes for chronic care management).
(12) 99495 and 99496 (codes for transitional care management services).
(13) 99497 and 99498 (codes for advance care planning; services identified by these codes furnished in an inpatient setting are excluded).
(B) HCPCS codes:
(1) G0402 (code for the Welcome to Medicare visit).
(2) G0438 and G0439 (codes for the annual wellness visits).
(3) G0442 (code for alcohol misuse screening service).
(4) G0443 (code for alcohol misuse counseling service).
(5) G0444 (code for annual depression screening service).
(6) G0463 (code for services furnished in ETA hospitals).
(7) G0506 (code for chronic care management).
(8) G2010 (code for the remote evaluation of patient video/images).
(9) G2012 (code for virtual check-in).
(10) G2058 (code for non-complex chronic care management).
(11) G2064 and G2065 (codes for principal care management services).
(12) G2214 (code for psychiatric collaborative care model).
(vi) For the performance year starting on January 1, 2022 as follows:
(A) CPT codes:
(1) 96160 and 96161 (codes for administration of health risk assessment).
(2) 99201 through 99215 (codes for office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of a patient).
(3) 99304 through 99318 (codes for professional services furnished in a nursing facility; professional services or services reported on an FQHC or RHC claim identified by these codes are excluded when furnished in a SNF).
(4) 99319 through 99340 (codes for patient domiciliary, rest home, or custodial care visit).
(5) 99341 through 99350 (codes for evaluation and management services furnished in a patient's home for claims identified by place of service modifier 12).
(6) 99354 and 99355 (add-on codes, for prolonged evaluation and management or psychotherapy services beyond the typical service time of the primary procedure; when the base code is also a primary care service code under this paragraph (c)(1)(vi)).
(7) 99421, 99422, and 99423 (codes for online digital evaluation and management).
(8) 99424, 99425, 99426, and 99427 (codes for principal care management services).
(9) 99437, 99487, 99489, 99490 and 99491 (codes for chronic care management).
(10) 99439 (code for non-complex chronic care management).
(11) 99483 (code for assessment of and care planning for patients with cognitive impairment).
(12) 99484, 99492, 99493 and 99494 (codes for behavioral health integration services).
(13) 99495 and 99496 (codes for transitional care management services).
(14) 99497 and 99498 (codes for advance care planning; services identified by these codes furnished in an inpatient setting are excluded).
(B) HCPCS codes:
(1) G0402 (code for the Welcome to Medicare visit).
(2) G0438 and G0439 (codes for the annual wellness visits).
(3) G0442 (code for alcohol misuse screening service).
(4) G0443 (code for alcohol misuse counseling service).
(5) G0444 (code for annual depression screening service).
(6) G0463 (code for services furnished in ETA hospitals).
(7) G0506 (code for chronic care management).
(8) G2010 (code for the remote evaluation of patient video/images).
(9) G2012 and G2252 (codes for virtual check-in).
(10) G2058 (code for non-complex chronic care management).
(11) G2064 and G2065 (codes for principal care management services).
(12) G2212 (code for prolonged office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of a patient).
(13) G2214 (code for psychiatric collaborative care model).
(C) Primary care service codes include any CPT code identified by CMS that directly replaces a CPT code specified in paragraph (c)(1)(vi)(A) of this section or a HCPCS code specified in paragraph (c)(1)(vi)(B) of this section, when the assignment window (as defined in § 425.20) for a benchmark or performance year includes any day on or after the effective date of the replacement code for payment purposes under FFS Medicare.
(vii) For the performance year starting on January 1, 2023 as follows:
(A) CPT codes:
(1) 96160 and 96161 (codes for administration of health risk assessment).
(2) 99201 through 99215 (codes for office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of a patient).
(3) 99304 through 99318 (codes for professional services furnished in a nursing facility; professional services or services reported on an FQHC or RHC claim identified by these codes are excluded when furnished in a SNF).
(4) 99319 through 99340 (codes for patient domiciliary, rest home, or custodial care visit).
(5) 99341 through 99350 (codes for evaluation and management services furnished in a patient's home).
(6) 99354 and 99355 (add-on codes, for prolonged evaluation and management or psychotherapy services beyond the typical service time of the primary procedure; when the base code is also a primary care service code under this paragraph (c)(1)(vii)).
(7) 99421, 99422, and 99423 (codes for online digital evaluation and management).
(8) 99424, 99425, 99426, and 99427 (codes for principal care management services).
(9) 99437, 99487, 99489, 99490 and 99491 (codes for chronic care management).
(10) 99439 (code for non-complex chronic care management).
(11) 99483 (code for assessment of and care planning for patients with cognitive impairment).
(12) 99484, 99492, 99493 and 99494 (codes for behavioral health integration services).
(13) 99495 and 99496 (codes for transitional care management services).
(14) 99497 and 99498 (codes for advance care planning; services identified by these codes furnished in an inpatient setting are excluded).
(B) HCPCS codes:
(1) G0402 (code for the Welcome to Medicare visit).
(2) G0438 and G0439 (codes for the annual wellness visits).
(3) G0442 (code for alcohol misuse screening service).
(4) G0443 (code for alcohol misuse counseling service).
(5) G0444 (code for annual depression screening service).
(6) G0463 (code for services furnished in ETA hospitals).
(7) G0506 (code for chronic care management).
(8) G2010 (code for the remote evaluation of patient video/images).
(9) G2012 and G2252 (codes for virtual check-in).
(10) G2058 (code for non-complex chronic care management).
(11) G2064 and G2065 (codes for principal care management services).
(12) G0317, G0318, and G2212 (codes for prolonged office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of a patient).
(13) G2214 (code for psychiatric collaborative care model).
(14) G3002 and G3003 (codes for chronic pain management).
(C) Primary care service codes include any CPT code identified by CMS that directly replaces a CPT code specified in paragraph (c)(1)(vii)(A) of this section or a HCPCS code specified in paragraph (c)(1)(vii)(B) of this section, when the assignment window (as defined in § 425.20) for a benchmark or performance year includes any day on or after the effective date of the replacement code for payment purposes under FFS Medicare.
(viii) For the performance year starting on January 1, 2024, as follows:
(A) CPT codes:
(1) 96160 and 96161 (codes for administration of health risk assessment).
(2) 96202 and 96203 (codes for caregiver behavior management training).
(3) 97550, 97551, and 97552 (codes for caregiver training services).
(4) 99201 through 99215 (codes for office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of a patient).
(5) 99304 through 99318 (codes for professional services furnished in a nursing facility; professional services or services reported on an FQHC or RHC claim identified by these codes are excluded when furnished in a SNF).
(6) 99319 through 99340 (codes for patient domiciliary, rest home, or custodial care visit).
(7) 99341 through 99350 (codes for evaluation and management services furnished in a patient's home).
(8) 99354 and 99355 (add-on codes, for prolonged evaluation and management or psychotherapy services beyond the typical service time of the primary procedure; when the base code is also a primary care service code under this paragraph (c)(1)(viii)).
(9) 99406 and 99407 (codes for smoking and tobacco-use cessation counseling services).
(10) 99421, 99422, and 99423 (codes for online digital evaluation and management).
(11) 99424, 99425, 99426, and 99427 (codes for principal care management services).
(12) 99437, 99487, 99489, 99490 and 99491 (codes for chronic care management).
(13) 99439 (code for non-complex chronic care management).
(14) 99483 (code for assessment of and care planning for patients with cognitive impairment).
(15) 99484, 99492, 99493 and 99494 (codes for behavioral health integration services).
(16) 99495 and 99496 (codes for transitional care management services).
(17) 99497 and 99498 (codes for advance care planning; services identified by these codes furnished in an inpatient setting are excluded).
(B) HCPCS codes:
(1) G0019 and G0022 (codes for community health integration services).
(2) G0023 and G0024 (codes for principal illness navigation services).
(3) G0101 (code for cervical or vaginal cancer screening).
(4) G0136 (code for social determinants of health risk assessment services).
(5) G0317, G0318, and G2212 (codes for prolonged office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of a patient).
(6) G0402 (code for the Welcome to Medicare visit).
(7) G0438 and G0439 (codes for the annual wellness visits).
(8) G0442 (code for alcohol misuse screening service).
(9) G0443 (code for alcohol misuse counseling service).
(10) G0444 (code for annual depression screening service).
(11) G0463 (code for services furnished in ETA hospitals).
(12) G0506 (code for chronic care management).
(13) G2010 (code for the remote evaluation of patient video/images).
(14) G2012 and G2252 (codes for virtual check-in).
(15) G2058 (code for non-complex chronic care management).
(16) G2064 and G2065 (codes for principal care management services).
(17) G2086, G2087, and G2088 (codes for office-based opioid use disorder services).
(18) G2211 (code for visit complexity inherent to evaluation and management services add-on).
(19) G2214 (code for psychiatric collaborative care model).
(20) G3002 and G3003 (codes for chronic pain management).
(C) Primary care service codes include any CPT code identified by CMS that directly replaces a CPT code specified in paragraph (c)(1)(viii)(A) of this section or a HCPCS code specified in paragraph (c)(1)(viii)(B) of this section, when the assignment window (as defined in § 425.20) for a benchmark or performance year includes any day on or after the effective date of the replacement code for payment purposes under FFS Medicare.
(ix) For the performance year starting on January 1, 2025, as follows:
(A) CPT codes:
(1) 96160 and 96161 (codes for administration of health risk assessment).
(2) 96202 and 96203 (codes for caregiver behavior management training).
(3) 97550, 97551, and 97552 (codes for caregiver training services).
(4) 98016 (code for virtual check-in).
(5) 99201 through 99215 (codes for office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of a patient).
(6) 99304 through 99318 (codes for professional services furnished in a nursing facility; professional services or services reported on an FQHC or RHC claim identified by these codes are excluded when furnished in a skilled nursing facility (SNF)).
(7) 99319 through 99340 (codes for patient domiciliary, rest home, or custodial care visit).
(8) 99341 through 99350 (codes for evaluation and management services furnished in a patient's home).
(9) 99354 and 99355 (add-on codes, for prolonged evaluation and management or psychotherapy services beyond the typical service time of the primary procedure; when the base code is also a primary care service code under this paragraph (c)(1)(ix)).
(10) 99406 and 99407 (codes for smoking and tobacco-use cessation counseling services).
(11) 99421, 99422, and 99423 (codes for online digital evaluation and management).
(12) 99424, 99425, 99426, and 99427 (codes for principal care management services).
(13) 99437, 99487, 99489, 99490 and 99491 (codes for chronic care management).
(14) 99439 (code for non-complex chronic care management).
(15) 99452 (code for interprofessional consultation service).
(16) 99483 (code for assessment of and care planning for patients with cognitive impairment).
(17) 99484, 99492, 99493 and 99494 (codes for behavioral health integration services).
(18) 99495 and 99496 (codes for transitional care management services).
(19) 99497 and 99498 (codes for advance care planning; services identified by these codes furnished in an inpatient setting are excluded).
(B) HCPCS codes:
(1) G0019 and G0022 (codes for community health integration services).
(2) G0023 and G0024 (codes for principal illness navigation services).
(3) G0101 (code for cervical or vaginal cancer screening).
(4) G0136 (code for social determinants of health risk assessment services).
(5) G0317, G0318, and G2212 (codes for prolonged office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of a patient).
(6) G0402 (code for the Welcome to Medicare visit).
(7) G0438 and G0439 (codes for the annual wellness visits).
(8) G0442 (code for alcohol misuse screening service).
(9) G0443 (code for alcohol misuse counseling service).
(10) G0444 (code for annual depression screening service).
(11) G0463 (code for services furnished in electing teaching amendment (ETA) hospitals).
(12) G0506 (code for chronic care management).
(13) G0537 and G0538 (codes for cardiovascular risk assessment and risk management services).
(14) G0539 and G0540 (codes for individual behavior management/modification caregiver training services).
(15) G0541, G0542, and G0543 (codes for direct care caregiver training services).
(16) G0544 (code for post-discharge telephonic follow-up contacts intervention).
(17) G0556, G0557, and G0558 (codes for advanced primary care management services).
(18) G0560 (code for safety planning interventions).
(19) G2010 (code for the remote evaluation of patient video/images).
(20) G2012 and G2252 (codes for virtual check-in).
(21) G2058 (code for non-complex chronic care management).
(22) G2064 and G2065 (codes for principal care management services).
(23) G2086, G2087, and G2088 (codes for office-based opioid use disorder services).
(24) G2211 (code for visit complexity inherent to evaluation and management services add-on).
(25) G2214 (code for psychiatric collaborative care model).
(26) G3002 and G3003 (codes for chronic pain management).
(C) Primary care service codes include any CPT code identified by CMS that directly replaces a CPT code specified in paragraph (c)(1)(ix)(A) of this section or a HCPCS code specified in paragraph (c)(1)(ix)(B) of this section, when the assignment window or expanded window for assignment (as defined in § 425.20) for a benchmark or performance year includes any day on or after the effective date of the replacement code for payment purposes under FFS Medicare.
(x) For the performance year starting on January 1, 2026, and subsequent performance years as follows:
(A) CPT codes:
(1) 96160 and 96161 (codes for administration of health risk assessment).
(2) 96202 and 96203 (codes for caregiver behavior management training).
(3) 97550, 97551, and 97552 (codes for caregiver training services).
(4) 98016 (code for virtual check-in).
(5) 99201 through 99215 (codes for office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of a patient).
(6) 99304 through 99318 (codes for professional services furnished in a nursing facility; professional services or services reported on an FQHC or RHC claim identified by these codes are excluded when furnished in a skilled nursing facility (SNF)).
(7) 99319 through 99340 (codes for patient domiciliary, rest home, or custodial care visit).
(8) 99341 through 99350 (codes for evaluation and management services furnished in a patient's home).
(9) 99354 and 99355 (add-on codes, for prolonged evaluation and management or psychotherapy services beyond the typical service time of the primary procedure; when the base code is also a primary care service code under this paragraph (c)(1)(x)).
(10) 99406 and 99407 (codes for smoking and tobacco-use cessation counseling services).
(11) 99421, 99422, and 99423 (codes for online digital evaluation and management).
(12) 99424, 99425, 99426, and 99427 (codes for principal care management services).
(13) 99437, 99487, 99489, 99490 and 99491 (codes for chronic care management).
(14) 99439 (code for non-complex chronic care management).
(15) 99452 (code for interprofessional consultation service).
(16) 99483 (code for assessment of and care planning for patients with cognitive impairment).
(17) 99484, 99492, 99493 and 99494 (codes for behavioral health integration services).
(18) 99495 and 99496 (codes for transitional care management services).
(19) 99497 and 99498 (codes for advance care planning; services identified by these codes furnished in an inpatient setting are excluded).
(B) HCPCS codes:
(1) G0019 and G0022 (codes for community health integration services).
(2) G0023 and G0024 (codes for principal illness navigation services).
(3) G0101 (code for cervical or vaginal cancer screening).
(4) G0136 (code for physical activity and nutritional assessment services).
(5) G0317, G0318, and G2212 (codes for prolonged office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of a patient).
(6) G0402 (code for the Welcome to Medicare visit).
(7) G0438 and G0439 (codes for the annual wellness visits).
(8) G0442 (code for alcohol misuse screening service).
(9) G0443 (code for alcohol misuse counseling service).
(10) G0444 (code for annual depression screening service).
(11) G0463 (code for services furnished in electing teaching amendment (ETA) hospitals).
(12) G0506 (code for chronic care management).
(13) G0537 and G0538 (codes for cardiovascular risk assessment and risk management services).
(14) G0539 and G0540 (codes for individual behavior management/modification caregiver training services).
(15) G0541, G0542, and G0543 (codes for direct care caregiver training services).
(16) G0544 (code for post-discharge telephonic follow-up contacts intervention).
(17) G0556, G0557, and G0558 (codes for advanced primary care management services).
(18) G0560 (code for safety planning interventions).
(19) G0568 and G0569 (codes for behavioral health integration add-on when furnished with advanced primary care management services).
(20) G0570 (code for psychiatric collaborative care model add-on when furnished with advanced primary care management services).
(21) G2010 (code for the remote evaluation of patient video/images).
(22) G2012 and G2252 (codes for virtual check-in).
(23) G2058 (code for non-complex chronic care management).
(24) G2064 and G2065 (codes for principal care management services).
(25) G2086, G2087, and G2088 (codes for office-based opioid use disorder services).
(26) G2211 (code for visit complexity inherent to evaluation and management services add-on).
(27) G2214 (code for psychiatric collaborative care model).
(28) G3002 and G3003 (codes for chronic pain management).
(C) Primary care service codes include any CPT code identified by CMS that directly replaces a CPT code specified in paragraph (c)(1)(x)(A) of this section or a HCPCS code specified in paragraph (c)(1)(x)(B) of this section, when the assignment window or expanded window for assignment (as defined in § 425.20) for a benchmark or performance year includes any day on or after the effective date of the replacement code for payment purposes under FFS Medicare.
(2)(i) Except as otherwise specified in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(A)(2) of this section, when the assignment window or applicable expanded window for assignment (as defined in § 425.20) for a benchmark or performance year includes any month(s) during the COVID-19 Public Health Emergency defined in § 400.200 of this chapter, in determining beneficiary assignment, we use the primary care service codes identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, and additional primary care service codes as follows:
(A) CPT codes:
(1) 99421, 99422, and 99423 (codes for online digital evaluation and management services).
(2) 99441, 99442, and 99443 (codes for telephone evaluation and management services). These codes are used in determining beneficiary assignment as specified in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section and until they are no longer payable under Medicare fee-for-service payment policies as specified under section 1834(m) of the Act and §§ 410.78 and 414.65 of this subchapter.
(B) HCPCS codes:
(1) G2010 (code for the remote evaluation of patient video/images).
(2) G2012 (code for virtual check-in).
(ii) Except as otherwise specified in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(A)(2) of this section, the additional primary care service codes specified in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section are applicable to all months of the assignment window or applicable expanded window for assignment (as defined in § 425.20), when the assignment window or applicable expanded window for assignment includes any month(s) during the COVID-19 Public Health Emergency defined in § 400.200 of this chapter.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32840, June 9, 2015; 82 FR 53369, Nov. 15, 2017; 83 FR 60092, Nov. 23, 2018; 83 FR 68069, Dec. 31, 2018; 85 FR 27625, May 8, 2020; 85 FR 85040, Dec. 28, 2020; 86 FR 65684, Nov. 19, 2021; 87 FR 70233, Nov. 18, 2022; 88 FR 79544, Nov. 16, 2023; 89 FR 98567, Dec. 9, 2024; 90 FR 50015, Nov. 5, 2025]
§ 425.401 Criteria for a beneficiary to be assigned to an ACO.
(a) A beneficiary may be assigned to an ACO under the assignment methodology in §§ 425.402 and 425.404, for a performance or benchmark year, if the beneficiary meets all of the following criteria during the assignment window:
(1)(i) Has at least 1 month of Part A and Part B enrollment; and
(ii) Does not have any months of Part A only or Part B only enrollment.
(2) Does not have any months of Medicare group (private) health plan enrollment.
(3) Is not assigned to any other Medicare shared savings initiative.
(4) Lives in the United States or U.S. territories and possessions, based on the most recent available data in our beneficiary records regarding the beneficiary's residence at the end of the assignment window.
(b) A beneficiary is excluded from the prospective assignment list of an ACO that is participating under prospective assignment under § 425.400(a)(3) at the end of a performance or benchmark year and quarterly during each performance year consistent with § 425.400(a)(3)(ii), or at the end of CY 2019 as specified in § 425.609(b)(1)(ii) and (c)(1)(ii) if the beneficiary meets any of the following criteria during the performance or benchmark year:
(1)(i) Does not have at least 1 month of Part A and Part B enrollment; and
(ii) Has any months of Part A only or Part B only enrollment.
(2) Has any months of Medicare group (private) health plan enrollment.
(3) Did not live in the United States or U.S. territories and possessions, based on the most recent available data in our beneficiary records regarding the beneficiary's residency at the end of the year.
[80 FR 32840, June 9, 2015, as amended at 83 FR 60093, Nov. 23, 2018; 83 FR 68069, Dec. 31, 2018]
§ 425.402 Basic assignment methodology.
(a) For performance years 2012 through 2015, CMS employs the following step-wise methodology to assign Medicare beneficiaries to an ACO after identifying all patients that had at least one primary care service with a physician who is an ACO professional of that ACO:
(1)(i) Identify all primary care services rendered by primary care physicians during one of the following:
(A) The most recent 12 months (for purposes of preliminary prospective assignment and quarterly updates to the preliminary prospective assignment).
(B) The performance year (for purposes of final assignment).
(ii) The beneficiary is assigned to an ACO if the allowed charges for primary care services furnished to the beneficiary by all the primary care physicians who are ACO professionals in the ACO are greater than the allowed charges for primary care services furnished by primary care physicians who are—
(A) ACO professionals in any other ACO; and
(B) Not affiliated with any ACO and identified by a Medicare-enrolled TIN.
(2) The second step considers the remainder of the beneficiaries who have received at least one primary care service from an ACO physician, but who have not had a primary care service rendered by any primary care physician, either inside or outside the ACO. The beneficiary will be assigned to an ACO if the allowed charges for primary care services furnished to the beneficiary by all ACO professionals in the ACO are greater than the allowed charges for primary care services furnished by—
(i) All ACO professionals in any other ACO; and
(ii) Other physicians, nurse practitioners, physician assistants, clinical nurse specialists who are unaffiliated with an ACO and are identified by a Medicare-enrolled TIN.
(b) For performance year 2016 and subsequent performance years, CMS employs the following step-wise methodology to assign Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries to an ACO based on available claims information:
(1) Identify all beneficiaries that had at least one primary care service during the applicable assignment window with a physician who is an ACO professional in the ACO and who is a primary care physician as defined under § 425.20 or who has one of the primary specialty designations included in paragraph (c) of this section.
(2) Identify all primary care services furnished to beneficiaries identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section by ACO professionals of that ACO who are primary care physicians as defined under § 425.20, non-physician ACO professionals, and physicians with specialty designations included in paragraph (c) of this section during the applicable assignment window.
(3) Under the first step, a beneficiary identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is assigned to an ACO if the allowed charges for primary care services furnished to the beneficiary by primary care physicians who are ACO professionals and non-physician ACO professionals in the ACO are greater than the allowed charges for primary care services furnished by primary care physicians, nurse practitioners, physician assistants, and clinical nurse specialists who are—
(i) ACO professionals in any other ACO; or
(ii) Not affiliated with any ACO and identified by a Medicare-enrolled billing TIN.
(4) The second step considers the remainder of the beneficiaries identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section who have not had a primary care service rendered by any primary care physician, nurse practitioner, physician assistant, or clinical nurse specialist, either inside the ACO or outside the ACO. The beneficiary will be assigned to an ACO if the allowed charges for primary care services furnished to the beneficiary by physicians who are ACO professionals with specialty designations as specified in paragraph (c) of this section are greater than the allowed charges for primary care services furnished by physicians with specialty designations as specified in paragraph (c) of this section—
(i) Who are ACO professionals in any other ACO; or
(ii) Who are unaffiliated with an ACO and are identified by a Medicare-enrolled billing TIN.
(5) For performance year 2025 and subsequent performance years, CMS employs the following third step to assign Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries who were not identified by the criterion specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section:
(i) Identify all beneficiaries who had at least one primary care service with a non-physician ACO professional in the ACO during the applicable assignment window.
(ii) For the beneficiaries identified in paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section, identify those beneficiaries that had at least one primary care service with a physician who is an ACO professional in the ACO and who is a primary care physician as defined under § 425.20 or who has one of the primary specialty designations included in paragraph (c) of this section during the applicable expanded window for assignment.
(iii) Identify all primary care services furnished to beneficiaries identified in paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section by ACO professionals in the ACO who are primary care physicians as defined under § 425.20, non-physician ACO professionals, and physicians with specialty designations included in paragraph (c) of this section during the applicable expanded window for assignment.
(iv) A beneficiary identified in paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section is assigned to the ACO if the allowed charges for primary care services furnished to the beneficiary by ACO professionals in the ACO who are primary care physicians, physicians with specialty designations included in paragraph (c) of this section, or non-physician ACO professionals during the applicable expanded window for assignment are greater than the allowed charges for primary care services furnished by primary care physicians, physicians with specialty designations as specified in paragraph (c) of this section, nurse practitioners, physician assistants, and clinical nurse specialists who are—
(A) ACO professionals in any other ACO; or
(B) Not affiliated with any ACO and identified by a Medicare-enrolled billing TIN.
(c) ACO professionals considered in the second and third step of the assignment methodology in paragraphs (b)(4) and (5) of this section include physicians who have one of the following primary specialty designations:
(1) Cardiology.
(2) Osteopathic manipulative medicine.
(3) Neurology.
(4) Obstetrics/gynecology.
(5) Sports medicine.
(6) Physical medicine and rehabilitation.
(7) Psychiatry.
(8) Geriatric psychiatry.
(9) Pulmonary disease.
(10) Nephrology.
(11) Endocrinology.
(12) Multispecialty clinic or group practice.
(13) Addiction medicine.
(14) Hematology.
(15) Hematology/oncology.
(16) Preventive medicine.
(17) Neuropsychiatry.
(18) Medical oncology.
(19) Gynecology/oncology.
(d) When considering services furnished by ACO professionals in teaching hospitals that have elected under § 415.160 of this subchapter to receive payment on a reasonable cost basis for the direct medical and surgical services of their physicians in the assignment methodology under paragraph (b) of this section, CMS uses an estimated amount based on the amounts payable under the physician fee schedule for similar services in the geographic location of the teaching hospital as a proxy for the amount of the allowed charges for the service.
(e) For performance year 2018 and subsequent performance years, if a system is available to allow a beneficiary to designate a provider or supplier as responsible for coordinating their overall care and for CMS to process the designation electronically, CMS will supplement the claims-based assignment methodology described in this section with information provided by beneficiaries regarding the provider or supplier they consider responsible for coordinating their overall care. Such designations must be made in the form and manner and by a deadline determined by CMS.
(1) Notwithstanding the assignment methodology under paragraph (b) of this section, beneficiaries who designate an ACO professional participating in an ACO as responsible for coordinating their overall care are prospectively assigned to that ACO, regardless of track, annually at the beginning of each benchmark and performance year based on available data at the time assignment lists are determined for the benchmark and performance year.
(2) Beneficiaries are added to the ACO's list of assigned beneficiaries if all of the following conditions are satisfied:
(i) For performance year 2018:
(A) The beneficiary must have had at least one primary care service during the assignment window as defined under § 425.20 with a physician who is an ACO professional in the ACO who is a primary care physician as defined under § 425.20 or who has one of the primary specialty designations included in paragraph (c) of this section.
(B) The beneficiary meets the eligibility criteria established at § 425.401(a) and must not be excluded by the criteria at § 425.401(b). The exclusion criteria at § 425.401(b) apply for purposes of determining beneficiary eligibility for alignment to ACOs under all tracks based on the beneficiary's designation of an ACO professional as responsible for coordinating their overall care under paragraph (e) of this section.
(C) The beneficiary must have designated an ACO professional who is a primary care physician as defined at § 425.20, a physician with a specialty designation included at paragraph (c) of this section, or a nurse practitioner, physician assistant, or clinical nurse specialist as responsible for coordinating their overall care.
(D) If a beneficiary has designated a provider or supplier outside the ACO who is a primary care physician as defined at § 425.20, a physician with a specialty designation included at paragraph (c) of this section, or a nurse practitioner, physician assistant, or clinical nurse specialist, as responsible for coordinating their overall care, the beneficiary is not added to the ACO's list of assigned beneficiaries under the assignment methodology in paragraph (b) of this section.
(ii) For performance years starting on January 1, 2019, through 2024:
(A) The beneficiary meets the eligibility criteria established at § 425.401(a) and must not be excluded by the criteria at § 425.401(b). The exclusion criteria at § 425.401(b) apply for purposes of determining beneficiary eligibility for alignment to an ACO based on the beneficiary's designation of an ACO professional as responsible for coordinating their overall care under paragraph (e) of this section, regardless of the ACO's assignment methodology selection under § 425.226(a)(1).
(B) The beneficiary must have designated an ACO professional as responsible for coordinating their overall care.
(C) If a beneficiary has designated a provider or supplier outside the ACO as responsible for coordinating their overall care, the beneficiary is not added under the assignment methodology in paragraph (b) of this section to the ACO's list of assigned beneficiaries for a 12-month performance year or the ACO's list of assigned beneficiaries for a 6-month performance year, which is based on the entire CY 2019 as provided in § 425.609.
(D) The beneficiary is not assigned to an entity participating in a model tested or expanded under section 1115A of the Act under which claims-based assignment is based solely on claims for services other than primary care services and for which there has been a determination by the Secretary that waiver of the requirement in section 1899(c)(2)(B) of the Act is necessary solely for purposes of testing the model.
(iii) For performance year 2025 and subsequent performance years:
(A) The beneficiary meets the eligibility criteria established at § 425.401(a) and must not be excluded by the criteria at § 425.401(b). The exclusion criteria at § 425.401(b) apply for purposes of determining beneficiary eligibility for alignment to an ACO based on the beneficiary's designation of an ACO professional as responsible for coordinating their overall care under paragraph (e) of this section, regardless of the ACO's assignment methodology selection under § 425.226(a)(1).
(B) The beneficiary must have designated an ACO professional as responsible for coordinating their overall care.
(C) If a beneficiary has designated a provider or supplier outside the ACO as responsible for coordinating their overall care, the beneficiary is not added under the assignment methodology in paragraph (b) of this section to the ACO's list of assigned beneficiaries for a 12-month performance year.
(D) The beneficiary is not assigned to an entity participating in a model tested or expanded under section 1115A of the Act that meets the following conditions—
(1) Claims-based assignment for the model is based solely on either—
(i) Claims for primary care and/or other services related to treatment of one or more specific diseases or conditions targeted by the model; or
(ii) Claims for services other than primary care services; and
(2) There has been a determination by the Secretary that waiver of the requirement in section 1899(c)(2)(B) of the Act is necessary solely for purposes of testing the model.
(3) The ACO, ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, ACO professionals, and other individuals or entities performing functions and services related to ACO activities are prohibited from providing or offering gifts or other remuneration to Medicare beneficiaries as inducements for influencing a Medicare beneficiary's decision to designate or not to designate an ACO professional under paragraph (e) of this section. The ACO, ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, ACO professionals, and other individuals or entities performing functions and services related to ACO activities must not, directly or indirectly, commit any act or omission, nor adopt any policy that coerces or otherwise influences a Medicare beneficiary's decision to designate or not to designate an ACO professional as responsible for coordinating their overall care under paragraph (e) of this section, including but not limited to the following:
(i) Offering anything of value to the Medicare beneficiary as an inducement to influence the Medicare beneficiary's decision to designate or not to designate an ACO professional as responsible for coordinating their overall care under paragraph (e) of this section. Any items or services provided in violation of paragraph (e)(3) of this section are not considered to have a reasonable connection to the medical care of the beneficiary, as required under § 425.304(b)(1).
(ii) Withholding or threatening to withhold medical services or limiting or threatening to limit access to care.
(f) For performance year 2023 and subsequent performance years, CMS employs the following process to identify services furnished by FQHCs, RHCs, Method II CAHs, and ETA hospitals for purposes of the beneficiary assignment methodology under this section.
(1) Prior to the start of the performance year and periodically during the performance year, CMS will determine the CCNs for all FQHCs, RHCs, Method II CAHs, and ETA hospitals enrolled under the TIN of an ACO participant, including all CCNs with an active enrollment in Medicare and all CCNs with a deactivated enrollment status.
(2) CMS uses the CCNs identified in paragraph (f)(1) of this section in determining assignment for the performance year.
(3) CMS accounts for changes in CCN enrollment status during the performance year as follows:
(i) If a CCN with no prior Medicare claims experience enrolls under the TIN of an ACO participant after the ACO certifies its ACO participant list for a performance year as required under § 425.118(a)(3), CMS will consider services furnished by that CCN in determining beneficiary assignment to the ACO for the applicable performance year for ACOs under preliminary prospective assignment with retrospective reconciliation.
(ii) Services furnished by a CCN with a deactivated enrollment status that is enrolled under an ACO participant at the start of a performance year will be considered in determining beneficiary assignment to the ACO for the applicable performance year or benchmark year.
(iii) If a CCN enrolled under the TIN of an ACO participant at the start of the performance year enrolls under a different TIN during a performance year, CMS will continue to treat services billed by the CCN as services furnished by the ACO participant it was enrolled under at the start of the performance year for purposes of determining beneficiary assignment to the ACO for the applicable performance year.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32841, June 9, 2015; 80 FR 71386, Nov. 16, 2015; 81 FR 80559, Nov. 15, 2016; 83 FR 60093, Nov. 23, 2018; 83 FR 68069, Dec. 31, 2018; 87 FR 70234, Nov. 18, 2022; 88 FR 79545, Nov. 16, 2023; 89 FR 98568, Dec. 9, 2024]
§ 425.404 Special assignment conditions for ACOs including FQHCs and RHCs.
CMS assigns beneficiaries to ACOs based on services furnished in FQHCs or RHCs or both consistent with the general assignment methodology in § 425.402, with special conditions:
(a) For performance years 2012 through 2018—
(1) Such ACOs are required to identify, through an attestation, physicians who directly provide primary care services in each FQHC or RHC that is an ACO participant and/or ACO provider/supplier in the ACO.
(2) Under the assignment methodology in § 425.402, CMS treats a service reported on an FQHC/RHC claim as a primary care service—
(i) If the claim includes a HCPCS or revenue center code that meets the definition of primary care services under § 425.20;
(ii) Performed by a primary care physician if the NPI of a physician identified in the attestation provided under paragraph (a)(1) of this section is reported on the claim for a primary care service (as described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section) as the attending provider; and
(iii) Performed by a non-physician ACO professional if the NPI reported on the claim for a primary care service (as described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section) as the attending provider is an ACO professional but is not identified in the attestation provided under paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
(b) For performance years starting on January 1, 2019, and subsequent performance years, under the assignment methodology in § 425.402, CMS treats a service reported on an FQHC/RHC claim as a primary care service performed by a primary care physician.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32841, June 9, 2015; 82 FR 53369, Nov. 15, 2017; 83 FR 60093, Nov. 23, 2018]
Subpart F Quality Performance Standards and Reporting
§ 425.500 Measures to assess the quality of care furnished by an ACO for performance years (or a performance period) beginning on or before January 1, 2020.
(a) General. CMS establishes quality performance measures to assess the quality of care furnished by the ACO. If the ACO demonstrates to CMS that it has satisfied the quality performance requirements in this subpart, and the ACO meets all other applicable requirements, the ACO is eligible for shared savings.
(b) Selecting measures. (1) CMS selects the measures designated to determine an ACO's success in promoting the aims of better care for individuals, better health for populations, and lower growth in expenditures.
(2) CMS designates the measures for use in the calculation of the quality performance standard.
(3) CMS seeks to improve the quality of care furnished by ACOs over time by specifying higher standards, new measures, or both.
(c) ACOs must submit data on the measures determined under paragraph (b) of this section according to the method of submission established by CMS.
(d) Patient experience of care survey. (1) For performance years (or a performance period) beginning in 2014 through 2019, ACOs must select a CMS-certified vendor to administer the survey and report the results accordingly.
(2) For performance year 2020, CMS waives the CAHPS for ACOs reporting requirement and will assign all ACOs automatic credit for the CAHPS for ACOs survey measures.
(e) Audit and validation of data. CMS retains the right to audit and validate quality data reported by an ACO.
(1) In an audit, the ACO will provide beneficiary medical records data if requested by CMS.
(2) If, at the conclusion of the audit process the overall audit match rate between the quality data reported and the medical records provided under paragraph (e)(1) of this section is less than 80 percent, absent unusual circumstances, CMS will adjust the ACO's overall quality score proportional to the ACO's audit performance.
(3) If, at the conclusion of the audit process CMS determines there is an audit match rate of less than 90 percent, the ACO may be required to submit a CAP under § 425.216 for CMS approval.
(f) Failure to report quality measure data accurately, completely, and timely (or to timely correct such data) may subject the ACO to termination or other sanctions, as described in §§ 425.216 and 425.218.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 80559, Nov. 15, 2016; 82 FR 53370, Nov. 15, 2017; 85 FR 85040, Dec. 28, 2020]
Editorial Note:At 82 FR 53370, Nov. 15, 2017, § 425.500 was amended; however, a portion of the amendment could not be incorporated due to inaccurate amendatory instruction.
§ 425.502 Calculating the ACO quality performance score for performance years (or a performance period) beginning on or before January 1, 2020.
(a) Establishing a quality performance standard. CMS designates the quality performance standard in each performance year. The quality performance standard is the overall standard the ACO must meet in order to be eligible for shared savings.
(1) For the first performance year of an ACO's first agreement period, CMS defines the quality performance standard at the level of complete and accurate reporting for all quality measures.
(2) During subsequent performance years of the ACO's first agreement period, the quality performance standard will be phased in such that the ACO must continue to report all measures but the ACO will be assessed on performance based on the quality performance benchmark and minimum attainment level of all measures.
(3) Under the quality performance standard for each performance year of an ACO's subsequent agreement period, the ACO must continue to report on all measures but the ACO will be assessed on performance based on the quality performance benchmark and minimum attainment level of all measures.
(4) A newly introduced measure is set at the level of complete and accurate reporting for the first two reporting periods, the measure is required. For subsequent reporting periods, the quality performance standard for the measure will be assessed according to the phase-in schedule for the measure.
(5) CMS reserves the right to redesignate a measure as pay for reporting when the measure owner determines the measure no longer aligns with clinical practice or causes patient harm, or when there is a determination under the Quality Payment Program that the measure has undergone a substantive change.
(b) Establishing a performance benchmark and minimum attainment level for measures. (1) CMS designates a performance benchmark and minimum attainment level for each measure, and establishes a point scale for the measures.
(2)(i) CMS will define the quality benchmarks using fee-for-service Medicare data.
(ii) CMS will set benchmarks using flat percentages when the 60th percentile is equal to or greater than 80.00 percent, or when the 90th percentile is equal to or greater than 95 percent.
(iii) CMS reserves the right to use flat percentages for other measures when CMS determines that fee-for-service Medicare data are unavailable, inadequate, or unreliable to set the quality benchmarks.
(3) The minimum attainment level for pay for performance measures is set at 30 percent or the 30th percentile of the performance benchmark. The minimum attainment level for pay for reporting measures is set at the level of complete and accurate reporting.
(4)(i) CMS will update the quality performance benchmarks every 2 years.
(ii) For newly introduced measures that transition to pay for performance in the second year of the 2-year benchmarking cycle, the benchmark will be established for that year and updated along with the other measures at the start of the next 2-year benchmarking cycle.
(iii) CMS will use up to three years of data, as available, to set the benchmark for each quality measure.
(c) Methodology for calculating a performance score for each measure. (1) Performance below the minimum attainment level for a measure will receive zero points for that measure.
(2) Performance equal to or greater than the minimum attainment level for a pay-for-performance measure will receive points on a sliding scale based on the level of performance.
(3) Those measures designated as all or nothing measures will receive the maximum available points if all criteria are met and zero points if one or more of the criteria are not met.
(4) Performance at or above 90 percent or the 90th percentile of the performance benchmark earns the maximum points available for the measure.
(5) Performance equal to or greater than the minimum attainment level for pay-for-reporting measures will receive the maximum available points.
(d) Establishing quality requirements for domains. (1) CMS groups individual measures into four domains:
(i) Patient/care giver experience.
(ii) Care coordination/Patient safety.
(iii) Preventative health.
(iv) At-risk population.
(2) To satisfy quality requirements for a domain:
(i) The ACO must report all measures within a domain.
(ii) CMS may take the compliance actions described in § 425.216 for ACOs exhibiting poor performance on a domain, as determined by CMS under § 425.316.
(iii)(A) If the ACO achieves the minimum attainment level for at least one measure in each of the four domains, and also satisfies the requirements for realizing shared savings under subpart G of this part, the ACO may receive the proportion of those shared savings for which it qualifies.
(B) If an ACO fails to achieve the minimum attainment level on all measures in a domain, it will not be eligible to share in any savings generated.
(e) Methodology for calculating the ACO's overall performance score. (1) CMS scores individual measures and determines the corresponding number of points that may be earned based on the ACO's performance.
(2) CMS adds the points earned for the individual measures within the domain and divides by the total points available for the domain to determine the domain score.
(3) Domains are weighted equally and scores averaged to determine the ACO's overall performance score and sharing rate.
(4)(i) ACOs that demonstrate quality improvement on established quality measures from year to year will be eligible for up to 4 bonus points per domain.
(ii) Bonus points are awarded based on an ACO's net improvement in measures within a domain, which is calculated by determining the total number of significantly improved measures and subtracting the total number of significantly declined measures.
(iii) Up to four bonus points are awarded based on a comparison of the ACO's net improvement in performance on the measures for the domain to the total number of individual measures in the domain.
(iv) When bonus points are added to points earned for the quality measures in the domain, the total points received for the domain may not exceed the maximum total points for the domain in the absence of the quality improvement measure.
(v) If an ACO renews its participation agreement for a subsequent agreement period, quality improvement will be measured based on a comparison between performance in the first year of the new agreement period and performance in the last year of the previous agreement period.
(vi) For performance year 2017 and subsequent performance years, if an ACO receives the mean Shared Savings Program ACO quality score based on the extreme and uncontrollable circumstances policies in paragraph (f) of this section, the ACO is not eligible for bonus points awarded based on quality improvement.
(vii) For performance year 2017 and subsequent performance years, if an ACO receives the mean Shared Savings Program ACO quality score under paragraph (f) of this section, in the next performance year for which the ACO receives a quality performance score based on its own quality reporting, quality improvement is measured based on a comparison between the performance in that year and the most recently available prior performance year in which the ACO reported quality.
(f) Extreme and uncontrollable circumstances. For performance year 2017 and subsequent performance years, including the applicable quality data reporting period for the performance year, CMS uses an alternative approach to calculating the quality score for ACOs affected by extreme and uncontrollable circumstances instead of the methodology specified in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section as follows:
(1) CMS determines the ACO was affected by an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance based on either of the following:
(i) Twenty percent or more of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries reside in an area identified under the Quality Payment Program as being affected by an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance.
(A) Assignment is determined under subpart E of this part.
(B) In making this determination for performance year 2017, CMS uses the final list of beneficiaries assigned to the ACO for the performance year. For performance year 2018 and subsequent performance years, CMS uses the list of assigned beneficiaries used to generate the Web Interface quality reporting sample.
(ii) The ACO's legal entity is located in an area identified under the Quality Payment Program as being affected by an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance. An ACO's legal entity location is based on the address on file for the ACO in CMS' ACO application and management system.
(2) If CMS determines the ACO meets the requirements of paragraph (f)(1) of this section, CMS calculates the ACO's quality score as follows:
(i) The ACO's minimum quality performance score is set to equal the mean quality performance score for all Shared Savings Program ACOs for the relevant performance year.
(ii) If the ACO completely and accurately reports all quality measures, CMS uses the higher of the ACO's quality performance score or the mean quality performance score for all Shared Savings Program ACOs.
(3) CMS applies determinations made under the Quality Payment Program with respect to—
(i) Whether an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance has occurred; and
(ii) The affected areas.
(4) CMS has sole discretion to determine the time period during which an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance occurred, the percentage of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries residing in the affected areas, and the location of the ACO legal entity.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 74823, Dec. 10, 2013; 79 FR 68008, Nov. 13, 2014; 80 FR 71386, Nov. 16, 2015; 81 FR 80560, Nov. 15, 2016; 82 FR 53370, Nov. 15, 2017; 82 FR 60918, Dec. 26, 2017; 83 FR 60093, Nov. 23, 2018; 83 FR 68069, Dec. 31, 2018; 85 FR 19291, Apr. 6, 2020; 85 FR 85040, Dec. 28, 2020]
§ 425.504 Incorporating reporting requirements related to the Physician Quality Reporting System Incentive and Payment Adjustment.
(a) Physician quality reporting system. (1) ACOs, on behalf of eligible professionals who bill under the TIN of an ACO participant, must submit the measures determined under § 425.500 using a CMS web interface, to qualify on behalf of their eligible professionals for the Physician Quality Reporting System incentive under the Shared Savings Program.
(2)(i) Eligible professionals who bill under the TIN of an ACO participant within an ACO may only participate under their ACO participant TIN as a group practice under the Physician Quality Reporting System Group Practice Reporting Option of the Shared Savings Program for purposes of receiving an incentive payment under the Physician Quality Reporting System.
(ii) Under the Shared Savings Program, an ACO, on behalf of eligible professionals who bill under the TIN of an ACO participant must satisfactorily report the measures determined under Subpart F of this part during the reporting period according to the method of submission established by CMS under the Shared Savings Program in order to receive a Physician Quality Reporting System incentive under the Shared Savings Program.
(3) If eligible professionals who bill under the TIN of an ACO participant within an ACO qualify for a Physician Quality Reporting System incentive payment, each ACO participant TIN, on behalf of its ACO supplier/provider participants who are eligible professionals, will receive an incentive, for those years an incentive is available, based on the allowed charges under the Physician Fee Schedule for that TIN.
(4) ACO participant TINs and individual eligible professionals who bill under the TIN of an ACO participant cannot earn a Physician Quality Reporting System incentive outside of the Medicare Shared Savings Program.
(5) The Physician Quality Reporting System incentive under the Medicare Shared Savings Program is equal to 0.5 percent of the Secretary's estimate of the ACO's eligible professionals' total Medicare Part B Physician Fee Schedule allowed charges for covered professional services furnished during the calendar year reporting period from January 1 through December 31, for years 2012 through 2014.
(b) Physician Quality Reporting System payment adjustment for 2015. (1) ACOs, on behalf of eligible professionals who bill under the TIN of an ACO participant, must submit one of the ACO GPRO measures determined under § 425.500 using a CMS web interface, to satisfactorily report on behalf of their eligible professionals for purposes of the 2015 Physician Quality Reporting System payment adjustment under the Shared Savings Program.
(2)(i) Eligible professionals who bill under the TIN of an ACO participant within an ACO may only participate under their ACO participant TIN as a group practice under the Physician Quality Reporting System Group Practice Reporting Option of the Shared Savings Program for purposes of the 2015 Physician Quality Reporting System payment adjustment under the Shared Savings Program.
(ii) Under the Shared Savings Program, an ACO, on behalf of eligible professionals who bill under the TIN of an ACO participant, must satisfactorily report one of the measures determined under Subpart F of this part during the reporting period for a year, as defined in paragraph (b)(6) of this section, according to the method of submission established by CMS under the Shared Savings Program for purposes of the 2015 Physician Quality Reporting System payment adjustment.
(3) If an ACO, on behalf of eligible professionals who bill under the TIN of an ACO participant, does not satisfactorily report for purposes of a 2015 Physician Quality Reporting System payment adjustment, each eligible professional who bills under the TIN of an ACO participant, will receive a payment adjustment, as described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
(4) ACO participant TINs and individual eligible professionals who bill under the TIN of an ACO participant cannot satisfactorily report for purposes of a 2015 Physician Quality Reporting System payment adjustment outside of the Medicare Shared Savings Program.
(5) For eligible professionals subject to the 2015 Physician Quality Reporting System payment adjustment under the Medicare Shared Savings Program, the Medicare Part B Physician Fee Schedule amount for covered professional services furnished during the program year is equal to the applicable percent of the Medicare Part B Physician Fee Schedule amount that would otherwise apply to such services under section 1848 of the Act.
(i) The applicable percent for 2015 is 98.5 percent.
(ii) The applicable percent for 2016 and subsequent years is 98.0 percent.
(6) The reporting period for a year is the calendar year from January 1 through December 31 that occurs 2 years prior to the program year in which the payment adjustment is applied.
(c) Physician Quality Reporting System payment adjustment for 2016. (1) ACOs, on behalf of eligible professionals who bill under the TIN of an ACO participant, must submit all of the ACO GPRO measures determined under § 425.500 using a CMS web interface, to satisfactorily report on behalf of their eligible professionals for purposes of the Physician Quality Reporting System payment adjustment under the Shared Savings Program for 2016.
(2) Eligible professionals who bill under the TIN of an ACO participant within an ACO may only participate under their ACO participant TIN as a group practice under the Physician Quality Reporting System Group Practice Reporting Option of the Shared Savings Program for purposes of the Physician Quality Reporting System payment adjustment under the Shared Savings Program for 2016 and subsequent years.
(3) If an ACO, on behalf of eligible professionals who bill under the TIN of an ACO participant, does not satisfactorily report for purposes of the Physician Quality Reporting System payment adjustment for 2016 and subsequent years, each eligible professional who bills under the TIN of an ACO participant, will receive a payment adjustment, as described in § 414.90(e) of this chapter.
(4) For eligible professionals subject to the Physician Quality Reporting System payment adjustment under the Medicare Shared Savings Program for 2016 and subsequent years, the Medicare Part B Physician Fee Schedule amount for covered professional services furnished during the program year is equal to the applicable percent of the Medicare Part B Physician Fee Schedule amount that would otherwise apply to such services under section 1848 of the Act, as described in § 414.90(e) of this chapter.
(5) The reporting period for a year is the calendar year from January 1 through December 31 that occurs 2 years prior to the program year in which the payment adjustment is applied.
(d) Physician Quality Reporting System payment adjustment for 2017 and 2018. (1) ACOs, on behalf of eligible professionals who bill under the TIN of an ACO participant, must submit all of the ACO GPRO measures determined under § 425.500 using a CMS web interface, to satisfactorily report on behalf of their eligible professionals for purposes of the Physician Quality Reporting System payment adjustment under the Shared Savings Program for 2017 and 2018.
(2) Eligible professionals who bill under the TIN of an ACO participant within an ACO participate under their ACO participant TIN as a group practice under the Physician Quality Reporting System Group Practice Reporting Option of the Shared Savings Program for purposes of the Physician Quality Reporting System payment adjustment under the Shared Savings Program for 2017 and 2018.
(3) If an ACO, on behalf of eligible professionals who bill under the TIN of an ACO participant, does not satisfactorily report for purposes of the Physician Quality Reporting System payment adjustment for 2017 or 2018, each eligible professional who bills under the TIN of an ACO participant will receive a payment adjustment, as described in § 414.90(e) of this chapter, unless such eligible professionals have reported quality measures apart from the ACO in the form and manner required by the Physician Quality Reporting System.
(4) For eligible professionals subject to the Physician Quality Reporting System payment adjustment under the Medicare Shared Savings Program for 2017 or 2018, the Medicare Part B Physician Fee Schedule amount for covered professional services furnished during the program year is equal to the applicable percent of the Medicare Part B Physician Fee Schedule amount that would otherwise apply to such services under section 1848 of the Act, as described in § 414.90(e) of this chapter.
(5) The reporting period for a year is the calendar year from January 1 through December 31 that occurs 2 years prior to the program year in which the payment adjustment is applied, unless otherwise specified by CMS under the Physician Quality Reporting System.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 69372, Nov. 16, 2012; 78 FR 74283, Dec. 10, 2013; 80 FR 71386, Nov. 16, 2015; 81 FR 80560, Nov. 15, 2016]
§ 425.506 Incorporating reporting requirements related to adoption of certified electronic health record technology.
(a) ACOs, ACO participants, and ACO providers/suppliers are encouraged to develop a robust EHR infrastructure.
(b) For performance years 2012 through 2018, as part of the quality performance score, the quality measure regarding EHR adoption will be measured based on a sliding scale.
(c) For performance years 2012 through 2018, performance on this measure will be weighted twice that of any other measure for scoring purposes and for determining compliance with quality performance requirements for domains.
(d) Through reporting period 2016, eligible professionals participating in an ACO under the Shared Savings Program satisfy the CQM reporting component of meaningful use for the Medicare EHR Incentive Program when the following occurs:
(1) The eligible professional extracts data necessary for the ACO to satisfy the quality reporting requirements under this subpart from certified EHR technology.
(2) The ACO reports the ACO GPRO measures through a CMS web interface.
(e) For 2017 and 2018, CMS will annually assess the degree of use of certified EHR technology by eligible clinicians billing through the TINs of ACO participants for purposes of meeting the CEHRT criterion necessary for Advanced Alternative Payment Models under the Quality Payment Program.
(1) During years in which the measure is designated as pay for reporting, in order to demonstrate complete and accurate reporting, at least one eligible clinician billing through the TIN of an ACO participant must meet the reporting requirements under the Advancing Clinical Information category under the Quality Payment Program.
(2) During years in which the measure is designated as pay for performance, the quality measure regarding EHR adoption will be measured based on a sliding scale.
(f) For performance years starting on January 1, 2019 through 2024, ACOs in a track that—
(1) Does not meet the financial risk standard to be an Advanced APM must certify annually that the percentage of eligible clinicians participating in the ACO that use CEHRT to document and communicate clinical care to their patients or other health care providers meets or exceeds 50 percent; or
(2) Meets the financial risk standard to be an Advanced APM must certify annually that the percentage of eligible clinicians participating in the ACO that use CEHRT to document and communicate clinical care to their patients or other health care providers meets or exceeds the threshold established under § 414.1415(a)(1)(i) of this chapter.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 68009, Nov. 13, 2014; 81 FR 80560, Nov. 15, 2016; 83 FR 60094, Nov. 23, 2018; 88 FR 79546, Nov. 16, 2023]
§ 425.507 Incorporating Promoting Interoperability requirements related to the Quality Payment Program for performance years beginning on or after January 1, 2025.
(a) For performance years beginning on or after January 1, 2025, unless otherwise excluded under paragraph (b) of this section, an ACO participant, ACO provider/supplier, and ACO professional that is a MIPS eligible clinician, Qualifying APM Participant (QP), or Partial Qualifying APM Participant (Partial QP) (each as defined at § 414.1305 of this chapter) must satisfy all of the following:
(1) Report the MIPS Promoting Interoperability performance category measures and requirements to MIPS according to 42 CFR part 414 subpart O at the individual, group, virtual group, or APM entity level.
(2) Earn a performance category score for the MIPS Promoting Interoperability performance category at the individual, group, virtual group, or APM entity level.
(b) An ACO participant, ACO provider/supplier, or ACO professional is excluded from the requirements specified in paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with applicable policies that exclude or otherwise exempt eligible clinicians from reporting the MIPS Promoting Interoperability performance category as set forth in 42 CFR part 414 subpart O, provided however, that an ACO participant, ACO provider/supplier, or ACO professional cannot be excluded from the requirements specified in paragraph (a) solely on the basis of being a QP or Partial QP. Applicable exclusions may include:
(1) Low volume threshold as set forth at § 414.1310(b)(1)(iii) of this chapter.
(2) Eligible clinician as defined at § 414.1305 of this chapter who is not a MIPS eligible clinician as set forth in § 414.1310(b)(2) of this chapter.
(3) Reweighting of the MIPS Promoting Interoperability performance category to zero percent of the final score in accordance with applicable policies set forth at § 414.1380(c)(2) of this chapter.
[88 FR 79546, Nov. 16, 2023]
§ 425.508 Incorporating quality reporting requirements related to the Quality Payment Program.
(a) For performance years (or a performance period) beginning in 2017-2020. ACOs, on behalf of eligible clinicians who bill under the TIN of an ACO participant, must submit all of the CMS web interface measures determined under § 425.500 to satisfactorily report on behalf of their eligible clinicians for purposes of the quality performance category of the Quality Payment Program.
(b) For performance years beginning in 2021-2024. ACOs must submit the quality data via the APM Performance Pathway (APP) established under § 414.1367 of this chapter to satisfactorily report on behalf of the eligible clinicians who bill under the TIN of an ACO participant for purposes of the MIPS Quality performance category of the Quality Payment Program.
(c) For performance years beginning on or after January 1, 2025. ACOs must submit the quality data via the APM Performance Pathway (APP) on the quality measures contained in the APP Plus quality measure set established under § 414.1367 of this chapter to satisfactorily report on behalf of the eligible clinicians who bill under the TIN of an ACO participant for purposes of the MIPS Quality performance category of the Quality Payment Program.
[81 FR 80561, Nov. 15, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 85040, Dec. 28, 2020; 89 FR 98568, Dec. 9, 2024]
§ 425.510 Application of the APM Performance Pathway (APP) quality measure set or the APP Plus quality measure set (as applicable) to Shared Savings Program ACOs for performance years beginning on or after January 1, 2021.
(a) General. (1) CMS establishes quality performance measures to assess the quality of care furnished by the ACO. If the ACO demonstrates to CMS that it has satisfied the quality performance requirements in this subpart, and the ACO meets all other applicable requirements, the ACO is eligible to receive shared savings.
(2) CMS seeks to improve the quality of care furnished by ACOs over time by specifying higher standards, new measures, or both.
(b) Quality reporting. (1) For performance years beginning in 2021-2024, ACOs must report quality data on the APP quality measure set established under § 414.1367 of this chapter, according to the method of submission established by CMS.
(2) For performance years beginning on or after January 1, 2025, ACOs must report quality data on the APP Plus quality measure set established under § 414.1367 of this chapter, according to the method of submission established by CMS.
(c) Audit and validation of data. CMS retains the right to audit and validate quality data reported by an ACO under paragraph (b) of this section according to § 414.1390 of this chapter.
[85 FR 85041, Dec. 28, 2020, as amended at 89 FR 98568, Dec. 9, 2024]
§ 425.512 Determining the ACO quality performance standard for performance years beginning on or after January 1, 2021.
(a) Establishing a quality performance standard—(1) Overall standard. The quality performance standard is the overall standard the ACO must meet in order to be eligible to receive shared savings for a performance year. An ACO will not qualify to share in savings in any year it fails to meet the quality performance standard.
(2) For the first performance year of an ACO's first agreement period under the Shared Savings Program, the ACO will meet the quality performance standard if it meets the requirements under this paragraph (a)(2).
(i) For performance years 2022 and 2023. If the ACO reports data via the APP and meets the data completeness requirement at § 414.1340 of this subchapter and the case minimum requirement at § 414.1380 of this subchapter on the ten CMS Web Interface measures or the three eCQMs/MIPS CQMs, and the CAHPS for MIPS survey, for the applicable performance year.
(ii) For performance year 2024. If the ACO reports data via the APP and meets the data completeness requirement at § 414.1340 of this subchapter on the ten CMS Web Interface measures or the three eCQMs/MIPS CQMs/Medicare CQMs, and the CAHPS for MIPS survey (except as specified in § 414.1380(b)(1)(vii)(B) of this subchapter), and receives a MIPS Quality performance category score under § 414.1380(b)(1) of this subchapter, for the applicable performance year.
(iii) For performance years 2025 and 2026. If the ACO reports the APP Plus quality measure set and meets the data completeness requirement at § 414.1340 of this subchapter on all eCQMs/MIPS CQMs/Medicare CQMs, and the CAHPS for MIPS survey (except as specified in § 414.1380(b)(1)(vii)(B) of this subchapter), and receives a MIPS Quality performance category score under § 414.1380(b)(1) of this subchapter, for the applicable performance year.
(iv) For performance year 2027 and subsequent performance years. If the ACO reports the APP Plus quality measure set and meets the data completeness requirement at § 414.1340 of this subchapter on all eCQMs/Medicare CQMs, and the CAHPS for MIPS survey (except as specified in § 414.1380(b)(1)(vii)(B) of this subchapter), and receives a MIPS Quality performance category score under § 414.1380(b)(1) of this subchapter, for the applicable performance year.
(3) For performance year 2021. (i) Except as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, CMS designates the quality performance standard as the ACO reporting quality data via the APP established under § 414.1367 of this subchapter, according to the method of submission established by CMS and achieving a quality score that is equivalent to or higher than the 30th percentile across all MIPS Quality performance category scores, excluding entities/providers eligible for facility-based scoring.
(ii) If an ACO does not report any of the ten CMS Web Interface measures or any of the three eCQMs/MIPS CQMs and does not administer a CAHPS for MIPS survey under the APP, the ACO will not meet the quality performance standard.
(4) For performance years 2022 and 2023. (i) Except as specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, CMS designates the quality performance standard as the ACO reporting quality data via the APP established under § 414.1367 of this subchapter according to the method of submission established by CMS and either:
(A) Achieving a quality score that is equivalent to or higher than the 30th percentile across all MIPS Quality performance category scores, excluding entities/providers eligible for facility-based scoring, or
(B) If the ACO reports the three eCQMs/MIPS CQMs in the APP measure set, meeting the data completeness requirement at § 414.1340 of this subchapter and the case minimum requirement at § 414.1380 of this subchapter for all three eCQMs/MIPS CQMs, achieving a quality performance score equivalent to or higher than the 10th percentile of the performance benchmark on at least one of the four outcome measures in the APP measure set and a quality performance score equivalent to or higher than the 30th percentile of the performance benchmark on at least one of the remaining five measures in the APP measure set.
(ii) For performance year 2023, CMS designates an alternative quality performance standard for an ACO that does not meet the criteria described in paragraphs (a)(2) or (a)(4)(i) of this section, but reports quality data via the APP established under § 414.1367 of this subchapter according to the method of submission established by CMS and achieves a quality performance score equivalent to or higher than the 10th percentile of the performance benchmark on at least one of the four outcome measures in the APP measure set.
(iii) If an ACO does not report any of the ten CMS Web Interface measures or any of the three eCQMs/MIPS CQMs and does not administer a CAHPS for MIPS survey under the APP, the ACO will not meet the quality performance standard or the alternative quality performance standard.
(5) For performance year 2024 and subsequent performance years.
(i) Except as specified in paragraphs (a)(2) and (7) of this section, CMS designates the quality performance standard as:
(A) For performance year 2024, the ACO reporting quality data on the APP quality measure set established under § 414.1367 of this subchapter, according to the method of submission established by CMS and—
(1) Achieving a quality score that is equivalent to or higher than the 40th percentile across all MIPS Quality performance category scores, excluding entities/providers eligible for facility-based scoring, or
(2) If the ACO reports the three eCQMs/MIPS CQMs in the APP measure set, meeting the data completeness requirement at § 414.1340 of this subchapter for all three eCQMs/MIPS CQMs, and achieving a quality performance score equivalent to or higher than the 10th percentile of the performance benchmark on at least one of the four outcome measures in the APP measure set and a quality performance score equivalent to or higher than the 40th percentile of the performance benchmark on at least one of the remaining five measures in the APP measure set.
(B) For performance years 2025 and 2026, the ACO reporting quality data on the APP Plus quality measure set established under § 414.1367 of this subchapter, according to the method of submission established by CMS and—
(1) Achieving a quality score that is equivalent to or higher than the 40th percentile across all MIPS Quality performance category scores, excluding entities/providers eligible for facility-based scoring; or
(2) If the ACO reports all of the eCQMs/MIPS CQMs in the APP Plus quality measure set applicable for a performance year, meeting the data completeness requirement at § 414.1340 of this subchapter for all eCQMs/MIPS CQMs, and achieving a quality performance score equivalent to or higher than the 10th percentile of the performance benchmark on at least one of the outcome measures in the APP Plus quality measure set and a quality performance score equivalent to or higher than the 40th percentile of the performance benchmark on at least one of the remaining measures in the APP Plus quality measure set.
(C) For performance year 2027 and subsequent performance years, the ACO reporting quality data on the APP Plus quality measure set established under § 414.1367 of this subchapter, according to the method of submission established by CMS and—
(1) Achieving a quality score that is equivalent to or higher than the 40th percentile across all MIPS Quality performance category scores, excluding entities/providers eligible for facility-based scoring; or
(2) If the ACO reports all of the eCQMs in the APP Plus quality measure set applicable for a performance year, meeting the data completeness requirement at § 414.1340 of this subchapter for all eCQMs, and achieving a quality performance score equivalent to or higher than the 10th percentile of the performance benchmark on at least one of the four outcome measures in the APP Plus quality measure set and a quality performance score equivalent to or higher than the 40th percentile of the performance benchmark on at least one of the remaining measures in the APP Plus quality measure set.
(ii) CMS designates an alternative quality performance standard for an ACO that does not meet the criteria described in paragraph (a)(2) or (a)(5)(i) of this section as the following:
(A) For performance year 2024, the ACO reports quality data on the APP quality measure set established under § 414.1367 of this subchapter according to the method of submission established by CMS and achieves a quality performance score equivalent to or higher than the 10th percentile of the performance benchmark on at least one of the four outcome measures in the APP quality measure set.
(B) For performance year 2025 and subsequent performance years, the ACO reports quality data on the APP Plus quality measure set established under § 414.1367 of this subchapter according to the method of submission established by CMS and achieves a quality performance score equivalent to or higher than the 10th percentile of the performance benchmark on at least one of the outcome measures in the APP Plus quality measure set.
(iii) An ACO will not meet the quality performance standard or the alternative quality performance standard if:
(A) For performance year 2024, the ACO does not report any of the ten CMS Web Interface measures, any of the three eCQMs/MIPS CQMs/Medicare CQMs and does not administer a CAHPS for MIPS survey (except as specified in § 414.1380(b)(1)(vii)(B) of this subchapter) under the APP.
(B) For performance years 2025 and 2026, the ACO does not report any of the eCQMs/MIPS CQMs/Medicare CQMs in the APP Plus quality measure set and does not administer a CAHPS for MIPS survey (except as specified in § 414.1380(b)(1)(vii)(B) of this subchapter).
(C) For performance year 2027 and subsequent performance years, the ACO does not report any of the eCQMs/Medicare CQMs in the APP Plus quality measure set and does not administer a CAHPS for MIPS survey (except as specified in § 414.1380(b)(1)(vii)(B) of this subchapter).
(6) For performance years 2022, 2023, and 2024, CMS designates a performance benchmark and minimum attainment level for each CMS Web Interface measure and establishes a point scale for the measure as described in § 425.502(b).
(7) CMS will use the higher of the ACO's quality score or the equivalent of the 40th percentile MIPS Quality performance category score across all MIPS Quality performance category scores, excluding entities/providers eligible for facility-based scoring, for the relevant performance year when—
(i) For performance year 2024, if an ACO reports all of the required measures, meeting the data completeness requirement at § 414.1340 of this subchapter for each measure in the APP quality measure set and receiving a MIPS Quality performance category score as described at § 414.1380(b)(1) of this subchapter and the ACO meets either of the following:
(A) The ACO's total available measure achievement points used to calculate the ACO's MIPS Quality performance category score are reduced under § 414.1380(b)(1)(vii)(A) of this subchapter.
(B) At least one of the eCQMs/MIPS CQMs/Medicare CQMs does not have a benchmark as described at § 414.1380(b)(1)(i)(A) of this subchapter.
(ii) For performance year 2025 and subsequent performance years, if an ACO reports all of the required measures in the APP Plus quality measure set, meeting the data completeness requirement at § 414.1340 of this subchapter for each measure in the APP Plus quality measure set, and receiving a MIPS Quality performance category score as described at § 414.1380(b)(1) of this subchapter, for the relevant performance year, and the ACO meets either of the following:
(A) The ACO's total available measure achievement points used to calculate the ACO's MIPS Quality performance category score are reduced under § 414.1380(b)(1)(vii)(A) of this subchapter.
(B) At least one of the required measures in the APP Plus quality measure set does not have a benchmark as described at § 414.1380(b)(1)(i)(A) of this subchapter.
(b) Calculation of an adjustment to an ACO's quality score for performance years 2023 through 2025—
(1) For performance year 2023. For an ACO that reports the three eCQMs/MIPS CQMs in the APP quality measure set, meeting the data completeness requirement at § 414.1340 of this subchapter for all three eCQMs/MIPS CQMs, and administers the CAHPS for MIPS survey, CMS calculates the ACO's quality score as the sum of the ACO's MIPS Quality performance category score for all measures in the APP quality measure set and the ACO's population and income adjustment bonus points calculated in accordance with paragraph (b)(4) of this section. The sum of these values may not exceed 100 percent.
(2) For performance year 2024. For an ACO that reports the three eCQMs/MIPS CQMs/Medicare CQMs in the APP quality measure set, meeting the data completeness requirement at § 414.1340 of this subchapter for all three eCQMs/MIPS CQMs/Medicare CQMs, and administers the CAHPS for MIPS survey (except as specified in § 414.1380(b)(1)(vii)(B) of this subchapter), CMS calculates the ACO's quality score as the sum of the ACO's MIPS Quality performance category score for all measures in the APP quality measure set and the ACO's population and income adjustment bonus points calculated in accordance with paragraph (b)(4) of this section. The sum of these values may not exceed 100 percent.
(3) For performance year 2025. For an ACO that reports all of the required measures in the APP Plus quality measure set, meeting the data completeness requirement at § 414.1340 of this subchapter for all of the required measures in the APP Plus quality measure set, and administers the CAHPS for MIPS survey (except as specified in § 414.1380(b)(1)(vii)(B) of this subchapter), CMS calculates the ACO's quality score as the sum of the ACO's MIPS Quality performance category score for all measures in the APP Plus quality measure set and the ACO's population and income adjustment bonus points calculated in accordance with paragraph (b)(4) of this section. The sum of these values may not exceed 100 percent.
(4) Calculation of ACO's population and income adjustment bonus points. CMS calculates the ACO's bonus points as follows:
(i) For each measure that an ACO is required to report for the applicable performance year, CMS groups an ACO's performance into the top, middle, or bottom third of ACO measure performers by reporting mechanism.
(ii) CMS assigns values to the ACO for its performance on each measure as follows:
(A) Values of four, two, or zero for each measure for which the ACO's performance places it in the top, middle, or bottom third of ACO measure performers, respectively.
(B) Values of zero for each measure that CMS does not evaluate because the measure is unscored or the ACO does not meet the case minimum or the minimum sample size for the measure.
(iii) CMS sums the values assigned to the ACO according to paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section, to calculate the ACO's measure performance scaler.
(iv) CMS calculates a multiplier for the ACO.
(A) (1) CMS determines the proportion ranging from zero to one of the ACO's assigned beneficiary population for the performance year based on the highest of either of the following:
(i) The proportion of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries residing in a census block group with an Area Deprivation Index (ADI) national percentile rank of at least 85. An ACO's assigned beneficiaries without an available numeric ADI national percentile rank are excluded from the calculation of the proportion of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries residing in a census block group with an ADI national percentile rank of at least 85.
(ii) The proportion of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries who are enrolled in the Medicare Part D low-income subsidy (LIS); or are dually eligible for Medicare and Medicaid.
(2) CMS calculates the proportions specified in paragraph (b)(4)(iv)(A)(1)(ii) of this section as follows:
(i) For performance year 2023, the proportion of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries who are enrolled in the Medicare Part D LIS or are dually eligible for Medicare and Medicaid divided by the total number of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries' person years.
(ii) For performance years 2024 and 2025, the proportion of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries with any months enrolled in the Medicare Part D LIS or are dually eligible for Medicare and Medicaid divided by the total number of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries.
(B) If the proportion determined in accordance with paragraph (b)(4)(iv)(A) of this section is lower than 20 percent, the ACO is ineligible for bonus points.
(v) Except as specified in paragraph (b)(4)(iv)(B) of this section, CMS calculates the ACO's bonus points as the product of the measure performance scaler determined under paragraph (b)(4)(iii) of this section and the multiplier determined under paragraph (b)(4)(iv) of this section. If the product of these values is greater than 10, the value of the ACO's bonus points is set equal to 10.
(5) Use of ACO's quality score. The ACO's quality score, determined in accordance with paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) of this section, is used as follows:
(i) In determining whether the ACO meets the quality performance standard as specified under paragraphs (a)(4)(i)(A), (a)(5)(i)(A)(1), (a)(5)(i)(B), and (a)(7) of this section.
(ii) In determining the final sharing rate for calculating shared savings payments under the BASIC track in accordance with § 425.605(d), and under the ENHANCED track in accordance with § 425.610(d), for an ACO that meets the alternative quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) or (a)(5)(ii) of this section.
(iii) In determining the shared loss rate for calculating shared losses under the ENHANCED track in accordance with § 425.610(f), for an ACO that meets the quality performance standard established in paragraphs (a)(2), (a)(4)(i), and (a)(5)(i) of this section or the alternative quality performance standard established in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) or (a)(5)(ii) of this section.
(iv) In determining the quality score for an ACO affected by extreme and uncontrollable circumstances as described in paragraphs (c)(3)(ii) through (iv) of this section (as applicable).
(c) Extreme and uncontrollable circumstances. For performance year 2021 and subsequent performance years, including the applicable quality data reporting period for the performance year, CMS uses an alternative approach to calculating the quality score for ACOs affected by extreme and uncontrollable circumstances instead of the methodology specified in paragraph (a) of this section as follows:
(1) CMS determines the ACO was affected by an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance based on any of the following:
(i) Twenty percent or more of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries reside in an area identified under the Quality Payment Program as being affected by an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance.
(A) Assignment is determined under subpart E of this part.
(B) In making this determination, CMS uses the quarter four list of assigned beneficiaries.
(ii) The ACO's legal entity is located in an area identified under the Quality Payment Program as being affected by an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance. An ACO's legal entity location is based on the address on file for the ACO in CMS' ACO application and management system.
(iii) For performance year 2025 and subsequent performance years, the ACO, as defined at § 425.20, is affected by an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance due to a cyberattack, including ransomware/malware, as determined by the Quality Payment Program.
(2) If CMS determines the ACO meets the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, CMS calculates the ACO's quality score as follows:
(i) For performance years 2021, 2022, and 2023, the ACO's minimum quality score is set to the equivalent of the 30th percentile MIPS Quality performance category score across all MIPS Quality performance category scores, excluding entities/providers eligible for facility-based scoring, for the relevant performance year.
(ii) For performance year 2024 and subsequent performance years, the ACO's minimum quality score is set to the equivalent of the 40th percentile MIPS Quality performance category score across all MIPS Quality performance category scores, excluding entities/providers eligible for facility-based scoring, for the relevant performance year.
(3) If CMS determines the ACO meets the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section and the ACO reports quality data on the APP quality measure set or the APP Plus quality measure set (as applicable), CMS calculates the ACO's quality score as follows:
(i) For performance years 2021 and 2022, if the ACO reports quality data via the APP and meets data completeness and case minimum requirements, CMS will use the higher of the ACO's quality score or the equivalent of the 30th percentile MIPS Quality performance category score across all MIPS Quality performance category scores, excluding entities/providers eligible for facility-based scoring, for the relevant performance year.
(ii) For performance year 2023, if the ACO reports quality data via the APP and meets data completeness and case minimum requirements, CMS will use the higher of the ACO's quality score or the equivalent of the 30th percentile MIPS Quality performance category score across all MIPS Quality performance category scores, excluding entities/providers eligible for facility-based scoring, for the relevant performance year.
(iii) For performance year 2024, if the ACO reports quality data via the APP and meets the data completeness requirement at § 414.1340 of this subchapter and receives a MIPS Quality performance category score under § 414.1380(b)(1) of this subchapter, CMS will use the higher of the ACO's quality score or the equivalent of the 40th percentile MIPS Quality performance category score across all MIPS Quality performance category scores, excluding entities/providers eligible for facility-based scoring, for the relevant performance year.
(iv) For performance year 2025 and subsequent performance years, if the ACO reports the APP Plus quality measure set and meets the data completeness requirement at § 414.1340 of this subchapter and receives a MIPS Quality performance category score under § 414.1380(b)(1) of this subchapter, CMS will use the higher of the ACO's quality score or the equivalent of the 40th percentile MIPS Quality performance category score across all MIPS Quality performance category scores, excluding entities/providers eligible for facility-based scoring, for the relevant performance year.
(4) CMS applies determinations made under the Quality Payment Program with respect to—
(i) Whether an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance has occurred; and
(ii) The affected areas.
(5) CMS has sole discretion to determine the time period during which an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance occurred, the percentage of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries residing in the affected areas, and the location of the ACO legal entity.
[85 FR 85041, Dec. 28, 2020; 86 FR 65685, Nov. 19, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 70234, Nov. 18, 2022; 88 FR 79546, Nov. 16, 2023; 89 FR 98568, Dec. 9, 2024; 90 FR 50016, Nov. 5, 2025; 91 FR 12080, Mar. 12, 2026]
Subpart G Shared Savings and Losses
§ 425.600 Selection of risk model.
(a) An ACO may elect to operate under one of the following tracks:
(1) Track 1. For agreement periods beginning before July 1, 2019, an ACO in Track 1 operates under the one-sided model (as described under § 425.604) for the agreement period.
(2) Track 2. For agreement periods beginning before July 1, 2019, an ACO in Track 2 operates under a two-sided model (as described under § 425.606), sharing both savings and losses with the Medicare program for the agreement period.
(3) ENHANCED track. An ACO in the ENHANCED track operates under a two-sided model (as described under § 425.610), sharing both savings and losses with the Medicare program for the agreement period. For purposes of this part, all references to the ENHANCED track are deemed to include Track 3.
(4) BASIC track. For agreement periods beginning on July 1, 2019, and in subsequent years, an ACO in the BASIC track operates under either a one-sided model or a two-sided model (as described under § 425.605), either sharing savings only or sharing both savings and losses with the Medicare program, as specified in this paragraph (a)(4).
(i) Levels of the BASIC track's glide path—(A) Phase-in of levels of the risk and reward. Under the BASIC track's glide path, the level of risk and potential reward phases in over the course of the agreement period in the following order:
(1) Level A. The ACO operates under a one-sided model as described under § 425.605(d)(1)(i).
(2) Level B. The ACO operates under a one-sided model as described under § 425.605(d)(1)(ii).
(3) Level C. The ACO operates under a two-sided model as described under § 425.605(d)(1)(iii).
(4) Level D. The ACO operates under a two-sided model as described under § 425.605(d)(1)(iv).
(5) Level E. The ACO operates under a two-sided model as described under § 425.605(d)(1)(v).
(B) Glide path progression for agreement periods beginning on or after July 1, 2019 and before January 1, 2024. (1) Experience in Track 1. (i) Except for an ACO that previously participated in Track 1 under paragraph (a)(1) of this section or a new ACO identified as a re-entering ACO because more than 50 percent of its ACO participants have recent prior experience in a Track 1 ACO, an ACO eligible to enter the BASIC track's glide path as determined under paragraphs (d)(1)(i) and (d)(2)(i) of this section may elect to enter its agreement period at any of the levels of risk and potential reward available under paragraphs (a)(4)(i)(A)(1) through (5) of this section.
(ii) An ACO that previously participated in Track 1 under paragraph (a)(1) of this section or a new ACO identified as a re-entering ACO because more than 50 percent of its ACO participants have recent prior experience in a Track 1 ACO may elect to enter its agreement period at any of the levels of risk and potential reward available under paragraphs (a)(4)(i)(A)(2) through (5) of this section.
(2) Automatic advancement. Unless the ACO elects to transition to a higher level of risk and potential reward within the BASIC track's glide path as provided in § 425.226(a)(2)(i), the ACO is automatically advanced to the next level of the BASIC track's glide path at the start of each subsequent performance year of the agreement period, if a higher level of risk and potential reward is available under the BASIC track.
(i) Exception for ACO entering the BASIC track's glide path for an agreement period beginning on July 1, 2019. The automatic advancement does not apply at the start of the second performance year for an ACO entering the BASIC track's glide path for an agreement period beginning on July 1, 2019. For performance year 2020, the ACO remains in the same level of the BASIC track's glide path that it entered for the July 1, 2019 through December 31, 2019 performance year, unless the ACO chooses to advance more quickly in accordance with § 425.226(a)(2)(i). The ACO is automatically advanced to the next level of the BASIC track's glide path at the start of performance year 2021 and all subsequent performance years of the agreement period.
(ii) Exception for new legal entity identified as a low revenue ACO. An exception is available for a low revenue ACO that is a new legal entity and is not identified as a re-entering ACO that enters the BASIC track's glide path at Level A under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(1) of this section, and is automatically advanced to Level B under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(2) of this section for performance year 2 (or performance 3 in the case of ACOs entering an agreement period beginning on July 1, 2019). Prior to the automatic advancement of the ACO to Level C under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(3) of this section, the ACO may elect to remain in Level B under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(2) of this section for performance year 3 (performance year 4 in the case of ACOs entering an agreement period beginning on July 1, 2019). In the case of an ACO that elects to remain in Level B for an additional performance year pursuant to the second sentence of paragraph (a)(4)(i)(B)(2)(ii) of this section, and except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(i)(B)(2)(vi) of this section, the ACO is automatically advanced to Level E under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(5) of this section at the start of performance year 4 (or performance year 5 in the case of ACOs entering an agreement period beginning on July 1, 2019).
(iii) Exception for ACOs participating in the BASIC track's glide path that elect to maintain their participation level for performance year 2021. Prior to the automatic advancement for performance year 2021, an ACO that is participating in the BASIC track's glide path for performance year 2020 may elect to remain in the same level of the BASIC track's glide path that it entered for the 2020 performance year, for performance year 2021. For performance year 2022, the ACO is automatically advanced to the level of the BASIC track's glide path to which the ACO would have automatically advanced absent the election to maintain its participation level for performance year 2021, unless the ACO elects to transition to a higher level of risk and potential reward within the BASIC track's glide path as provided in § 425.226(a)(2)(i). A voluntary election by an ACO under this paragraph must be made in the form and manner and by a deadline established by CMS.
(iv) Exception for ACOs participating in the BASIC track's glide path that elect to maintain their participation level for performance year 2022. Prior to the automatic advancement for performance year 2022, an ACO that is participating in the BASIC track's glide path for performance year 2021 may elect to remain in the same level of the BASIC track's glide path in which it participated during the 2021 performance year, for performance year 2022. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(i)(B)(2)(vi) of this section, for performance year 2023, the ACO is automatically advanced to the level of the BASIC track's glide path to which the ACO would have automatically advanced absent the election to maintain its participation level for performance year 2022 and, if applicable, the election to maintain its participation level for performance year 2021 under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(B)(2)(iii) of this section, unless the ACO elects to transition to a higher level of risk and potential reward within the BASIC track's glide path as provided in § 425.226(a)(2)(i). A voluntary election by an ACO under this paragraph must be made in the form and manner and by a deadline established by CMS.
(v) Prior to entering performance-based risk, an ACO must meet all requirements to participate under performance-based risk, including establishing an adequate repayment mechanism as specified under § 425.204(f) and selecting a MSR/MLR from the options specified under § 425.605(b).
(vi) For performance year 2023, an ACO in Level A under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(1) of this section or in Level B under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(2) of this section may elect to remain in the same level of the BASIC track's glide path in which it participated during performance year 2022, for the remainder of the agreement period, unless the ACO elects to transition to a higher level of risk and potential reward within the BASIC track's glide path as provided in § 425.226(a)(2)(i). If the ACO does not elect to remain under Level A or Level B, for performance year 2023, the ACO is automatically advanced to the next level of the BASIC track's glide path to which the ACO would have automatically advanced absent any election to maintain its participation level for performance year 2022 under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(B)(2)(iv) of this section and, if applicable, the election to maintain its participation level for performance year 2021 under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(B)(2)(iii) of this section, unless the ACO elects to transition to a higher level of risk and potential reward within the BASIC track's glide path as provided in § 425.226(a)(2)(i). A voluntary election by an ACO under this paragraph must be made in the form and manner and by a deadline established by CMS.
(vii) For performance year 2024, an ACO with an agreement period beginning January 1, 2023 in Level A under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(1) of this section or in Level B under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(2) of this section may elect to remain in the same level of the BASIC track's glide path in which it participated during performance year 2023, for the remainder of the agreement period, unless the ACO elects to transition to a higher level of risk and potential reward within the BASIC track's glide path as provided in § 425.226(a)(2)(i). If the ACO does not elect to remain under Level A or Level B, for performance year 2024, the ACO is automatically advanced to the next level of the BASIC track's glide path, unless the ACO elects to transition to a higher level of risk and potential reward within the BASIC track's glide path as provided in § 425.226(a)(2)(i). A voluntary election by an ACO under this paragraph must be made in the form and manner and by a deadline established by CMS.
(3) If the ACO fails to meet the requirements to participate under performance-based risk under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(B)(2)(v) of this section, the agreement is terminated.
(4) If, in accordance with § 425.226(a)(2)(i), the ACO elects to transition to a higher level of risk and reward available under paragraphs (a)(4)(i)(A)(3) through (5) of this section, then the automatic transition to levels of higher risk and reward specified in paragraph (a)(4)(i)(B)(2) of this section applies to all subsequent performance years of the agreement period.
(C) Glide path progression for agreement periods beginning on or after January 1, 2024. (1) Level of glide path entry. An ACO eligible to enter the BASIC track's glide path as determined under paragraphs (g)(1) or (h)(1) of this section may elect to enter its agreement period at any of the levels of risk and potential reward available under paragraphs (a)(4)(i)(A)(1) through (5) of this section.
(2) Automatic advancement. An ACO is automatically advanced to the next level of the BASIC track's glide path at the start of each subsequent performance year of the agreement period, if a higher level of risk and potential reward is available under the BASIC track, except as follows:
(i) The ACO elects to transition to a higher level of risk and potential reward within the BASIC track's glide path as provided in § 425.226(a)(2)(i).
(ii) The ACO elects to maintain its level of participation as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(i)(C)(3) of this section.
(iii) The ACO is automatically advanced to Level E pursuant to paragraph paragraph (i)(2)(i) of this section.
(3) Election to remain under a one-sided model. An eligible ACO that enters the BASIC track's glide path at Level A under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(1) of this section and is currently at Level A may elect to remain in Level A under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(1) of this section for all subsequent performance years of the agreement period.
(i) To be eligible to participate under Level A of the BASIC track as described in this paragraph, the ACO must meet the following requirements: the ACO is participating in its first agreement period under the BASIC track under paragraph (a)(4) of this section, and is not participating in an agreement period under the BASIC track as a renewing ACO (as defined at § 425.20) or a re-entering ACO (as defined in § 425.20) that previously participated in the BASIC track's glide path under paragraph (a)(4) of this section; and the ACO is inexperienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives (as defined in § 425.20).
(ii) A voluntary election by an ACO under this paragraph (a)(4)(i)(C)(3) must be made in the form and manner and by a deadline established by CMS.
(iii) The ACO's election to remain in Level A applies for the entirety of the agreement period, unless the ACO elects to transition to a higher level of risk and potential reward within the BASIC track's glide path as provided in § 425.226(a)(2)(i).
(4) Prior to entering performance-based risk, an ACO must meet all requirements to participate under performance-based risk, including establishing an adequate repayment mechanism as specified under § 425.204(f) and selecting a MSR/MLR from the options specified under § 425.605(b).
(5) If the ACO fails to meet the requirements to participate under performance-based risk under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(C)(4) of this section, the agreement is terminated.
(6) If, in accordance with § 425.226(a)(2)(i), the ACO elects to transition to a higher level of risk and reward available under paragraphs (a)(4)(i)(A)(3) through (5) of this section, then the automatic transition to levels of higher risk and reward specified in paragraph (a)(4)(i)(C)(2) of this section applies to all subsequent performance years of the agreement period.
(ii) Agreement period under Level E of the BASIC track. If an ACO enters the BASIC track and is ineligible to participate under the glide path described in paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section, as determined under paragraphs (d), (g)(2) or (h) of this section, as applicable, Level E as described in paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(5) of this section applies to all performance years of the agreement period.
(b) For agreement periods beginning before July 1, 2019, ACOs may operate under the one-sided model for a maximum of 2 agreement periods. An ACO may not operate under the one-sided model for a second agreement period unless the—
(1) Immediately preceding agreement period was under the one-sided model; and
(2) The ACO meets the criteria established for ACOs seeking to renew their agreements under § 425.224(b).
(c) For agreement periods beginning before July 1, 2019, an ACO experiencing a net loss during a previous agreement period may reapply to participate under the conditions in § 425.202(a), except the ACO must also identify in its application the cause(s) for the net loss and specify what safeguards are in place to enable the ACO to potentially achieve savings in its next agreement period.
(d) For agreement periods beginning on or after July 1, 2019, and before January 1, 2024, CMS determines an ACO's eligibility for the Shared Savings Program participation options specified in paragraph (a) of this section as follows:
(1) If an ACO is identified as a high revenue ACO, the ACO is eligible for the participation options indicated in paragraph (a) of this section as follows:
(i) If the ACO is determined to be inexperienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives, the ACO may enter either the BASIC track's glide path at any of the levels of risk and potential reward available under paragraphs (a)(4)(i)(A)(1) through (5) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(i)(B) of this section, or the ENHANCED track under paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
(ii) If the ACO is determined to be experienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives:
(A) The ACO may enter the ENHANCED track under paragraph (a)(3) of this section except as provided in paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(B) of this section.
(B) An ACO in a first or second agreement period beginning in 2016 or 2017 identified as experienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives based on participation in the Track 1+ Model may renew for a consecutive agreement period beginning on July 1, 2019, or January 1, 2020 (respectively), under either the BASIC track Level E under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(5) of this section, or the ENHANCED track under paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
(2) If an ACO is identified as a low revenue ACO, the ACO is eligible for the participation options indicated in paragraph (a) of this section as follows:
(i) If the ACO is determined to be inexperienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives, the ACO may enter either the BASIC track's glide path at any of the levels of risk and potential reward available under paragraphs (a)(4)(i)(A)(1) through (5) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(i)(B) of this section, or the ENHANCED track under paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
(ii) If the ACO is determined to be experienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives, the ACO may enter under either the BASIC track Level E under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(5) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, or the ENHANCED track under paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
(3) Low revenue ACOs may participate under the BASIC track for a maximum of two agreement periods. A low revenue ACO may only participate in the BASIC track for a second agreement period if it satisfies either of the following:
(i) The ACO is the same legal entity as a current or previous ACO that previously entered into a participation agreement for participation in the BASIC track only one time.
(ii) For a new ACO identified as a re-entering ACO, the ACO in which the majority of the new ACO's participants were participating previously entered into a participation agreement for participation in the BASIC track only one time.
(e) For performance years beginning on or after July 1, 2019 and before January 1, 2024, CMS monitors low revenue ACOs identified as experienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives, during an agreement period in the BASIC track, for changes in the revenue of ACO participants that would cause the ACO to be considered a high revenue ACO and ineligible for participation in the BASIC track. If the ACO meets the definition of a high revenue ACO (as specified in § 425.20)—
(1) The ACO is permitted to complete the remainder of its current performance year under the BASIC track, but is ineligible to continue participation in the BASIC track after the end of that performance year if it continues to meet the definition of a high revenue ACO; and
(2) CMS takes compliance action as specified in §§ 425.216 and 425.218, up to and including termination of the participation agreement, to ensure the ACO does not continue in the BASIC track for subsequent performance years of the agreement period if it continues to meet the definition of a high revenue ACO.
(f) For agreement periods beginning on July 1, 2019, and in subsequent years, CMS determines the agreement period an ACO is entering for purposes of applying program requirements that phase-in over multiple agreement periods, as follows:
(1) An ACO entering an initial agreement period is considered to be entering a first agreement period in the Shared Savings Program.
(2) A re-entering ACO is considered to be entering a new agreement period in the Shared Savings Program as follows—
(i) An ACO whose participation agreement expired without having been renewed re-enters the program under the next consecutive agreement period in the Shared Savings Program;
(ii) An ACO whose participation agreement was terminated under § 425.218 or § 425.220 re-enters the program at the start of the same agreement period in which it was participating at the time of termination from the Shared Savings Program, beginning with the first performance year of that agreement period; or
(iii) A new ACO identified as a re-entering ACO enters the program in an agreement period that is determined based on the prior participation of the ACO in which the majority of the new ACO's participants were participating.
(A) If the participation agreement of the ACO used in this determination expired without having been renewed or was terminated, the agreement period of the re-entering ACO is determined in accordance with paragraph (f)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section, as applicable.
(B) If the ACO used in this determination is currently participating in the program, the new ACO is considered to be entering into the same agreement period as this currently participating ACO, beginning with the first performance year of that agreement period.
(3) A renewing ACO is considered to be entering the next consecutive agreement period in the Shared Savings Program.
(4) For purposes of this paragraph (f), program requirements that phase in over multiple agreement periods are as follows:
(i) The quality performance standard as described in § 425.502(a) or § 425.512(a), as applicable.
(ii) The weight used in calculating the regional adjustment to the ACO's historical benchmark as described in §§ 425.601(f), and 425.656(e).
(iii) The use of equal weights to weight each benchmark year as specified in §§ 425.601(e), and 425.652(c)(2).
(g) For agreement periods beginning on or after January 1, 2024 and before January 1, 2027, CMS determines an ACO's eligibility for the Shared Savings Program participation options specified in paragraph (a) of this section as follows:
(1) If an ACO is determined to be inexperienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives, the ACO may enter either the BASIC track's glide path at any of the levels of risk and potential reward under paragraphs (a)(4)(i)(A)(1) through (5) of this section, or the ENHANCED track under paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
(i) An ACO that is inexperienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives may participate under the BASIC track's glide path for a maximum of two agreement periods, as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(i)(C) of this section.
(ii) An ACO that enters an agreement under the BASIC track's glide path at either Level A under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(1) of this section or Level B under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(2) of this section is deemed to have completed one agreement under the BASIC track's glide path and is only eligible to enter a second agreement under the BASIC track's glide path if the ACO continues to meet the definition of inexperienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives and satisfies either of the following:
(A) The ACO is the same legal entity as a current or previous ACO that previously entered into a participation agreement for participation in the BASIC track's glide path only one time.
(B) For a new ACO identified as a re-entering ACO, the ACO in which the majority of the new ACO's participants were participating previously entered into a participation agreement for participation in the BASIC track's glide path only one time.
(iii) An ACO that is determined to be inexperienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives but is not eligible to enter the BASIC track's glide path as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(i)(C) of this section may enter either the BASIC track Level E under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(5) of this section for all performance years of the agreement period, or the ENHANCED track under paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
(2) If an ACO is determined to be experienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives, the ACO may enter either the BASIC track Level E under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(5) of this section for all performance years of the agreement period, or the ENHANCED track under paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
(h) For agreement periods beginning on or after January 1, 2027, CMS determines an ACO's eligibility for the Shared Savings Program participation options specified in paragraph (a) of this section as follows:
(1) If an ACO is determined to be inexperienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives, the ACO may enter either the BASIC track's glide path at any of the levels of risk and potential reward under paragraphs (a)(4)(i)(A)(1) through (5) of this section, or the ENHANCED track under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, except as otherwise specified in paragraph (h)(3) of this section.
(i) An ACO that is inexperienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives may participate under the BASIC track's glide path for a maximum of one agreement period, as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(i)(C) of this section.
(ii) An ACO that enters an agreement period under the BASIC track's glide path at any of the levels of risk and potential reward available under paragraphs (a)(4)(i)(A)(1) through (5) of this section is deemed to have completed one agreement period under the BASIC track's glide path. For the purpose of determining the ACO's prior participation in the BASIC track's glide path, CMS considers whether the ACO satisfies either of the following:
(A) The ACO is the same legal entity as a current or previous ACO that previously entered into a participation agreement for participation in the BASIC track's glide path.
(B) For a new ACO identified as a re-entering ACO, the ACO in which the majority of the new ACO's participants were participating previously entered into a participation agreement for participation in the BASIC track's glide path.
(iii) An ACO determined to be inexperienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives but is not eligible to enter the BASIC track's glide path, in accordance with this paragraph, may enter BASIC track Level E under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(5) of this section for all performance years of the agreement period, or the ENHANCED track under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, except as otherwise specified in paragraph (h)(3) of this section.
(2) If an ACO is determined to be experienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives, the ACO may enter either the BASIC track Level E under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(5) of this section for all performance years of the agreement period, or the ENHANCED track under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, except as otherwise specified in paragraph (h)(3) of this section.
(3) If an ACO is determined to have fewer than 5,000 assigned beneficiaries in either the first benchmark year, the second benchmark year, or both, in accordance with § 425.110(a)(3), the ACO may only enter the BASIC track. The ACO may enter a level of risk and potential reward under the BASIC track in accordance with the requirements of this paragraph, as follows:
(i) An ACO determined to be inexperienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives may enter the BASIC track's glide path at any of the levels of risk and potential reward available under paragraphs (a)(4)(i)(A)(1) through (5) of this section (if eligible in accordance with paragraph (h)(1) of this section), or BASIC track Level E under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(5) of this section for all performance years of the agreement period.
(ii) An ACO determined to be experienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives may enter BASIC track Level E under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(5) of this section for all performance years of the agreement period.
(i)(1) For performance years beginning on or after January 1, 2024, CMS monitors ACOs identified as inexperienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives and participating in the BASIC track under a one-sided model during an agreement period pursuant to an election under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(B)(2)(vi), paragraph (a)(4)(i)(B)(2)(vii), or paragraph (a)(4)(i)(C)(3) of this section for changes to their certified list of ACO participants that would cause the ACO to be considered experienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives and ineligible for participation in a one-sided model.
(2) If the ACO meets the definition of experienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives (under § 425.20)—
(i) The ACO is permitted to complete the performance year for which it met the definition of experienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives in a one-sided model of the BASIC track, but is ineligible to continue participation in the one-sided model after the end of that performance year if it continues to meet the definition of experienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives. The ACO will be automatically advanced to Level E within the BASIC track under paragraph (a)(4)(i)(A)(5) of this section at the start of the next performance year and will remain in Level E for all subsequent performance years of the agreement period; and
(ii) Prior to entering performance-based risk, the ACO must meet all requirements to participate under performance-based risk, including establishing an adequate repayment mechanism as specified under § 425.204(f) and selecting a MSR/MLR from the options specified under § 425.605(b), in accordance with paragraph (a)(4)(i)(B)(2)(v) of this section or paragraph (a)(4)(i)(C)(4) of this section, as applicable. If the ACO fails to meet the requirements to participate under performance-based risk, the agreement is terminated in accordance with paragraph (a)(4)(i)(B)(3) of this section or paragraph (a)(4)(i)(C)(5) of this section, as applicable.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32841, June 9, 2015; 83 FR 68069, Dec. 31, 2018; 85 FR 27625, May 8, 2020; 85 FR 85041, Dec. 28, 2020; 86 FR 45521, Aug. 13, 2021; 87 FR 70235, Nov. 18, 2022; 88 FR 79547, Nov. 16, 2023; 90 FR 50017, Nov. 5, 2025]
§ 425.601 Establishing, adjusting, and updating the benchmark for agreement periods beginning on or after July 1, 2019, and before January 1, 2024.
(a) Computing per capita Medicare Part A and Part B benchmark expenditures for an ACO's first agreement period. For agreement periods beginning on July 1, 2019, and in subsequent years, in computing an ACO's historical benchmark for its first agreement period under the Shared Savings Program, CMS determines the per capita Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for beneficiaries that would have been assigned to the ACO in any of the 3 most recent years prior to the start of the agreement period using the ACO participant TINs identified before the start of the agreement period as required under § 425.118(a) and the beneficiary assignment methodology selected by the ACO for the first performance year of the agreement period as required under § 425.400(a)(4)(ii). CMS does all of the following:
(1) Calculates the payment amounts included in Parts A and B fee-for-service claims using a 3-month claims run out with a completion factor.
(i) This calculation excludes indirect medical education (IME) and disproportionate share hospital (DSH) payments, and the supplemental payment for IHS/Tribal hospitals and Puerto Rico hospitals.
(ii) This calculation includes individually beneficiary identifiable final payments made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(2) Makes separate expenditure calculations for each of the following populations of beneficiaries: ESRD, disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries and aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(3) Adjusts expenditures for changes in severity and case mix using prospective HCC risk scores.
(4) Truncates an assigned beneficiary's total annual Parts A and B fee-for-service per capita expenditures at the 99th percentile of national Medicare fee-for-service expenditures for assignable beneficiaries identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to each benchmark year in order to minimize variation from catastrophically large claims.
(5) Trends forward expenditures for each benchmark year (BY1 and BY2) to the third benchmark year (BY3) dollars using a blend of national and regional growth rates.
(i) To trend forward the benchmark, CMS makes separate calculations for expenditure categories for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(A) ESRD.
(B) Disabled.
(C) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(D) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(ii) National growth rates are computed using CMS Office of the Actuary national Medicare expenditure data for each of the years making up the historical benchmark for assignable beneficiaries identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to each benchmark year.
(iii) Regional growth rates are computed using expenditures for the ACO's regional service area for each of the years making up the historical benchmark as follows:
(A) Determine the counties included in the ACO's regional service area based on the ACO's assigned beneficiary population for the relevant benchmark year.
(B) Determine the ACO's regional expenditures as specified under paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
(iv) The national and regional growth rates are blended together by taking a weighted average of the two. The weight applied to the—
(A) National growth rate is calculated as the share of assignable beneficiaries in the ACO's regional service area for BY3 that are assigned to the ACO in BY3, as calculated in paragraph (a)(5)(v) of this section; and
(B) Regional growth rate is equal to 1 minus the weight applied to the national growth rate.
(v) CMS calculates the share of assignable beneficiaries in the ACO's regional service area that are assigned to the ACO by doing all of the following:
(A) Calculating the county-level share of assignable beneficiaries that are assigned to the ACO for each county in the ACO's regional service area.
(B) Weighting the county-level shares according to the ACO's proportion of assigned beneficiaries in the county, determined by the number of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries residing in the county in relation to the ACO's total number of assigned beneficiaries.
(C) Aggregating the weighted county-level shares for all counties in the ACO's regional service area.
(6) Restates BY1 and BY2 trended and risk adjusted expenditures using BY3 proportions of ESRD, disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries and aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(7) Weights each year of the benchmark for an ACO's initial agreement period using the following percentages:
(i) BY3 at 60 percent.
(ii) BY2 at 30 percent.
(iii) BY1 at 10 percent.
(8) Adjusts the historical benchmark based on the ACO's regional service area expenditures, making separate calculations for the following populations of beneficiaries: ESRD, disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, and aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries. CMS does all of the following:
(i) Calculates an average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area as follows:
(A) Determines the counties included in the ACO's regional service area based on the ACO's BY3 assigned beneficiary population.
(B) Determines the ACO's regional expenditures as specified under paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section for BY3.
(C) Adjusts for differences in severity and case mix between the ACO's assigned beneficiary population and the assignable beneficiary population for the ACO's regional service area identified for the 12-month calendar year that corresponds to BY3.
(ii) Calculates the adjustment as follows:
(A) Determines the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area as specified under paragraph (a)(8)(i) of this section and the average per capita amount of the ACO's historical benchmark determined under paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section, for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(1) ESRD.
(2) Disabled.
(3) Aged/dual eligible for Medicare and Medicaid.
(4) Aged/non-dual eligible for Medicare and Medicaid.
(B) Applies a percentage, as determined in paragraph (f) of this section.
(C) Caps the per capita dollar amount for each Medicare enrollment type (ESRD, Disabled, Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries) calculated under paragraph (a)(8)(ii)(B) of this section at a dollar amount equal to 5 percent of national per capita expenditures for Parts A and B services under the original Medicare fee-for-service program in BY3 for assignable beneficiaries in that enrollment type identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to BY3 using data from the CMS Office of the Actuary.
(1) For positive adjustments, the per capita dollar amount for a Medicare enrollment type is capped at 5 percent of the national per capita expenditure amount for the enrollment type for BY3.
(2) For negative adjustments, the per capita dollar amount for a Medicare enrollment type is capped at negative 5 percent of the national per capita expenditure amount for the enrollment type for BY3.
(9) For the second and each subsequent performance year during the term of the agreement period, the ACO's benchmark is adjusted for the following, as applicable: For the addition and removal of ACO participants or ACO providers/suppliers in accordance with § 425.118(b), for a change to the ACO's beneficiary assignment methodology selection under § 425.226(a)(1), for a change to the beneficiary assignment methodology specified in subpart E of this part, for changes in values used in benchmark calculations as a result of issuance of a revised initial determination under § 425.315, and for changes in values used in benchmark calculations as a result of the performance year being affected by significant, anomalous, and highly suspect billing under § 425.672. To adjust the benchmark, CMS does the following:
(i) Takes into account the expenditures of beneficiaries who would have been assigned to the ACO in any of the 3 most recent years prior to the start of the agreement period.
(ii) Redetermines the regional adjustment amount under paragraph (a)(8) of this section, according to the ACO's assigned beneficiaries for BY3.
(iii) Recalculates benchmark year expenditures to account for the impact of improper payments, for the benchmark year corresponding to a performance year for which CMS issued a revised initial determination under § 425.315. In recalculating expenditures for the benchmark year, CMS applies the calculation methodology applied in recalculating expenditures for the corresponding performance year in accordance with § 425.674.
(iv) Recalculates expenditures used in Shared Savings Program benchmark calculations under this section, to exclude the same HCPCS or CPT codes identified as displaying significant, anomalous, and highly suspect billing patterns in calculation of performance year expenditures, in accordance with § 425.672.
(10) The historical benchmark is further adjusted at the time of reconciliation for a performance year to account for changes in severity and case mix of the ACO's assigned beneficiary population as described under §§ 425.605(a), 425.609(c), and 425.610(a).
(b) Updating the benchmark. For all agreement periods beginning on July 1, 2019, and in subsequent years, CMS updates the historical benchmark annually for each year of the agreement period using a blend of national and regional growth rates.
(1) To update the benchmark, CMS makes separate calculations for expenditure categories for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(2) National growth rates are computed using CMS Office of the Actuary national Medicare expenditure data for BY3 and the performance year for assignable beneficiaries identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to each year.
(3) Regional growth rates are computed using expenditures for the ACO's regional service area for BY3 and the performance year, computed as follows:
(i) Determine the counties included in the ACO's regional service area based on the ACO's assigned beneficiary population for the year.
(ii) Determine the ACO's regional expenditures as specified under paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
(4) The national and regional growth rates are blended together by taking a weighted average of the two. The weight applied to the—
(i) National growth rate is calculated as the share of assignable beneficiaries in the ACO's regional service area that are assigned to the ACO for the applicable performance year as specified in paragraph (a)(5)(v) of this section; and
(ii) Regional growth rate is equal to 1 minus the weight applied to the national growth rate.
(c) Calculating county expenditures. For all agreement periods beginning on July 1, 2019, and in subsequent years, CMS does all of the following to determine risk adjusted county fee-for-service expenditures for use in calculating the ACO's regional fee-for-service expenditures:
(1)(i) Determines average county fee-for-service expenditures based on expenditures for the assignable population of beneficiaries in each county in the ACO's regional service area, where assignable beneficiaries are identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to the relevant benchmark or performance year.
(ii) Makes separate expenditure calculations for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(A) ESRD.
(B) Disabled.
(C) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(D) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(2) Calculates assignable beneficiary expenditures using the payment amounts included in Parts A and B fee-for-service claims with dates of service in the 12-month calendar year for the relevant benchmark or performance year, using a 3-month claims run out with a completion factor. The calculation—
(i) Excludes IME and DSH payments, and the supplemental payment for IHS/Tribal hospitals and Puerto Rico hospitals; and
(ii) Considers individually beneficiary identifiable final payments made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(3) Truncates a beneficiary's total annual Parts A and B fee-for-service per capita expenditures at the 99th percentile of national Medicare fee-for-service expenditures for assignable beneficiaries identified for the 12-month calendar year that corresponds to the relevant benchmark or performance year, in order to minimize variation from catastrophically large claims.
(4) Adjusts fee-for-service expenditures for severity and case mix of assignable beneficiaries in the county using prospective HCC risk scores. The calculation is made according to the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(d) Calculating regional expenditures. For all agreement periods beginning on July 1, 2019, and in subsequent years, CMS calculates an ACO's risk adjusted regional expenditures by:
(1) Weighting the risk-adjusted county-level fee-for-service expenditures determined under paragraph (c) of this section according to the ACO's proportion of assigned beneficiaries in the county, determined by the number of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries in the applicable population (according to Medicare enrollment type) residing in the county in relation to the ACO's total number of assigned beneficiaries in the applicable population (according to Medicare enrollment type) for the relevant benchmark or performance year for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(2) Aggregating the values determined under paragraph (d)(1) of this section for each population of beneficiaries (according to Medicare enrollment type) across all counties within the ACO's regional service area.
(e) Resetting the benchmark. (1) An ACO's benchmark is reset at the start of each subsequent agreement period.
(2) For second or subsequent agreements periods beginning on July 1, 2019, and in subsequent years, CMS establishes, adjusts, and updates the rebased historical benchmark in accordance with paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section with the following modifications:
(i) Rather than weighting each year of the benchmark using the percentages provided in paragraph (a)(7) of this section, each benchmark year is weighted equally.
(ii) For a renewing ACO or re-entering ACO whose prior agreement period benchmark was calculated according to § 425.603(c), to determine the weight used in the regional adjustment calculation described in paragraph (f) of this section, CMS considers the agreement period the ACO is entering into according to § 425.600(f) in combination with either of the following—
(A) The weight previously applied to calculate the regional adjustment to the ACO's benchmark under § 425.603(c)(9) in its most recent prior agreement period; or
(B) For a new ACO identified as a re-entering ACO, CMS considers the weight previously applied to calculate the regional adjustment to the benchmark under § 425.603(c)(9) in its most recent prior agreement period of the ACO in which the majority of the new ACO's participants were participating previously.
(f) Phase-in of weights used in regional adjustment calculation. (1) The first time that an ACO's benchmark is adjusted based on the ACO's regional service area expenditures, CMS calculates the regional adjustment as follows:
(i) Using 35 percent of the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's initial or rebased historical benchmark, if the ACO is determined to have lower spending than the ACO's regional service area.
(ii) Using 15 percent of the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's initial or rebased historical benchmark, if the ACO is determined to have higher spending than the ACO's regional service area.
(2) The second time that an ACO's benchmark is adjusted based on the ACO's regional service area expenditures, CMS calculates the regional adjustment as follows:
(i) Using 50 percent of the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's rebased historical benchmark if the ACO is determined to have lower spending than the ACO's regional service area.
(ii) Using 25 percent of the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's rebased historical benchmark if the ACO is determined to have higher spending than the ACO's regional service area.
(3) The third time that an ACO's benchmark is adjusted based on the ACO's regional service area expenditures, CMS calculates the regional adjustment as follows:
(i) Using 50 percent of the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's rebased historical benchmark if the ACO is determined to have lower spending than the ACO's regional service area.
(ii) Using 35 percent of the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's rebased historical benchmark if the ACO is determined to have higher spending than the ACO's regional service area.
(4) The fourth or subsequent time that an ACO's benchmark is adjusted based on the ACO's regional service area expenditures, CMS calculates the regional adjustment to the historical benchmark using 50 percent of the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's rebased historical benchmark.
(5) To determine if an ACO has lower or higher spending compared to the ACO's regional service area, CMS does the following:
(i) Multiplies the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's historical benchmark for each population of beneficiaries (ESRD, Disabled, Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries) as calculated under either paragraph (a)(8)(ii)(A) or (e) of this section by the applicable proportion of the ACO's assigned beneficiary population (ESRD, Disabled, Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries) for BY3 of the historical benchmark.
(ii) Sums the amounts determined in paragraph (f)(5)(i) of this section across the populations of beneficiaries (ESRD, Disabled, Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries).
(iii) If the resulting sum is a net positive value, the ACO is considered to have lower spending compared to the ACO's regional service area. If the resulting sum is a net negative value, the ACO is considered to have higher spending compared to the ACO's regional service area.
(iv) If during the term of the agreement period CMS adjusts the ACO's benchmark, as specified in paragraph (a)(9) of this section, CMS redetermines whether the ACO is considered to have lower spending or higher spending compared to the ACO's regional service area for purposes of determining the percentage in paragraphs (f)(1) through (3) of this section used in calculating the adjustment under either paragraph (a)(8) or (e) of this section.
(g) July 1, 2019 through December 31, 2019 performance year. In determining performance for the July 1, 2019 through December 31, 2019 performance year described in § 425.609(c), CMS does all of the following:
(1) When adjusting the benchmark using the methodology set forth in paragraph (a)(10) of this section and § 425.609(c), CMS adjusts for severity and case mix between BY3 and CY 2019.
(2) When updating the benchmark using the methodology set forth in paragraph (b) of this section and § 425.609(c), CMS updates the benchmark based on growth between BY3 and CY 2019.
[83 FR 68071, Dec. 31, 2018, as amended at 85 FR 85042, Dec. 28, 2020; 87 FR 70237, Nov. 18, 2022; 88 FR 79547, Nov. 16, 2023; 89 FR 98570, Dec. 9, 2024]
§ 425.602 Establishing, adjusting, and updating the benchmark for an ACO's first agreement period beginning on or before January 1, 2018.
(a) Computing per capita Medicare Part A and Part B benchmark expenditures. For agreement periods beginning on or before January 1, 2018, in computing an ACO's fixed historical benchmark that is adjusted for historical growth and beneficiary characteristics, including health status, CMS determines the per capita Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for beneficiaries that would have been assigned to the ACO in any of the 3 most recent years prior to the agreement period using the ACO participants' TINs identified at the start of the agreement period. CMS does all of the following:
(1) Calculates the payment amounts included in Parts A and B fee-for-service claims using a 3-month claims run out with a completion factor.
(i) This calculation excludes indirect medical education (IME) and disproportionate share hospital (DSH) payments.
(ii) This calculation considers individually beneficiary identifiable payments made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(A) For agreement periods beginning before 2018, this calculation considers all individually beneficiary identifiable payments, including interim payments, made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(B) For agreement periods beginning in 2018, this calculation considers individually beneficiary identifiable final payments made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(C) For the 2018 performance year and subsequent performance years in agreement periods beginning in 2015, 2016 and 2017, the benchmark is adjusted to reflect only individually beneficiary identifiable final payments made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(2) Makes separate expenditure calculations for each of the following populations of beneficiaries: ESRD, disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries and aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(3) Adjusts expenditures for changes in severity and case mix using prospective HCC risk scores.
(4) Truncation of expenditures:
(i) For agreement periods beginning before 2017—
(A) Truncates an assigned beneficiary's total annual Parts A and B fee-for-service per capita expenditures at the 99th percentile of national Medicare fee-for-service expenditures as determined for each benchmark year in order to minimize variation from catastrophically large claims; and
(B) For the 2017 performance year and any subsequent performance years in agreement periods beginning in 2014, 2015 and 2016, the benchmark is adjusted to reflect the use of assignable beneficiaries in determining the 99th percentile of Medicare fee-for-service expenditures for purposes of truncating expenditures for assigned beneficiaries during each benchmark year as specified in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section.
(ii) For agreement periods beginning in 2017 and 2018, truncates an assigned beneficiary's total annual Parts A and B fee-for-service per capita expenditures at the 99th percentile of national Medicare fee-for-service expenditures for assignable beneficiaries identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to each benchmark year in order to minimize variation from catastrophically large claims.
(5) Trending expenditures:
(i) For agreement periods beginning before 2017—
(A) Using CMS Office of the Actuary national Medicare expenditure data for each of the years making up the historical benchmark, determines national growth rates and trends expenditures for each benchmark year (BY1 and BY2) to the third benchmark year (BY3) dollars.
(B) To trend forward the benchmark, CMS makes separate calculations for expenditure categories for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(1) ESRD.
(2) Disabled.
(3) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(4) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(C) For the 2017 performance year and any subsequent performance years in agreement periods beginning in 2014, 2015 and 2016, the benchmark is adjusted to reflect the use of assignable beneficiaries to perform each of these calculations as specified in paragraph (a)(5)(ii) of this section.
(ii) For agreement periods beginning in 2017 and 2018—
(A) Using CMS Office of the Actuary national Medicare expenditure data for each of the years making up the historical benchmark, determines national growth rates for assignable beneficiaries identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to each benchmark year, and trends expenditures for each benchmark year (BY1 and BY2) to the third benchmark year (BY3) dollars.
(B) To trend forward the benchmark, CMS makes separate calculations for expenditure categories for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(1) ESRD.
(2) Disabled.
(3) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(4) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(6) Restates BY1 and BY2 trended and risk adjusted expenditures in BY3 proportions of ESRD, disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries and aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(7) Weights each year of the benchmark for the initial agreement period using the following percentages:
(i) BY3 at 60 percent.
(ii) BY2 at 30 percent.
(iii) BY1 at 10 percent.
(8) The ACO's benchmark is adjusted for the addition and removal of ACO participants or ACO providers/suppliers in accordance with § 425.118(b) and for a change to the beneficiary assignment methodology specified in subpart E of this part, as applicable, to take into account the expenditures for beneficiaries who would have been assigned to the ACO in any of the 3 most recent years prior to the start of the agreement period.
(9) The historical benchmark is further adjusted at the time of reconciliation for a performance year to account for changes in severity and case mix for newly and continuously assigned beneficiaries using prospective HCC risk scores and demographic factors as described under §§ 425.604(a)(1) through (3), 425.606(a)(1) through (3), and 425.610(a)(1) through (3).
(b) Updating the benchmark. CMS updates the historical benchmark annually for each year of the agreement period based on the flat dollar equivalent of the projected absolute amount of growth in national per capita expenditures for Parts A and B services under the original Medicare fee-for-service program.
(1) For performance years before 2017, CMS updates the historical benchmark annually for each year of the agreement period based on the flat dollar equivalent of the projected absolute amount of growth in national per capita expenditures for Parts A and B services under the original Medicare fee-for-service program.
(i) CMS updates the fixed benchmark by the projected absolute amount of growth in national per capita expenditures for Parts A and B services under the original Medicare fee-for-service program using data from CMS' Office of the Actuary.
(ii) To update the benchmark, CMS makes expenditure calculations for separate categories for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(A) ESRD.
(B) Disabled.
(C) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(D) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(2) For the 2017 performance year and subsequent performance years, CMS updates the historical benchmark annually for each year of the agreement period based on the flat dollar equivalent of the projected absolute amount of growth in national per capita expenditures for Parts A and B services under the original Medicare fee-for-service program for assignable beneficiaries identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to the year for which the update is calculated.
(i) CMS updates the fixed benchmark by the projected absolute amount of growth in national per capita expenditures for Parts A and B services under the original Medicare fee-for-service program for assignable beneficiaries identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to the year for which the update is being calculated using data from CMS' Office of the Actuary.
(ii) To update the benchmark, CMS makes expenditure calculations for separate categories for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(A) ESRD.
(B) Disabled.
(C) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(D) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(c) January 1, 2019 through June 30, 2019 performance year. In determining performance for the January 1, 2019 through June 30, 2019 performance year described in § 425.609(b) CMS does all of the following:
(1) When adjusting the benchmark using the methodology set forth in paragraph (a)(9) of this section and § 425.609(b), CMS adjusts for severity and case mix between BY3 and CY 2019.
(2) When updating the benchmark using the methodology set forth in paragraph (b) of this section and § 425.609(b), CMS updates the benchmark based on growth between BY3 and CY 2019.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32842, June 9, 2015; 81 FR 38014, June 10, 2016; 82 FR 53370, Nov. 15, 2017; 83 FR 60094, Nov. 23, 2018; 83 FR 68074, Dec. 31, 2018; 85 FR 85042, Dec. 28, 2020]
§ 425.603 Resetting, adjusting, and updating the benchmark for a subsequent agreement period beginning on or before January 1, 2019.
(a) An ACO's benchmark is reset at the start of each subsequent agreement period.
(b) For second agreement periods beginning in 2016, CMS establishes, adjusts, and updates the rebased historical benchmark in accordance with § 425.602(a) and (b) with the following modifications:
(1) Rather than weighting each year of the benchmark using the percentages provided at § 425.602(a)(7), each benchmark year is weighted equally.
(2) An additional adjustment is made to account for the average per capita amount of savings generated during the ACO's previous agreement period. The adjustment is limited to the average number of assigned beneficiaries (expressed as person years) under the ACO's first agreement period.
(c) For second or subsequent agreement periods beginning in 2017, 2018 and on January 1, 2019, CMS establishes the rebased historical benchmark by determining the per capita Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for beneficiaries who would have been assigned to the ACO in any of the 3 most recent years before the agreement period using the certified ACO participant list submitted before the start of the agreement period as required under § 425.118. CMS does all of the following:
(1) Calculates the payment amounts included in Parts A and B fee-for-service claims using a 3-month claims run out with a completion factor. The calculation—
(i) Excludes IME and DSH payments; and
(ii) Considers individually beneficiary identifiable payments made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(A) For agreement periods beginning before 2018, considers all individually beneficiary identifiable payments, including interim payments, made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(B) For agreement periods beginning in 2018 and on January 1, 2019, considers individually beneficiary identifiable final payments made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(C) For the 2018 and 2019 performance years in agreement periods beginning in 2017, the benchmark is adjusted to reflect only individually beneficiary identifiable final payments made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(2) Makes separate expenditure calculations for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(3) Adjusts expenditures for changes in severity and case mix using prospective HCC risk scores.
(4) Truncates an assigned beneficiary's total annual Parts A and B fee-for-service per capita expenditures at the 99th percentile of national Medicare fee-for-service expenditures for assignable beneficiaries identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to each benchmark year in order to minimize variation from catastrophically large claims.
(5) Trends forward expenditures for each benchmark year (BY1 and BY2) to the third benchmark year (BY3) dollars using regional growth rates based on expenditures for the ACO's regional service area as determined under paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, making separate expenditure calculations for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(6) Restates BY1 and BY2 trended and risk-adjusted expenditures in BY3 proportions of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(7) Weights each benchmark year equally.
(8) The ACO's benchmark is adjusted for the following, as applicable: For the addition and removal of ACO participants or ACO providers/suppliers in accordance with § 425.118(b), and for a change to the beneficiary assignment methodology specified in subpart E of this part. To adjust the benchmark, CMS does the following:
(i) Takes into account the expenditures for beneficiaries who would have been assigned to the ACO in any of the 3 most recent years prior to the start of the agreement period.
(ii) Redetermines the regional adjustment amount under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, according to the ACO's assigned beneficiaries for BY3.
(9) Adjusts the historical benchmark based on the ACO's regional service area expenditures, making separate calculations for the following populations of beneficiaries: ESRD, disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, and aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries. CMS does all of the following:
(i) Calculates an average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area as follows:
(A) Determines the counties included in the ACO's regional service area based on the ACO's BY3 assigned beneficiary population.
(B) Determines the ACO's regional expenditures as specified under paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section for BY3.
(C) Adjusts for differences in severity and case mix between the ACO's assigned beneficiary population and the assignable beneficiary population for the ACO's regional service area identified for the 12-month calendar year that corresponds to BY3.
(ii) Calculates the adjustment as follows:
(A) Determines the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area as specified under paragraph (c)(9)(i) of this section and the average per capita amount of the ACO's rebased historical benchmark determined under paragraphs (c)(1) through)(8) of this section, for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(1) ESRD.
(2) Disabled.
(3) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(4) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(B) Applies a percentage, determined as follows:
(1) The first time an ACO's benchmark is rebased using the methodology described under paragraph (c) of this section, CMS calculates the regional adjustment as follows:
(i) Using 35 percent of the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's rebased historical benchmark, if the ACO is determined to have lower spending than the ACO's regional service area;
(ii) Using 25 percent of the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's rebased historical benchmark, if the ACO is determined to have higher spending than the ACO's regional service area.
(2) The second time that an ACO's benchmark is rebased using the methodology described under paragraph (c) of this section, CMS calculates the regional adjustment to the historical benchmark as follows:
(i) Using 70 percent of the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's rebased historical benchmark, unless the Secretary determines a lower weight should be applied, if the ACO is determined to have lower spending than the ACO's regional service area;
(ii) Using 50 percent of the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's rebased historical benchmark, if the ACO is determined to have higher spending than the ACO's regional service area.
(3) The third or subsequent time that an ACO's benchmark is rebased using the methodology described under paragraph (c) of this section, CMS calculates the regional adjustment to the historical benchmark using 70 percent of the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's rebased historical benchmark, unless the Secretary determines a lower weight should be applied.
(4) To determine if an ACO has lower or higher spending compared to the ACO's regional service area, CMS does the following:
(i) Multiplies the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's rebased historical benchmark for each population of beneficiaries (ESRD, Disabled, Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries) as calculated under paragraph (c)(9)(ii)(A) of this section by the applicable proportion of the ACO's assigned beneficiary population (ESRD, Disabled, Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries) for benchmark year 3 of the rebased historical benchmark.
(ii) Sums the amounts determined in paragraph (c)(9)(ii)(B)(4)(i) of this section across the populations of beneficiaries (ESRD, Disabled, Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries).
(iii) If the resulting sum is a net positive value, the ACO is considered to have lower spending compared to the ACO's regional service area. If the resulting sum is a net negative value, the ACO is considered to have higher spending compared to the ACO's regional service area.
(iv) If CMS adjusts the ACO's benchmark, as specified in paragraph (c)(8) of this section, CMS redetermines whether the ACO is considered to have lower spending or higher spending compared to the ACO's regional service area for purposes of determining the percentage used in calculating the adjustment in paragraphs (c)(9)(ii)(B)(1) and (2) of this section.
(10) The historical benchmark is further adjusted at the time of reconciliation for a performance year to account for changes in severity and case mix for newly and continuously assigned beneficiaries using prospective HCC risk scores and demographic factors as described under §§ 425.604(a)(1) through (3), 425.606(a)(1) through (3), and 425.610(a)(1) through (3).
(d) For second or subsequent agreement periods beginning in 2017, 2018 and on January 1, 2019, CMS updates the rebased historical benchmark under paragraph (c) of this section, annually for each year of the agreement period by the growth in risk adjusted regional per beneficiary FFS spending for the ACO's regional service area by doing all of the following:
(1) Determining the counties included in the ACO's regional service area based on the ACO's assigned beneficiary population used to determine financial reconciliation for the relevant performance year.
(2) Determining growth rates based on expenditures for counties in the ACO's regional service area calculated under paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, for the performance year compared to BY3 for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(3) Updating the benchmark by making separate calculations for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(e) For second or subsequent agreement periods beginning in 2017, 2018 and on January 1, 2019, CMS does all of the following to determine risk adjusted county fee-for-service expenditures for use in calculating the ACO's regional fee-for-service expenditures:
(1)(i) Determines average county fee-for-service expenditures based on expenditures for the assignable population of beneficiaries in each county, where assignable beneficiaries are identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to the relevant benchmark or performance year.
(ii) Makes separate expenditure calculations for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(A) ESRD.
(B) Disabled.
(C) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(D) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(2) Calculates assignable beneficiary expenditures using the payment amounts included in Parts A and B fee-for-service claims with dates of service in the 12-month calendar year for the relevant benchmark or performance year, using a 3-month claims run out with a completion factor. The calculation—
(i) Excludes IME and DSH payments; and
(ii) Considers individually beneficiary identifiable payments made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(A) For agreement periods beginning before 2018, considers all individually beneficiary identifiable payments, including interim payments, made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(B) For agreement periods beginning in 2018 and on January 1, 2019, considers individually beneficiary identifiable final payments made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(C) For the 2018 and 2019 performance years in agreement periods beginning in 2017, risk adjusted county fee-for-service expenditures are adjusted to reflect only individually beneficiary identifiable final payments made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(3) Truncates a beneficiary's total annual Parts A and B fee-for-service per capita expenditures at the 99th percentile of national Medicare fee-for-service expenditures for assignable beneficiaries identified for the 12-month calendar year that corresponds to the relevant benchmark or performance year, in order to minimize variation from catastrophically large claims.
(4) Adjusts fee-for-service expenditures for severity and case mix of assignable beneficiaries in the county using prospective CMS-HCC risk scores. The calculation is made according to the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(f) For second or subsequent agreement periods beginning in 2017, 2018, and on January 1, 2019, CMS calculates an ACO's risk adjusted regional expenditures by—
(1) Weighting the risk-adjusted county-level fee-for-service expenditures determined under paragraph (e) of this section according to the ACO's proportion of assigned beneficiaries in the county, determined by the number of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries in the applicable population (according to Medicare enrollment type) residing in the county in relation to the ACO's total number of assigned beneficiaries in the applicable population (according to Medicare enrollment type) for the relevant benchmark or performance year for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(2) Aggregating the values determined under paragraph (f)(1) of this section for each population of beneficiaries (according to Medicare enrollment type) across all counties within the ACO's regional service area; and
(3) Weighting the aggregate expenditure values determined for each population of beneficiaries (according to Medicare enrollment type) under paragraph (f)(2) of this section by a weight reflecting the proportion of the ACO's overall beneficiary population in the applicable Medicare enrollment type for the relevant benchmark or performance year.
(g) In determining performance for the January 1, 2019 through June 30, 2019 performance year described in § 425.609(b) CMS does all of the following:
(1) When adjusting the benchmark using the methodology set forth in paragraph (c)(10) of this section and § 425.609(b), CMS adjusts for severity and case mix between BY3 and CY 2019.
(2) When updating the benchmark using the methodology set forth in paragraph (d) of this section and § 425.609(b), CMS updates the benchmark based on growth between BY3 and CY 2019.
[81 FR 38014, June 10, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 53370, Nov. 15, 2017; 83 FR 60094, Nov. 23, 2018; 83 FR 68074, Dec. 31, 2018; 85 FR 85042, Dec. 28, 2020]
§ 425.604 Calculation of savings under the one-sided model.
(a) Savings determination. For each performance year, CMS determines whether the estimated average per capita Medicare expenditures under the ACO for Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries for Parts A and B services are below the applicable updated benchmark determined under § 425.602 or § 425.603.
(1) Newly assigned beneficiaries. CMS uses an ACO's HCC prospective risk score to adjust the benchmark for changes in severity and case mix in this population.
(2) Continuously assigned beneficiaries. (i) CMS uses demographic factors to adjust the benchmark for changes in the continuously assigned population.
(ii) If the prospective HCC risk score is lower in the performance year for this population, CMS will adjust the benchmark for changes in severity and case mix in this population using this lower prospective HCC risk score.
(3) Assigned beneficiary changes in demographics and health status are used to adjust benchmark expenditures as described in § 425.602(a) or § 425.603(c). In adjusting the benchmark for health status and demographic changes CMS makes adjustments for separate categories for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(4)(i) For performance years before 2017 to minimize variation from catastrophically large claims, CMS truncates an assigned beneficiary's total annual Parts A and B fee-for-service per capita expenditures at the 99th percentile of national Medicare fee-for-service expenditures as determined for each performance year.
(ii) For the 2017 performance year and subsequent performance years, to minimize variation from catastrophically large claims, CMS truncates an assigned beneficiary's total annual Parts A and B fee-for-service per capita expenditures at the 99th percentile of national Medicare fee-for-service expenditures as determined for the applicable performance year for assignable beneficiaries identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to the performance year.
(5) CMS uses a 3 month claims run out with a completion factor to calculate an ACO's per capita expenditures for each performance year.
(6) Calculations of the ACO's expenditures will include the payment amounts included in Part A and B fee-for-service claims.
(i) These calculations will exclude indirect medical education (IME) and disproportionate share hospital (DSH) payments.
(ii) These calculations will take into consideration individually beneficiary identifiable payments made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(A) For performance years beginning before 2018, these calculations will take into consideration all individually beneficiary identifiable payments, including interim payments, made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(B) For performance year 2018 and subsequent performance years, these calculations will take into consideration individually beneficiary identifiable final payments made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(7) In order to qualify for a shared savings payment, the ACO's average per capita Medicare expenditures for the performance year must be below the applicable updated benchmark by at least the minimum savings rate established for the ACO under paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) Minimum savings rate (MSR). CMS uses a sliding scale, based on the number of beneficiaries assigned to the ACO under subpart E of this part, to establish the MSR for an ACO participating under the one-sided model. The MSR under the one-sided model for an ACO based on the number of assigned beneficiaries is as follows:
(c) Qualification for shared savings payment—(1) For performance years (or a performance period) beginning on or before January 1, 2020. In order to qualify for shared savings, an ACO must meet or exceed its minimum savings rate determined under paragraph (b) of this section, meet the minimum quality performance standards established under § 425.502, and otherwise maintain its eligibility to participate in the Shared Savings Program under this part.
(2) For the performance year beginning on January 1, 2021. To qualify for shared savings, an ACO must meet or exceed its minimum savings rate determined under paragraph (b) of this section, meet the quality performance standard established under § 425.512, and otherwise maintain its eligibility to participate in the Shared Savings Program under this part.
(d) Final sharing rate—(1) For performance years (or a performance period) beginning on or before January 1, 2020. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the one-sided model will receive a shared savings payment of up to 50 percent of all savings under the updated benchmark, as determined on the basis of its quality performance under § 425.502 (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section).
(2) For the performance year beginning on January 1, 2021. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under Track 1 will receive a shared savings payment of 50 percent of all the savings under the updated benchmark (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section).
(e) Performance payment. (1) If an ACO qualifies for savings by meeting or exceeding the MSR, the final sharing rate will apply to an ACO's savings on a first dollar basis.
(2) The amount of shared savings an eligible ACO receives under the one-sided model may not exceed 10 percent of its updated benchmark.
(f) Notification of savings. CMS notifies an ACO in writing regarding whether the ACO qualifies for a shared savings payment, and if so, the amount of the payment due.
(g) January 1, 2019 through June 30, 2019 performance year. Shared savings for the January 1, 2019 through June 30, 2019 performance year are calculated as described in § 425.609.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 38016, June 10, 2016; 82 FR 53370, Nov. 15, 2017; 83 FR 60094, Nov. 23, 2018; 83 FR 68074, Dec. 31, 2018; 85 FR 85042, Dec. 28, 2020]
§ 425.605 Calculation of shared savings and losses under the BASIC track.
(a) General rules. For each performance year, CMS determines whether the estimated average per capita Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries assigned to the ACO are above or below the updated benchmark determined under § 425.601 or § 425.652, as applicable. In order to qualify for a shared savings payment under the BASIC track, or to be responsible for sharing losses with CMS, an ACO's average per capita Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for its assigned beneficiary population for the performance year must be below or above the updated benchmark, respectively, by at least the minimum savings or loss rate under paragraph (b) of this section except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section.
(1) CMS uses an ACO's prospective HCC risk score to adjust the benchmark for changes in severity and case mix in the assigned beneficiary population between BY3 and the performance year.
(i) For agreement periods beginning before January 1, 2024:
(A) Positive adjustments in prospective HCC risk scores are subject to a cap of 3 percent.
(B) This cap is the maximum increase in risk scores for each agreement period, such that any positive adjustment between BY3 and any performance year in the agreement period cannot be larger than 3 percent.
(ii) For agreement periods beginning on January 1, 2024, and in subsequent years:
(A) Positive adjustments in prospective HCC risk scores are subject to a cap equal to the ACO's aggregate growth in demographic risk scores between BY3 and the performance year (positive or negative) plus 3 percentage points.
(B) The cap described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section will apply to prospective HCC risk score growth for a population described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section only if the ACO's aggregate growth in prospective HCC risk scores between BY3 and the performance year across all of the populations described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section exceeds this cap. If the cap described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section is determined to apply, the value of the cap is the maximum increase in risk scores for the applicable performance year, such that any positive adjustment between BY3 and the performance year cannot be larger than the value of the cap for any of the populations described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
(C) The aggregate growth in demographic risk scores for purposes of paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section and the aggregate growth in prospective hierarchical condition category (HCC) risk scores for purposes of paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(B) of this section is calculated by taking a weighted average of the growth in demographic risk scores or prospective HCC risk scores, as applicable, across the populations described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. When calculating the weighted average growth in demographic risk scores or prospective HCC risk scores, as applicable, the weight applied to the growth in risk scores (expressed as a ratio of the ACO's performance year risk score to the ACO's BY3 risk score) for each Medicare enrollment type is equal to the product of the ACO's historical benchmark expenditures, adjusted in accordance with § 425.652(a)(8), for that enrollment type and the ACO's performance year assigned beneficiary person years for that enrollment type.
(2) In risk adjusting the benchmark as described in §§ 425.601(a)(10) and 425.652(a)(10), CMS makes separate adjustments for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(3) To minimize variation from catastrophically large claims, CMS truncates an assigned beneficiary's total annual Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service per capita expenditures at the 99th percentile of national Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures as determined for the applicable performance year for assignable beneficiaries identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to the performance year.
(4) CMS uses a 3-month claims run out with a completion factor to calculate an ACO's per capita expenditures for each performance year.
(5) Calculations of the ACO's expenditures include the payment amounts included in Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service claims.
(i) These calculations exclude indirect medical education (IME) and disproportionate share hospital (DSH) payments, and the supplemental payment for IHS/Tribal hospitals and Puerto Rico hospitals.
(ii) These calculations take into consideration individually beneficiary identifiable final payments made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(6) In order to qualify for a shared savings payment, the ACO's average per capita Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for the performance year must be below the applicable updated benchmark by at least the minimum savings rate established for the ACO under paragraph (b) of this section except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section.
(b) Minimum savings or loss rate. (1) For ACOs under a one-sided model of the BASIC track's glide path, as specified under paragraphs (d)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, CMS uses a sliding scale, based on the number of beneficiaries assigned to the ACO under subpart E of this part, to establish the MSR for the ACO as follows:
(2) Prior to entering a two-sided model of the BASIC track, the ACO must select the MSR/MLR. For an ACO making this selection as part of an application for, or renewal of, participation in a two-sided model of the BASIC track, the selection applies for the duration of the agreement period under the BASIC track. For an ACO making this selection during an agreement period, as part of the application cycle prior to entering a two-sided model of the BASIC track, the selection applies for the remaining duration of the applicable agreement period under the BASIC track.
(i) The ACO must choose from the following options for establishing the MSR/MLR:
(A) Zero percent MSR/MLR.
(B) Symmetrical MSR/MLR in a 0.5 percent increment between 0.5 and 2.0 percent.
(C) Symmetrical MSR/MLR that varies, based on the number of beneficiaries assigned to the ACO under subpart E of this part. The MSR is the same as the MSR that would apply under paragraph (b)(1) of this section for an ACO under a one-sided model of the BASIC track's glide path, and is based on the number of assigned beneficiaries. The MLR under the BASIC track is equal to the negative MSR.
(ii) The ACO selects its MSR/MLR as part of one the following:
(A) Application for, or renewal of, program participation in a two-sided model of the BASIC track.
(B) Election to participate in a two-sided model of the BASIC track during an agreement period under § 425.226.
(C) Automatic transition from Level B to Level C of the BASIC track's glide path under § 425.600(a)(4)(i).
(D) Automatic transition from Level B to Level E of the BASIC track's glide path under § 425.600(a)(4)(i)(B)(2)(ii).
(E) Automatic transition from Level A to Level E of the BASIC track's glide path under § 425.600(i)(2).
(3) Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, in order to qualify for a shared savings payment, an ACO's average per capita Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for its assigned beneficiary population for the performance year must be below its updated benchmark by at least the MSR established for the ACO.
(4) To be responsible for sharing losses with the Medicare program, an ACO's average per capita Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for its assigned beneficiary population for the performance year must be above its updated benchmark costs for the year by at least the MLR established for the ACO.
(c) Qualification for shared savings payment—(1) For performance years beginning on or before January 1, 2020. To qualify for shared savings, an ACO must meet the minimum savings rate requirement established under paragraph (b) of this section, meet the minimum quality performance standards established under § 425.502, and otherwise maintain its eligibility to participate in the Shared Savings Program under this part.
(2) For performance years beginning on or after January 1, 2021. To qualify for shared savings, an ACO must—
(i) Meet either the minimum savings rate requirement established under paragraph (b) of this section, or the criteria described in paragraph (h) of this section;
(ii) Meet either the quality performance standard or alternative quality performance standard established under § 425.512; and
(iii) Otherwise maintain its eligibility to participate in the Shared Savings Program under this part.
(d) Levels of risk and potential reward. (1) The following levels of risk and potential reward apply to an ACO in the BASIC track, as permitted under “§ 425.600(d), (g), or (h).
(i) Level A (one-sided model)—(A)Final sharing rate—(1) For performance years beginning on or before January 1, 2020. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the BASIC track, Level A, receives a shared savings payment of up to 40 percent of all the savings under the updated benchmark, as determined on the basis of its quality performance under § 425.502 (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (d)(1)(i)(B) of this section).
(2) For performance years beginning on January 1, 2021, or January 1, 2022. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the BASIC track, Level A, receives a shared savings payment of 40 percent of all the savings under the updated benchmark (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (d)(1)(i)(B) of this section).
(3) For the performance year beginning on January 1, 2023. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the BASIC track, Level A, receives a shared savings payment equal to a percentage of all the savings under the updated benchmark (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (d)(1)(i)(B) of this section). The percentage is as follows:
(i) 40 percent for an ACO that meets the quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(2) or (a)(4)(i).
(ii) 40 percent multiplied by the ACO's quality score calculated according to § 425.512 for an ACO that meets the alternative quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(4)(ii).
(4) For performance years beginning on or after January 1, 2024. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the BASIC track, Level A, receives a shared savings payment equal to a percentage of all the savings under the updated benchmark (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (d)(1)(i)(B) of this section). Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, the percentage is as follows:
(i) 40 percent for an ACO that meets the quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(2) or (a)(5)(i).
(ii) 40 percent multiplied by the ACO's quality score calculated according to § 425.512 for an ACO that meets the alternative quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(5)(ii).
(B) Performance payment. (1) If an ACO qualifies for savings by meeting or exceeding the MSR, or as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, the final sharing rate specified in paragraph (d)(1)(i)(A) of this section applies to an ACO's savings on a first dollar basis.
(2) The amount of shared savings an eligible ACO receives under the BASIC track, Level A, may not exceed 10 percent of its updated benchmark.
(ii) Level B (one-sided model)—(A) Final sharing rate—(1) For performance years beginning on or before January 1, 2020. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the BASIC track, Level B, receives a shared savings payment of up to 40 percent of all the savings under the updated benchmark, as determined on the basis of its quality performance under § 425.502 (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(B) of this section).
(2) (2) For performance years beginning on January 1, 2021, or January 1, 2022. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the BASIC track, Level B, receives a shared savings payment of 40 percent of all the savings under the updated benchmark (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(B) of this section).
(3) For the performance year beginning on January 1, 2023. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the BASIC track, Level B, receives a shared savings payment equal to a percentage of all the savings under the updated benchmark (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(B) of this section). The percentage is as follows:
(i) 40 percent for an ACO that meets the quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(2) or (a)(4)(i).
(ii) 40 percent multiplied by the ACO's quality score calculated according to § 425.512 for an ACO that meets the alternative quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(4)(ii).
(4) For performance years beginning on or after January 1, 2024. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the BASIC track, Level B, receives a shared savings payment equal to a percentage of all the savings under the updated benchmark (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(B) of this section). Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, the percentage is as follows:
(i) 40 percent for an ACO that meets the quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(2) or (a)(5)(i).
(ii) 40 percent multiplied by the ACO's quality score calculated according to § 425.512 for an ACO that meets the alternative quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(5)(ii).
(B) Performance payment. (1) If an ACO qualifies for savings by meeting or exceeding the MSR, or as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, the final sharing rate specified in paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(A) of this section applies to an ACO's savings on a first dollar basis.
(2) The amount of shared savings an eligible ACO receives under the BASIC track, Level B, may not exceed 10 percent of its updated benchmark.
(iii) Level C (two-sided model)—(A) Final sharing rate—(1) For performance years beginning on or before January 1, 2020. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the BASIC track, Level C, receives a shared savings payment of up to 50 percent of all the savings under the updated benchmark, as determined on the basis of its quality performance under § 425.502 (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(B) of this section).
(2) For performance years beginning on January 1, 2021, or January 1, 2022. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the BASIC track, Level C, receives a shared savings payment of 50 percent of all the savings under the updated benchmark (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(B) of this section).
(3) For the performance year beginning on January 1, 2023. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the BASIC track, Level C, receives a shared savings payment equal to a percentage of all the savings under the updated benchmark (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(B) of this section). The percentage is as follows:
(i) 50 percent for an ACO that meets the quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(2) or (a)(4)(i).
(ii) 50 percent multiplied by the ACO's quality score calculated according to § 425.512 for an ACO that meets the alternative quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(4)(ii).
(4) For performance years beginning on or after January 1, 2024. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the BASIC track, Level C, receives a shared savings payment equal to a percentage of all the savings under the updated benchmark (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(B) of this section). Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, the percentage is as follows:
(i) 50 percent for an ACO that meets the quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(2) or (a)(5)(i).
(ii) 50 percent multiplied by the ACO's quality score calculated according to § 425.512 for an ACO that meets the alternative quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(5)(ii).
(B) Performance payment. (1) If an ACO qualifies for savings by meeting or exceeding the MSR, or as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, the final sharing rate specified in paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(A) of this section applies to an ACO's savings on a first dollar basis.
(2) The amount of shared savings an eligible ACO receives under the BASIC track, Level C may not exceed 10 percent of its updated benchmark.
(C) Shared loss rate. For an ACO that is required to share losses with the Medicare program for expenditures over the updated benchmark, the amount of shared losses is determined based on a fixed 30 percent loss sharing rate.
(D) Loss recoupment limit. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(D)(2) of this section, the amount of shared losses for which an eligible ACO is liable may not exceed 2 percent of total Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service revenue of the ACO participants in the ACO.
(2) Instead of the revenue-based loss recoupment limit determined under paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(D)(1) of this section, the loss recoupment limit for the ACO is 1 percent of the ACO's updated benchmark as determined under § 425.601 or § 425.652, if the amount determined under paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(D)(1) of this section exceeds the amount that is 1 percent of the ACO's updated benchmark as determined under § 425.601 or § 425.652.
(iv) Level D (two-sided model)—(A) Final sharing rate—(1) For performance years beginning on or before January 1, 2020. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the BASIC track, Level D, receives a shared savings payment of up to 50 percent of all the savings under the updated benchmark, as determined on the basis of its quality performance under § 425.502 (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (d)(1)(iv)(B) of this section).
(2) For performance years beginning on January 1, 2021, or January 1, 2022. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the BASIC track, Level D, receives a shared savings payment of 50 percent of all the savings under the updated benchmark (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (d)(1)(iv)(B) of this section).
(3) For the performance year beginning on January 1, 2023. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the BASIC track, Level D, receives a shared savings payment equal to a percentage of all the savings under the updated benchmark (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (d)(1)(iv)(B) of this section). The percentage is as follows:
(i) 50 percent for an ACO that meets the quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(2) or (a)(4)(i).
(ii) 50 percent multiplied by the ACO's quality score calculated according to § 425.512 for an ACO that meets the alternative quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(4)(ii).
(4) For performance years beginning on or after January 1, 2024. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the BASIC track, Level D, receives a shared savings payment equal to a percentage of all the savings under the updated benchmark (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (d)(1)(iv)(B) of this section). Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, the percentage is as follows:
(i) 50 percent for an ACO that meets the quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(2) or (a)(5)(i).
(ii) 50 percent multiplied by the ACO's quality score calculated according to § 425.512 for an ACO that meets the alternative quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(5)(ii).
(B) Performance payment. (1) If an ACO qualifies for savings by meeting or exceeding the MSR, or as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, the final sharing rate specified in paragraph (d)(1)(iv)(A) of this section applies to an ACO's savings on a first dollar basis.
(2) The amount of shared savings an eligible ACO receives under the BASIC track, Level D, may not exceed 10 percent of its updated benchmark.
(C) Shared loss rate. For an ACO that is required to share losses with the Medicare program for expenditures over the updated benchmark, the amount of shared losses is determined based on a fixed 30 percent loss sharing rate.
(D) Loss recoupment limit. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(1)(iv)(D)(2) of this section, the amount of shared losses for which an eligible ACO is liable may not exceed 4 percent of total Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service revenue of the ACO participants in the ACO.
(2) Instead of the revenue-based loss recoupment limit determined under paragraph (d)(1)(iv)(D)(1) of this section, the loss recoupment limit for the ACO is 2 percent of the ACO's updated benchmark as determined under § 425.601 or § 425.652, if the amount determined under paragraph (d)(1)(iv)(D)(1) of this section exceeds the amount that is 2 percent of the ACO's updated benchmark as determined under § 425.601 or § 425.652.
(v) Level E (two-sided model)—(A) Final sharing rate—(1) For performance years beginning on or before January 1, 2020. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the BASIC track, Level E, receives a shared savings payment of up to 50 percent of all the savings under the updated benchmark, as determined on the basis of its quality performance under § 425.502 (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (d)(1)(v)(B) of this section).
(2) For performance years beginning on January 1, 2021, or January 1, 2022. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the BASIC track, Level E, receives a shared savings payment of 50 percent of all the savings under the updated benchmark (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (d)(1)(v)(B) of this section).
(3) For the performance year beginning on January 1, 2023. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the BASIC track, Level E, receives a shared savings payment equal to a percentage of all the savings under the updated benchmark (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (d)(1)(v)(B) of this section). The percentage is as follows:
(i) 50 percent for an ACO that meets the quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(2) or (a)(4)(i).
(ii) 50 percent multiplied by the ACO's quality score calculated according to § 425.512calculated according to § 425.512(b) for an ACO that meets the alternative quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(4)(ii).
(4) For performance years beginning on or after January 1, 2024. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the BASIC track, Level E, receives a shared savings payment equal to a percentage of all the savings under the updated benchmark (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (d)(1)(v)(B) of this section). Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, the percentage is as follows:
(i) 50 percent for an ACO that that meets the quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(2) or (a)(5)(i).
(ii) 50 percent multiplied by the ACO's quality score calculated according to § 425.512 calculated according to § 425.512(b) for an ACO that meets the alternative quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(5)(ii).
(B) Performance payment. (1) If an ACO qualifies for savings by meeting or exceeding the MSR, or as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, the final sharing rate specified in paragraph (d)(1)(v)(A) of this section applies to an ACO's savings on a first dollar basis.
(2) The amount of shared savings an eligible ACO receives under the BASIC track, Level E, may not exceed 10 percent of its updated benchmark.
(C) Shared loss rate. For an ACO that is required to share losses with the Medicare program for expenditures over the updated benchmark, the amount of shared losses is determined based on a fixed 30 percent loss sharing rate.
(D) Loss recoupment limit. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(1)(v)(D)(2) of this section, the amount of shared losses for which an eligible ACO is liable may not exceed the percentage, as specified in § 414.1415(c)(3)(i)(A) of this chapter, of total Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service revenue of the ACO participants in the ACO.
(2) Instead of the revenue-based loss recoupment limit determined under paragraph (d)(1)(v)(D)(1) of this section, the loss recoupment limit for the ACO is 1 percentage point higher than the percentage, as specified in § 414.1415(c)(3)(i)(B) of this chapter, based on the ACO's updated benchmark as determined under § 425.601 or § 425.652, if the amount determined under paragraph (d)(1)(v)(D)(1) of this section exceeds this percentage of the ACO's updated benchmark as determined under § 425.601 or § 425.652.
(2) If the ACO enters the BASIC track at Level E as specified under § 425.600(d), (g), or (h), the level of risk and reward specified in paragraph (d)(1)(v) of this section applies to all performance years of an ACO's agreement period.
(e) Notification of savings and losses. (1) CMS notifies an ACO in writing regarding whether the ACO qualifies for a shared savings payment, and if so, the amount of the payment due.
(2) CMS provides written notification to an ACO of the amount of shared losses, if any, that it must repay to the program.
(3) If an ACO has shared losses, the ACO must make payment in full to CMS within 90 days of receipt of notification.
(f) Extreme and uncontrollable circumstances. The following adjustment is made in calculating the amount of shared losses, after the application of the shared loss rate and the loss recoupment limit.
(1) CMS determines the percentage of the ACO's performance year assigned beneficiary population affected by an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance.
(2) CMS reduces the amount of the ACO's shared losses by an amount determined by multiplying the shared losses by the percentage of the total months in the performance year affected by an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance, and the percentage of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries who reside in an area affected by an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance.
(i) For an ACO that is liable for a pro-rated share of losses under § 425.221(b)(2)(ii), the amount of shared losses determined for the performance year during which the termination becomes effective is adjusted according to this paragraph (f)(2).
(ii) For performance year 2025 and subsequent performance years, for an ACO as defined at § 425.20 that is determined to be affected by an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance due to a cyberattack, including ransomware/malware, for any month of the performance year that is affected, CMS considers 100 percent of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries to reside in an affected area.
(3) CMS applies determinations made under the Quality Payment Program with respect to all of the following (as applicable):
(i) Whether an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance has occurred.
(ii) The affected areas.
(iii) The time period during which the ACO was affected by a cyberattack, including ransomware/malware.
(4) CMS determines the time period during which an ACO is affected by a cyberattack, including ransomware/malware, as follows:
(i) CMS uses the start and end date indicated on an ACO's application to the Quality Payment Program for an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance exception due to a cyberattack, including ransomware/malware, or the start date indicated on the application and an end date subsequently provided by the ACO in the form and manner as specified by CMS.
(ii) Except as specified in paragraph (f)(4)(iii) of this section, if no end date is indicated on the ACO's application or otherwise provided to CMS in a form and manner specified by CMS, described in paragraph (f)(4)(i) of this section, CMS applies a 90-day duration for purposes of determining the time period during which the ACO was affected by the extreme and uncontrollable circumstance.
(iii) If the start date indicated on the ACO's application described in paragraph (f)(4)(i) of this section is less than 90 days before the end of the performance year and no end date is indicated on the ACO's application or otherwise provided to CMS in the form and manner specified by CMS, described in paragraph (f)(4)(i) of this section, CMS applies an end date of December 31st of the performance year for purposes of determining the time period during which the ACO was affected by the extreme and uncontrollable circumstance.
(5) CMS has sole discretion to determine the time period during which an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance occurred and the percentage of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries residing in the affected areas.
(g) July 1, 2019 through December 31, 2019 performance year. Shared savings or shared losses for the July 1, 2019 through December 31, 2019 performance year are calculated as described in § 425.609.
(h) Calculation of shared savings for certain BASIC track ACOs not meeting MSR requirement. An ACO that does not meet the minimum savings rate requirement established under paragraph (b) of this section but meets the other criteria described in paragraphs (c)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section may qualify for a shared savings payment as provided in this paragraph.
(1) To qualify for a shared savings payment under this paragraph, an ACO must meet all of the following criteria:
(i) The ACO has average per capita Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for the performance year below the updated benchmark determined under § 425.652.
(ii) The ACO is a low revenue ACO as defined in § 425.20 as determined at the time of financial reconciliation for the performance year.
(iii) The ACO has at least 5,000 assigned beneficiaries for the relevant performance year as determined at the time of financial reconciliation for the performance year.
(iv) The ACO is participating in an agreement period beginning on January 1, 2024, or in subsequent years.
(v) For agreement periods beginning on or after January 1, 2027, the ACO has at least 5,000 assigned beneficiaries in each of the ACO's benchmark years.
(2) The ACO's shared savings payment will be calculated as described in paragraph (d) of this section according to the ACO's applicable level of the BASIC track with the exception that the final sharing rate applied will equal one-half of the applicable percentage described in paragraph (d)(1)(i)(A)(4), (d)(1)(ii)(A)(4), (d)(1)(iii)(A)(4), (d)(1)(iv)(A)(4), or (d)(1)(v)(A)(4) of this section.
(i) Calculation of performance payment limit and loss recoupment limit.
(1) The performance payment limit is a percentage of the ACO's updated benchmark, as determined under § 425.601 or § 425.652.
(i) CMS calculates the performance payment limit as follows, except as specified in paragraph (i)(1)(ii) of this section:
(A) Calculates the value for total benchmark expenditures as the product of an ACO's per capita updated benchmark expenditures for the performance year and an ACO's assigned beneficiary person years for the performance year.
(B) Calculates the product of the percentage specified in paragraph (d)(1)(i)(B)(2), (d)(1)(ii)(B)(2), (d)(1)(iii)(B)(2), (d)(1)(iv)(B)(2), and (d)(1)(v)(B)(2) of this section, as applicable, and the ACO's total benchmark expenditures calculated according to paragraph (i)(1)(i)(A) of this section.
(ii) For agreement periods beginning on or after January 1, 2027, if the ACO has fewer than 5,000 assigned beneficiaries in benchmark year (BY) 1, BY2 or BY3, in conducting financial reconciliation for each performance year, CMS determines whether to apply an alternative performance payment limit, rather than the performance payment limit specified in paragraph (d)(1)(i)(B)(2), (d)(1)(ii)(B)(2), (d)(1)(iii)(B)(2), (d)(1)(iv)(B)(2), and (d)(1)(v)(B)(2) of this section, as applicable, as follows:
(A) CMS calculates the value for total benchmark expenditures as the product of an ACO's per capita updated benchmark expenditures for the performance year and an ACO's assigned beneficiary person years for the benchmark year with the lowest number of assigned beneficiaries.
(B) CMS calculates the product of the percentage specified in paragraph (d)(1)(i)(B)(2), (d)(1)(ii)(B)(2), (d)(1)(iii)(B)(2), (d)(1)(iv)(B)(2), and (d)(1)(v)(B)(2) of this section, as applicable, and the ACO's total benchmark expenditures calculated according to paragraph (i)(1)(ii)(A) of this section.
(C) The performance payment limit is set to the lesser of the amount calculated under paragraph (i)(1)(i)(B) of this section and the alternative amount calculated under paragraph (i)(1)(ii)(B) of this section.
(2) The loss recoupment limit is a percentage of total Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service revenue of the ACO participants in the ACO (revenue-based loss recoupment limit) not to exceed a percentage of the ACO's updated benchmark as determined under § 425.601 or § 425.652 (benchmark-based loss recoupment limit).
(i) CMS calculates the benchmark-based loss recoupment limit as follows, except as specified in paragraph (i)(2)(ii) of this section:
(A) Calculates the value for total benchmark expenditures as the product of an ACO's per capita updated benchmark expenditures for the performance year and an ACO's assigned beneficiary person years for the performance year.
(B) Calculates the product of the percentage used to calculate the benchmark-based loss recoupment limit specified in paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(D)(2), (d)(1)(iv)(D)(2), and (d)(1)(v)(D)(2) of this section, as applicable, and the ACO's total benchmark expenditures calculated according to paragraph (i)(2)(i)(A) of this section.
(ii) For agreement periods beginning on or after January 1, 2027, if the ACO has fewer than 5,000 assigned beneficiaries in BY1, BY2 or BY3, in conducting financial reconciliation for each performance year, CMS determines whether to apply an alternative loss recoupment limit, as follows:
(A) CMS calculates an alternative benchmark-based loss recoupment limit:
(1) CMS calculates the value for total benchmark expenditures as the product of an ACO's per capita updated benchmark expenditures for the performance year and an ACO's assigned beneficiary person years for the benchmark year with the lowest number of assigned beneficiaries.
(2) CMS calculates the product of the percentage used to calculate the benchmark-based loss recoupment limit specified in paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(D)(2), (d)(1)(iv)(D)(2), and (d)(1)(v)(D)(2) of this section, as applicable, and the ACO's total benchmark expenditures calculated according to paragraph (i)(2)(ii)(A)(1) of this section.
(B) The loss recoupment limit is set to the revenue-based loss recoupment limit specified in paragraph (d)(1)(iii)(D)(1), (d)(1)(iv)(D)(1), or (d)(1)(v)(D)(1) of this section, as applicable, not to exceed the lower of the benchmark-based loss recoupment limit amount calculated under paragraph (i)(2)(i)(B) of this section or the alternative benchmark-based loss recoupment limit amount calculated under paragraph (i)(2)(ii)(A)(2) of this section.
[83 FR 68075, Dec. 31, 2018, as amended at 85 FR 85042, Dec. 28, 2020; 87 FR 70237, Nov. 18, 2022; 89 FR 98571, Dec. 9, 2024; 90 FR 50018, Nov. 5, 2025]
§ 425.606 Calculation of shared savings and losses under Track 2.
(a) General rule. For each performance year, CMS determines whether the estimated average per capita Medicare expenditures under the ACO for Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries for Parts A and B services are above or below the updated benchmark determined under § 425.602 or § 425.603. In order to qualify for a shared savings payment under Track 2, or to be responsible for sharing losses with CMS, an ACO's average per capita Medicare expenditures under the ACO for Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries for Parts A and B services for the performance year must be below or above the updated benchmark, respectively, by at least the minimum savings or loss rate under paragraph (b) of this section.
(1) Newly assigned beneficiaries. CMS uses an ACO's HCC prospective risk score to adjust the benchmark for changes in severity and case mix in this population.
(2) Continuously assigned beneficiaries. (i) CMS uses demographic factors to adjust the benchmark for changes in the continuously assigned beneficiary population.
(ii) If the prospective HCC risk score is lower in the performance year for this population, CMS will adjust the benchmark for changes in severity and case mix for this population using this lower prospective HCC risk score.
(3) Assigned beneficiary changes in demographics and health status are used to adjust benchmark expenditures as described in § 425.602(a) or § 425.603(c). In adjusting the benchmark for health status and demographic changes CMS makes separate adjustments for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(4)(i) For performance years before 2017 to minimize variation from catastrophically large claims, CMS truncates an assigned beneficiary's total annual Parts A and B fee-for-service per capita expenditures at the 99th percentile of national Medicare fee-for-service expenditures as determined for each performance year.
(ii) For the 2017 performance year and subsequent performance years, to minimize variation from catastrophically large claims, CMS truncates an assigned beneficiary's total annual Parts A and B fee-for-service per capita expenditures at the 99th percentile of national Medicare fee-for-service expenditures as determined for the applicable performance year for assignable beneficiaries identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to the performance year.
(5) CMS uses a 3 month claims run out with a completion factor to calculate an ACO's per capita expenditures for each performance year.
(6) Calculations of the ACO's expenditures will include the payment amounts included in Part A and B fee-for-service claims.
(i) These calculations will exclude indirect medical education (IME) and disproportionate share hospital (DSH) payments.
(ii) These calculations will take into consideration individually beneficiary identifiable payments made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(A) For performance years beginning before 2018, these calculations will take into consideration all individually beneficiary identifiable payments, including interim payments, made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(B) For performance year 2018 and subsequent performance years, these calculations will take into consideration individually beneficiary identifiable final payments made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(7) In order to qualify for a shared savings payment, the ACO's average per capita Medicare expenditures for the performance year must be below the applicable updated benchmark by at least the minimum savings rate established for the ACO under paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) Minimum savings or loss rate. (1)(i) For agreement periods beginning in 2012 through 2015, the ACO's MSR and MLR are set at 2 percent.
(ii) For agreement periods beginning in 2016 and subsequent years, as part of the ACO's application for, or renewal of, program participation, the ACO must choose from the following options for establishing the MSR/MLR for the duration of the agreement period:
(A) Zero percent MSR/MLR.
(B) Symmetrical MSR/MLR in a 0.5 percent increment between 0.5-2.0 percent.
(C) Symmetrical MSR/MLR that varies, based on the number of beneficiaries assigned to the ACO under subpart E of this part. The MSR for an ACO under Track 2 is the same as the MSR that would apply in the one-sided model under § 425.604(b) and is based on the number of assigned beneficiaries. The MLR under Track 2 is equal to the negative MSR.
(2) To qualify for shared savings under Track 2, an ACO's average per capita Medicare expenditures for the performance year must be below its updated benchmark costs for the year by at least the MSR established for the ACO.
(3) To be responsible for sharing losses with the Medicare program, an ACO's average per capita Medicare expenditures for the performance year must be above its updated benchmark costs for the year by at least the MLR established for the ACO.
(c) Qualification for shared savings payment—(1) For performance years (or a performance period) beginning on or before January 1, 2020. To qualify for shared savings, an ACO must meet the minimum savings rate requirement established under paragraph (b) of this section, meet the minimum quality performance standards established under § 425.502, and otherwise maintain its eligibility to participate in the Shared Savings Program under this part.
(2) For the performance year beginning on January 1, 2021. To qualify for shared savings, an ACO must meet the minimum savings rate requirement established under paragraph (b) of this section, meet the quality performance standard established under § 425.512, and otherwise maintain its eligibility to participate in the Shared Savings Program under this part.
(d) Final sharing rate—(1) For performance years (or a performance period) beginning on or before January 1, 2020. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under Track 2 will receive a shared savings payment of up to 60 percent of all the savings under the updated benchmark, as determined on the basis of its quality performance under § 425.502 (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section).
(2) For the performance year beginning on January 1, 2021. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under Track 2 will receive a shared savings payment of 60 percent of all the savings under the updated benchmark (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section).
(e) Performance payment. (1) If an ACO qualifies for savings by meeting or exceeding the MSR, the final sharing rate will apply to an ACO's savings on a first dollar basis.
(2) The amount of shared savings an eligible ACO receives under Track 2 may not exceed 15 percent of its updated benchmark.
(f) Shared loss rate—(1) For performance years (or a performance period) beginning on or before January 1, 2020. For an ACO that is required to share losses with the Medicare program for expenditures over the updated benchmark, the amount of shared losses is determined based on the inverse of its final sharing rate described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section (that is, 1 minus the final shared savings rate determined under paragraph (d)(1) of this section). The shared loss rate—
(i) May not exceed 60 percent; and
(ii) May not be less than 40 percent.
(2) For the performance year beginning on January 1, 2021. For an ACO that is required to share losses with the Medicare program for expenditures over the updated benchmark, the amount of shared losses is determined as follows:
(i) If the ACO meets the quality performance standard established in § 425.512, CMS determines the shared loss rate as follows:
(A) Calculate the quotient of the MIPS Quality performance category points earned divided by the total MIPS Quality performance category points available.
(B) Calculate the product of the quotient determined in paragraph (f)(2)(i)(A) of this section and 60 percent.
(C) Calculate the shared loss rate as 1 minus the product determined in paragraph (f)(2)(i)(B) of this section. The shared loss rate—
(1) May not exceed 60 percent; and
(2) May not be less than 40 percent.
(ii) If the ACO fails to meet the quality performance standard established in § 425.512, the shared loss rate is 60 percent.
(g) Loss recoupment limit. The amount of shared losses for which an eligible ACO is liable may not exceed the following percentages of its updated benchmark as determined under § 425.602 or § 425.603:
(1) 5 percent in the first performance year of participation in Track 2 under the Shared Savings Program.
(2) 7.5 percent in the second performance year.
(3) 10 percent in the third and any subsequent performance year.
(h) Notification of savings and losses. (1) CMS notifies an ACO in writing regarding whether the ACO qualifies for a shared savings payment, and if so, the amount of the payment due.
(2) CMS provides written notification to an ACO of the amount of shared losses, if any, that it must repay to the program.
(3) If an ACO has shared losses, the ACO must make payment in full to CMS within 90 days of receipt of notification.
(i) Extreme and uncontrollable circumstances. For performance year 2017 and subsequent performance years, the following adjustment is made in calculating the amount of shared losses, after the application of the shared loss rate in paragraph (f) of this section and the loss recoupment limit in paragraph (g) of this section.
(1) CMS determines the percentage of the ACO's performance year assigned beneficiary population affected by an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance.
(2) CMS reduces the amount of the ACO's shared losses by an amount determined by multiplying the shared losses by the percentage of the total months in the performance year affected by an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance, and the percentage of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries who reside in an area affected by an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance.
(i) For an ACO that is liable for a pro-rated share of losses under § 425.221(b)(2)(ii) or (b)(3)(i), the amount of shared losses determined for the performance year during which the termination becomes effective is adjusted according to this paragraph (i)(2).
(ii) [Reserved]
(3) CMS applies determinations made under the Quality Payment Program with respect to—
(i) Whether an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance has occurred; and
(ii) The affected areas.
(4) CMS has sole discretion to determine the time period during which an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance occurred and the percentage of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries residing in the affected areas.
(j) January 1, 2019 through June 30, 2019. Shared savings or shared losses for the January 1, 2019 through June 30, 2019 performance year are calculated as described in § 425.609.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32842, June 9, 2015; 81 FR 38017, June 10, 2016; 82 FR 53370, Nov. 15, 2017; 82 FR 60918, Dec. 26, 2017; 83 FR 60094, Nov. 23, 2018; 83 FR 68077, Dec. 31, 2018; 85 FR 85043, Dec. 28, 2020]
§ 425.608 Determining first year performance for ACOs beginning April 1 or July 1, 2012.
(a) For April 1 and July 1, 2012 starters, first year (defined as 21 and 18 months respectively) performance will be based on an optional interim payment calculation (based on the ACO's first 12 months of participation) and a final reconciliation at the end of the ACO's first performance year. Unless stated otherwise, for purposes of the interim payment calculation and first year reconciliation, the methodology under subpart E of this part for assigning beneficiaries and the methodology described in § 425.602 through § 425.606 for calculating shared savings and losses will apply, and quality performance will be assessed as described in subpart F of this part.
(b) In the interim payment calculation, based on the ACO's first 12 months of performance—
(1) CMS compares the first 12 months of per capita beneficiary expenditures to a historical benchmark updated for the period which includes the ACO's first 12 months of participation, taking into account changes in health status and demographics; and
(2) Quality performance is based on GPRO quality data reported for CY 2012.
(c)(1) The interim payment calculation is reconciled with the ACO's performance for its complete first performance year, defined as 21 months for April 1, 2012 starters and 18 months for July 1, 2012 starters.
(2) The first year reconciliation takes into account expenditures spanning the entire 21 or 18 months of the first performance year.
(3) First performance year expenditures are summed over beneficiaries assigned in two overlapping 12 month assignment windows.
(i) The first window will be the first 12 months used for interim payment calculation.
(ii) The second window will be CY2013.
(4) Expenditures for the first performance year are the sum of aggregate expenditure dollars accounting for the ACO's first 6 or 9 months of performance within CY 2012 for beneficiaries assigned for the interim payment calculation and aggregate dollars calculated for CY2013 for beneficiaries assigned for CY 2013.
(5) Adjustments for health status and demographic changes are performed as described in § 425.604 through § 425.606 with the following exceptions:
(i) Beneficiaries from the CY2013 assignment window are identified as continuously assigned or newly assigned relative to the previous calendar year.
(ii) The adjustment factor identified for purposes of the interim payment calculation is applied to the 6 months or 9 months of the ACO's first performance year that lie within CY2012.
(6) The updated benchmark, stated in aggregate dollars, is the sum of the interim updated benchmark for the average fraction of expenditures incurred in the latter 6 or 9 months of CY 2012 and an updated aggregate benchmark representing CY 2013.
(7) A savings percentage (based on a comparison of summed expenditures to summed updated benchmark dollars) for the ACO's 18 or 21 month performance year is compared to the ACO's MSR or MLR. The reconciled amount of the shared savings or losses owed to or by the ACO for the performance year is net of any interim payments of shared savings or losses.
(8) Quality performance for the first year reconciliation is based on complete and accurate reporting, of all required quality measures, for CYs 2012 and 2013.
(d) An ACO with a start date of April 1, 2012 or July 1, 2012 has the option to request an interim payment calculation based on quality and financial performance for its first 12 months of program participation. As required under § 425.204(f), the ACO requesting an interim payment calculation must have a mechanism in place to pay back the interim payment if final reconciliation determines an overpayment.
(e) Unless otherwise stated, program requirements which apply in the course of a performance year apply to the interim payment calculation and first year reconciliation.
§ 425.609 Determining performance for 6-month performance years during CY 2019.
(a) General. An ACO's financial and quality performance for a 6-month performance year during 2019 are determined as described in this section.
(b) January 2019 through June 2019. For ACOs participating in a 6-month performance year from January 1, 2019, through June 30, 2019, under § 425.200(b)(2)(ii)(B) and for ACOs eligible for pro-rated shared savings or liable for pro-rated shared losses in accordance with § 425.221(b)(3)(i) for the performance period from January 1, 2019, through June 30, 2019, CMS reconciles the ACO for the period from January 1, 2019, through June 30, 2019, after the conclusion of CY 2019, based on the 12-month calendar year and pro-rates shared savings or shared losses to reflect the ACO's participation from January 1, 2019, through June 30, 2019. CMS does all of the following to determine financial and quality performance:
(1) Uses the ACO participant list in effect for the performance year beginning January 1, 2019, to determine beneficiary assignment, using claims for the entire calendar year, as specified in §§ 425.402 and 425.404, and according to the ACO's track as specified in § 425.400.
(i) For ACOs under preliminary prospective assignment with retrospective reconciliation the assignment window is CY 2019.
(ii) For ACOs under prospective assignment—
(A) Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries are prospectively assigned to the ACO based on the beneficiary's use of primary care services in the most recent 12 months for which data are available; and
(B) Beneficiaries remain prospectively assigned to the ACO at the end of CY 2019 if they do not meet any of the exclusion criteria under § 425.401(b) during the calendar year.
(2) Uses the ACO's quality performance for the 2019 reporting period to determine the ACO's quality performance score as specified in § 425.502.
(i) The ACO participant list finalized for the first performance year of the ACO's agreement period beginning on July 1, 2019, is used to determine the quality reporting samples for the 2019 reporting year for the following ACOs:
(A) An ACO that extends its participation agreement for a 6-month performance year from January 1, 2019, through June 30, 2019, under § 425.200(b)(2)(ii)(B), and enters a new agreement period beginning on July 1, 2019.
(B) An ACO that participates in the program for the first 6 months of a 12-month performance year during 2019 and is eligible for pro-rated shared savings or liable for pro-rated shared losses in accordance with § 425.221(b)(3)(i).
(ii) The ACO's latest certified ACO participant list is used to determine the quality reporting samples for the 2019 reporting year for an ACO that extends its participation agreement for the 6-month performance year from January 1, 2019, through June 30, 2019, under § 425.200(b)(2)(ii)(B), and does not enter a new agreement period beginning on July 1, 2019.
(3) Uses the methodology for calculating shared savings or shared losses applicable to the ACO under the terms of the participation agreement that was in effect on January 1, 2019.
(i) The ACO's historical benchmark is determined according to either § 425.602 (first agreement period) or § 425.603 (second agreement period) except as follows:
(A) The benchmark is adjusted for changes in severity and case mix between BY3 and CY 2019 using the methodology that accounts separately for newly and continuously assigned beneficiaries using prospective HCC risk scores and demographic factors as described under §§ 425.604(a)(1) through (3), 425.606(a)(1) through (3), and 425.610(a)(1) through (3).
(B) The benchmark is updated to CY 2019 according to the methodology described under § 425.602(b), § 425.603(b), or § 425.603(d), based on whether the ACO is in its first or second agreement period, and for an ACO in a second agreement period, the date on which that agreement period began.
(ii) The ACO's financial performance is determined based on the track the ACO is participating under during the performance year starting on January 1, 2019 (§ 425.604, § 425.606 or § 425.610), unless otherwise specified. In determining ACO financial performance, CMS does all of the following:
(A) Average per capita Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for CY 2019 are calculated for the ACO's performance year assigned beneficiary population identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(B) Expenditures calculated in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(A) of this section are compared to the ACO's updated benchmark determined according to paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section.
(C)(1) The ACO's performance year assigned beneficiary population identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is used to determine the MSR for Track 1 ACOs and the variable MSR/MLR for ACOs in a two-sided model that selected this option at the start of their agreement period. For two-sided model ACOs that selected a fixed MSR/MLR at the start of the ACO's agreement period, this fixed MSR/MLR is applied. In the event an ACO's performance year assigned population identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is below 5,000 beneficiaries, the MSR/MLR is determined according to § 425.110(b).
(2) To qualify for shared savings an ACO must do all of the following:
(i) Have average per capita Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for its assigned beneficiary population for CY 2019 below its updated benchmark costs for the year by at least the MSR established for the ACO based on the track the ACO is participating under during the performance year starting on January 1, 2019 (§ 425.604, § 425.606 or § 425.610) and paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(C)(1) of this section.
(ii) Meet the minimum quality performance standards established under § 425.502 and according to paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
(iii) Otherwise maintain its eligibility to participate in the Shared Savings Program under this part.
(3) To be responsible for sharing losses with the Medicare program, an ACO's average per capita Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for its assigned beneficiary population for CY 2019 must be above its updated benchmark costs for the year by at least the MLR established for the ACO based on the track the ACO is participating under during the performance year starting on January 1, 2019 (§ 425.606 or § 425.610) and paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(C)(1) of this section.
(D) For an ACO that meets all the requirements to receive a shared savings payment under paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(C)(2) of this section—
(1) The final sharing rate, determined based on the track the ACO is participating under during the performance year starting on January 1, 2019 (§ 425.604, § 425.606 or § 425.610), is applied to all savings under the updated benchmark specified under paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, not to exceed the performance payment limit for the ACO based on its track; and
(2) After applying the applicable performance payment limit, CMS pro-rates any shared savings amount determined under paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(D)(1) of this section by multiplying the amount by one-half, which represents the fraction of the calendar year covered by the period from January 1, 2019, through June 30, 2019.
(E) For an ACO responsible for shared losses under paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(C)(3) of this section—
(1) The shared loss rate, determined based on the track the ACO is participating under during the performance year starting on January 1, 2019 (§ 425.606 or § 425.610), is applied to all losses under the updated benchmark specified under paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, not to exceed the loss recoupment limit for the ACO based on its track; and
(2) After applying the applicable loss recoupment limit, CMS pro-rates any shared losses amount determined under paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(E)(1) of this section by multiplying the amount by one-half, which represents the fraction of the calendar year covered by the period from January 1, 2019, through June 30, 2019.
(c) July 2019 through December 2019. For ACOs entering an agreement period beginning on July 1, 2019, the ACO's first performance year is from July 1, 2019, through December 31, 2019, as specified in § 425.200(c)(3). CMS reconciles the ACO for the period from July 1, 2019, through December 31, 2019, after the conclusion of CY 2019, based on the 12-month calendar year and pro-rates shared savings or shared losses to reflect the ACO's participation from July 1, 2019, through December 31, 2019. CMS does all of the following to determine financial and quality performance:
(1) Uses the ACO participant list in effect for the performance year beginning on July 1, 2019, to determine beneficiary assignment, using claims for the entire calendar year, consistent with the methodology the ACO selected at the start of its agreement period under § 425.400(a)(4)(ii).
(i) For ACOs under preliminary prospective assignment with retrospective reconciliation the assignment window is CY 2019.
(ii) For ACOs under prospective assignment—
(A) The assignment window is the same as the assignment window that applies under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) of this section for ACOs under prospective assignment for the 6-month performance year from January 1, 2019, through June 30, 2019; and
(B) Beneficiaries remain prospectively assigned to the ACO at the end of CY 2019 if they do not meet any of the exclusion criteria under § 425.401(b) during the calendar year.
(2) Uses the ACO's quality performance for the 2019 reporting period to determine the ACO's quality performance score as specified in § 425.502. The ACO participant list finalized for the first performance year of the ACO's agreement period beginning on July 1, 2019, is used to determine the quality reporting samples for the 2019 reporting year for all ACOs.
(3) Uses the methodology for calculating shared savings or shared loses applicable to the ACO for its first performance year under its agreement period beginning on July 1, 2019.
(i) The ACO's historical benchmark is determined according to § 425.601 except as follows:
(A) The benchmark is adjusted for changes in severity and case mix between BY3 and CY 2019 based on growth in prospective HCC risk scores, subject to a cap of positive 3 percent as described under § 425.605(a)(1) or § 425.610(a)(2).
(B) The benchmark is updated to CY 2019 according to the methodology described under § 425.601(b).
(ii) The ACO's financial performance is determined based on the track the ACO is participating under during the performance year starting on July 1, 2019 (§ 425.605 (BASIC track) or § 425.610 (ENHANCED track)), unless otherwise specified. In determining ACO financial performance, CMS does all of the following:
(A) Average per capita Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for CY 2019 are calculated for the ACO's performance year assigned beneficiary population identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
(B) Expenditures calculated in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) of this section are compared to the ACO's updated benchmark determined according to paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section.
(C)(1) The ACO's performance year assigned beneficiary population identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section is used to determine the MSR for ACOs in BASIC track Level A or Level B, and the variable MSR/MLR for ACOs in a two-sided model that selected this option at the start of their agreement period. In the event a two-sided model ACO selected a fixed MSR/MLR at the start of its agreement period, and the ACO's performance year assigned population identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section is below 5,000 beneficiaries, the MSR/MLR is determined based on the number of assigned beneficiaries as specified in § 425.110(b)(3)(iii).
(2) To qualify for shared savings an ACO must do all of the following:
(i) Have average per capita Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for its assigned beneficiary population for CY 2019 below its updated benchmark costs for the year by at least the MSR established for the ACO based on the track the ACO is participating under during the performance year starting on July 1, 2019 (§ 425.605 or § 425.610) and paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(C)(1) of this section.
(ii) Meet the minimum quality performance standards established under § 425.502 and according to paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
(iii) Otherwise maintain its eligibility to participate in the Shared Savings Program under this part.
(3) To be responsible for sharing losses with the Medicare program, an ACO's average per capita Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for its assigned beneficiary population for CY 2019 must be above its updated benchmark costs for the year by at least the MLR established for the ACO based on the track the ACO is participating under during the performance year starting on July 1, 2019 (§ 425.605 or § 425.610) and paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(C)(1) of this section.
(D) For an ACO that meets all the requirements to receive a shared savings payment under paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(C)(2) of this section—
(1) The final sharing rate, determined based on the track the ACO is participating under during the performance year starting on July 1, 2019 (§ 425.605 or § 425.610), is applied to all savings under the updated benchmark specified under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, not to exceed the performance payment limit for the ACO based on its track; and
(2) After applying the applicable performance payment limit, CMS pro-rates any shared savings amount determined under paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(D)(1) of this section by multiplying the amount by one-half, which represents the fraction of the calendar year covered by the July 1, 2019 through December 31, 2019 performance year.
(E) For an ACO responsible for shared losses under paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(C)(3) of this section—
(1) The shared loss rate, determined based on the track the ACO is participating under during the performance year starting on July 1, 2019 (§ 425.605 or § 425.610), is applied to all losses under the updated benchmark specified under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, not to exceed the loss recoupment limit for the ACO based on its track; and
(2) After applying the applicable loss recoupment limit, CMS pro-rates any shared losses amount determined under paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(E)(1) of this section by multiplying the amount by one-half, which represents the fraction of the calendar year covered by the July 1, 2019 through December 31, 2019 performance year.
(d) Extreme and uncontrollable circumstances. For ACOs affected by extreme and uncontrollable circumstances during CY 2019—
(1) In calculating the amount of shared losses owed, CMS makes adjustments to the amount determined in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(E)(1) or (c)(3)(ii)(E)(1) of this section, as specified in § 425.605(f), § 425.606(i), or § 425.610(i), as applicable; and
(2) In determining the ACO's quality performance score for the 2019 quality reporting period, CMS uses the alternative scoring methodology specified in § 425.502(f).
(e) Notification of savings and losses. (1) CMS notifies the ACO of shared savings or shared losses separately for the January 1, 2019 through June 30, 2019 performance year (or performance period) and the July 1, 2019 through December 31, 2019 performance year, consistent with the notification requirements specified in §§ 425.604(f), 425.605(e), 425.606(h), and 425.610(h), as applicable:
(i) CMS notifies an ACO in writing regarding whether the ACO qualifies for a shared savings payment, and if so, the amount of the payment due.
(ii) CMS provides written notification to an ACO of the amount of shared losses, if any, that it must repay to the program.
(iii) If an ACO has shared losses, the ACO must make payment in full to CMS within 90 days of receipt of notification.
(2) If an ACO is reconciled for both the January 1, 2019 through June 30, 2019 performance year (or performance period) and the July 1, 2019 through December 31, 2019 performance year, CMS issues a separate notice of shared savings or shared losses for each performance year (or performance period), and if the ACO has shared savings for one performance year (or performance period) and shared losses for the other performance year (or performance period), CMS reduces the amount of shared savings by the amount of shared losses.
(i) If any amount of shared savings remains after completely repaying the amount of shared losses owed, the ACO is eligible to receive payment for the remainder of the shared savings.
(ii) If the amount of shared losses owed exceeds the amount of shared savings earned, the ACO is accountable for payment of the remaining balance of shared losses in full.
[83 FR 60094, Nov. 23, 2018, as amended at 83 FR 68078, Dec. 31, 2018]
§ 425.610 Calculation of shared savings and losses under the ENHANCED track.
(a) General rule. For each performance year, CMS determines whether the estimated average per capita Medicare expenditures under the ACO for Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries for Parts A and B services are above or below the updated benchmark determined under § 425.601, 425.602, 425.603, or 425.652. In order to qualify for a shared savings payment under the ENHANCED track, or to be responsible for sharing losses with CMS, an ACO's average per capita Medicare expenditures under the ACO for Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries for Parts A and B services for the performance year must be below or above the updated benchmark, respectively, by at least the minimum savings or loss rate under paragraph (b) of this section.
(1) Risk adjustment for ACOs in agreement periods beginning on or before January 1, 2019. CMS does the following to adjust the benchmark each performance year:
(i) Newly assigned beneficiaries. CMS uses an ACO's prospective HCC risk score to adjust the benchmark for changes in severity and case mix in this population.
(ii) Continuously assigned beneficiaries. (A) CMS uses demographic factors to adjust the benchmark for changes in the continuously assigned beneficiary population.
(B) If the prospective HCC risk score is lower in the performance year for this population, CMS adjusts the benchmark for changes in severity and case mix for this population using this lower prospective HCC risk score.
(2) Risk adjustment for ACOs in agreement periods beginning on July 1, 2019, and in subsequent years. CMS uses an ACO's prospective HCC risk score to adjust the benchmark for changes in severity and case mix in the assigned beneficiary population between BY3 and the performance year.
(i) For agreement periods beginning before January 1, 2024:
(A) Positive adjustments in prospective HCC risk scores are subject to a cap of 3 percent.
(B) This cap is the maximum increase in risk scores for each agreement period, such that any positive adjustment between BY3 and any performance year in the agreement period cannot be larger than 3 percent.
(ii) For agreement periods beginning on January 1, 2024, and in subsequent years:
(A) Positive adjustments in prospective HCC risk scores are subject to a cap equal to the ACO's aggregate growth in demographic risk scores between BY3 and the performance year (positive or negative) plus 3 percentage points.
(B) The cap described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A) of this section will apply to prospective HCC risk score growth for a population described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section only if the ACO's aggregate growth in prospective HCC risk scores between BY3 and the performance year across all of the populations described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section exceeds this cap. If the cap described in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A) of this section is determined to apply, the value of the cap is the maximum increase in risk scores for the applicable performance year, such that any positive adjustment between BY3 and the performance year cannot be larger than the value of the cap for any of the populations described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
(C) The aggregate growth in demographic risk scores for purposes of paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A) of this section and the aggregate growth in prospective HCC risk scores for purposes of paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section is calculated by taking a weighted average of the growth in demographic risk scores or prospective HCC risk scores, as applicable, across the populations described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section. When calculating the weighted average growth in demographic risk scores or prospective HCC risk scores, as applicable, the weight applied to the growth in risk scores (expressed as a ratio of the ACO's performance year risk score to the ACO's BY3 risk score) for each Medicare enrollment type is equal to the product of the ACO's historical benchmark expenditures, adjusted in accordance with § 425.652(a)(8), for that enrollment type and the ACO's performance year assigned beneficiary person years for that enrollment type.
(3) In risk adjusting the benchmark as described in §§ 425.601(a)(10), 425.602(a)(9), 425.603(c)(10), and 425.652(a)(10) CMS makes separate adjustments for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(4)(i) For performance years before 2017 to minimize variation from catastrophically large claims, CMS truncates an assigned beneficiary's total annual Parts A and B fee-for-service per capita expenditures at the 99th percentile of national Medicare fee-for-service expenditures as determined for each performance year.
(ii) For the 2017 performance year and subsequent performance years, to minimize variation from catastrophically large claims, CMS truncates an assigned beneficiary's total annual Parts A and B fee-for-service per capita expenditures at the 99th percentile of national Medicare fee-for-service expenditures as determined for the applicable performance year for assignable beneficiaries identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to the performance year.
(5) CMS uses a 3-month claims run out with a completion factor to calculate an ACO's per capita expenditures for each performance year.
(6) Calculations of the ACO's expenditures will include the payment amounts included in Part A and B fee-for-service claims.
(i) These calculations will exclude indirect medical education (IME) and disproportionate share hospital (DSH) payments, and the supplemental payment for IHS/Tribal hospitals and Puerto Rico hospitals.
(ii) These calculations will take into consideration individually beneficiary identifiable payments made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(A) For performance years beginning before 2018, these calculations will take into consideration all individually beneficiary identifiable payments, including interim payments, made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(B) For performance year 2018 and subsequent performance years, these calculations will take into consideration individually beneficiary identifiable final payments made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(7) In order to qualify for a shared savings payment, the ACO's average per capita Medicare expenditures for the performance year must be below the applicable updated benchmark by at least the minimum savings rate established for the ACO under paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) Minimum savings or loss rate. (1) As part of the ACO's application for, or renewal of, program participation, the ACO must choose from the following options for establishing the MSR/MLR for the duration of the agreement period:
(i) Zero percent MSR/MLR
(ii) Symmetrical MSR/MLR in a 0.5 percent increment between 0.5-2.0 percent.
(iii) Symmetrical MSR/MLR that varies, based on the number of beneficiaries assigned to the ACO under subpart E of this part. The MSR for an ACO under the ENHANCED track is the same as the MSR that would apply in the one-sided model under either § 425.604(b) (for ACOs entering an agreement period on or before January 1, 2019) or § 425.605(b)(1) (for ACOs entering an agreement period on July 1, 2019, and in subsequent years) and is based on the number of assigned beneficiaries. The MLR under the ENHANCED track is equal to the negative MSR.
(2) To qualify for shared savings under the ENHANCED track, an ACO's average per capita Medicare expenditures for the performance year must be below its updated benchmark costs for the year by at least the MSR established for the ACO.
(3) To be responsible for sharing losses with the Medicare program, an ACO's average per capita Medicare expenditures for the performance year must be above its updated benchmark costs for the year by at least the MLR established for the ACO.
(c) Qualification for shared savings payment—(1) For performance years (or a performance period) beginning on or before January 1, 2020. To qualify for shared savings, an ACO must meet the minimum savings rate requirement established under paragraph (b) of this section, meet the minimum quality performance standards established under § 425.502, and otherwise maintain its eligibility to participate in the Shared Savings Program under this part.
(2) For performance years beginning on or after January 1, 2021. To qualify for shared savings, an ACO must meet the minimum savings rate requirement established under paragraph (b) of this section, meet the quality performance standard established under § 425.512, and otherwise maintain its eligibility to participate in the Shared Savings Program under this part.
(d) Final sharing rate—(1) For performance years (or a performance period) beginning on or before January 1, 2020. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the ENHANCED track will receive a shared savings payment of up to 75 percent of all the savings under the updated benchmark, as determined on the basis of its quality performance under § 425.502 (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section).
(2) For performance years beginning on January 1, 2021, or January 1, 2022. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the ENHANCED track will receive a shared savings payment of 75 percent of all the savings under the updated benchmark (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section).
(3) For the performance year beginning on January 1, 2023. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the ENHANCED track will receive a shared savings payment equal to a percentage of all the savings under the updated benchmark (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section). The percentage is as follows:
(i) 75 percent for an ACO that meets the quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(2) or (a)(4)(i).
(ii) 75 percent multiplied by the ACO's quality score calculated according to § 425.512 for an ACO that meets the alternative quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(4)(ii).
(4) For performance years beginning on or after January 1, 2024. An ACO that meets all the requirements for receiving shared savings payments under the ENHANCED track will receive a shared savings payment equal to a percentage of all the savings under the updated benchmark (up to the performance payment limit described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section). The percentage is as follows:
(i) 75 percent for an ACO that meets the quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(2) or (a)(5)(i).
(ii) 75 percent multiplied by the ACO's quality score calculated according to § 425.512 for an ACO that meets the alternative quality performance standard by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(5)(ii).
(e) Performance payment. (1) If an ACO qualifies for savings by meeting or exceeding the MSR, the final sharing rate will apply to an ACO's savings on a first dollar basis.
(2) The amount of shared savings an eligible ACO receives under the ENHANCED track may not exceed 20 percent of its updated benchmark.
(f) Shared loss rate—(1) For performance years (or a performance period) beginning on or before January 1, 2020. For an ACO that is required to share losses with the Medicare program for expenditures over the updated benchmark, the amount of shared losses is determined based on the inverse of its final sharing rate described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section (that is, 1 minus the final shared savings rate determined under paragraph (d)(1) of this section). The shared loss rate—
(i) May not exceed 75 percent; and
(ii) May not be less than 40 percent.
(2) For performance years beginning on January 1, 2021, or January 1, 2022. For an ACO that is required to share losses with the Medicare program for expenditures over the updated benchmark, the amount of shared losses is determined as follows:
(i) If the ACO meets the quality performance standard established in § 425.512, CMS determines the shared loss rate as follows:
(A) Calculate the quotient of the MIPS Quality performance category points earned divided by the total MIPS Quality performance category points available.
(B) Calculate the product of the quotient determined in paragraph (f)(2)(i)(A) of this section, and 75 percent.
(C) Calculate the shared loss rate as 1 minus the product determined in paragraph (f)(2)(i)(B) of this section. The shared loss rate—
(1) May not exceed 75 percent; and
(2) May not be less than 40 percent.
(ii) If the ACO fails to meet the quality performance standard established in § 425.512, the shared loss rate is 75 percent.
(3) For the performance year beginning on January 1, 2023. For an ACO that is required to share losses with the Medicare program for expenditures over the updated benchmark, the amount of shared losses is determined as follows:
(i) If the ACO meets either the quality performance standard established in § 425.512 applicable for the performance year by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(2) or (a)(4)(i), or the alternative quality performance standard established in § 425.512(a)(4)(ii), CMS determines the shared loss rate as follows:
(A) Calculate the product of 75 percent and the ACO's quality score calculated according to § 425.512
(B) Calculate the shared loss rate as 1 minus the product determined in paragraph (f)(3)(i)(A) of this section. The shared loss rate—
(1) May not exceed 75 percent; and
(2) May not be less than 40 percent.
(ii) If the ACO fails to meet either the quality performance standard or the alternative quality performance standard established in § 425.512 applicable for the performance year, the shared loss rate is 75 percent.
(4) For performance years beginning on or after January 1, 2024. For an ACO that is required to share losses with the Medicare program for expenditures over the updated benchmark, the amount of shared losses is determined as follows:
(i) If the ACO meets either the quality performance standard established in § 425.512 applicable for the performance year by meeting the criteria specified in § 425.512(a)(2) or (a)(5)(i), or the alternative quality performance standard established in § 425.512(a)(5)(ii), CMS determines the shared loss rate as follows:
(A) Calculate the product of 75 percent and the ACO's quality score calculated according to § 425.512.
(B) Calculate the shared loss rate as 1 minus the product determined in paragraph (f)(4)(i)(A) of this section. The shared loss rate—
(1) May not exceed 75 percent; and
(2) May not be less than 40 percent.
(ii) If the ACO fails to meet either the quality performance standard or the alternative quality performance standard established in § 425.512 for the applicable performance year, the shared loss rate is 75 percent.
(g) Loss recoupment limit. The amount of shared losses for which an eligible ACO is liable may not exceed 15 percent of its updated benchmark as determined under § 425.601, 425.602, 425.603 or 425.652.
(h) Notification of savings and losses. (1) CMS notifies an ACO in writing regarding whether the ACO qualifies for a shared savings payment, and if so, the amount of the payment due.
(2) CMS provides written notification to an ACO of the amount of shared losses, if any, that it must repay to the program.
(3) If an ACO has shared losses, the ACO must make payment in full to CMS within 90 days of receipt of notification.
(i) Extreme and uncontrollable circumstances. For performance year 2017 and subsequent performance years, the following adjustment is made in calculating the amount of shared losses, after the application of the shared loss rate in paragraph (f) of this section and the loss recoupment limit in paragraph (g) of this section.
(1) CMS determines the percentage of the ACO's performance year assigned beneficiary population affected by an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance.
(2) CMS reduces the amount of the ACO's shared losses by an amount determined by multiplying the shared losses by the percentage of the total months in the performance year affected by an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance, and the percentage of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries who reside in an area affected by an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance.
(i) For an ACO that is liable for a pro-rated share of losses under § 425.221(b)(2)(ii) or (b)(3)(i), the amount of shared losses determined for the performance year during which the termination becomes effective is adjusted according to this paragraph (i)(2).
(ii) For performance year 2025 and subsequent performance years, for an ACO as defined at § 425.20 that is determined to be affected by an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance due to a cyberattack, including ransomware/malware, for any month of the performance year that is affected, CMS considers 100 percent of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries to reside in an affected area.
(3) CMS applies determinations made under the Quality Payment Program with respect to all of the following (as applicable):
(i) Whether an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance has occurred.
(ii) The affected areas.
(iii) The time period during which the ACO was affected by a cyberattack, including ransomware/malware.
(4) CMS determines the time period during which an ACO is affected by a cyberattack, including ransomware/malware, as follows:
(i) CMS uses the start and end date indicated on an ACO's application to the Quality Payment Program for an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance exception due to a cyberattack, including ransomware/malware, or the start date indicated on the application and an end date subsequently provided by the ACO in the form and manner as specified by CMS.
(ii) Except as specified in paragraph (i)(4)(iii) of this section, if no end date is indicated on the ACO's application or otherwise provided to CMS in a form and manner specified by CMS, described in paragraph (i)(4)(i) of this section, CMS applies a 90-day duration for purposes of determining the time period during which the ACO was affected by the extreme and uncontrollable circumstance.
(iii) If the start date indicated on the ACO's application described in paragraph (i)(4)(i) of this section is less than 90 days before the end of the performance year and no end date is indicated on the ACO's application or otherwise provided to CMS in the form and manner specified by CMS, described in paragraph (i)(4)(i) of this section, CMS applies an end date of December 31st of the performance year for purposes of determining the time period during which the ACO was affected by the extreme and uncontrollable circumstance.
(5) CMS has sole discretion to determine the time period during which an extreme and uncontrollable circumstance occurred and the percentage of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries residing in the affected areas.
(j) January 1, 2019 through June 30, 2019 performance year. Shared savings or shared losses for the January 1, 2019 through June 30, 2019 performance year are calculated as described in § 425.609.
(k) July 1, 2019 through December 31, 2019 performance year. Shared savings or shared losses for the July 1, 2019 through December 31, 2019 performance year are calculated as described in § 425.609.
(l) Calculation of performance payment limit and loss recoupment limit.
(1) The performance payment limit and the loss recoupment limit are a percentage of the ACO's updated benchmark.
(2) CMS calculates the performance payment limit and loss recoupment limit as follows, except as specified in paragraph (l)(3) of this section:
(i) Calculates the value for total benchmark expenditures as the product of an ACO's per capita updated benchmark expenditures for the performance year and an ACO's assigned beneficiary person years for the performance year.
(ii) Calculates the product of the percentage used to calculate the performance payment limit specified in paragraph (e)(2) of this section or the loss recoupment limit specified in paragraph (g) of this section and the ACO's total benchmark expenditures calculated according to paragraph (l)(2)(i) of this section.
(3) For agreement periods beginning on or after January 1, 2027, if the ACO has fewer than 5,000 assigned beneficiaries in BY1, BY2 or BY3, in conducting financial reconciliation for each performance year, CMS determines whether to apply an alternative performance payment limit or alternative loss recoupment limit, rather than the performance payment limit specified in paragraph (e)(2) of this section or the loss recoupment limit specified in paragraph (g) of this section, as follows:
(i) CMS calculates the value for total benchmark expenditures as the product of an ACO's per capita updated benchmark expenditures for the performance year and an ACO's assigned beneficiary person years for the benchmark year with the lowest number of assigned beneficiaries.
(ii) CMS calculates the product of the percentage used to calculate the performance payment limit specified in paragraph (e)(2) of this section or the loss recoupment limit specified in paragraph (g) of this section and the ACO's total benchmark expenditures calculated according to paragraph (l)(3)(i) of this section.
(iii) The performance payment limit or loss recoupment limit is set to the lesser of the amount calculated under paragraph (l)(2)(ii) of this section or the alternative amount calculated under paragraph (l)(3)(ii) of this section.
[80 FR 32842, June 9, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 38017, June 10, 2016; 82 FR 53370, Nov. 15, 2017; 82 FR 60918, Dec. 26, 2017; 83 FR 60096, Nov. 23, 2018; 83 FR 68079, Dec. 31, 2018; 85 FR 85044, Dec. 28, 2020; 87 FR 70240, Nov. 18, 2022; 89 FR 98571, Dec. 9, 2024; 90 FR 50019, Nov. 5, 2025]
Editorial Note:At 81 FR 38017, June 10, 2016, in § 425.610, paragraph (a)(2)(ii), the phrase “adjust for changes” was removed, and in its place the phrase “adjust the benchmark for changes” was added, however, the phrase “adjust for changes” does not appear in this paragraph, so the amendment could not be incorporated.
§ 425.611 Adjustments to Shared Savings Program calculations to address the COVID-19 pandemic.
(a) General. This section describes adjustments CMS makes to Shared Savings Program calculations to address the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic.
(b) Episodes of care for treatment of COVID-19. (1) CMS identifies an episode of care for treatment of COVID-19 based on either of the following:
(i) Discharges for inpatient services eligible for the 20 percent adjustment under section 1886(d)(4)(C) of the Act.
(ii) Discharges for acute care inpatient services for treatment of COVID-19 from facilities that are not paid under the inpatient prospective payment system, such as CAHs, when the date of discharge occurs within the Public Health Emergency as defined in § 400.200 of this chapter.
(2) CMS defines the episode of care as starting in the month in which the inpatient stay begins as identified by the admission date, all months during the inpatient stay, and the month following the end of the inpatient stay as indicated by the discharge date.
(c) Applicability of adjustments. Notwithstanding any other provision in this part, CMS adjusts the following Shared Savings Program calculations to exclude all Parts A and B fee-for-service payment amounts for a beneficiary's episode of care for treatment of COVID-19 as described in paragraph (b) of this section:
(1) Calculation of Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for an ACO's assigned beneficiaries for all purposes including the following: Establishing, adjusting, updating, and resetting the ACO's historical benchmark and determining performance year expenditures.
(2) Calculation of fee-for-service expenditures for assignable beneficiaries as used in determining county-level fee-for-service expenditures and national Medicare fee-for-service expenditures, including the following calculations:
(i) Determining average county fee-for-service expenditures based on expenditures for the assignable population of beneficiaries in each county in the ACO's regional service area according to §§ 425.601(c), 425.603(e), and 425.654(a) for purposes of calculating the ACO's regional fee-for-service expenditures.
(ii) Determining the 99th percentile of national Medicare fee-for-service expenditures for assignable beneficiaries for purposes of the following:
(A) Truncating assigned beneficiary expenditures used in calculating benchmark expenditures under §§ 425.601(a)(4), 425.602(a)(4), 425.603(c)(4), and 425.652(a)(4), and performance year expenditures under §§ 425.604(a)(4), 425.605(a)(3), 425.606(a)(4), and 425.610(a)(4).
(B) Truncating expenditures for assignable beneficiaries in each county for purposes of determining county fee-for-service expenditures according to §§ 425.601(c)(3), 425.603(e)(3), and 425.654(a)(3).
(iii) Determining national per capita expenditures for Parts A and B services under the original Medicare fee-for-service program for assignable beneficiaries for purposes of capping the regional adjustment to the ACO's historical benchmark according to §§ 425.601(a)(8)(ii)(C) and 425.656(c)(3), and capping the prior savings adjustment according to § 425.658(c)(1)(ii).
(iv) Determining the flat dollar equivalent of the projected absolute amount of growth in national per capita expenditures for Parts A and B services under the original Medicare fee-for-service program for assignable beneficiaries, for purposes of updating the ACO's historical benchmark according to § 425.602(b)(2).
(v) Determining national growth rates that are used as part of the blended growth rates used to trend forward BY1 and BY2 expenditures to BY3 according to §§ 425.601(a)(5)(ii) and 425.652(a)(5)(ii) and as part of the blended growth rates used to trend the benchmark and update the benchmark according to §§ 425.601(b)(2) and 425.652(b)(2)(i).
(3) Calculation of Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service revenue of ACO participants for purposes of calculating the ACO's loss recoupment limit under the BASIC track as specified in § 425.605(d).
(4) Calculation of total Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service revenue of ACO participants and total Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for the ACO's assigned beneficiaries for purposes of identifying whether an ACO is a high revenue ACO or low revenue ACO, as defined under § 425.20, determining an ACO's eligibility for participation options according to § 425.600(d), and determining an ACO's eligibility to receive advance investment payments according to § 425.630.
(5) Calculation or recalculation of the amount of the ACO's repayment mechanism arrangement according to § 425.204(f)(4).
[85 FR 27625, May 8, 2020, as amended at 85 FR 85044, Dec. 28, 2020; 87 FR 70241, Nov. 18, 2022; 88 FR 79548, Nov. 16, 2023]
§ 425.612 Waivers of payment rules or other Medicare requirements.
(a) General. CMS may waive certain payment rules or other Medicare requirements as determined necessary to carry out the Shared Savings Program under this part.
(1) SNF 3-day rule. For performance year 2017 and subsequent performance years, CMS waives the requirement in section 1861(i) of the Act for a 3-day inpatient hospital stay prior to a Medicare-covered post-hospital extended care service for eligible beneficiaries assigned to ACOs participating in a two-sided model and as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section during a grace period for beneficiaries excluded from prospective assignment to an ACO in a two-sided model, who receive otherwise covered post-hospital extended care services furnished by an eligible SNF that has entered into a written agreement to partner with the ACO for purposes of this waiver. Eligible SNFs include providers furnishing SNF services under swing bed agreements. All other provisions of the statute and regulations regarding Medicare Part A post-hospital extended care services continue to apply. ACOs identified under paragraph (a)(1)(vi) of this section may request to use the SNF 3-day rule waiver for performance years beginning on July 1, 2019, and in subsequent years.
(i) ACOs must submit to CMS supplemental application information sufficient to demonstrate the ACO has the capacity to identify and manage beneficiaries who would be either directly admitted to a SNF or admitted to a SNF after an inpatient hospitalization of fewer than 3-days in the form and manner specified by CMS. Application materials include but are not limited to, the following:
(A) An attestation that it has established and will make available to CMS upon request the following narratives describing how the ACO plans to implement the waiver:
(1) A communication plan between the ACO and its SNF affiliates.
(2) A care management plan for beneficiaries admitted to a SNF affiliate.
(3) A beneficiary evaluation and admission plan approved by the ACO medical director and the healthcare professional responsible for the ACO's quality improvement and assurance processes under § 425.112.
(B)(1) A list of SNFs, including the Medicare-enrolled TIN and the CCN, with whom the ACO will partner along with executed written SNF affiliate agreements between the ACO and each listed SNF.
(2) An ACO must notify CMS no later than 30 days after the change of ownership of a SNF affiliate, identified in accordance with paragraph (a)(1)(i)(B)(1) of this section, that has resulted in a change to the Medicare enrolled TIN of the SNF affiliate. Such notice and supporting documentation must be submitted in the form and manner specified by CMS.
(ii) In order to be eligible to receive covered SNF services under the waiver, a beneficiary must meet the following requirements:
(A) In the case of a beneficiary who is assigned to an ACO that has selected preliminary prospective assignment with retrospective reconciliation under § 425.400(a)(2), the beneficiary must appear on the list of preliminarily prospectively assigned beneficiaries at the beginning of the performance year or on the first, second, or third quarterly preliminary prospective assignment list for the performance year in which they are admitted to the eligible SNF, and the SNF services must be provided after the beneficiary first appeared on the preliminary prospective assignment list for the performance year.
(B) In the case of a beneficiary who is assigned to an ACO that has selected prospective assignment under § 425.400(a)(3), the beneficiary must be prospectively assigned to the ACO for the performance year in which they are admitted to the eligible SNF.
(C) Does not reside in a SNF or other long-term care setting.
(D) Is medically stable.
(E) Does not require inpatient or further inpatient hospital evaluation or treatment.
(F) Have certain and confirmed diagnoses.
(G) Have an identified skilled nursing or rehabilitation need that cannot be provided as an outpatient.
(H) Have been evaluated and approved for admission to the SNF within 3 days prior to the SNF admission by an ACO provider/supplier who is a physician, consistent with the ACO's beneficiary evaluation and admission plan.
(iii) SNFs eligible to partner and enter into written agreements with ACOs for purposes of this waiver must do the following:
(A) Providers eligible to be included in the CMS 5-star Quality Rating System must have and maintain an overall rating of 3 or higher.
(B) Sign a SNF affiliate agreement with the ACO that includes elements determined by CMS including but not limited to the following:
(1) Agreement to comply with the requirements and conditions of this part, including but not limited to those specified in the participation agreement with CMS.
(2) Effective dates of the SNF affiliate agreement.
(3) Agreement to implement and comply with the ACO's beneficiary evaluation and admission plan and the care management plan.
(4) Agreement to validate the eligibility of a beneficiary to receive covered SNF services in accordance with the waiver prior to admission.
(5) Remedial processes and penalties that will apply for non-compliance.
(iv) For a beneficiary who was included on the ACO's prospective assignment list or preliminary prospective assignment list at the beginning of the performance year or on the first, second, or third quarterly preliminary prospective assignment list for the performance year, for an ACO for which a waiver of the SNF 3-day rule has been approved under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, but who was subsequently removed from the assignment list for the performance year, CMS makes payment for SNF services furnished to the beneficiary by a SNF affiliate if the following conditions are met:
(A)(1) The beneficiary was prospectively assigned to an ACO that selected prospective assignment under § 425.400(a)(3) at the beginning of the applicable performance year, but was excluded in the most recent quarterly update to the assignment list under § 425.401(b), and the beneficiary was admitted to a SNF affiliate within 90 days following the date that CMS delivered the quarterly exclusion list to the ACO; or
(2) The beneficiary was identified as preliminarily prospectively assigned to an ACO that has selected preliminary prospective assignment with retrospective reconciliation under § 425.400(a)(2) in the report provided under § 425.702(c)(1)(ii)(A) at the beginning of the performance year or for the first, second, or third quarter of the performance year, the SNF services were provided after the beneficiary first appeared on the preliminary prospective assignment list for the performance year, and the beneficiary meets the criteria to be assigned to an ACO under § 425.401(a)(1) and (2).
(B) But for the beneficiary's removal from the ACO's assignment list, CMS would have made payment to the SNF affiliate for such services under the waiver under paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
(v) The following beneficiary protections apply when a beneficiary receives SNF services without a prior 3-day inpatient hospital stay from a SNF affiliate that intended to provide services under a SNF 3-day rule waiver under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the SNF affiliate services were non-covered only because the SNF affiliate stay was not preceded by a qualifying hospital stay under section 1861(i) of the Act, and in the case of a beneficiary where the ACO selected one of the following:
(A) Prospective assignment under § 425.400(a)(3), the beneficiary was not prospectively assigned to the ACO for the performance year in which they received the SNF services, or was prospectively assigned but was later excluded and the 90-day grace period, described in paragraph (a)(1)(iv)(A) of this section, has lapsed.
(B) Preliminary prospective assignment with retrospective reconciliation under § 425.400(a)(2), the beneficiary was not identified as preliminarily prospectively assigned to the ACO for the performance year in the report provided under § 425.702(c)(1)(ii)(A) at the beginning of the performance year or for the first, second, or third quarter of the performance year before the SNF services were provided to the beneficiary.
(C) A SNF is presumed to intend to provide services pursuant to the SNF 3-day rule waiver under paragraph (a)(1) of this section if the SNF submitting the claim is a SNF affiliate of an ACO for which such a waiver has been approved.
(D) CMS makes no payments for SNF services to a SNF affiliate of an ACO for which a waiver of the SNF 3-day rule has been approved when the SNF affiliate admits a FFS beneficiary who was not prospectively or preliminarily prospectively assigned to the ACO prior to the SNF admission or was prospectively assigned but was later excluded and the 90-day grace period under paragraph (a)(1)(iv)(A) of this section has lapsed.
(E) In the event that CMS makes no payment for SNF services furnished by a SNF affiliate as a result of paragraph (a)(1)(v)(D) of this section and the only reason the claim was non-covered is due to the lack of a qualifying inpatient stay, the following beneficiary protections will apply:
(1) The SNF must not charge the beneficiary for the expenses incurred for such services; and
(2) The SNF must return to the beneficiary any monies collected for such services; and
(3) The ACO may be required to submit a corrective action plan under § 425.216(b) for CMS approval. If after being given an opportunity to act upon the corrective action plan the ACO fails to come into compliance with the requirements of paragraph (a)(1), approval for the SNF 3-day rule waiver under this section will be terminated as provided under paragraph (d) of this section.
(vi) The following ACOs may request to use the SNF 3-day rule waiver:
(A) An ACO participating in performance-based risk within the BASIC track under § 425.605.
(B) An ACO participating in the ENHANCED track under § 425.610.
(2) [Reserved]
(b) Review and determination of request to use waivers. (1) In order to obtain a determination regarding whether the ACO may use waivers under this section, an ACO must submit a waiver request to CMS in the form and manner and by a deadline specified by CMS.
(2) An ACO executive who has the authority to legally bind the ACO must certify to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief that the information contained in the waiver request submitted under paragraph (b)(1) of this section is accurate, complete, and truthful.
(3) CMS evaluates an ACO's waiver request to determine whether it satisfies the requirements of this part and approves or denies waiver requests accordingly. Waiver requests are approved or denied on the basis of the following:
(i) Information contained in and submitted with the waiver request by a deadline specified by CMS.
(ii) Supplemental information submitted by a deadline specified by CMS in response to a CMS request for information.
(iii) Screening of the ACO, ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, and other individuals or entities providing services to Medicare beneficiaries in accordance with the terms of the waiver.
(iv) Other information available to CMS.
(4) CMS may deny a waiver request if an ACO fails to submit requested information by the deadlines established by CMS.
(c) Effective and termination date of waivers. (1) Waivers are effective upon CMS notification of approval for the waiver or the start date of the participation agreement, whichever is later.
(2) Waivers do not extend beyond the end of the participation agreement.
(3) If CMS terminates the participation agreement under § 425.218, the waiver ends on the date specified by CMS in the termination notice.
(4) If the ACO terminates the participation agreement, the waiver ends on the effective date of termination as specified in the written notification required under § 425.220.
(d) Monitoring and termination of waivers. (1) ACOs with approved waivers are required to post their use of the waiver as part of public reporting under § 425.308.
(2) CMS monitors and audits the use of such waivers in accordance with § 425.316.
(3) CMS reserves the right to deny or revoke a waiver if an ACO, its ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers or other individuals or entities providing services to Medicare beneficiaries are not in compliance with the requirements of this part or if any of the following occur:
(i) The waiver is not used as described in the ACO's waiver request under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(ii) The ACO does not successfully meet the quality reporting standard under subpart F of this part.
(iii) CMS identifies a program integrity issue affecting the ACO's use of the waiver.
(4) CMS reserves the right to take compliance action, including termination, against an ACO for noncompliance with program rules, including misuse of a waiver under this section, as specified at §§ 425.216 and 425.218.
(e) Other rules governing use of waivers. (1) Waivers under this section do not protect financial or other arrangements between or among ACOs, ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, or other individual or entities providing services to Medicare beneficiaries from liability under the fraud and abuse laws or any other applicable laws.
(2) Waivers under this section do not protect any person or entity from liability for any violation of law or regulation for any conduct other than the conduct permitted by a waiver under paragraph (a) of this section.
(3) ACOs must ensure compliance with all claims submission requirements, except those expressly waived under paragraph (a) of this section.
(f) Waiver for payment for telehealth services. For performance year 2020 and subsequent performance years, CMS waives the originating site requirements in section 1834(m)(4)(C)(i) and (ii) of the Act and makes payment for telehealth services furnished to a beneficiary, if the following conditions are met:
(1) The beneficiary was prospectively assigned to an ACO that is an applicable ACO for purposes of § 425.613 at the beginning of the applicable performance year, but the beneficiary was excluded in the most recent quarterly update to the prospective assignment list under § 425.401(b).
(2) The telehealth services are provided by a physician or practitioner billing under the TIN of an ACO participant in the ACO within 90 days following the date CMS delivers the quarterly exclusion list to the ACO.
(3) But for the beneficiary's exclusion from the ACO's prospective assignment list, CMS would have made payment to the ACO participant for such services under § 425.613.
[80 FR 32843, June 9, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 80561, Nov. 15, 2016; 82 FR 53371, Nov. 15, 2017; 83 FR 68080, Dec. 31, 2018; 84 FR 63204, Nov. 15, 2019; 87 FR 70242, Nov. 18, 2022; 90 FR 50020, Nov. 5, 2025]
§ 425.613 Telehealth services.
(a) General. Payment is available for otherwise covered telehealth services furnished on or after January 1, 2020, by a physician or other practitioner billing through the TIN of an ACO participant in an applicable ACO, without regard to the geographic requirements under section 1834(m)(4)(C)(i) of the Act, in accordance with the requirements of this section.
(1) For purposes of this section:
(i) An applicable ACO is an ACO that is participating under a two-sided model under § 425.600 and has elected prospective assignment under § 425.400(a)(3) for the performance year.
(ii) The home of the beneficiary is treated as an originating site under section 1834(m)(4)(C)(ii) of the Act.
(2) For payment to be made under this section, the following requirements must be met:
(i) The beneficiary is prospectively assigned to the ACO for the performance year in which the beneficiary received the telehealth service.
(ii) The physician or practitioner who furnishes the telehealth service must bill under the TIN of an ACO participant that is included on the certified ACO participant list under § 425.118 for the performance year in which the service is rendered.
(iii) The originating site must comply with applicable State licensing requirements.
(iv) When the originating site is the beneficiary's home, the telehealth services must not be inappropriate to furnish in the home setting. Services that are typically furnished in an inpatient setting may not be furnished as a telehealth service when the originating site is the beneficiary's home.
(v) CMS does not pay a facility fee when the originating site is the beneficiary's home.
(b) Beneficiary protections. (1) When a beneficiary who is not prospectively assigned to an applicable ACO or in a 90-day grace period under § 425.612(f) receives a telehealth service from a physician or practitioner billing through the TIN of an ACO participant participating in an applicable ACO, CMS makes no payment for the telehealth service to the ACO participant.
(2) In the event that CMS makes no payment for a telehealth service furnished by a physician or practitioner billing through the TIN of an ACO participant, and the only reason the claim was non-covered is because the beneficiary is not prospectively assigned to the ACO or in the 90-day grace period under § 425.612(f), all of the following beneficiary protections apply:
(i) The ACO participant must not charge the beneficiary for the expenses incurred for such service.
(ii) The ACO participant must return to the beneficiary any monies collected for such service.
(iii) The ACO may be required to submit a corrective action plan under § 425.216(b) for CMS approval. If the ACO is required to submit a corrective action plan and, after being given an opportunity to act upon the corrective action plan, the ACO fails to implement the corrective action plan or demonstrate improved performance upon completion of the corrective action plan, CMS may terminate the participation agreement as specified under § 425.216(b)(2).
(c) Termination date for purposes of payment for telehealth services. (1) Payment for telehealth services under paragraph (a) of this section does not extend beyond the end of the applicable ACO's participation agreement.
(2) If CMS terminates the participation agreement under § 425.218, payment for telehealth services under paragraph (a) of this section is not made with respect to telehealth services furnished beginning on the date specified by CMS in the termination notice.
(3) If the ACO terminates the participation agreement, payment for telehealth services under paragraph (a) of this section is not made with respect to telehealth services furnished beginning on the effective date of termination as specified in the written notification required under § 425.220.
(d) Monitoring of telehealth services. (1) CMS monitors and audits the use of telehealth services by the ACO and its ACO participants and ACO providers/suppliers, in accordance with § 425.316.
(2) CMS reserves the right to take compliance action, up to and including termination of the participation agreement, as specified in §§ 425.216 and 425.218, with respect to an applicable ACO for non-compliance with program requirements, including inappropriate use of telehealth services.
[83 FR 68081, Dec. 31, 2018]
§§ 425.614-425.629 [Reserved]
§ 425.630 Option to receive advance investment payments.
(a) Purpose. Advance investment payments are intended to encourage low-revenue ACOs that are inexperienced with risk to participate in the Shared Savings Program and to provide additional resources to such ACOs in order to support care improvement for underserved beneficiaries.
(b) Eligibility. An ACO is eligible to receive advance investment payments as specified in this section if CMS determines that all of the following criteria are met:
(1) The ACO is not a renewing or a re-entering ACO.
(2) CMS has determined that the ACO is eligible to participate in the Shared Savings Program.
(3) The ACO is inexperienced with performance-based risk Medicare ACO initiatives during its first 2 performance years and participates in the BASIC track's glide path as follows:
(i) For performance year 1, the ACO must participate in Level A of the BASIC track's glide path.
(ii) For performance year 2, the ACO may participate in Level A of the BASIC track's glide path (in accordance with § 425.600(a)(4)(i)(C)(3)) or Level B.
(iii) For performance years 3 through 5, the ACO may participate in Level A of the BASIC track's glide path (in accordance with § 425.600(a)(4)(i)(C)(3)), or Levels B through E.
(4) The ACO is a low revenue ACO.
(c) Application procedure. To obtain a determination regarding whether an ACO may receive advance investment payments, the ACO must submit to CMS complete supplemental information as part of its application to participate in the Shared Savings Program (filed pursuant to § 425.202) in the form and manner and by a deadline specified by CMS.
(d) Application contents and review. (1) General. An ACO must submit to CMS supplemental application information sufficient for CMS to determine whether the ACO is eligible to receive advance investment payments. In addition, the ACO must submit a proposed spend plan as part of the supplemental application information.
(2) Spend plan. The spend plan must:
(i) Describe how the ACO will spend its advance investment payments during the agreement period to build care coordination capabilities (including coordination with community-based organizations, as appropriate), address specific health disparities, and meet other criteria under this section.
(ii) Identify the categories of goods and services that will be purchased with advance investment payment funds (including any allowable uses under paragraph (e) of this section), the dollar amounts to be spent on the various categories, and such other information as may be specified by CMS.
(iii) State that the ACO has established a separate designated account for the deposit and expenditure of all advance investment payments in accordance with paragraph (e)(4) of this section.
(3) CMS review. CMS will review the supplemental application information to determine whether an ACO meets the eligibility criteria and other requirements for advance investment payments and will approve or deny the advance investment payment application accordingly. CMS may review an ACO's spend plan at any time and require the ACO to modify its spend plan to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (d) and paragraph (e) of this section.
(e) Use and management of advance investment payments—(1) Allowable uses. An ACO must use an advance investment payment to improve the quality and efficiency of items and services furnished to beneficiaries by investing in increased staffing, health care infrastructure, and the provision of accountable care for underserved beneficiaries, which may include addressing social determinants of health. Expenditures of advance investment payments must comply with the beneficiary incentive provision at § 425.304, paragraph (e)(2) of this section, and all other applicable laws and regulations.
(2) Prohibited uses. Advance investment payments may not be used for any expense other than allowable uses under paragraph (e)(1) of this section. In the case of an ACO participating in Level E of the BASIC track, the repayment of any shared losses incurred as specified in a written notice in accordance with § 425.605(e)(2).
(3) Duration for spending payments. An ACO may spend an advance investment payment over its entire agreement period. An ACO must repay to CMS any unspent funds remaining at the end of the ACO's agreement period, except if the ACO terminated its current participation agreement under § 425.220 at the end of performance year 2 or later and immediately enters a new agreement period to continue its participation in the Shared Savings Program, the ACO must spend its advance investment payments within 5 performance years of when it first received advance investment payments and repay to CMS any unspent funds remaining at the end of that fifth performance year.
(4) Segregation of advance investment payments. An ACO must segregate advance investment payments from all other revenues by establishing and maintaining a separate account into which all advance investment payments will be deposited immediately and from which all disbursements of such funds are made only for allowable uses in accordance with this paragraph.
(f) Payment methodology. An ACO receives two types of advance investment payments: a one-time payment of $250,000 and quarterly payments calculated pursuant to the methodology defined in paragraph (f)(2) of this section. CMS notifies in writing each ACO of its determination of the amount of advance investment payment and the notice will inform the ACO of its right to request reconsideration review in accordance with the procedures specified in subpart I of this part. If CMS does not make any advance investment payment, the notice will specify the reason(s) why and inform the ACO of its right to request reconsideration review in accordance with the procedures specified in subpart I of this part.
(1) Frequency of payments. An ACO will receive the one-time payment at the beginning of Performance Year 1 of the ACO's agreement period. An ACO will receive quarterly payments each quarter for the first two performance years of the ACO's agreement period. An ACO may receive no more than eight quarterly payments.
(2) Quarterly payment amount calculation methodology. CMS does all of the following in determining the quarterly payment amount prior to the start of the quarter.
(i) Determines the ACO's assigned beneficiary population. The assigned beneficiaries used in determining the quarterly payment amount are the beneficiaries most recently assigned to the ACO under § 425.400(a)(2) (for an ACO under preliminary prospective assignment with retrospective reconciliation) or § 425.400(a)(3) (for an ACO under prospective assignment), based on the certified ACO participant list for the relevant performance year.
(ii) Assigns each beneficiary a risk factors-based score. For each beneficiary in the assigned population identified in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, CMS applies the following requirements in assigning a risk factors-based score:
(A) The risk factors-based score will be set to 100 if the beneficiary is enrolled in the Medicare Part D LIS or is dually eligible for Medicare and Medicaid.
(B) The risk factors-based score will be set to the Area Deprivation Index national percentile rank matched to the beneficiary's mailing address if the beneficiary is not enrolled in the LIS or is not dually eligible for Medicare and Medicaid and sufficient data is available to match the beneficiary to an Area Deprivation Index national percentile rank.
(C) The risk factors-based score will be set to 50 if the beneficiary is not enrolled in the LIS or is not dually eligible for Medicare and Medicaid and sufficient data is not available to match the beneficiary to an Area Deprivation Index national percentile rank.
(iii) Determines a beneficiary's payment amount. For each beneficiary in the assigned population identified in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, CMS determines the payment amount that corresponds to the beneficiary's risk factors-based score determined in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section. The beneficiary payment amount is as follows:
Table 1 to Paragraph (f)(2)(iii)
Risk factors-based score | 1-24 | 25-34 | 35-44 | 45-54 | 55-64 | 65-74 | 75-84 | 85-100
Payment amount | $0 | $20 | $24 | $28 | $32 | $36 | $40 | $45
(iv) Calculates the ACO's quarterly payment amount. The ACO's quarterly payment amount is the sum of the beneficiary payment amounts corresponding to each assigned beneficiary's risk factors-based score, specified in paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section, capped at 10,000 beneficiaries. If the ACO has more than 10,000 assigned beneficiaries according to paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, CMS will calculate the quarterly payment amount based on the 10,000 assigned beneficiaries with the highest risk factors-based scores determined according to paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section.
(g) Recoupment and recovery of advance investment payments, and notice of bankruptcy. (1) CMS will recoup advance investment payments made to an ACO from any shared savings the ACO earns until CMS has recouped in full the amount of advance investment payments made to the ACO. For both renewing and re-entering ACOs, CMS will carry forward any remaining balance owed to subsequent performance year(s) in which the ACO achieves shared savings, including in any performance year(s) in a subsequent agreement period.
(2) If the amount of shared savings earned by the ACO is revised upward by CMS for any reason, CMS will reduce the redetermined amount of shared savings by the amount of advance investment payments made to the ACO as of the date of the redetermination. If the amount of shared savings earned by the ACO is revised downward by CMS for any reason, the ACO will not receive a refund of any portion of the advance investment payments previously recouped or otherwise repaid.
(3) Except as provided for in paragraphs (g)(4) through (6) of this section and § 425.316(e)(3), for each performance year, CMS will not recover an amount of advance investment payments greater than the shared savings earned by an ACO in that performance year.
(4) If an ACO terminates its participation agreement during the agreement period in which it received an advance investment payment, the ACO must repay all advance investment payments it received, unless the ACO terminated its current participation agreement under § 425.220 at the end of performance year 2 or later during the agreement period in which it received advance investment payments and immediately enters a new agreement period to continue its participation in the program. CMS will provide written notification to the ACO of the amount due and the ACO must pay such amount no later than 90 days after the receipt of such notification.
(5) If an ACO notifies CMS that it no longer wants to participate in the advance investment payment option but does want to continue its participation in the Shared Savings Program, the ACO must repay all outstanding advance investment payments it received. CMS will provide written notice to the ACO of the amount due and the ACO must pay such amount no later than 90 days after the receipt of such notification.
(6) If CMS terminates the participation agreement of an ACO that has an outstanding balance of advance investment payments owed to CMS, the ACO must repay any outstanding advance investment payments it received. CMS will provide written notification to the ACO of the amount due and the ACO must pay such amount no later than 90 days after the receipt of such notification.
(7) In the event of bankruptcy—
(i) If an ACO has filed a bankruptcy petition, whether voluntary or involuntary, the ACO must provide written notice of the bankruptcy to CMS and to the U.S. Attorney's Office in the district where the bankruptcy was filed, unless final payment for the agreement period has been made by either CMS or the ACO and all administrative or judicial review proceedings relating to any payments under the Shared Savings Program have been fully and finally resolved.
(ii) The notice of bankruptcy must be sent by certified mail no later than 5 days after the petition has been filed and must contain a copy of the filed bankruptcy petition (including its docket number). The notice to CMS must be addressed to the CMS Office of Financial Management at 7500 Security Boulevard, Mailstop C3-01-24, Baltimore, MD 21244 or such other address as may be specified on the CMS website for purposes of receiving such notices.
(h) Termination of advance investment payments—(1) General. Except as provided in paragraph (h)(2) of this section, CMS may terminate an ACO's advance investment payments if the ACO—
(i) Fails to comply with the requirements of this section;
(ii) Meets any of the grounds for ACO termination set forth in § 425.218(b);
(iii) Voluntarily terminates its participation agreement in accordance with § 425.220(a); or
(iv) Voluntarily terminates payments of advance investment payments but continues its participation in the Shared Savings Program.
(2) Eligibility sanction. CMS will terminate an ACO's advance investment payments in accordance with § 425.316(e) if the ACO no longer meets the eligibility requirements specified in paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(4) of this section.
(3) No pre-termination actions. CMS may immediately terminate an ACO's advance investment payments without taking any of the pre-termination actions set forth in § 425.216.
(i) Reporting information on advance investment payments. The ACO must report information on its receipt of and use of advance investment payments, as follows:
(1) The ACO must publicly report information about the ACO's use of advance investment payments for each performance year, in accordance with § 425.308(b)(8).
(2) In a form and manner and by a deadline specified by CMS, the ACO must report to CMS the same information it is required to publicly report under § 425.308(b)(8).
[87 FR 70242, Nov. 18, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 79548, Nov. 16, 2023; 89 FR 98571, Dec. 9, 2024]
§§ 425.631-425.639 [Reserved]
§ 425.640 Option to receive prepaid shared savings.
(a) Purpose. Prepaid shared savings provide an additional cash flow option to ACOs with a history of earning shared savings that will encourage their investment in activities that reduce costs for the Medicare program and beneficiaries and improve the quality of care provided to their assigned beneficiaries.
(b) Eligibility. An ACO is eligible to receive prepaid shared savings in an agreement period as specified in this section if CMS determines that all of the following criteria are met:
(1) The ACO meets either of the following conditions:
(i) The ACO is a renewing ACO as defined under § 425.20 entering an agreement period beginning on January 1, 2026, or in subsequent years.
(ii) The ACO was a renewing ACO as defined under § 425.20 entering an agreement period beginning on January 1, 2025, and applied to receive prepaid shared savings in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section starting with the performance year beginning on January 1, 2026.
(2) The ACO must have received a shared savings payment for the most recent performance year that:
(i) Occurred prior to the agreement period for which the ACO has applied to receive prepaid shared savings; and
(ii) CMS has conducted financial reconciliation.
(3) The ACO must have a positive prior savings adjustment for the agreement period for which the ACO has applied to receive prepaid shared savings as calculated pursuant to § 425.658.
(4) The ACO does not have any outstanding shared losses or advance investment payments that have not yet been repaid to CMS after reconciliation for the most recent performance year for which CMS completed financial reconciliation.
(5) If the ACO received prepaid shared savings in the current agreement period or a prior agreement period, the ACO must have fully repaid the amount of prepaid shared savings received through the most recent performance year for which CMS has completed financial reconciliation.
(6) The ACO is participating in Levels C through E of the BASIC track or the ENHANCED track during the agreement period in which it would receive prepaid shared savings.
(7) The ACO has in place an adequate repayment mechanism in accordance with § 425.204(f) that can be used to recoup outstanding prepaid shared savings.
(8) During the agreement period immediately preceding the agreement period in which the ACO would receive prepaid shared savings, the ACO:
(i) Met the quality performance standard as specified under § 425.512; and
(ii) Has not been determined by CMS to have avoided at-risk beneficiaries as specified under § 425.316(b)(2).
(c) Application procedure. (1) For an ACO renewing to enter an agreement period beginning on January 1, 2026, or in subsequent years, to obtain a determination regarding whether the ACO may receive prepaid shared savings, the ACO must submit to CMS a complete supplemental application with its application to renew for a new agreement period in the Shared Savings Program (submitted pursuant to § 425.224) in the form and manner and by a deadline specified by CMS.
(2) For an ACO that renewed to enter an agreement period beginning on January 1, 2025, to obtain a determination regarding whether the ACO may receive prepaid shared savings, the ACO must submit to CMS a complete supplemental application for prepaid shared savings prior to the start of the performance year beginning on January 1, 2026, in the form and manner and by a deadline specified by CMS.
(d) Application contents and review—(1) General. An ACO must submit to CMS supplemental application information sufficient for CMS to determine whether the ACO is eligible to receive prepaid shared savings. In addition, the ACO must submit a proposed spend plan as part of the supplemental application information.
(2) Spend plan. The ACO's spend plan must:
(i) Describe how an ACO receiving prepaid shared savings will spend the payments during the first performance year in which it will receive prepaid shared savings. The spend plan must be updated annually for each performance year of the agreement period during which the ACO receives prepaid shared savings.
(ii) Identify the categories of items and services that will be purchased and investments that will be made in the ACO with prepaid shared savings (consistent with the allowable uses under paragraph (e) of this section), the dollar amounts to be spent on such categories, information about which groups of beneficiaries the ACO expects to receive direct beneficiary services that will be purchased with prepaid shared savings, how direct beneficiary services will be distributed to beneficiaries and how such services support the care of beneficiaries, descriptions of the investments that will be made in the ACO with prepaid shared savings, and such other information as may be specified by CMS.
(iii) Include an attestation that the ACO will not discriminate on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, disability, or age with respect to their use of prepaid shared savings.
(iv) Include the ACO's communication strategy for notifying CMS and any impacted beneficiaries if an ACO will no longer be providing any direct beneficiary services that had previously been provided by the ACO using prepaid shared savings.
(3) CMS review. CMS will review the supplemental application information to determine whether an ACO meets the eligibility criteria and other requirements necessary to receive prepaid shared savings and will approve or deny the ACO's prepaid shared savings application accordingly. CMS may review an ACO's spend plan at any time and require the ACO to modify its spend plan to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (d) and paragraph (e) of this section.
(e) Use and management of prepaid shared savings—(1) Allowable uses. An ACO must use prepaid shared savings to improve the quality and efficiency of items and services furnished to beneficiaries by investing in staffing, healthcare infrastructure, and direct beneficiary services. Expenditures of prepaid shared savings must comply with paragraph (e)(2) of this section, the beneficiary incentive provision at § 425.304(a), (b), and (d), and all other applicable laws and regulations.
(i) An ACO may spend up to 50 percent of its estimated annual prepaid shared savings on staffing and healthcare infrastructure in each performance year.
(ii) An ACO may spend up to 100 percent, but not less than 50 percent, of its estimated annual prepaid shared savings on direct beneficiary services in each performance year.
(2) Prohibited uses. An ACO may not use prepaid shared savings for any expense other than those allowed under paragraph (e)(1) of this section. Prohibited uses include the following—
(i) Management company or parent company profit;
(ii) Performance bonuses;
(iii) Provision of medical services covered by Medicare;
(iv) Cash or cash equivalent payments to patients;
(v) Items or activities unrelated to ACO operations or care of beneficiaries; and
(vi) In the case of an ACO participating in Levels C through E of the BASIC track or the ENHANCED track, the repayment of any shared losses incurred as specified in a written notice in accordance with § 425.605(e)(2) or § 425.610(h)(2), respectively.
(3) Duration for spending payments. An ACO must spend all prepaid shared savings in the agreement period in which they are received. An ACO must repay to CMS any unspent funds remaining at the end of each agreement period. Any unspent funds received for a performance year must be reallocated in the spend plan for the ACO's next performance year. When reallocated in the spend plan for the next performance year, the total unspent funds in each category must be reallocated within their originally indicated category specified in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) of this section. If an ACO fails to spend a majority of the prepaid shared savings they receive in a performance year, CMS may withhold future quarterly payments until the ACO spends the funding they have already received and reports this spending to CMS through an updated spend plan.
(f) Payment & payment methodology. An ACO determined eligible pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section receives quarterly prepaid shared savings payments equal to the maximum quarterly payment amount calculated pursuant to the methodology specified in paragraphs (f)(2) through (4) of this section unless the ACO elects to receive a lesser amount pursuant to paragraph (f)(6) of this section. CMS notifies in writing each ACO of its determination of the amount of prepaid shared savings and the notice will inform the ACO of its right to request reconsideration review in accordance with the procedures specified in subpart I of this part. If CMS does not make any prepaid shared savings payment, the notice will specify the reason(s) why and inform the ACO of its right to request reconsideration review in accordance with the procedures specified in subpart I.
(1) Frequency of payments. (i) An eligible ACO entering an agreement period beginning on January 1, 2026, or in subsequent years will receive quarterly prepaid shared savings payments for the entirety of the ACO's agreement period unless the payment is withheld or terminated pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section.
(ii) An eligible ACO participating in an agreement period beginning on January 1, 2025, will receive quarterly prepaid shared savings payments starting with the performance year beginning on January 1, 2026, and for the remainder of its agreement period, unless the payment is withheld or terminated pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section. The ACO will not receive additional or catch-up payments for performance year 2025.
(iii) If an ACO's quarterly payment is withheld or terminated pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section, the ACO will not receive additional or catch-up payments if quarterly prepaid shared savings payments are later resumed.
(2) Calculating the prepaid shared savings multiplier. (i) Calculate total per capita savings or losses for each performance year that constitutes BY1 and BY2 of the agreement period in which the ACO receives prepaid shared savings. Per capita savings or losses will be set to zero for a performance year if the ACO was not reconciled for the performance year.
(ii) Take the simple average of the per capita savings or losses calculated in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, including values of zero, if applicable.
(iii) Apply a proration factor to account for any upward growth in the ACO's assigned population in BY1 and BY2 of the agreement period in which the ACO receives prepaid shared savings as compared to the size of the assigned population when the ACO was reconciled for the corresponding performance years in its prior agreement period.
(iv) Adjust the pro-rated average per capita amount computed in paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section by multiplying by 50 percent.
(v) The prepaid shared savings multiplier is the lesser of the following:
(A) Two-thirds of the pro-rated, adjusted average per capita amount computed in paragraph (f)(2)(iv) of this section.
(B) 5 percent of national per capita expenditures for Parts A and B services under the original Medicare fee-for-service program in BY2 for assignable beneficiaries identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to BY2 using data from the CMS Office of the Actuary and expressed as a single value by taking a person-year weighted average of the Medicare enrollment type-specific values.
(3) Recalculation of the prepaid shared savings multiplier during an agreement period. For the first performance year during the term of the agreement period in which the ACO receives prepaid shared savings, the ACO's prepaid shared savings multiplier is recalculated for changes in per capita shared savings or losses for the performance years used in the calculation of the prepaid shared savings multiplier as a result of issuance of a revised initial determination under § 425.315. For the second and each subsequent performance year during the term of the agreement period in which the ACO receives prepaid shared savings, the ACO's prepaid shared savings multiplier is recalculated for the following, as applicable: For the addition and removal of ACO participants or ACO providers/suppliers in accordance with § 425.118(b), for a change to the ACO's beneficiary assignment methodology selection under § 425.226(a)(1), for a change to the beneficiary assignment methodology specified in subpart E of this part, and for changes in per capita shared savings or losses for the performance years used in the calculation of the prepaid shared savings multiplier as a result of issuance of a revised initial determination under § 425.315. To recalculate the prepaid shared savings multiplier, CMS does the following:
(i) Takes into account changes to the ACO's savings or losses for a performance year for either of the 2 years that constitute BY1 and BY2 of the agreement period for which the ACO receives prepaid shared savings under paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, including values of zero, if applicable, as a result of issuance of a revised initial determination under § 425.315, when calculating the simple average of the per capita savings or losses calculated in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section.
(ii) Redetermines the proration factor used in calculating the prepaid shared savings multiplier under paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section to account for changes in the ACO's assigned beneficiary population in the benchmark years of the ACO's agreement period in which the ACO receives prepaid shared savings due to the addition and removal of ACO participants or ACO providers/suppliers in accordance with § 425.118(b), a change to the ACO's beneficiary assignment methodology selection under § 425.226(a)(1), or changes to the beneficiary assignment methodology under subpart E of this part.
(4) Calculating the maximum quarterly payment amount. For each quarter for each performance year, the maximum quarterly prepaid shared savings amount is equal to the product of one-fourth of the prepaid shared savings multiplier calculated in paragraph (f)(2)(v) of this section or recalculated according to paragraph (f)(3) of this section and the ACO's performance year assigned beneficiary person years calculated from the ACO's most recent assignment list.
(5) Estimated annual payment amount calculation methodology. For the purposes of determining the amount of prepaid shared savings permitted to be allocated to the uses specified in paragraph (e) of this section during each performance year, the estimated annual prepaid shared savings amount can be calculated by multiplying the first quarterly payment amount the ACO receives in each performance year by four. If an ACO's maximum quarterly payments decrease over the performance year, the ACO will not be subject to compliance action solely because it spent more than 50 percent of the actual annual amount of prepaid shared savings it received during that PY on staffing and healthcare infrastructure, as long as it did not spend more than 50 percent of the originally estimated annual maximum prepaid shared savings amount on staffing and healthcare infrastructure.
(6) ACO selection of quarterly payment amount. An ACO may request a smaller quarterly payment amount from CMS in a form and manner and by a deadline specified by CMS.
(g) Recoupment and recovery of prepaid shared savings; notice of bankruptcy. (1) CMS will recoup prepaid shared savings made to an ACO from any shared savings the ACO earns until CMS has recouped in full the amount of prepaid shared savings made to the ACO. CMS will carry forward any remaining balance owed to subsequent performance year(s) in which the ACO achieves shared savings.
(2) If the amount of shared savings earned by the ACO is revised upward by CMS for any reason, CMS will reduce the redetermined amount of shared savings by the amount of prepaid shared savings made to the ACO as of the date of the redetermination. If the amount of shared savings earned by the ACO is revised downward by CMS for any reason, the ACO will not receive a refund of any portion of the prepaid shared savings previously recouped or otherwise repaid, and any prepaid shared savings that are now outstanding due to the revision in earned shared savings must be repaid to CMS upon request.
(3) If an ACO has an outstanding balance of prepaid shared savings after the calculation of shared savings or losses for the final performance year of an agreement period in which an ACO receives prepaid shared savings, the ACO must repay any outstanding amount of prepaid shared savings it received in full upon request from CMS. CMS will provide written notification to the ACO of the amount due and the ACO must pay such amount no later than 90 days after the receipt of notification. If the ACO fails to repay any outstanding amount of prepaid shared savings within 90 days of that written notification, CMS will recoup any outstanding balance of prepaid shared savings from the ACO's repayment mechanism established under § 425.204(f). CMS may also recover any outstanding amount of prepaid shared savings owed by recouping from any future shared savings the ACO may be eligible to receive in a subsequent agreement period.
(4) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(4)(ii) of this section, if an ACO or CMS terminates the ACOs participation agreement during the agreement period in which it received prepaid shared savings, the ACO must repay all outstanding prepaid shared savings it received in full upon request from CMS.
(i) CMS will provide written notification to the ACO of the amount due and the ACO must pay such amount no later than 90 days after the receipt of notification. If the ACO fails to repay within 90 days, CMS will recoup any outstanding balance from the ACO's repayment mechanism established under § 425.204(f).
(ii) If the ACO terminates its current participation agreement under § 425.220 and immediately enters a new agreement period to continue its participation in the program, CMS may recover the amount owed by recouping from any future shared savings the ACO may be eligible to receive in subsequent agreement periods.
(5)(i) If an ACO has filed a bankruptcy petition, whether voluntary or involuntary, the ACO must provide written notice of the bankruptcy to CMS and to the U.S. Attorney's Office in the district where the bankruptcy was filed, unless final payment for the agreement period has been made by either CMS or the ACO and all administrative or judicial review proceedings relating to any payments under the Shared Savings Program have been fully and finally resolved.
(ii) The notice of bankruptcy must be sent by certified mail no later than 5 days after the petition has been filed and must contain a copy of the filed bankruptcy petition (including its docket number). The notice to CMS must be addressed to the CMS Office of Financial Management at 7500 Security Boulevard, Mailstop C3-01-24, Baltimore, MD 21244 or such other address as may be specified on the CMS website for purposes of receiving such notices.
(h) Withholding or termination of prepaid shared savings—(1) General. Except as provided in paragraph (h)(2) of this section, CMS may withhold or terminate an ACO's prepaid shared savings during an agreement period if—
(i) The ACO fails to comply with the requirements of this section;
(ii) The ACO meets any of the grounds for ACO termination set forth in § 425.218(b);
(iii) The ACO fails to earn sufficient shared savings in a performance year to repay the prepaid shared savings they received during that performance year;
(iv) CMS determines that the ACO is not expected to earn shared savings in a performance year during the agreement period in which the ACO received prepaid shared savings based on a rolling 12-month window of beneficiary claims data or year to date beneficiary claims data;
(v) The ACO falls below 5,000 assigned beneficiaries;
(vi) The ACO fails to spend the majority of prepaid shared savings they receive in a performance year; or
(vii) The ACO requests that CMS withhold a future quarterly prepaid shared savings payment.
(2) Eligibility sanction. CMS must terminate an ACO's prepaid shared savings if—
(i) The ACO fails to maintain an adequate repayment mechanism in accordance with § 425.204(f); or
(ii) The ACO fails to meet the quality performance standard as specified under § 425.512 or is subject to a pre-termination action after CMS determined the ACO avoided at-risk beneficiaries as specified under § 425.316(b)(2).
(3) No additional payments. If CMS withholds or terminates a quarterly payment pursuant to this paragraph (h), the ACO will not receive additional or catch-up payments if quarterly payments of prepaid shared savings are later resumed.
(4) No pre-termination actions. CMS may immediately terminate an ACO's prepaid shared savings under paragraphs (h)(1) and (2) of this section without taking any of the pre-termination actions set forth in § 425.216.
(i) Reporting information on prepaid shared savings. The ACO must report information on its receipt of and use of prepaid shared savings, as follows:
(1) The ACO must publicly report information about the ACO's use of prepaid shared savings for each performance year, in accordance with § 425.308(b)(10).
(2) In a form and manner and by a deadline specified by CMS, the ACO must report to CMS the same information it is required to publicly report under § 425.308(b)(10).
[89 FR 98571, Dec. 9, 2024]
§§ 425.641-425.649 [Reserved]
§ 425.650 Benchmarking methodology.
(a) Scope and purpose. The methodology by which CMS establishes, adjusts, updates and resets an ACO's historical benchmark is described within this subpart G. The benchmarking methodology for agreement periods beginning before January 1, 2024, is specified in §§ 425.601, 425.602, 425.603, and 425.659. The benchmarking methodology for agreement periods beginning on or after January 1, 2024, is specified in §§ 425.652 through 425.662.
(b) [Reserved]
[87 FR 70243, Nov. 18, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 79548, Nov. 16, 2023; 89 FR 98574, Dec. 9, 2024]
§ 425.652 Establishing, adjusting, and updating the benchmark for agreement periods beginning on January 1, 2024, and in subsequent years.
(a) Computing per capita Medicare Part A and Part B benchmark expenditures for an ACO's first agreement period. For agreement periods beginning on January 1, 2024, and in subsequent years, in computing an ACO's historical benchmark for its first agreement period under the Shared Savings Program, CMS determines the per capita Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for beneficiaries that would have been assigned to the ACO in any of the 3 most recent years prior to the start of the agreement period using the ACO participant TINs identified before the start of the agreement period as required under § 425.118(a) and the beneficiary assignment methodology selected by the ACO for the first performance year of the agreement period as required under § 425.400(a)(4)(ii). CMS does all of the following:
(1) Calculates the payment amounts included in Parts A and B fee-for-service claims using a 3-month claims run out with a completion factor.
(i) This calculation excludes indirect medical education (IME) and disproportionate share hospital (DSH) payments, and the supplemental payment for IHS/Tribal hospitals and Puerto Rico hospitals.
(ii) This calculation includes individually beneficiary identifiable final payments made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(2) Makes separate expenditure calculations for each of the following populations of beneficiaries: ESRD, disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries and aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(3) Adjusts expenditures for changes in severity and case mix using prospective HCC risk scores.
(4) Truncates an assigned beneficiary's total annual Parts A and B fee-for-service per capita expenditures at the 99th percentile of national Medicare fee-for-service expenditures for assignable beneficiaries identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to each benchmark year in order to minimize variation from catastrophically large claims.
(5) Trends forward expenditures for each benchmark year (BY1 and BY2) to the third benchmark year (BY3) dollars using a blend of national and regional growth rates.
(i) To trend forward the benchmark, CMS makes separate calculations for expenditure categories for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(A) ESRD.
(B) Disabled.
(C) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(D) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(ii) National growth rates are computed using CMS Office of the Actuary national Medicare expenditure data for each of the years making up the historical benchmark for assignable beneficiaries identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to each benchmark year.
(iii) Regional growth rates are computed using expenditures for the ACO's regional service area for each of the years making up the historical benchmark as follows:
(A) Determine the counties included in the ACO's regional service area based on the ACO's assigned beneficiary population for the relevant benchmark year.
(B) Determine the ACO's regional expenditures as specified under § 425.654 of this section.
(iv) The national and regional growth rates are blended together by taking a weighted average of the two. The weight applied to the—
(A) National growth rate is calculated as the share of assignable beneficiaries in the ACO's regional service area for BY3 that are assigned to the ACO in BY3, as calculated in paragraph (a)(5)(v) of this section; and
(B) Regional growth rate is equal to 1 minus the weight applied to the national growth rate.
(v) CMS calculates the share of assignable beneficiaries in the ACO's regional service area that are assigned to the ACO by doing all of the following:
(A) Calculating the county-level share of assignable beneficiaries that are assigned to the ACO for each county in the ACO's regional service area. The assignable population of beneficiaries is identified for BY3 using the assignment window or expanded window for assignment that is consistent with the beneficiary assignment methodology selected by the ACO for the performance year according to § 425.400(a)(4)(ii).
(B) Weighting the county-level shares according to the ACO's proportion of assigned beneficiaries in the county, determined by the number of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries residing in the county in relation to the ACO's total number of assigned beneficiaries.
(C) Aggregating the weighted county-level shares for all counties in the ACO's regional service area.
(6) Restates BY1 and BY2 trended and risk adjusted expenditures using BY3 proportions of ESRD, disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries and aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(7) Weights each year of the benchmark for an ACO's initial agreement period using the following percentages:
(i) BY3 at 60 percent.
(ii) BY2 at 30 percent.
(iii) BY1 at 10 percent.
(8) Adjusts the historical benchmark, if applicable:
(i) For agreement periods beginning on January 1, 2024, except as provided in paragraph (a)(8)(i)(C) of this section, CMS adjusts the historical benchmark based on the ACO's regional service area expenditures (as specified under § 425.656), or for savings generated by the ACO, if any, in the 3 most recent years prior to the start of the agreement period (as specified under § 425.658). CMS does all of the following to determine the adjustment, if any, applied to the historical benchmark:
(A) Computes the regional adjustment in accordance with § 425.656 and the prior savings adjustment in accordance with § 425.658.
(B) If an ACO is not eligible to receive a prior savings adjustment under § 425.658(b)(3)(i), and the regional adjustment, expressed as a single value as described in § 425.656(d), is positive, the ACO will receive an adjustment to its benchmark equal to the positive regional adjustment amount. The adjustment will be calculated as described in § 425.656(c) and applied separately to the following populations of beneficiaries: ESRD, disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, and aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(C) If an ACO is not eligible to receive a prior savings adjustment under § 425.658(b)(3)(i), and the regional adjustment, expressed as a single value as described in § 425.656(d), is negative or zero, the ACO will not receive an adjustment to its benchmark.
(D) If an ACO is eligible to receive a prior savings adjustment and the regional adjustment, expressed as a single value as described in § 425.656(d), is positive, the ACO will receive an adjustment to its benchmark equal to the higher of the following:
(1) The positive regional adjustment amount. The adjustment will be calculated as described in § 425.656(c) and applied separately to the following populations of beneficiaries: ESRD, disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, and aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(2) The prior savings adjustment. The adjustment will be calculated as described in § 425.658(c) and applied as a flat dollar amount to the following populations of beneficiaries: ESRD, disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, and aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(E) If an ACO is eligible to receive a prior savings adjustment and the regional adjustment, expressed as a single value as described in § 425.656(d), is negative or zero, the ACO will receive an adjustment to its benchmark equal to the prior savings adjustment. The adjustment will be calculated as described in § 425.658(c) and applied as a flat dollar amount to the following populations of beneficiaries: ESRD, disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, and aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(ii) For agreement periods beginning on January 1, 2025, and in subsequent years, except as provided in paragraph (a)(8)(ii)(B)(2) of this section, CMS adjusts the historical benchmark based on the ACO's regional service area expenditures (as specified under § 425.656), for savings generated by the ACO, if any, in the 3 most recent years prior to the start of the agreement period (as specified under § 425.658), or to account for the ACO serving higher proportions of underserved beneficiaries (as specified in § 425.662). CMS does all of the following to determine the adjustment, if any, applied to the historical benchmark:
(A) Computes the regional adjustment in accordance with § 425.656, the prior savings adjustment in accordance with § 425.658, and the population adjustment in accordance with § 425.662.
(B) Compares the regional adjustment, expressed as a single value as described in § 425.656(d), the per capita prior savings adjustment determined in § 425.658(c), if any, and the population adjustment determined in § 425.662(b), if any, to determine the adjustment applied to the historical benchmark.
(1) The ACO will receive the highest of the positive adjustments for which it is eligible. The adjustment will be calculated as described in § 425.656(c), § 425.658(c), or § 425.662(b), respectively, and applied separately to the following populations of beneficiaries: ESRD, disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, and aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(2) If an ACO is not eligible to receive a prior savings adjustment under § 425.658(b)(3)(i) or the population adjustment under § 425.662(b)(3), and the regional adjustment, expressed as a single value as described in § 425.656(d), is negative or zero, the ACO will not receive an adjustment to its benchmark.
(9) For the first performance year during the term of the agreement period, the ACO's benchmark is adjusted for the following, as applicable: For changes in values used in benchmark calculations in accordance with § 425.316(b)(2)(ii)(B) or (C) due to compliance action to address avoidance of at-risk beneficiaries or as a result of issuance of a revised initial determination under § 425.315, and for changes in values used in benchmark calculations as a result of the performance year being affected by significant, anomalous, and highly suspect billing under § 425.672. For the second and each subsequent performance year during the term of the agreement period, the ACO's benchmark is adjusted for the following, as applicable: For the addition and removal of ACO participants or ACO providers/suppliers in accordance with § 425.118(b), for a change to the ACO's beneficiary assignment methodology selection under § 425.226(a)(1), for a change to the beneficiary assignment methodology specified in subpart E of this part, for a change in the CMS-HCC risk adjustment methodology used to calculate prospective HCC risk scores under § 425.659, for changes in values used in benchmark calculations in accordance with § 425.316(b)(2)(ii)(B) or (C) due to compliance action to address avoidance of at-risk beneficiaries or as a result of issuance of a revised initial determination under § 425.315, and for changes in values used in benchmark calculations as a result of the performance year being affected by significant, anomalous, and highly suspect billing under § 425.672. To adjust the benchmark, CMS does the following:
(i) Takes into account the expenditures of beneficiaries who would have been assigned to the ACO in any of the 3 most recent years prior to the start of the agreement period.
(ii) Redetermines the regional adjustment amount under § 425.656 according to the ACO's assigned beneficiaries for BY3, and based on the assignable population of beneficiaries identified for BY3 using the assignment window or expanded window for assignment that is consistent with the beneficiary assignment methodology selected by the ACO for the performance year according to § 425.400(a)(4)(ii).
(iii) Redetermines the offset factor used in determining the negative regional adjustment amount under § 425.656(c)(4) and (5).
(iv) Redetermines the proration factor used in calculating the prior savings adjustment under § 425.658(b)(3)(ii) to account for changes in the ACO's assigned beneficiary population in the benchmark years of the ACO's current agreement period due to the addition and removal of ACO participants or ACO providers/suppliers in accordance with § 425.118(b), a change to the ACO's beneficiary assignment methodology selection under § 425.226(a)(1), or changes to the beneficiary assignment methodology under subpart E of this part.
(v) Redetermines the scaler used in calculating the population adjustment under § 425.662(b)(2) to account for changes in the ACO's regional adjustment or prior savings adjustment in accordance with paragraphs (a)(9)(ii) through (iv) of this section.
(vi) In accordance with paragraph (a)(8) of this section, CMS redetermines the adjustment to the historical benchmark based on the redetermined regional adjustment (as specified under § 425.656), the prior savings adjustment (as specified under § 425.658), or the population adjustment (as specified under § 425.662) if applicable.
(vii) Redetermines factors based on prospective HCC risk scores calculated for benchmark years by calculating the prospective HCC risk scores using the CMS-HCC risk adjustment methodology that applies for the calendar year corresponding to the applicable performance year in accordance with § 425.659(b)(1).
(viii) Recalculates benchmark year expenditures to account for the impact of improper payments, for the benchmark year corresponding to a performance year for which CMS issued a revised initial determination under § 425.315. In recalculating expenditures for the benchmark year, CMS applies the calculation methodology applied in recalculating expenditures for the corresponding performance year in accordance with § 425.674.
(ix) Recalculates expenditures used in Shared Savings Program benchmark calculations under this section, and as applicable under §§ 425.654 through 425.662, to exclude the same HCPCS or CPT codes identified as displaying significant, anomalous, and highly suspect billing patterns in calculation of performance year expenditures, in accordance with § 425.672.
(10) The historical benchmark is further adjusted at the time of reconciliation for a performance year to account for changes in severity and case mix of the ACO's assigned beneficiary population as described under §§ 425.605(a) and 425.610(a).
(b) Updating the benchmark. For all agreement periods beginning on January 1, 2024, and in subsequent years, CMS updates the historical benchmark annually for each year of the agreement period using a three-way blend calculated as a weighted average of a two-way blend of national and regional growth rates determined after the end of each performance year and a fixed projected growth rate determined at the beginning of the ACO's agreement period called the Accountable Care Prospective Trend (ACPT).
(1) To update the benchmark, CMS makes separate calculations for expenditure categories for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(2) CMS computes the two-way blend of national and regional growth rates as follows:
(i) Computes national growth rates using CMS Office of the Actuary national Medicare expenditure data for BY3 and the performance year for assignable beneficiaries identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to each year.
(ii) Computes regional growth rates using expenditures for the ACO's regional service area for BY3 and the performance year, computed as follows:
(A) Determine the counties included in the ACO's regional service area based on the ACO's assigned beneficiary population for the year.
(B) Determine the ACO's regional expenditures as specified under § 425.654.
(C) Multiply the growth rate calculated in this paragraph (b)(2)(ii) by a regional risk score growth cap adjustment factor computed as described in § 425.655.
(iii) The national and regional growth rates are blended together by taking a weighted average of the two. The weight applied to the—
(A) National growth rate is calculated as the share of assignable beneficiaries in the ACO's regional service area that are assigned to the ACO for the applicable performance year as specified in paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section; and
(B) Regional growth rate is equal to 1 minus the weight applied to the national growth rate.
(iv) CMS calculates the share of assignable beneficiaries in the ACO's regional service area that are assigned to the ACO by doing all of the following:
(A) Calculating the county-level share of assignable beneficiaries that are assigned to the ACO for each county in the ACO's regional service area. The assignable population of beneficiaries is identified for the performance year using the assignment window or expanded window for assignment that is consistent with the beneficiary assignment methodology selected by the ACO for the performance year according to § 425.400(a)(4)(ii).
(B) Weighting the county-level shares according to the ACO's proportion of assigned beneficiaries in the county, determined by the number of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries residing in the county in relation to the ACO's total number of assigned beneficiaries.
(C) Aggregating the weighted county-level shares for all counties in the ACO's regional service area.
(3) CMS computes the ACPT as described in § 425.660.
(4) The two-way blend computed under paragraph (b)(2) of this section and the ACPT are blended together by taking a weighted average of the two.
(i) Absent unforeseen circumstances, the weight applied to the components of the blend is as follows—
(A) Two-way blend is equal to two-thirds; and
(B) ACPT is equal to one-third.
(ii) CMS has sole discretion to determine whether an unforeseen circumstance exists that warrants a reduction to the weight of the ACPT and the reduced weight that will apply to the ACPT.
(5) If an ACO's average per capita Medicare expenditures for the performance year are above its updated benchmark for the year determined as described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section by at least the MLR or negative MSR established for the ACO, CMS will compute a recalculated updated benchmark using the two-way blend described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
(i) If the ACO's average per capita Medicare expenditures for the performance year are above the recalculated updated benchmark by a smaller amount than the amount by which they are above the updated benchmark determined as described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, CMS will use the recalculated updated benchmark to determine the following:
(A) The ACO's responsibility for sharing losses with the Medicare program for ACOs in two-sided models as described under §§ 425.605 and 425.610.
(B) The ACO's financial performance for purposes of monitoring ACO financial performance as described under § 425.316(d).
(ii) If the ACO's average per capita Medicare expenditures for the performance year are below the recalculated updated benchmark, the ACO will neither be responsible for sharing losses with the Medicare program nor eligible for sharing in savings.
(c) Resetting the benchmark. (1) An ACO's benchmark is reset at the start of each subsequent agreement period.
(2) For second or subsequent agreements periods beginning on January 1, 2024, and in subsequent years, CMS establishes, adjusts, and updates the rebased historical benchmark in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section except that rather than weighting each year of the benchmark using the percentages provided in paragraph (a)(7) of this section, each benchmark year is weighted equally.
[87 FR 70244, Nov. 18, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 79548, Nov. 16, 2023; 89 FR 98574, Dec. 9, 2024; 90 FR 50020, Nov. 5, 2025425.658 ]
§ 425.654 Calculating county expenditures and regional expenditures.
(a) Calculating county expenditures. For agreement periods beginning on January 1, 2024, and in subsequent years, CMS does all of the following to determine risk adjusted county fee-for-service expenditures for use in calculating the ACO's regional fee-for-service expenditures:
(1)(i) Determines average county fee-for-service expenditures based on expenditures for the assignable population of beneficiaries in each county in the ACO's regional service area. The assignable population of beneficiaries is identified for the relevant benchmark or performance year using the assignment window or expanded window for assignment that is consistent with the beneficiary assignment methodology selected by the ACO for the performance year according to § 425.400(a)(4)(ii).
(ii) Makes separate expenditure calculations for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(A) ESRD.
(B) Disabled.
(C) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(D) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(2) Calculates assignable beneficiary expenditures using the payment amounts included in Parts A and B fee-for-service claims with dates of service in the 12-month calendar year for the relevant benchmark or performance year, using a 3-month claims run out with a completion factor. The calculation—
(i) Excludes IME and DSH payments, and the supplemental payment for IHS/Tribal hospitals and Puerto Rico hospitals; and
(ii) Considers individually beneficiary identifiable final payments made under a demonstration, pilot or time limited program.
(3) Truncates a beneficiary's total annual Parts A and B fee-for-service per capita expenditures at the 99th percentile of national Medicare fee-for-service expenditures for assignable beneficiaries identified for the 12-month calendar year that corresponds to the relevant benchmark or performance year, in order to minimize variation from catastrophically large claims.
(4) Adjusts fee-for-service expenditures for severity and case mix of assignable beneficiaries in the county using prospective HCC risk scores. The calculation is made according to the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(b) Calculating regional expenditures. For all agreement periods beginning on January 1, 2024, and in subsequent years, CMS calculates an ACO's risk adjusted regional expenditures by:
(1) Weighting the risk adjusted county-level fee-for-service expenditures determined under paragraph (a) of this section according to the ACO's proportion of assigned beneficiaries in the county, determined by the number of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries in the applicable population (according to Medicare enrollment type) residing in the county in relation to the ACO's total number of assigned beneficiaries in the applicable population (according to Medicare enrollment type) for the relevant benchmark or performance year for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(2) Aggregating the values determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section for each population of beneficiaries (according to Medicare enrollment type) across all counties within the ACO's regional service area.
[87 FR 70246, Nov. 18, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 79549, Nov. 16, 2023]
§ 425.655 Calculating the regional risk score growth cap adjustment factor.
(a) General. This section describes the methodology for calculating the regional risk score growth cap adjustment factor that will be applied to the regional growth rate component of the three-way blend used to update the historical benchmark as described in § 425.652(b) for agreement periods beginning on January 1, 2024, and in subsequent years.
(b) Calculating county risk scores. CMS does all of the following to determine county prospective HCC and demographic risk scores for use in calculating the ACO's regional risk scores:
(1) Determines average county prospective HCC and demographic risk scores for the assignable population of beneficiaries in each county in the ACO's regional service area. The assignable population of beneficiaries is identified for the relevant benchmark or performance year using the assignment window or expanded window for assignment that is consistent with the beneficiary assignment methodology selected by the ACO for the performance year according to § 425.400(a)(4)(ii).
(2) Makes separate risk score calculations for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(c) Calculating regional risk scores. CMS calculates an ACO's regional prospective HCC and demographic risk scores by:
(1) Weighting the county-level risk scores determined under paragraph (b) of this section according to the ACO's proportion of assigned beneficiaries in the county, determined by the number of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries in the applicable population (according to Medicare enrollment type) residing in the county in relation to the ACO's total number of assigned beneficiaries in the applicable population (according to Medicare enrollment type) for the relevant benchmark or performance year for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(2) Aggregating the values determined under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for each population of beneficiaries (according to Medicare enrollment type) across all counties within the ACO's regional service area.
(d) Determining aggregate growth in regional risk scores. CMS determines aggregate growth in regional prospective HCC and demographic risk scores by:
(1) Determining growth in regional prospective HCC and demographic risk scores determined in paragraph (c) of this section (expressed as a ratio of the performance year regional risk score to the BY3 regional risk score) for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(2) Determines the aggregate growth in regional risk scores by calculating a weighted average of the growth in regional prospective HCC risk scores or demographic risk scores, as applicable, across the populations described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. When calculating the weighted average growth in prospective HCC risk scores or demographic risk scores, as applicable, the weight applied to the growth in risk scores for each Medicare enrollment type is equal to the product of the ACO's historical benchmark expenditures, adjusted in accordance with § 425.652(a)(8), for that enrollment type and the ACO's performance year assigned beneficiary person years for that enrollment type.
(e) Determining the cap on regional risk score growth. CMS determines the cap on regional prospective HCC risk score growth by:
(1) Computing the sum of the aggregate growth in regional demographic risk scores as determined in paragraph (d)(2) of this section and 3 percentage points.
(2) Calculating the ACO's aggregate market share by calculating the weighted average of the share of assignable beneficiaries in the ACO's regional service area that are assigned to the ACO for the performance year as determined in § 425.652(b)(2)(iv) across the populations described in § 425.652(b)(1). In calculating this weighted average, the weight applied to the share for each Medicare enrollment type is equal to the ACO's performance year assigned beneficiary person years for that enrollment type.
(3) Adding to the sum computed in paragraph (e)(1) of this section an amount equal to the product of:
(i) The ACO's aggregate market share as determined in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
(ii) The difference between the aggregate growth in regional prospective HCC risk scores as determined in paragraph (d)(2) of this section and the sum determined in paragraph (e)(1) of this section. This difference is subject to a floor of zero.
(f) Determining the regional risk score growth cap adjustment factor. CMS determines the regional risk score growth cap adjustment factor for each Medicare enrollment type to be applied in calculating the regional growth rate described in § 425.652(b) by comparing the aggregate growth in regional prospective HCC risk scores determined in paragraph (d)(2) of this section and, if applicable, the growth in regional prospective HCC risk scores for individual Medicare enrollment types as determined in paragraph (d)(1) of this section with the cap determined in paragraph (e) of this section.
(1) If the aggregate growth in regional prospective HCC risk scores determined in paragraph (d)(2) of this section does not exceed the cap on regional risk score growth determined in paragraph (e) of this section, CMS will set the regional risk score growth cap adjustment factor equal to 1 for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(2) If the aggregate growth in regional prospective HCC risk scores determined in paragraph (d)(2) of this section exceeds the cap determined in paragraph (e) of this section, CMS will compare the growth in regional prospective HCC risk scores for each Medicare enrollment type as determined in paragraph (d)(1) of this section with the cap on regional risk score growth determined in paragraph (e) of this section.
(i) If the growth in regional prospective HCC risk scores for the enrollment type determined in paragraph (d)(1) of this section does not exceed the cap on regional risk score growth determined in paragraph (e) of this section, CMS will set the regional risk score growth cap adjustment factor for that enrollment type equal to 1.
(ii) If the growth in regional prospective HCC risk scores determined in paragraph (d)(1) for the enrollment type exceeds the cap on regional risk score growth determined in paragraph (e) of this section, CMS will set the regional risk score growth cap adjustment factor for that enrollment type equal to the growth in regional prospective HCC risk scores for the enrollment type determined in paragraph (d)(1) of this section divided by the cap on regional risk score growth determined in paragraph (e) of this section.
[88 FR 79549, Nov. 16, 2023, as amended at 89 FR 98576, Dec. 9, 2024]
§ 425.656 Calculating the regional adjustment to the historical benchmark.
(a) General. This section describes the methodology for calculating the regional adjustment to the historical benchmark based on the ACO's regional service area expenditures, making separate calculations for the following populations of beneficiaries: ESRD, disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, and aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries. This section applies to regional adjustment calculations for agreement periods beginning on January 1, 2024, and in subsequent years.
(b) Calculation of an average per capita expenditure amount for the ACO's regional service area. To compute an average per capita expenditure amount for the ACO's regional service area, CMS does all of the following:
(1) Determines the counties included in the ACO's regional service area based on the ACO's BY3 assigned beneficiary population.
(2) Determines the ACO's regional expenditures as specified under § 425.654 for BY3.
(3) Adjusts for differences in severity and case mix between the ACO's assigned beneficiary population for BY3 and the assignable population of beneficiaries for the ACO's regional service area for BY3. The assignable population of beneficiaries is identified for BY3 using the assignment window or expanded window for assignment that is consistent with the beneficiary assignment methodology selected by the ACO for the performance year according to § 425.400(a)(4)(ii).
(c) Calculation of the adjustment. To calculate the adjustment, CMS does all of the following:
(1) Determines the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area as specified under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and the average per capita amount of the ACO's historical benchmark determined under § 425.652(a)(1) through (7) and (c)(2), for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(2) Applies a percentage, as determined in paragraph (e) of this section.
(3) Caps the per capita dollar amount for each Medicare enrollment type (ESRD, disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries) calculated under paragraph (c)(2) of this section at a dollar amount equal to a percentage of national per capita expenditures for Parts A and B services under the original Medicare fee-for-service program in BY3 for assignable beneficiaries in that enrollment type identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to BY3 using data from the CMS Office of the Actuary. The cap is applied as follows:
(i) For positive adjustments, the per capita dollar amount for a Medicare enrollment type is capped at 5 percent of the national per capita expenditure amount for the enrollment type for BY3.
(ii) For negative adjustments, the per capita dollar amount for a Medicare enrollment type is capped at negative 1.5 percent of the national per capita expenditure amount for the enrollment type for BY3.
(4) For negative adjustments, CMS will multiply the regional adjustments calculated in paragraphs (c)(2) or (3) of this section by 1 minus an offset factor equal to the sum of the following—
(i) Proportion of the ACO's BY3 assigned beneficiaries that are dually eligible for Medicare and Medicaid; and
(ii) The difference between the ACO's weighted average prospective HCC risk score for BY3 taken across the four Medicare enrollment types and 1. When calculating the weighted average prospective HCC risk score, the weight applied to the prospective HCC risk score for BY3 for each Medicare enrollment type is equal to the product of the BY3 per capita expenditures for that enrollment type and the BY3 person years for that enrollment type.
(5) The offset factor described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section is subject to a minimum value of zero (representing no offset to the negative regional adjustment) and a maximum value of 1 (representing a full offset to the negative regional adjustment).
(d) Expression of the regional adjustment as a single value. (1) CMS expresses the regional adjustment as a single value by taking a person-year weighted average of the Medicare enrollment type-specific regional adjustment values determined in paragraph (c) of this section.
(2) CMS uses the regional adjustment expressed as a single value for purposes of determining the adjustment, if any, that will be applied to the benchmark in accordance with § 425.652(a)(8).
(e) Phase-in of weights used in regional adjustment calculation. (1) The first time that an ACO's benchmark is adjusted based on the ACO's regional service area expenditures, CMS calculates the regional adjustment as follows:
(i) Using 35 percent of the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's initial or rebased historical benchmark, if the ACO is determined to have lower spending than the ACO's regional service area.
(ii) Using 15 percent of the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's initial or rebased historical benchmark, if the ACO is determined to have higher spending than the ACO's regional service area.
(2) The second time that an ACO's benchmark is adjusted based on the ACO's regional service area expenditures, CMS calculates the regional adjustment as follows:
(i) Using 50 percent of the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's rebased historical benchmark if the ACO is determined to have lower spending than the ACO's regional service area.
(ii) Using 25 percent of the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's rebased historical benchmark if the ACO is determined to have higher spending than the ACO's regional service area.
(3) The third time that an ACO's benchmark is adjusted based on the ACO's regional service area expenditures, CMS calculates the regional adjustment as follows:
(i) Using 50 percent of the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's rebased historical benchmark if the ACO is determined to have lower spending than the ACO's regional service area.
(ii) Using 35 percent of the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's rebased historical benchmark if the ACO is determined to have higher spending than the ACO's regional service area.
(4) The fourth or subsequent time that an ACO's benchmark is adjusted based on the ACO's regional service area expenditures, CMS calculates the regional adjustment to the historical benchmark using 50 percent of the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's rebased historical benchmark.
(5) To determine if an ACO has lower or higher spending compared to the ACO's regional service area, CMS does the following:
(i) Multiplies the difference between the average per capita amount of expenditures for the ACO's regional service area and the average per capita amount of the ACO's historical benchmark for each population of beneficiaries (ESRD, disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries) as calculated under paragraph (c)(1) of this section by the applicable proportion of the ACO's assigned beneficiary population (ESRD, disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries) for BY3 of the historical benchmark.
(ii) Sums the amounts determined in paragraph (e)(5)(i) of this section across the populations of beneficiaries (ESRD, disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries).
(iii) If the resulting sum is a net positive value, the ACO is considered to have lower spending compared to the ACO's regional service area. If the resulting sum is a net negative value, the ACO is considered to have higher spending compared to the ACO's regional service area.
(iv) If during the term of the agreement period CMS adjusts the ACO's benchmark, as specified in § 425.652(a)(9), CMS redetermines whether the ACO is considered to have lower spending or higher spending compared to the ACO's regional service area for purposes of determining the percentage in paragraphs (e)(1) through (3) of this section used in calculating the regional adjustment.
(f) Special rules for determining the weights used in the regional adjustment calculation for a re-entering ACO. For a re-entering ACO whose prior agreement period benchmark was calculated according to § 425.603(c), CMS determines the weight used in the regional adjustment calculation described in paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section by considering the agreement period the ACO is entering into according to § 425.600(f) in combination with either of the following—
(1) The weight previously applied to calculate the regional adjustment to the ACO's benchmark under § 425.603(c)(9) in its most recent prior agreement period; or
(2) For a new ACO identified as a re-entering ACO, CMS considers the weight previously applied to calculate the regional adjustment to the benchmark under § 425.603(c)(9) in its most recent prior agreement period of the ACO in which the majority of the new ACO's participants were participating previously.
[87 FR 70246, Nov. 18, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 79550, Nov. 16, 2023]
§ 425.658 Calculating the prior savings adjustment to the historical benchmark.
(a) General. For agreement periods beginning on January 1, 2024, and in subsequent years, CMS calculates an adjustment to the historical benchmark to account for savings generated in the 3 years prior to the start of the ACO's current agreement period for renewing or re-entering ACOs that were reconciled for one or more performance years in the Shared Savings Program during this period.
(b) Calculate average per capita savings amount. (1) Calculate total per capita savings or losses for each performance year during the 3 years prior to the start of the ACO's current agreement period. CMS applies the following requirements in determining the amount of per capita savings or losses for each performance year:
(i) Per capita savings or losses will be set to zero for a performance year if the ACO was not reconciled for the performance year.
(ii) If an ACO generated savings for a performance year but was not eligible to receive a shared savings payment for that year due to noncompliance with the requirements of this part, per capita savings for that year will be set to zero.
(iii) For a new ACO identified as re-entering ACO, per capita savings or losses will be determined based on the per capita savings or losses of the ACO in which the majority of the ACO's ACO participants were participating.
(2) Take the simple average of the per capita savings or losses calculated in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, including values of zero, if applicable.
(3) Determine the ACO's eligibility for the prior savings adjustment as follows:
(i) If the average per capita amount computed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is less than or equal to zero, the ACO is not eligible to receive an adjustment for prior savings.
(ii) If the average per capita amount computed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is positive, apply a proration factor to account for any upward growth in the ACO's assigned population in the benchmark years of the ACO's current agreement period as compared to the size of the assigned population when the ACO was reconciled for the corresponding performance years in its prior agreement period.
(c) Calculate the per capita prior savings adjustment. (1) If an ACO is eligible for the prior savings adjustment as determined in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the prior savings adjustment will equal the lesser of the following:
(i) 50 percent of the pro-rated average per capita amount computed in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section.
(ii) 5 percent of national per capita expenditures for Parts A and B services under the original Medicare fee-for-service program in BY3 for assignable beneficiaries identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to BY3 using data from the CMS Office of the Actuary and expressed as a single value by taking a person-year weighted average of the Medicare enrollment type-specific values.
(2) [Reserved]
(d) Applicability of the prior savings adjustment. CMS compares the per capita prior savings adjustment determined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section with the regional adjustment, expressed as a single value as described in § 425.656(d), and the population adjustment as determined in § 425.662(b), if any, to determine the adjustment, if any, that will be applied to the ACO's benchmark in accordance with § 425.652(a)(8).
(e) Recalculation of the prior savings adjustment during an agreement period. (1) The ACO's prior savings adjustment is recalculated for changes to the ACO's savings or losses for a performance year used in the prior savings adjustment calculation in accordance with § 425.316(b)(2)(ii)(B) or (C) due to compliance action to address avoidance of at-risk beneficiaries or as a result of issuance of a revised initial determination under § 425.315.
(2) For a new ACO identified as a re-entering ACO, the prior savings adjustment is recalculated for changes to savings or losses for a performance year used in the prior savings adjustment calculation, if the savings or losses of the ACO in which the majority of the new ACO's participants were participating change in accordance with § 425.316(b)(2)(ii)(B) or (C) due to compliance action to address avoidance of at-risk beneficiaries or as a result of issuance of a revised initial determination under § 425.315.
[87 FR 70248, Nov. 18, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 79551, Nov. 16, 2023; 89 FR 98576, Dec. 9, 2024; 90 FR 50020, Nov. 5, 2025]
§ 425.659 Calculating risk scores used in Shared Savings Program benchmark calculations.
(a) General. CMS accounts for differences in severity and case mix of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries and assignable beneficiaries (as defined under § 425.20) in calculations used in establishing, adjusting, and updating the ACO's historical benchmark.
(b) Prospective Hierarchical Condition Category (HCC) risk score calculation. In determining Medicare FFS beneficiary prospective HCC risk scores for a performance year and each benchmark year of the ACO's agreement period, CMS does the following:
(1) CMS specifies the CMS-HCC risk adjustment methodology used to calculate prospective HCC risk scores for Medicare FFS beneficiaries (as defined under § 425.20) for use in Shared Savings Program calculations as follows:
(i) In calculating risk scores for Medicare FFS beneficiaries for a performance year, CMS applies the CMS-HCC risk adjustment methodology applicable for the corresponding calendar year.
(ii) For agreement periods beginning before January 1, 2024, CMS applies the CMS-HCC risk adjustment methodology for the calendar year corresponding to the benchmark year in calculating risk scores for Medicare FFS beneficiaries for each benchmark year of the agreement period.
(iii) For agreement periods beginning on January 1, 2024, and in subsequent years, CMS applies the CMS-HCC risk adjustment methodology for the calendar year corresponding to the performance year, as specified under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, in calculating risk scores for Medicare FFS beneficiaries for each benchmark year of the agreement period.
(2) CMS does the following to calculate the prospective HCC risk scores identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section for a benchmark or performance year:
(i) Removes the Medicare Advantage coding intensity adjustment, if applicable.
(ii) Renormalizes prospective HCC risk scores by Medicare enrollment type (ESRD, disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, and aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries) based on the national assignable FFS population for the relevant benchmark or performance year.
(iii) Calculates the average prospective HCC risk score by Medicare enrollment type (ESRD, disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, and aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries).
[88 FR 79551, Nov. 16, 2023]
§ 425.660 Accountable Care Prospective Trend (ACPT).
(a) General. For agreement periods beginning on January 1, 2024, and in subsequent years, CMS incorporates a fixed projected growth rate determined at the beginning of the ACO's agreement period called the Accountable Care Prospective Trend (ACPT) into the blended update factor described in § 425.652(b) when updating an ACO's benchmark for each performance year of the agreement period.
(b) Determination of ACPT. An ACPT is a flat dollar amount calculated using one or more annualized growth rates based on national fee-for-service Medicare expenditures projected by the CMS Office of the Actuary. In determining the ACPT for an enrollment type for each performance year, CMS does all of the following:
(1) Projects per capita growth in Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for benchmark year 3 (BY3) and each performance year of the ACO's agreement period. The calculation—
(i) Excludes IME and DSH payments, and the supplemental payment for IHS/Tribal hospitals and Puerto Rico hospitals; and
(ii) Makes separate expenditure calculations for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(A) ESRD.
(B) Aged/Disabled.
(2) Calculates one or more annualized growth rates for the population of beneficiaries described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) of this section (the ESRD ACPT) and one or more annualized growth rates for the population of beneficiaries described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B) of this section (the Aged/Disabled ACPT). These annualized growth rates will remain fixed over the ACO's agreement period. The annualized growth rate is an annual rate of growth in projected expenditures during the ACO's 5-year agreement period relative to BY3, calculated as follows—
(i) Using a uniform annualized projected rate of growth over each of the 5 performance years of the 5-year agreement period; or
(ii) If annualization as specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section is determined not to reasonably fit the anticipated growth curve, CMS will apply an alternative annualization technique using two or more annualized growth rates reflecting the projected rates of growth during the 5 performance years comprising the 5-year agreement period.
(3) For each performance year, multiplies the applicable annualized growth rate described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section by BY3 truncated national per capita fee-for-service Medicare expenditures for assignable beneficiaries for each Medicare enrollment type (ESRD, disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, and aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries) identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to BY3 to express the annualized growth rate as a flat dollar amount as follows:
(i) The ESRD ACPT is used for the ESRD population.
(ii) The Aged/Disabled ACPT is used for the following populations: disabled, aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries, and aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(4) Adjusts the flat dollar amounts described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section for each performance year for differences in severity and case mix between the ACO's BY3 assigned beneficiary population and the national assignable FFS population for each Medicare enrollment type identified for the 12-month calendar year corresponding to BY3.
(5) Divides the risk adjusted flat dollar amounts described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section by the ACO's historical benchmark expenditures described in § 425.652(a) for each Medicare enrollment type to calculate the percent increase to be included in the blended update factor described in § 425.652(b)(4).
[87 FR 70248, Nov. 18, 2022]
§ 425.661 [Reserved]
§ 425.662 Calculating the population adjustment to the historical benchmark.
(a) General. For agreement periods beginning on January 1, 2025, and in subsequent years, CMS calculates the population adjustment to the historical benchmark.
(b) Calculation of the population adjustment. To calculate the adjustment described in paragraph (a) of this section, CMS does all of the following:
(1) Calculates the weighted average of the ACO's third benchmark year (BY3) national per capita expenditure amounts across the following populations of beneficiaries, where the weights are the ACO's BY3 proportion of assigned beneficiaries for that enrollment type:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(2) Calculates a scaler as the difference between 5 percent of the national per capita expenditure amount, expressed as single value as calculated in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, and the higher of: the regional adjustment, expressed as a single value as described in § 425.656(d); the per capita prior savings adjustment determined in § 425.658(c); or no adjustment, in the case where the regional adjustment is negative and the ACO is not eligible for the prior savings adjustment under § 425.658(b)(3)(i).
(3) Determines the ACO's eligibility for the population adjustment based on the proportion of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries for the performance year who are enrolled in the Medicare Part D low-income subsidy (LIS) or dually eligible for Medicare and Medicaid. An ACO is only eligible for the population adjustment if this proportion is greater than or equal to 15 percent. An ACO with a proportion less than 15 percent is ineligible to receive the population adjustment.
(4) Calculates the population adjustment. If the ACO is eligible for the population adjustment as determined in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the adjustment is equal to the product of the scaler calculated in paragraph (b)(2) of this section and the proportion of the ACO's assigned beneficiaries for the performance year who are enrolled in the Medicare Part D LIS or dually eligible for Medicare and Medicaid.
(c) Applicability of the population adjustment. CMS compares the population adjustment determined in paragraph (b)(4) of this section with the regional adjustment, expressed as a single value as described in § 425.656(d), and the per capita prior savings adjustment determined in § 425.658(c), if any, to determine the adjustment, if any, that will be applied to the ACO's benchmark in accordance with § 425.652(a)(8)(ii).
[89 FR 98576, Dec. 9, 2024, as amended at 90 FR 50020, Nov. 5, 2025]
§ 425.663-425.669 [Reserved]
§ 425.670 Adjustments to mitigate the impact of significant, anomalous, and highly suspect billing activity on Shared Savings Program financial calculations involving calendar year 2023.
(a) General. This section describes adjustments CMS makes to Shared Savings Program calculations to mitigate the impact of significant, anomalous, and highly suspect billing activity occurring in calendar year 2023.
(b) Significant, anomalous, and highly suspect billing activity for a HCPCS or CPT code impacting Shared Savings Program calculations. CMS has determined that the billing of the following HCPCS codes represents significant, anomalous, and highly suspect billing activity for calendar year 2023 that warrants adjustment—
(1) A4352 (Intermittent urinary catheter; Coude (curved) tip, with or without coating (Teflon, silicone, silicone elastomeric, or hydrophilic, etc.), each); and
(2) A4353 (Intermittent urinary catheter, with insertion supplies).
(c) Applicability of adjustments to performance year and benchmark year calculations. Notwithstanding any other provision in this part, CMS adjusts the following Shared Savings Program calculations, as applicable, to exclude all Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service payment amounts on DMEPOS claims (claim types 72 and 82) associated with a HCPCS code specified in paragraph (b) of this section for the period specified in paragraph (d) of this section:
(1) Calculation of Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for an ACO's assigned beneficiaries for all purposes including the following: Establishing, adjusting, updating, and resetting the ACO's historical benchmark and determining performance year expenditures.
(2) Calculation of fee-for-service expenditures for assignable beneficiaries as used in determining county-level fee-for-service expenditures and national Medicare fee-for-service expenditures, including the following calculations:
(i) Determining average county fee-for-service expenditures based on expenditures for the assignable population of beneficiaries in each county in the ACO's regional service area according to §§ 425.601(c) and 425.654(a) for purposes of calculating the ACO's regional fee-for-service expenditures.
(ii) Determining the 99th percentile of national Medicare fee-for-service expenditures for assignable beneficiaries for purposes of the following:
(A) Truncating assigned beneficiary expenditures used in calculating benchmark expenditures under § 425.652(a)(4), and performance year expenditures under §§ 425.605(a)(3) and 425.610(a)(4).
(B) Truncating expenditures for assignable beneficiaries in each county for purposes of determining county fee-for-service expenditures according to §§ 425.601(c)(3) and 425.654(a)(3).
(C) Truncating expenditures for assignable beneficiaries for purposes of determining truncated national per capita fee-for service expenditures for purposes of calculating the ACPT according to § 425.660(b)(3).
(iii) Determining truncated national per capita fee-for-service Medicare expenditures for assignable beneficiaries for purposes of calculating the ACPT according to § 425.660(b)(3).
(iv) Determining national per capita expenditures for Parts A and B services under the original Medicare fee-for-service program for assignable beneficiaries for purposes of capping the regional adjustment to the ACO's historical benchmark according to § 425.656(c)(3) and capping the prior savings adjustment according to § 425.658(c)(1)(ii).
(v) Determining national growth rates that are used as part of the blended growth rates used to trend forward BY1 and BY2 expenditures to BY3 according to § 425.652(a)(5)(ii) and as part of the blended growth rates used to update the benchmark according to §§ 425.601(b)(2) and 425.652(b)(2)(i).
(3) Calculation of Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service revenue of ACO participants for purposes of calculating the ACO's loss recoupment limit under the BASIC track as specified in § 425.605(d).
(4) Calculation of total Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service revenue of ACO participants and total Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for the ACO's assigned beneficiaries for purposes of identifying whether an ACO is a high revenue ACO or low revenue ACO, as defined under § 425.20, and determining an ACO's eligibility to receive advance investment payments according to § 425.630.
(5) Calculation or recalculation of the amount of the ACO's repayment mechanism arrangement according to § 425.204(f)(4).
(d) Period of adjustment. CMS adjusts the Shared Savings Program calculations specified in paragraph (c) of this section for significant, anomalous, and highly suspect billing activity identified pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section for calendar year 2023, when calendar year 2023 is either a performance year or a benchmark year.
(e) Adjustments for growth rates used in calculating the ACPT. In addition to adjustments described in paragraph (c) of this section, CMS makes adjustments for payments associated with a HCPCS code specified in paragraph (b) of this section for BY3 in projecting per capita growth in Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures, according to § 425.660(b)(1), for purposes of calculating the ACPT for agreement periods beginning on January 1, 2024.
[89 FR 79171, Sept. 27, 2024]
§ 425.672 Adjustments to mitigate the impact of significant, anomalous, and highly suspect billing activity on Shared Savings Program financial calculations involving calendar year 2024 or subsequent calendar years.
(a) General. This section describes adjustments CMS may make to Shared Savings Program calculations to mitigate the impact of significant, anomalous, and highly suspect billing activity occurring in calendar year 2024 or subsequent calendar years.
(b) Significant, anomalous, and highly suspect billing activity for a HCPCS or CPT code impacting Shared Savings Program calculations. CMS, at its sole discretion, may determine that the billing of one or more specified HCPCS or CPT codes represents significant, anomalous, and highly suspect billing activity for a calendar year that warrants adjustment to calculations made under this part.
(c) Applicability of adjustments to performance year and benchmark year calculations. Notwithstanding any other provision in this part, CMS adjusts the following Shared Savings Program calculations, as applicable, to exclude all Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service payment amounts on claims for the specified claim types associated with a HCPCS or CPT code identified pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section for the periods identified in paragraph (d) of this section:
(1) Calculation of Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for an ACO's assigned beneficiaries for all purposes including the following: Establishing, adjusting, updating, and resetting the ACO's historical benchmark and determining performance year expenditures.
(2) Calculation of fee-for-service expenditures for assignable beneficiaries as used in determining county-level fee-for-service expenditures and national Medicare fee-for-service expenditures, including the following calculations:
(i) Determining average county fee-for-service expenditures based on expenditures for the assignable population of beneficiaries in each county in the ACO's regional service area according to §§ 425.601(c) and 425.654(a) for purposes of calculating the ACO's regional fee-for-service expenditures.
(ii) Determining the 99th percentile of national Medicare fee-for-service expenditures for assignable beneficiaries for purposes of the following:
(A) Truncating assigned beneficiary expenditures used in calculating benchmark expenditures under §§ 425.601(a)(4) and 425.652(a)(4), and performance year expenditures under §§ 425.605(a)(3) and 425.610(a)(4).
(B) Truncating expenditures for assignable beneficiaries in each county for purposes of determining county fee-for-service expenditures according to §§ 425.601(c)(3) and 425.654(a)(3).
(C) Truncating expenditures for assignable beneficiaries for purposes of determining truncated national per capita fee-for service expenditures for purposes of calculating the ACPT according to § 425.660(b)(3).
(iii) Determining truncated national per capita fee-for-service Medicare expenditures for assignable beneficiaries for purposes of calculating the ACPT according to § 425.660(b)(3).
(iv) Determining national per capita expenditures for Parts A and B services under the original Medicare fee-for-service program for assignable beneficiaries for purposes of capping the regional adjustment to the ACO's historical benchmark according to §§ 425.601(a)(8)(ii)(C) and 425.656(c)(3), capping the prior savings adjustment according to § 425.658(c)(1)(ii), capping the prepaid shared savings multiplier according to § 425.640(f)(2)(v), and calculating the scaler according to § 425.662(b)(2).
(v) Determining national growth rates that are used as part of the blended growth rates used to trend forward BY1 and BY2 expenditures to BY3 according to §§ 425.601(a)(5)(ii) and 425.652(a)(5)(ii) and as part of the blended growth rates used to update the benchmark according to §§ 425.601(b)(2) and 425.652(b)(2)(i).
(3) Calculation of Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service revenue of ACO participants for purposes of calculating the ACO's loss recoupment limit under the BASIC track as specified in § 425.605(d).
(4) Calculation of total Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service revenue of ACO participants and total Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for the ACO's assigned beneficiaries for purposes of identifying whether an ACO is a high revenue ACO or low revenue ACO, as defined under § 425.20, determining an ACO's eligibility to receive advance investment payments according to § 425.630, and determining whether an ACO qualifies for a shared savings payment under § 425.605(h).
(5) Calculation or recalculation of the amount of the ACO's repayment mechanism arrangement according to § 425.204(f)(4).
(d) Periods of adjustment. CMS adjusts the Shared Savings Program calculations identified in paragraph (c) of this section for significant, anomalous, and highly suspect billing activity identified for calendar year 2024 or subsequent calendar years as follows:
(1) The calendar year for which the significant, anomalous, and highly suspect billing activity was identified pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, when it is either a performance year or a benchmark year.
(2) The 3 most recent years prior to the start of the ACO's agreement period used in establishing the historical benchmark, when such a benchmark is used to reconcile the ACO for a performance year adjusted in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
(e) Adjustments for growth rates used in calculating the ACPT. In addition to adjustments described in paragraph (c) of this section, CMS makes adjustments for payments associated with a HCPCS or CPT code identified pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section for any calendar year corresponding to BY3 in projecting per capita growth in Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures, according to § 425.660(b)(1), for purposes of calculating the ACPT for agreement periods beginning on January 1, 2024, and in subsequent years.
[89 FR 98576, Dec. 9, 2024, as amended at 90 FR 50020, Nov. 5, 2025]
§ 425.674 Accounting for the impact of improper payments on Shared Savings Program financial calculations.
(a) General rule. Upon the reopening of an initial determination pursuant to § 425.315(a)(4), CMS will use the methodology specified in this section to account for the impact of improper payments when:
(1) Determining savings or losses for the relevant performance year in accordance with § 425.315 in order to issue a revised initial determination.
(2) Adjusting the benchmark by recalculating benchmark year expenditures under §§ 425.601(a)(9)(iii) and 425.652(a)(9)(viii) in the event that CMS recalculates a payment determination and issues a revised initial determination for the corresponding performance year in a prior agreement period, in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
(b) Improper payment. For the purpose of this section, improper payment includes:
(1) An amount associated with a demanded overpayment determination.
(2) An amount identified in a settlement agreement or judgment, pursuant to conduct by individuals or entities performing functions or services related to an ACO's activities, less any penalties or damages.
(c) Accounting for improper payments. To adjust Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditures for improper payments CMS does the following:
(1) Identify each Shared Savings Program expenditure calculation for a performance year or benchmark year, as calculated according to the standard methodology described in this subpart and expressed as a per capita dollar amount, that will be adjusted for the impact of improper payments.
(2) Determine each specific population of Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries used to calculate the expenditure amount identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. The populations relevant for a specific expenditure calculation may include:
(i) The population of beneficiaries assigned to the ACO for calculating the ACO's performance year or benchmark year expenditures.
(ii) The population of assignable beneficiaries in each county in the ACO's regional service area for calculating county-level expenditures.
(iii) The national population of assignable beneficiaries for calculating national assignable expenditures.
(iv) The national population of Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries for calculating national expenditures.
(3) Determine the per capita amount of improper payments for the performance year or benchmark year included in the per capita Medicare Parts A and B fee-for-service expenditure amount for a population identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section for all providers or suppliers with identified improper payments.
(4) Subtract the per capita amount determined in paragraph (c)(3) of this section from the expenditure calculation identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section for the population identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section for each of the following populations of beneficiaries:
(i) ESRD.
(ii) Disabled.
(iii) Aged/dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(iv) Aged/non-dual eligible Medicare and Medicaid beneficiaries.
(5) If applicable, CMS will do the following to adjust regional expenditures for improper payments:
(i) Adjust county-level fee-for-service expenditures determined under paragraph (c)(4) of this section, for each county in the ACO's regional service area, for severity and case mix of assignable beneficiaries in the county using prospective HCC risk scores. This calculation is made for each of the populations of beneficiaries identified in paragraphs (c)(4)(i) through (iv) of this section.
(ii) Weight the risk adjusted county-level fee-for-service expenditures determined under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section according to the ACO's proportion of assigned beneficiaries in the county, determined in accordance with § 425.601(d)(1), § 425.603(f)(1), or § 425.654(b)(1), as applicable, for each of the populations of beneficiaries identified in paragraphs (c)(4)(i) through (iv) of this section.
(iii) Aggregate the values determined in paragraph (c)(5)(ii) of this section for each of the populations of beneficiaries identified in paragraphs (c)(4)(i) through (iv) of this section across all counties within the ACO's regional service area.
(d) Determining the per capita amount of improper payments. CMS may use one or more of the following approaches to determine the per capita amount that will be used to adjust expenditure calculations identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section:
(1) Calculate aggregate improper payments attributable to a population identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section for each provider or supplier that had improper payments.
(i) For improper payments associated with specific claims, CMS will do the following:
(A) For improper payments to a provider or supplier that correspond to payment amounts on claims or line items that were used in a Shared Savings Program calculation identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, and subsequently adjusted after the 3-month claims run out period, CMS will sum the improper payment amounts across all such claims or line items with dates of service during the period used to calculate performance year or benchmark year expenditures for the population identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
(B) In the event CMS determines it is necessary to account for the impact of improper payments on Shared Savings Program financial calculations by adjusting the payment amounts for a specific HCPCS or CPT code billed by the provider or supplier for the population identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, CMS will do the following—
(1) Identify the applicable claims or line items with dates of service during the period used to calculate performance year or benchmark year expenditures processed before the end of the applicable 3-month claims run out period;
(2) Sum the claim or line item payment amounts, on the claims or line items identified in paragraph (d)(1)(i)(B)(1) of this section; and
(3) If applicable, multiply the sum calculated in paragraph (d)(1)(i)(B)(2) of this section by a scaling factor to compute the payment differential between the HCPCS or CPT code that was improperly billed and a CMS-identified alternate code.
(ii) For aggregate improper payment amounts that are not linked to specific claims or line items, CMS will calculate the amount attributable to the population identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section by applying a proration factor to the aggregate improper payment amount identified for that provider or supplier. CMS calculates the proration factor as follows:
(A) The denominator of the proration factor is total Medicare Parts A and B claim or line item payment amounts to the provider or supplier for all fee-for-service beneficiaries on claims of specified claim types for the time period associated with the aggregate improper payment amount identified for the provider or supplier that were made before the end of the applicable 3-month claims run out period.
(B) The numerator of the proration factor is the portion of the total from the denominator, in paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, that CMS determines is attributable to the population identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section with dates of service during the period used to calculate expenditures for the applicable performance year or benchmark year.
(2) Sum the amounts calculated pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section attributable to a population identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section across all providers or suppliers that had identified improper payments.
(3) Take the lesser of the following two values—
(i) The sum from paragraph (d)(2) of this section; or
(ii) Total Medicare Parts A and B claim or line item payment amounts to all providers or suppliers that had improper payments for the population identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section on claims of specified claim types with dates of service within the performance year or benchmark year made before the end of the applicable 3-month claims run out period.
(4) Express the lesser-of amount from paragraph (d)(3) of this section as a per capita value by dividing by the total beneficiary person years in the population identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section for the applicable performance year or the benchmark year.
[89 FR 98577, Dec. 9, 2024]
Subpart H Data Sharing With ACOs
§ 425.700 General rules.
(a) CMS shares aggregate reports with the ACO.
(b) CMS shares beneficiary identifiable data with ACOs on the condition that the ACO, its ACO participants, ACO providers/suppliers, and other individuals or entities performing functions or services related to the ACO's activities observe all relevant statutory and regulatory provisions regarding the appropriate use of data and the confidentiality and privacy of individually identifiable health information and comply with the terms of the data use agreement described in this subpart.
(c) The ACO must not limit or restrict appropriate sharing of medical record data with providers and suppliers both within and outside the ACO in accordance with applicable law.
§ 425.702 Aggregate reports.
CMS shares aggregate reports with ACOs as follows:
(a) Aggregate reports are shared at the start of the agreement period based on beneficiary claims data used to calculate the benchmark, and each quarter thereafter during the agreement period.
(b) These aggregate reports include, when available, the following information, deidentified in accordance with 45 CFR 164.514(b):
(1) Aggregated metrics on the assigned beneficiary population.
(2) Utilization and expenditure data at the start of the agreement period based on historical beneficiaries used to calculate the benchmark.
(c)(1)(i) For performance years 2012 through 2015, at the beginning of the agreement period, during each quarter (and in conjunction with the annual reconciliation), and at the beginning of each performance year, CMS, upon the ACO's request for the data for purposes of population-based activities relating to improving health or reducing growth in health care costs, process development, case management, and care coordination, will provide the ACO with information regarding preliminarily prospectively assigned beneficiaries whose data was used to generate the aggregate data reports under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. The information includes the following:
(A) Beneficiary name.
(B) Date of birth.
(C) HICN.
(D) Sex.
(ii) For performance year 2016 and subsequent performance years, at the beginning of the agreement period, during each quarter (and in conjunction with the annual reconciliation), and at the beginning of each performance year, CMS, upon the ACO's request for the data for purposes of population-based activities relating to improving health or reducing growth in health care costs, protocol development, case management, and care coordination, provides the ACO with information about its fee-for-service population.
(A) For an ACO participating under preliminary prospective assignment with retrospective reconciliation as specified under § 425.400(a)(2), the following information is made available regarding preliminarily prospectively assigned beneficiaries and beneficiaries that received a primary care service during the previous 12 months from one of the ACO participants that submits claims for primary care services used to determine the ACO's assigned population under subpart E of this part:
(1) Beneficiary name.
(2) Date of birth.
(3) Beneficiary identifier.
(4) Sex.
(B) For an ACO participating under preliminary prospective assignment with retrospective reconciliation as specified under § 425.400(a)(2), information in the following categories, which represents the minimum data necessary for ACOs to conduct health care operations work, is made available regarding preliminarily prospectively assigned beneficiaries:
(1) Demographic data such as enrollment status.
(2) Health status information such as risk profile and chronic condition subgroup.
(3) Utilization rates of Medicare services such as the use of evaluation and management, hospital, emergency, and post-acute services, including the dates and place of service.
(4) Expenditure information related to utilization of services.
(C) The information under paragraphs (c)(1)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section is made available to ACOs participating under prospective assignment as specified under § 425.400(a)(3), but is limited to the ACO's prospectively assigned beneficiaries.
(iii) For performance year 2024 and subsequent performance years, CMS, upon the ACO's request for the data for purposes of population-based activities relating to improving health or reducing growth in health care costs, protocol development, case management, and care coordination, provides the ACO with information about its fee-for-service population.
(A) The following information is made available to ACOs regarding beneficiaries eligible for Medicare CQMs as defined at § 425.20:
(1) Beneficiary name.
(2) Date of birth.
(3) Beneficiary identifier.
(4) Sex.
(B) Information in the following categories, which represents the minimum data necessary for ACOs to conduct health care operations work, is made available to ACOs regarding beneficiaries eligible for Medicare CQMs as defined at § 425.20:
(1) Demographic data such as enrollment status.
(2) Health status information such as risk profile and chronic condition subgroup.
(3) Utilization rates of Medicare services such as the use of evaluation and management, hospital, emergency, and post-acute services, including the dates and place of service.
(2) In its request for these data, the ACO must certify that it is seeking the following information:
(i) As a HIPAA-covered entity, and the request reflects the minimum data necessary for the ACO to conduct its own health care operations work that falls within the first or second paragraph of the definition of health care operations at 45 CFR 164.501.
(ii) As the business associate of its ACO participants and ACO providers/suppliers, who are HIPAA-covered entities, and the request reflects the minimum data necessary for the ACO to conduct health care operations work that falls within the first or second paragraph of the definition of health care operations at 45 CFR 164.501 on behalf of those participants.
(iii) As an organized health care arrangement (as defined at 45 CFR 160.103), and the request reflects the minimum data necessary for the ACO to conduct health care operations work that falls within the first or second paragraph of the definition of health care operations at 45 CFR 164.501 on behalf of the organized health care arrangement.
(d) For an ACO eligible to be reconciled under § 425.609(b), CMS shares with the ACO quarterly aggregate reports as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c)(1)(ii) of this section for CY 2019.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32844, June 9, 2015; 83 FR 60096, Nov. 23, 2018; 83 FR 68081, Dec. 31, 2018; 87 FR 70249, Nov. 18, 2022; 88 FR 79551, Nov. 16, 2023]
§ 425.704 Beneficiary-identifiable claims data.
Subject to providing the beneficiary with the opportunity to decline data sharing as described in this § 425.708, and subject to having a valid DUA in place, CMS, upon the ACO's request for the data for purposes of evaluating the performance of its ACO participants or its ACO providers/suppliers, conducting quality assessment and improvement activities, and conducting population-based activities relating to improved health, will provide the ACO with beneficiary identifiable claims data for preliminarily prospectively and prospectively assigned beneficiaries and other beneficiaries who receive primary care services from an ACO participant that submits claims for primary care services used to determine the ACO's assigned population under subpart E of this part during the performance year.
(a) If an ACO wishes to receive beneficiary identifiable claims data, it must sign a DUA and it must submit a formal request for data. ACOs may access requested data as often as once per month.
(b) The ACO must certify that it is requesting claims data about any of the following:
(1) Its own patients, as a HIPAA-covered entity, and the request reflects the minimum data necessary for the ACO to conduct its own health care operations work that falls within the first or second paragraph of the definition of health care operations at 45 CFR 164.501.
(2) The patients of its HIPAA-covered entity ACO participants or its ACO providers/suppliers as the business associate of these HIPAA covered entities, and the request reflects the minimum data necessary for the ACO to conduct health care operations work that falls within the first or second paragraph of the definition of health care operations at 45 CFR 164.501 on behalf of those participants.
(3) The patients of the organized health care arrangement (as defined at 45 CFR 160.103) in which the ACO is participating with its ACO participants and ACO providers/suppliers, and the request reflects the minimum data necessary for the ACO to conduct health care operations work that falls within the first or second paragraph of the definition of health care operations at 45 CFR 164.501 on behalf of the organized health care arrangement.
(c) The use of identifiers and claims data will be limited to developing processes and engaging in appropriate activities related to coordinating care and improving the quality and efficiency of care that are applied uniformly to all Medicare beneficiaries with primary care services at the ACO, and that these data will not be used to reduce, limit or restrict care for specific beneficiaries.
(d) To ensure that beneficiaries have a meaningful opportunity to decline having their claims data shared with the ACO, the ACO may only request claims data about a beneficiary if—
(1) For an ACO participating under—
(i) Preliminary prospective assignment with retrospective reconciliation as specified under § 425.400(a)(2), the beneficiary's name appears on the preliminary prospective assignment list provided to the ACO at the beginning of the performance year, during each quarter (and in conjunction with the annual reconciliation) or the beneficiary has received a primary care service from an ACO participant upon whom assignment is based (under subpart E of this part) during the most recent 12-month period; or
(ii) Prospective assignment as specified under § 425.400(a)(3), the beneficiary's name appears on the prospective assignment list provided to the ACO at the beginning of the performance year.
(2) The beneficiary has been notified in compliance with § 425.708 that the ACO has requested access to beneficiary identifiable claims data in order to improve the quality of care that is furnished to the beneficiary and, where applicable, coordinate care offered to the beneficiary; and
(3) The beneficiary did not exercise the opportunity to decline having his/her claims data shared with the ACO as provided in § 425.708.
(e) At the ACO's request, CMS continues to provide ACOs with updates to the requested beneficiary identifiable claims data, subject to beneficiary's opportunity to decline data sharing under § 425.708.
(f) If an ACO requests beneficiary identifiable information, compliance with the terms of the data use agreement described in § 425.710 is a condition of an ACO's participation in the Shared Savings Program.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32844, June 9, 2015; 83 FR 68082, Dec. 31, 2018; 87 FR 70249, Nov. 18, 2022]
§ 425.706 Minimum necessary data.
(a) ACOs must limit their identifiable data requests to the minimum necessary to accomplish a permitted use of the data. The minimum necessary Parts A and B data elements may include but are not limited to the following data elements:
(1) Beneficiary ID.
(2) Procedure code.
(3) Gender.
(4) Diagnosis code.
(5) Claim ID.
(6) The from and through dates of service.
(7) The provider or supplier ID.
(8) The claim payment type.
(9) Date of birth and death, if applicable.
(10) TIN.
(11) NPI.
(b) The minimum necessary Part D data elements may include but are not limited to the following data elements:
(1) Beneficiary ID.
(2) Prescriber ID.
(3) Drug service date.
(4) Drug product service ID.
(5) Quantity dispensed.
(6) Days supplied.
(7) Brand name.
(8) Generic name.
(9) Drug strength.
(10) TIN.
(11) NPI.
(12) Indication if on formulary.
(13) Gross drug cost.
§ 425.708 Beneficiaries may decline claims data sharing.
(a) Beneficiaries must receive notification about the Shared Savings Program and the opportunity to decline claims data sharing and instructions on how to inform CMS directly of their preference.
(1) FFS beneficiaries are notified about the opportunity to decline claims data sharing through CMS materials such as the Medicare & You Handbook and through the notifications required under § 425.312.
(2) The notifications provided under § 425.312 must state that the ACO may have requested beneficiary identifiable claims data about the beneficiary for purposes of its care coordination and quality improvement work, and inform the beneficiary how to decline having his or her claims information shared with the ACO in the form and manner specified by CMS.
(3) Beneficiary requests to decline claims data sharing will remain in effect unless and until a beneficiary subsequently contacts CMS to amend that request to permit claims data sharing with ACOs.
(b) The opportunity to decline having claims data shared with an ACO under paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to the information that CMS provides to ACOs under § 425.702(c).
(c) In accordance with 42 U.S.C. 290dd-2 and the implementing regulations at 42 CFR part 2, CMS does not share beneficiary identifiable claims data relating to the diagnosis and treatment of alcohol and substance abuse without the explicit written consent of the beneficiary.
(d) The provisions of this section relate only to the sharing of Medicare claims data between the Medicare program and the ACO under the Shared Savings Program and are in no way intended to impede existing or future data sharing under other authorities.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32840, June 9, 2015]
§ 425.710 Data use agreement.
(a)(1) Before receiving any beneficiary identifiable data, ACOs must enter into a DUA with CMS. Under the DUA, the ACO must comply with the limitations on use and disclosure that are imposed by HIPAA, the applicable DUA, and the statutory and regulatory requirements of the Shared Savings Program.
(2) If the ACO misuses or discloses data in a manner that violates any applicable statutory or regulatory requirements or that is otherwise non-compliant with the provisions of the DUA, it will no longer be eligible to receive data under subpart H of this part, may be terminated from the Shared Savings Program under § 425.218, and may be subject to additional sanctions and penalties available under the law.
(b) [Reserved]
Subpart I Reconsideration Review Process
§ 425.800 Preclusion of administrative and judicial review.
(a) There is no reconsideration, appeal, or other administrative or judicial review of the following determinations under this part:
(1) The specification of quality and performance standards under §§ 425.500, 425.502, 425.510, and 425.512.
(2) The assessment of the quality of care furnished by an ACO under the performance standards established in § 425.502 or § 425.512, as applicable.
(3) The assignment of Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries under Subpart E of this part.
(4) The initial determination or revised initial determination of whether an ACO is eligible for shared savings, and the amount of such shared savings, including the initial determination or revised initial determination of the estimated average per capita Medicare expenditures under the ACO for Medicare fee-for-service beneficiaries assigned to the ACO and the average benchmark for the ACO in accordance with section 1899(d) of the Act, as implemented under §§ 425.601, 425.602, 425.603, 425.604, 425.605, 425.606, 425.610, and 425.652.
(5) The percent of shared savings specified by the Secretary and the limit on the total amount of shared savings established under §§ 425.604, 425.605, 425.606, and 425.610.
(6) The termination of an ACO for failure to meet the quality performance standards established under § 425.502 or § 425.512, as applicable.
(7) The termination of a beneficiary incentive program established under § 425.304(c).
(b) [Reserved]
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 38017, June 10, 2016; 83 FR 68082, Dec. 31, 2018; 85 FR 85044, Dec. 28, 2020; 87 FR 70249, Nov. 18, 2022]
§ 425.802 Request for review.
(a) An ACO may appeal an initial determination that is not prohibited from administrative or judicial review under § 425.800 by requesting a reconsideration review by a CMS reconsideration official.
(1) An ACO that wants to request reconsideration review by a CMS reconsideration official must submit a written request by an authorized official for receipt by CMS within 15 days of the notice of the initial determination.
(i) If the 15th day is a weekend or a Federal holiday, then the timeframe is extended until the end of the next business day.
(ii) Failure to submit a request for reconsideration within 15 days will result in denial of the request for reconsideration.
(2) The reconsideration review must be held on the record (review of submitted documentation).
(b) An ACO that requests a reconsideration review for termination will remain operational throughout the review process.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32845, June 9, 2015]
§ 425.804 Reconsideration review process.
(a) Acknowledgement of reconsideration review request. The reconsideration official sends an acknowledgement of the reconsideration review request to the ACO and CMS that includes the following:
(1) Review procedures.
(2) Procedures for submission of evidence including format and timelines.
(3) A briefing schedule that permits each party to submit only one written brief, including any evidence, for consideration by the reconsideration official in support of the party's position. The submission of any additional briefs or supplemental evidence will be at the sole discretion of the reconsideration official.
(b) Burden of proof, standard of proof, and standards of review. The burden of proof is on the ACO to demonstrate to the reconsideration official with convincing evidence that the initial determination is not consistent with the requirements of this part or applicable statutory authority.
(c) Reconsideration official. The reconsideration official is an independent CMS official who did not participate in the initial determination that is being reviewed.
(d) Evidence. (1) The reconsideration official's review will be based only on evidence submitted by the reconsideration official's requested deadline, unless otherwise requested by the reconsideration official.
(2) Documentation submitted for the record as evidence cannot be documentation that was not previously submitted to CMS by the applicable deadline and in the requested format.
(3) All evidence submitted by the ACO and CMS, in preparation for the reconsideration review will be shared with the other party to the hearing.
(e) The reconsideration official will notify CMS and the ACO of his or her recommendation.
[76 FR 67973, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32845, June 9, 2015]
§ 425.806 On-the-record review of reconsideration official's recommendation by independent CMS official.
(a)(1) If CMS or the ACO disagrees with the recommendation of the reconsideration official, it may request an on the record review of the initial determination and recommendation by an independent CMS official who was not involved in the initial determination or the reconsideration review process.
(2) In order to request an on-the-record review, CMS or the ACO must submit an explanation of why it disagrees with the recommendation by the timeframe and in the format indicated in the reconsideration official's recommendation letter.
(b) The on-the-record review process is based only on evidence presented during the reconsideration review.
(c) The independent CMS official considers the recommendation of the reconsideration official and makes a final agency determination.
§ 425.808 Effect of independent CMS official's decision.
(a) The decision of the independent CMS official is final and binding.
(b) The reconsideration review process under this subpart must not be construed to negate, diminish, or otherwise alter the applicability of existing laws, rules, and regulations or determinations made by other government agencies.
§ 425.810 Effective date of decision.
(a) If the initial determination denying an ACO's application to participate in the Shared Savings Program is upheld, the application will remain denied based on the effective date of the original notice of denial.
(b) If the initial determination to terminate an agreement with an ACO is upheld, the decision to terminate the agreement is effective as of the date indicated in the initial notice of termination.
(c) If the initial determination to terminate an ACO is reversed, the ACO is reinstated into the Shared Savings Program, retroactively back to the original date of termination.
PART 426 REVIEW OF NATIONAL COVERAGE DETERMINATIONS AND LOCAL COVERAGE DETERMINATIONS
Authority: Secs. 1102 and 1871 of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 1302 and 1395hh)
Source: 68 FR 63716, Nov. 7, 2003, unless otherwise noted.
Subpart A General Provisions
§ 426.100 Basis and scope.
(a) Basis. This part implements sections 1869(f)(1) and (f)(2) of the Act, which provide for the review of LCDs, NCDs, and certain determinations that are deemed to be NCDs by statute.
(b) Scope. This subpart establishes the requirements and procedures for the review of LCDs and NCDs.
§ 426.110 Definitions.
For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
Aggrieved party means a Medicare beneficiary, or the estate of a Medicare beneficiary, who—
(1) Is entitled to benefits under Part A, enrolled under Part B, or both (including an individual enrolled in fee-for-service Medicare, in a Medicare + Choice plan, or in another Medicare managed care plan);
(2) Is in need of coverage for a service that is denied based on an applicable LCD (in the relevant jurisdiction) or an NCD, regardless of whether the service was received; and
(3) Has obtained documentation of the need by the beneficiary's treating physician.
Board means the Departmental Appeals Board.
Clinical and scientific experts mean experts that are consulted by the ALJ or Board as independent and impartial individuals, with significant experience and/or published work, pertaining to the subject of the review.
Contractor means a carrier (including a Durable Medical Equipment Regional Carrier), or a fiscal intermediary (including a Regional Home Health Intermediary) that has jurisdiction for the LCD at issue.
Deemed NCD means a determination that the Secretary makes, in response to a request for an NCD under section 1869(f)(4)(B) and (C) of the Act, that no national coverage or noncoverage determination is appropriate, or the Secretary's failure to meet the deadline under section 1869(f)(4)(A)(iv) of the Act.
New evidence means clinical or scientific evidence that was not previously considered by the contractor or CMS before the LCD or NCD was issued.
Party means an aggrieved party, which is an individual, or estate who has a right to participate in the LCD or NCD review process, and, as appropriate, a contractor or CMS.
Proprietary data and Privileged information means information from a source external to CMS or a contractor, or protected health information, that meets the following criteria:
(1) It is ordinarily protected from disclosure in accordance with 45 CFR part 164, under the Trade Secrets Act (18 U.S.C. 1905) or under Exemptions 4 or 5 of the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) as specified in 45 CFR 5.31(d) and (e).
(2) The party who possesses the right to protection of the information from public release or disclosure has not provided its consent to the public release or disclosure of the information. Any information submitted by the public that is not marked proprietary is not considered proprietary.
Reasonableness standard means the standard that an ALJ or the Board must apply when conducting an LCD or an NCD review. In determining whether LCDs or NCDs are valid, the adjudicator must uphold a challenged policy (or a provision or provisions of a challenged policy) if the findings of fact, interpretations of law, and applications of fact to law by the contractor or CMS are reasonable based on the LCD or NCD record and the relevant record developed before the ALJ or the Board.
Supplemental LCD/NCD record is a record that the contractor/CMS provides to the ALJ/Board and any aggrieved party and consists of all materials received and considered during a reconsideration. Materials that are already in the record before the ALJ/Board (for example, new evidence presented in the taking of evidence or hearing) need not be provided but may be incorporated by reference in the supplement to the LCD/NCD record. The contractor/CMS may provide statements, evidence, or other submissions to the ALJ/Board during the proceedings, as provided elsewhere in these regulations, but these submissions are not considered as supplementing the LCD/NCD record.
Treating physician means the physician who is the beneficiary's primary clinician with responsibility for overseeing the beneficiary's care and either approving or providing the service at issue in the challenge.
[68 FR 63716, Nov. 7, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 72909, Nov. 16, 2020]
§ 426.120 Calculation of deadlines.
In counting days, Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are included. If a due date falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the due date is the next Federal working day.
§ 426.130 Party submissions.
Any party submitting material, except for material for which a privilege is asserted, or proprietary data, to the ALJ or the Board after that party's initial challenge must serve the material on all other parties at the same time.
B Subpart B [Reserved]
Subpart C General Provisions for the Review of LCDs and NCDs
§ 426.300 Review of LCDs, NCDs, and deemed NCDs.
(a) Upon the receipt of an acceptable LCD complaint as described in § 426.400, an ALJ conducts a review of a challenged provision (or provisions) of an LCD using the reasonableness standard.
(b) Upon the receipt of an acceptable NCD complaint as described in § 426.500, the Board conducts an NCD review of a challenged provision (or provisions) of an NCD using the reasonableness standard.
(c) The procedures established in this part governing the review of NCDs also apply in cases in which a deemed NCD is challenged.
§ 426.310 LCD and NCD reviews and individual claim appeals.
(a) LCD and NCD reviews are distinct from the claims appeal processes set forth in part 405, subparts G and H; part 417, subpart Q; and part 422, subpart M of this chapter.
(b) An aggrieved party must notify the ALJ or the Board, as appropriate, regarding the submission and disposition of any pending claim or appeal relating to the subject of the aggrieved party's LCD or NCD complaint. This reporting obligation continues through the entire LCD or NCD review process.
§ 426.320 Who may challenge an LCD or NCD.
(a) Only an aggrieved party may initiate a review of an LCD or NCD (including a deemed NCD), or provisions of an LCD or NCD by filing an acceptable complaint.
(b) Neither an ALJ nor the Board recognizes as valid any attempt to assign rights to request review under section 1869(f) of the Act.
§ 426.325 What may be challenged.
(a) Only LCDs or NCDs (including deemed NCDs) that are currently effective may be challenged.
(b) Some items are not reviewable under this part, including the following:
(1) Pre-decisional materials, including—
(i) Draft LCDs;
(ii) Template LCDs or suggested LCDs; and
(iii) Draft NCDs, including national coverage decision memoranda.
(2) Retired LCDs or withdrawn NCDs.
(3) LCD or NCD provisions that are no longer in effect due to revisions or reconsiderations.
(4) Interpretive policies that are not an LCD or NCD.
(5) Contractor decisions that are not based on section 1862(a)(1)(A) of the Act.
(6) Contractor claims processing edits.
(7) Payment amounts or methodologies.
(8) Procedure coding issues, including determinations, methodologies, definitions, or provisions.
(9) Contractor bulletin articles, educational materials, or Web site frequently asked questions.
(10) Any M + C organization or managed care plan policy, rule, or procedure.
(11) An individual claim determination.
(12) Any other policy that is not an LCD or an NCD as set forth in § 400.202 of this chapter.
§ 426.330 Burden of proof.
During an LCD or NCD review, an aggrieved party bears the burden of proof and the burden of persuasion for the issue(s) raised in a complaint. The burden of persuasion is judged by a preponderance of the evidence.
§ 426.340 Procedures for review of new evidence.
(a) The process for review of new evidence is initiated once the ALJ/Board completes the taking of evidence.
(b) If an aggrieved party has submitted new evidence pertaining to the LCD/NCD provision(s) in question, and the ALJ or the Board finds that evidence admissible, the ALJ or the Board reviews the record as a whole and decide whether the new evidence has the potential to significantly affect the ALJ's or the Board's evaluation of the LCD/NCD provision(s) in question under the reasonableness standard.
(c) If the ALJ or the Board determines that the new evidence does not have the potential to significantly affect the ALJ's or the Board's evaluation of the LCD/NCD provision(s) in question under the reasonableness standard, this evidence is included in the review record, and the review goes forward to a decision on the merits.
(d) If the ALJ or the Board determines that the new evidence has the potential to significantly affect the ALJ's or the Board's evaluation of the LCD or NCD provision(s) in question under the reasonableness standard, then the ALJ or the Board—
(1) Stays the proceedings and ensures that the contractor or CMS, whichever is appropriate, has a copy of the new evidence for its examination; and
(2) Allows the contractor/CMS 10 days, generally, to examine the new evidence, and to decide whether the contractor or CMS initiates a reconsideration.
(e) If the contractor or CMS informs the ALJ or the Board by the end of the 10 days that a reconsideration is initiated, and then the ALJ or the Board—
(1) Continues the stay in proceedings; and
(2) Sets a reasonable timeframe—
(i) For LCDs, of not more than 90 days, by which the contractor completes the reconsideration; or
(ii) For NCDs, in compliance with the timeframes specified in section 1862(1) of the Act, by which CMS completes the reconsideration.
(f) The ALJ or Board lifts the stay in proceedings and continues the review on the challenged provision(s) of the original LCD or NCD, including the new evidence in the review record, if the contractor or CMS—
(1) Informs the ALJ or Board that a reconsideration is not initiated; or
(2) Does not meet—
(i) For LCDs, the 90-day reconsideration timeframe; or
(ii) For NCDs, the reconsideration timeframe specified by the Board, in compliance with section 1862(l) of the Act.
(g) If an LCD or NCD is reconsidered and revised within the timeframe allotted by the ALJ or Board, then the revised LCD or NCD and any supplement to the LCD or NCD record is forwarded to the ALJ or the Board and all parties and the review proceeds on the LCD or NCD.
[68 FR 63716, Nov. 7, 2003, as amended at 70 FR 70335, Nov. 21, 2005; 71 FR 9461, Feb. 24, 2006]
Subpart D Review of an LCD
§ 426.400 Procedure for filing an acceptable complaint concerning a provision (or provisions) of an LCD.
(a) The complaint. An aggrieved party may initiate a review of an LCD by filing a written complaint with the office designated by CMS on the Medicare Web site, http://www.medicare.gov/coverage/static/appeals.asp.
(b) Timeliness of a complaint. An LCD complaint is not considered timely unless it is filed with the office designated by CMS within—
(1) 6 months of the issuance of a written statement from each aggrieved party's treating practitioner, in the case of aggrieved parties who choose to file an LCD challenge before receiving the service; or
(2) 120 days of the initial denial notice, in the case of aggrieved parties who choose to file an LCD challenge after receiving the service.
(c) Components of a valid complaint. A complaint must include the following:
(1) Beneficiary-identifying information:
(i) Name.
(ii) Mailing address.
(iii) State of residence, if different from mailing address.
(iv) Telephone number, if any.
(v) Health Insurance Claim number, if applicable.
(vi) E-mail address, if applicable.
(2) If the beneficiary has a representative, the representative-identifying information must include the following:
(i) Name.
(ii) Mailing address.
(iii) Telephone number.
(iv) E-mail address, if any.
(v) Copy of the written authorization to represent the beneficiary.
(3) Treating physician written statement. A copy of a written statement from the treating physician that the beneficiary needs the service that is the subject of the LCD. This statement may be in the form of a written order for the service or other documentation from the beneficiary's medical record (such as progress notes or discharge summary) indicating that the beneficiary needs the service.
(4) LCD-identifying information:
(i) Name of the contractor using the LCD.
(ii) Title of LCD being challenged.
(iii) The specific provision (or provisions) of the LCD adversely affecting the aggrieved party.
(5) Aggrieved party statement. A statement from the aggrieved party explaining what service is needed and why the aggrieved party thinks that the provision(s) of the LCD is (are) not valid under the reasonableness standard.
(6) Clinical or scientific evidence. (i) Copies of clinical or scientific evidence that support the complaint and an explanation for why the aggrieved party thinks that this evidence shows that the LCD is not reasonable.
(ii) Any documents or portions of documents that include proprietary data must be marked “proprietary data,” and include a legal basis for that assertion.
(iii) Proprietary data submitted by a manufacturer concerning a drug or device for which the manufacturer has submitted information to the Food and Drug Administration, must be considered and given substantive weight only when supported by an affidavit certifying that the submission contains true and correct copies of all data submitted by the manufacturer to the Food and Drug Administration in relation to that drug or device.
(d) Joint complaints—(1) Conditions for a joint complaint. Two or more aggrieved parties may initiate the review of an LCD by filing a single written complaint with the ALJ if all of the following conditions are met:
(i) Each aggrieved party named in the joint complaint has a similar medical condition or there are other bases for combining the complaints.
(ii) Each aggrieved party named in the joint complaint is filing the complaint in regard to the same provision(s) of the same LCD.
(2) Components of a valid joint complaint. A joint complaint must contain the following information:
(i) The beneficiary-identifying information described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section for each aggrieved party named in the joint complaint.
(ii) The LCD-identifying information described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
(iii) The documentation described in paragraphs (c)(3) and (c)(4) of this section.
(3) Timeliness of a joint complaint. Aggrieved parties, who choose to seek review of an LCD—
(i) Before receiving the service, must file with the ALJ a joint complaint within 6 months of the written statement from each aggrieved party's treating physician.
(ii) After receiving the service, must file with the ALJ a complaint within 120 days of each aggrieved party's initial denial notice.
§ 426.403 Submitting new evidence once an acceptable complaint is filed.
Once an acceptable complaint is filed, the aggrieved party may submit additional new evidence without withdrawing the complaint until the ALJ closes the record.
§ 426.405 Authority of the ALJ.
(a) An ALJ conducts a fair and impartial hearing, avoids unnecessary delay, maintains order, and ensures that all proceedings are recorded.
(b) An ALJ defers only to reasonable findings of fact, reasonable interpretations of law, and reasonable applications of fact to law by the Secretary.
(c) The ALJ has the authority to do any of the following:
(1) Review complaints by an aggrieved party (or aggrieved parties).
(2) Dismiss complaints that fail to comply with § 426.400.
(3) Set and change the date, time, and place of a hearing upon reasonable notice to the parties.
(4) Continue or recess a hearing for a reasonable period of time.
(5) Hold conferences to identify or simplify the issues, or to consider other matters that may aid in the expeditious disposition of the proceeding.
(6) Consult with scientific and clinical experts on his or her own motion concerning clinical or scientific evidence.
(7) Set schedules for submission of exhibits and written reports of experts.
(8) Administer oaths and affirmations.
(9) Examine witnesses.
(10) Issue subpoenas requiring the attendance of witnesses at hearings as permitted by this part.
(11) Issue subpoenas requiring the production of existing documents before, and relating to, the hearing as permitted by this part.
(12) Rule on motions and other procedural matters.
(13) Stay the proceedings in accordance with § 426.340.
(14) Regulate the scope and timing of documentary discovery as permitted by this part.
(15) Regulate the course of a hearing and the conduct of representatives, parties, and witnesses.
(16) Receive, rule on, exclude, or limit evidence, as provided in § 426.340.
(17) Take official notice of facts, upon motion of a party.
(18) Decide cases, upon the motion of a party, by summary judgment when there is no disputed issue of material fact.
(19) Conduct any conference, argument, or hearing in person or, upon agreement of the parties, by telephone, picture-tel, or any other means.
(20) Issue decisions.
(21) Exclude a party from an LCD review for failure to comply with an ALJ order or procedural request without good cause shown.
(22) Stay the proceedings for a reasonable time when all parties voluntarily agree to mediation or negotiation, and provide mediation services upon request.
(d) The ALJ does not have authority to do any of the following under this part:
(1) Conduct an LCD review or conduct LCD hearings on his or her own motion or on the motion of a nonaggrieved party.
(2) Issue a decision based on any new evidence without following § 426.340, regarding procedures for review of new evidence.
(3) Review any decisions by contractors to develop a new or revised LCD.
(4) Conduct a review of any draft, retired, archived, template, or suggested LCDs.
(5) Conduct a review of any policy that is not an LCD, as defined in § 400.202 of this chapter.
(6) Conduct a review of any NCD according to section 1869(f)(1)(A)(i) of the Act.
(7) Conduct a review of the merits of an unacceptable LCD complaint as discussed in § 426.410.
(8) Allow participation by individuals or entities other than—
(i) The aggrieved party and/or his/her representative;
(ii) CMS and/or the contractor; and
(iii) Experts called by the parties or the ALJ.
(9) Compel the parties to participate in a mediation process or to engage in settlement negotiations.
(10) Deny a request for withdrawal of a complaint by an aggrieved party.
(11) Compel the contractor to conduct studies, surveys, or develop new information to support an LCD record.
(12) Deny a contractor the right to reconsider, revise or retire an LCD.
(13) Find invalid applicable Federal statutes, regulations, rulings, or NCDs.
(14) Enter a decision specifying terms to be included in an LCD.
§ 426.406 Ex parte contacts.
No party or person (except employees of the ALJ's office) communicates in any way with the ALJ on any substantive matter at issue in a case, unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to participate. This provision does not prohibit a person or party from inquiring about the status of a case or asking routine questions concerning administrative functions or procedures.
§ 426.410 Docketing and evaluating the acceptability of LCD complaints.
(a) Docketing the complaint. The office designated by CMS does the following upon receiving a complaint regarding an LCD:
(1) Dockets the complaint.
(2) Determines whether the complaint is—
(i) The first challenge to a particular LCD; or
(ii) Related to a pending LCD review.
(3) Forwards the complaint to the ALJ that conducts the review. In cases related to pending reviews, the complaint generally is forwarded to the ALJ who is conducting the review.
(b) Evaluating the acceptability of the complaint. The ALJ assigned to the LCD review determines if the complaint is acceptable by confirming all of the following:
(1) The complaint is being submitted by an aggrieved party or, in the case of a joint complaint, that each individual named in the joint complaint is an aggrieved party. (In determining if a complaint is acceptable, the ALJ assumes that the facts alleged by the treating physician's documentation regarding the aggrieved party's (or parties') clinical condition are true.)
(2) The complaint meets the requirements for a valid complaint in § 426.400 and does not challenge one of the documents in § 426.325(b).
(c) Unacceptable complaint. (1) If the ALJ determines that the complaint is unacceptable, the ALJ must provide the aggrieved party (or parties) one opportunity to amend the unacceptable complaint.
(2) If the aggrieved party (or parties) fail(s) to submit an acceptable amended complaint within a reasonable timeframe as determined by the ALJ, the ALJ must issue a decision dismissing the unacceptable complaint.
(3) If a complaint is determined unacceptable after one amendment, the beneficiary is precluded from filing again for 6 months after being informed that it is unacceptable.
(d) Acceptable complaint. If the ALJ determines that the complaint (or amended complaint) is acceptable, the ALJ does the following:
(1) Sends a letter to the aggrieved party (or parties) acknowledging the complaint and informing the aggrieved party (or parties) of the docket number and the deadline for the contractor to produce the LCD record.
(2) Forwards a copy of the complaint, any evidence submitted in the complaint, and the letter described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section to the applicable contractor and CMS.
(3) Requires CMS or the contractor to send a copy of the LCD record to the ALJ and all parties to the LCD review within 30 days of receiving the ALJ's letter, the copy of the complaint, and any associated evidence, subject to extension for good cause shown.
(e) Consolidation of complaints regarding an LCD—(1) Criteria for consolidation. If a review is pending regarding a particular LCD provision(s) and no decision has been issued ending the review, and a new acceptable complaint is filed, the ALJ consolidates the complaints and conducts a consolidated LCD review if all of the following criteria are met:
(i) The complaints are in regard to the same provision(s) of the same LCD or there are other bases for consolidating the complaints.
(ii) The complaints contain common questions of law, common questions of fact, or both.
(iii) Consolidating the complaints does not unduly delay the ALJ's decision.
(2) Decision to consolidate complaints. If an ALJ decides to consolidate complaints, the ALJ does the following:
(i) Provides notification that the LCD review is consolidated and informs all parties of the docket number of the consolidated review.
(ii) Makes a single record of the proceeding.
(iii) Considers the relevant evidence introduced in each LCD complaint as introduced in the consolidated review.
(3) Decision not to consolidate complaints. If an ALJ decides not to consolidate complaints, the ALJ conducts separate LCD reviews for each complaint.
[68 FR 63716, Nov. 7, 2003; 68 FR 65346, Nov. 19, 2003]
§ 426.415 CMS' role in the LCD review.
CMS may provide to the ALJ, and all parties to the LCD review, information identifying the person who represents the contractor or CMS, if necessary, in the LCD review process.
§ 426.416 Role of Medicare Managed Care Organizations (MCOs) and State agencies in the LCD review.
Medicare MCOs and Medicaid State agencies have no role in the LCD review process. However, once the ALJ has issued its decision, the decision is made available to all Medicare MCOs and State agencies.
§ 426.417 Contractor's statement regarding new evidence.
(a) The contractor may review any new evidence that is submitted, regardless of whether the ALJ has stayed the proceedings, including but not limited to—
(1) New evidence submitted with the initial complaint;
(2) New evidence submitted with an amended complaint;
(3) New evidence produced during discovery;
(4) New evidence produced when the ALJ consults with scientific and clinical experts; and
(5) New evidence presented during any hearing.
(b) The contractor may submit a statement regarding whether the new evidence is significant under § 426.340, within such deadline as the ALJ may set.
§ 426.418 LCD record furnished to aggrieved party.
(a) Elements of a contractor's LCD record furnished to the aggrieved party. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the contractor's LCD record consists of any document or material that the contractor considered during the development of the LCD, including, but not limited to, the following:
(1) The LCD being challenged.
(2) Any medical evidence considered on or before the date the LCD was issued, including, but not limited to, the following:
(i) Scientific articles.
(ii) Technology assessments.
(iii) Clinical guidelines.
(iv) Statements from clinical experts, medical textbooks, claims data, or other indication of medical standard of practice.
(3) Comment and Response Document (a summary of comments received by the contractor concerning the draft LCD).
(4) An index of documents considered that are excluded under paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) Elements of the LCD record not furnished to the aggrieved party. The LCD record furnished to the aggrieved party does not include the following:
(1) Proprietary data or privileged information.
(2) Any new evidence.
§ 426.419 LCD record furnished to the ALJ.
The LCD record furnished to the ALJ includes the following:
(a) Documents included in § 426.418(a).
(b) Privileged information and proprietary data considered that must be filed with the ALJ under seal.
§ 426.420 Retiring or revising an LCD under review.
(a) A contractor may retire an LCD or LCD provision under review before the date the ALJ issues a decision regarding that LCD. Retiring an LCD or LCD provision under review has the same effect as a decision under § 426.460(b).
(b) A contractor may revise an LCD under review to remove or amend the LCD provision listed in the complaint through the reconsideration process before the date the ALJ issues a decision regarding that LCD. Revising an LCD under review to remove the LCD provision in question has the same effect as a decision under § 426.460(b).
(c) A contractor must notify the ALJ within 48 hours of—
(1) Retiring an LCD or LCD provision that is under review; or
(2) Issuing a revised version of the LCD that is under review.
(d) If the contractor issues a revised LCD, the contractor forwards a copy of the revised LCD to the ALJ.
(e) The ALJ must take the following actions upon receiving a notice that the contractor has retired or revised an LCD under review:
(1) If, before the ALJ issues a decision, the ALJ receives notice that the contractor has retired the LCD or revised the LCD to completely remove the provision in question, the ALJ must dismiss the complaint and inform the aggrieved party(ies) who sought the review that he or she or they receive individual claim review without the retired/withdrawn provision(s).
(2) If, before the ALJ issues a decision, the ALJ receives notice that the contractor has revised the LCD provision in question but has not removed it altogether, the ALJ must continue the review based on the revised LCD. In this case, the contractor must send a copy of the supplemental record to the ALJ and all parties. In that circumstance, the ALJ permits the aggrieved party to respond to the revised LCD and supplemental record.
§ 426.423 Withdrawing a complaint regarding an LCD under review.
(a) Circumstance under which an aggrieved party may withdraw a complaint regarding an LCD. An aggrieved party who filed a complaint regarding an LCD may withdraw the complaint before the ALJ issues a decision regarding that LCD. The aggrieved party may not file another complaint concerning the same coverage determination for 6 months.
(b) Process for an aggrieved party withdrawing a complaint regarding an LCD. To withdraw a complaint regarding an LCD, the aggrieved party who filed the complaint must send a written withdrawal notice to the ALJ (see § 426.400), CMS (if applicable), and the applicable contractor. Supplementing an acceptable complaint with new evidence does not constitute a withdrawal of a complaint, as described in § 426.403.
(c) Actions the ALJ must take upon receiving a notice announcing the intent to withdraw a complaint regarding an LCD—(1) LCD reviews involving one aggrieved party. If the ALJ receives a withdrawal notice regarding an LCD before the date the ALJ issued a decision regarding that LCD, the ALJ issues a decision dismissing the complaint under § 426.444 and informs the aggrieved party that he or she may not file another complaint to the same coverage determination for 6 months.
(2) LCD reviews involving joint complaints. If the ALJ receives a notice from an aggrieved party who is named in a joint complaint withdrawing a complaint regarding an LCD before the date the ALJ issued a decision regarding that LCD, the ALJ issues a decision dismissing only that aggrieved party from the complaint under § 426.444. The ALJ continues the LCD review if there is one or more aggrieved party who does not withdraw from the joint complaint.
(3) Consolidated LCD reviews. If the ALJ receives a notice from an aggrieved party who is part of a consolidated LCD review withdrawing a complaint regarding an LCD before the date the ALJ issued a decision regarding that LCD, the ALJ removes that aggrieved party from the consolidated LCD review and issues a decision dismissing that aggrieved party's complaint under § 426.444. The ALJ continues the LCD review if there are one or more aggrieved parties who does not withdraw from the joint complaint.
§ 426.425 LCD review.
(a) Opportunity for the aggrieved party, after his or her review of the LCD record, to state why the LCD is not valid. Upon receipt of the contractor's LCD record, the aggrieved party files a statement explaining why the contractor's LCD record is not complete, or not adequate to support the validity of the LCD under the reasonableness standard. This statement must be submitted to the ALJ and to the contractor, or CMS, as appropriate, within 30 days (or within the additional time as allowed by the ALJ for good cause shown) of the date the aggrieved party receives the contractor's LCD record.
(b) Contractor response. The contractor has 30 days after receiving the aggrieved party's statement to submit a response to the ALJ in order to defend the LCD.
(c) ALJ evaluation. (1) After the aggrieved party files a statement and the contractor responds, as described in § 426.425(a) and § 426.425(b), or the time for filing has expired, the ALJ applies the reasonableness standard to determine whether the LCD record is complete and adequate to support the validity of the LCD.
(2) Issuance of a decision finding the record complete and adequate to support the validity of the LCD ends the review process.
(3) If the ALJ determines that the LCD record is not complete and adequate to support the validity of the LCD, the ALJ permits discovery and the taking of evidence in accordance with §§ 426.432 and 426.440 and evaluates the LCD in accordance with § 426.431.
(d) The process described in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section applies when an LCD record has been supplemented, except that discovery and the taking of evidence are not repeated. The period for the aggrieved party to file a statement begins when the aggrieved party receives the supplement.
§ 426.431 ALJ's review of the LCD to apply the reasonableness standard.
(a) Required steps. To review the provision(s) listed in the aggrieved party's complaint based on the reasonableness standard, an ALJ must:
(1) Confine the LCD review to the provision(s) of the LCD raised in the aggrieved party's complaint.
(2) Conduct a hearing, unless the matter can be decided on the written record.
(3) Close the LCD review record to the taking of evidence.
(4) Treat as precedential any previous Board decision under § 426.482 that involves the same LCD provison(s), same specific issue and facts in question, and the same clinical conditions.
(5) Issue a decision as described in § 426.447.
(b) Optional steps. The ALJ may do the following to apply the reasonableness standard to the provision(s) listed in the aggrieved party's complaint:
(1) Consult with appropriate scientific or clinical experts concerning evidence.
(2) Consider any previous ALJ decision made under § 426.447 regarding the same provision(s) of the LCD under review and for the same clinical conditions.
(c) Authority for ALJs in LCD reviews when applying the reasonableness standard. In applying the reasonableness standard to a provision (or provisions) of an LCD, the ALJ must follow all applicable laws, regulations, rulings, and NCDs.
§ 426.432 Discovery.
(a) General rule. If the ALJ orders discovery, the ALJ must establish a reasonable timeframe for discovery.
(b) Protective order—(1) Request for a protective order. Any party receiving a discovery request may file a motion for a protective order before the date of production of the discovery.
(2) The ALJ granting of a protective order. The ALJ may grant a motion for a protective order if (s)he finds that the discovery sought—
(i) Is irrelevant or unduly repetitive;
(ii) Is unduly costly or burdensome; or
(iii) Unduly delays the proceeding.
(c) Types of discovery available. A party may obtain discovery via a request for the production of documents, and/or via the submission of up to 10 written interrogatory questions, relating to a specific LCD.
(d) Types of documents. For the purpose of this section, the term “documents” includes relevant information, reports, answers, records, accounts, papers, and other data and documentary evidence. Nothing contained in this section is interpreted to require the creation of a document.
(e) Types of discovery not available. Requests for admissions, depositions, or any other forms of discovery, other than those permitted under paragraph (c) of this section, are not authorized.
(f) Privileged information and proprietary data. The ALJ must not, under any circumstance, order the disclosure of privileged information or proprietary data filed under seal without the consent of the party who possesses the right to protection of the information.
(g) Notification. The ALJ notifies all parties in writing when the discovery period closes.
§ 426.435 Subpoenas.
(a) Purpose of a subpoena. A subpoena requires the attendance of an individual at a hearing and may also require a party to produce evidence authorized under § 426.440 at or before the hearing.
(b) Filing a motion for a subpoena. A party seeking a subpoena must file a written motion with the ALJ not less than 30 days before the date fixed for the hearing. The motion must do all of the following:
(1) Designate the witnesses.
(2) Specify any evidence to be produced.
(3) Describe the address and location with sufficient particularity to permit the witnesses to be found.
(4) State the pertinent facts that the party expects to establish by the witnesses or documents and whether other evidence may establish without the use of a subpoena.
(c) Response to a motion for a subpoena. Within 15 days after the written motion requesting issuance of a subpoena is served on all parties, any party may file an opposition to the motion or other response.
(d) Extension for good cause shown. The ALJ may modify the deadlines specified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section for good cause shown.
(e) Motion for a subpoena granted. If the ALJ grants a motion requesting issuance of a subpoena, the subpoena must do the following:
(1) Be issued in the name of the ALJ.
(2) Include the docket number and title of the LCD under review.
(3) Provide notice that the subpoena is issued according to sections 1872 and 205(d) and (e) of the Act.
(4) Specify the time and place at which the witness is to appear and any evidence the witness is to produce.
(f) Delivery of the subpoena. The party seeking the subpoena serves it by personal delivery to the individual named, or by certified mail return receipt requested, addressed to the individual at his or her last dwelling place or principal place of business.
(g) Motion to quash a subpoena. The individual to whom the subpoena is directed may file with the ALJ a motion to quash the subpoena within 10 days after service.
(h) Refusal to obey a subpoena. The exclusive remedy for contumacy by, or refusal to obey, a subpoena duly served upon any person is specified in section 205(e) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 405(e)) except that any reference to the “Commissioner of Social Security” shall be considered a reference to the “Secretary.”
§ 426.440 Evidence.
(a) Except as provided in this part, the ALJ is not bound by the Federal Rules of Evidence. However, the ALJ may apply the Federal Rules of Evidence when appropriate, for example, to exclude unreliable evidence.
(b) The ALJ must exclude evidence that (s)he determines is clearly irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitive.
(c) The ALJ may accept privileged information or proprietary data, but must maintain it under seal.
(d) The ALJ may permit the parties to introduce the testimony of expert witnesses on scientific and clinical issues, rebuttal witnesses, and other relevant evidence. The ALJ may require that the testimony of expert witnesses be submitted in the form of a written report, accompanied by the curriculum vitae of the expert preparing the report.
(e) Experts submitting reports must be available for cross-examination at an evidentiary hearing upon request of the ALJ or a party to the proceeding, or the reports will be excluded from the record.
(f) Except as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section or unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ for good cause shown, all documents and other evidence offered or taken for the record are open to examination by all parties.
§ 426.444 Dismissals for cause.
(a) The ALJ may, at the request of any party, or on his or her own motion, dismiss a complaint if the aggrieved party fails to do either of the following:
(1) Attend or participate in a prehearing conference (the pre-hearing may be conducted by telephone) or hearing without good cause shown.
(2) Comply with a lawful order of the ALJ without good cause shown.
(b) The ALJ must dismiss any complaint concerning LCD provision(s) if the following conditions exist:
(1) The ALJ does not have the authority to rule on that provision under § 426.405(d).
(2) The complaint is not timely. (See § 426.400(b).)
(3) The complaint is not filed by an aggrieved party.
(4) The complaint is filed by an individual who fails to provide an adequate statement of need for the service from the treating physician.
(5) The complaint challenges a provision or provisions of an NCD. (See § 426.405, regarding the authority of the ALJ.)
(6) The contractor notifies the ALJ that the LCD provision(s) is (are) no longer in effect.
(7) The aggrieved party withdraws the complaint. (See § 426.423 for requirements related to withdrawing a complaint regarding an LCD under review.)
§ 426.445 Witness fees.
(a) A witness testifying at a hearing before an ALJ receives the same fees and mileage as witnesses in Federal district courts of the United States. If the witness qualifies as an expert, he or she is entitled to an expert witness fee. Witness fees are paid by the party seeking to present the witness.
(b) If an ALJ requests expert testimony, the appropriate office overseeing the ALJ is responsible for paying all applicable fees and mileage, unless the expert waives payment.
§ 426.446 Record of hearing.
The ALJ must ensure that all hearings are open to the public and are electronically, mechanically or stenographically reported. Except for privileged information and proprietary data that are filed under seal, all evidence upon which the ALJ relies for decision must be admitted into the public record. All medical reports, exhibits, and any other pertinent document, either in whole or in material part, must be offered, marked for identification, and retained in the case record.
§ 426.447 Issuance and notification of an ALJ's decision.
An ALJ must issue to all parties to the LCD review, within 90 days of closing the LCD review record to the taking of evidence, one of the following:
(a) A written decision, including a description of appeal rights.
(b) A written notification stating that a decision is pending, and an approximate date of issuance for the decision.
§ 426.450 Mandatory provisions of an ALJ's decision.
(a) Findings. An ALJ's decision must include one of the following:
(1) A determination that the provision of the LCD is valid under the reasonableness standard.
(2) A determination that the provision of the LCD is not valid under the reasonableness standard.
(3) A statement dismissing the complaint regarding the LCD and a rationale for the dismissal.
(4) A determination that the LCD record is complete and adequate to support the validity of the LCD provisions under the reasonableness standard.
(b) Other information. An ALJ's decision must include all of the following:
(1) The date of issuance.
(2) The docket number of the LCD review.
(3) A statement as to whether the aggrieved party has filed a claim for the service(s) named in the complaint, the date(s)-of-service, and the disposition, if known.
(4) A basis for concluding that the LCD was or was not valid based on the application of the reasonableness standard to the record before the ALJ, including the contractor's:
(i) Findings of fact.
(ii) Interpretations of law.
(iii) Applications of fact to law.
(5) A summary of the evidence reviewed. If proprietary or privileged data were submitted under seal, the decision must state whether the data were material and what role they played in the determination, but without disclosing the substance or contents of the evidence under seal. A separate statement of the rationale for the ALJ's treatment of the sealed evidence must be prepared and kept under seal itself. If the ALJ decision is appealed to the Board, this statement must be provided to the Board under seal.
(6) A statement regarding appeal rights.
§ 426.455 Prohibited provisions of an ALJ's decision.
An ALJ's decision may not do any of the following:
(a) Order CMS or its contractors to add any language to a provision or provisions of an LCD.
(b) Order CMS or its contractors to pay a specific claim.
(c) Set a time limit for CMS or its contractors to establish a new or revised LCD.
(d) Review or evaluate an LCD other than the LCD under review.
(e) Include a requirement for CMS or its contractors that specifies payment, coding, or systems changes for an LCD, or deadlines for implementing these types of changes.
(f) Order or address how a contractor(s) must implement an LCD.
§ 426.457 Optional provisions of an ALJ's decision.
When appropriate, the ALJ may limit a decision holding invalid a specific provision(s) of an LCD to specific clinical indications and for similar conditions.
§ 426.458 ALJ's LCD review record.
(a) Elements of the ALJ's LCD review record furnished to the public. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the ALJ's LCD review record consists of any document or material that the ALJ compiled or considered during the LCD review, including, but not limited to, the following:
(1) The LCD complaint.
(2) The LCD and LCD record.
(3) The supplemental LCD record, if applicable.
(4) Transcripts of record.
(5) Any other relevant evidence gathered under § 426.440.
(6) The ALJ's decision.
(b) Elements of the ALJ's LCD review record furnished to the Board under seal. The ALJ's review record must include, under seal, any proprietary data or privileged information maintained under seal, and such data or information must not be included in the review record furnished to the public.
§ 426.460 Effect of an ALJ's decision.
(a) Valid under the reasonableness standard. If the ALJ finds that the provision or provisions of the LCD named in the complaint is (are) valid under the reasonableness standard, the aggrieved party or parties may appeal that (those) part(s) of the ALJ decision to the Board under § 426.465.
(b) Not valid under the reasonableness standard. If the ALJ finds that the provision or provisions of the LCD named in the complaint is (are) invalid under the reasonableness standard, and no appeal is filed by the contractor or CMS under § 426.465(b), the contractor, the M + C organization, or other Medicare managed care organization must provide the following—
(1) Individual claim review. (i) If neither the contractor nor CMS appeals the ALJ decision under § 426.425(b), and if the party's claim or appeal(s) was previously denied, the contractor, an M + C organization or another Medicare managed care organization must reopen the claim of the party who challenged the LCD and adjudicate the claim without using the provision(s) of the LCD that the ALJ found invalid.
(ii) If a revised LCD is issued, the contractor, the M + C organization, and any other Medicare managed care organization within the contractor's jurisdiction uses the revised LCD in reviewing claim or appeal submissions or request for services delivered or services performed on or after the effective date of the revised LCD.
(iii) If the aggrieved party who sought the review has not yet submitted a claim, the contractor adjudicates the claim without using the provision(s) of the LCD that the ALJ found invalid.
(iv) In either case, the claim and any subsequent claims for the service provided under the same circumstances is adjudicated without using the LCD provision(s) found invalid.
(2) Coverage determination relief. If neither the contractor nor CMS appeals the ALJ decision under § 426.425(b), the contractor implements the ALJ decision within 30 days. Any change in policy applies prospectively to requests for service or claims filed with dates of service after the implementation of the ALJ decision.
§ 426.462 Notice of an ALJ's decision.
After the ALJ has made a decision regarding an LCD complaint, the ALJ sends a written notice of the decision to each party. The notice must—
(a) State the outcome of the review; and
(b) Inform each party to the determination of his or her rights to seek further review if he or she is dissatisfied with the determination, and the time limit under which an appeal must be requested.
§ 426.463 Future new or revised LCDs.
The contractor may not reinstate an LCD provision(s) found to be unreasonable unless the contractor has a different basis (such as additional evidence) than what the ALJ evaluated.
§ 426.465 Appealing part or all of an ALJ's decision.
(a) Circumstances under which an aggrieved party may appeal part or all of an ALJ's decision. An aggrieved party (including one or more aggrieved parties named in a joint complaint and an aggrieved party who is part of a consolidated LCD review) may appeal to the Board any part of an ALJ's decision that does the following:
(1) States that a provision of an LCD is valid under the reasonableness standard; or
(2) Dismisses a complaint regarding an LCD (except as prohibited in paragraph (b) of this section).
(b) Circumstance under which a contractor or CMS may appeal part or all of an ALJ's decision. A contractor or CMS may appeal to the Board any part of an ALJ's decision that states that a provision (or provisions) of an LCD is (are) unreasonable.
(c) Stay of an implementation pending appeal. (1) If an ALJ's decision finds a provision or provisions of an LCD unreasonable, an appeal by a contractor or CMS stays implementation as described under § 426.460(b) until the Board issues a final decision.
(2) The appeal request must be submitted to the Board in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
(d) Circumstances under which an ALJ's decision may not be appealed. An ALJ's decision dismissing a complaint is not subject to appeal in either of the following circumstances:
(1) The contractor has retired the LCD provision(s) under review.
(2) The aggrieved party who filed the complaint has withdrawn the complaint.
(e) Receipt of the appeal by the Board. Unless there is good cause shown, an appeal described in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section must be filed with the Board within 30 days of the date the ALJ's decision was issued.
(f) Filing an appeal. (1) To file an appeal described in paragraph (a) of this section, an aggrieved party, who sought LCD review, a contractor, or CMS must send the following to the Board:
(i) The full names and addresses of the parties, including the name of the LCD.
(ii) The date of issuance of the ALJ's decision.
(iii) The docket number that appears on the ALJ's decision.
(iv) A statement identifying the part(s) of the ALJ's decision that are being appealed.
(2) If an appeal described in paragraph (a) of this section is filed with the Board later than the date described in paragraph (c) of this section, it must include a rationale stating why the Board must accept the late appeal.
(3) An appeal described in paragraph (a) of this section must include a statement explaining why the ALJ's decision should be reversed.
§ 426.468 Decision to not appeal an ALJ's decision.
(a) Failure to timely appeal without good cause shown waives the right to challenge any part(s) of the ALJ's decision under § 426.465.
(b) Unless the Board finds good cause shown for late filing, an untimely appeal is dismissed.
(c) If a party does not timely appeal any part(s) of the ALJ's decision on an LCD review to the Board, as provided in this subpart, then the ALJ's decision is final and not subject to further review.
§ 426.470 Board's role in docketing and evaluating the acceptability of appeals of ALJ decisions.
(a) Docketing the appeal. The Board does the following upon receiving an appeal of part or all of an ALJ's decision:
(1) Dockets the appeal either separately or with similar appeals.
(2) Assigns a docket number.
(b) Evaluating the acceptability of the appeal. The Board determines if the appeal is acceptable by confirming that the appeal meets all of the criteria in § 426.465.
(c) Unacceptable appeal. If the Board determines that an appeal is unacceptable, the Board must dismiss the appeal.
(d) Acceptable appeal. If the Board determines that an appeal is acceptable, the Board does the following:
(1) Sends a letter to the appellant to acknowledge that the appeal is acceptable, and informs them of the docket number.
(2) Forwards a copy of the appeal and the letter described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section to all parties involved in the appeal.
(3) Requires the ALJ to send a copy of the ALJ's LCD review record (maintaining any sealed documents) to the Board and a copy of the public record to all parties involved in the appeal.
(e) No participation as amicus curiae. The Board may not allow participation by amicus participants in the review of an LCD.
§ 426.476 Board review of an ALJ's decision.
(a) Review steps. If the Board determines that an appeal is acceptable, the Board—
(1) Permits the party that did not file the appeal an opportunity to respond to the appeal;
(2) Hears oral argument (which may be held by telephone) if the Board determines that oral argument would be helpful to the Board's review of the ALJ decision;
(3) Reviews the LCD review record and the parties' arguments; and
(4) Issues a written decision either upholding, modifying, or reversing the ALJ decision, or remanding the case to the ALJ for further proceedings.
(b) Standard of review—(1) In general. The Board determines whether the ALJ decision contains any material error, including any failure to properly apply the reasonableness standard.
(2) If the ALJ erred in determining that the contractor's record was complete and adequate to support the validity of the LCD, the Board remands the case to the ALJ for discovery and the taking of evidence.
(3) If a party alleges a prejudicial error of procedure, and the Board determines that such an error was made, the Board may remand the case to the ALJ for further proceedings consistent with the Board decision or may take other appropriate steps to correct the procedural error.
(4) Harmless error is not a basis for reversing an ALJ decision.
(c) Scope of review. In reaching its conclusions, the Board is bound by applicable laws, regulations, and NCDs.
(d) Dismissal as moot. The Board dismisses an appeal by an aggrieved party of an ALJ decision finding that an LCD was valid if the contractor notifies the Board that it has retired the LCD or revised the LCD to remove the LCD provision in question.
§ 426.478 Retiring or revising an LCD during the Board's review of an ALJ's decision.
A contractor may retire or revise an LCD during the Board's review of an ALJ's decision using the same process described in § 426.420. If an LCD is retired or revised to remove completely the challenged provision(s), the aggrieved party who sought the review is entitled to individual claim review provided at § 426.488(b).
§ 426.480 Withdrawing an appeal of an ALJ's decision.
(a) Withdrawal of an appeal of an ALJ's decision. A party who filed an appeal of an ALJ's decision may withdraw the appeal before the Board issues a decision regarding the ALJ's decision.
(b) Process of withdrawing an appeal of an ALJ's decision. To withdraw an appeal of an ALJ's decision, the party who filed the appeal must send a written notice announcing the intent to withdraw to the Board and to any other party.
(c) Actions the Board must take upon receiving a notice announcing the intent to withdraw an appeal of an ALJ's decision—(1) Appeals involving one aggrieved party, or initiated by CMS or a contractor. If the Board receives a notice withdrawing an appeal of an ALJ's decision before the Board has issued its decision, the Board must issue a decision dismissing the appeal.
(2) Appeals involving joint complaints. If the Board receives a notice withdrawing an appeal from an aggrieved party who is named in a joint appeal before the Board issues its decision, the Board must issue a decision dismissing only that aggrieved party from the appeal. The Board must continue its review of the ALJ's decision for the remaining aggrieved party or parties.
§ 426.482 Issuance and notification of a Board decision.
The Board must issue a written decision, including a description of appeal rights, to all parties to the review of the ALJ decision.
§ 426.484 Mandatory provisions of a Board decision.
(a) Findings. A Board decision must include at least one of the following:
(1) A statement upholding the part(s) of the ALJ decision named in the appeal.
(2) A statement reversing the part(s) of the ALJ decision named in the appeal.
(3) A statement modifying the part(s) of the ALJ decision named in the appeal.
(4) A statement dismissing the appeal of an ALJ decision and a rationale for the dismissal.
(b) Other information. A Board decision must include all of the following:
(1) The date of issuance.
(2) The docket number of the review of the ALJ decision.
(3) A summary of the ALJ's decision.
(4) A rationale for the basis of the Board's decision.
§ 426.486 Prohibited provisions of a Board decision.
A Board decision must not do any of the following:
(a) Order CMS or its contractors to add any language to a provision or provisions of an LCD.
(b) Order CMS or its contractors to pay a specific claim.
(c) Set a time limit to establish a new or revised LCD.
(d) Review or evaluate an LCD other than the LCD named in the ALJ's decision.
(e) Include a requirement for CMS or its contractors that specifies payment, coding, or system changes for an LCD or deadlines for implementing these changes.
(f) Order CMS or its contractors to implement an LCD in a particular manner.
§ 426.487 Board's record on appeal of an ALJ's decision.
(a) Elements of the Board's LCD review record furnished to the public. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the Board's LCD review record consists of any document or material that the Board compiled or considered during an LCD review, including, but not limited to, the following:
(1) The LCD complaint.
(2) The LCD and LCD record.
(3) The supplemental LCD record, if applicable.
(4) Transcripts of record.
(5) Any other relevant evidence gathered under § 426.440.
(6) The ALJ's decision.
(7) The Board's decision.
(b) Elements of the Board's LCD appeal record furnished to the court under seal. The Board's LCD review record must include, under seal, any proprietary data or privileged information submitted and reviewed in the LCD review process, and that data or information must not be included in the review record furnished to the public, but the information must be maintained, under seal, by the Board.
(c) Protective order. In any instance where proprietary data or privileged information is used in the LCD process and a court seeks to obtain or require disclosure of any proprietary data or privileged information contained in the LCD record, CMS or the Department will seek to have a protective order issued for that information, as appropriate.
§ 426.488 Effect of a Board decision.
(a) The Board's decision upholds an ALJ decision that an LCD is valid or reverses an ALJ decision that an LCD is invalid. If the Board's decision upholds the ALJ decision that an LCD is valid under the reasonableness standard or reverses an ALJ decision that an LCD is invalid, the contractor or CMS is not required to take any action.
(b) The Board's decision upholds an ALJ determination that the LCD is invalid. If the Board's decision upholds an ALJ determination that the LCD is invalid, then the contractor, the M + C organization, or other Medicare managed care organization implements the decision as described in § 426.460(b).
(c) The Board's decision reverses a dismissal or an ALJ decision that the LCD is valid. If the Board reverses an ALJ decision dismissing a complaint or holding that an LCD is valid without requiring discovery or the taking of evidence, the Board remands to the ALJ and the LCD review continues. If the Board reverses an ALJ decision holding that an LCD is valid that is reached after the ALJ has completed discovery and the taking of evidence, the Board may remand the case to the ALJ for further proceedings, or the Board may find that the provision(s) of the LCD named in the complaint is (are) invalid under the reasonableness standard, and the contractor, the M + C organization, or other Medicare managed care organization provides the relief in § 426.460(b).
§ 426.489 Board remands.
(a) Notice when case is remanded to the ALJ. If the Board remands a case to the ALJ, the Board—
(1) Notifies each aggrieved party who sought the LCD review, through his or her representative or at his or her last known address, the contractor, and CMS of the Board's remand decision; and
(2) Explains why the case is being remanded and the specific actions ordered by the Board.
(b) Action by an ALJ on remand. An ALJ takes any action that is ordered by the Board and may take any additional action that is not inconsistent with the Board's remand order.
§ 426.490 Board decision.
A decision by the Board (other than a remand) constitutes a final agency action and is subject to judicial review. Neither the contractor nor CMS may appeal a Board decision.
Subpart E Review of an NCD
§ 426.500 Procedure for filing an acceptable complaint concerning a provision (or provisions) of an NCD.
(a) The complaint. An aggrieved party may initiate a review of an NCD by filing a written complaint with the Department of Health and Human Services Departmental Appeals Board.
(b) Timeliness of a complaint. An NCD complaint is not considered timely unless it is filed with the Board within—
(1) 6 months of the written statement from each aggrieved party's treating physician, in the case of aggrieved parties who choose to file an NCD challenge before receiving the service; or
(2) 120 days of the initial denial notice, in the case of aggrieved parties who choose to file an NCD challenge after receiving the service.
(c) Components of a valid complaint. A complaint must include the following:
(1) Beneficiary-identifying information:
(i) Name.
(ii) Mailing address.
(iii) State of residence, if different from mailing address.
(iv) Telephone number, if any.
(v) Health Insurance Claim number, if applicable.
(vi) Email address, if applicable.
(2) If the beneficiary has a representative, the representative's indetifying information must include the following:
(i) Name.
(ii) Address.
(iii) Telephone number.
(iv) E-mail address (if any)
(v) Copy of the written authorization to represent the beneficiary.
(3) Treating physician written statement. A copy of a written statement from the treating physician that the beneficiary needs the service that is the subject of the NCD. This statement may be in the form of a written order for the service or other documentation from the beneficiary's medical record (such as progress notes or discharge summary) indicating that the beneficiary needs the service.
(4) NCD-identifying information:
(i) Title of NCD being challenged.
(ii) The specific provision or provisions of the NCD adversely affecting the aggrieved party.
(5) Aggrieved party statement. A statement from the aggrieved party explaining what service is needed and why the aggrieved party thinks that the provision(s) of the NCD is (are) not valid under the reasonableness standard.
(6) Clinical or scientific evidence. (i) Copies of clinical or scientific evidence that supports the complaint and an explanation for why the aggrieved party thinks that this evidence shows that the NCD is not reasonable.
(ii) Any documents or portions of documents that include proprietary data must be marked “proprietary data,” and include a legal basis for that assertion.
(iii) Proprietary data submitted by a manufacturer concerning a drug or device for which the manufacturer has submitted information to the Food and Drug Administration, must be considered and given substantive weight only when supported by an affidavit certifying that the submission contains true and correct copies of all data submitted by the manufacturer to the Food and Drug Administration in relation to that drug or device.
(d) Joint complaints—(1) Conditions for a joint complaint. Two or more aggrieved parties may initiate the review of an NCD by filing a single written complaint with the Board if all of the following conditions are met:
(i) Each aggrieved party named in the joint complaint has a similar medical condition or there are other bases for combining the complaints.
(ii) Each aggrieved party named in the joint complaint is filing the complaint in regard to the same provision(s) of the same NCD.
(2) Components of a valid joint complaint. A joint complaint must contain the following information:
(i) The beneficiary-identifying information described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section for each aggrieved party named in the joint complaint.
(ii) The NCD-identifying information described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
(iii) The documentation described in paragraphs (c)(3) and (c)(4) of this section.
(3) Timeliness of a joint complaint. Aggrieved parties, who choose to seek review of an NCD—
(i) Before receiving the service, must file with the Board a joint complaint within 6 months of the written statement from each aggrieved party's treating physician; or
(ii) After receiving the service, must file with the Board a complaint within 120 days of each aggrieved party's initial denial notice.
§ 426.503 Submitting new evidence once an acceptable complaint has been filed.
Once an acceptable complaint has been filed, the aggrieved party may submit additional new evidence without withdrawing the complaint until the Board closes the record.
§ 426.505 Authority of the Board.
(a) The Board conducts a fair and impartial hearing, avoids unnecessary delay, maintains order, and ensures that all proceedings are recorded.
(b) The Board defers only to reasonable findings of fact, reasonable interpretations of law, and reasonable applications of fact to law by the Secretary.
(c) The Board has the authority to do any of the following:
(1) Review complaints by an aggrieved party (or aggrieved parties).
(2) Dismiss complaints that fail to comply with § 426.500.
(3) Set and change the date, time, and place of a hearing upon reasonable notice to the parties.
(4) Continue or recess a hearing for a reasonable period of time.
(5) Hold conferences to identify or simplify the issues, or to consider other matters that may aid in the expeditious disposition of the proceeding.
(6) Consult with scientific and clinical experts on its own motion, concerning clinical or scientific evidence.
(7) Set schedules for submission of exhibits and written reports of experts.
(8) Administer oaths and affirmations.
(9) Examine witnesses.
(10) Issue subpoenas requiring the attendance of witnesses at hearings as permitted by this part.
(11) Issue subpoenas requiring the production of existing documents before, and relating to, the hearing as permitted by this part.
(12) Rule on motions and other procedural matters.
(13) Stay the proceeding in accordance with § 426.340.
(14) Regulate the scope and timing of documentary discovery as permitted by this part.
(15) Regulate the course of a hearing and the conduct of representatives, parties, and witnesses.
(16) Receive, rule on, exclude, or limit evidence, as provided in this regulation.
(17) Take official notice of facts, upon motion of a party.
(18) Decide cases, upon the motion of a party, by summary judgment when there is no disputed issue of material fact.
(19) Conduct any conference, argument, or hearing in person or, upon agreement of the parties, by telephone, picture-tel, or any other means.
(20) Issue decisions.
(21) Exclude a party from an NCD review for failure to comply with a Board order or procedural request without good cause.
(22) Stay the proceedings for a reasonable time when all parties voluntarily agree to mediation or negotiation, and provide mediation services upon request.
(d) The Board does not have authority to do any of the following under this part:
(1) Conduct an LCD review or conduct LCD hearings, except as provided by § 426.465.
(2) Conduct an NCD review or conduct NCD hearings on its own motion or on the motion of a nonaggrieved party.
(3) Issue a decision based on any new evidence without following § 426.340, regarding procedures for review of new evidence.
(4) Review any decisions by CMS to develop a new or revised NCD.
(5) Conduct a review of any draft NCDs, coverage decision memoranda, or withdrawn NCDs.
(6) Conduct a review of the merits of an unacceptable NCD complaint as discussed in § 426.510.
(7) Conduct an NCD review of any policy that is not an NCD, as defined in § 400.202 of this chapter.
(8) Allow participation by individuals or entities other than—
(i) The aggrieved party and/or his or her representative;
(ii) CMS and/or the contractor;
(iii) Experts called by the parties or Board; or
(iv) Third parties with a clearly identifiable and substantial interest in the outcome of the dispute who have petitioned for and been granted permission by the Board to participate in the proceedings as amicus curiae.
(9) Compel the parties to participate in a mediation process or to engage in settlement negotiations.
(10) Deny a request for withdrawal of a complaint by an aggrieved party.
(11) Compel CMS to conduct studies, surveys, or develop new information to support an NCD record.
(12) Deny CMS the right to reconsider, revise, or withdraw an NCD.
(13) Subject to the timely filing requirements, deny an aggrieved party, CMS, or its contractor the right to appeal an ALJ decision.
(14) Find invalid applicable Federal statutes, regulations, or rulings.
(15) Enter a decision specifying terms to be included in an NCD.
§ 426.506 Ex parte contacts.
No party or person (except Board staff) communicates in any way with the Board on any substantive matter at issue in a case, unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to participate. This provision does not prohibit a person or party from inquiring about the status of a case or asking routine questions concerning administrative functions or procedures.
§ 426.510 Docketing and evaluating the acceptability of NCD complaints.
(a) Docketing the complaint. The Board does the following upon receiving a complaint regarding an NCD:
(1) Dockets the complaint.
(2) Determines whether the complaint is—
(i) The first challenge to a particular NCD; or
(ii) Related to a pending NCD review.
(3) Forwards the complaint to the Board member who conducts the review.
(b) Evaluating the acceptability of the complaint. The Board determines if the complaint is acceptable by confirming all of the following:
(1) The complaint is being submitted by an aggrieved party or, in the case of a joint complaint, that each individual named in the joint complaint is an aggrieved party. (In determining if a complaint is acceptable, the Board assumes that the facts alleged by the treating physician's documentation regarding the aggrieved party's (or parties') clinical condition are true.)
(2) The complaint meets the requirements for a valid complaint in § 426.500 and is not one of the documents in § 426.325(b).
(c) Unacceptable complaint. (1) If the Board determines that the complaint is unacceptable, the Board must provide the aggrieved party (or parties) one opportunity to amend the unacceptable complaint.
(2) If the aggrieved party (or parties) fail(s) to submit an acceptable amended complaint within a reasonable timeframe as determined by the Board, the Board must issue a decision dismissing the unacceptable complaint.
(3) If a complaint is determined to be unacceptable after one amendment, the beneficiary is precluded from filing again for 6 months after being informed that it is unacceptable.
(d) Acceptable complaint. If the Board determines that the complaint (or amended complaint) is acceptable, the Board does the following:
(1) Sends a letter to the aggrieved party (or parties) acknowledging the complaint and informing the aggrieved party (or parties) of the docket number and the deadline for CMS to produce the NCD record.
(2) Forwards a copy of the complaint, any evidence submitted in the complaint, and the letter described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section to CMS.
(3) Requires CMS to send a copy of the NCD record to the Board and all parties to the NCD review within 30 days of receiving the Board's letter, a copy of the complaint, and any associated evidence, subject to extension for good cause shown.
(e) Consolidation of complaints regarding an NCD—(1) Criteria for condideration. If a review is pending regarding a particular NCD provision(s) and no decision has been issued ending the review, and a new acceptable complaint is filed, the Board consolidates the complaints and conducts a consolidated NCD review if all of the following criteria are met:
(i) The complaints are in regard to the same provision(s) of the same NCD, or there are other bases for consolidating the complaints.
(ii) The complaints contain common questions of law, common questions of fact, or both.
(iii) Consolidating the complaints does not unduly delay the Board's decision.
(2) Decision to consolidate complaint. If the Board decides to consolidate complaints, the Board does the following:
(i) Provides notification that the NCD review is consolidated and informs all parties of the docket number of the consolidated review.
(ii) Makes a single record of the proceeding.
(iii) Considers the relevant evidence introduced in each NCD complaint as introduced in the consolidated review.
(3) Decision not to consolidate complaints. If the Board decides not to consolidate complaints, the Board conducts separate NCD reviews for each complaint.
(f) Public notice of complaint and opportunity for interested parties to participate. (1) If an acceptable complaint is the first complaint the Board has received challenging the particular NCD or provision, then the Board posts notice on its Web site that it has received the complaint, specifying a time period for requests to participate in the review process.
(2) If an acceptable complaint challenges an NCD provision when review is pending and no decision has been issued ending the review, the Board may supplement the public notice on its Web site and extend the time for participation requests if indicated.
(3) The Board may allow participation, in the manner and by the deadlines established by the Board, when an NCD is being challenged and the Board decides that—
(i) The amicus participant has a clearly identifiable and substantial interest in the outcome of the dispute;
(ii) Participation would clarify the issues or otherwise be helpful in resolution of the dispute;
(iii) Participation does not result in substantial delay; and
(iv) The petition for participation meets the criteria in § 426.513.
§ 426.513 Participation as amicus curiae.
(a) Petition for participation. Any person or organization that wishes to participate as amicus curiae must timely file with the Board a petition that concisely states—
(1) The petitioner's interest in the hearing;
(2) Who will represent the petitioner; and
(3) The issues on which the petitioner intends to present argument.
(b) The nature of the proposed amicus participation. An amicus curiae is not a party to the hearing but may participate by—
(1) Submitting a written statement of position to the Board before the beginning of the hearing;
(2) Presenting a brief oral statement or other evidence at the hearing, at the point in the proceedings specified by the Board; and
(3) Submitting a brief or a written statement when the parties submit briefs.
(c) Service by amicus curiae. Serving copies of any briefs or written statements on all parties.
§ 426.515 CMS' role in making the NCD record available.
CMS will provide a copy of the NCD record (as described in § 426.518) to the Board and all parties to the NCD review within 30 days of the receipt of the Board's order.
§ 426.516 Role of Medicare Managed Care Organizations (MCOs) and State agencies in the NCD review process.
Medicare MCOs and Medicaid State agencies may participate in the NCD review process only if they meet the amicus participant criteria listed in §§ 426.510(f)(3) and 426.513.
§ 426.517 CMS' statement regarding new evidence.
(a) CMS may review any new evidence that is submitted, regardless of whether the Board has stayed the proceedings, including but not limited to new evidence:
(1) Submitted with the initial complaint;
(2) Submitted with an amended complaint;
(3) Produced during discovery;
(4) Produced when the Board consults with scientific and clinical experts; and
(5) Presented during any hearing.
(b) CMS may submit a statement regarding whether the new evidence is significant under § 426.340, by a deadline set by the Board.
§ 426.518 NCD record furnished to the aggrieved party.
(a) Elements of the NCD record furnished to the aggrieved party. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the NCD record consists of any document or material that CMS considered during the development of the NCD, including, but not limited to, the following:
(1) The NCD being challenged.
(2) Any medical evidence considered on or before the date the NCD was issued, including, but not limited to, the following:
(i) Scientific articles.
(ii) Technology assessments.
(iii) Clinical guidelines.
(iv) Statements from clinical experts, medical textbooks, claims data, or other indication of medical standard of practice.
(v) MCAC transcripts.
(3) Public comments received during the notice and comment period.
(4) Coverage decision memoranda.
(5) An index of documents considered that are excluded under paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) Elements of the NCD record not furnished to the aggrieved party. The NCD record furnished to the aggrieved party does not include the following:
(1) Proprietary data or privileged information.
(2) Any new evidence.
§ 426.519 NCD record furnished to the Board.
The NCD record furnished to the Board includes—
(a) Documents included in § 426.518(a); and
(b) Privileged information and proprietary data considered that must be filed with the Board under seal.
§ 426.520 Withdrawing an NCD under review or issuing a revised or reconsidered NCD.
(a) CMS may withdraw an NCD or NCD provision under review before the date the Board issues a decision regarding that NCD. Withdrawing an NCD or NCD provision under review has the same effect as a decision under § 426.560(b).
(b) CMS may revise an NCD under review to remove or amend the NCD provision listed in the complaint through the reconsideration process before the date the Board issues a decision regarding that NCD. Revising an NCD under review to remove the NCD provision in question has the same effect as a decision under § 426.560(b).
(c) CMS must notify the Board within 48 hours of—
(1) Withdrawing an NCD or NCD provision that is under review; or
(2) Issuing a revised or reconsidered version of the NCD that is under review.
(d) If CMS issues a revised or reconsidered NCD, CMS forwards a copy of the revised/reconsidered NCD to the Board.
(e) The Board must take the following actions upon receiving a notice that CMS has withdrawn or revised/reconsidered an NCD under review:
(1) If, before the Board issues a decision, the Board receives notice that CMS has withdrawn the NCD or revised the NCD to completely remove the provision in question, the Board must dismiss the complaint and inform the aggrieved party (ies) who sought the review that he or she or they will receive individual claim review without the retired/withdrawn provisions.
(2) If, before the Board issues a decision, the Board receives notice that CMS has revised the NCD provision in question but has not removed it altogether, the Board must continue the review based on the revised NCD. In this case, CMS must send a copy of the supplemental record to the Board and all parties. In that circumstance, the Board permits the aggrieved party to respond to the revised NCD and the supplemental record.
§ 426.523 Withdrawing a complaint regarding an NCD under review.
(a) Circumstance under which an aggrieved party withdraws a complaint regarding an NCD. An aggrieved party who filed a complaint regarding an NCD may withdraw the complaint before the Board issues a decision regarding that NCD. The aggrieved party may not file another complaint concerning the same coverage determination for 6 months.
(b) Process for an aggrieved party withdrawing a complaint regarding an NCD. To withdraw a complaint regarding an NCD, the aggrieved party who filed the complaint must send a written withdrawal notice to the Board (see § 426.500) and CMS. Supplementing an acceptable complaint with new evidence does not constitute a withdrawal of a complaint, as described in § 426.503.
(c) Actions the Board must take upon receiving a notice announcing the intent to withdraw a complaint regarding an NCD—(1) NCD reviews involving one aggrieved party. If the Board receives a withdrawal notice regarding an NCD before the date the Board issued a decision regarding that NCD, the Board issues a decision dismissing the complaint under § 426.544 and informs the aggrieved party that he or she may not file another complaint to the same coverage determination for 6 months.
(2) NCD reviews involving joint complaints. If the Board receives a notice from an aggrieved party who is named in a joint complaint withdrawing a complaint regarding an NCD before the date the Board issued a decision regarding that NCD, the Board issues a decision dismissing only that aggrieved party from the complaint under § 426.544. The Board continues the NCD review if there is one or more aggrieved party who does not withdraw from the joint complaint.
(3) Consolidated NCD reviews. If the Board receives a notice from an aggrieved party who is part of a consolidated NCD review withdrawing a complaint regarding an NCD before the date the Board issued a decision regarding that NCD, the Board removes that aggrieved party from the consolidated NCD review and issues a decision dismissing that aggrieved party's complaint under § 426.544. The Board continues the NCD review if there is one or more aggrieved party who does not withdraw from the joint complaint.
§ 426.525 NCD review.
(a) Opportunity for the aggrieved party after his or her review of the NCD record to state why the NCD is not valid. Upon receipt of the NCD record, the aggrieved party files a statement explaining why the NCD record is not complete, or not adequate to support the validity of the NCD under the reasonableness standard. This statement must be submitted to the Board and CMS, within 30 days (or within additional time as allowed by the Board for good cause shown) of the date the aggrieved party receives the NCD record.
(b) CMS response. CMS has 30 days, after receiving the aggrieved party's statement, to submit a response to the Board in order to defend the NCD.
(c) Board evaluation. (1) After the aggrieved party files a statement and CMS responds as described in § 426.525(a) and § 426.525(b), or the time for filing has expired, the Board applies the reasonableness standard to determine whether the NCD record is complete and adequate to support the validity of the NCD.
(2) Issuance of a decision finding the record complete and adequate to support the validity of the NCD ends the review process.
(3) If the Board determines that the NCD record is not complete and adequate to support the validity of the NCD, the Board permits discovery and the taking of evidence in accordance with § 426.532 and § 426.540, and evaluate the NCD in accordance with § 426.531.
(d) The process described in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section applies when an NCD record has been supplemented, except that discovery and the taking of evidence is not repeated. The period for the aggrieved party to file a statement begins when the aggrieved party receives the supplement.
§ 426.531 Board's review of the NCD to apply the reasonableness standard.
(a) Required steps. The Board must do the following to review the provision(s) listed in the aggrieved party's complaint based on the reasonableness standard:
(1) Confine the NCD review to the provision(s) of the NCD raised in the aggrieved party's complaint.
(2) Conduct a hearing unless the matter can be decided on the written record.
(3) Close the NCD review record to the taking of evidence.
(4) Treat as precedential any previous Board decision made under § 426.547 that involves the same NCD provision(s), same specific issue and facts in question, and the same clinical conditions.
(5) Issue a decision as described in § 426.547.
(b) Optional steps. The Board may consult with appropriate scientific or clinical experts concerning clinical and scientific evidence to apply the reasonableness standard to the provision(s) listed in the aggrieved party's complaint.
(c) Authority for the Board in NCD reviews when applying the reasonableness standard. In applying the reasonableness standard to a provision (or provisions) of an NCD, the Board must follow all applicable laws and regulations, as well as NCDs other than the one under review.
§ 426.532 Discovery.
(a) General rule. If the Board orders discovery, the Board must establish a reasonable timeframe for discovery.
(b) Protective order—(1) Request for a protective order. Any party receiving a discovery request may file a motion for a protective order before the date of production of the discovery.
(2) The Board granting of a protective order. The Board may grant a motion for a protective order if it finds that the discovery sought—
(i) Is irrelevant or unduly repetitive;
(ii) Is unduly costly or burdensome; or
(iii) Will unduly delay the proceeding.
(c) Types of discovery available. A party may obtain discovery via a request for the production of documents, and/or via the submission of up to 10 written interrogatory questions, relating to a specific NCD.
(d) Types of documents. For the purpose of this section, the term documents includes relevant information, reports, answers, records, accounts, papers, and other data and documentary evidence. Nothing contained in this section will be interpreted to require the creation of a document.
(e) Types of discovery not available. Requests for admissions, depositions, or any other forms of discovery, other than those permitted under paragraph (c) of this section, are not authorized.
(f) Privileged information or proprietary data. The Board must not under any circumstances order the disclosure of privileged information or proprietary data filed under seal without the consent of the party who possesses the right to protection of the information.
(g) Notification. The Board notifies all parties in writing when the discovery period will be closed.
§ 426.535 Subpoenas.
(a) Purpose of a subpoena. A subpoena requires the attendance of an individual at a hearing and may also require a party to produce evidence authorized under § 426.540 at or before the hearing.
(b) Filing a motion for a subpoena. A party seeking a subpoena must file a written motion with the Board not less than 30 days before the date fixed for the hearing. The motion must do all of the following:
(1) Designate the witnesses.
(2) Specify any evidence to be produced.
(3) Describe the address and location with sufficient particularity to permit the witnesses to be found.
(4) State the pertinent facts that the party expects to establish by witnesses or documents and state whether those facts could be established by evidence other than by the use of a subpoena.
(c) Response to a motion for a subpoena. Within 15 days after the written motion requesting issuance of a subpoena is served on all parties, any party may file an opposition to the motion or other response.
(d) Extension for good cause shown. The Board may modify the deadlines specified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section for good cause shown.
(e) Motion for a subpoena granted. If the Board grants a motion requesting issuance of a subpoena, the subpoena must do the following:
(1) Be issued in the name of the presiding Board member.
(2) Include the docket number and title of the NCD under review.
(3) Provide notice that the subpoena is issued according to sections 1872 and 205(d) and (e) of the Act.
(4) Specify the time and place at which the witness is to appear and any evidence the witness is to produce.
(f) Delivery of the subpoena. The party seeking the subpoena serves it by personal delivery to the individual named, or by certified mail return receipt requested, addressed to the individual at his or her last dwelling place or principal place of business.
(g) Motion to quash a subpoena. The individual to whom the subpoena is directed may file with the Board a motion to quash the subpoena within 10 days after service.
(h) Refusal to obey a subpoena. The exclusive remedy for contumacy by, or refusal to obey, a subpoena duly served upon any person is specified in section 205(e) of the Act (42 U.S.C. 405(e)) except that any reference to the “Commissioner of Social Security” shall be considered a reference to the “Secretary.”
§ 426.540 Evidence.
(a) Except as provided in this part, the Board is not bound by the Federal Rules of Evidence. However, the Board may apply the Federal Rules of Evidence when appropriate, for example, to exclude unreliable evidence.
(b) The Board must exclude evidence that it determines is clearly irrelevant or immaterial, or unduly repetitive.
(c) The Board may accept privileged information or proprietary data, but must maintain it under seal.
(d) The Board may permit the parties to introduce the testimony of expert witnesses on scientific and clinical issues, rebuttal witnesses, and other relevant evidence. The Board may require that the testimony of expert witnesses be submitted in the form of a written report, accompanied by the curriculum vitae of the expert preparing the report.
(e) Experts submitting reports must be available for cross-examination at an evidentiary hearing upon request of the Board or a party to the proceeding, or the report will be excluded from the record.
(f) Except as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section or unless otherwise ordered by the Board for good cause shown, all documents and other evidence offered or taken for the record is open to examination by all parties.
§ 426.544 Dismissals for cause.
(a) The Board may, at the request of any party, or on its own motion, dismiss a complaint if the aggrieved party fails to do either of the following:
(1) Attend or participate in a prehearing conference (the prehearing may be conducted by telephone) or hearing without good cause shown.
(2) Comply with a lawful order of the Board without cause shown.
(b) The Board must dismiss any complaint concerning NCD provision(s) if the following conditions exist:
(1) The Board does not have the authority to rule on that provision under § 426.505(d).
(2) The complaint is not timely. (See § 426.500(b)).
(3) The complaint is not filed by an aggrieved party.
(4) The complaint is filed by an individual who fails to provide an adequate statement of need for the service from the treating physician.
(5) The complaint challenges a provision or provisions of an LCD except as provided in § 426.476, regarding the Board's review of an ALJ decision. (See § 426.505, regarding the authority of the Board.)
(6) CMS notifies the Board that the NCD provision(s) is (are) no longer in effect.
(7) The aggrieved party withdraws the complaint. (See § 426.523, for requirements for withdrawing a complaint regarding an NCD under review.)
§ 426.545 Witness fees.
(a) A witness testifying at a hearing before the Board receives the same fees and mileage as witnesses in Federal district courts of the United States. If the witness qualifies as an expert, he or she is entitled to an expert witness fee. Witness fees are paid by the party seeking to present the witness.
(b) If the Board requests expert testimony, the Board is responsible for paying all applicable fees and mileage, unless the expert waives payment.
§ 426.546 Record of hearing.
The Board must ensure that all hearings are open to the public and are electronically, mechanically, or stenographically reported. Except for privileged information and proprietary data that are filed under seal, all evidence upon which the Board relies for decision must be admitted into the public record. All medical reports, exhibits, and any other pertinent document, either in whole or in material part, must be offered, marked for identification, and retained in the case record.
§ 426.547 Issuance, notification, and posting of a Board's decision.
The Board must do the following:
(a) Issue to all parties to the NCD review, within 90 days of closing the NCD review record to the taking of evidence, one of the following:
(1) A written decision, including a description of appeal rights.
(2) A written notification stating that a decision is pending, and an approximate date of issuance for the decision.
(b) Make the decision available at the HHS Medicare Internet site. The posted decision does not include any information that identifies any individual, provider of service, or supplier.
§ 426.550 Mandatory provisions of the Board's decision.
(a) Findings. The Board's decision must include one of the following:
(1) A determination that the provision of the NCD is valid under the reasonableness standard.
(2) A determination that the provision of the NCD is not valid under the reasonableness standard.
(3) A statement dismissing the complaint regarding the NCD, and a rationale for the dismissal.
(4) A determination that the LCD or NCD record is complete and adequate to support the validity of the LCD or NCD provisions under the reasonableness standard.
(b) Other information. The Board's decision must include all of the following:
(1) The date of issuance.
(2) The docket number of the NCD review.
(3) A statement as to whether the aggrieved party has filed a claim for the service(s) named in the complaint, the date(s)-of-service, and the disposition, if known.
(4) A basis for concluding that the NCD was or was not valid based on the application of the reasonableness standard to the record before the Board, including CMS':
(i) Findings of fact.
(ii) Interpretations of law.
(iii) Applications of fact to law.
(5) A summary of the evidence reviewed. Where proprietary or privileged data were submitted under seal, the decision must state whether the data were material and what role they played in the determination, but without disclosing the substance or contents of the evidence under seal. A separate statement of the rationale for the Board's treatment of the sealed evidence must be prepared and kept under seal itself. If the Board decision is appealed to the court, this statement must be provided to the court, under seal.
(6) A statement regarding the right to judicial review.
§ 426.555 Prohibited provisions of the Board's decision.
The Board's decision may not do any of the following:
(a) Order CMS to add any language to a provision or provisions of an NCD.
(b) Order CMS or its contractors to pay a specific claim.
(c) Set a time limit for CMS to establish a new or revised NCD.
(d) Review or evaluate an NCD other than the NCD under review.
(e) Include a requirement for CMS or its contractors that specifies payment, coding, or systems changes for an NCD, or deadlines for implementing these types of changes.
(f) Order or address how CMS implements an NCD.
§ 426.557 Optional provisions of the Board's decision.
When appropriate, the Board may limit a decision holding invalid a specific provision(s) of an NCD to specific clinical indications and for similar conditions.
§ 426.560 Effect of the Board's decision.
(a) Valid under the reasonableness standard. If the Board finds that the provision (or provisions) of an NCD named in the complaint is (are) valid under the reasonableness standard, the aggrieved party may challenge the final agency action in Federal court.
(b) Not valid under the reasonableness standard. If the Board finds that the provision (or provisions) of an NCD named in the complaint is (are) invalid under the reasonableness standard, then CMS instructs its contractor, M + C organization, or other Medicare managed care organization to provide the following—
(1) Individual claim review. (i) If the aggrieved party's claim/appeal(s) was previously denied, the contractor, an M + C organization, or another Medicare managed care organization must reopen the claim of the party who challenged the LCD and adjudicate the claim without using the provision(s) of the NCD that the Board found invalid.
(ii) If a revised NCD is issued, contractors, M + C organizations, and other Medicare managed care organizations must use the revised NCD in reviewing claim/appeal submissions or request for services delivered or services performed on or after the effective date of the revised NCD.
(iii) If the aggrieved party who sought review has not yet submitted a claim, the contractor must adjudicate the claim without using the provision(s) of the NCD that the Board found invalid.
(iv) In either case, the claim and any subsequent claims for the service provided under the same circumstances, must be adjudicated without using the NCD provision(s) found invalid.
(2) Coverage determination relief. Within 30 days, CMS implements the Board decision. Any change in policy is applied prospectively to requests for service or claims filed with dates of service after the implementation of the Board decision.
§ 426.562 Notice of the Board's decision.
After the Board has made a decision regarding an NCD complaint, the Board sends a written notice of the decision to each party. The notice must—
(a) State the outcome of the review; and
(b) Inform each party to the determination of his or her rights to seek further review if he or she is dissatisfied with the determination, and the time limit under which an appeal must be requested.
§ 426.563 Future new or revised or reconsidered NCDs.
CMS may not reinstate an NCD provision(s) found to be unreasonable unless CMS has a different basis (such as additional evidence) than what the Board evaluated.
§ 426.565 Board's role in making an LCD or NCD review record available.
Upon a request from a Federal Court, the Board must provide to the Federal Court a copy of the Board's LCD or NCD review record (as described in § 426.587).
§ 426.566 Board decision.
A decision by the Board constitutes a final agency action and is subject to judicial review. CMS may not appeal a Board decision.
§ 426.587 Record for appeal of a Board NCD decision.
(a) Elements of the Board's NCD review record furnished to the public. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the Board's NCD review record consists of any document or material that the Board compiled or considered during an NCD review, including, but not limited to, the following:
(1) The NCD complaint.
(2) The NCD and NCD record.
(3) The supplemental NCD record, if applicable.
(4) Transcripts of record.
(5) Any other evidence relevant gathered under § 426.540.
(6) The Board's decision.
(b) Documents excluded from the NCD review record furnished to the court. The NCD review record furnished to the court maintains the seal on privileged information or proprietary data that is maintained under seal by the Board. In the event a court seeks to obtain or requires disclosure of any documents excluded from the NCD record as privileged information or proprietary data, CMS or the Department seeks to have a protective order issued for those documents, as appropriate.
PART 427 MEDICARE PART B DRUG INFLATION REBATE PROGRAM
Authority: 42 U.S.C. 1395w-3a(i), 1302, and 1395hh.
Source: 89 FR 98578, Dec. 9, 2024, unless otherwise noted.
Subpart A General Provisions
§ 427.10 Basis and scope.
(a) Basis. This part implements section 1847A(i) of the Social Security Act (“the Act”).
(b) Scope. This part sets forth the requirements of the Medicare Part B Drug Inflation Rebate Program, which requires, for each calendar quarter, manufacturers to pay rebates for certain single source drugs and biological products with prices that increase faster than the rate of inflation.
(c) Severability. Were any provision of this part to be held invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, such provisions would be severable from this part and the invalidity or unenforceability would not affect the remainder thereof or any other part of this subchapter or the application of such provision to other persons not similarly situated or to other, dissimilar circumstances.
§ 427.20 Definitions.
As used in this part, the following definitions apply:
Allowed charges means the amount that is inclusive of the beneficiary coinsurance and Medicare payment for the covered Part B item or service.
Applicable calendar quarter means a calendar quarter (January 1 to March 31, April 1 to June 30, July 1 to September 30, or October 1 to December 31), starting with January 1, 2023.
Applicable threshold means the amount determined under § 427.101(c)(2).
Average sales price (ASP) means the manufacturer's price for a quarter for a drug represented by a particular 11-digit National Drug Code (NDC-11) determined under § 414.804 of this chapter.
Benchmark period Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (CPI-U) means the CPI-U as set forth in § 427.302(e).
Billing and payment code means the specific code used to classify and report a drug or biological for purposes of Medicare Part B payment. A Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) code, as established by CMS, is an example of a billing and payment code used to describe a drug or biological and for which CMS may publish a payment amount.
Billing unit means the identifiable quantity of a drug or biological product associated with a billing and payment code (for example, a HCPCS code), as established by CMS.
Biosimilar biological product has the meaning set forth in section 1847A(c)(6)(H) of the Act.
CPI-U means the monthly Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (United States city average) index level for all items from the Bureau of Labor Statistics.
Food and Drug Administration (FDA) application means, for the purposes of calculating the Part B rebate amount, a New Drug Application (NDA) or Biologics License Application (BLA) approved by the FDA.
Final action claim means a non-rejected claim for which a Medicare payment has been made, and for which all disputes and adjustments have been resolved.
First marketed date means the earliest date of first sale of any NDC-11 within a billing and payment code among all products and package sizes under the same FDA application. The first marketed date will be identified using ASP data reported by NDC-11 to CMS by a manufacturer as required under sections 1927(b)(3)(A)(iii)(I) and 1847A(f)(2) of the Act, if available.
Grouped billing and payment code, for the purposes of Part B rebate calculations, means a billing and payment code, such as a HCPCS code, other than a Not Otherwise Classified (NOC) code, that typically contains multiple drug products approved under multiple NDAs or BLAs and may be inclusive of, but are not limited to, multiple source billing codes.
Inflation-adjusted payment amount means the amount determined under § 427.302(g).
Manufacturer has the meaning set forth in section 1847A(c)(6)(A) of the Act.
National Drug Code (NDC) means the unique identifying prescription drug product number that is listed with FDA identifying the product and package size and type.
Not Otherwise Classified (NOC) code means a billing and payment code, including an unclassified, unspecified, or unlisted code, for drugs and biological products for which no specific billing and payment code is assigned.
Part B rebatable drug means, subject to the exclusions set forth in § 427.101(b), a single source drug or biological product, including a biosimilar biological product but excluding a qualifying biosimilar biological product, for which payment is made under Part B.
Payment amount benchmark quarter means the calendar quarter set forth in § 427.302(c).
Payment amount in the payment amount benchmark quarter means the amount set forth in § 427.302(d).
Rebate period CPI-U means the CPI-U set forth in § 427.302(f).
Single source drug or biological product has the meaning set forth in section 1847A(c)(6)(D) of the Act.
Sold or marketed means, with respect to an NDC, that the NDC has either a date of first sale identified using ASP data reported by NDC-11 to CMS by a manufacturer as required under sections 1927(b)(3)(A)(iii)(I) and 1847A(f)(2) of the Act, or an NDC Directory start marketing date prior to or during the applicable calendar quarter and meets any of the following criteria:
(1) The NDC has units reported for the rebate quarter;
(2) The end marketing date is during the rebate quarter;
(3) The end marketing date is after the rebate quarter; or
(4) The end marketing date is missing.
Specified amount means the amount set forth in § 427.302(b).
Subsequently approved drug means a drug first approved or licensed by the FDA after December 1, 2020.
Unit means, with respect to a Part B rebatable drug, with respect to each National Drug Code (including package size) associated with a drug or biological, the lowest identifiable quantity (such as a capsule or tablet, milligram of molecules, or grams) of the drug or biological that is dispensed, exclusive of any diluent without reference to volume measures pertaining to liquids as reported under section 1847A(b)(2)(B) of the Act.
[89 FR 98578, Dec. 9, 2024, as amended at 90 FR 50021, Nov. 5, 2025]
Subpart B Determination of Part B Rebatable Drugs
§ 427.100 Definitions.
As used in this subpart, the following definitions apply:
EUA Declaration means the March 27, 2020, Emergency Use Authorization (EUA) Declaration for Drugs and Biological Products under section 564 of the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic (FD&C) Act.
Individual who uses such a drug or biological means a unique Medicare Part B beneficiary who was furnished the Part B drug or biological that was covered under Part B during the applicable calendar quarter, identified using final action claims data with dates of service during the calendar year set forth in § 427.101(b)(6) and with allowed charges greater than zero.
§ 427.101 Identification of Part B rebatable drugs.
(a) Determination of Part B rebatable drugs. (1) For each applicable calendar quarter, CMS will:
(i) Identify single source drugs or biological products, including biosimilar biological products, covered under Part B; and
(ii) Identify the applicable billing and payment code for each drug or biological product set forth in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section.
(2) For a drug or biological product identified under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, CMS will determine whether the drug or biological product meets the exclusion criteria set forth in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section as of the first day of the applicable calendar quarter.
(3) To determine whether a drug or biological product is a Part B rebatable drug under this section, CMS will use the most recent available data submitted to CMS by manufacturers pursuant to section 1927(b)(3)(A)(iii) of the Act or section 1847A(f)(2), as applicable, and other available data, including but not limited to information available at FDA.gov and information in drug pricing compendia, as applicable.
(b) Excluded product categories. The following categories of products are not considered Part B rebatable drugs:
(1) Qualifying biosimilar biological products. Biological products as defined under section 1847A(b)(8)(B)(iii) of the Act.
(2) Products with historically excepted grouped billing and payment codes. Single source drugs or biological products that were within the same billing and payment code as of October 1, 2003, and which, as required under section 1847A(c)(6)(C)(ii) of the Act, are treated as multiple source drugs.
(3) Products billed under a NOC code. A drug or biological product billed under a NOC code.
(4) Radiopharmaceutical drugs and biological products. A separately payable radiopharmaceutical drug or biological product not paid under section 1847A of the Act.
(5) Skin substitutes. A product included within the suite of cellular- and tissue-based products that aid wound healing.
(6) Drugs with average total allowed charges under the applicable threshold. Drugs and biological products for which the Medicare Part B average total allowed charges for a year per individual that uses such drug or biological are below the applicable threshold, as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
(7) Certain vaccines and other products. The following products:
(i) The vaccines as set forth in section 1861(s)(10) of the Act, which includes the influenza, pneumococcal, hepatitis B, and COVID-19 vaccines.
(ii) Monoclonal antibodies used for treatment or post-exposure prophylaxis of COVID-19 that are covered and paid for under section 1861(s)(10) of the Act. This exclusion will apply to applicable quarters until the end of the calendar year in which the EUA Declaration ends.
(iii) Monoclonal antibodies that are used for pre-exposure prophylaxis of COVID-19 that are covered and paid for under section 1861(s)(10) of the Act. This exclusion will apply to applicable calendar quarters even after the year in which the EUA Declaration ends, as long as after the EUA Declaration is terminated, these products have an FDA-approved application or license.
(8) Generic drugs. Part B drugs approved under an Abbreviated New Drug Application (ANDA) submitted under section 505(j) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C Act).
(c) Drugs and biological products with average total allowed charges below the applicable threshold. For each applicable calendar quarter, CMS will identify drugs and biological products with Part B average total allowed charges for a year per individual that uses such a drug or biological product that are below the applicable threshold determined under the calculations set forth in this section. Such drugs and biological products are not considered Part B rebatable drugs and will be excluded from the identification of Part B rebatable drugs in paragraph (a) of this section.
(1) Average total allowed charges for a year per individual. For each drug or biological that is identified as set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, CMS will calculate average total allowed charges for a year per individual as follows:
(i) For single source drugs and biological products assigned to only one billing and payment code, CMS will sum the allowed charges from final action claims greater than $0 and divide the summed amount by the number of individuals who use such a drug or biological with allowed charges for this billing and payment code.
(ii) For single source drugs and biological products assigned to more than one billing and payment code, CMS will sum the allowed charges from final action claims greater than $0 for all billing and payment codes and divide the summed amount by the number of individuals who use such a drug or biological with allowed charges for these billing and payment codes.
(iii) For single source drugs and biological products previously crosswalked to a grouped billing and payment code:
(A) If crosswalked to a grouped billing and payment code during the full year, CMS will calculate the average total allowed charges per individual per year for the drug using allowed charges and the number of individuals who used the drug or biological product based on claims for the previously grouped billing and payment code during the year.
(B) If crosswalked to a grouped billing and payment code and later assigned to a unique billing and payment code for part of the year, CMS will calculate average total allowed charges per individual per year by:
(1) Summing the total allowed charges billed under the unique billing and payment code for the drug with dates of service on or after the Medicare effective date for this unique billing and payment code and identifying the individuals on those claims.
(2) Summing the total allowed charges on claims billed under the previously grouped billing and payment code and identifying individuals with claims prior to the unique billing and payment code's effective date.
(3) Summing the total allowed charges as determined in paragraphs (c)(1)(iii)(B)(1) and (2) of this section and dividing by the total number of individuals, de-duplicated for individuals determined under paragraphs (c)(1)(iii)(B)(1) and (2).
(2) Applicable threshold. CMS will calculate the applicable threshold for an applicable calendar quarter as follows:
(i) For applicable calendar quarters in 2023, the applicable threshold is equal to $100.
(ii) For applicable calendar quarters in 2024, the applicable threshold is equal to $100 increased by the percentage increase in the CPI-U for the 12-month period ending with June of 2023.
(iii) For applicable calendar quarters in each subsequent calendar year, the applicable threshold is equal to the unrounded applicable threshold calculated for the prior calendar year increased by the percentage increase in the CPI-U for the 12-month period ending with June of the previous year.
(iv) If the resulting amount under paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section is not a multiple of $10, CMS will round that amount to the nearest multiple of $10.
(3) Application of the applicable threshold at the billing and payment code level. For each applicable calendar quarter, CMS will apply the exclusion of drugs and biological products identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, with average total allowed charges for a year per individual less than the applicable threshold set forth in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, to applicable billing and payment codes as follows:
(i) For single source drugs or biological products assigned to a unique billing and payment code, CMS will exclude the assigned billing and payment code for an applicable calendar quarter if the average total allowed charges for a year per individual are less than the applicable threshold.
(ii) For a single source drug or biological product that is assigned to more than one billing and payment code during a year, CMS will exclude all such assigned billing and payment codes for an applicable calendar quarter.
(4) Definition of year. For purposes of the calculations set forth in this section, a year is defined as the 4 consecutive calendar quarters beginning 6 calendar quarters before the applicable calendar quarter. CMS will use final action claims from the Medicare fee-for-service claims repository where separate payment was allowed for the applicable billing and payment code for dates of service within a year to calculate Part B average total allowed charges for that year.
Subpart C Coinsurance Adjustment and Adjusted Medicare Payment for Part B Rebatable Drugs With Price Increases Faster Than Inflation
§ 427.200 Definitions.
As used in this subpart, inflation-adjusted beneficiary coinsurance means the coinsurance adjustment as determined under this subpart.
§ 427.201 Computation of beneficiary coinsurance and adjusted Medicare payment for Part B rebatable drugs with price increases faster than inflation.
(a) Methodology. CMS must use the methodology set forth in this section to calculate the inflation-adjusted beneficiary coinsurance and associated adjusted Medicare payment percentage for Part B rebatable drugs as set forth in §§ 410.152(m), 419.41(e), and 489.30(b)(6) of this chapter.
(b) Calculation of inflation-adjusted beneficiary coinsurance. To calculate the inflation-adjusted beneficiary coinsurance for Part B rebatable drugs with respect to a calendar quarter, CMS compares the payment amount, as set forth in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, to the inflation-adjusted payment amount for the applicable calendar quarter.
(1) If the payment amount exceeds the inflation-adjusted payment amount, the inflation-adjusted beneficiary coinsurance is calculated by multiplying the inflation-adjusted payment amount by 0.20.
(2) If the inflation-adjusted payment amount does not exceed the payment amount, the adjustment to the beneficiary coinsurance set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is not applied.
(3) CMS will use the published payment amount in quarterly pricing files published by CMS as the payment amount in this determination.
(c) Exclusions. Any drug that is excluded from Part B rebatable drugs as set forth in § 427.101(b) is not subject to inflation-adjusted beneficiary coinsurance.
Subpart D Determination of the Rebate Amount for Part B Rebatable Drugs
§ 427.300 Definitions.
As used in this subpart, the following definitions apply:
340B Program is the program under section 340B of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act.
Refundable single-dose container or single-use package drug has the meaning set forth in § 414.902 of this chapter.
§ 427.301 Calculation of the total Part B rebate amount to be paid by manufacturers.
(a) Total rebate. Subject to paragraph (b) of this section, the total rebate amount to be paid for a Part B rebatable drug, as identified under § 427.101, for an applicable calendar quarter is equal to the product of the per unit Part B rebate amount of such drug, as determined under § 427.302, and the billing units of the Part B rebatable drug furnished during the applicable calendar quarter, as identified as set forth in § 427.303. The rebate amount may be reduced as set forth in subpart E of this part or adjusted as set forth in subpart F of this part.
(b) Apportionment of the Part B rebate amount. CMS will identify billing and payment codes for which multiple manufacturers report ASP, as set forth in sections 1927(b)(3) and 1847A(f) of the Act, for NDCs assigned to the billing and payment code. CMS will calculate the rebate amount owed by each manufacturer by:
(1) Determining the total billing units sold for each NDC assigned to the billing and payment code, by multiplying the number of units reported by a manufacturer in ASP data submissions at the NDC-11 package level by the number of billing units per NDC-11 reporting unit.
(2) Summing the individual manufacturer's total billing units sold during the applicable calendar quarter (for all NDCs of the manufacturer assigned to the billing and payment code).
(3) Summing all manufacturers' total billing units sold during the applicable calendar quarter for all NDCs of the Part B rebatable drug assigned to the billing and payment code.
(4) Dividing the resulting amount from paragraph (b)(2) of this section by the resulting amount from paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
(5) Multiplying the resulting amount from paragraph (b)(4) of this section by the total rebate amount as determined under paragraph (a) of this section.
(c) Apportionment of the Part B rebate amount when reported units for NDCs within a billing and payment code are missing, negative, or equal to zero.
(1) When there are multiple NDCs in a grouped billing and payment code and the manufacturer-reported ASP units for all NDCs are either missing, negative, or equal to zero but there is a positive rebate amount calculated under § 427.302(a), CMS will:
(i) With respect to NDCs that were sold or marketed during the applicable calendar quarter and for which all NDCs assigned to the grouped billing and payment code lack manufacturer-reported ASP data for the applicable calendar quarter, equally apportion a positive rebate amount to NDCs with missing ASP units that were sold or marketed during the applicable calendar quarter by dividing the total rebate amount for the grouped billing and payment code by the total number of NDCs sold or marketed during the applicable calendar quarter within the billing and payment code; and
(ii) With respect to NDCs that were not sold or marketed during the applicable calendar quarter and lack manufacturer-reported ASP units for the applicable calendar quarter, NDCs with negative manufacturer-reported ASP units for the applicable calendar quarter, and NDCs with manufacturer-reported ASP units equal to zero for the applicable calendar quarter, apportion a $0 rebate amount to each respective NDC. If all NDCs assigned to the grouped billing and payment code are determined under this subparagraph, no rebate will be assessed for that billing and payment code.
(2) When there are multiple NDCs in a grouped billing and payment code and the manufacturer-reported ASP units for some but not all NDCs assigned to the grouped billing and payment code are either missing, negative, or equal to zero but there is a positive rebate amount calculated under § 427.302(a), CMS will:
(i) With respect to NDCs that were not sold or marketed during the applicable calendar quarter and lack manufacturer-reported ASP units for the applicable calendar quarter, NDCs with negative manufacturer-reported ASP units for the applicable calendar quarter, and NDCs with manufacturer-reported ASP units equal to zero for the applicable calendar quarter, apportion a $0 rebate amount to each respective NDC;
(ii) With respect to NDCs that were sold or marketed during the applicable calendar quarter and lack manufacturer-reported ASP units for the applicable calendar quarter, and NDCs that were sold or marketed during the applicable calendar quarter and for which respective NDCs have positive manufacturer-reported units by, apportion rebate amounts as follows:
(A) Solely for purposes of the calculation determined under this paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, assign to NDCs that were sold or marketed during the applicable calendar quarter and lack manufacturer-reported ASP units for the applicable calendar quarter the number of ASP units that is equal to the lowest positive number of manufacturer reported ASP units for any NDC in the grouped billing and payment code;
(B) Determine the total billing units sold for each NDC assigned to the billing and payment code, by multiplying the number of units reported by a manufacturer in ASP data submissions at the NDC-11 package level by the number of billing units per NDC-11 reporting unit;
(C) With respect to all NDCs of each individual manufacturer assigned to the billing and payment code, sum the total billing units for such NDCs sold during the applicable calendar quarter;
(D) Sum the total billing units sold during the applicable calendar quarter for all NDCs of the Part B rebatable drug assigned to the billing and payment code, including those assigned a ASP unit value as set forth in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section;
(E) Divide the resulting amount from paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(C) of this section by the resulting amount from paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(D) of this section; and
(F) Multiply the resulting amount from paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(E) of this section by the total rebate amount as determined under paragraph (a) of this section.
§ 427.302 Calculation of the per unit Part B rebate.
(a) Formula for calculating the per unit Part B rebate amount. CMS will calculate the per unit Part B rebate amount for a Part B rebatable drug and applicable calendar quarter by determining the amount by which the specified amount, as determined under paragraph (b) of this section, exceeds the inflation-adjusted payment amount, as determined under paragraph (g) of this section.
(b) Identification of the specified amount for the applicable calendar quarter. For each applicable calendar quarter, subject to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the specified amount is equal to the amount determined under section 1847A(i)(3)(A)(ii)(I)(aa) or (bb) of the Act, as applicable, for the calendar quarter.
(1) Subject to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the first applicable calendar quarter for a Part B rebatable drug shall be no earlier than the calendar quarter beginning January 1, 2023 and shall be the later of one of the following:
(i) The first full calendar quarter that is at least the third calendar quarter after the payment amount benchmark quarter identified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (5) of this section.
(ii) The calendar quarter beginning January 1, 2023.
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) of this section, for a Part B rebatable drug that was billed under a NOC code during the calendar quarter beginning July 1, 2021, or the third full calendar quarter after the effective date of the drug's assigned billing and payment code other than a NOC code, whichever is later, the first applicable calendar quarter is the first full calendar quarter that follows the payment amount benchmark quarter identified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (5) of this section.
(3) If all NDCs in the billing and payment code have neither manufacturer-reported ASP nor Wholesale Acquisition Cost (WAC) price data available for the applicable calendar quarter, CMS will use WAC price data from other public sources, if available, to calculate 106 percent of WAC, which will serve as the specified amount.
(c) Identification of the payment amount benchmark quarter. For each Part B rebatable drug, CMS identifies the applicable payment amount benchmark quarter as set forth in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section, as applicable, subject to paragraphs (c)(4) through (6) of this section, using the earliest first marketed date of any NDC ever marketed under any FDA application under which any NDCs that have ever been assigned to the billing and payment code as of the applicable calendar quarter have been marketed, and using the earliest approval or licensure date of any FDA application under which any NDCs that have ever been assigned to the billing and payment code as of the applicable calendar quarter have been marketed.
(1) For a Part B rebatable drug first approved or licensed by the FDA on or before December 1, 2020, and with a first marketed date on or before December 1, 2020, the payment amount benchmark quarter is the calendar quarter beginning July 1, 2021.
(2) For a Part B rebatable drug first approved or licensed by the FDA after December 1, 2020, the payment amount benchmark quarter is the third full calendar quarter after a drug's first marketed date.
(3) For a Part B rebatable drug first approved or licensed by the FDA on or before December 1, 2020, but with a first marketed date after December 1, 2020, the payment amount benchmark quarter is the third full calendar quarter after a drug's first marketed date.
(4) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(3) of this section, for a Part B rebatable drug that was billed under a NOC code during the calendar quarter beginning July 1, 2021, or the third full calendar quarter after such drug's first marketed date, whichever is later, the payment amount benchmark quarter is the third full calendar quarter after the Part B rebatable drug is assigned a billing and payment code other than a NOC code.
(5) If the data needed to calculate the payment amount in the payment amount benchmark quarter described in and determined under § 427.302(d)(1) are not available, CMS uses the third full calendar quarter after a drug is assigned a billing and payment code as the payment amount benchmark quarter, no earlier than the calendar quarter beginning July 1, 2021, or the third full calendar quarter after the drug's first marketed date, whichever is later.
(6) For a Part B rebatable drug that is a selected drug (as defined in section 1192(c) of the Act) with respect to a price applicability period (as defined in section 1191(b)(2) of the Act), in the case of a Part B rebatable drug that is no longer considered to be a selected drug, for each applicable quarter beginning after the price applicability period with respect to the drug, the payment amount benchmark quarter is the calendar quarter beginning January 1 of the last year during the price applicability period with respect to the selected drug.
(d) Identification of the payment amount in the payment amount benchmark quarter. CMS will identify the payment amount in the payment amount benchmark quarter using the published payment limit for the billing and payment code for the applicable payment amount benchmark quarter identified as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
(1) For a Part B rebatable drug, subject to paragraphs (d)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section and except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, CMS identifies the payment amount in the payment amount benchmark quarter using the published payment limit for the billing and payment code for the applicable payment amount benchmark quarter.
(i) If a published payment limit is not available for the applicable payment amount benchmark quarter, CMS calculates the payment amount in the payment amount benchmark quarter using positive ASP or positive WAC data from the ASP Data Collection System.
(ii) If a published payment limit is not available and neither positive ASP nor positive WAC data are available in the ASP Data Collection System, CMS calculates the payment amount in the payment amount benchmark quarter using WAC data from other public sources.
(2) For a Part B rebatable drug previously billed under a grouped billing and payment code during the payment amount benchmark quarter and later billed under a unique billing and payment code, CMS will use the grouped billing and payment code payment limit as the payment amount in the payment amount benchmark quarter.
(e) Identification of the benchmark period CPI-U. For each Part B rebatable drug, CMS will identify the applicable benchmark period CPI-U at the billing and payment code level as set forth in paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section, subject to paragraphs (e)(3) through (5) of this section:
(1) For a Part B rebatable drug first approved or licensed by the FDA on or before December 1, 2020, and with a first marketed date on or before December 1, 2020, the benchmark period CPI-U is the CPI-U for January 2021.
(2) For a Part B rebatable drug first approved or licensed by the FDA after December 1, 2020, the benchmark period CPI-U is the CPI-U for the first month of the first full calendar quarter after a drug's first marketed date.
(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (e)(2) of this section, for a Part B rebatable drug first approved or licensed by FDA on or before December 1, 2020, and with a first marketed date after December 1, 2020, the benchmark period CPI-U is the CPI-U for the first month of the first full calendar quarter after a drug's first marketed date.
(4) Notwithstanding paragraph (e)(3) of this section, for a Part B rebatable drug that was billed under a NOC code during the calendar quarter beginning July 1, 2021, or the third full calendar quarter after such drug's first marketed date, whichever is later, the benchmark period CPI-U is the CPI-U for the first month of the first full calendar quarter after the Part B rebatable drug is assigned a billing and payment code other than a NOC code.
(5) Notwithstanding paragraph (e)(4) of this section, for a Part B rebatable drug that is a selected drug (as defined in section 1192(c) of the Act) with respect to a price applicability period (as defined in section 1191(b)(2) of the Act), in the case such Part B rebatable drug is no longer considered to be a selected drug, the benchmark period CPI-U is the CPI-U for the July of the year preceding the last year during such price applicability period.
(f) Identification of the rebate period CPI-U. For each Part B rebatable drug by billing and payment code, CMS will identify and use the greater of the benchmark period CPI-U index level or the CPI-U index level for the first month of the calendar quarter that is two calendar quarters before the applicable calendar quarter in which the Part B rebatable drug is furnished.
(g) Determination of inflation-adjusted payment amount. For each applicable calendar quarter and for each Part B rebatable drug by billing and payment code, CMS will calculate the inflation-adjusted payment amount by dividing the rebate period CPI-U by the benchmark period CPI-U and then multiplying the quotient by the payment amount in the payment amount benchmark quarter, determined under paragraph (d) of this section.
[89 FR 98578, Dec. 9, 2024, as amended at 90 FR 20808, May 16, 2025; 90 FR 50021, Nov. 5, 2025]
§ 427.303 Determination of total number of billing units.
(a) General. For each Part B rebatable drug, CMS will determine the total number of billing units of the billing and payment code subject to a rebate in the applicable calendar quarter using final action Medicare fee-for-service claims for which Medicare payment was allowed and greater than zero.
(b) Total billing units. Using final action claims in the Medicare fee-for-service claims repository, at least 3 months after the end of the applicable calendar quarter, CMS will determine the total number of billing units for a Part B rebatable drug in an applicable calendar quarter by identifying separately payable claim lines for the billing and payment code for dates of service in that applicable calendar quarter and excluding the following billing units in claim lines as applicable:
(1) Billing units of drugs acquired through the 340B Program. CMS will exclude billing units acquired under the 340B Program as identified through—
(i) Separately payable units in all professional claim lines for dates of service during 2023 and 2024 that were billed with the “JG” or “TB” modifiers and separately payable billing units in claim lines for professional claims with dates of service during 2023 and 2024 from suppliers that are associated with covered entities listed by the Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA) 340B Office of Pharmacy Affairs Information System (OPAIS) as participating in the 340B Program. CMS will use National Provider Identifiers (NPI) and/or Medicare Provider Numbers (MPN), or other fields in the OPAIS database (such as name and address) if NPI or MPN is not available, to identify these suppliers and the claims submitted with such identifiers;
(ii) Separately payable billing units in claim lines for institutional claims that are billed with the “JG” or “TB” modifiers and units in institutional claims from covered entities that are critical access hospitals and Maryland waiver hospitals with dates of service from January 1, 2023 through December 31, 2023. CMS will use NPIs and MPNs, or other fields in the OPAIS database (such as name and address) if NPI or MPN are not available, to identify these suppliers and the claims submitted with such identifiers;
(iii) Separately payable billing units in claim lines for institutional claims that are billed with the “JG” or “TB” modifiers for claims with dates of service from January 1, 2024 through December 31, 2024; and
(iv) Separately payable billing units in claim lines billed with the “TB” modifier for claims with dates of service on or after January 1, 2025.
(2) Billing units with a rebate under section 1927 of the Social Security Act. Subject to paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, CMS will exclude billing units from claims with dates of service during a month within an applicable calendar quarter if the units are furnished to a dually eligible Medicare beneficiary who has Medicaid coverage that may provide cost-sharing assistance.
(i) CMS will not exclude billing units from claims when the Medicare beneficiary has Medicaid coverage that does not include cost-sharing assistance, including Specified Low-Income Medicare Beneficiaries (SLMB), Qualified Disabled and Working Individuals (QDWI), and Qualifying Individuals (QI) beneficiaries.
(ii) [Reserved]
(3) Billing units that are packaged into the payment amount for an item or service and are not separately payable. CMS will exclude billing units that are packaged into the payment amount for an item or service and are not separately payable.
(4) Billing units when a drug is no longer a Part B rebatable drug. In situations where a Part B rebatable drug that is a single source drug becomes a multiple source drug during an applicable calendar quarter, CMS will:
(i) Determine if such drug has become a multiple source drug by reviewing FDA's most recent publication of “Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations” (commonly known as the Orange Book) for a drug that is that is rated as therapeutically equivalent to such drug; and,
(ii) If a therapeutically equivalent drug is identified as set forth in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section, determine if the therapeutically equivalent drug was sold or marketed during the applicable calendar quarter; and
(iii) Exclude billing units of such drug furnished on and after the first day of the calendar month in which the therapeutically equivalent drug was first sold or marketed during the applicable calendar quarter.
(5) Billing units subject to discarded drug refunds. CMS will exclude billing units of discarded refundable single-dose container or single-use package drugs for which a refund is owed as set forth in § 414.940 of this chapter from the calculation of rebate amounts. For applicable calendar quarters beginning on or after January 1, 2024, these billing units will be excluded as part of the reconciliation process described at § 427.501(d).
§ 427.304 Adjustments for changes to billing and payment codes.
(a) Changes in billing unit dose description. If there has been a change to the dose description for a Part B rebatable drug (causing a new billing and payment code to be assigned), CMS will calculate a conversion factor based on the ratio of the billing unit dose description for the current billing and payment code to the billing unit dose description for the prior billing and payment code. CMS will apply the conversion factor to the payment amount in the payment amount benchmark quarter, as set forth in § 427.302(d), before applying the percentage by which the rebate period CPI-U for the calendar quarter exceeds the benchmark period CPI-U.
(b) Instances when a new billing and payment code is assigned. If a new billing and payment code is assigned for a Part B rebatable drug, CMS will use the payment amount in the payment amount benchmark quarter, the payment amount benchmark quarter, and the benchmark quarter CPI-U of the prior billing and payment code to calculate the per unit Part B rebate amount under § 427.302.
(c) Documentation. CMS will maintain a crosswalk reflecting the changes in billing and payment codes and dose descriptions as applicable.
Subpart E Reducing the Rebate Amount for Part B Rebatable Drugs in Shortage and When There Is a Severe Supply Chain Disruption
§ 427.400 Definitions.
As used in this subpart, the following definitions apply:
Currently in shortage means that at least one NDC-10 assigned to the billing and payment code of a Part B rebatable drug with the status “currently in shortage” is on a shortage list maintained by the FDA under section 506E of the FD&C Act.
Drug shortage or shortage means a period of time when the demand or projected demand for the drug within the United States exceeds the supply of the drug (see section 506C(h)(2) of the FD&C Act).
Natural disaster means any natural catastrophe, including, but not limited to any of the following: hurricane, tornado, storm, high water, wind-driven water, tidal wave, tsunami, earthquake, volcanic eruption, landslide, mudslide, snowstorm, or drought, or regardless of cause, any fire, flood, or explosion.
Other unique or unexpected event means any exogenous, unpredictable event outside of a manufacturer's control, including, but not limited to, a geopolitical disruption, pandemic, or act of terror.
Plasma-derived product means a licensed biological product that is derived from human whole blood or plasma, as indicated on the approved product labeling.
Severe supply chain disruption means a change in production or distribution that is reasonably likely to lead to a significant reduction in the U.S. supply of a Part B rebatable biosimilar biological product by a manufacturer and significantly affects the ability of the manufacturer of the biosimilar biological product to fill orders or meet expected demand for its product in the United States for at least 90 days. This definition does not include interruptions in manufacturing due to matters such as routine maintenance, manufacturing quality issues, or insignificant changes made in the manufacturing process for the drug.
§ 427.401 Reducing the rebate amount for Part B rebatable drugs currently in shortage.
(a) General. As required under section 1847A(i)(3)(G)(i) of the Act, CMS will reduce the total rebate amount determined under § 427.301(a), if any is owed, for a Part B rebatable drug that is currently in shortage, as set forth in § 427.400, at any point during the applicable calendar quarter.
(b) Calculation of the reduced rebate amount. (1) For each applicable calendar quarter beginning on or after January 1, 2023, the reduced total rebate amount for a Part B rebatable drug currently in shortage will be calculated using the following formula:
Equation 1 to Paragraph (b)(1)
Reduced Total Rebate Amount = the total rebate amount multiplied by (1 minus applicable percent reduction) multiplied by (percentage of time drug was currently in shortage during the applicable calendar quarter) added to the total rebate amount multiplied by (1 minus percentage of time drug was currently in shortage during the applicable calendar quarter)
(2) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the applicable percent reduction is:
(i) For a Part B rebatable drug that is a plasma-derived product:
(A) 75 percent for the first 4 consecutive applicable calendar quarters such drug is currently in shortage.
(B) 50 percent for the second 4 consecutive applicable calendar quarters such drug is currently in shortage.
(C) 25 percent for each subsequent applicable calendar quarter such drug is currently in shortage.
(ii) For a Part B rebatable drug that is not a plasma-derived product:
(A) 25 percent for the first 4 consecutive applicable calendar quarters such drug is currently in shortage.
(B) 10 percent for the second 4 consecutive applicable calendar quarters such drug is currently in shortage.
(C) 2 percent for each subsequent applicable calendar quarter such drug is currently in shortage.
(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(iv) of this section, CMS will apply the greatest applicable percent reduction as set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) or (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section starting with the first applicable calendar quarter that a Part B drug or biological product is described as currently in shortage regardless of whether the drug or biological product meets the definition of a Part B rebatable drug or whether a rebate amount is owed for that calendar quarter, starting with the calendar quarter that begins January 1, 2023.
(iv) If any applicable calendar quarter for which a rebate reduction determined under § 427.402 has been granted would be the first of the four consecutive applicable calendar quarters described in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) or (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section and the Part B rebatable drug or biological product continues to be currently in shortage after the rebate reduction period described in § 427.402, CMS will treat the quarter following the final quarter in which the rebate reduction determined under § 427.402 applies as the first of the four consecutive applicable calendar quarters so described.
(3) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the percentage of time the drug is currently in shortage during the applicable calendar quarter is equal to the number of days such drug is currently in shortage in an applicable calendar quarter, divided by the total number of days in the applicable calendar quarter.
(c) Application of reduction. CMS will apply a reduction of the rebate amount as determined under paragraph (b) of this section to all the NDCs under the relevant billing and payment code.
[89 FR 98578, Dec. 9, 2024, as amended at 90 FR 20808, May 16, 2025]
§ 427.402 Reducing the rebate amount for certain Part B rebatable drugs when there is a severe supply chain disruption.
(a) General. As required under section 1847A(i)(3)(G)(ii) of the Act, CMS will reduce the total rebate amount determined under § 427.301(a), if any is owed, for a Part B rebatable biosimilar biological product when CMS determines there is a severe supply chain disruption during the applicable calendar quarter such as that caused by a natural disaster or other unique or unexpected event.
(b) Calculation of the reduced rebate amount—(1) Initial reduction. If CMS determines the criteria set forth in paragraph (c)(4) of this section are met, then CMS will reduce the total rebate amount determined under § 427.301(a), if any is owed, for a Part B rebatable biosimilar biological product by 75 percent for the applicable calendar quarter in which the event occurred or began, or the following applicable calendar quarter if the request is submitted less than 60 calendar days before the end of an applicable calendar quarter, and the 3 subsequent applicable calendar quarters.
(2) Extension of reduction. If CMS determines a severe supply chain disruption continues into a fifth applicable calendar quarter as set forth in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, then CMS will reduce the total rebate amount determined under § 427.301(a), if any is owed, for a Part B rebatable biosimilar biological product by 75 percent for that fifth applicable calendar quarter and an additional 3 consecutive applicable calendar quarters.
(3) Application of reduction. If CMS determines there is a severe supply chain disruption for an NDC-11 assigned to a billing and payment code, CMS will apply any reduction of the rebate amount as determined under paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section to all the NDCs under the relevant billing and payment code.
(4) Limitation on rebate reductions. CMS will not apply multiple rebate reductions for the same Part B rebatable drug and applicable calendar quarter.
(i) If a manufacturer believes there are multiple events causing severe supply chain disruptions during the same 4 applicable calendar quarters for the same Part B rebatable biosimilar biological product and submits multiple rebate reduction requests for the same product, CMS will grant no more than 1 rebate reduction determined under paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section for that product for those consecutive applicable calendar quarters.
(ii) If CMS grants a rebate reduction request under this section, and the Part B rebatable biosimilar biological product subject to the reduction appears as currently in shortage during any of the 4 applicable calendar quarters as the ones for which the severe supply chain disruption reduction request was granted, CMS will reduce the rebate amount as determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and will not grant a reduction determined under § 427.401 during those applicable calendar quarters.
(iii) If a Part B rebatable biosimilar biological product that is currently in shortage experiences a severe supply chain disruption, CMS will reduce the rebate amount as determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and will not grant a reduction determined under § 427.401 during those applicable calendar quarters.
(c) Eligibility for a rebate reduction—(1) Eligible drug. Subject to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, eligibility for a rebate reduction under this section is limited to Part B rebatable biosimilar biological products for which a manufacturer submits a rebate reduction request under this section.
(2) Timing. For a natural disaster or other unique or unexpected event occurring on or after August 2, 2024, that the manufacturer believes caused a severe supply chain disruption, the manufacturer must submit the rebate reduction request within 60 calendar days from the first day that the natural disaster or other unique or unexpected event occurred or began in order to receive consideration for a reduction in the rebate amount owed as set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(3) Required elements of a rebate reduction request. To receive consideration for a reduction in the rebate amount owed determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the manufacturer must submit to CMS information and supporting documentation to substantiate the evaluation criteria set forth in paragraph (c)(4) of this section. Such information and supporting documentation include the following:
(i) Evidence that the severe supply chain disruption directly affects the manufacturer itself, a supplier of an ingredient or packaging, a contract manufacturer, or a method of shipping or distribution that the manufacturer uses to make or distribute the Part B rebatable biosimilar biological product(s), such as a change in the production or distribution of the Part B rebatable biosimilar biological product(s) that is reasonably likely to lead to a significant reduction in the U.S. supply of product and significantly affects the manufacturer's ability to fill orders or meet expected demand for the Part B rebatable biosimilar biological product(s) for at least 90 days;
(ii) Information about when the manufacturer expects supply of the Part B rebatable biosimilar biological product(s) to meet expected demand;
(iii) Evidence that the natural disaster or other unique or unexpected event caused the severe supply chain disruption, including when the natural disaster or other unique or unexpected event occurred or began occurring, and the expected or actual duration of the severe supply chain disruption; and
(iv) Evidence of the manufacturer's physical presence related to manufacturing the Part B rebatable biosimilar biological product(s) in a geographic area where a natural disaster or other unique or unexpected event occurred. If the manufacturer is not physically present in a geographic area where a natural disaster or other unique or unexpected event occurred, but believes there is a severe supply chain disruption caused by a natural disaster or other unique or unexpected event that affects the manufacturer's Part B rebatable biosimilar biological product(s), the information and supporting documentation may include evidence of the impact of the natural disaster or other unique or unexpected event on the supply chain of the Part B rebatable drug or biosimilar, on a supplier of an ingredient or packaging, or method of shipping or distribution that the manufacturer uses.
(4) Evaluation criteria. In accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, CMS will grant a reduction in the rebate amount determined under § 427.301(a), if any is owed, if a manufacturer submits to CMS a request in writing for an eligible drug, in accordance with the timing set forth in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, demonstrating that:
(i) A severe supply chain disruption has occurred during the applicable calendar quarter;
(ii) The severe supply chain disruption directly affects the manufacturer itself, a contract manufacturer, a supplier of an ingredient or packaging, or a method of shipping or distribution that the manufacturer uses in a significant capacity to make or distribute the Part B rebatable biosimilar biological product; and
(iii) The severe supply chain disruption was caused by a natural disaster or other unique or unexpected event.
(5) Rebate reduction extensions. If CMS determines that a Part B rebatable biosimilar biological product that received a reduction of the rebate amount as determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section continues to be affected by a severe supply chain disruption, CMS will grant a single extension of the reduction for 4 additional consecutive applicable calendar quarters and reduce the rebate amount calculated at § 427.301(a), if any is owed as determined under paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
(i) To receive consideration for a rebate reduction extension, a manufacturer must submit a request with updated or new information and supporting documentation on why the Part B rebatable biosimilar biological product continues to be affected by the severe supply chain disruption during the fifth through eighth applicable calendar quarters.
(ii) A manufacturer must submit the rebate reduction extension request at least 60 calendar days before the start of the fifth applicable calendar quarter to receive consideration for a reduction in the rebate amount owed, if any, as determined under paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
(6) Decision to grant or deny a request. CMS will review rebate reduction requests and rebate reduction extension requests within 60 calendar days of receipt of all documentation, if feasible, beginning with the applicable calendar quarter that begins on October 1, 2024.
(i) CMS will deny a rebate reduction request that does not meet the criteria set forth in paragraph (c)(4) of this section or that is incomplete or untimely based on the requirements set forth in this paragraph (c).
(ii) CMS will deny a rebate reduction extension request that does not meet the criteria set forth in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, that is incomplete or untimely based on the requirements set forth in paragraph (c)(5), or if a reduction determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section was not granted for such biosimilar biological product.
(iii) CMS' decisions to deny a request are final and will not be subject to an appeals process.
(7) Public disclosure of information. CMS will keep confidential, to the extent allowable under law, any requests for a rebate reduction, including supporting documentation. Information provided as part of a request for a rebate reduction that the submitter indicates is a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information will be protected from disclosure if CMS determines the information meets the requirements set forth under Exemptions 3 and/or 4 in 5 U.S.C. 552.
Subpart F Reports of Rebate Amounts, Reconciliation, Suggestion of Error, and Payments
§ 427.500 Definitions.
As used in this subpart, date of receipt is the calendar day following the day on which a report of a rebate amount (as set forth in §§ 427.501(b) through (d) and 427.502(b) and (c) is made available to the manufacturer of a Part B rebatable drug by CMS.
§ 427.501 Rebate Reports and reconciliation.
(a) General. This section applies to Part B rebatable drugs for all applicable calendar quarters except as otherwise set forth in § 427.502 regarding the applicable calendar quarters in calendar years 2023 and 2024.
(b) Preliminary Rebate Report. A Preliminary Rebate Report will be provided to each manufacturer of a Part B rebatable drug at least 1 month prior to the issuance of the Rebate Report as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section for an applicable calendar quarter.
(1) The Preliminary Rebate Report for each Part B rebatable drug will include the following information:
(i) The NDC(s) and billing and payment codes identified for the Part B rebatable drug set forth in § 427.20.
(ii) Total number of billing units as determined under § 427.303.
(iii) Payment amount benchmark quarter and payment amount in the payment amount benchmark quarter as determined under § 427.302(c) and (d).
(iv) Applicable calendar quarter specified amount as determined under § 427.302(b).
(v) Applicable benchmark period and rebate period CPI-Us as set forth in § 427.302(e) and (f).
(vi) Inflation-adjusted payment amount as determined under § 427.302(g).
(vii) The amount, if any, by which the specified amount as determined under § 427.302(b) exceeds the inflation-adjusted payment amount as determined under § 427.302(g) for the Part B rebatable drug for the applicable calendar quarter as set forth in § 427.302.
(viii) Any applied reductions as determined under §§ 427.401 and 427.402.
(ix) Rebate amount due as determined under § 427.301(a).
(2) [Reserved]
(c) Rebate Report. A Rebate Report will be provided to each manufacturer of a Part B rebatable drug no later than 6 months after the end of each applicable calendar quarter.
(1) The Rebate Report will include the information specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, with the inclusion of any revisions to such information resulting from CMS' review of a Suggestion of Error as set forth in § 427.503, if applicable, and any CMS-determined recalculations from paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
(2) The Rebate Report is the invoice of a manufacturer's rebate amount due as determined under § 427.301, if any, for a Part B rebatable drug for an applicable calendar quarter.
(3) The manufacturer's rebate amount due is reported as a dollar amount rounded to the nearest cent.
(d) Reconciliation of the rebate amount. CMS will perform reconciliation of a rebate amount provided in a Rebate Report specified in paragraph (c) of this section for an applicable calendar quarter in the following circumstances:
(1) Regular reconciliation. Except as otherwise set forth in § 427.502, CMS will perform one regular reconciliation of the rebate amount within 12 months of the date of receipt of the Rebate Report for each applicable calendar quarter to include revisions to the information used to calculate the rebate amount set forth in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
(i) Preliminary reconciliation. At least 1 month prior to the issuance of a report with the reconciled rebate amount for an applicable calendar quarter as set forth in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, CMS will conduct a preliminary reconciliation of the rebate amount for an applicable calendar quarter based on the information set forth in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (ix) of this section and provide the information set forth in paragraphs (b)(1) and (d)(1)(i)(A) through (F) of this section to the manufacturer of a Part B rebatable drug for the applicable calendar quarter, if applicable:
(A) Updated total number of rebatable units, as determined under § 427.303.
(B) Updated payment amount benchmark quarter and payment amount in the payment amount benchmark quarter, as determined under § 427.302(c) and (d) if any inputs are restated within the reconciliation run-out period.
(C) Applicable calendar quarter specified amount as determined under § 427.302(b), if any inputs are restated within the reconciliation run-out period.
(D) The excess amount by which the specified amount exceeds the inflation-adjusted payment amount as determined under § 427.302, if any inputs are restated within the reconciliation run-out period.
(E) Reconciled total rebate amount as determined under § 427.301(a).
(F) The difference between the total rebate amount due as specified on the Rebate Report set forth in paragraph (c) of this section and the reconciled rebate amount as set forth in this paragraph (d)(1)(i).
(ii) Report with reconciled rebate amount. With the inclusion of any additional revisions to such information resulting from CMS' review of a Suggestion of Error as set forth in § 427.503, if applicable, a report with the reconciled rebate amount will be provided to each manufacturer of a Part B rebatable drug within 12 months after the issuance of the Rebate Report described in paragraph (c) of this section.
(2) CMS identification of error and manufacturer misreporting. CMS may recalculate a rebate amount and provide the manufacturer of a Part B rebatable drug a report with a reconciled rebate amount when:
(i) CMS identifies an agency error in the information specified in paragraphs (c) and (d)(1) of this section, including reporting system or coding errors, not later than 3 years from the date of receipt by a manufacturer of a reconciled rebate amount for the applicable calendar quarter; or
(ii) CMS determines at any time that the information used by CMS to calculate the rebate amount was inaccurate due to manufacturer misreporting.
(3) Impact of reconciliation on rebate amount. A reconciliation as set forth in this paragraph (d) could result in an increase, decrease, or no change to the rebate amount, as determined under § 427.301, owed by a manufacturer for the applicable calendar quarter for the Part B rebatable drug compared to the amount described in the Rebate Report described in paragraph (c) of this section or an amount described in a previous reconciliation.
(i) A report with a reconciled rebate amount that is an increase to the rebate amount is the invoice for such additional amount due on the manufacturer's rebate amount as determined under § 427.301 for a Part B rebatable drug for an applicable calendar quarter.
(ii) [Reserved]
(4) Drugs included in a reconciliation. A drug covered under Part B that does not meet the requirements of a rebatable drug specified in subpart B for an applicable calendar quarter will not be included in a reconciliation under this paragraph (d).
[89 FR 98578, Dec. 9, 2024, as amended at 90 FR 20808, May 16, 2025; 90 FR 50021, Nov. 5, 2025]
§ 427.502 Rebate Reports for applicable calendar quarters in calendar years 2023 and 2024.
(a) Transition rule for reporting. Section 1847A(i)(1)(C) of the Act allows CMS to delay the timeframe for reporting the information and rebate amount described in § 427.501(c) for applicable calendar quarters in calendar years 2023 and 2024 until not later than September 30, 2025.
(b) Rebate Report information for applicable calendar quarters in calendar years 2023 and 2024. The Rebate Reports for applicable calendar quarters in calendar years 2023 and 2024 will include the information set forth in § 427.501(b)(1).
(c) Rebate Report procedures for applicable calendar quarters in calendar years 2023 and 2024. Rebate amounts for the applicable calendar quarters in calendar year 2023 and 2024 will be reported as follows:
(1) The 4 applicable calendar quarters in calendar year 2023 will be consolidated into a single report and manufacturers will receive a single Preliminary Rebate Report followed by a single Rebate Report.
(i) Discarded drug units for which a refund is owed will be removed from the total number of billing units in the single Preliminary Rebate Report for the applicable calendar quarters in calendar year 2023.
(ii) For this single Preliminary Rebate Report for the applicable calendar quarters in calendar year 2023, the Suggestion of Error period as set forth in § 427.503 will be 30 calendar days.
(iii) No regular reconciliation of the rebate amount as set forth in § 427.501(d)(1) will be conducted for the rebate amount in the single Rebate Report for the applicable calendar quarters in calendar year 2023.
(2) The four applicable calendar quarters in calendar year 2024 will be consolidated into a single report and manufacturers will receive a single Preliminary Rebate Report followed by a single Rebate Report.
(i) For this single Preliminary Rebate Report for the applicable calendar quarters in calendar year 2024, the Suggestion of Error period as set forth in § 427.503 will be 30 calendar days.
(ii) Within 9 months after issuance of the single Rebate Report, CMS will perform one regular reconciliation for the applicable calendar quarters in calendar year 2024 in order to include revisions to the information used, determined under § 427.501(b)(1), to calculate the rebate amount. Such reconciliation will be as determined under § 427.501(d) inclusive of a preliminary reconciliation and a report with the reconciled rebate amount.
(iii) The Suggestion of Error period for the preliminary reconciliation for the applicable calendar quarters in calendar year 2024 will be 10 calendar days.
[89 FR 98578, Dec. 9, 2024, as amended at 90 FR 50021, Nov. 5, 2025; 91 FR 12081, Mar. 12, 2026]
§ 427.503 Suggestion of Error.
(a) General. The manufacturer of a Part B rebatable drug may submit a Suggestion of Error about the information in their Preliminary Rebate Report and the report detailing the preliminary reconciliation of the rebate amount to CMS, for its discretionary consideration, if the manufacturer believes that there is a mathematical error or errors to be corrected before the Rebate Report or a subsequent reconciliation of the rebate amount, as applicable, is finalized.
(1) Section 1847A(i)(8) of the Act precludes administrative or judicial review on the determination of units as set forth in § 427.303, the determination of whether a drug is a Part B rebatable drug as set forth in § 427.101, and the calculation of the rebate amount as set forth in § 427.301, inclusive of any reconciled rebate amount.
(2) [Reserved]
(b) Process of submission. Subject to the scope and timing requirements specified in paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section, manufacturers may submit the Suggestion of Error and provide supporting documentation (if applicable).
(c) Timing. Except as set forth in § 427.502 for applicable calendar quarters in calendar year 2023 and 2024, a manufacturer must submit its Suggestion of Error for the applicable calendar quarter within 10 calendar days from the date of receipt of a Preliminary Rebate Report or a preliminary reconciliation of a rebate amount using the method and process established by CMS in paragraph (b) of this section.
(d) Notice. (1) CMS will include any revisions to the calculation of the rebate amount, if determined necessary by CMS based on the Suggestion of Error submitted under this section prior to issuance of the Rebate Report as set forth in § 427.501(c) or § 427.502(c) as well as any report of reconciled rebate amount as set forth in § 427.501(d) or § 427.502(c)(2)(ii).
(2) CMS will notify the manufacturer whether CMS revised its calculation of the rebate amount based on the Suggestion of Error.
§ 427.504 Manufacturer access to Rebate Reports.
(a) General. CMS will establish a method and process for a manufacturer of the Part B rebatable drug to:
(1) Access the manufacturer's Rebate Report as set forth in §§ 427.501 and 427.502, including any report of reconciled rebate amount as set forth in §§ 427.501(d) and 427.502(c)(2)(ii);
(2) Submit a Suggestion of Error as set forth in §§ 427.502(c)(1)(ii) and (c)(2)(i) and 427.503; and
(3) Pay a rebate amount as set forth in § 427.505.
(b) [Reserved]
§ 427.505 Deadline and process for payment of rebate amount.
(a) Rebate amounts owed by a manufacturer. For a rebate amount owed by a manufacturer, payment is due no later than 11:59 p.m. Pacific Time (PT) on the 30th calendar day after the date of receipt of information regarding the rebate amount on—
(1) A Rebate Report as set forth in § 427.501(c) or § 427.502(c)(1) or (2); or
(2) A report of a reconciled rebate amount as set forth in § 427.501(d) or § 427.502(c)(2)(ii).
(b) Failure to pay a rebate amount. Failure to pay a rebate amount due timely and in full may result in an enforcement action as described in subpart G of this part.
(c) Refund to the manufacturer. If a reconciled rebate amount for an applicable calendar quarter as set forth in § 427.501(d) or § 427.502(c)(2)(ii) is less than what the manufacturer paid for that applicable calendar quarter, CMS will initiate the process to provide a refund equal to the excess amount paid within 60 days of the date of receipt of the report with such reconciled rebate amount.
Subpart G Enforcement of Manufacturer Payment of Rebate Amounts
§ 427.600 Civil money penalty notice and appeals procedures.
(a) General. CMS may impose a civil money penalty on a manufacturer that fails to pay the rebate amount determined in § 427.301(a) on a Part B rebatable drug as set forth in § 427.101, by the payment deadline as set forth in § 427.505(a) for such drug for such applicable calendar quarter.
(b) Determination of the civil money penalty amount. CMS may impose a civil money penalty for each failure by a manufacturer to provide an inflation rebate for an applicable calendar quarter equal to 125 percent of the rebate amount determined in § 427.301(a).
(1) The civil money penalty is in addition to the rebate amount due.
(2) If a reconciled rebate amount as determined in § 427.501(d) or § 427.502(c)(2)(ii) results in an increase to the rebate amount due, a separate civil money penalty may be imposed for the failure by a manufacturer to provide an inflation rebate for the applicable quarter for the increase to the rebate amount due.
(c) Notice of imposition of civil money penalties. If CMS makes a determination to impose a civil money penalty described in paragraph (b) of this section, CMS will send a written notice of its decision to impose a civil money penalty that includes the following:
(1) A description of the basis for the determination.
(2) The basis for the penalty.
(3) The amount of the penalty.
(4) The date the penalty is due.
(5) The manufacturer's right to a hearing as set forth in paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
(6) Information about where to file the request for a hearing.
(d) Collection. (1) A manufacturer must pay the civil money penalty in full within 60 calendar days after the date of the notice of imposition of a civil money penalty from CMS under paragraph (c) of this section.
(2) In the event a manufacturer requests a hearing, pursuant to 42 CFR part 423, subpart T, the manufacturer must pay the amount in full within 60 calendar days after the date of a final decision by the Departmental Appeal Board, to uphold, in whole or in part, the civil money penalty.
(3) If the 60th calendar day described in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section is a weekend or a Federal holiday, then the timeframe is extended until the end of the next business day.
(e) Appeal procedures for civil money penalties. Section 1128A(c)(2) of the Act provides that CMS may not collect a civil money penalty until the affected party has had notice and the opportunity for a hearing.
(1) Manufacturers may appeal the following determinations:
(i) A CMS determination that the rebate amount was not paid by the applicable payment deadline as set forth in § 427.505.
(ii) The calculation of the amount of the civil money penalty.
(2) If CMS decides to impose a civil money penalty, CMS will provide the manufacturer with notice pursuant to the process set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
(3) A manufacturer has a right to a hearing following a decision by CMS to impose a civil money penalty following the administrative appeal process and procedures established in 42 CFR part 423, subpart T.
(f) Other applicable provisions. The provisions of section 1128A of the Act (except subsections (a) and (b) of section 1128A of the Act) apply to civil money penalties under this section to the same extent that they apply to a civil money penalty or procedures under section 1128A of the Act.
(g) Bankruptcy. In the event that a manufacturer declares bankruptcy, as described in title 11 of the United States Code, and as a result of the bankruptcy, fails to pay either the full rebate amount owed or the total sum of civil money penalties imposed, the Government reserves the right to file a proof of claim with the bankruptcy court to recover the unpaid amount of the rebates and civil money penalties owed by the manufacturer.
PART 428 MEDICARE PART D DRUG INFLATION REBATE PROGRAM
Authority: 42 U.S.C. 1395w-114b, 1302, and 1395hh.
Source: 89 FR 98588, Dec. 9, 2024, unless otherwise noted.
Subpart A General Provisions
§ 428.10 Basis and scope.
(a) Basis. This part implements section 1860D-14B of the Social Security Act (“the Act”).
(b) Scope. This part sets forth the requirements of the Medicare Part D Drug Inflation Rebate Program, which requires, for each 12-month applicable period, manufacturers to pay rebates for certain drugs and biological products with prices that increase faster than the rate of inflation.
(c) Severability. Were any provision of this part to be held invalid or unenforceable by its terms, or as applied to any person or circumstance, such provisions would be severable from this part and the invalidity or unenforceability would not affect the remainder thereof or any other part of this subchapter or the application of such provision to other persons not similarly situated or to other, dissimilar circumstances.
§ 428.20 Definitions.
As used in this part, the following definitions apply:
Annual manufacturer price (AnMP) means the amount determined under § 428.202(b).
Applicable period means a 12-month period beginning with October 1 of a year (beginning with October 1, 2022).
Applicable period Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (CPI-U) means, with respect to an applicable period, the CPI-U for the first month of such applicable period (that is, October).
Applicable threshold means the amount determined under § 428.101(b)(2).
Average manufacturer price (AMP) means the average price paid to the manufacturer for the drug by wholesalers for drugs distributed to retail community pharmacies and retail community pharmacies that purchase drugs directly from the manufacturer, determined under § 447.504 of this chapter.
Benchmark period CPI-U means the CPI-U identified as set forth in § 428.202(e).
Benchmark period manufacturer price means the amount determined under § 428.202(d).
Covered Part D Drug has the meaning set forth in section 1860D-2(e) of the Act and § 423.100 of this chapter.
CPI-U means the monthly Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (United States city average) index level for all items from the Bureau of Labor Statistics.
First marketed date means the date that a manufacturer is required to report for a Part D rebatable drug as its “market date” under section 1927(b)(3)(A)(v) of the Act.
Inflation-adjusted payment amount means the amount determined under § 428.202(f).
Manufacturer has the meaning set forth in section 1927(k)(5) of the Act.
National Drug Code (NDC) means the unique identifying prescription drug product number that is listed with FDA identifying the product.
Part D rebatable drug means, subject to the exclusion set forth in § 428.101(b), a drug or biological that is a covered Part D drug that, as of the first day of the applicable period, is:
(1) A drug approved under a New Drug Application (NDA) under section 505(c) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic (FD&C) Act;
(2) A generic drug approved under an Abbreviated New Drug Application (ANDA) under section 505(j) of the FD&C Act (“section 505(j) ANDA”), in the case where:
(i) The reference listed drug approved under an NDA under section 505(c) of the FD&C Act, including any authorized generic drug as defined in section 505(t)(3) of the FD&C Act, is not being marketed, as identified in the Food and Drug Administration's (FDA) NDC Directory;
(ii) There is no other drug approved under section 505(j) of the FD&C Act that is rated as therapeutically equivalent in FDA's most recent publication of “Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations” (commonly known as the Orange Book), and that is being marketed, as identified in FDA's NDC Directory;
(iii) The manufacturer is not a “first applicant” during the “180-day exclusivity period,” as those terms are defined in section 505(j)(5)(B)(iv) of the FD&C Act; and
(iv) The manufacturer is not a “first approved applicant” for a competitive generic therapy, as that term is defined in section 505(j)(5)(B)(v) of the FD&C Act; or
(3) A biological licensed under section 351 of the Public Health Service (PHS) Act, including a biosimilar.
Payment amount benchmark period means the period identified as set forth in § 428.202(c).
Subsequently approved drug means a Part D rebatable drug first approved or licensed by the FDA after October 1, 2021.
Unit means, with respect to a Part D rebatable drug, the lowest dispensable amount (such as a capsule or tablet, milligram of molecules, or grams) of the Part D rebatable drug, as reported under section 1927 of the Act.
Subpart B Determination of Part D Rebatable Drugs
§ 428.100 Definitions.
As used in this subpart, the following definitions apply:
Individual who uses such a drug or biological means a unique Medicare Part D beneficiary who was dispensed the Part D drug or biological that was covered by their Part D plan sponsor during the applicable period, identified using Prescription Drug Event (PDE) data with dates of service during the applicable period and with gross covered prescription drug costs greater than zero.
Gross covered prescription drug costs has the meaning set forth in § 423.308 of this chapter.
§ 428.101 Identification of Part D rebatable drugs.
(a) Determination of Part D rebatable drugs. (1) For each applicable period, CMS will use PDE data to identify all covered Part D drugs.
(2) CMS will match the covered Part D drugs identified in the PDE data with application numbers using FDA sources to determine whether each covered Part D drug is a drug or biological approved under an NDA under section 505(c) of the FD&C Act, approved under an ANDA under section 505(j) of the FD&C Act, or licensed under a Biologics License Application (BLA) under section 351 of the PHS Act, as of the first day of the applicable period.
(3) For a covered Part D drug identified in the PDE that is approved under an ANDA under section 505(j) of the FD&C Act, CMS will determine whether such drug meets the criteria in section 1860D-14B(g)(1)(C)(ii) of the Act as of the first day of the applicable period as follows:
(i) To determine whether the reference listed drug or an authorized generic of the reference listed drug is being marketed, as required under section 1860D-14B(g)(1)(C)(ii)(I) of the Act, CMS will use FDA's NDC Directory, including historical information from NDC Directory files such as discontinued, delisted, and expired listings, provided by the FDA or published on the FDA website.
(ii) To determine whether another drug has been approved under an ANDA that is therapeutically equivalent to the Part D rebatable drug identified as set forth in this paragraph (a)(3), CMS will use FDA's Orange Book. To determine if this therapeutically equivalent drug is being marketed, as required under section 1860D-14B(g)(1)(C)(ii)(II) of the Act, CMS will use FDA's NDC Directory, including historical information from NDC Directory files, such as discontinued, delisted, and expired listings, provided by the FDA or published on the FDA website.
(iii) To determine whether the manufacturer of the drug identified as set forth in this paragraph (a)(3) is a first applicant during the 180-day exclusivity period, or whether the manufacturer of this drug is a first approved applicant for a competitive generic drug therapy, CMS will refer to publicly available FDA sources such as the Orange Book and may consult with FDA for technical assistance as needed.
(b) Drugs and biologicals with average annual total cost below the applicable threshold. For each applicable period, CMS will identify drugs and biologicals with average annual total costs under Part D for such applicable period, per individual who uses such drug or biological, that are below the applicable threshold in accordance with the steps described in this paragraph (b). Such drugs and biologicals are not considered Part D rebatable drugs and will be excluded from the identification of Part D rebatable drugs set forth in paragraph (a) of this section.
(1) Average annual total cost. For each drug or biological that is identified as set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, CMS will calculate average annual total costs under Part D per individual who uses such drug or biological by dividing the gross covered prescription drug costs for the drug or biological by the number of individuals who use such drug or biological in the applicable period. When calculating the gross covered prescription drug costs for the drug or biological, CMS will exclude PDE records indicating the drug or biological was billed as a compound.
(2) Applicable threshold. CMS will calculate the applicable threshold for an applicable period as follows:
(i) For the applicable period beginning October 1, 2022, the applicable threshold is equal to $100.
(ii) For the applicable period beginning October 1, 2023, the applicable threshold is equal to $100 increased by the percentage increase in CPI-U for the 12-month period beginning October 1, 2023.
(iii) For subsequent applicable periods, the applicable threshold is equal to the applicable threshold for the prior applicable period increased by the percentage increase in the CPI-U for the 12-month period beginning with October of the previous period.
(iv) If the resulting amount determined under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) or (iii) of this section is not a multiple of $10, CMS will round that amount to the nearest multiple of $10.
Subpart C Determination of the Rebate Amount for Part D Rebatable Drugs
§ 428.200 Definitions.
As used in this subpart, the following definitions apply:
340B Program is the program under section 340B of the PHS Act.
Line extension has the meaning set forth in § 447.502 of this chapter.
New formulation has the meaning set forth in § 447.502 of this chapter.
Oral solid dosage form has the meaning set forth in § 447.502 of this chapter.
§ 428.201 Calculation of the total rebate amount to be paid by manufacturers.
(a) Total rebate. (1) Subject to paragraph (b) of this section, the total rebate amount to be paid by a manufacturer for a Part D rebatable drug, identified as set forth in § 428.101, for an applicable period is equal to:
(i) The product of the per unit Part D rebate amount of such drug, as determined under § 428.202(a), and the total number of units dispensed of such drug under Part D, as determined under § 428.203; or
(ii) In the case of a Part D rebatable drug that is a line extension of a Part D rebatable drug that is an oral solid dosage form, the amount determined under § 428.204.
(2) The rebate amount may be reduced in accordance with subpart D of this part or adjusted in accordance with subpart E of this part.
(b) Drugs and biologicals excluded from Part D rebate calculations. CMS will exclude from the Part D drug inflation rebate calculations described in this subpart—
(1) Drugs and biologicals that meet the definition of a Part D rebatable drug but whose manufacturers do not have an agreement in effect with the HHS Secretary under section 1927 of the Act at any point during the applicable period, as determined by CMS through consultation with Medicaid Drug Rebate Program staff and review of the Medicaid Drug Programs system.
(2) Drugs and biologicals that meet the definition of a Part D rebatable drug but, for the entire duration of the applicable period, are excluded from the definition of covered outpatient drugs as defined in section 1927(k)(2)-(4) of the Act and § 447.502 of this chapter, as determined by CMS through consultation with Medicaid Drug Rebate Program staff and review of the Medicaid Drug Programs system.
§ 428.202 Calculation of the per unit Part D rebate amount.
(a) Formula for calculating the per unit Part D rebate amount. CMS will calculate the per unit Part D rebate amount for a Part D rebatable drug and applicable period by determining the amount by which the AnMP for the Part D rebatable drug, as calculated in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, exceeds the inflation-adjusted payment amount, as calculated in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section.
(b) Calculation of the AnMP for the applicable period. Subject to paragraph (g) of this section, CMS will calculate the AnMP for a Part D rebatable drug using the AMP reported by a manufacturer under sections 1927(b)(3)(A)(i)(I) and (ii) of the Act for each calendar quarter of the applicable period and units reported by a manufacturer under section 1927(b)(3)(A)(iv) of the Act for each month of the applicable period.
(1) CMS will calculate the AnMP for a Part D rebatable drug as the sum of the following:
(i) The product of—
(A) The AMP for the Part D rebatable drug reported for the calendar quarter beginning October of the applicable period; and
(B) The sum of the monthly units reported for the calendar quarter beginning October of the applicable period divided by the sum of the monthly units reported for the 4 calendar quarters in the applicable period.
(ii) The product of—
(A) The AMP for the Part D rebatable drug reported for the calendar quarter beginning January of the applicable period; and
(B) The sum of the monthly units reported for the calendar quarter beginning January of the applicable period divided by the sum of the monthly units reported for the 4 calendar quarters in the applicable period.
(iii) The product of—
(A) The AMP for the Part D rebatable drug reported for the calendar quarter beginning April of the applicable period; and
(B) The sum of the monthly units reported for the calendar quarter beginning April of the applicable period divided by the sum of the monthly units reported for the 4 calendar quarters in the applicable period.
(iv) The product of—
(A) The AMP for the Part D rebatable drug reported for the calendar quarter beginning July of the applicable period; and
(B) The sum of the monthly units reported for the calendar quarter beginning July of the applicable period divided by the sum of the monthly units reported for the 4 calendar quarters in the applicable period.
(2) The first applicable period for a Part D rebatable drug will be the earliest applicable period that follows the payment amount benchmark period identified as set forth in paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section.
(c) Identification of the payment amount benchmark period. As applicable under this paragraph, CMS will use information reported by a manufacturer under section 1927(b)(3) of the Act, including without limitation the date of FDA approval or licensure and the first marketed date, to identify the payment amount benchmark period as set forth in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section, subject to paragraphs (c)(3) through (5) of this section:
(1) For a Part D rebatable drug first approved or licensed by the FDA on or before October 1, 2021, the payment amount benchmark period is the period beginning on January 1, 2021, and ending on September 30, 2021;
(2) For a subsequently approved drug, the payment amount benchmark period is the first calendar year beginning after the drug's first marketed date;
(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1) of this section, for a Part D rebatable drug first approved or licensed by the FDA on or before October 1, 2021, for which there are no quarters during the period beginning on January 1, 2021, and ending on September 30, 2021, for which AMP has been reported under section 1927(b)(3) of the Act for the NDC-9, including information as set forth in paragraph (d)(3), the payment amount benchmark period is the first calendar year no earlier than calendar year 2021 in which such NDC-9 has at least 1 quarter of AMP reported;
(4) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2) of this section, for a subsequently approved drug for which there are no quarters during the first calendar year beginning after the drug's first marketed date for which AMP has been reported under section 1927(b)(3) of the Act for the NDC-9, including information as set forth in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the payment amount benchmark period is the first calendar year in which such NDC-9 has at least 1 quarter of AMP reported; and
(5) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section, for a Part D rebatable drug that is a selected drug (as defined in section 1192(c) of the Act) with respect to a price applicability period (as defined in section 1191(b)(2) of the Act), in the case such Part D rebatable drug is no longer considered to be a selected drug, for each applicable period beginning after the price applicability period with respect to such drug, the payment amount benchmark period is the last calendar year of such price applicability period with respect to such selected drug.
(d) Calculation of benchmark period manufacturer price. Subject to paragraphs (d)(3) and (g) of this section, CMS will calculate the benchmark period manufacturer price for a Part D rebatable drug using the AMP reported by a manufacturer under sections 1927(b)(3)(A)(i)(I) and (ii) of the Act for each calendar quarter of the payment amount benchmark period and the monthly units reported by a manufacturer under section 1927(b)(3)(A)(iv) of the Act during the payment amount benchmark period.
(1) For a Part D rebatable drug with a payment amount benchmark period identified as set forth in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, CMS will calculate the benchmark period manufacturer price as the sum of the following:
(i) The product of—
(A) The AMP reported for the calendar quarter beginning January 2021; and
(B) The sum of the monthly units reported for the calendar quarter beginning January 2021 divided by the sum of the monthly units reported for the 3 quarters of the payment amount benchmark period.
(ii) The product of—
(A) The AMP reported for the calendar quarter beginning April 2021; and
(B) The sum of the monthly units reported for the calendar quarter beginning April 2021 divided by the sum of the monthly units reported for the 3 quarters of the payment amount benchmark period.
(iii) The product of—
(A) The AMP reported for the calendar quarter beginning July 2021; and
(B) The sum of the monthly units reported for the calendar quarter beginning July 2021 divided by the sum of the units reported for the 3 quarters of the payment amount benchmark period.
(2) For a Part D rebatable drug with a payment amount benchmark period identified under paragraphs (c)(2) through (5) of this section, CMS will calculate the benchmark period manufacturer price as the sum of the following:
(i) The product of—
(A) The AMP reported for the calendar quarter beginning January of the payment amount benchmark period; and
(B) The sum of the monthly units reported for the calendar quarter beginning January of the payment amount benchmark period divided by the sum of the monthly units reported for the 4 quarters of the payment amount benchmark period.
(ii) The product of—
(A) The AMP reported for the calendar quarter beginning April of the payment amount benchmark period; and
(B) The sum of the monthly units reported for the calendar quarter beginning April of the payment amount benchmark period divided by the sum of the monthly units reported for the 4 quarters of the payment amount benchmark period.
(iii) The product of—
(A) The AMP reported for the calendar quarter beginning July of the payment amount benchmark period; and
(B) The sum of the monthly units reported for the calendar quarter beginning July of the payment amount benchmark period divided by the sum of the monthly units reported for the 4 quarters of the payment amount benchmark period.
(iv) The product of—
(A) The AMP reported for the calendar quarter beginning in October of the payment amount benchmark period; and
(B) The sum of the monthly units reported for the calendar quarter beginning October of the payment amount benchmark period divided by the sum of the monthly units reported for the 4 quarters of the payment amount benchmark period.
(3) To the extent that a new NDC-9 of a Part D rebatable drug is reported under section 1927 of the Act and AMP has not been reported for such NDC-9 under section 1927(b)(3)(A)(i)(I) or (ii) of the Act during the period set forth in paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section, as applicable, CMS will identify the payment amount benchmark period and calculate the benchmark period manufacturer price for such NDC-9 using other information reported by a manufacturer under section 1927(b)(3) of the Act for the Part D rebatable drug, as available, such as the base date AMP if such base date AMP is reported for a calendar quarter that overlaps with the period set forth in paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section. Base date AMP has the meaning set forth in § 447.509(a)(7)(ii)(B) of this title.
(e) Identification of the benchmark period CPI-U. For each Part D rebatable drug, CMS will identify the benchmark period CPI-U as set forth in paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section, subject to paragraphs (e)(3) through (5) of this section:
(1) For a Part D rebatable drug first approved or licensed by the FDA on or before October 1, 2021, the benchmark period CPI-U is the CPI-U for January 2021.
(2) For a subsequently approved drug, the benchmark period CPI-U is the CPI-U for January of the first calendar year beginning after a drug's first marketed date.
(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (e)(1) of this section, for a Part D rebatable drug first approved or licensed by the FDA on or before October 1, 2021, for which there are no quarters during the period beginning on January 1, 2021, and ending on September 30, 2021, for which AMP has been reported under section 1927(b)(3) of the Act for the NDC-9, including information as set forth in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the benchmark period CPI-U is the CPI-U for January of the payment amount benchmark period identified under paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
(4) Notwithstanding paragraph (e)(2) of this section, for a subsequently approved drug for which there are no quarters during the first calendar year beginning after the drug's first marketed date for which AMP has been reported under section 1927(b)(3) of the Act for the NDC-9, including information as set forth in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the benchmark period CPI-U is the CPI-U for January of the payment amount benchmark period identified as set forth in paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
(5) Notwithstanding paragraphs (e)(1) through (4) of this section, for a drug that is a selected drug (as defined in section 1192(c) of the Act) with respect to a price applicability period (as defined in section 1191(b)(2) of the Act), in the case such Part D rebatable drug is no longer considered to be a selected drug, the benchmark period CPI-U is the CPI-U for January of the last calendar year of such price applicability period.
(f) Calculation of inflation-adjusted payment amount. For an applicable period for each Part D rebatable drug, CMS will calculate the inflation-adjusted payment amount by dividing the applicable period CPI-U by the benchmark period CPI-U and then multiplying the quotient by the benchmark period manufacturer price.
(g) Situations in which manufacturers do not report units under section 1927(b)(3)(A)(iv) of the Act. For the purpose of calculating the AnMP as determined under paragraph (b) of this section and the benchmark period manufacturer price as determined under paragraph (d) of this section—
(1) If there is 1 or more quarter(s) in the payment amount benchmark period or applicable period for which a manufacturer has not reported units under section 1927(b)(3)(A)(iv) of the Act but has reported AMP under sections 1927(b)(3)(A)(i)(I) and (ii) of the Act, CMS will calculate the benchmark period manufacturer price or AnMP, as applicable, using data only from quarter(s) with units. Quarter(s) in the payment amount benchmark period or applicable period for which a manufacturer has not reported units under section 1927(b)(3)(A)(iv) of the Act will be excluded from the calculation.
(2) If there are no quarters of the payment amount benchmark period or applicable period for which a manufacturer has reported units under section 1927(b)(3)(A)(iv) of the Act, but the manufacturer has reported AMP under sections 1927(b)(3)(A)(i)(I) and (ii) of the Act for at least 1 quarter of such period or, with respect to paragraph (d)(3), there exists other information reported by a manufacturer under section 1927(b)(3) of the Act for the Part D rebatable drug to identify the payment amount benchmark period, CMS will use the AMP or other information as applicable as set forth in paragraph (d)(3) reported for 1 quarter to calculate the benchmark period manufacturer price or AnMP, respectively. If AMP is reported for more than 1 quarter, CMS will use the average of the AMP over the calendar quarters of the payment amount benchmark period or applicable period for which AMP is reported to calculate the benchmark period manufacturer price or AnMP, respectively.
[89 FR 98588, Dec. 9, 2024, as amended at 90 FR 20808, May 16, 2025]
§ 428.203 Determination of the total number of units dispensed under Part D.
(a) General. For each Part D rebatable drug, CMS will determine the total number of units as follows:
(1) Use of PDE data to determine total units dispensed. To determine the total number of units of each Part D rebatable drug dispensed under Part D and covered by Part D plan sponsors during an applicable period, CMS will use the quantity dispensed reported on the PDE record for each Part D rebatable drug with gross covered prescription drug costs greater than zero.
(2) Crosswalk to AMP units. CMS will crosswalk the information from the PDE record to database(s) that includes the unit type (for example, each, capsule) for the Part D rebatable drug, matching on the NDC of the Part D rebatable drug. If the unit type obtained from such database does not match the AMP unit type reported by a manufacturer to the Medicaid Drug Programs system, CMS will convert the total units reported on the PDE to the AMP units reported.
(b) Removal of certain units. CMS will exclude certain units from the total number of units dispensed of a Part D rebatable drug, with respect to an applicable period, as follows:
(1) Removal of units when a generic drug is no longer a Part D rebatable drug. To determine whether a generic drug that meets the definition of a Part D rebatable drug on the first day of an applicable period ceases to meet such definition later in the applicable period, CMS will—
(i) Review FDA's NDC Directory, including historical information from NDC Directory files such as discontinued, delisted, and expired listings provided by the FDA or published on the FDA website to determine whether the reference listed drug or an authorized generic of the reference listed drug is being marketed;
(ii) Review the most recent version of the downloadable FDA Orange Book to determine whether another drug has been approved under a section 505(j) ANDA that is therapeutically equivalent to such generic drug. If CMS determines that FDA has approved such a therapeutically equivalent drug under a section 505(j) ANDA, CMS will then: use the FDA's NDC Directory, including historical information from NDC Directory files such as discontinued, delisted, and expired listings provided by the FDA or published on the FDA website to determine the marketing status of such therapeutically equivalent drug and whether, during the applicable period, the therapeutically equivalent drug was marketed; and
(iii) Exclude from the total number of units determined under paragraph (a) of this section any units dispensed on or after the first day of the calendar month that a generic drug no longer meets the definition of a Part D rebatable drug.
(2) Exclusion of units acquired through the 340B Program. (i) For the applicable period beginning October 1, 2025, and subsequent applicable periods, CMS will exclude from the total number of units determined under paragraph (a) of this section units for which a manufacturer provided a discount under the 340B Program (“340B units”) as follows:
(A) For the applicable period beginning October 1, 2025, 340B units will be excluded from the total number of units dispensed for claims with a date of service on or after January 1, 2026.
(B) For the applicable period beginning October 1, 2026, and applicable periods thereafter, 340B units will be excluded from the total number of units dispensed.
(ii) To determine the total number of such units for which a manufacturer provided a discount under the 340B Program, CMS will use data reflecting the total number of units of a Part D rebatable drug for which a discount was provided under the 340B Program and that were dispensed during the applicable period.
(3) Exclusion of compounded drug units. CMS will exclude units from the total number of units dispensed of a Part D rebatable drug when those units are associated with a Part D rebatable drug that has been billed as compounded.
§ 428.204 Treatment of new formulations of Part D rebatable drugs.
In the case of a Part D rebatable drug that is a line extension of a Part D rebatable drug that is an oral solid dosage form, the rebate amount for an applicable period is equal to the amount determined under § 428.201(a)(1)(i) for such new drug or, if greater, the alternative total rebate amount. CMS will determine the alternative total rebate amount for such new formulations according to the following:
(a) Identification of the initial drug. The initial drug that CMS will use to calculate the inflation rebate amount ratio is the initial drug identified in accordance with § 447.509(a)(4)(iii)(B) of this chapter for the last quarter of the applicable period or, if an initial drug was not identified in the last quarter, the initial drug identified for a quarter most recently in that applicable period.
(b) Calculation of the inflation rebate amount ratio. The inflation rebate amount ratio is equal to the per unit Part D rebate amount for the initial drug, as determined under § 428.202(a), divided by the AnMP for that initial drug for the applicable period.
(c) Calculation of the alternative total rebate amount. The alternative total rebate amount is equal to the product of all of the following:
(1) The AnMP for the applicable period, as determined under § 428.202(b), of the Part D rebatable drug that is a line extension of a Part D rebatable drug that is an oral solid dosage form.
(2) The inflation rebate amount ratio as determined under paragraph (b) of this section.
(3) The total number of units dispensed under Part D identified as set forth in § 428.203.
[89 FR 98588, Dec. 9, 2024, as amended at 90 FR 20808, May 16, 2025]
Subpart D Reducing the Rebate Amount for Part D Rebatable Drugs in Shortage and When There Is a Severe Supply Chain Disruption or Likely Shortage
§ 428.300 Definitions.
As used in this subpart, the following definitions apply:
Biosimilar has the meaning set forth in section 351(i) of the PHS Act.
Currently in shortage means that at least one NDC-10 of a Part D rebatable drug with the status “currently in shortage” is on a shortage list maintained by the FDA under section 506E of the FD&C Act.
Drug shortage or shortage means a period of time when the demand or projected demand for the drug within the United States exceeds the supply of the drug (see section 506C(h)(2) of the FD&C Act).
Generic Part D rebatable drug means a generic drug approved under an ANDA under section 505(j) of the FD&C Act that meets the sole source criteria specified in § 428.101(a)(3).
Likely to be in shortage means that a generic Part D rebatable drug is likely to be described as currently in shortage during a subsequent applicable period without such rebate reduction.
Natural disaster means any natural catastrophe, including, but not limited to any of the following: hurricane, tornado, storm, high water, wind-driven water, tidal wave, tsunami, earthquake, volcanic eruption, landslide, mudslide, snowstorm, or drought, or regardless of cause, any fire, flood, or explosion.
Other unique or unexpected event means any exogenous, unpredictable event outside of a manufacturer's control, including, but not limited to, a geopolitical disruption, pandemic, or act of terror.
Plasma-derived product means a licensed biological product that is derived from human whole blood or plasma, as indicated on the approved product labeling.
Severe supply chain disruption means a change in production or distribution that is reasonably likely to lead to a significant reduction in the U.S. supply of a generic Part D rebatable drug or biosimilar by a manufacturer and significantly affects the ability of the manufacturer of the generic drug or biosimilar to fill orders or meet expected demand for its product in the United States for at least 90 days. This definition does not include interruptions in manufacturing due to matters such as routine maintenance, manufacturing quality issues, or insignificant changes made in the manufacturing process for the drug.
§ 428.301 Reducing the rebate amount for Part D rebatable drugs currently in shortage.
(a) General. As required under section 1860D-14B(b)(1)(C)(i) of the Act, CMS will reduce the total rebate amount determined under § 428.201(a), if any is owed, for a Part D rebatable drug that is currently in shortage, as set forth in § 428.300, at any point during the applicable period.
(b) Calculation of the reduced rebate amount. (1) For each applicable period beginning on or after October 1, 2022, the reduced total rebate amount for a Part D rebatable drug currently in shortage will be calculated using the following formula:
Equation 1 to Paragraph (b)(1)
Reduced Total Rebate Amount = the total rebate amount multiplied by (1 minus applicable percent reduction) multiplied by (percentage of time drug was currently in shortage during the applicable period) added to the total rebate amount multiplied by (1 minus percentage of time drug was currently in shortage during the applicable period)
(2) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the applicable percent reduction is:
(i) For a Part D rebatable drug that is a generic drug or plasma-derived product:
(A) 75 percent for the first applicable period such drug is currently in shortage.
(B) 50 percent for the second applicable period such drug is currently in shortage.
(C) 25 percent for each subsequent period such drug is currently in shortage.
(ii) For a Part D rebatable drug that is not a generic drug or plasma-derived product:
(A) 25 percent for the first applicable period such drug is currently in shortage.
(B) 10 percent for the second applicable period such drug is currently in shortage.
(C) 2 percent for each subsequent applicable period such drug is currently in shortage.
(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(iv) of this section, CMS will apply the greatest applicable percent reduction as set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) or (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section starting with the first applicable period that a Part D drug or biological is described as currently in shortage, regardless of whether the drug or biological meets the definition of a Part D rebatable drug or whether a rebate amount is owed for that applicable period, starting with the applicable period that begins October 1, 2022.
(iv) If an applicable period for which a rebate reduction determined under § 428.302 or 428.303 has been granted would be the first applicable period described in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) or (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section and the Part D rebatable drug or biosimilar continues to be in shortage after the rebate reduction period described din § 428.302 or 428.303, as applicable, CMS will treat the applicable period following the applicable period in which the rebate reduction determined under § 428.302 or 428.303 applies as the first applicable period so described.
(3) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the percentage of time the drug is currently in shortage during the applicable period is equal to the number of days such drug is currently in shortage in an applicable period, divided by the total number of days in the applicable period.
(c) Application of reduction. CMS will apply a reduction of the rebate amount as determined under paragraph (b) of this section to the Part D rebatable drug at the NDC-9 level.
[89 FR 98588, Dec. 9, 2024, as amended at 90 FR 20808, May 16, 2025]
§ 428.302 Reducing the rebate amount for certain Part D rebatable drugs when there is a severe supply chain disruption.
(a) General. As required under section 1860D-14B(b)(1)(C)(ii) of the Act, CMS will reduce the total rebate amount determined under § 428.201(a), if any is owed, for a generic Part D rebatable drug or biosimilar when CMS determines there is a severe supply chain disruption during the applicable period such as that caused by a natural disaster or other unique or unexpected event.
(b) Calculation of the reduced rebate amount—(1) Initial reduction. If CMS determines the criteria set forth in paragraph (c)(4) of this section are met, then CMS will reduce the total rebate amount determined under § 428.201(a), if any is owed, for a generic Part D rebatable drug or biosimilar by 75 percent for the applicable period in which the event occurred or began or, the following applicable period if the request is submitted less than 60 calendar days before the end of an applicable period.
(2) Extension of reduction. If CMS determines a severe supply chain disruption continues into a second consecutive applicable period as set forth in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, then CMS will reduce the total rebate amount determined under § 428.201(a), if any is owed, for a generic Part D rebatable drug or biosimilar by 75 percent for that second applicable period.
(3) Application of reduction. If CMS determines there is a severe supply chain disruption for an NDC-11, CMS will apply any reduction of the rebate amount as determined under paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section to a Part D rebatable drug at the NDC-9 level.
(4) Limitation on rebate reductions. CMS will not apply multiple rebate reductions for the same Part D rebatable drug and applicable period.
(i) If a manufacturer believes there are multiple events causing severe supply chain disruptions during the same applicable period for the same generic Part D rebatable drug or biosimilar and submits multiple rebate reduction requests for the same drug or biosimilar, CMS will grant no more than 1 rebate reduction determined under paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section for that product for the applicable period.
(ii) If CMS grants a rebate reduction request under this section and the generic Part D rebatable drug or biosimilar subject to the reduction appears as currently in shortage during the same applicable period as the one for which the severe supply chain disruption reduction request was granted, CMS will reduce the rebate amount as determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and will not grant a reduction as set forth in § 428.301 during that applicable period.
(iii) If a generic Part D rebatable drug or biosimilar that is currently in shortage experiences a severe supply chain disruption, CMS will reduce the rebate amount as determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, and will not grant a reduction as set forth in § 428.301 during that applicable period.
(c) Eligibility for a rebate reduction—(1) Eligible drug. Subject to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, eligibility for a rebate reduction under this section is limited to generic Part D rebatable drugs and biosimilars for which a manufacturer submits a rebate reduction request under this section.
(2) Timing. For a natural disaster or other unique or unexpected event occurring on or after August 2, 2024 that the manufacturer believes caused a severe supply chain disruption, the manufacturer must submit the rebate reduction request within 60 calendar days from the first day that the natural disaster or other unique or unexpected event occurred or began to receive consideration for a reduction in the rebate amount owed determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(3) Required elements of a rebate reduction request. To receive consideration for a reduction in the rebate amount owed as determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the manufacturer must submit to CMS information and supporting documentation to substantiate the evaluation criteria set forth in paragraph (c)(4) of this section. Such information and supporting documentation include the following:
(i) Evidence that the severe supply chain disruption directly affects the manufacturer itself, a supplier of an ingredient or packaging, a contract manufacturer, or a method of shipping or distribution that the manufacturer uses to make or distribute the generic Part D rebatable drug(s) or biosimilar(s), such as a change in the production or distribution of the generic Part D rebatable drug(s) or biosimilar(s) that is reasonably likely to lead to a significant reduction in the U.S. supply of product and significantly affects the manufacturer's ability to fill orders or meet expected demand for the generic Part D rebatable drug(s) or biosimilar(s) for at least 90 days;
(ii) Information about when the manufacturer expects supply of the generic Part D rebatable drug(s) or biosimilar(s) to meet expected demand;
(iii) Evidence that the natural disaster or other unique or unexpected event caused the severe supply chain disruption, including when the natural disaster or other unique or unexpected event occurred or began occurring, and the expected or actual duration of the severe supply chain disruption; and
(iv) Evidence of the manufacturer's physical presence related to manufacturing the generic Part D rebatable drug(s) or biosimilar(s) in a geographic area where a natural disaster or other unique or unexpected event occurred. If the manufacturer is not physically present in a geographic area where a natural disaster or other unique or unexpected event occurred, but believes there is a severe supply chain disruption caused by a natural disaster or other unique or unexpected event that affects the manufacturer's generic Part D rebatable drug(s) or biosimilar(s), the information and supporting documentation may include evidence of the impact of the natural disaster or other unique or unexpected event on the supply chain of the generic Part D rebatable drug or biosimilar, on a supplier of an ingredient or packaging, or method of shipping or distribution that the manufacturer uses.
(4) Evaluation criteria. In accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, CMS will grant a reduction in the total rebate amount determined under § 428.201, if any is owed, if a manufacturer submits to CMS a request in writing for an eligible drug, in accordance with the timing set forth in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, demonstrating that:
(i) A severe supply chain disruption has occurred during the applicable period;
(ii) The severe supply chain disruption directly affects the manufacturer itself, a contract manufacturer, a supplier of an ingredient or packaging, or a method of shipping or distribution that the manufacturer uses in a significant capacity to make or distribute the generic Part D rebatable drug or biosimilar; and
(iii) The severe supply chain disruption was caused by a natural disaster or other unique or unexpected event.
(5) Rebate reduction extensions. If CMS determines that a generic Part D rebatable drug or biosimilar that received a reduction of the rebate amount as determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section continues to be affected by the severe supply chain disruption, CMS will grant a single extension of the reduction for 1 additional consecutive applicable period and reduce the total rebate amount determined under § 428.201, if any is owed, as set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
(i) To receive consideration for a rebate reduction extension, a manufacturer must submit a request with updated or new information and supporting documentation on why the generic Part D rebatable drug or biosimilar continues to be affected by the severe supply chain disruption during the second applicable period.
(ii) A manufacturer must submit the rebate reduction extension request at least 60 calendar days before the start of the second consecutive applicable period to receive consideration for a reduction in the rebate amount owed, if any, determined under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, except for when the initial request is made less than 60 calendar days before the end of an applicable period such that the initial rebate reduction is applied to the next applicable period rather than the applicable period in which the event that caused the severe supply chain disruption occurred or began. In these cases, the rebate reduction extension request must be submitted at least 60 calendar days prior to the end of the applicable period in which the initial reduction determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section is applied.
(6) Decision to grant or deny a request. CMS will review rebate reduction requests and rebate reduction extension requests within 60 calendar days of receipt of all documentation, if feasible, beginning with the applicable period that begins on October 1, 2024.
(i) CMS will deny a rebate reduction request that does not meet the criteria set forth in paragraph (c)(4) of this section or that is incomplete or untimely based on the requirements set forth in this paragraph (c).
(ii) CMS will deny a rebate reduction extension request that does not meet the criteria set forth in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, that is incomplete or untimely based on the requirements set forth in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, or if a reduction determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section was not granted for such generic Part D rebatable drug or biosimilar.
(iii) CMS' decisions to deny a request are final and will not be subject to an appeals process.
(7) Public disclosure of information. CMS will keep confidential, to the extent allowable under law, any requests for a rebate reduction, including supporting documentation. Information provided as part of a request for a rebate reduction request that the submitter indicates is a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information will be protected from disclosure if CMS determines the information meets the requirements set forth under Exemption 3 or Exemption 4 in 5 U.S.C. 552.
§ 428.303 Reducing the rebate amount for generic Part D rebatable drugs likely to be in shortage.
(a) General. As required under section 1860D-14B(b)(1)(C)(iii) of the Act, CMS will reduce the total rebate amount determined under § 428.201, if any is owed, for a generic Part D rebatable drug when CMS determines that the generic Part D rebatable drug is likely to be in shortage, as set forth in § 428.300.
(b) Calculation of the reduced rebate amount—(1) Initial reduction. If CMS determines the criteria set forth in paragraph (c)(4) of this section are met, then CMS will reduce the total rebate amount owed by the manufacturer for a generic Part D rebatable drug by 75 percent for the applicable period in which the request was submitted or the following applicable period, depending on the timing of the submission of the request.
(2) Extension of reduction. If CMS determines the generic Part D rebatable drug is likely to be in shortage in a second applicable period as set forth in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, then CMS will reduce the total rebate amount owed by the manufacturer for a generic Part D rebatable drug by 75 percent for a second consecutive applicable period.
(3) Application of reduction. If CMS determines that an NDC-11 is likely to be in shortage, CMS will apply any reduction of the rebate amount as determined under paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section to the generic Part D rebatable drug at the NDC-9 level.
(4) Limitation on rebate reductions. If CMS grants a rebate reduction request under this section, and the generic Part D rebatable drug subject to the reduction is currently in shortage during the same applicable period as the one for which the request was granted, CMS will reduce the rebate amount as determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and will not grant a reduction determined under § 428.301 during that applicable period.
(c) Eligibility for a rebate reduction—(1) Eligible drug. Subject to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, eligibility for a rebate reduction under this section is limited to generic Part D rebatable drugs for which a manufacturer submits a rebate reduction request under this section.
(2) Timing. The manufacturer must submit the rebate reduction request before the start of the next applicable period in which the manufacturer believes the generic Part D rebatable drug is likely to be in shortage to receive consideration for a reduction in the rebate amount owed determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(3) Required elements of a rebate reduction request. To receive consideration for a reduction in the rebate amount owed determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the manufacturer must submit to CMS information and supporting documentation to substantiate the evaluation criteria set forth in paragraph (c)(4) of this section. Such information and supporting documentation include the following:
(i) Evidence that demonstrates a generic Part D rebatable drug is likely to be in shortage, including anticipated cause(s) of the shortage and information about why the manufacturer believes the generic Part D rebatable drug is likely to be in shortage; and
(ii) Evidence of the anticipated start date and duration of the potential drug shortage, the actions the manufacturer is taking to avoid the potential drug shortage, and how the reduction of the rebate amount would reduce the likelihood of the drug appearing on an FDA shortage list.
(4) Evaluation criteria. In accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, CMS will grant a reduction in the rebate amount owed if a manufacturer submits to CMS a request in writing for an eligible drug, in accordance with the timing set forth in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, demonstrating that:
(i) The generic Part D rebatable drug is likely to be in shortage;
(ii) The manufacturer is taking actions to avoid the potential drug shortage; and
(iii) The reduction of the rebate amount would reduce the likelihood of the drug appearing on an FDA shortage list.
(5) Rebate reduction extensions. If CMS determines that a generic Part D rebatable drug that received a reduction of the rebate amount as determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section continues to be affected by the potential drug shortage, CMS will grant a single extension of the reduction for 1 additional consecutive applicable period and reduce the total rebate amount determined under § 428.201, if any is owed, as determined under paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
(i) To receive consideration for a rebate reduction extension, a manufacturer must submit a request with updated or new information and supporting documentation on why the generic Part D rebatable drug continues to be affected by the potential drug shortage during the second applicable period.
(ii) A manufacturer must submit the rebate reduction extension request at least 60 calendar days before the start of the second consecutive applicable period in which the manufacturer believes the generic Part D rebatable drug is likely to be in shortage to receive consideration for a reduction in the rebate amount owed, if any, in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
(6) Decision to grant or deny a request. CMS will review rebate reduction requests and rebate reduction extension requests within 60 calendar days of receipt of all documentation, if feasible, beginning with the applicable period that begins on October 1, 2024.
(i) CMS will deny a rebate reduction request that does not meet the criteria set forth in paragraph (c)(4) of this section or that is incomplete or untimely based on the requirements set forth in this paragraph (c).
(ii) CMS will deny a rebate reduction extension request that does not meet the criteria set forth in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, that is incomplete or untimely based on the requirements set forth in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, or if a reduction determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section was not granted for such generic Part D rebatable drug.
(iii) CMS' decisions to deny a request are final and will not be subject to an appeals process.
(7) Public disclosure of information. CMS will keep confidential, to the extent allowable under law, any requests for a rebate reduction, including supporting documentation. Information provided as part of a request for a rebate reduction that the submitter indicates is a trade secret or confidential commercial or financial information will be protected from disclosure if CMS determines the information meets the requirements set forth under Exemption 3 or Exemption 4 in 5 U.S.C. 552.
Subpart E Reports of Rebate Amounts, Reconciliation, Suggestion of Error, and Payments
§ 428.400 Definitions.
For the purposes of this subpart, date of receipt is the calendar day following the day in which a report of a rebate amount (as set forth in §§ 428.401(b), (c), and (d) and 428.402(b) and (c)) is made available to the manufacturer of a Part D rebatable drug by CMS.
§ 428.401 Rebate Reports and reconciliation.
(a) General. This section applies to Part D rebatable drugs for all applicable periods except as otherwise set forth in § 428.402 for the applicable periods beginning October 1, 2022, and October 1, 2023.
(b) Preliminary Rebate Report. A Preliminary Rebate Report will be provided to each manufacturer of a Part D rebatable drug at least 1 month prior to the issuance of the Rebate Report as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section for an applicable period.
(1) The Preliminary Rebate Report for each Part D rebatable drug will include the following information:
(i) The NDC(s) identified for the Part D rebatable drug as set forth in § 428.20;
(ii) The total number of units dispensed under Part D for the Part D rebatable drug for the applicable period as determined under § 428.203;
(iii) The payment amount benchmark period and benchmark period manufacturer price as set forth in §§ 428.202(c) and (d);
(iv) The AnMP for the Part D rebatable drug for the applicable period as determined under § 428.202(b);
(v) The amount, if any, of the excess AnMP for the Part D rebatable drug for the applicable period as set forth in § 428.202(a);
(vi) The benchmark period and applicable period CPI-Us as set forth in §§ 428.202(e) and 428.20, respectively;
(vii) The inflation-adjusted payment amount as set forth in § 428.202(f);
(viii) Any applied reductions determined under §§ 428.301, 428.302, and 428.303; and
(ix) The rebate amount due as set forth in § 428.201(a).
(2) If the Part D rebatable drug is a line extension, the Preliminary Rebate Report will also include the following information as set forth in § 428.204:
(i) The NDC for the initial drug;
(ii) The inflation rebate amount ratio for the initial drug; and
(iii) The alternative total rebate amount.
(c) Rebate Report. A Rebate Report will be provided to each manufacturer of a Part D rebatable drug no later than 9 months after the end of each applicable period.
(1) The Rebate Report will include the information described in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, if applicable, with the inclusion of any revisions to such information resulting from CMS' review of a Suggestion of Error as set forth in § 428.403, if applicable, and any CMS-determined recalculations from paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
(2) The Rebate Report is the invoice of a manufacturer's rebate amount due as determined in § 428.201(a), if any, for a Part D rebatable drug for an applicable period.
(3) The manufacturer's rebate amount due is reported as a dollar amount rounded to the nearest cent.
(d) Reconciliation of the rebate amount. CMS will perform reconciliation of the rebate amount provided in a Rebate Report as determined in paragraph (c) of this section for an applicable period in the following circumstances:
(1) Regular reconciliation. Except as otherwise described in § 428.402, CMS will perform a reconciliation of the rebate amount within 12 months of the date of receipt of the Rebate Report for an applicable period and a second reconciliation approximately 24 months thereafter to include revisions to the information used to calculate the rebate amount as set forth in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
(i) Preliminary reconciliation. At least 1 month prior to the issuance of a report with the reconciled rebate amount for an applicable period as set forth in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, CMS will conduct a preliminary reconciliation of the rebate amount for an applicable period based on the information specified in paragraphs (d)(1)(i)(A) through (G) of this section, and CMS will provide the information specified in paragraphs (d)(1)(i)(A) through (G) to the manufacturer of a Part D rebatable drug for the applicable period, if applicable:
(A) Updated total number of rebatable units, including updates submitted by a prescription drug plan (PDP) or Medicare Advantage Prescription Drug (MA-PD) plan sponsor and updates to 340B units (as applicable to the dates of service and applicable periods set forth in § 428.203(b)(2)(i)(A) and (B)), or units otherwise excluded as determined under § 428.203(b);
(B) The inflation-adjusted payment amount as determined under § 428.202(f) if any inputs are restated or newly reported within the reconciliation run-out period;
(C) Updated payment amount benchmark period and benchmark period manufacturer price as set forth in § 428.202(c) and (d) if any inputs are restated or newly reported;
(D) The excess amount by which the AnMP exceeds the inflation-adjusted payment amount for the applicable period as determined under § 428.202(a), using the most recent AMP (if any inputs are restated or newly reported within the reconciliation run-out period);
(E) Updated data on line extension calculations, including the initial drug identified as set forth in § 447.509(a)(4)(iii)(B) of this chapter, the inflation rebate amount ratio, and the alternative total rebate amount as determined under § 428.204 if any inputs are restated or newly reported within the reconciliation run-out period;
(F) The reconciled rebate amount as determined under § 428.201(a); and
(G) The difference between the total rebate amount due as specified on the Rebate Report set forth in paragraph (c) of this section and the reconciled rebate amount as set forth in this paragraph (d)(1)(i).
(ii) Report with a reconciled rebate amount. With the inclusion of any additional revisions to such information resulting from CMS' review of a Suggestion of Error as set forth in § 428.403, if applicable, a report with the reconciled rebate amount will be provided to each manufacturer of a Part D rebatable drug within 12 months and 36 months after the issuance of the Rebate Report set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
(2) CMS identification of an error or manufacturer misreporting. CMS may recalculate a rebate amount and provide the manufacturer of a Part D rebatable drug a report with a reconciled rebate amount when:
(i) CMS identifies an error in the information specified in paragraphs (c) and (d)(1) of this section, including reporting system or coding errors, not later than 5 years from the date of receipt by a manufacturer of a reconciled rebate amount for the applicable period; or
(ii) CMS determines at any time that the information used by CMS to calculate the rebate amount was inaccurate due to manufacturer misreporting.
(3) Impact of reconciliation on rebate amount. A reconciliation as determined under this paragraph (d) could result in an increase, decrease, or no change to the rebate amount as determined under § 428.201(a) owed by a manufacturer for the applicable period for the Part D rebatable drug compared to the amount described in the Rebate Report set forth in paragraph (c) of this section or an amount described in a previous reconciliation.
(i) A report with a reconciled rebate amount that is an increase to the rebate amount is the invoice for such additional amount due on the manufacturer's rebate amount as set forth in § 428.201 for a Part D rebatable drug for an applicable period.
(ii) [Reserved]
(4) Drugs included in a reconciliation. A drug covered under Part D that does not meet the requirements of a rebatable drug set forth in § 428.101 for an applicable period will not be included in a reconciliation as determined under this paragraph (d).
[89 FR 98588, Dec. 9, 2024, as amended at 90 FR 50021, Nov. 5, 2025]
§ 428.402 Rebate Reports for applicable periods beginning October 1, 2022, and October 1, 2023.
(a) Transition rule for reporting. Section 1860D-14B(a)(3) of the Act allows CMS to delay the timeframe for reporting the information and rebate amount set forth in § 428.401 for the applicable periods beginning October 1, 2022, and October 1, 2023, until not later than December 31, 2025.
(b) Rebate Report information for applicable periods beginning October 1, 2022, and October 1, 2023. The Rebate Reports for the applicable periods beginning October 1, 2022, and October 1, 2023, will include the information set forth in § 428.401(b)(1).
(c) Rebate Report procedures for applicable periods beginning October 1, 2022, and October 1, 2023. Rebate amounts for the applicable periods beginning October 1, 2022, and October 1, 2023, will be reported as follows:
(1) The Rebate Report for the applicable period beginning October 1, 2022, will be issued no later than December 31, 2025. The Preliminary Rebate Report for such applicable period will be issued at least 1 month prior to the Rebate Report.
(i) For this single Preliminary Rebate Report for the applicable period, the Suggestion of Error period as set forth in § 428.403 will be 30 calendar days.
(ii) The rebate amount will be reconciled within 21 months after the Rebate Report set forth in this paragraph (c)(1) is issued to include the information set forth in § 428.401(d)(1)(i)(A) through (G).
(iii) The Suggestion of Error period for the reconciliation set forth in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section will be 10 calendar days.
(2) The Rebate Report for the applicable period beginning October 1, 2023, will be issued no later than December 31, 2025. The Preliminary Rebate Report for such applicable period will be issued at least 1 month prior to the Rebate Report.
(i) For this single Preliminary Rebate Report for the applicable period, the Suggestion of Error period as set forth in § 428.403 will be 30 calendar days.
(ii) The rebate amount will be reconciled within 9 months after the Rebate Report and within 33 months after the Rebate Report specified in this paragraph (c)(2) is issued to include the information determined under § 428.401(d)(1)(i)(A) through (G).
[89 FR 98588, Dec. 9, 2024, as amended at 90 FR 50021, Nov. 5, 2025; 91 FR 12081, Mar. 12, 2026]
§ 428.403 Suggestion of Error.
(a) General. Manufacturers of Part D rebatable drugs may submit a Suggestion of Error about the information in their Preliminary Rebate Report and the report detailing the preliminary reconciliation of the rebate amount to CMS, for its discretionary consideration, if the manufacturer believes that there is a mathematical error or errors to be corrected before the Rebate Report or a subsequent reconciliation, as applicable, is finalized.
(1) Section 1860D-14B(f) of the Act precludes administrative or judicial review on the determination of units as set forth in § 428.203, the determination of whether a drug is a Part D rebatable drug as set forth in § 428.101, and the calculation of the rebate amount as set forth in § 428.201(a) inclusive of any reconciled rebate amount.
(2) [Reserved]
(b) Process of submission. Subject to the scope and timing requirements specified in paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section, manufacturers may submit the Suggestion of Error and provide supporting documentation (if applicable).
(c) Timing. Except as set forth in § 428.402 for the applicable periods beginning on October 1, 2022, and October 1, 2023, a manufacturer must submit its Suggestion of Error for the applicable period within 10 calendar days from the date of receipt of a Preliminary Rebate Report or a preliminary reconciliation of a rebate amount using the method and process set forth by CMS in paragraph (b) of this section.
(d) Notice. (1) CMS will include any revisions to the calculation of the rebate amount, if determined necessary by CMS based on the Suggestion of Error submitted under this section prior to issuance of the Rebate Report as set forth in § 428.401(c) or § 428.402(c) as well as any report of a reconciled rebate amount as set forth in § 428.401(d) or § 428.402(c)(1)(ii) and (c)(2)(ii).
(2) CMS will notify the manufacturer whether CMS revised its calculation of the rebate amount based on the Suggestion of Error.
§ 428.404 Manufacturer access to Rebate Reports.
(a) General. CMS will establish a method and process for a manufacturer of the Part D rebatable drug to:
(1) Access the Rebate Report as set forth in §§ 428.401 and 428.402, including any report of a reconciled rebate amount as set forth in §§ 428.401 and 428.402;
(2) Submit a Suggestion of Error as set forth in §§ 428.402(c) and 428.403; and
(3) Pay a rebate amount as set forth in § 428.405.
(b) [Reserved]
§ 428.405 Deadline and process for payment of rebate amount.
(a) Rebate amounts owed by a manufacturer. For payment of a rebate amount owed by a manufacturer:
(1) Upon receipt of a rebate amount, payment is due no later than 11:59 p.m. Pacific Time (PT) on the 30th calendar day after the date of receipt of information regarding the rebate amount on—
(i) A Rebate Report as set forth in § 428.401(c) or § 428.402; or
(ii) A report of a reconciled rebate amount as set forth in § 428.401(d) or § 428.402.
(2) Failure to pay a rebate amount due timely and in full may result in an enforcement action as described in subpart F of this part.
(b) Refund to the manufacturer. If a reconciled rebate amount for an applicable period as set forth in § 428.401(d) or § 428.402 is less than what the manufacturer paid for that applicable period, CMS will initiate the process to provide a refund equal to the excess amount paid within 60 days of the date of receipt of the report with such reconciled rebate amount.
[89 FR 98588, Dec. 9, 2024, as amended at 90 FR 50021, Nov. 5, 2025]
Subpart F Enforcement of Manufacturer Payment of Rebate Amounts
§ 428.500 Civil money penalty notice and appeals procedures.
(a) General. CMS may impose a civil money penalty on a manufacturer that fails to pay the rebate amount set forth in § 428.201(a) on a Part D rebatable drug set forth in § 428.20, by the payment deadline as set forth in section § 428.405(a) for such drug for such applicable period.
(b) Determination of the civil money penalty amount. CMS may impose a civil money penalty for each failure by a manufacturer to provide an applicable inflation rebate equal to 125 percent of the rebate amount determined in § 428.201(a).
(1) The civil money penalty is in addition to the rebate amount due.
(2) If a reconciled rebate amount as determined in § 428.401(d) or § 428.402(c)(1)(ii) or (c)(2)(ii) results in an increase to the rebate amount due, a separate civil money penalty may be imposed for the failure by a manufacturer to provide an inflation rebate for the applicable period for the increase to the rebate amount due.
(c) Notice of imposition of civil money penalties. If CMS makes a determination to impose a civil money penalty set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, CMS will send a written notice of its decision to impose a civil money penalty that includes the following:
(1) A description of the basis for the determination.
(2) The basis for the penalty.
(3) The amount of the penalty.
(4) The date the penalty is due.
(5) The manufacturer's right to a hearing as set forth in paragraph (e) of this section.
(6) Information about where to file the request for a hearing.
(d) Collection. (1) A manufacturer must pay the civil money penalty in full within 60 calendar days after the date of the notice of imposition of a civil money penalty from CMS as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
(2) In the event a manufacturer requests a hearing, pursuant to 42 CFR part 423, subpart T, the manufacturer must pay the amount in full within 60 calendar days after the date of a final decision by the Departmental Appeal Board, to uphold, in whole or in part, the civil money penalty.
(3) If the 60th calendar day described in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section is a weekend or a Federal holiday, then the timeframe is extended until the end of the next business day.
(e) Appeal procedures for civil money penalties. Section 1128A(c)(2) of the Act provides that CMS may not collect a civil money penalty until the affected party has had notice and the opportunity for a hearing.
(1) Manufacturers may appeal the following determinations:
(i) A CMS determination that the rebate amount was not paid by the applicable payment deadline as set forth in § 428.405.
(ii) The calculation of the amount of the civil money penalty.
(2) If CMS decides to impose a civil money penalty, CMS will provide the manufacturer with notice pursuant to the process set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
(3) A manufacturer has a right to a hearing following a decision by CMS to impose a civil money penalty following the administrative appeal process and procedures established in 42 CFR part 423, subpart T.
(f) Other applicable provisions. The provisions of section 1128A of the Act (except subsections (a) and (b) of section 1128A of the Act) apply to civil money penalties under this section to the same extent that they apply to a civil money penalty or procedures under section 1128A of the Act.
(g) Bankruptcy. In the event that a manufacturer declares bankruptcy, as described in title 11 of the United States Code, and as a result of the bankruptcy, fails to pay either the full rebate amount owed or the total sum of civil money penalties imposed, the government reserves the right to file a proof of claim with the bankruptcy court to recover the unpaid amount of the rebates and civil money penalties owed by the manufacturer.