Title 5—Administrative Personnel--Volume 3

SUBCHAPTER C JOINT REGULATIONS WITH THE OFFICE OF PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT

PART 1330 HUMAN RESOURCES MANAGEMENT

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 5307(d).

Source: 69 FR 45550, 45551, July 29, 2004, unless otherwise noted.

A Subparts A-C [Reserved]
Subpart D Performance Appraisal Certification for Pay Purposes

Note to subpart D: Regulations identical to this subpart appear at 5 CFR part 430, subpart D.

§ 1330.401 Purpose.

(a) This subpart implements 5 U.S.C. 5307(d), as added by section 1322 of the Chief Human Capital Officers Act of 2002 (Title XIII of Public Law 107-296, the Homeland Security Act of 2002; November 25, 2002), which provides a higher aggregate limitation on pay for certain members of the Senior Executive Service (SES) under 5 U.S.C. 5382 and 5383 and employees in senior-level (SL) and scientific or professional (ST) positions paid under 5 U.S.C. 5376. In addition, this subpart is necessary to administer rates of basic pay for members of the SES under 5 U.S.C. 5382, as amended by section 1125 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2004. The regulations in this subpart strengthen the application of pay-for-performance principles to senior executives and senior professionals. Specifically, the statutory provisions authorize an agency to apply a higher maximum rate of basic pay for senior executives (consistent with 5 CFR part 534, subpart D, when effective) and apply a higher aggregate limitation on pay (consistent with 5 CFR part 530, subpart B) to its senior employees, but only after OPM, with OMB concurrence, has certified that the design and application of the agency's appraisal systems for these employees make meaningful distinctions based on relative performance. This subpart establishes the certification criteria and procedures that OPM will apply in considering agency requests for such certification.

(b) Senior executives generally may receive an annual rate of basic pay up to the rate for level III of the Executive Schedule under 5 U.S.C. 5382 and 5 CFR part 534, subpart D, when effective. Senior employees generally may receive total compensation in a calendar year up to the rate for level I of the Executive Schedule under 5 U.S.C. 5307(a) and 5 CFR 530.203(a). Only employees covered by an appraisal system that OPM, with OMB concurrence, certifies under this subpart are eligible for a maximum annual rate of basic pay for senior executives up to the rate for level II of the Executive Schedule (consistent with 5 U.S.C. 5382 and 5 CFR part 534, subpart D, when effective) and a higher aggregate pay limitation equivalent to the total annual compensation payable to the Vice President (consistent with 5 U.S.C. 5307(d) and 5 CFR 530.203(b)).

§ 1330.402 Definitions.

Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 65923, Oct. 19, 2026.

In this subpart—

Appraisal system means the policies, practices, and procedures an agency establishes under 5 U.S.C. chapter 43 and 5 CFR part 430, subparts B and C, or other applicable legal authority, for planning, monitoring, developing, evaluating, and rewarding employee performance. This includes appraisal systems and appraisal programs as defined at § 430.203 and performance management systems as defined at § 430.303.

GPRA means the Government Performance and Results Act of 1993.

OMB means the Office of Management and Budget.

OPM means the Office of Personnel Management.

Outstanding performance means performance that substantially exceeds the normally high performance expected of any senior employee, as evidenced by exceptional accomplishments or contributions to the agency's performance.

Performance evaluation means the comparison of the actual performance of senior employees against their performance expectations and may take into account their contribution to agency performance, where appropriate.

Performance expectations means critical and other performance elements and performance requirements that constitute the senior executive performance plans (as defined in § 430.303) established for senior executives, the performance elements and standards that constitute the performance plans (as defined in § 430.203) established for senior professionals, or other appropriate means authorized under performance appraisal systems not covered by 5 U.S.C. chapter 43 for communicating what a senior employee is expected to do and the manner in which he/she is expected to do it, and may include contribution to agency performance, where appropriate.

Program performance measures means results-oriented measures of performance, whether at the agency, component, or function level, which include, for example, measures under the Government Performance and Results Act.

PRB means Performance Review Board, as described at § 430.310.

Relative performance means the performance of a senior employee with respect to the performance of other senior employees, including their contribution to agency performance, where appropriate, as determined by the application of a certified appraisal system.

Senior employee means a senior executive or a senior professional.

Senior executive means a member of the Senior Executive Service (SES) paid under 5 U.S.C. 5383.

Senior professional means an employee in a senior-level (SL) or scientific or professional position (ST) paid under 5 U.S.C. 5376.

§ 1330.403 System certification.

Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 65923, Oct. 19, 2026.

(a) The performance appraisal system(s) covering senior employees must be certified by OPM, with OMB concurrence, as making meaningful distinctions based on relative performance before an agency may apply a maximum annual rate of basic pay for senior executives equal to the rate for level II of the Executive Schedule or apply an annual aggregate limitation on payments to senior employees equal to the salary of the Vice President under 5 U.S.C. 5307(d)). OPM, with OMB concurrence, will certify an agency's appraisal system(s) only when a review of that system's design, application, and administration reveals that the agency meets the certification criteria established in § 1330.404 and has followed the procedures for certifying agency appraisal systems in § 1330.405.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, agencies subject to 5 U.S.C. chapter 43 and 5 CFR part 430 seeking certification of their appraisal systems must submit systems that have been approved by OPM under § 430.312 or § 430.210, as applicable. In some agencies, the performance appraisal system(s) covers employees in many organizations and/or components, and their ability to meet the certification criteria in § 1330.404 may vary significantly. In such cases, an agency may establish and/or submit separate performance appraisal systems for each of these distinct organizations and/or components to ensure timely certification of those performance appraisal system(s) that meet the criteria. New appraisal systems established under 5 CFR part 430, subpart B or C, as applicable based on the employees covered, must be approved by OPM.

(c) When an agency establishes a new appraisal system for the purpose of seeking certification under this subpart, the agency may submit that system for certification even if it has not yet been approved by OPM under § 430.312 or § 430.210, as applicable. OPM will certify, with OMB concurrence, only those systems that OPM determines meet the approval requirements of 5 CFR part 430, subpart B or C, as applicable.

(d) An agency must establish an appraisal system(s), as defined in § 1330.402, for its senior professionals that meets the requirements of 5 CFR part 430, subpart B, and is separate from the system(s) established to cover its SES members under 5 CFR part 430, subpart C. For the purpose of certification under this subpart, such senior professional appraisal system(s) must meet the certification criteria set forth in § 1330.404. At its discretion, an agency may include system features in its senior professional appraisal system(s) that are the same as, or similar to, the features of its SES appraisal system(s), as appropriate, including procedures that correspond to the higher level review procedures under § 430.308(b) and PRB reviews of summary ratings under § 430.308(c).

(e) For agencies subject to 5 U.S.C. chapter 43 and 5 CFR part 430, OPM approval of the agency performance appraisal system(s) is a prerequisite to certification. Agencies not subject to the appraisal provisions of 5 U.S.C. chapter 43 and 5 CFR part 430 and which are seeking certification of their appraisal system(s) under this subpart must submit appropriate documentation to demonstrate that each system complies with the appropriate legal authority that governs the establishment, application, and administration of that system.

§ 1330.404 Certification criteria.

Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 65923, Oct. 19, 2026.

(a) To be certified, an agency's applicable appraisal system(s) for senior executives or senior professionals must make meaningful distinctions based on relative performance and meet the other requirements of 5 U.S.C. chapter 43, as applicable, in addition to the particular criterion cited here (i.e., consultation). Such system(s) must provide for the following:

(1) Alignment, so that the performance expectations for individual senior employees derive from, and clearly link to, the agency's mission, GPRA strategic goals, program and policy objectives, and/or annual performance plans and budget priorities;

(2) Consultation, so that the performance expectations for senior employees meet the requirements of 5 CFR part 430, subparts B and C, as applicable, and/or other applicable legal authority; are developed with the input and involvement of the individual senior employees who are covered thereby; and are communicated to them at the beginning of the applicable appraisal period, and/or at appropriate times thereafter;

(3) Results, so that the performance expectations for individual senior employees apply to their respective areas of responsibility; reflect expected agency and/or organizational outcomes and outputs, performance targets or metrics, policy/program objectives, and/or milestones; identify specific programmatic crosscutting, external, and partnership-oriented goals or objectives, as applicable; and are stated in terms of observable, measurable, and/or demonstrable performance;

(4) Balance, so that in addition to expected results, the performance expectations for individual senior employees include appropriate measures or indicators of employee and/or customer/stakeholder feedback; quality, quantity, timeliness, and cost effectiveness, as applicable; and those technical, leadership and/or managerial competencies or behaviors that contribute to and are necessary to distinguish outstanding performance;

(5) Appropriate assessments of the agency's performance—overall and with respect to each of its particular missions, components, programs, policy areas, and support functions—such as reports of the agency's GPRA goals, annual performance plans and targets, program performance measures, and other appropriate indicators, as well as evaluation guidelines based, in part, upon those assessments, that are communicated by the agency head, or an individual specifically designated by the agency head for such purpose, to senior employees, appropriate senior employee rating and reviewing officials, and PRB members. These assessments and guidelines are to be provided at the conclusion of the appraisal period but before individual senior employee performance ratings are recommended, so that they may serve as a basis for individual performance evaluations, as appropriate. The guidance provided may not take the form of quantitative limitations on the number of ratings at any given rating level, and must conform to 5 CFR part 430, subpart B or C, as applicable;

(6) Oversight by the agency head or the individual specifically designated under paragraph (a)(5) of this section, who certifies, for a particular senior employee appraisal system, that—

(i) The senior employee appraisal process makes meaningful distinctions based on relative performance;

(ii) The results of the senior employee appraisal process take into account, as appropriate, the agency's assessment of its performance against program performance measures, as well as other relevant considerations; and

(iii) Pay adjustments, cash awards, and levels of pay based on the results of the appraisal process accurately reflect and recognize individual performance and/or contribution to the agency's performance;

(7) Accountability, so that final agency head decisions and any PRB recommendations regarding senior employee ratings consistent with 5 CFR part 430, subparts B and C, individually and overall, appropriately reflect the employee's performance expectations, relevant program performance measures, and such other relevant factors as the PRB may find appropriate; in the case of supervisory senior employees, ratings must reflect the degree to which performance standards, requirements, or expectations for individual subordinate employees clearly link to organizational mission, GPRA strategic goals, or other program or policy objectives and take into account the degree of rigor in the appraisal of their subordinate employees;

(8) Performance differentiation, so that the system(s) includes at least one summary level of performance above fully successful, including a summary level that reflects outstanding performance, as defined in § 1330.402, and so that its annual administration results in meaningful distinctions based on relative performance that take into account the assessment of the agency's performance against relevant program performance measures, as described in paragraph (a)(6) of this section, employee performance expectations, and such other relevant factors as may be appropriate. Relative performance does not require ranking senior employees against each other; such ranking is prohibited for the purpose of determining performance ratings. For equivalent systems that do not use summary ratings, the appraisal system must provide for clear differentiation of performance at the outstanding level; and

(9) Pay differentiation, so that those senior employees who have demonstrated the highest levels of individual performance and/or contribution to the agency's performance receive the highest annual summary ratings or ratings of record, as applicable, as well as the largest corresponding pay adjustments, cash awards, and levels of pay, particularly above the rate for level III of the Executive Schedule. Agencies must provide for transparency in the processes for making pay decisions, while assuring confidentiality.

(b) Consistent with the requirements in section 3(a) of the Inspector General Act of 1978, an agency's Inspector General or an official he or she designates must perform the functions listed in paragraphs (a)(5) and (6) of this section for senior employees in the Office of the Inspector General.

§ 1330.405 Procedures for certifying agency appraisal systems.

Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 65924, Oct. 19, 2026.

(a) General. To receive system certification, an agency must provide documentation demonstrating that its appraisal system(s), in design, application, and administration, meets the certification criteria in § 1330.404 as well as the procedural requirements set forth in this section.

(b) Certification requests. In order for an agency's appraisal system to be certified, the head of the agency or designee must submit a written request for full or provisional certification of its appraisal system(s) to OPM. Certification requests may cover an agencywide system or a system that applies to one or more agency organizations or components and must include—

(1) A full description of the appraisal system(s) to be certified, including—

(i) Organizational and employee coverage information;

(ii) Applicable administrative instructions and implementing guidance; and

(iii) The system's use of rating levels that are capable of clearly differentiating among senior employees based on appraisals of their relative performance against performance expectations in any given appraisal period reflecting performance evaluation results that make meaningful distinctions based on relative performance, and which include—

(A) For the agency's senior executives covered by 5 CFR part 430, subpart C, at least four, but not more than five, summary rating levels—an outstanding level, a fully successful level, an optional level between outstanding and fully successful, a minimally satisfactory level, and an unsatisfactory level;

(B) For the agency's senior professionals covered by 5 CFR part 430, subpart B, at least three, but not more than five, summary levels—an outstanding level, a fully successful level, an optional level between outstanding and fully successful, an unacceptable level, and an optional level between fully successful and unacceptable; and

(C) For agencies not subject to 5 CFR part 430, subparts B and C, a summary rating level that reflects outstanding performance or a methodology that clearly differentiates outstanding performance, as defined in § 1330.402;

(2) A clearly defined process for reviewing—

(i) The initial summary ratings and ratings of record, as applicable, of senior employees to ensure that annual summary ratings or ratings of record are not distributed arbitrarily or on a rotational basis, and

(ii) In the case of senior employees with supervisory responsibilities—

(A) The performance standards, requirements, or expectations for the employees they supervise to ensure that they clearly link to organizational mission, GPRA strategic goals, or other program and policy objectives, as appropriate, and

(B) The performance standards, requirements, or expectations and the performance ratings of the employees they supervise to ensure that they reflect distinctions in individual and organizational performance, as appropriate;

(3) Documentation showing that the appraisal system(s) meets the applicable certification criteria, as follows:

(i) For provisional certification, the requirements in § 1330.404(a)(1)-(4); and

(ii) For full certification, all of the requirements in § 1330.404.

(4) For full certification, data on senior executive annual summary ratings and senior professional ratings of record, as applicable (or other documentation for agencies that do not use summary ratings), for the two appraisal periods preceding the request, as well as corresponding pay adjustments, cash awards, and levels of pay provided to those senior employees; and

(5) Any additional information that OPM and OMB may require to make a determination regarding certification.

(c) Certification actions. At the request of an agency, the Director of OPM, at his or her discretion and in accordance with the requirements of this subpart and with OMB concurrence, may grant full or provisional certification of the agency's appraisal system(s). OPM, with OMB concurrence, may—

(1) Grant full certification of an agency's senior employee appraisal system(s) for 2 calendar years when an agency has demonstrated that it has designed and fully implemented and applied an appraisal system(s) for its senior executives or senior professionals, as applicable, that meets the certification criteria in § 1330.404 and the documentation requirements of this section.

(2) Grant provisional certification of an agency's senior employee appraisal system(s) for 1 calendar year when an agency has designed, but not yet fully implemented or applied, an appraisal system(s) for its senior executives or senior professionals, as applicable, that meets the certification criteria in § 1330.404. OPM may extend provisional certification into the following calendar year in order to permit an agency to take any actions needed to adjust pay based on annual summary ratings, ratings of record, or other performance appraisal results determined during the calendar year for which the system was certified; or

(3) Suspend certification under paragraph (h) of this section if, at any time during the certification period, OPM, with OMB concurrence, determines that the agency appraisal system is not in compliance with certification criteria.

(d) Pay limitations. Absent full or provisional certification of its appraisal system(s), an agency must—

(1) Set a senior executive's rate of basic pay at a rate that does not exceed the rate for level III of the Executive Schedule, consistent with 5 CFR part 534, subpart D, when effective; and

(2) Limit aggregate compensation paid to senior employees in a calendar year to the rate for level I of the Executive Schedule, consistent with 5 CFR 530.203(b).

(e) Full certification. (1) OPM, with OMB concurrence, may grant full certification when a review of the agency's request and accompanying documentation demonstrates that the design, application, and administration of the agency's appraisal system(s) meet the criteria in § 1330.404 and the documentation requirements of this section.

(2) An agency with a fully-certified appraisal system(s) may set the rate of basic pay under 5 CFR part 534, subpart D, when effective, for a senior executive covered by a certified system at a rate that does not exceed the rate for level II of the Executive Schedule and pay senior employees covered by certified system(s) aggregate compensation in a certified calendar year in an amount up to the Vice President's salary under 3 U.S.C. 104.

(3) Full certification of an agency's appraisal system will be renewed automatically for an additional 2 calendar years, if—

(i) The agency meets the annual reporting requirements in paragraph (g) of this section; and

(ii) Based on those annual reports, OPM determines, and OMB concurs, that the appraisal system(s) continues to meet the certification criteria and procedural requirements set forth in this subpart.

(f) Provisional certification. (1) OPM, with OMB concurrence, may grant provisional certification when the design of an agency's appraisal system(s) for senior executives or senior professionals, as applicable, meets the requirements set forth in this subpart, but insufficient documentation exists to determine whether the actual application and administration of the appraisal system(s) meet the requirements for full certification. OPM, with OMB concurrence, may grant provisional certification to an agency more than once.

(2) During the 1-year period of provisional certification, an agency may set the rate of basic pay for a senior executive covered by the provisionally certified system at a rate that does not exceed the rate for level II of the Executive Schedule (consistent with 5 CFR part 534, subpart D, when effective) and pay senior employees covered by provisionally certified systems aggregate compensation in the certified calendar year in an amount up to the Vice President's salary under 3 U.S.C. 104 (consistent with 5 CFR part 530, subpart B).

(3) An agency must resubmit an application requesting provisional certification for every calendar year for which it intends to maintain provisional certification. An agency with a provisionally certified appraisal system(s) may request that OPM, with OMB concurrence, grant full certification upon a showing that its performance appraisal systems for senior executives and senior professionals, as applicable, meet the certification criteria in § 1330.404 and the documentation requirements in this section, particularly with respect to the implementation and administration of the system(s) over at least two consecutive performance appraisal periods.

(g) Annual reporting requirement. Agencies with certified appraisal systems must provide OPM with a general summary of the annual summary ratings and ratings of record, as applicable, and rates of basic pay, pay adjustments, cash awards, and aggregate total compensation (including any lump-sum payments in excess of the applicable aggregate limitation on pay that were paid in the current calendar year as required by § 530.204) for their senior employees covered by a certified appraisal system at the conclusion of each appraisal period that ends during a calendar year for which the certification is in effect, in accordance with OPM instructions.

(h) Suspension of certification. (1) When OPM determines that an agency's certified appraisal system is no longer in compliance with certification criteria, OPM, with OMB concurrence, may suspend such certification, as provided in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.

(2) An agency's system certification is automatically suspended when OPM withdraws performance appraisal system approval or mandates corrective action because of misapplication of the system as authorized under §§ 430.210(c), 430.312(c), and 1330.403(e).

(3) OPM will notify the head of the agency at least 30 calendar days in advance of the suspension and the reason(s) for the suspension, as well as any expected corrective action. Upon such notice, and until its system certification is reinstated, the agency must set a senior executive's rate of basic pay under 5 CFR part 534, subpart D, when effective, at a rate that does not exceed the rate for level III of the Executive Schedule. While certification is suspended, an agency must limit aggregate compensation received in a calendar year by a senior employee to the rate for level I of the Executive Schedule. Pay adjustments, cash awards, and levels of pay in effect prior to that notice will remain in effect unless OPM finds that any such decision and subsequent action was in violation of law, rule, or regulation.

(4) OPM, with OMB concurrence, may reinstate an agency's suspended certification only after the agency has taken appropriate corrective action.

(5) OPM may reinstate the certification of an appraisal system that has been automatically suspended under paragraph (h)(2) of this section upon the agency's compliance with the applicable OPM-mandated corrective action(s).

1331-1399 PARTS 1331-1399 [RESERVED]

CHAPTER IV OFFICE OF PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT AND OFFICE OF THE DIRECTOR OF NATIONAL INTELLIGENCE

PART 1400 DESIGNATION OF NATIONAL SECURITY POSITIONS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 1103(a)(5), 3301, 3302, 7312; 50 U.S.C. 3023, 3341; E.O. 10450, 3 CFR, 1949-1953 Comp., p. 936; E.O. 10577, 3 CFR, 1954-1958 Comp., p. 218; E.O. 12968, 3 CFR, 1995 Comp., p. 391; E.O. 13467, 3 CFR, 2008 Comp., p. 196; 3 CFR, 2013 Comp., p. 358.

Source: 80 FR 32262, June 5, 2015, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A Scope

§ 1400.101 Purpose.

(a) This part sets forth certain requirements and procedures which each agency shall observe for determining national security positions pursuant to Executive Order 10450—Security Requirements for Government Employment (April 27, 1953), 3 CFR 1949-1953 Comp., p. 936.

(b) All positions must be evaluated for a position sensitivity designation commensurate with the responsibilities and assignments of the position as they relate to the impact on the national security, including but not limited to eligibility for access to classified information.

§ 1400.102 Definitions and applicability.

(a) In this part—

(1) Critical infrastructures are systems and assets, whether physical or virtual, so vital to the United States that the incapacity or destruction of such systems and assets would have a debilitating impact on security, national economic security, national public health or safety, or any combination of those matters.

(2) Key resources are publicly or privately controlled resources essential to the minimal operations of the economy and government.

(3) National security refers to those activities which are directly concerned with the foreign relations of the United States, or protection of the Nation from internal subversion, foreign aggression, or terrorism.

(4) National security position includes any position in a department or agency, the occupant of which could bring about, by virtue of the nature of the position, a material adverse effect on the national security.

(i) Such positions include those requiring eligibility for access to classified information.

(ii) Other such positions include, but are not limited to, those whose duties include:

(A) Protecting the nation, its citizens and residents from acts of terrorism, espionage, or foreign aggression, including those positions where the occupant's duties involve protecting the nation's borders, ports, critical infrastructure or key resources, and where the occupant's neglect, action, or inaction could bring about a material adverse effect on the national security;

(B) Developing plans or policies related to national defense or military operations;

(C) Planning or conducting intelligence or counterintelligence activities, counterterrorism activities and related activities concerned with the preservation of the military strength of the United States;

(D) Protecting or controlling access to facilities or information systems where the occupant's neglect, action, or inaction could bring about a material adverse effect on the national security;

(E) Controlling, maintaining custody, safeguarding, or disposing of hazardous materials, arms, ammunition or explosives, where the occupant's neglect, action, or inaction could bring about a material adverse effect on the national security;

(F) Exercising investigative or adjudicative duties related to national security, suitability, fitness or identity credentialing, where the occupant's neglect, action, or inaction could bring about a material adverse effect on the national security;

(G) Exercising duties related to criminal justice, public safety or law enforcement, where the occupant's neglect, action, or inaction could bring about a material adverse effect on the national security; or

(H) Conducting investigations or audits related to the functions described in paragraphs (a)(4)(ii)(B) through (G) of this section, where the occupant's neglect, action, or inaction could bring about a material adverse effect on the national security.

(b) The requirements of this part apply to positions in the competitive service, positions in the excepted service where the incumbent can be noncompetitively converted to the competitive service, and Senior Executive Service (SES) positions held by career appointees in the SES within the executive branch. Departments and agencies may apply the requirements of this part to other excepted service positions within the executive branch and contractor positions, to the extent consistent with law.

§ 1400.103 Implementation.

OPM and the Security Executive Agent designated pursuant to Executive Order 13467 or any successor order may set forth policies, general procedures, criteria, standards, quality control procedures, and supplementary guidance for the implementation of this part.

Subpart B Designation and Investigative Requirements

§ 1400.201 Sensitivity level designations and investigative requirements.

(a) For purposes of this part, the head of each agency must designate, or cause to be designated, a position within the department or agency as a national security position pursuant to § 1400.102(a). National security positions must then be designated, based on the degree of potential damage to the national security, at one of the following three sensitivity levels:

(1) Noncritical-Sensitive positions are national security positions which have the potential to cause significant or serious damage to the national security, including but not limited to:

(i) Positions requiring eligibility for access to Secret, Confidential, or “L” classified information; or

(ii) Positions not requiring eligibility for access to classified information, but having the potential to cause significant or serious damage to the national security.

(2) Critical-Sensitive positions are national security positions which have the potential to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security, including but not limited to:

(i) Positions requiring eligibility for access to Top Secret or “Q” classified information;

(ii) Positions not requiring eligibility for access to classified information, but having the potential to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security;

(iii) Positions involving development or approval of war plans, major or special military operations, or critical and extremely important items of war;

(iv) National security policy-making or policy-determining positions;

(v) Positions with investigative duties, including handling of completed counterintelligence or background investigations, the nature of which have the potential to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security;

(vi) Positions involving national security adjudicative determinations or granting of personnel security clearance eligibility;

(vii) Positions involving duty on personnel security boards;

(viii) Senior management positions in key programs, the compromise of which could result in exceptionally grave damage to the national security;

(ix) Positions having direct involvement with diplomatic relations and negotiations;

(x) Positions involving independent responsibility for planning or approving continuity of Government operations;

(xi) Positions involving major and immediate responsibility for, and the ability to act independently without detection to compromise or exploit, the protection, control, and safety of the nation's borders and ports or immigration or customs control or policies, where there is a potential to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security;

(xii) Positions involving major and immediate responsibility for, and the ability to act independently without detection to compromise or exploit, the design, installation, operation, or maintenance of critical infrastructure systems or programs;

(xiii) Positions in which the occupants have the ability to independently damage public health and safety with devastating results;

(xiv) Positions in which the occupants have the ability to independently compromise or exploit biological select agents or toxins, chemical agents, nuclear materials, or other hazardous materials;

(xv) Positions in which the occupants have the ability to independently compromise or exploit the nation's nuclear or chemical weapons designs or systems;

(xvi) Positions in which the occupants obligate, expend, collect or control revenue, funds or items with monetary value in excess of $50 million, or procure or secure funding for goods and/or services with monetary value in excess of $50 million annually, with the potential for exceptionally grave damage to the national security;

(xvii) Positions in which the occupants have unlimited access to and control over unclassified information, which may include private, proprietary or other controlled unclassified information, but only where the unauthorized disclosure of that information could cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security;

(xviii) Positions in which the occupants have direct, unrestricted control over supplies of arms, ammunition, or explosives or control over any weapons of mass destruction;

(xix) Positions in which the occupants have unlimited access to or control of access to designated restricted areas or restricted facilities that maintain national security information classified at the Top Secret or “Q” level;

(xx) Positions working with significant life-critical/mission-critical systems, such that compromise or exploitation of those systems would cause exceptionally grave damage to essential Government operations or national infrastructure; or

(xxi) Positions in which the occupants conduct internal and/or external investigation, inquiries, or audits related to the functions described in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) through (xx) of this section, where the occupant's neglect, action, or inaction could cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security.

(3) Special-Sensitive positions are those national security positions which have the potential to cause inestimable damage to the national security, including but not limited to positions requiring eligibility for access to Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI), requiring eligibility for access to any other intelligence-related Special Sensitive information, requiring involvement in Top Secret Special Access Programs (SAP), or positions which the agency head determines must be designated higher than Critical-Sensitive consistent with Executive order.

(b) OPM and ODNI issue, and periodically revise, a Position Designation System which describes in greater detail agency requirements for designating positions that could bring about a material adverse effect on the national security. Agencies must use the Position Designation System to designate the sensitivity level of each position covered by this part. All positions receiving a position sensitivity designation under this part shall also receive a risk designation under 5 CFR part 731 (see 5 CFR 731.106) as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.

(c) Any position receiving a position sensitivity designation under this part at the critical-sensitive or special-sensitive level shall automatically carry with that designation, without further agency action, a risk designation under 5 CFR 731.106 at the high level.

(d) Any position receiving a position sensitivity designation at the noncritical-sensitive level shall automatically carry with that designation, without further agency action, a risk designation under 5 CFR 731.106 at the moderate level, unless the agency determines that the position should be designated at the high level. Agencies shall designate the position at the high level where warranted on the basis of criteria set forth in OPM issuances as described in § 731.102(c) of this title.

§ 1400.202 Waivers and exceptions to preappointment investigative requirements.

(a) Waivers—(1) General. A waiver of the preappointment investigative requirement contained in section 3(b) of Executive Order 10450 for employment in a national security position may be made only for a limited period:

(i) In case of emergency if the head of the department or agency concerned finds that such action is necessary in the national interest; and

(ii) When such finding is made a part of the records of the department or agency.

(2) Specific waiver requirements. (i) The preappointment investigative requirement may not be waived for appointment to positions designated Special-Sensitive under this part.

(ii) For positions designated Critical-Sensitive under this part, the records of the department or agency required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section must document the decision as follows:

(A) The nature of the emergency which necessitates an appointment prior to completion of the investigation and adjudication process;

(B) A record demonstrating the successful initiation of the required investigation based on a completed questionnaire; and

(C) A record of the Federal Bureau of Investigation fingerprint check portion of the required investigation supporting a preappointment waiver.

(iii) When a waiver for a position designated Noncritical-Sensitive is granted under this part, the agency head will determine documentary requirements needed to support the waiver decision. In these cases, the agency must favorably evaluate the completed questionnaire and expedite the submission of the request for an investigation at the appropriate level.

(iv) When waiving the preappointment investigation requirements, the applicant must be notified that the preappointment decision was made based on limited information, and that the ultimate appointment decision depends upon favorable completion and adjudication of the full investigative results.

(b) Exceptions to investigative requirements. Pursuant to section 3(a) of E.O. 10450, upon request of an agency head, the Office of Personnel Management may, in its discretion, authorize such less investigation as may meet the requirement of national security with respect to:

(1) Positions that are intermittent, seasonal, per diem, or temporary, not to exceed an aggregate of 180 days in either a single continuous appointment or series of appointments; or

(2) Positions filled by aliens employed outside the United States.

(c) Applicability. This section does not apply to:

(1) Investigations, waivers of investigative requirements, and exceptions from investigative requirements under 42 U.S.C. 2165(b);

(2) Investigative requirements for eligibility for access to classified information under Executive Order 12968; or

(3) Standards for temporary eligibility for access to classified information established by the Security Executive Agent pursuant to section 3.3(a)(2) of Executive Order 12968.

§ 1400.203 Periodic reinvestigation requirements.

(a) The incumbent of a national security position requiring eligibility for access to classified information is subject to the reinvestigation requirements of E.O. 12968.

(b) The incumbent of a national security position that does not require eligibility for access to classified information is subject to periodic reinvestigation at least once every five years. Such reinvestigation must be conducted using a national security questionnaire, and at a frequency and scope that will satisfy the reinvestigation requirements for both national security and public trust positions.

§ 1400.204 Reassessment of current positions.

(a) Agency heads must assess each position covered by this part within the agency using the standards set forth in this regulation as well as guidance provided in OPM issuances to determine whether changes in position sensitivity designations are necessary within 24 months of July 6, 2015.

(b) Where the sensitivity designation of the position is changed, and requires a higher level of investigation than was previously required for the position,

(1) The agency must initiate the investigation no later than 14 working days after the change in designation; and

(2) The agency will determine whether the incumbent's retention in sensitive duties pending the outcome of the investigation is consistent with the national security.

(c) Agencies may provide advance notice of the redesignation of a position to allow time for completion of the forms, releases, and other information needed from the incumbent to initiate the investigation.

(d) Agencies may request an extension, pursuant to guidance issued jointly by OPM and ODNI, of the timeframe for redesignation of positions or initiation of reinvestigations, if justified by severe staffing, budgetary, or information technology constraints, or emergency circumstances.

§ 1400.205 Savings provision.

No provision of the rule in this part may be applied to make an adverse inference in pending administrative proceedings. However, the redesignation of a position may require that the occupant of that position undergo a new adjudication. An administrative proceeding is deemed to be pending from the date of the agency or OPM notice described in § 1400.301(c)(1).

Subpart C Procedural Rights and Reporting

§ 1400.301 Procedural rights.

When an agency makes an adjudicative decision based on an OPM investigation or an investigation conducted under an OPM delegation of authority, or when an agency, as a result of information in such an investigation, changes a tentative favorable placement or clearance decision to an unfavorable decision, the agency must comply with all applicable administrative procedural requirements, as provided by law, rule, regulation, or Executive order, including E.O. 12968, and the agency's own procedural regulations, and must:

(a) Ensure that the records used in making the decision are accurate, relevant, timely, and complete to the extent reasonably necessary to assure fairness to the individual in any determination;

(b) Consider all available, relevant information in reaching its final decision; and

(c) At a minimum, subject to requirements of law, rule, regulation, or Executive order:

(1) Provide the individual concerned notice of the specific reason(s) for the decision, an opportunity to respond, and notice of appeal rights, if any; and

(2) Keep any record of the agency action required by OPM as published in its issuances.

§ 1400.302 Reporting to OPM.

(a) Each agency conducting an investigation under E.O. 10450 is required to notify OPM when the investigation is initiated and when it is completed.

(b) Agencies must report to OPM an adjudicative determination and action taken with respect to an individual investigated pursuant to E.O. 10450 as soon as possible and in no event later than 90 days after receipt of the final report of investigation.

(c) To comply with process efficiency requirements, additional data may be collected from agencies conducting investigations or taking action under this part. These collections will be identified in separate OPM and ODNI guidance, issued as necessary under § 1400.103.

1401-1499 PARTS 1401-1499 [RESERVED]

CHAPTER V THE INTERNATIONAL ORGANIZATIONS EMPLOYEES LOYALTY BOARD

1500 PART 1500 [RESERVED]

PART 1501 OPERATIONS OF THE INTERNATIONAL ORGANIZATIONS EMPLOYEES LOYALTY BOARD

Authority: E.O. 10422, as amended; 3 CFR, 1949-1953 Comp., p. 921.

Source: 18 FR 6371, Oct. 7, 1953, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1501.1 Name.

This Board shall be known as the International Organizations Employees Loyalty Board, and any reference to the “Board” in this part shall mean such International Organizations Employees Loyalty Board.

§ 1501.2 Officers.

The officers of the Board shall consist of a chairman, a vice-chairman to be designated by the chairman, and an executive secretary to be appointed by the Board.

§ 1501.3 Duties of officers.

(a) The Chairman. The chairman shall perform all the duties usually pertaining to the office of chairman, including presiding at Board meetings, supervising the administrative work of the Board, and conducting its correspondence. He shall be authorized to call special meetings of the Board, when in his judgment, such meetings are necessary and shall call such meetings at the written request of three members of the Board. The time and place of such meetings shall be fixed by the chairman. The chairman shall constitute such panels of the Board as may be necessary or desirable to render advisory determinations and to conduct hearings, and he is authorized to appoint such committees as from time to time may be required to handle the work of the Board. The chairman may request the vice-chairman to assume the duties of the chairman in the event of the absence of the chairman or his inability to act.

(b) The Vice-Chairman. The duties of the vice-chairman, when acting in the place of the chairman, shall be the same as the duties of the chairman.

(c) The Executive-Secretary. The executive-secretary shall perform all of the duties customarily performed by an executive-secretary. He shall have immediate charge of the administrative duties of the Board under the direction of the chairman and shall have general responsibility for advising and assisting the Board members and exercising executive direction over the staff.

§ 1501.4 Hearings.

No adverse determination shall be made without the opportunity for a hearing.

§ 1501.5 Panels of the Board.

All hearings shall be held by panels of the Board, the determinations of which shall be the determinations of the Board. Such panels of the Board shall consist of not less than three members designated by the chairman. The chairman shall designate the Board member who shall be the presiding member and it shall be the duty of such presiding member to make due report to the Board of all acts and proceedings of the said panel.

§ 1501.6 Quorum.

A majority of all the members of the Board shall constitute a quorum of the Board. Minutes shall be kept of the transactions of the Board in its meetings.

§ 1501.7 Authority and responsibility of the Board.

The Board shall have the authority and responsibility to make rules and regulations, not inconsistent with the provisions of Executive Order 10422, as amended, for the execution of its functions and for making available to the Secretary General of the United Nations and the executive heads of other public international organizations certain information concerning United States citizens employed or being considered for employment by the United Nations or other public international organizations of which the United States is a member.

§ 1501.8 Grounds for determinations of the Board.

(a) Standard. The standard to be used by the Board in making any advisory determination relating to the loyalty of a United States citizen who is an employee of, or is being considered for employment in, a public international organization of which the United States is a member, shall be whether or not on all the evidence there is a reasonable doubt as to the loyalty of the person involved to the Government of the United States.

(b) Activities and associations. Among the activities and associations of the employee or person being considered for employment which may be considered in connection with a determination of disloyalty may be one or more of the following:

(1) Sabotage, espionage, or attempts or preparations therefor, or knowingly associating with spies or saboteurs.

(2) Treason or sedition or advocacy thereof.

(3) Advocacy of revolution or force or violence to alter the constitutional form of government of the United States.

(4) Intentional, unauthorized disclosure to any person, under circumstances which may indicate disloyalty to the United States, of United States documents or United States information of a confidential or non-public character obtained by the person making the disclosure as a result of his previous employment by the Government of the United States or otherwise.

(5) Performing or attempting to perform his duties, or otherwise acting, while an employee of the United States Government during a previous period, so as to serve the interests of another government in preference to the interests of the United States.

(6) Membership in, or affiliation or sympathetic association with, any foreign or domestic organization, association, movement, or group or combination of persons, designated by the Attorney General as totalitarian, fascist, communist, or subversive, or as having adopted a policy of advocating or approving the commission of acts of force or violence to deny other persons their rights under the Constitution of the United States, or as seeking to alter the form of government of the United States by unconstitutional means.

§ 1501.9 Cases reviewable by the Board.

All cases in which an investigation has been made under Executive Order 10422, as amended, shall be referred to and reviewed by the Board in accordance with the Executive Order and the rules and regulations of the Board.

§ 1501.10 Consideration of reports of investigation.

(a) In all cases the Board shall consider the reports of investigation in the light of the standard as set forth in § 1501.8 and shall determine whether such reports warrant a finding favorable to the individual or appear to call for further processing of the case with a view to a possible unfavorable determination.

(b) If the Board reaches a favorable conclusion in a case involving a question of loyalty, it shall make a determination that on all the evidence there is not a reasonable doubt as to the individual's loyalty.

(c) If the Board determines that the reports do not warrant a finding favorable to the individual, or the Board determines that the evidence is of such a nature that a hearing may be required before a final decision is made, the Board shall send by registered mail, or in such other manner as the Board in a particular case may decide, a written interrogatory to the individual. Such interrogatory shall state the nature of the evidence against him, setting forth with particularity the facts and circumstances involved, in as much detail as security conditions permit, in order to enable him to submit his answer, defense or explanation and to submit affidavits. It will also inform the applicant or employee, of his opportunity to reply to the interrogatory in writing, under oath or affirmation, within ten (10) calendar days of the date of receipt by him of the interrogatory or such longer time as the Board in specific cases may prescribe, and of his opportunity for a hearing on the issues before the Board or a panel of the Board, including his right to appear personally at such hearing, to be represented by counsel of a representative of his own choosing, to present evidence in his own behalf, and to cross-examine witnesses offered in support of the derogatory information.

§ 1501.11 Consideration of complete file before hearing.

(a) Following delivery to the applicant or employee of the interrogatory and after expiration of the time limit for filing an answer to the interrogatory, the Board shall proceed to consider the case on the complete file, including the answer, if any, to the interrogatory.

(b) If, upon such consideration, the Board concludes that a finding favorable to the individual may be made, no hearing shall be required.

(c) If, upon such consideration, the Board concludes that a determination favorable to the individual cannot be made on the basis of the information in the file, it shall set a time and place for a hearing and shall give notice thereof to the individual.

§ 1501.12 Obtaining further information.

At any stage in its review and consideration of a case, if the Board deems it advisable or necessary to obtain information or clarification of any matter, the Board may request further investigation, or submit a written questionnaire to the individual whose case is before the Board, or request such individual to furnish information in an oral interview.

§ 1501.13 Conduct of hearings.

(a) Not less than three members of a panel of the Board shall be present at all hearings. The Board shall conduct its hearings in such manner as to protect from disclosure information affecting the national security. The chairman of the panel shall preside and be responsible for the maintenance of decorum and order in the hearing.

(b) Attendance at hearings shall be limited to the applicant or employee, his attorney or representative, the panel of the Board assigned to the case, Board members, Board staff employees participating in the case, the witness who is testifying, and such other persons as in the opinion of the panel are required for the proper presentation of the case. Representation for an applicant or employee shall be limited to one attorney or representative and one bona fide assistant, both representing the applicant or employee only.

(c) Hearings shall begin with the reading of the interrogatory. The applicant or employee shall thereupon be informed of his right to participate in the hearing, to be represented by counsel, to present witnesses and other evidence in his behalf, and to cross-examine witnesses offered in support of the derogatory information.

(d) Testimony shall be given under oath or affirmation.

(e) Strict legal rules of evidence shall not be applied at the hearings, but reasonable bounds shall be maintained as to competency, relevancy, and materiality and due allowance shall be made for the effect of any nondisclosure to the individual of information or the absence of any opportunity to cross-examine persons who supplied information but who do not appear and testify. Both the Government and the applicant or employee may introduce such evidence as the panel may deem proper in the particular case.

(f) A complete verbatim stenographic transcript shall be made of the hearing, and the transcript shall constitute a permanent part of the record.

(g) Applicants and employees must pay their own travel and subsistence expenses incident to attendance at hearings, except that the Board may authorize the payment of travel and subsistence expenses to applicants or employees when the hearing is held at a place other than the place outside the continental limits of the United States where the employee works, or the applicant resides, and such payment is considered in the interest of good administration and funds are available for this purpose.

[18 FR 6371, Oct. 7, 1953, as amended at 21 FR 5249, July 14, 1956]

§ 1501.14 Decision of the Board.

After the employee or person being considered for employment has been given a hearing, the Board shall promptly make its decision. The determination of the Board shall be in writing and shall be signed by the members of the panel. It shall state the action taken, together with the reasons therefor, and shall be made a permanent part of the file in every case.

§ 1501.15 Transmission of Determination to the Secretary of State.

The Board shall transmit its determination in each case to the Secretary of State for transmission to the Secretary General of the United Nations, or the executive head of any other public international organization concerned. In each case in which the Board determines that, on all the evidence, there is a reasonable doubt as to the loyalty of the person involved to the Government of the United States, it shall also transmit a statement of the reasons for the Board's determination in as much detail as the Board deems that security considerations permit.

§ 1501.16 Notification of individual concerned.

A copy of the determination of the Board, but not of the statement of reasons, shall be furnished in each case to the person who is the subject thereof.

1502-1599 PARTS 1502-1599 [RESERVED]

CHAPTER VI FEDERAL RETIREMENT THRIFT INVESTMENT BOARD

PART 1600 EMPLOYEE CONTRIBUTION ELECTIONS, INVESTMENT ELECTIONS, AND AUTOMATIC ENROLLMENT PROGRAM

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 8351, 8432(a), 8432(b), 8432(c), 8432(j), 8432d, 8474(b)(5) and (c)(1), and 8440e.

Source: 66 FR 22089, May 2, 2001, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General

§ 1600.1 Definitions.

Definitions generally applicable to the Thrift Savings Plan are set forth at 5 CFR 1690.1.

[68 FR 35494, June 13, 2003]

Subpart B Elections

§ 1600.11 Types of elections.

(a) Contribution elections. A contribution election must be made pursuant to § 1600.12 and includes the following types of elections:

(1) To make employee contributions;

(2) To change the amount of employee contributions;

(3) To change the type of employee contributions (traditional or Roth); or

(4) To terminate employee contributions.

(b) Investment election. A participant may make or change the manner in which future deposits to his or her account are allocated among the TSP core funds only in accordance with 5 CFR part 1601.

[66 FR 22089, May 2, 2001, as amended at 68 FR 35494, June 13, 2003; 70 FR 32207, June 1, 2005; 75 FR 24785, May 6, 2010; 77 FR 26422, May 4, 2012; 87 FR 31672, May 24, 2022]

§ 1600.12 Contribution elections.

(a) An employee may make a contribution election at any time.

(b) A participant must submit a contribution election to his or her employing agency. To make an election, employees may use either the paper election form provided by the TSP, or, if available from their employing agency, electronic media. If an electronic medium is used, all relevant elements contained on the paper form must be included in the electronic medium.

(c) A contribution election must:

(1) Be completed in accordance with the instructions on the form, if a paper form is used;

(2) Be made in accordance with the employing agency's instructions, if the submission is made electronically; and

(3) Not exceed the maximum contribution limitations described in § 1600.22.

(d) A contribution election will become effective no later than the first full pay period after it is received by the employing agency.

(e) A uniformed service member may elect to contribute sums to the TSP from basic pay and special or incentive pay (including bonuses). However, in order to contribute to the TSP from special or incentive pay (including bonuses), the uniformed service member must also elect to contribute to the TSP from basic pay. A uniformed service member may elect to contribute from special pay or incentive pay (including bonuses) in anticipation of receiving such pay (that is, he or she does not have to be receiving the special or incentive pay (including bonuses) when the contribution election is made); those elections will take effect when the uniformed service member receives the special or incentive pay (including bonuses).

[70 FR 32207, June 1, 2005, as amended at 77 FR 26422, May 4, 2012]

§ 1600.13 Effect of transfer to FERS.

(a) If an employee appointed to a position covered by CSRS elects to transfer to FERS, the employee may make a contribution election at any time.

(b) [Reserved]

(c) If the employee had elected to make TSP contributions while covered by CSRS, the election continues to be valid until the employee makes a new valid election.

(d) Agency automatic (1%) contributions for all employees covered under this section and, if applicable, agency matching contributions attributable to employee contributions must begin the same pay period that the transfer to FERS becomes effective.

[70 FR 32207, June 1, 2005. Redesignated at 26422, May 4, 2012, as amended at 87 FR 31672, May 24, 2022]

§ 1600.14 Effect of election to be covered by BRS.

(a) If a uniformed service member elects to be covered by BRS, the member may make a contribution election at any time.

(b) [Reserved]

(c) If the member had elected to make TSP contributions while not covered by BRS, the election remains effective until the member makes a new election.

(d) Agency automatic (1%) contributions for all members covered under this section and, if applicable, agency matching contributions attributable to employee contributions must begin at the time set forth in § 1600.19(c).

[82 FR 60102, Dec. 19, 2017, as amended at 87 FR 31672, May 24, 2022]

Subpart C Program of Contributions

§ 1600.18 Separate service member and civilian contributions.

The TSP record keeper maintains uniformed services accounts separately from civilian accounts. Therefore, a participant who has made contributions as a uniformed service member and as a civilian employee will have two TSP accounts: A uniformed services account and a civilian account.

[77 FR 26422, May 4, 2012, as amended at 87 FR 31672, May 24, 2022]

§ 1600.19 Employing agency contributions.

(a) Agency automatic (1%) contributions. Each pay period, subject to the limitations in paragraph (c) of this section, any agency that employs an individual covered by FERS or BRS must make a contribution to that employee's tax-deferred balance for the benefit of the individual equal to 1% of the basic pay paid to such employee for service performed during that pay period. The employing agency must make Agency Automatic (1%) Contributions without regard to whether the employee elects to make employee contributions.

(b) Agency matching contributions. (1) Subject to the limitations in paragraph (c) of this section, any agency that employs an individual covered by FERS or BRS must make a contribution to the employee's tax-deferred balance for the benefit of the employee equal to the sum of:

(i) The amount of the employee's contribution that does not exceed 3% of the employee's basic pay for such pay period; and

(ii) One-half of such portion of the amount of the employee's contributions that exceeds 3% but does not exceed 5% of the employee's basic pay for such period.

(2) A uniformed service member is not entitled to matching contributions for contributions deducted from special or incentive pay (including bonuses).

(c) Timing of employing agency contributions. (1) An employee appointed or reappointed to a position covered by FERS is immediately eligible to receive employing agency contributions.

(2) A uniformed service member covered by BRS will be eligible to receive employing agency contributions pursuant to the following rules:

(i) A uniformed service member who first entered service on or after January 1, 2018 is entitled to:

(A) Agency automatic (1%) contributions beginning in the first full pay period following the date that is 60 days after the uniformed service member's PEBD and ending in the first full pay period following the date that is 26 years after the uniformed service member's PEBD.

(B) Agency matching contributions beginning in the first full pay period following the date that is 2 years and one day after the uniformed service member's PEBD and ending in the first full pay period following the date that is 26 years after the uniformed service member's PEBD.

(ii) A uniformed service member who elects to enroll in BRS is entitled to:

(A) Agency automatic (1%) contributions beginning in the first full pay period following the date the uniformed service member enrolled in BRS and ending in the first full pay period following the date that is 26 years after the Uniformed service member's PEBD.

(B) Agency matching contributions beginning in the first full pay period following the date the uniformed service member enrolled in BRS and ending in the first full pay period following the date that is 26 years after the uniformed service member's PEBD.

[77 FR 26422, May 4, 2012, as amended at 82 FR 60102, Dec. 19, 2017; 82 FR 61129, Dec. 27, 2017; 87 FR 31672, May 24, 2022]

§ 1600.20 Types of employee contributions.

(a) Traditional contributions. A participant may make traditional contributions.

(b) Roth contributions. A participant may make Roth contributions in addition to or in lieu of traditional contributions.

(c) Contributions from tax-exempt pay. A uniformed service member who receives pay which is exempt from taxation under 26 U.S.C. 112 will have contributions deducted from such pay and made to his or her traditional or Roth balance in accordance with an election made under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section.

[77 FR 26422, May 4, 2012]

§ 1600.21 Contributions in whole percentages or whole dollar amounts.

(a) Civilian employees may elect to contribute a percentage of basic pay or a dollar amount, subject to the limits described in § 1600.22. The election must be expressed in whole percentages or whole dollar amounts. A participant may contribute a percentage for one type of contribution and a dollar amount for another type of contribution. If a participant elects to contribute a dollar amount to his or her traditional balance and a dollar amount to his or her Roth balance, but the total dollar amount elected is more than the amount available to be deducted from the participant's basic pay, the employing agency will deduct traditional contributions first and Roth contributions second.

(b) Uniformed services members may elect to contribute from basic pay and, if they elect to contribute from basic pay, special or incentive pay (including bonus pay) subject to the limits described in § 1600.22. The election may be expressed as a whole percentage, a dollar amount, or both as determined by the member's service.

[77 FR 26423, May 4, 2012, as amended at 87 FR 31672, May 24, 2022]

§ 1600.22 Maximum employee contributions.

A participant's employee contributions are subject to the following limitations:

(a) The maximum employee contribution will be limited only by the provisions of the Internal Revenue Code.

(b) A participant may make traditional contributions and Roth contributions during the same year, but the combined total amount of the participant's tax-deferred employee contributions and Roth contributions cannot exceed the applicable Internal Revenue Code elective deferral limit for the year.

(c) A participant who has both a civilian and a uniformed services account can make employee contributions to both accounts, but the combined total amount of the participant's tax-deferred employee contributions and Roth contributions made to both accounts cannot exceed the Internal Revenue Code elective deferral limit for the year.

[77 FR 26423, May 4, 2012, as amended at 87 FR 31672, May 24, 2022]

§ 1600.23 Catch-up contributions.

(a) A participant may make traditional catch-up contributions or Roth catch-up contributions from basic pay at any time during the calendar year if he or she:

(1) Is at least age 50 by the end of the calendar year;

(2) Is making employee contributions at a rate that will result in the participant making the maximum employee contributions permitted under § 1600.22; and

(3) Does not exceed the annual limit on catch-up contributions contained in section 414(v) the Internal Revenue Code.

(b) [Reserved]

(c) A participant may make traditional catch-up contributions and Roth catch-up contributions during the same year, but the combined total amount of catch-up contributions of both types cannot exceed the applicable Internal Revenue Code catch-up contribution limit for the year.

(d) A participant who has both a civilian account and a uniformed services account may make catch-up contributions to both accounts, but the combined total amount of catch-up contributions to both accounts cannot exceed the Internal Revenue Code catch-up contribution limit for the year.

(e) A participant cannot make catch-up contributions to his or her traditional balance from pay which is exempt from taxation under 26 U.S.C. 112.

(f) A participant may make catch-up contributions to his or her Roth balance from pay which is exempt from taxation under 26 U.S.C. 112.

(g) A participant cannot make catch-up contributions from special or incentive pay (including bonus pay).

(h) [Reserved]

[77 FR 26423, May 4, 2012, as amended at 85 FR 72964, Nov. 16, 2020 ]

Subpart D Rollovers From Other Qualified Retirement Plans

Source: 87 FR 31672, May 24, 2022, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1600.30 Accounts eligible for rollover.

(a) A participant who has an open TSP account and is entitled to receive (or receives) an eligible rollover distribution from an eligible employer plan within the meaning of section 402(c) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 402(c)), or from a traditional IRA may roll over that distribution into his or her existing TSP account in accordance with § 1600.31.

(b) The only balances that the TSP record keeper will accept are balances that would otherwise be includible in gross income if the distribution were paid to the participant. The TSP record keeper will not accept any balances that have already been subjected to Federal income tax (after-tax monies) or balances from a uniformed services TSP account that will not be subject to Federal income tax (tax-exempt monies).

(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, the TSP record keeper will accept Roth funds that are transferred via direct rollover from an eligible employer plan that maintains a qualified Roth contribution program described in section 402A of the Internal Revenue Code.

(d) The TSP record keeper will accept a rollover only to the extent the rollover is permitted by the Internal Revenue Code.

§ 1600.31 Methods for rolling over eligible rollover distribution to the TSP.

(a) Direct rollover. (1) A participant may request that the administrator or trustee of an eligible employer plan or traditional IRA roll over any or all of his or her account directly to the TSP in the form and manner prescribed by the TSP record keeper. The administrator or trustee must provide to the TSP record keeper the distribution, information about the type of money included in the distribution (i.e., tax-deferred and/or Roth amounts), and sufficient evidence from which to reasonably conclude that a contribution is a valid rollover contribution (as defined by 26 CFR 1.401(a)(31)-1, Q&A-14). By way of example, sufficient evidence to conclude a contribution is a valid rollover contribution includes a copy of the plan's determination letter, a letter or other statement from the plan administrator or trustee indicating that it is an eligible employer plan or traditional IRA, a check indicating that the contribution is a direct rollover, a payment confirmation, distribution statement or a tax notice from the plan to the participant indicating that the participant could receive a rollover from the plan.

(2) If the distribution is from a Roth account maintained by an eligible employer plan, the plan administrator must also provide to the TSP record keeper a statement indicating the first year of the participant's Roth 5 year non-exclusion period under the distributing plan and either:

(i) The portion of the direct rollover amount that represents Roth contributions (i.e., basis); or

(ii) A statement that the entire amount of the direct rollover is a qualified Roth distribution (as defined by Internal Revenue Code section 402A(d)(2)).

(b) Indirect rollover by participant. A participant who has already received a distribution from an eligible employer plan or traditional IRA may request to roll over all or part of the distribution into the TSP in the form and manner prescribed by the TSP record keeper. However, the TSP record keeper will not accept a rollover by the participant of Roth funds distributed from an eligible employer plan. A distribution of Roth funds from an eligible employer plan may be rolled into the TSP by direct rollover only. The TSP record keeper will accept a rollover by the participant of tax-deferred amounts if the following requirements and conditions are satisfied:

(1) The participant must request to roll over the amounts in the form and manner prescribed by the TSP record keeper.

(2) The administrator or trustee must provide to the TSP record keeper information about the type of money included in the distribution (i.e., tax-deferred and/or Roth) and sufficient evidence from which to reasonably conclude that a contribution is a valid rollover contribution. By way of example, sufficient evidence to conclude a contribution is a valid rollover contribution includes a copy of the plan's determination letter, a letter or other statement from the plan indicating that it is an eligible employer plan or traditional IRA, a check indicating that the contribution is a direct rollover, a payment confirmation, distribution statement or a tax notice from the plan to the participant indicating that the participant could receive a rollover from the plan.

(3) The participant must submit a certified check, cashier's check, cashier's draft, money order, treasurer's check from a credit union, or personal check, made out to the “Thrift Savings Plan,” for the entire amount of the rollover, along with any other information required by the TSP record keeper. A participant may roll over the full amount of the distribution by making up, from his or her own funds, the amount that was withheld from the distribution for the payment of Federal taxes.

(4) The transaction must be completed within 60 days of the participant's receipt of the distribution from his or her eligible employer plan or traditional IRA. The transaction is not complete until the TSP record keeper receives the guaranteed funds for the amount to be rolled over, information sufficient to conclude that the amount is a valid rollover contribution, and any other information required by the TSP record keeper.

(c) Participant's certification. When rolling over a distribution to the TSP by either a direct or indirect rollover, the participant must certify that the distribution is eligible for roll over into the TSP, as follows:

(1) Distribution from an eligible employer plan. The participant must certify that the distribution:

(i) Is not one of a series of substantially equal periodic payments made over the life expectancy of the participant (or the joint lives of the participant and designated beneficiary, if applicable) or for a period of 10 years or more;

(ii) Is not a minimum distribution required by I.R.C. section 401(a)(9) (26 U.S.C. 401(a)(9));

(iii) Is not a hardship distribution;

(iv) Is not a plan loan that is deemed to be a taxed loan because of default;

(v) Is not a return of excess elective deferrals; and

(vi) If not rolled over, would be includible in gross income for the tax year in which the distribution is paid. This paragraph (c)(1)(vi) shall not apply to Roth funds distributed from an eligible employer plan.

(2) Distribution from a traditional IRA. The participant must certify that the distribution:

(i) Is not a minimum distribution required under I.R.C. section 401(a)(9) (26 U.S.C. 401(a)(9)); and

(ii) If not rolled over, would be includible in gross income for the tax year in which the distribution is paid.

§ 1600.32 Treatment accorded rollover funds.

(a) All funds rolled over to the TSP pursuant to §§ 1600.30 and 1600.31 will be treated as employee contributions.

(b) All funds rolled over to the TSP pursuant to §§ 1600.30 and 1600.31 will be invested in accordance with the participant's investment election on file at the time the rollover is completed.

(c) Funds rolled over to the TSP pursuant to §§ 1600.30 and 1600.31 are not subject to the limits on contributions described in § 1600.22.

§ 1600.33 Combining uniformed services accounts and civilian accounts.

Uniformed services TSP account balances and civilian TSP account balances may be combined (thus producing one account), subject to paragraphs (a) through (g) of this section:

(a) An account balance can be combined with another once the TSP record keeper is informed (by the participant's employing agency) that the participant has separated from Government service.

(b) Tax-exempt contributions may not be transferred from a uniformed services TSP account to a civilian TSP account.

(c) A traditional balance and a Roth balance cannot be combined.

(d) Funds transferred to the gaining account will be allocated among the TSP core funds according to the investment election in effect for the account into which the funds are transferred.

(e) Funds transferred to the gaining account will be treated as employee contributions and otherwise invested as described at 5 CFR part 1600.

(f) A uniformed service member must obtain the consent of his or her spouse before combining a uniformed services TSP account balance with his or her civilian account, even if the civilian account is not subject to FERS spousal rights. A request for an exception to the spousal consent requirement will be evaluated under the rules explained in 5 CFR part 1650.

(g) A loan cannot be transferred between accounts. Before the accounts can be combined, any outstanding loans from the losing account must be closed as described in 5 CFR part 1655.

Subpart E Automatic Enrollment Program

Authority: Sec. 102, Pub. L. 111-31, div. B. tit. I, 123 Stat. 1776, 1853 (5 U.S.C. 8432(b)(2)(A)).

Source: 75 FR 43800, July 27, 2010, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1600.34 Automatic enrollment program.

(a) All newly hired civilian employees who are eligible to participate in the Thrift Savings Plan and those civilian employees who are rehired after a separation in service of 31 or more calendar days and who are eligible to participate in the TSP will automatically have 5% of their basic pay contributed to the employee's traditional TSP balance (default employee contribution) unless, by the end of the employee's first pay period (subject to the agency's processing time frames), they elect:

(1) To not contribute;

(2) To contribute at some other level; or

(3) To make Roth contributions in addition to, or in lieu of, traditional contributions.

(b) All uniformed service members who either enter service on or after January 1, 2018 or re-enter service after a separation in service of 31 or more calendar days after having been covered by BRS at the time of separation will automatically have 5% of their basic pay contributed to the member's traditional TSP balance (default employee contribution) beginning the first full pay period following the date that is 60 days after the member's PEBD unless they elect by the end of that 60 day period:

(1) To not contribute;

(2) To contribute at some other level; or

(3) To make Roth contributions in addition to, or in lieu of, traditional contributions.

(c) If, for any calendar year, a uniformed service member described in paragraph (b) of this section does not make a contribution in the final full pay period of such calendar year due to the member's election to terminate contributions prior to the final full pay period, then that member will automatically have 5% of his or her basic pay contributed to his or her traditional TSP balance beginning the first full pay period of the following calendar year unless he or she makes a subsequent election by December 31st:

(1) To not contribute;

(2) To contribute at some other level;

(3) To make Roth contributions in addition to, or in lieu of, traditional contributions.

[82 FR 60102, Dec. 19, 2017, as amended at 85 FR 57666, Sept. 16, 2020]

§ 1600.35 Refunds of default employee contributions.

(a) Subject to the limitations in paragraph (f) of this section, a participant may request a refund of any default employee contributions made on his or her behalf (i.e., the contributions made while under the automatic enrollment program) provided the request is received within 90 days after the date that the first default employee contribution was processed. The election may be made on the TSP website or by completing the TSP's refund request form and must be received by the TSP's record keeper prior to the expiration of the 90-day period.

(1) The distribution of a refund will be reported as income to the participant on IRS Form 1099-R, but it will not be subject to the additional tax under 26 U.S.C. 72(t) (the early withdrawal penalty tax).

(2) A participant who requests a refund will receive the amount of any default employee contributions (adjusted for allocable gains and losses).

(3) Processing of refunds will be subject to the rules set out at 5 CFR part 1650.

(b) A participant will no longer be considered to be covered by the automatic enrollment program if the participant files a contribution election. Consequently, if a participant makes a contribution election during the 90-day period, the participant will only be eligible to receive as a refund an amount equal to his or her default employee contributions (adjusted for allocable gains and losses).

(c) After the expiration of the period allowed for the refund, any withdrawal must be made pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 8433 and 5 CFR part 1650.

(d) A married participant may request a refund of default employee contributions without obtaining the consent of his or her spouse or having the TSP record keeper notify the spouse of the request.

(e) The rules applicable to frozen accounts (5 CFR 1650.3) and applicable to deceased participants (5 CFR 1650.6) also apply to refunds of the default employee contributions.

(f) A participant may not receive a refund of default employee contributions made pursuant to § 1600.34(c).

[75 FR 43800, July 27, 2010, as amended at 82 FR 60103, Dec. 19, 2017; 87 FR 31673, May 24, 2022]

§ 1600.36 Matching contributions.

(a) A participant is not entitled to keep the matching contributions and their associated earnings that are attributable to refunded default employee contributions.

(b) The matching contributions and associated earnings attributable to refunded default employee contributions shall be forfeited to the TSP and used to offset administrative expenses.

§ 1600.37 Notice.

The TSP record keeper shall furnish all new employees and all rehired employees covered by the automatic enrollment program, and all employees described in paragraph (c) of § 1600.34, covered by the automatic enrollment program a notice that accurately describes:

(a) That default employee contributions equal to 5 percent of the employee's basic pay will be deducted from the employee's pay and contributed to the employee's traditional TSP balance on the employee's behalf if the employee does not make an affirmative contribution election;

(b) The employee's right to elect to not have default employee contributions made to the TSP on the employee's behalf, to elect to have a different percentage or amount of basic pay contributed to the TSP, or to make Roth contributions;

(c) The TSP core fund in which the default employee and agency contributions will be invested unless the employee makes an investment election;

(d) The employee's ability (or inability) to request a refund of any default employee contributions (adjusted for allocable gains and losses) and the procedure to request such a refund; and

(e) That an investment in any fund other than the G Fund is made at the employee's risk, that the employee is not protected by the United States Government or the Board against any loss on the investment, and that neither the United States Government nor the Board guarantees any return on the investment.

[75 FR 43800, July 27, 2010, as amended at 77 FR 26424, May 4, 2012; 80 FR 52173, Aug. 28, 2015; 82 FR 60103, Dec. 19, 2017; 85 FR 57666, Sept. 16, 2020; 87 FR 31673, May 24, 2022]

PART 1601 PARTICIPANTS' CHOICES OF TSP FUNDS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 8351, 8432d, 8438, 8474(b)(5) and (c)(1).

Source: 66 FR 22093, May 2, 2001, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General

§ 1601.1 Definitions.

(a) Definitions generally applicable to the Thrift Savings Plan are set forth at 5 CFR 1690.1.

(b) As used in this part:

Acknowledgment of risk means an acknowledgment that any investment in a TSP core fund other than the G Fund is made at the participant's risk, that the participant is not protected by the United States Government or the Board against any loss on the investment, and that neither the United States Government nor the Board guarantees any return on the investment.

Fund reallocation means the total redistribution of a participant's existing account balance among the TSP core funds.

Fund transfer means either:

(i) The transfer of money from one or more TSP core fund(s) to another TSP core fund(s); or

(ii) The transfer of money from the TSP core funds to the mutual fund window (and vice versa).

[68 FR 35495, June 13, 2003, as amended at 70 FR 32207, June 1, 2005; 87 FR 31673, May 24, 2022]

Subpart B Investing Future Deposits

Source: 87 FR 31674, May 24, 2022, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1601.11 Applicability.

This subpart applies only to the investment of future deposits to the TSP core funds, including contributions, loan payments, and rollovers from traditional IRAs and eligible employer plans; it does not apply to fund reallocations or fund transfers within the TSP core funds, which is covered in subpart C of this part, or fund transfers to and from the mutual fund window, which is covered in subpart F of this part.

§ 1601.12 Investing future deposits in the TSP core funds.

(a) Allocation. Future deposits in the TSP, including contributions, loan payments, and rollovers from traditional IRAs and eligible employer plans, will be allocated among the TSP core funds based on the most recent investment election on file for the participant.

(b) TSP core funds availability. All participants may elect to invest all or any portion of their deposits in any of the TSP core funds.

§ 1601.13 Elections.

(a) Investment election. Each participant may indicate his or her choice of TSP core funds for the allocation of future deposits in the form and manner prescribed by the TSP record keeper. Paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of this section apply to investment elections:

(1) Investment elections must be made in one percent increments. The sum of the percentages elected for all of the TSP core funds must equal 100 percent.

(2) The percentage elected by a participant for investment of future deposits in a TSP core fund will be applied to all sources of contributions and rollovers from traditional IRAs and eligible employer plans. A participant may not make different percentage elections for different sources of contributions.

(3) The following default investment rules shall apply to civilian participants:

(i) All deposits made on behalf of a civilian participant enrolled prior to September 5, 2015, who does not have an investment election in effect will be invested in the G Fund. A civilian participant who is enrolled prior to September 5, 2015, and subsequently rehired on or after September 5, 2015, and has a positive account balance will be considered enrolled prior to September 5, 2015 for purposes of this paragraph (a)(3)(i); and

(ii) All deposits made on behalf of a civilian participant first enrolled on or after September 5, 2015, who does not have an investment election in effect will be invested in the age-appropriate TSP Lifecycle Fund.

(iii) A civilian participant enrolled prior to September 5, 2015, who elects for the first time to invest in a TSP core fund other than the G Fund must execute an acknowledgement of risk in accordance with § 1601.33.

(4) The default investment rule in paragraphs (a)(4)(i) through (iv) of this section apply to uniformed services participants:

(i) All deposits made on behalf of a uniformed services participant who first entered service prior to January 1, 2018, has not elected to be covered by BRS, and does not have an investment election in effect will be invested in the G Fund.

(ii) All deposits made on behalf of a uniformed services participant who first entered service on or after January 1, 2018, and who does not have an investment election in effect will be invested in the age-appropriate TSP Lifecycle Fund.

(iii) If a uniformed services participant makes an election to be covered by BRS as described in 5 CFR 1600.14 and does not have an investment election in effect at the time of the election, then all deposits made after the date of such election will be invested in the age-appropriate TSP Lifecycle Fund. Deposits made prior to the date of the election will remain invested in the G Fund.

(iv) A uniformed services participant who first entered service prior to January 1, 2018, and has not made an election to be covered by the BRS who elects for the first time to invest in a TSP core fund other than the G Fund must execute an acknowledgement of risk in accordance with § 1601.33.

(5) Once an investment election becomes effective, it remains in effect until it is superseded by a subsequent investment election or the participant's account balance is reduced to zero. If a rehired participant has a positive account balance and an investment election in effect, then the participant's investment election will remain in effect until a new election is made. If, however, the participant (other than a participant described in paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section) has a zero account balance, then the participant's contributions will be allocated to the age-appropriate TSP Lifecycle Fund until a new investment election is made.

(b) Effect of rejection of investment election. If a participant does not correctly complete an investment election, the attempted investment election will have no effect. The TSP record keeper will provide the participant with a written statement of the reason the transaction was rejected.

(c) Contribution elections. A participant may designate the amount or type of employee contributions he or she wishes to make to the TSP or may stop contributions only in accordance with 5 CFR part 1600.

Subpart C Fund Reallocations and Fund Transfers

Source: 87 FR 31674, May 24, 2022, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1601.21 Applicability.

This subpart applies only to fund reallocations and fund transfers involving the movement of money from TSP core fund to one (or more) TSP core fund(s); it does not apply to the investment of future deposits, which is covered in subpart B of this part, nor does it apply to fund transfers involving the movement of money from the TSP core funds to the mutual fund window (and vice versa), which is covered in subpart F of this part.

§ 1601.22 Methods of requesting a fund reallocation.

(a) Participants may make a fund reallocation in the form and manner prescribed by the TSP record keeper. Paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section apply to a fund reallocation request:

(1) Fund reallocation requests must be made in whole percentages (one percent increments). The sum of the percentages elected for all of the TSP core funds must equal 100 percent.

(2) The percentages elected by the participant will be applied to the balances in each source of contributions and to both traditional and Roth balances and tax-deferred and tax-exempt balances on the effective date of the fund reallocation.

(b) A fund reallocation request has no effect on deposits made after the effective date of the fund reallocation request; subsequent deposits will continue to be allocated among the TSP core funds in accordance with the participant's investment election made under subpart B of this part.

(c) If a fund reallocation is found to be invalid pursuant to § 1601.34, the purported fund reallocation will not be made.

§ 1601.23 Methods of requesting a fund transfer.

(a) Participants may make a fund transfer from one or more TSP core fund to a different TSP core fund(s) in the form and manner prescribed by the TSP record keeper. Paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section apply to a fund transfer request:

(1) Fund transfer requests when selecting the TSP core funds to transfer out of, may be made in whole percentages or in dollars. When selecting the TSP core funds to transfer into, elections must be made in whole percentages (one percent increments). The sum of the percentages elected to transfer into for all of the TSP core funds must equal 100 percent.

(2) The percentages elected by the participant will be applied to the balances in each source of contributions and to both traditional and Roth balances and tax-deferred and tax-exempt balances on the effective date of the fund transfer.

(b) A fund transfer request has no effect on deposits made after the effective date of the fund transfer request; subsequent deposits will continue to be allocated among the TSP core funds in accordance with the participant's investment election made under subpart B of this part.

(c) If a fund transfer is found to be invalid pursuant to § 1601.34, the purported fund transfer will not be made.

Subpart D Investment Elections and Fund Reallocation and Fund Transfer Requests

Source: 87 FR 31675, May 24, 2022, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1601.31 Applicability.

This subpart applies to investment elections made under subpart B of this part, fund reallocations and fund transfers made under subpart C of this part, and fund transfers made under subpart F of this part.

§ 1601.32 Timing and posting dates.

(a) Posting dates. The date on which an investment election or fund reallocation or fund transfer request (transaction request) is processed is subject to a number of factors, including some that are outside of the control of the TSP, such as power outages, the failure of telephone service, unusually heavy transaction volume, and acts of God. These factors also could affect the availability of the TSP website and the ThriftLine. Therefore, the TSP cannot guarantee that a transaction request will be processed on a particular day. However, the TSP will process transaction requests under ordinary circumstances described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section:

(1) A transaction request other than an investment election request entered into the TSP record keeping system by a participant who uses the TSP website or the ThriftLine, before 12 noon eastern time of any business day, will ordinarily be posted that business day. A transaction request other than an investment election request entered into the system at or after 12 noon eastern time of any business day will ordinarily be posted on the next business day. A transaction request that is an investment election request will ordinarily be posted immediately and be effective the next business day.

(2) A transaction request made on the TSP website or the ThriftLine on a non-business day will ordinarily be posted on the next business day.

(3) A transaction request made on a paper TSP form will ordinarily be posted under the rules in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, based on when the TSP record keeper enters the form into the TSP system. The TSP record keeper ordinarily enters such forms into the system within 48 hours of their receipt.

(4) In most cases, the share price(s) applied to a fund reallocation or fund transfer request is the value of the shares on the date the relevant transaction is posted. In some circumstances, such as error correction, the share price(s) for an earlier date will be used.

(b) Limit. There is no limit on the number of investment election requests. A participant may make a total of two unrestricted fund reallocations and/or fund transfers per account (e.g., civilian or uniformed services), per calendar month. A fund reallocation or fund transfer will count toward the monthly total on the date posted by the TSP record keeper and not on the date requested by a participant. After a participant has made a total of two fund reallocations and/or fund transfers in a calendar month, the participant may make additional fund reallocations or fund transfers only into the G Fund until the first day of the next calendar month.

§ 1601.33 Acknowledgment of risk.

(a) Uniformed services participants who first entered service prior to January 1, 2018, and who have not elected to be covered by BRS and civilian participants who enrolled prior to September 5, 2015, must execute an acknowledgement of risk in order to invest in a TSP core fund other than the G Fund. If a required acknowledgment of risk has not been executed, no transactions involving the fund(s) for which the acknowledgment is required will be accepted.

(b) The acknowledgment of risk may be executed in association with an investment election, a fund reallocation, or a fund transfer in the form and manner prescribed by the TSP record keeper.

§ 1601.34 Error correction.

Errors in processing investment elections and fund reallocation or fund transfer requests, or errors that otherwise cause money to be invested in the wrong investment fund, will be corrected in accordance with the error correction regulations found at 5 CFR part 1605.

Subpart E Lifecycle Funds

§ 1601.40 Lifecycle Funds.

The Executive Director will establish TSP Lifecycle Funds, which are target date asset allocation portfolios. The TSP Lifecycle Funds will invest solely in the funds established pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 8438(b)(1)(A)-(E).

[87 FR 31675, May 24, 2022]

Subpart F Mutual Fund Window

Source: 87 FR 27922, May 10, 2022, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1601.51 Applicability.

This subpart applies only to the transfer of amounts between the TSP core funds and the mutual fund window; it does not apply to the investment of future deposits, which is covered in subpart B of this part, or fund reallocations or fund transfers among the TSP core funds, which is covered in subpart C of this part.

§ 1601.52 Fund transfers.

(a) Fund transfers into mutual fund window. A participant may elect to make one or more fund transfers to the mutual fund window from the portion of his or her TSP balance invested in the TSP core funds, subject to the following rules:

(1) The participant must establish a mutual fund window account that is separate from his or her TSP account. A participant with more than one TSP account may establish a separate mutual fund window account for each TSP account, and the limitations and fees described in subpart will apply separately to each account;

(2) If the participant does not have an acknowledgment of risk on file as of the date of his or her initial fund transfer request to the mutual fund window, the participant must complete an acknowledgment of risk for the fund transfer to be processed;

(3) Fund transfers must be made in whole dollar increments (percentages are not permitted);

(4) The following limitations must be satisfied:

(i) A participant's initial fund transfer into his or her mutual fund window account must be at least $10,000 and may not exceed 25 percent of the participant's TSP account balance, as of the date of such transfer; and

(ii) Subsequent fund transfers into a participant's mutual fund window account may not cause the balance in the participant's mutual fund window account to exceed 25 percent of the participant's total TSP balance, as of the date of any such transfer;

(5) Each fund transfer into the mutual fund window counts toward the monthly limit set forth in § 1601.32(b);

(6) Amounts transferred to a participant's mutual fund window account will initially be invested in a sweep money market fund. Subsequently, the participant may direct the investment of the transferred amounts into any mutual fund(s) that are available through the mutual fund window;

(7) Fund transfers are subject to the fees set forth in § 1601.53; and

(8) A participant may not withdraw funds directly from his or her mutual fund window account. To make a withdrawal, the participant must elect a fund transfer back to the TSP core funds as described in paragraph (b) of this section. Upon completion of such fund transfer, the participant may make a withdrawal in accordance with 5 CFR part 1650.

(b) Fund transfers back to TSP core funds. A participant may elect to make a fund transfer to the TSP core funds from amounts invested in his or her mutual fund window account, subject to the following rules:

(1) Fund transfers must be made in whole dollar increments (percentages are not permitted);

(2) Amounts to be transferred from a participant's mutual fund window account to the TSP core funds must first be transferred to the sweep money market fund. Subsequently, the participant may direct the investment of the transferred amounts into the TSP core funds;

(3) Each fund transfer back to the TSP core funds from the mutual fund window account counts toward the monthly limit set forth in § 1601.32(b); except, however, that a participant may always elect a fund transfer from the mutual fund window account to the G Fund; and

(4) Fund transfers are subject to the fees set forth in § 1601.53.

(c) Forced transfers. The TSP record keeper will force a transfer from the participant's mutual fund window account to the TSP core funds in the following situations, and subject to the following rules:

(1) A forced transfer may occur if the balance invested in the TSP core funds is insufficient to cover:

(i) Amounts necessary to comply with a court order, legal process, or levy described in 5 CFR part 1653;

(ii) A beneficiary asset transfer;

(iii) A required minimum distribution;

(iv) An automatic cash out distribution; or

(v) Any other payment or transfer that the Board is required by law to make from the participant's TSP account balance;

(2) The amount of the forced transfer shall be equal to the amount of the insufficiency described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, plus $1,000; except, however, that if the participant's mutual fund window account balance is less than $25,000, the entire mutual fund window account balance shall be transferred to the TSP core funds;

(3) Forced transfers shall be liquidated from the participant's mutual fund window account first from amounts held in the sweep money market fund; and then from amounts invested in mutual funds, beginning with the position with the highest balance;

(4) Forced transfers from a participant's mutual fund window account to the TSP core funds shall be invested according to the participant's existing contribution allocation; and

(5) The participant shall be responsible for any fees incurred as a result of the forced transfer.

§ 1601.53 Fees.

(a) The Board will allocate a portion of the TSP's administrative expenses to mutual fund users by charging an administrative fee of $55.00 annually. The amount of this fee will be redetermined once every three years by multiplying the average mutual fund window account balance by the TSP administrative expense ratio, as of the date of redetermination.

(b) The fee described in paragraph (a) of this section is in addition to any mutual fund window account maintenance fees, trading fees, and fees and expenses associated with the specific mutual fund(s) in which the participant chooses to invest.

PART 1603 VESTING

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 8432(g), 8432b(h)(1), 8474(b)(5) and (c)(1).

Source: 52 FR 29835, Aug. 12, 1987, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1603.1 Definitions.

(a) Definitions generally applicable to the Thrift Savings Plan are set forth at 5 CFR 1690.1.

(b) As used in this part:

Civilian service means:

(1) Any non-military service that is creditable under either 5 U.S.C. chapter 83, subchapter III, or 5 U.S.C. 8411. However, that service is to be determined without regard to any time limitations, any deposit or redeposit requirements contained in those statutory provisions after performing the service involved, or any requirement that the individual give written notice of that individual's desire to become subject to the retirement system established by 5 U.S.C. chapters 83 or 84; or

(2) Any military service creditable under the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 8432b(h)(1) and the regulations at 5 CFR part 1620, subpart H.

Uniformed services means the Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, Coast Guard, Public Health Service, and National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, as well as members of the Ready Reserve including the National Guard.

Military service means service that is creditable under 37 U.S.C. 205.

Vested means those amounts in an individual account which are nonforfeitable.

Year of service means one full calendar year of service.

[68 FR 35497, June 13, 2003, as amended at 82 FR 60104, Dec. 19, 2017]

§ 1603.2 Basic vesting rules.

(a) All amounts in a CSRS employee's individual account are immediately vested.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, all amounts in a FERS employee's or uniformed service member's individual account (including all first conversion contributions) are immediately vested.

(c) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, upon separation from Government service without meeting the applicable service requirements of § 1603.3, a FERS employee's or a BRS uniformed service member's Agency Automatic (1%) Contributions and attributable earnings will be forfeited.

(d) If a FERS employee or uniformed service member dies (or died) after January 7, 1988, without meeting the applicable service requirements set forth in § 1603.3, the Agency Automatic (1%) Contributions and attributable earnings in his or her individual account are deemed vested and shall not be forfeited. If a FERS employee died on or before January 7, 1988, without meeting those service requirements, his or her Agency Automatic (1%) Contributions and attributable earnings are forfeited to the Thrift Savings Plan.

[82 FR 60104, Dec. 19, 2017]

§ 1603.3 Service requirements.

(a) Except as provided under paragraph (b) of this section, FERS employees will be vested in their Agency Automatic (1%) Contributions and attributable earnings upon separating from Government only if, as of their separation date, they have completed three years of civilian service.

(b) FERS employees will be vested in their Agency Automatic (1%) Contributions and attributable earnings upon separating from Government service if, as of their separation date, they have completed two years of civilian service and they are serving in one of the following positions:

(1) A position in the Senior Executive Service as a non-career appointee (as defined in 5 U.S.C. 3132(a)(7));

(2) Positions listed in 5 U.S.C. 5312, 5313, 5314, 5315 or 5316;

(3) A position placed in level IV or level V of the Executive Schedule, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 5317;

(4) A position in the Executive Branch which is excepted from the competitive service by the Office of Personnel Management because of the confidential and policy-determining character of the position; or

(5) A Member of Congress or a Congressional employee.

(c) Uniformed service members who are covered by BRS will be vested in their Agency Automatic (1%) Contributions and attributable earnings upon separation from the uniformed services only if, as of their separation date, they have completed two years of military service.

[52 FR 29835, Aug. 12, 1987, as amended at 60 FR 24535, May 9, 1995; 62 FR 33969, June 23, 1997; 82 FR 60104, Dec. 19, 2017]

1604 PART 1604 [RESERVED]

PART 1605 CORRECTION OF ADMINISTRATIVE ERRORS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 8351, 8432a, 8432d, 8474(b)(5) and (c)(1). Subpart B also issued under section 1043(b) of Public Law 104-106, 110 Stat. 186 and § 7202(m)(2) of Public Law 101-508, 104 Stat. 1388.

Source: 66 FR 44277, Aug. 22, 2001, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General

§ 1605.1 Definitions.

(a) Definitions generally applicable to the Thrift Savings Plan are set forth at 5 CFR 1690.1.

(b) As used in this part:

“As of” date means the date on which a TSP contribution or other transaction entailing acquisition of investment fund shares should have taken place. Employing agencies use this date on payment records to report makeup or late contributions or late loan payments.

Attributable pay date means:

(i) The pay date of a contribution that is being redesignated from traditional to Roth, or vice versa;

(ii) In the case of the uniformed services, the pay date of a contribution that is being recharacterized from tax-deferred to tax-exempt, or vice versa; or

(iii) The pay date of an erroneous contribution for which a negative adjustment is being made. However, if the erroneous contribution for which a negative adjustment is being made was a makeup or late contribution, the attributable pay date is the “as of” date of the erroneous makeup or late contribution.

Breakage means the loss incurred or the gain realized on makeup or late contributions.

BRS participant means any member of the Uniformed Services described in 5 U.S.C. 8440e(e)(1).

Earnings means both positive and negative fund performance attributable to differences in TSP core fund share prices.

Error means any act or omission by the Board, the TSP record keeper, or the participant's employing agency that is not in accordance with applicable statutes, regulations, or administrative procedures that are made available to employing agencies and/or TSP participants. It does not mean an act or omission caused by events that are beyond the control of the Board, the TSP record keeper, or the participant's employing agency.

FERCCA correction means the correction of a retirement coverage error pursuant to the Federal Erroneous Retirement Coverage Corrections Act, title II, Public Law 106-265, 114 Stat. 770.

Late contributions means:

(i) Employee contributions that were timely deducted from a participant's basic pay but were not timely reported to the TSP record keeper for investment;

(ii) Employee contributions that were timely reported to the TSP record keeper but were not timely posted to the participant's account by the TSP record keeper because the payment record on which they were submitted contained errors;

(iii) Agency matching contributions attributable to employee contributions referred to in paragraph (i) or (ii) of this definition; and

(iv) Delayed agency automatic (1%) contributions.

Makeup contributions are employee contributions that should have been deducted from a participant's basic pay or employer contributions that should have been charged to an employing agency on an earlier date, but were not deducted or charged and, consequently, are being deducted or charged currently.

Negative adjustment means the removal of money from a participant's TSP account by an employing agency.

Negative adjustment record means a data record submitted by an employing agency to remove from a participant's TSP account money that the agency had previously submitted in error.

Non-BRS participant means any member of the Uniformed Services not described in 5 U.S.C. 8440e(e)(1).

Pay date means the date established by an employing agency for paying its employees or service members.

Payment record means a data record submitted by an employing agency to report contributions or loan payments to a participant's TSP account.

Recharacterization means the process of changing a contribution that the employing agency erroneously submitted as a tax-deferred contribution to a tax-exempt contribution (or vice versa). Recharacterization is a method of error correction only. It applies only to the traditional balance of a uniformed services account.

Recharacterization record means a data record submitted by an employing agency to recharacterize a tax-deferred contribution that the employing agency erroneously submitted as a tax-exempt contribution (or vice versa).

Redesignation means the process of moving a contribution (and its associated positive earnings) from a participant's traditional balance to the participant's Roth balance or vice versa in order to correct an employing agency error that caused the contribution to be submitted to the wrong balance. Redesignation is a method of error correction only. A participant cannot request the redesignation of contributions unless the employing agency made an error in the submission of the contributions.

Redesignation record means a data record submitted by an employing agency to redesignate a contribution that the employing agency erroneously submitted to the wrong balance (traditional or Roth).

[68 FR 35497, June 13, 2003, as amended at 70 FR 32209, June 1, 2005; 77 FR 26425, May 4, 2012; 82 FR 60104, Dec. 19, 2017; 87 FR 31676, May 24, 2022]

§ 1605.2 Calculating, posting, and charging breakage on late contributions and loan payments.

(a) General criteria. The TSP will calculate breakage on late contributions, makeup agency contributions, and loan payments as described by § 1605.15(b). This breakage calculation is subject to the criteria in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section:

(1) The TSP record keeper will not calculate breakage if contributions or loan payments are posted within 30 days of the “as of” date; and

(2) The TSP record keeper will not take the participant's fund reallocations and fund transfers into account when determining breakage.

(b) Calculating breakage. The TSP record keeper will calculate breakage for all contributions or loan payment corrections as follows:

(1) Use the participant's investment election on file for the “as of” date to determine how the funds would have been invested, going back to the earliest daily share prices available. If there is no investment election on file, or one cannot be derived based on the investment of contributions, the TSP record keeper will consider the funds to have been invested in the default investment fund in effect for the participant on the “as of” date;

(2) Determine the number of shares of the applicable investment funds the participant would have received had the contributions or loan payments been made on time. If the “as of” date is before TSP account balances were converted to shares, this determination will be the number of shares the participant would have received on the conversion date, and will include the daily earnings the participant would have received had the contributions or loan payments been made on the “as of” date;

(3) Determine the dollar value on the posting date of the number of shares the participant would have received had the contributions or loan payments been made on time. If the contribution or loan payments would have been invested in a Lifecycle Fund that retired prior to June 1, 2022, then the share price of the L Income Fund will be used; but if the Lifecycle Fund retired on or after June 1, 2022, then a constructed share price for the retired Lifecycle Fund will be used. The constructed share price shall equal the final posted share price of the Lifecycle Fund on the business day the fund is retired, multiplied by the current L Income Fund share price at the time the correction is made, divided by the final posted share price of the L Income Fund on the business day the fund is retired. The dollar value shall be the number of shares the participant would have received had the contributions or loan payments been made on time multiplied either by the share price of the L Income Fund or the constructed share price, as determined by the posting date; and

(4) The difference between the dollar value of the contribution or loan payment on the posting date and the dollar value of the contribution or loan payment on the “as of” date is the breakage.

(c) Posting contributions and loan payments. Makeup and late contributions, late loan payments, and breakage, will be posted to the participant's account according to his or her investment election on file for the posting date. If there is no investment election on file for the posting date, they will be posted to the default investment fund in effect for the participant.

(d) Charging breakage. If the dollar amount posted to the participant's account is greater than the dollar amount of the makeup or late contribution or late loan payment, the TSP record keeper will charge the agency the additional amount. If the dollar amount posted to the participant's account is less than the dollar amount of the makeup or late contribution, or late loan payment, the difference between the amount of the contribution and the amount posted will be forfeited to the TSP.

(e) Posting of multiple contributions. If the TSP record keeper posts multiple makeup or late contributions or late loan payments with different “as of” dates for a participant on the same business day, the amount of breakage charged to the employing agency or forfeited to the TSP will be determined separately for each transaction, without netting any gains or losses attributable to different “as of” dates. In addition, gains and losses from different sources of contributions or different TSP core funds will not be netted against each other. Instead, breakage will be determined separately for each as-of date, TSP core fund, and source of contributions.

[87 FR 31676, May 24, 2022, as amended at 90 FR 15923, Apr. 16, 2025; 90 FR 26424, June 23, 2025]

§ 1605.3 Calculating, posting, and charging breakage on errors involving investment in the wrong fund.

(a) The TSP record keeper will calculate and post breakage on date of birth errors that result in default investment in the wrong L Fund, investment election errors, and fund reallocation and fund transfer errors.

(b) The TSP record keeper will charge the employing agency for positive breakage on incorrect dates of birth caused by employing agency error that result in default investment in the wrong L Fund. A date of birth change received from an employing agency will not trigger corrective action other than to update the date of birth. To initiate a breakage calculation for an employee, the employing agency must notify the TSP record keeper that the participant is entitled to breakage.

(c) If a uniformed services participant's retirement system is misclassified and the error results in default investment in the wrong fund, when the error is corrected pursuant to § 1605.14(f)-(g), the TSP record keeper will charge the employing agency for any positive breakage that results from the incorrect default investment. The retirement misclassification correction received from an employing agency will not trigger corrective action other than to update the participant's retirement system coverage. To initiate a breakage calculation for the uniformed service member, the employing agency must notify the TSP record keeper that the participant is entitled to breakage.

[80 FR 57069, Sept. 22, 2015, as amended at 82 FR 60104, Dec. 19, 2017; 87 FR 31676, May 24, 2022]

Subpart B Employing Agency Errors

§ 1605.11 Makeup of missed or insufficient contributions.

(a) Applicability. This section applies whenever, as the result of an employing agency error, a participant does not receive all of the TSP contributions to which he or she is entitled. This includes situations in which an employing agency error prevents a participant from making an election to contribute to his or her TSP account, in which an employing agency fails to implement a contribution election properly submitted by a participant, in which an employing agency fails to make agency automatic (1%) contributions or agency matching contributions that it is required to make, or in which an employing agency otherwise erroneously contributes less to the TSP for a participant's account than it should have. The corrections required by this section must be made in accordance with this part and the procedures provided to employing agencies by the Board and/or the TSP record keeper in bulletins or other guidance. It is the responsibility of the employing agency to determine whether it has made an error that entitles a participant to error correction under this section.

(b) Employer makeup contributions. If an employing agency has failed to make agency automatic contributions that are required under 5 U.S.C. 8432(c)(1)(A) and 5 U.S.C. 8440e(e)(3)(A), or agency matching contributions that are required under section 8432(c)(2) and 5 U.S.C. 8440e(e)(3)(B), the following rules apply:

(1) The employing agency must promptly submit all missed contributions to the TSP record keeper on behalf of the affected participant. For each pay date involved, the employing agency must submit a separate payment record showing the “as of” date for the contributions.

(2) The TSP record keeper will calculate the breakage due to the participant and post both the contributions and the associated breakage to the participant's account in accordance with § 1605.2.

(c) Employee makeup contributions. Within 30 days of receiving information from his or her employing agency indicating that the employing agency acknowledges that an error has occurred which has caused a smaller amount of employee contributions to be made to the participant's account than should have been made, a participant may elect to establish a schedule to make up the deficient contributions through future payroll deductions. Employee makeup contributions can be made in addition to any TSP contributions that the participant is otherwise entitled to make. The following rules apply to employee makeup contributions:

(1) The schedule of makeup contributions elected by the participant must establish the dollar amount of the contributions and the type of employee contributions (traditional or Roth) to be made each pay period over the duration of the schedule. The contribution amount per pay period may vary during the course of the schedule, but the total amount to be contributed must be established when the schedule is created. After the schedule is created, a participant may, with the agreement of his or heremploying agency, elect to change his or her payment amount (e.g., to accelerate payment) or elect to change the type of employee contributions (traditional or Roth). The length of the schedule may not exceed four times the number of pay periods over which the error occurred.

(2) At its discretion, an employing agency may set a ceiling on the length of a schedule of employee makeup contributions which is less than four times the number of pay periods over which the error occurred. The ceiling may not, however, be less than twice the number of pay periods over which the error occurred.

(3) The employing agency must implement the participant's schedule of makeup contributions as soon as practicable.

(4) For each pay date involved, the employing agency must submit a separate payment record showing the “as of” date for which the employee contribution should have been made.

(5) Employee makeup contributions will be invested in accordance with the participant's currentinvestment election. The number of shares of each TSP core fund which will be purchased will be determined by dividing the amount of the makeup contributions by the share price of the applicable fund(s) on the posting date.

(6) Employee makeup contributions will be included for purposes of applying the annual limit contained in Internal Revenue Code (I.R.C.) section 402(g) (26 U.S.C. 402(g)(1)). For purposes of applying that limit, employee makeup contributions will be applied against the limit for the year of the “as of” date.

(i) Before establishing a schedule of employee makeup contributions, the employing agency must review any schedule proposed by the affected participant, as well as the participant's prior TSP contributions, if any, to determine whether the makeup contributions, when combined with prior contributions for the same year, would exceed the annual contribution limit(s) contained in I.R.C. section 402(g) for the year(s) with respect to which the contributions are being made.

(ii) The employing agency must not permit contributions that, when combined with prior contributions, would exceed the applicable annual contribution limit contained in I.R.C. section 402(g).

(7) A schedule of employee makeup contributions may be suspended if a participant has insufficient net pay to permit the makeup contributions. If this happens, the period of suspension should not be counted against the maximum number of pay periods to which the participant is entitled in order to complete the schedule of makeup contributions.

(8) A participant may elect to terminate a schedule of employee makeup contributions at any time, but a termination is irrevocable. If a participant separates from Government service, the participant may elect to accelerate the payment schedule by a lump sum contribution from his or her final paycheck.

(9) At the same time that a participant makes up missed employee contributions, the employing agency must make any agency matching contributions that would have been made had the error not occurred. Agency matching contributions must be submitted pursuant to the rules set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. A participant may not receive agency matching contributions associated with any employee contributions that are not actually made up. If employee makeup contributions are suspended in accordance with paragraph (c)(7) of this section, the payment of agency matching contributions must also be suspended.

(10) If a participant transfers to an employing agency different from the one by which the participant was employed at the time of the missed contributions, it remains the responsibility of the former employing agency to determine whether employing agency error was responsible for the missed contributions. If it is determined that such an error has occurred, the current agency must take any necessary steps to correct the error. The current agency may seek reimbursement from the former agency of any amount that would have been paid by the former agency had the error not occurred.

(11) Employee makeup contributions may be made only by payroll deduction from basic pay or, for uniformed services participants, from basic pay, incentive pay, or special pay, including bonus pay. Contributions by check, money order, cash, or other form of payment directly from the participant to the TSP, or from the participant to the employing agency for deposit to the TSP, are not permitted.

(12) A participant is not eligible to contribute makeup contributions with an “as of” date occurring prior to May 5, 2012 to his or her Roth balance.

(13) If the “as of” date of a Roth contribution that is submitted as a makeup contribution is earlier than the participant's existing Roth begin date, the TSP record keeper will adjust the participant's Roth begin date.

(d) Missed bonus contributions. This paragraph (d) applies when an employing agency fails to implement a contribution election that was properly submitted by a uniformed service member requesting that a TSP contribution be deducted from bonus pay. Within 30 days of receiving the employing agency's acknowledgment of the error, a uniformed service member may establish a schedule of makeup contributions with his or her employing agency to replace the missed contribution through future payroll deductions. These makeup contributions can be made in addition to any TSP contributions that the uniformed service member is otherwise entitled to make.

(1) The schedule of makeup contributions may not exceed four times the number of months it would take for the uniformed service member to earn basic pay equal to the dollar amount of the missed contribution. For example, a uniformed service member who earns $29,000 yearly in basic pay and who missed a $2,500 bonus contribution to the TSP can establish a schedule of makeup contributions with a maximum duration of 8 months. This is because it takes the uniformed service member 2 months to earn $2,500 in basic pay (at $2,416.67 per month).

(2) At its discretion, an employing agency may set a ceiling on the length of a schedule of employee makeup contributions. The ceiling may not, however, be less than twice the number of months it would take for the uniformed service member to earn basic pay equal to the dollar amount of the missed contribution.

[68 FR 35498, June 13, 2003, as amended at 70 FR 32210, June 1, 2005; 77 FR 26425, May 4, 2012; 82 FR 60104, Dec. 19, 2017; 87 FR 31676, May 24, 2022; 91 FR 1672, Jan. 15, 2026]

§ 1605.12 Removal of erroneous contributions.

(a) Applicability. This section applies to the removal of funds erroneously contributed to the TSP. This action is called a negative adjustment, and agencies may only request negative adjustments of erroneous contributions made on or after January 1, 2000. Excess contributions addressed by this section include, for example, excess employee contributions that result from employing agency error and excess employer contributions. This section does not address excess contributions resulting from a FERCCA correction; those contributions are addressed in § 1605.14.

(b) Method of correction. Negative adjustment records must be submitted by employing agencies in accordance with this part and any other procedures provided by the Board and/or the TSP record keeper.

(1) To remove money from a participant's account, the employing agency must submit, for each attributable pay date involved, a negative adjustment record stating the attributable pay date and the amount, by source, of the erroneous contribution.

(2) A negative adjustment record may be for any part of the contributions made for the attributable pay date. However, for each source of contributions, the negative adjustment may not exceed the amount of the contributions made for that date, minus any prior negative adjustments for the same date.

(c) Processing negative adjustments. To determine current value, a negative adjustment will be allocated among the TSP core funds as it would have been allocated on the attributable pay period (as reported by the employing agency). The TSP record keeper will, for each source of contributions and TSP core fund:

(1) If the attributable pay date for the erroneous contribution is on or before the date TSP accounts were converted to shares (and on or after January 1, 2000), the TSP record keeper will, for each source of contributions and investment fund:

(i) Determine the dollar value of the amount to be removed by using the daily returns for the applicable TSP core fund;

(ii) Determine the number of shares that the dollar value determined in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section would have purchased on the conversion date; and

(iii) Multiply the price per share for the date the adjustment is posted by the number of shares calculated in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.

(2) If the attributable pay date of the negative adjustment is after the date TSP accounts were converted to shares, the TSP record keeper will, for each source of contributions and TSP core fund:

(i) Determine the number of shares that represent the amount of the contribution to be removed using the share price on the attributable pay date; and

(ii) Multiply the price per share on the date the adjustment is posted by the number of shares calculated in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section. If the contribution was erroneously contributed to a Lifecycle Fund that is retired on the date the adjustment is posted and the Lifecycle Fund retired prior to June 1, 2022, then the share price of the L Income Fund will be used; or if the Lifecycle Fund retired on or after June 1, 2022, then a constructed share price for the retired Lifecycle Fund will be used. The constructed share price shall equal the final posted share price of the retired Lifecycle Fund on the business day the fund is retired, multiplied by the current L Income Fund share price at the time the correction is made, divided by the final posted share price of the L Income Fund on the business day the fund is retired.

(d) Employee contributions. The following rules apply to negative adjustments involving employee contributions:

(1) If, on the posting date, the amount calculated under paragraph (c) of this section is equal to or greater than the amount of the proposed negative adjustment, the full amount of the adjustment will be removed from the participant's account and returned to the employing agency. Earnings on the erroneous contribution will remain in the participant's account. However, positive earnings on an erroneous contribution to the participant's Roth balance will be moved to the participant's traditional balance;

(2) If, on the posting date, the amount calculated under paragraph (c) of this section is less than the amount of the proposed negative adjustment, the amount of the adjustment, reduced by the investment loss, will be removed from the participant's account and returned to the employing agency. However, the employing agency must refund to the participant the full amount of the erroneous contribution;

(3) If an employing agency requests the removal of erroneous employee contributions from a participant's account, it must also request the removal, under paragraph (e) of this section, of any attributable agency matching contributions; and

(4) If all employee contributions are removed from a participant's account under the rules set forth in this section, the earnings attributable to those contributions will remain in the account until the participant removes them with a TSP withdrawal. If the participant is not eligible to maintain a TSP account, the employing agency must submit an employee data record to the TSP record keeper indicating that the participant has separated from Government service (this will allow the TSP-ineligible participant to make a post-employment distribution election).

(e) Employer contributions. The following rules apply to negative adjustments involving erroneous employer contributions:

(1) The amount calculated under paragraph (c) of this section will be removed from the participant's account.

(2) Erroneous employer contributions will be returned to the employing agency only if the negative adjustment record is posted by the TSP record keeper within one year of the date the erroneous contribution was posted. If one year or more has elapsed when the negative adjustment record is posted, the amount computed under paragraph (c) of this section will be removed from the participant's account and used to offset TSP administrative expenses;

(3) If the erroneous contribution has been in the participant's account for less than one year when the negative adjustment record is posted and the amount computed under paragraph (c) of this section is equal to or greater than the amount of the adjustment, the employing agency will receive the full amount of the erroneous contribution. Any earnings attributable to the erroneous contribution will be removed from the participant's account and used to offset TSP administrative expenses;

(4) If the erroneous contribution has been in the participant's account for less than one year when the negative adjustment record is posted, and the amount computed under paragraph (c) of this section is less than the amount of the adjustment, the employing agency will receive the amount of the erroneous contribution reduced by the investment loss; and

(5) An employing agency's obligation to submit negative adjustment records to remove erroneous contributions from a participant's account is not affected by the length of time the contributions have been in the account.

(f)Multiple negative adjustments. (1) If multiple negative adjustments for the same attributable pay date for a participant are posted on the same business day, the amount removed from the participant's account and used to offset TSP administrative expenses, or returned to the employing agency, will be determined separately for each adjustment. Earnings and losses for erroneous contributions made on different dates will not be netted against each other. In addition, for a negative adjustment for any attributable pay date, gains and losses from different sources of contributions or different TSP core funds will not be netted against each other. Instead, for each attributable pay date each source of contributions and each TSP core fund will be treated separately for purposes of these calculations. The amount computed by applying the rules in this section will be removed from the participant's account pro rata from all funds, by source, based on the allocation of the participant's account among the TSP core funds when the transaction is posted; and

(2) If there is insufficient money in the same source of contributions to cover the amount to be removed or the amount of the requested adjustment, the negative adjustment record will be rejected.

[70 FR 32210, June 1, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 74608, Dec. 1, 2010; 77 FR 26425, May 4, 2012; 85 FR 40570, July 7, 2020; 87 FR 31677, May 24, 2022; 90 FR 26424, June 23, 2025]

§ 1605.13 Back pay awards and other retroactive pay adjustments.

(a) Participant not employed. The following rules apply to participants who receive a back pay award or other retroactive pay adjustment for a period during which the participant was separated from Government service or was not appointed to a position that is covered by FERS, CSRS, or an equivalent system under which TSP participation is authorized:

(1) If the participant is reinstated or retroactively appointed to a position that is covered by FERS, CSRS, or an equivalent system under which TSP participation is authorized, immediately upon reinstatement or retroactive appointment the employing agency must give the participant the opportunity to submit a contribution election to make current contributions. The contribution election will be effective as soon as administratively feasible, but no later than the first day of the first full pay period after it is received.

(2) The employing agency must give a reinstated or retroactively appointed participant the following options for electing makeup contributions:

(i) The reinstated or retroactively appointed participant may submit a new contribution election for purposes of makeup contributions if he or she would have been eligible to make such an election but for the erroneous separation or erroneous failure to appoint; or

(ii) If a reinstated participant had a contribution election on file when he or she separated, the contribution election the participant had on file when he or she separated may be reinstated for purposes of makeup contributions.

(3) All contributions made under this paragraph (a) and associated breakage will be invested according to the participant's investment election on the posting date. Breakage will be calculated using the share prices for the default investment fund in effect for the participant in accordance with § 1605.2 unless otherwise required by the employing agency or the court or other tribunal with jurisdiction over the back pay case.

(b) Participant employed. The following rules apply to participants who receive a back pay award or other retroactive pay adjustment for a period during which the participant was employed in a position that is covered by FERS, CSRS, or an equivalent system under which TSP participation is authorized:

(1) The participant will be entitled to make up contributions for the period covered by the back pay award or retroactive pay adjustment only if for that period—

(i) The participant had designated a percentage of basic pay to be contributed to the TSP; or

(ii) The participant had designated a dollar amount of contributions each pay period which equaled the applicable ceiling (FERS or CSRS) on contributions per pay period, and which, therefore, was limited as a result of the reduction in pay that is made up by the back pay award or other retroactive pay adjustment;

(2) The employing agency must compute the amount of additional employee contributions, agency matching contributions, and agency automatic (1%) contributions that would have been contributed to the participant's account had the reduction in pay leading to the back pay award or other retroactive pay adjustment not occurred; and

(3) All contributions under this paragraph (b) and associated breakage will be posted to the participant's account based on the participant's investment election on the posting date. Breakage will be calculated in accordance with § 1605.2.

(c) Contributions to be deducted before payment or other retroactive pay adjustment. Employee makeup contributions required under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section:

(1) Must be computed before the back pay award or other retroactive pay adjustment is paid, deducted from the back pay or other retroactive pay adjustment, and submitted to the TSP record keeper;

(2) Must not cause the participant to exceed the annual contribution limit(s) contained in sections 402(g), 415(c), or 414(v) of the I.R.C. (26 U.S.C. 402(g), 415(c), 414(v)) for the year(s) with respect to which the contributions are being made, taking into consideration the TSP contributions already made in (or with respect to) that year; and

(3) Must be accompanied by attributable agency matching contributions. In any event, regardless of whether a participant elects to make up employee contributions, the employing agency must make all appropriate agency automatic (1%) contributions associated with the back pay award or other retroactive pay adjustment.

(d) Prior withdrawal of TSP account. If a participant has received a post-employment distribution in any form other than an annuity, and the separation from Government service upon which the post-employment distribution was based is reversed, resulting in reinstatement of the participant without a break in service, the participant will have the option to restore the amount distributed to his or her TSP account. The right to restore the distributed funds will expire if the participant does not notify the TSP record keeper within 90 days of reinstatement. If the participant returns the funds that were distributed, the number of shares purchased will be determined by using the share price of the applicable investment fund on the posting date. Restored funds will not incur breakage.

(e) Reinstating a loan. Participants who are covered by paragraph (d) of this section and who elect to return funds that were distributed may also elect to reinstate a loan which was previously declared to be a loan foreclosure.

[66 FR 44277, Aug. 22, 2001, as amended at 68 FR 35500, June 13, 2003; 68 FR 74451, Dec. 23, 2003; 70 FR 32211, June 1, 2005; 76 FR 78094, Dec. 16, 2011; 80 FR 57069, Sept. 22, 2015; 85 FR 72914, Nov. 16, 2020; 87 FR 31677, May 24, 2022]

§ 1605.14 Misclassified retirement system coverage.

(a) If a CSRS participant is misclassified by an employing agency as a FERS participant, when the misclassification is corrected:

(1) Employee contributions that exceed the applicable contribution percentage for the pay period(s) involved may remain in the participant's account. The participant may request the return of excess employee contributions made on or after January 1, 2000; those contributed before January 1, 2000, must remain in the participant's account. If the participant requests a refund of employee contributions, the employing agency must submit a negative adjustment record to remove these funds under the procedure described in § 1605.12.

(2) All agency contributions that were made to a CSRS participant's account will be forfeited. An employing agency may submit a negative adjustment record to request the return of an erroneous contribution that has been in the participant's account for less than one year.

(b) If a FERS participant is misclassified by an employing agency as a CSRS participant, when the misclassification is corrected:

(1) The participant may not elect to have the contributions made while classified as CSRS removed from his or her account;

(2) The participant may, under the rules of § 1605.11, elect to make up contributions that he or she would have been eligible to make as a FERS participant during the period of misclassification;

(3) The employing agency must, under the rules of § 1605.11, make agency automatic (1%) contributions and agency matching contributions on employee contributions that were made while the participant was misclassified;

(4) If the retirement coverage correction is a FERCCA correction, the employing agency must submit makeup employee contributions on late payment records. The participant is entitled to breakage on contributions from all sources. Breakage will be calculated pursuant to § 1605.2. If the retirement coverage correction is not a FERCCA correction, the employing agency must submit makeup employee contributions on current payment records; in such cases, the employee is not entitled to breakage. Agency makeup contributions may be submitted on either current or late payment records; and

(5) If employee contributions were made up before the Office of Personnel Management implemented its regulations on FERCCA correction, and the correction is considered to be a FERCCA correction, an amount to replicate TSP lost earnings will be calculated by the Office of Personnel Management pursuant to its regulations and provided to the employing agency for transmission to the TSP record keeper.

(c) If a participant was misclassified as either FERS or CSRS and the retirement coverage is corrected to FICA only, the participant is no longer eligible to participate in the TSP.

(1) Employee contributions in the account are subject to the rules in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.

(2) Employer contributions in the account are subject to the rules in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.

(3) The TSP record keeper will consider a participant to be separated from Government service for all TSP purposes and the employing agency must submit an employee data record to reflect separation from Government service. If the participant has an outstanding loan, it will be subject to the provisions of part 1655 of this chapter. The participant may make a TSP post-employment distribution election pursuant to 5 CFR part 1650, subpart B, and the distribution will be subject to the provisions of 5 CFR 1650.60(b).

(d) If a FERS or CSRS participant is misclassified by an employing agency as FICA only, when the misclassification is corrected the participant may, pursuant to § 1605.11 of this part, elect to make up contributions that he or she would have been eligible to make as a FERS or CSRS participant during the period of misclassification. If the participant makes up employee contributions, the rules in paragraph (b)(5) of this section apply. If the participant is corrected to FERS, the rules in paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(4) of this section also apply.

(e) The provisions of paragraph (c) of this section shall apply to any TSP contributions relating to a period for which an employee elects retroactive Nonappropriated Fund retirement coverage.

(f) If a BRS participant is misclassified by an employing agency as a non-BRS participant, when the misclassification is corrected:

(1) The participant may not elect to have the contributions made while classified as non-BRS removed from his or her account;

(2) The participant may, under the rules of § 1605.11, elect to make up contributions that he or she would have been eligible to make as a BRS participant during the period of misclassification;

(3) The employing agency must, under the rules of § 1605.11, make agency automatic (1%) contributions and agency matching contributions on employee contributions that were made while the participant was misclassified; and

(4) The employing agency must submit makeup employee contributions on current payment records and service makeup contributions may be submitted on either current or late payment records.

(g) If a non-BRS participant is misclassified by an employing agency as a BRS participant, when the misclassification is corrected:

(1) Employee contributions may remain in the participant's account. If the participant requests a refund of employee contributions, the employing agency must submit a negative adjustment record to remove these funds under the procedure described in § 1605.12.

(2) All agency contributions that were made to a non-BRS participant's account will be forfeited. An employing service may submit a negative adjustment record to request the return of an erroneous contribution that has been in the participant's account for less than one year.

[66 FR 44277, Aug. 22, 2001, as amended at 68 FR 35500, June 13, 2003; 68 FR 74451, Dec. 23, 2003; 70 FR 32212, June 1, 2005; 72 FR 53414, Sept. 19, 2007; 77 FR 26426, May 4, 2012; 82 FR 60104, Dec. 19, 2017; 87 FR 31677, May 24, 2022]

§ 1605.15 Reporting and processing late contributions and late loan payments.

(a) The employing agency must promptly submit late contributions to the TSP record keeper on behalf of the affected participant on late payment records as soon as the error is discovered. For each pay date involved, the employing agency must submit a separate record showing the “as of” date for the contributions. Breakage for both employee and agency contributions will be calculated, posted, and charged to the agency or forfeited to the TSP in accordance with § 1605.2.

(b) If an employing agency deducts loan payments from a participant's pay, but fails to submit those payments to the TSP record keeper for the pay date for which they were deducted (or submits them in a manner that prevents them from being timely credited to the participant's account), the employing agency will be responsible for paying breakage using the procedure described in § 1605.2. The loan payment record must contain the “as of” date for which the loan payment was deducted.

(c) All contributions or loan payments on payment records contained in a payroll submission that was received from an employing agency more than 30 days after the pay date associated with the payroll submission (as reported on the appropriate journal voucher), will be subject to breakage calculated, posted, and charged to the employing agency (or forfeited to the TSP) in accordance with § 1605.2. The employing agency will be apprised of the breakage due for each record reported on the late submission.

(d) If the “as of” date of a late Roth contribution is earlier than the participant's existing Roth begin date, the TSP record keeper will adjust the participant's Roth begin date.

[68 FR 35501, June 13, 2003, as amended at 77 FR 26426, May 4, 2012; 87 FR 31678, May 24, 2022; 91 FR 1672, Jan. 15, 2026]

§ 1605.16 Claims for correction of employing agency errors; time limitations.

(a) Agency's discovery of error.

(1) Upon discovery of an error made within the past six months involving the correct or timely remittance of payments to the TSP record keeper (other than a retirement system misclassification error, as covered in paragraph (c) of this section), an employing agency must promptly correct the error on its own initiative. If the error was made more than six months before it was discovered, the agency may exercise sound discretion in deciding whether to correct it, but, in any event, the agency must act promptly in doing so.

(2) For errors involving incorrect dates of birth caused by employing agency error that result in default investment in the wrong L Fund, the employing agency must promptly notify the TSP record keeper that the participant is entitled to breakage if the error is discovered within 30 days of either the date the TSP record keeper provides the participant with a notice reflecting the error or the date the TSP or its record keeper makes available on its website a participant statement reflecting the error, whichever is earlier. If it is discovered after that time, the employing agency may use its sound discretion in deciding whether to pay breakage, but, in any event, must act promptly in doing so.

(b) Participant's discovery of error. (1) If an agency fails to discover an error of which a participant has knowledge involving the correct or timely remittance of a payment to the TSP record keeper (other than a retirement system misclassification error as covered by paragraph (c) of this section), the participant may file a claim with his or her employing agency to have the error corrected without a time limit. The agency must promptly correct any such error for which the participant files a claim within six months of its occurrence; if the participant files a claim to correct any such error after that time, the agency may do so at its sound discretion.

(2) For errors involving incorrect dates of birth that result in default investment in the wrong L Fund of which a participant or beneficiary has knowledge, he or she may file a claim for breakage with the employing agency no later than 30 days after either the date the TSP record keeper provides the participant with a notice reflecting the error or the date the TSP or its record keeper makes available on its website a participant statement reflecting the error, whichever is earlier. The employing agency must promptly notify the TSP record keeper that the participant is entitled to breakage.

(3) If a participant or beneficiary fails to file a claim for breakage for errors involving incorrect dates of birth in a timely manner, the employing agency may nevertheless, in its sound discretion, pay breakage on any such error that is brought to its attention.

(c) Retirement system misclassification error. Errors arising from retirement system misclassification must be corrected no matter when they are discovered, whether by an agency or a participant.

(d) Agency procedures. Each employing agency must establish procedures for participants to submit claims for correction under this subpart. Each employing agency's procedures must include the following:

(1) The employing agency must provide the participant with a decision on any claim within 30 days of its receipt, unless the employing agency provides the participant with good cause for requiring a longer period to decide the claim. A decision to deny a claim in whole or in part must be in writing and must include the reasons for the denial, citations to any applicable statutes, regulations, or procedures, a description of any additional material that would enable the participant to perfect the claim, and a statement of the steps necessary to appeal the denial;

(2) The employing agency must permit a participant at least 30 days to appeal the employing agency's denial of all or any part of a claim for correction under this subpart. The appeal must be in writing and addressed to the agency official designated in the initial decision or in procedures promulgated by the agency. The participant may include with his or her appeal any documentation or comments that the participant deems relevant to the claim;

(3) The employing agency must issue a written decision on a timely appeal within 30 days of receipt of the appeal, unless the employing agency provides the participant with good cause for requiring a longer period to decide the appeal. The employing agency decision must include the reasons for the decision, as well as citations to any applicable statutes, regulations, or procedures; and

(4) If the agency decision on the appeal is not issued in a timely manner, or if the appeal is denied in whole or in part, the participant will be deemed to have exhausted his or her administrative remedies and will be eligible to file suit against the employing agency under 5 U.S.C. 8477. There is no administrative appeal to the Board of a final agency decision.

[66 FR 44277, Aug. 22, 2001, as amended at 70 FR 32212, June 1, 2005; 80 FR 57070, Sept. 22, 2015; 87 FR 31678, May 24, 2022]

§ 1605.17 Redesignation and recharacterization.

(a) Applicability. This section applies to the redesignation of contributions which, due to employing agency error, were contributed to the participant's traditional balance when they should have been contributed to the participant's Roth balance or were contributed to the participant's Roth balance when they should have been contributed to the participant's traditional balance. This section also applies to the recharacterization of contributions which, due to employing agency error, were contributed as tax-deferred contributions when they should have been contributed as tax-exempt contributions (or vice versa). It is the responsibility of the employing agency to determine whether it has made an error that entitles a participant to error correction under this section.

(b) Method of correction. The employing agency must promptly submit a redesignation record or a recharacterization record in accordance with this part and the procedures provided to employing agencies by the Board and/or the TSP record keeper in bulletins or other guidance.

(c) Processing redesignations and recharacterizations. (1) Upon receipt of a properly submitted redesignation record, the TSP record keeper shall treat the erroneously submitted contribution (and associated positive earnings) as if the contribution had been made to the correct balance on the date that it was contributed to the wrong balance. The TSP record keeper will adjust the participant's traditional balance and the participant's Roth balance accordingly. The TSP record keeper will also adjust the participant's Roth begin date as necessary.

(2) Upon receipt of a properly submitted recharacterization record or recharacterization request, the TSP record keeper will update the tax characterization of the erroneously characterized contribution.

(3) Agency automatic (1%) contributions and agency matching contributions cannot be redesignated as Roth contributions or recharacterized as tax-exempt contributions.

(4) There is no breakage associated with redesignation or recharacterization actions.

[77 FR 26426, May 4, 2012, as amended at 87 FR 31678, May 24, 2022; 91 FR 1672, Jan. 15, 2026]

Subpart C Board or TSP Record Keeper Errors

§ 1605.21 Plan-paid breakage and other corrections.

(a) Plan-paid breakage. (1) Subject to paragraph (a)(3) of this section, if, because of an error committed by the Board or the TSP record keeper, a participant's account is not credited or charged with the investment gains or losses the account would have received had the error not occurred, the account will be credited accordingly.

(2) Errors that warrant the crediting of breakage under paragraph (a)(1) of this section include, but are not limited to:

(i) Delay in crediting contributions or other money to a participant's account;

(ii) Improper issuance of a loan or TSP withdrawal payment to a participant or beneficiary which requires the money to be restored to the participant's account; and

(iii) Investment of all or part of a participant's account in the wrong investment fund(s).

(3) A participant will not be entitled to breakage under paragraph (a)(1) of this section if the participant had the use of the money on which the investment gains would have accrued.

(4) If the participant continued to have a TSP account, or would have continued to have a TSP account but for the Board or TSP record keeper's error, the TSP record keeper will compute gains or losses under paragraph (a)(1) of this section for the relevant period based upon the investment funds in which the affected money would have been invested had the error not occurred. If the participant did not have, and should not have had, a TSP account during this period, then the TSP will use the rate of return set forth in § 1605.2(b) for the relevant period and return the money to the participant.

(b) Other corrections. The Executive Director may, in his or her discretion and consistent with the requirements of applicable law, correct any other errors not specifically addressed in this section, including payment of breakage, if the Executive Director determines that the correction would serve the interests of justice and fairness and equity among all participants of the TSP.

[87 FR 31678, May 24, 2022]

§ 1605.22 Claims for correction of Board or TSP record keeper errors; time limitations.

(a) Filing claims. Claims for correction of Board or TSP record keeper errors under this subpart may be submitted initially either to the TSP record keeper or the Board. The claim must be in writing and may be from the affected participant or beneficiary.

(b) Board's or TSP record keeper's discovery of error. (1) Upon discovery of an error made within the past six months involving a receipt or a disbursement, the Board or TSP record keeper must promptly correct the error on its own initiative. If the error was made more than six months before its discovery, the Board or the TSP record keeper may exercise sound discretion in deciding whether to correct the error, but, in any event, must act promptly in doing so.

(2) For errors involving an investment in the wrong fund caused by Board or TSP record keeper error, the Board or the TSP record keeper must promptly pay breakage if it is discovered within 30 days of the issuance of the most recent TSP participant (or loan) statement, transaction confirmation, or other notice that reflected the error, whichever is earlier. If it is discovered after that time, the Board or TSP record keeper may use its sound discretion in deciding whether to pay breakage, but, in any event, must act promptly in doing so.

(c) Participant's or beneficiary's discovery of error. (1) If the Board or TSP record keeper fails to discover an error of which a participant or beneficiary has knowledge involving a receipt or a disbursement, the participant or beneficiary may file a claim for correction of the error with the Board or the TSP record keeper without time limit. The Board or the TSP record keeper must promptly correct any such error for which the participant or beneficiary filed a claim within six months of its occurrence; the correction of any such error for which the participant or beneficiary filed a claim after that time is in the sound discretion of the Board or TSP record keeper.

(2) For errors involving an investment in the wrong fund of which a participant or beneficiary has knowledge, he or she may file a claim for breakage with the Board or TSP record keeper no later than 30 days after the TSP provides the participant with a transaction confirmation or other notice reflecting the error, or makes available on its Web site a participant statement reflecting the error, whichever is earlier. The Board or TSP record keeper must promptly pay breakage for such errors.

(3) If a participant or beneficiary fails to file a claim for breakage concerning an error involving an investment in the wrong fund in a timely manner, the Board or TSP record keeper may nevertheless, in its sound discretion, pay breakage for any such error that is brought to its attention.

(d) Processing claims. (1) If the initial claim is submitted to the TSP record keeper, the TSP record keeper may either respond directly to the claimant, or may forward the claim to the Board for response. If the TSP record keeper responds to a claim, and all or any part of the claim is denied, the claimant may request review by the Board within 90 days of the date of the TSP record keeper's response.

(2) If the Board denies all or any part of a claim (whether upon review of a TSP record keeper denial or upon an initial review by the Board), the claimant will be deemed to have exhausted his or her administrative remedy and may file suit under 5 U.S.C. 8477. If the claimant does not submit a request to the Board for review of a claim denial by the TSP record keeper within the 90 days permitted under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the claimant will be deemed to have accepted the TSP record keeper's decision.

[66 FR 44277, Aug. 22, 2001, as amended at 70 FR 32212, June 1, 2005; 80 FR 57070, Sept. 22, 2015; 87 FR 31679, May 24, 2022]

Subpart D Miscellaneous Provisions

§ 1605.31 Contributions missed as a result of military service.

(a) Applicability. This section applies to employees who meet the conditions specified at 5 CFR 1620.40 and who are eligible to make up employee contributions or to receive employing agency contributions missed as a result of military service.

(b) Missed employee contributions. An employee who separates or enters nonpay status to perform military service may be eligible to make up TSP contributions when he or she is reemployed or restored to pay status in the civilian service. Eligibility for making up missed employee contributions will be determined in accordance with the rules specified at 5 CFR part 1620, subpart E. Missed employee contributions must be made up in accordance with the rules set out in § 1605.11(c) and 5 CFR 1620.42.

(c) Missed agency contributions. This paragraph (c) applies only to an employee who would have been eligible to receive agency contributions had he or she remained in civilian service or pay status. A FERS employee who separates or enters nonpay status to perform military service is eligible to receive agency makeup contributions when he or she is reemployed or restored to pay status in the civilian service, as follows:

(1) The employee is entitled to receive the agency automatic (1%) contributions that he or she would have received had he or she remained in civilian service or pay status. Within 60 days of the employee's reemployment or restoration to pay status, the employing agency must calculate the makeup agency automatic (1%) contributions and report those contributions to the record keeper, subject to any reduction in agency automatic (1%) contributions required by paragraph (c)(5) of this section.

(2) An employee who contributed to a uniformed services TSP account during the period of military service is also immediately entitled to receive makeup agency matching contributions to his or her civilian account for the employee contributions to the uniformed services account that were deducted from his or her basic pay, subject to any reduction in agency matching contributions required by paragraph (c)(4) of this section. However, an employee is not entitled to receive makeup agency matching makeup contributions on contributions that were deducted from his or her incentive pay or special pay, including bonus pay, while performing military service.

(3) An employee who makes up missed contributions is entitled to receive attributable makeup agency matching contributions (unless the employee has already received the maximum amount of matching contributions, as described in paragraphs (c)(2) and (4) of this section).

(4) If the employee received uniformed services agency matching contributions, the makeup agency matching contributions will be reduced by the amount of the uniformed services agency matching contributions.

(5) If the employee received uniformed services agency automatic (1%) contributions, the agency automatic (1%) contributions will be reduced by the amount of the uniformed services agency automatic (1%) contributions.

(d) Breakage. The employee is entitled to breakage on agency contributions made under paragraph (c) of this section. Breakage will be calculated based on the investment election(s) on file for the participant during the period of military service.

[67 FR 49525, July 30, 2002, as amended at 70 FR 32212, June 1, 2005; 80 FR 57070, Sept. 22, 2015; 82 FR 60105, Dec. 19, 2017; 87 FR 31679, May 24, 2022]

1606 PART 1606 [RESERVED]

PART 1620 EXPANDED AND CONTINUING ELIGIBILITY

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 8474(b)(5) and (c)(1). Subpart C also issued under 5 U.S.C. 8440a(b)(7), 8440b(b)(8), and 8440c(b)(8). Subpart D also issued under sec. 1043(b) of Pub. L. 104-106, 110 Stat. 186, and sec. 7202(m)(2) of Pub. L. 101-508, 104 Stat. 1388. Subpart E also issued under 5 U.S.C. 8432b(1) and 8440e.

Source: 64 FR 31057, June 9, 1999, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General

§ 1620.1 Application.

The Federal Employees' Retirement System Act of 1986 (codified as amended largely at 5 U.S.C. 8351 and 8401 through 8479) originally limited TSP eligibility to specifically named groups of employees. On various occasions, Congress has since expanded TSP eligibility to other groups. Depending on the circumstances, that subsequent legislation requires retroactive contributions or provides other special features. Where necessary, this part describes those special features. The employees and employing agencies covered by this part are also governed by the other regulations in 5 CFR chapter VI to the extent that they do not conflict with the regulations of this part.

[64 FR 31057, June 9, 1999, as amended at 70 FR 32213, June 1, 2005]

§ 1620.2 Definitions.

The definitions generally applicable to the Thrift Savings Plan are set forth at 5 CFR 1690.1.

[70 FR 32213, June 1, 2005]

§ 1620.3 Contributions.

The employing agency is responsible for transmitting to the TSP record keeper, in accordance with the TSP record keeper's procedures, any employee and employer contributions that are required by this part.

[87 FR 31679, May 24, 2022]

§ 1620.4 Notices.

An employing agency must notify affected employees of the application of this part as soon as practicable.

Subpart B Cooperative Extension Service, Union, and Intergovernmental Personnel Act Employees

§ 1620.10 Definition.

As used in this subpart, employing authority means the entity that employs an individual described in § 1620.11 and which has the authority to make personnel compensation decisions for such employee.

§ 1620.11 Scope.

This subpart applies to any individual participating in CSRS or FERS who:

(a) Has been appointed or otherwise assigned to one of the cooperative extension services, as defined in 7 U.S.C. 3103(5);

(b) Has entered on approved leave without pay to serve as a full-time officer or employee of an organization composed primarily of employees as defined by 5 U.S.C. 8331(1) and 8401(11); or

(c) Has been assigned, on an approved leave-without-pay basis, from a Federal agency to a state or local government under 5 U.S.C. chapter 33, subchapter VI.

§ 1620.12 Employing authority contributions.

The employing authority, at its sole discretion, may choose to make employer contributions under 5 U.S.C. 8432(c) for employees who are covered under FERS. Such contributions may be made for any period of eligible service after January 1, 1984, provided that the employing agency must treat all its employees who are eligible to receive employer contributions in the same manner. The employing authority can commence or terminate employer contributions at any time after providing all affected employees with notice of a decision to commence or terminate such contributions at least 45 days before the beginning of the applicable election period. The employing authority may not contribute to the TSP on behalf of CSRS employees.

[64 FR 31057, June 9, 1999, as amended at 70 FR 32213, June 1, 2005]

§ 1620.13 Retroactive contributions.

(a) An employing authority can make retroactive employer contributions on behalf of FERS employees described in this subpart, but cannot duplicate employer contributions already made to the TSP.

(b) An employing authority making retroactive employing agency contributions on behalf of a FERS employee described in § 1620.12 must continue those contributions (but only to the extent they relate to service with the employing authority) if the employee returns to his or her agency of record or is transferred to another Federal agency without a break in service.

(c) CSRS and FERS employees covered by this subpart can make retroactive employee contributions relating to periods of service described in § 1620.12, unless they already have been given the opportunity to make contributions for these periods of service.

§ 1620.14 Payment to the TSP record keeper.

(a) The employing authority of a cooperative extension service employee (described at § 1620.11(a)) is responsible for transmitting employer and employee contributions to the TSP record keeper.

(b) The employing authority of a union employee or an Intergovernmental Personnel Act employee (described at § 1620.11(b) and (c), respectively) is responsible for transmitting employer and employee contributions to the employee's Federal agency of record. Employee contributions will be deducted from the employee's actual pay. The employee's agency of record is responsible for transmitting the employer and employee's contributions to the TSP record keeper in accordance with its procedures. The employee's election form (TSP-1) will be filed in the employee's official personnel folder or other similar file maintained by the employing authority.

[64 FR 31057, June 9, 1999, as amended at 87 FR 31679, May 24, 2022]

Subpart C Justices and Judges

§ 1620.20 Scope.

(a) This subpart applies to:

(1) A justice or judge of the United States as defined in 28 U.S.C. 451;

(2) A bankruptcy judge appointed under 28 U.S.C. 152 or a United States magistrate judge appointed under 28 U.S.C. 631 who has chosen to receive a judges' annuity described at 28 U.S.C. 377 or section 2(c) of the Retirement and Survivors' Annuities for Bankruptcy Judges and Magistrates Act of 1988, Public Law 100-659, 102 Stat. 3910-3921;

(3) A judge of the United States Court of Federal Claims appointed under 28 U.S.C. 171 whose retirement is covered by 28 U.S.C. 178; and

(4) A judge of the Court of Veterans Appeals appointed under 38 U.S.C. 7253.

(b) This subpart does not apply to a bankruptcy judge or a United States magistrate judge who has not chosen a judges' annuity, or to a judge of the United States Court of Federal Claims who is not covered by 28 U.S.C. 178. Those individuals may participate in the TSP only if they are otherwise covered by CSRS or FERS.

[64 FR 31057, June 9, 1999, as amended at 70 FR 32213, June 1, 2005]

§ 1620.21 Contributions.

(a) An individual covered under this subpart can make contributions to the TSP from basic pay in the amount described at 5 CFR 1600.22(a)(1). Unless stated otherwise in this subpart, he or she is covered by the same rules that apply to a CSRS participant in the TSP.

(b) The following amounts are not basic pay and no TSP contributions can be made from them:

(1) An annuity or salary received by a justice or judge of the United States (as defined in 28 U.S.C. 451) who is retired under 28 U.S.C. 371(a) or (b), or 372(a);

(2) Amounts received by a bankruptcy judge or a United States magistrate judge under a judges' annuity described at 28 U.S.C. 377;

(3) An annuity or salary received by a judge of the United States Court of Federal Claims under 28 U.S.C. 178; and

(4) Retired pay received by a judge of the United States Court of Veterans Appeals under 38 U.S.C. 7296.

[64 FR 31057, June 9, 1999, as amended at 70 FR 32213, June 1, 2005]

§ 1620.22 Withdrawals.

(a) Post-employment distribution. An individual covered under this subpart can make a post-employment distribution election described at 5 U.S.C. 8433(b):

(1) Upon separation from Government employment.

(2) In addition to the circumstance described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a post-employment distribution election can be made by:

(i) A justice or judge of the United States (as defined in 28 U.S.C. 451) who retires under 28 U.S.C. 317(a) or (b) or 372(a);

(ii) A bankruptcy judge or a United States magistrate judge receiving a judges' annuity under 28 U.S.C. 377;

(iii) A judge of the United States Court of Federal Claims receiving an annuity or salary under 28 U.S.C. 178; and

(iv) A judge of the United States Court of Veterans Appeals receiving retired pay under 38 U.S.C. 7296.

(b) In-service withdrawals. An individual covered under this subpart can request an in-service withdrawal described at 5 U.S.C. 8433(h) if he or she:

(1) Has not separated from Government employment; and

(2) Is not receiving retired pay as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.

[64 FR 31057, June 9, 1999, as amended at 70 FR 32213, June 1, 2005; 87 FR 31679, May 24, 2022]

§ 1620.23 Spousal rights.

(a) The current spouse of a justice or judge of the United States (as defined in 28 U.S.C. 451), or of a Court of Veterans Appeals judge, possesses the rights described at 5 U.S.C. 8351(b)(5).

(b) A current or former spouse of a bankruptcy judge, a United States magistrate judge, or a judge of the United States Court of Federal Claims, possesses the rights described at 5 U.S.C. 8435 and 8467 if the judge is covered under this subpart.

[64 FR 31057, June 9, 1999, as amended at 70 FR 32213, June 1, 2005]

Subpart D Nonappropriated Fund Employees

§ 1620.30 Scope.

This subpart applies to any employee of a Nonappropriated Fund (NAF) instrumentality of the Department of Defense (DOD) or the U.S. Coast Guard who elects to be covered by CSRS or FERS and to any employee in a CSRS- or FERS-covered position who elects to be covered by a retirement plan established for employees of a NAF instrumentality pursuant to the Portability of Benefits for Nonappropriated Fund Employees Act of 1990, Public Law 101-508, 104 Stat. 1388, 1388-335 to 1388-341, as amended (codified largely at 5 U.S.C. 8347(q) and 8461(n)).

§ 1620.31 Definition.

As used in this subpart, move means moving from a position covered by CSRS or FERS to a NAF instrumentality of the DOD or Coast Guard, or vice versa, without a break in service of more than one year.

§ 1620.32 Employees who move to a NAF instrumentality on or after August 10, 1996.

Any employee who moves from a CSRS- or FERS-covered position to a NAF instrumentality on or after August 10, 1996, and who elects to continue to be covered by CSRS or FERS, will be eligible to contribute to the TSP as determined in accordance with 5 CFR part 1600.

§ 1620.33 [Reserved]
§ 1620.34 Employees who move from a NAF instrumentality to a Federal Government agency.

(a) An employee of a NAF instrumentality who moves from a NAF instrumentality to a Federal Government agency and who elects to be covered by a NAF retirement system is not eligible to participate in the TSP. Any TSP contributions relating to a period for which an employee elects retroactive NAF retirement coverage must be removed from the TSP as required by the regulations at 5 CFR part 1605.

(b) An employee of a NAF instrumentality who moves from a NAF instrumentality to a Federal Government agency and who elects to be covered by CSRS or FERS will become eligible to participate in the TSP as determined in accordance with 5 CFR part 1600.

§ 1620.35 Loan payments.

NAF instrumentalities must deduct and transmit TSP loan payments for employees who elect to be covered by CSRS or FERS to the TSP record keeper in accordance with 5 CFR part 1655 and the TSP record keeper's procedures. Loan payments may not be deducted and transmitted for employees who elect to be covered by the NAF retirement system. Such employees will be considered to have separated from Government service and may continue making loan repayments in accordance with 5 CFR part 1655 and the TSP record keeper's procedures.

[87 FR 31679, May 24, 2022]

§ 1620.36 Transmission of information.

Any employee who moves to a NAF instrumentality must be reported by the losing Federal Government agency to the TSP record keeper as having transferred to a NAF instrumentality of the DOD or Coast Guard rather than as having separated from Government service. If the employee subsequently elects not to be covered by CSRS or FERS, the NAF instrumentality must submit an Employee Data Record to report the employee as having separated from Federal Government service as of the date of the move.

Subpart E Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act (USERRA)—Covered Military Service

§ 1620.40 Scope.

To be covered by this subpart, an employee must have:

(a) Separated from Federal civilian service or entered leave-without-pay status in order to perform military service; and

(b) Become eligible to seek reemployment or restoration to duty by virtue of a release from military service, discharge from hospitalization, or other similar event that occurred on or after August 2, 1990; and

(c) Been reemployed in, or restored to, a position covered by CSRS or FERS pursuant to the provisions of 38 U.S.C. chapter 43.

§ 1620.41 Definitions.

As used in this subpart:

Current contributions means contributions that must be made for the current pay date which is reported on the journal voucher that accompanies the payroll submission.

Nonpay status means an employer-approved temporary absence from duty.

Reemployed or returned to pay status means reemployed in or returned to a pay status, pursuant to 38 U.S.C. chapter 43, to a position that is subject to 5 U.S.C. 8351 or chapter 84.

Retroactive period means the period for which an employee can make up missed employee contributions and receive missed agency contributions. It begins the day after the employee separates or enters nonpay status to perform military service and ends when the employee is reemployed or returned to pay status.

Separate from civilian service means to cease employment with the Federal Government, the U.S. Postal Service, or with any other employer from a position that is deemed to be civilian Government employment for purposes of participating in the TSP, for 31 or more full calendar days.

[67 FR 49525, July 30, 2002]

§ 1620.42 Processing TSP contribution elections.

(a) Current contribution election. If the employee entered nonpay status with a valid contribution election on file, the agency must immediately reinstate that election for current contributions when the employee returns to pay status, unless the employee files a new contribution election. If the employee separated to perform military service, he or she must make a new contribution election to begin current contributions.

(b) Makeup contribution election. Upon reemployment or return to pay status, an employee has 60 days to elect to make up missed contributions. An employee's right to make retroactive TSP contributions will expire if an election is not made within 60 days of the participant's reemployment or return to pay status.

(c) Makeup contributions. Makeup contributions will be processed as follows:

(1) If the employee had a valid contribution election on file when he or she separated or entered nonpay status to perform military service, that election will be reinstated for purposes of determining the makeup contributions, unless the employee submits a new contribution election which he or she could otherwise have made but for the performance of military service.

(2) An employee who terminated contributions within two months of entering military service will also be eligible to make a retroactive contribution election to be effective on the date the contributions were terminated.

[70 FR 32213, June 1, 2005, as amended at 87 FR 31679, May 24, 2022]

§ 1620.43 Agency payments to TSP record keeper; agency ultimately responsible.

(a) Agency making payments to TSP record keeper. The current employing agency is responsible for making payments to the TSP record keeper for all contributions, regardless of whether some of that expense is ultimately chargeable to a prior employing agency.

(b) Agency ultimately chargeable with expense. The agency that reemployed the participant is ordinarily the agency ultimately chargeable with the expense of agency contributions and the breakage attributable to them. However, if an employee changed agencies during the period between the date of reemployment and October 13, 1994, the employing agency as of October 13, 1994, is the agency ultimately chargeable with the expense.

(c) Reimbursement by agency ultimately chargeable with expense. If the agency that made the payments to the TSP record keeper for agency contributions is not the agency ultimately chargeable for that expense, the agency that made the payments to the TSP record keeper may, but is not required to, obtain reimbursement from the agency ultimately chargeable with the expense.

[70 FR 32213, June 1, 2005; as amended at 87 FR 31679, May 24, 2022]

§ 1620.44 Restoring forfeited agency automatic (1%) contributions.

If an employee's agency automatic (1%) contributions were forfeited because the employee was not vested when he or she separated to perform military service, the employee must notify the employing agency that a forfeiture occurred. The employing agency will follow the procedure described in § 1620.46(e) to have those funds restored.

[64 FR 31057, June 9, 1999, as amended at 67 FR 49526, July 30, 2002]

§ 1620.45 Suspending TSP loans, restoring post-employment distributions, and reversing loan foreclosures..

(a) Suspending TSP loans during nonpay status. If the TSP record keeper is notified that an employee entered into a nonpay status to perform military service, any outstanding TSP loan from a civilian TSP account will be suspended, that is, it will not be declared a loan foreclosure while the employee is performing military service.

(1) Interest will accrue on the loan balance during the period of suspension. When the employee returns to civilian pay status, the employing agency will resume deducting loan payments from the participant's basic pay and the TSP record keeper will reamortize the loan (which will include interest accrued during the period of military service). The maximum loan repayment term will be extended by the employee's period of military service. Consequently, when the employee returns to pay status, the TSP record keeper must receive documentation to show the beginning and ending dates of military service.

(2) The TSP record keeper may close the loan account and declare it to be a loan foreclosure if the TSP record keeper does not receive documentation that the employee entered into nonpay status. However, this can be reversed in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.

(b) Restoring post-employment distributions. An employee who separates from civilian service to perform military service and who receives an automatic payment pursuant to § 1650.11 may return to the TSP an amount equal to the amount of the payment. The employee must notify the TSP record keeper of his or her intent to return the distributed funds within 90 days of the date the employee returns to civilian service or pay status; if the employee is eligible to return a distribution, the TSP record keeper will then inform the employee of the actions that must be taken to return the funds.

(c) Reversing loan foreclosures. An employee may request that a loan foreclosure be reversed it resulted from the employee's separation or placement in nonpay status to perform military service. The TSP record keeper will reverse the loan foreclosure under the process described as follows:

(1) An employee who received a post-employment distribution when he or she separated to perform military service can have a loan foreclosure reversed only if the distributed amount is returned as described in paragraph (b) of this section;

(2) A loan foreclosure can be reversed either by reinstating the loan or by repaying it in full. The TSP loan can be reinstated only if the employee agrees to repay the loan within the maximum loan repayment term plus the length of military service, and if, after reinstatement of the loan, the employee will have no more than two outstanding loans, only one of which is a residential loan; and

(3) The employee must notify the TSP record keeper of his or her intent to reverse a loan foreclosure within 90 days of the date the employee returns to civilian service or pay status; if the employee is eligible to reverse a loan foreclosure, the TSP record keeper will then inform the employee of the actions that must be taken to reverse the distribution.

(d) Breakage. Employees will not receive breakage on amounts returned to their accounts under this section.

[87 FR 31679, May 24, 2022]

§ 1620.46 Agency responsibilities.

(a) General. Each employing agency must establish procedures for implementing these regulations. These procedures must at a minimum require agency personnel to identify eligible employees and notify them of their options under these regulations and the time period within which these options must be exercised.

(b) Agency records; procedure for reimbursement. The agency making payments to the record keeper for all contributions and attributable breakage will obtain from prior employing agencies whatever information is necessary to make accurate payments. If a prior employing agency is ultimately chargeable under § 1620.43(b) for all or part of this expense, the agency making the payments to the TSP record keeper will determine the procedure to follow in order to collect amounts owed to it by the agency ultimately chargeable with the expense.

(c) Payment schedule; matching contributions report. Agencies will, with the employee's consent, prepare a payment schedule for making retroactive employee contributions which will be consistent with the procedures established at 5 CFR part 1605 for the correction of employing agency errors.

(d) Agency automatic (1%) contributions. Employing agencies must calculate the agency automatic (1%) contributions for all reemployed (or restored) FERS employees and report those contributions to the TSP record keeper within 60 days of reemployment.

(e) Forfeiture restoration. When notified by an employee that a forfeiture of the agency automatic (1%) contributions occurred after the employee separated to perform military service, the employing agency must complete and file the appropriate paper TSP form with the TSP record keeper in accordance with the form's instructions to have those funds restored.

(f) Thrift Savings Plan Service Computation Date. The agencies must include the period of military service in the Thrift Savings Plan Service Computation Date (TSP-SCD) of all reemployed FERS employees. If the period of military service has not been credited, the agencies must submit an employee data record to the TSP record keeper containing the correct TSP Service Computation Date.

[64 FR 31057, June 9, 1999, as amended at 70 FR 32214, June 1, 2005; 87 FR 31680, May 24, 2022]

PART 1630 PRIVACY ACT REGULATIONS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 552a.

Source: 55 FR 18852, May 7, 1990, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1630.1 Purpose and scope.

These regulations implement the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a. The regulations apply to all records maintained by the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board that are contained in a system of records and that contain information about an individual. The regulations establish procedures that (a) authorize an individual's access to records maintained about him or her; (b) limit the access of other persons to those records; and (c) permit an individual to request the amendment or correction of records about him or her.

§ 1630.2 Definitions.

For the purposes of this part—

(a) Account number means the number assigned by the Agency to each participant's TSP account which serves as the primary identification mechanism for a participant's account. The participant's Social Security number will remain the identifier for the submission of data and funds from agency and uniformed services payroll offices, for the submission of information to the Internal Revenue Service about distributions, and for some other administrative purposes.

(b) Agency means agency as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(e);

(c) Board means the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board;

(d) Case reference number means the number assigned by the Agency to the recipient of a court order payment or a death benefit payment.

(e) Individual means a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence;

(f) Maintain means to collect, use, or distribute;

(g) Privacy Act Officer means the Board's General Counsel or his or her designee;

(h) Record means any item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual that is maintained by the Board or the record keeper, including but not limited to education, financial transactions, medical history, and criminal or employment history and that contains the individual's name, identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual, such as a finger or voice print or a photograph;

(i) Record keeper means the entity that is engaged by the Board to perform record keeping services for the TSP;

(j) Routine use means, with respect to the disclosure of a record, the use of that record for a purpose which is compatible with the purpose for which it was collected;

(k) System manager means the official of the Board who is responsible for the maintenance, collection, use, distribution, or disposal of information contained in a system of records;

(l) System of records means a group of any records under the control of the Board from which information is retrieved by the name of the individual or other identifying particular assigned to the individual;

(m) Statistical record means a record in a system of records maintained for statistical research or reporting purposes only and not used in whole or in part in making any determination about an identifiable individual, except as provided by 13 U.S.C. 8;

(n) Subject individual means the individual by whose name or other identifying particular a record is maintained or retrieved;

(o) TSP means the Thrift Savings Plan which is administered by the Board pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 8351 and chapter 84 (subchapters III and VII);

(p) TSP participant means any individual for whom a TSP account has been established. This includes former participants, i.e., participants whose accounts have been closed;

(q) TSP records means those records maintained by the record keeper;

(r) VRS (Voice Response System) means the fully automated telephone information system for TSP account records;

(s) Work days as used in calculating the date when a response is due, includes those days when the Board is open for the conduct of Government business and does not include Saturdays, Sundays and Federal holidays.

[55 FR 18852, May 7, 1990, as amended at 64 FR 67693, 67695, Dec. 3, 1999; 72 FR 51353, Sept. 7, 2007; 79 FR 68094, Nov. 14, 2014]

§ 1630.3 Publication of systems of records maintained.

(a) Prior to the establishment or revision of a system of records, the Board will publish in the Federal Register notice of any new or intended use of the information in a system or proposed system and provide interested persons with a period within which to comment on the new or revised system. Technical or typographical corrections are not considered to be revisions of a system.

(b) When a system of records is established or revised, the Board will publish in the Federal Register a notice about the system. The notice shall include:

(1) The system name,

(2) The system location,

(3) The categories of individuals covered by the system,

(4) The categories of records in the system,

(5) The Board's authority to maintain the system,

(6) The routine uses of the system,

(7) The Board's policies and practices for maintenance of the system,

(8) The system manager,

(9) The procedures for notification, access to and correction of records in the system, and

(10) The sources of information for the system.

§ 1630.4 Request for notification and access.

(a) Within 20 work days of receiving the request for review, the Executive Director will make a final determination on appeal. A participant or a spouse, former spouse, or beneficiary of a participant must make his or her inquiry in accordance with the chart set forth in this paragraph. The mailing address of the Thrift Savings Plan is provided at http://www.tsp.gov. Telephone inquiries are subject to the verification procedures set forth in § 1630.7. A written inquiry from a participant must include the participant's name and the participant's account number or Social Security number. A written inquiry from a spouse or former spouse or a beneficiary of the participant must include the inquiring party's name and Social Security number or, if available, the case reference number as well as the name and Social Security number or account number of the participant. Other third party inquiries (e.g., from other Federal agencies authorized to obtain information about the participant's account) must include, at a minimum, the participant's name and Social Security number.

To obtain information about or gain access to TSP records about you

If you want: | If you are a participant who is a current Federal employee: | If you are a participant who has separated from Federal employment or a spouse, former spouse, or beneficiary:

To make inquiry as to whether you are a subject of this system of records. | Call or write to your employing agency in accordance with agency procedures for personnel or payroll records | Call or write to TSP record keeper.

To gain access to a record about you | Call or write to your employing agency to request access to personnel and payroll records regarding the agency's and the participant's contributions, and adjustments to contributions. Call or write to the TSP record keeper to gain access to loan status and repayments, earnings, contributions allocation elections, interfund transfers, and withdrawal records | Call or write to TSP record keeper.

To learn the history of disclosures of records about you to entities other than the participant's employing agency or the Board or auditors see § 1630.4 (a)(4) | Write to TSP record keeper. | Write to TSP record keeper.

(2) Participants may also inquire whether this system contains records about them and access certain records through the account access section of the TSP website and the ThriftLine (the TSP's automated telephone system). The TSP website is www.tsp.gov. To use the TSP ThriftLine, the participant must have a touch-tone telephone and call (877) 968-3778. Information such as account balance and transaction status is available on the TSP website and the ThriftLine. To access these features, the participant may be required to verify his or her identity by providing identifying particulars.

(3) A Privacy Act request which is incorrectly submitted to the Board will not be considered received until received by the record keeper. The Board will submit such a Privacy Act request to the record keeper within three workdays. A Privacy Act request which is incorrectly submitted to the record keeper will not be considered received until received by the employing agency. The record keeper will submit such a Privacy Act request to the employing agency within three workdays.

(4) No disclosure history will be made when the Board contracts for an audit of TSP financial statements (which includes the review and sampling of TSP account balances).

(5) No disclosure history will be made when the Department of Labor or the General Accounting Office audits TSP financial statements (which includes the review and sampling of TSP account balances) in accordance with their responsibilities under chapter 84 of title 5 of the U.S. Code. Rather, a requester will be advised that these agencies have statutory obligations to audit TSP activities and that in the course of such audits they randomly sample individual TSP accounts to test for account accuracy.

(b) Non-TSP Board records. An individual who wishes to know if a specific system of records maintained by the Board contains a record pertaining to him or her, or who wishes access to such records, shall address a written request to the Privacy Act Officer, Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board, 77 K Street, NE., Suite 1000, Washington, DC 20002. The request letter should contain the complete name and identifying number of the pertinent system as published in the annual Federal Register notice describing the Board's Systems of Records; the full name and address of the subject individual; the subject's Social Security number if a Board employee; a brief description of the nature, time, place, and circumstances of the individual's prior association with the Board; and any other information the individual believes would help the Privacy Act Officer determine whether the information about the individual is included in the system of records. In instances where the information is insufficient to ensure disclosure to the subject individual to whom the record pertains, the Board reserves the right to ask the requester for additional identifying information. The words “PRIVACY ACT REQUEST” should be printed on both the letter and the envelope.

[55 FR 18852, May 7, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 55331, Nov. 7, 1994; 64 FR 67693, 67695, Dec. 3, 1999; 71 FR 50319, Aug. 25, 2006; 72 FR 51353, Sept. 7, 2007; 77 FR 11384, Feb. 27, 2012; 79 FR 68094, Nov. 14, 2014; 85 FR 12431, Mar. 3, 2020]

§ 1630.5 Granting access to a designated individual.

(a) An individual who wishes to have a person of his or her choosing review a record or obtain a copy of a record from the Board or the TSP record keeper shall submit a signed statement authorizing the disclosure of his or her record before the record will be disclosed. The authorization shall be maintained with the record.

(b) The Board or the TSP record keeper will honor any Privacy Act request (e.g., a request to have access or to amend a record) which is accompanied by a valid power of attorney from the subject of the record.

[55 FR 18852, May 7, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 26409, May 20, 1994; 64 FR 67694, Dec. 3, 1999]

§ 1630.6 Action on request.

(a) For TSP records, the record keeper designee, and for non-TSP records, the Privacy Act Officer will answer or acknowledge the inquiry within 10 work days of the date it is received. When the answer cannot be made within 10 work days, the record keeper or Privacy Act Officer will provide the requester with the date when a response may be expected and, whenever possible, the specific reasons for the delay.

(b) At a minimum, the acknowledgement to a request for access shall include:

(1) When and where the records will be available;

(2) Name, title and telephone number of the official who will make the records available;

(3) Whether access will be granted only by providing a copy of the record through the mail, or only by examination of the record in person if the Privacy Act Officer after consulting with the appropriate system manager has determined the requester's access would not be unduly impeded;

(4) Fee, if any, charged for copies (See § 1630.16); and

(5) If necessary, documentation required to verify the identity of the requester (See § 1630.7).

[55 FR 18852, May 7, 1990, as amended at 67694, 67695, Dec. 3, 1999]

§ 1630.7 Identification requirements.

(a) In person. An individual should be prepared to identify himself or herself by signature, i.e., to note by signature the date of access, Social Security number, and to produce one photographic form of identification (driver's license, employee identification, annuitant card, passport, etc.). If an individual is unable to produce adequate identification, the individual must sign a statement asserting his or her identity and acknowledging that knowingly or willfully seeking or obtaining access to records about another person under false pretenses may result in a fine of up to $5,000 (see § 1630.18). In addition, depending upon the sensitivity of the records, the Privacy Act Officer or record keeper designee after consulting with the appropriate system manager may require further reasonable assurances, such as statements of other individuals who can attest to the identity of the requester.

(b) In writing. A participant shall provide his or her name, date of birth, and account number or Social Security number and shall sign the request. Most other individuals shall provide the participant's account number or Social Security number, shall provide a statement of relationship to the participant unless it is clearly identified in the nature of the correspondence, and shall sign the request. If a request for access is granted by mail and, in the opinion of the Privacy Act Officer or record keeper designee after consulting with the appropriate system manager, the disclosure of the records through the mail may result in harm or embarrassment (if a person other than the subject individual were to receive the records), a notarized statement of identity or some other similar assurance of identity will be required.

(c) By telephone. (1) Telephone identification procedures apply only to requests from participants and spouses, former spouses, or beneficiaries of participants for information in FRTIB-1, Thrift Savings Plan Records, which is retrieved by their respective account numbers (or case reference numbers) or Social Security numbers.

(2) A participant or a spouse, former spouse, or beneficiary of a participant must identify himself or herself by providing to the record keeper designee his or her name, account number (or case reference number) or Social Security number, and any other information requested. If the record keeper designee determines that any of the information provided by telephone is incorrect, the requester will be required to submit a request in writing.

(3) A participant may also access the TSP website or call the TSP ThriftLine to obtain account information. These systems may require identity and account verification information and may require the participant to verify his or her identity by providing identifying particulars.

[55 FR 18852, May 7, 1990, as amended at 64 FR 67694, Dec. 3, 1999; 72 FR 51354, Sept. 7, 2007; 85 FR 12431, Mar. 3, 2020]

§ 1630.8 Access of others to records about an individual.

(a) The Privacy Act provides for access to records in systems of records in those situations enumerated in 5 U.S.C. 552a(b) and are set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.

(b) No official or employee of the Board, or any contractor of the Board or other Federal agency operating a Board system of records under an interagency agreement, shall disclose any record to any person or to another agency without the express written consent of the subject individual, unless the disclosure is:

(1) To officers or employees (including contract employees) of the Board or the record keeper who need the information to perform their official duties;

(2) Pursuant to the requirements of the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552;

(3) For a routine use that has been published in a notice in the Federal Register (routine uses for the Board's systems of records are published separately in the Federal Register and are available from the Board's Privacy Act Officer);

(4) To the Bureau of the Census for uses under title 13 of the United States Code;

(5) To a person or agency which has given the Board or the record keeper advance written notice of the purpose of the request and certification that the record will be used only for statistical purposes. (In addition to deleting personal identifying information from records released for statistical purposes, the Privacy Act Officer or record keeper designee shall ensure that the identity of the individual cannot reasonably be deduced by combining various statistical records);

(6) To the National Archives of the United States if a record has sufficient historical or other value to warrant its continued preservation by the United States Government, or for evaluation by the Archivist of the United States or the designee of the Archivist to determine whether the record has such value;

(7) In response to a written request that identifies the record and the purpose of the request made by another agency or instrumentality of any Government jurisdiction within or under the control of the United States for civil or criminal law enforcement activity, if that activity is authorized by law;

(8) To a person pursuant to a showing of compelling circumstances affecting the health or safety of an individual, if upon such disclosure a notification is transmitted to the last known address of the subject individual;

(9) To either House of Congress, or to a Congressional committee or subcommittee if the subject matter is within its jurisdiction;

(10) To the Comptroller General, or an authorized representative, in the course of the performance of the duties of the General Accounting Office;

(11) Pursuant to the order of a court of competent jurisdiction; or

(12) To a consumer reporting agency in accordance with section 3711(f) of Title 31.

[55 FR 18852, May 7, 1990, as amended at 64 FR 67694, Dec. 3, 1999]

§ 1630.9 Access to the history (accounting) of disclosures from records.

Rules governing access to the accounting of disclosures are the same as those for granting access to the records as set forth in § 1630.4.

§ 1630.10 Denials of access.

(a) The Privacy Act Officer or the record keeper designee for records covered by system FRTIB-1, may deny an individual access to his or her record if:

(1) In the opinion of the Privacy Act Officer or the record keeper designee, the individual seeking access has not provided proper identification to permit access; or

(2) The Board has published rules in the Federal Register exempting the pertinent system of records from the access requirement.

(b) If access is denied, the requester shall be informed of the reasons for denial and the procedures for obtaining a review of the denial.

[55 FR 18852, May 7, 1990, as amended at 64 FR 67695, Dec. 3, 1999]

§ 1630.11 Requirements for requests to amend records.

(a) TSP records. (1) A spouse, former spouse or beneficiary of a TSP participant who wants to correct or amend his or her record must write to the TSP record keeper. A participant in the TSP who wants to correct or amend a TSP record pertaining to him or her shall submit a written request in accordance with the following chart:

To correct or amend a TSP record

If the type of record is: | If you are a participant who is a current Federal employee write to: | If you are a participant who has separated from Federal employment write to:

Personnel or personal records (e.g., age, address, Social Security number, date of birth). | Write to your employing agency. | Write to TSP record keeper.

The agency's and the participant's contributions, and adjustments to contributions. | Write to your employing agency. | Write to your former employing agency.

Earnings, investment allocation, interfund transfers, loans, loan repayments, and withdrawals | Write to TSP record keeper. | Write to TSP record keeper.

(2) The address of the record keeper is listed in § 1630.4(a).

(3) Requests for amendments which are claims for money because of administrative error will be processed in accordance with the Board's Error Correction regulations found at 5 CFR part l605. Sections 1630.12(b)-1630.14 of this part do not apply to such money claim amendments to TSP records as the Error Correction regulations are an equivalent substitute. Non-money claim TSP record appeals are covered by §§ 1630.12-1630.14, or if covered by the above chart the employing, or former employing, agency's Privacy Act procedures.

(4) Corrections to TSP account records which are made by the Board, its recordkeeper or the employing agency or the former employing agency on its own motion because of a detected administrative error will be effected without reference to Privacy Act procedures.

(5) A participant in the TSP who is currently employed by a Federal agency should be aware that the employing agency provides to the Board personal and payroll records on the participant, such as his or her date of birth, Social Security number, retirement code, address, loan repayments, the amount of participant's contribution, amount of the Government's contribution, if the participant is covered by the Federal Employees' Retirement System Act (FERSA, 5 U.S.C. Chapter 84), and adjustments to contributions. Requests submitted to the Board, or its recordkeeper, to correct information provided by the employing Federal agency will be referred to the employing agency. The reason for this referral is that the Board receives information periodically for the TSP accounts; if the employing agency does not resolve the alleged error, the Board will continue to receive the uncorrected information periodically regardless of a one-time Board correction. The employing agency also has custody of the election form (which is maintained in the Official Personnel Folder). Requests for amendment or correction of records described in this paragraph should be made to the employing agency.

(b) Non-TSP records. (1) Any other individual who wants to correct or amend a record pertaining to him or her shall submit a written request to the Board's Privacy Act Officer whose address is listed in § 1630.4. The words “Privacy Act—Request to Amend Record” should be written on the letter and the envelope.

(2) The request for amendment or correction of the record should, if possible, state the exact name of the system of records as published in the Federal Register; a precise description of the record proposed for amendment; a brief statement describing the information the requester believes to be inaccurate or incomplete, and why; and the amendment or correction desired. If the request to amend the record is the result of the individual's having gained access to the record in accordance with §§ 1630.4, 1630.5, 1630.6 or § 1630.7, copies of previous correspondence between the requester and the Board should be attached, if possible.

(3) If the individual's identity has not been previously verified, the Board may require documentation of identification as described in § 1630.7.

[55 FR 18852, May 7, 1990, as amended at 64 FR 67694, 67695, Dec. 3, 1999]

§ 1630.12 Action on request to amend a record.

(a) For TSP records, the record keeper will acknowledge a request for amendment of a record, which is to be decided by that office in accordance with the chart in § 1630.11, within 10 work days. Requests received by the record keeper which are to be decided by the current or former employing agency will be sent to that agency by the record keeper within 3 work days of the date of receipt. A copy of the transmittal letter will be sent to the requester.

(b) For non-TSP records, the Privacy Act Officer will acknowledge a request for amendment of a record within 10 work days of the date the Board receives it. If a decision cannot be made within this time, the requester will be informed by mail of the reasons for the delay and the date when a reply can be expected, normally within 30 work days from receipt of the request.

(c) The final response will include the decision whether to grant or deny the request. If the request is denied, the response will include:

(1) The reasons for the decision;

(2) The name and address of the official to whom an appeal should be directed;

(3) The name and address of the official designated to assist the individual in preparing the appeal;

(4) A description of the appeal process with the Board; and

(5) A description of any other procedures which may be required of the individual in order to process the appeal.

[55 FR 18852, May 7, 1990, as amended at 64 FR 67695, Dec. 3, 1999]

§ 1630.13 Procedures for review of determination to deny access to or amendment of records.

(a) Individuals who disagree with the refusal to grant them access to or to amend a record about them should submit a written request for review to the Executive Director, Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board, 77 K Street, NE., Suite 1000, Washington, DC 20002. The words “PRIVACY ACT—APPEAL” should be written on the letter and the envelope. Individuals who need assistance preparing their appeal should contact the Board's Privacy Act Officer.

(b) The appeal letter must be received by the Board within 30 calendar days from the date the requester received the notice of denial. At a minimum, the appeal letter should identify:

(1) The records involved;

(2) The date of the initial request for access to or amendment of the record;

(3) The date of the Board's denial of that request; and

(4) The reasons supporting the request for reversal of the Board's decision.

Copies of previous correspondence from the Board denying the request to access or amend the record should also be attached, if possible.

(c) The Board reserves the right to dispose of correspondence concerning the request to access or amend a record if no request for review of the Board's decision is received within 180 days of the decision date. Therefore, a request for review received after 180 days may, at the discretion of the Privacy Act Officer, be treated as an initial request to access or amend a record.

[55 FR 18852, May 7, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 55331, Nov. 7, 1994; 77 FR 11384, Feb. 27, 2012]

§ 1630.14 Appeals process.

(a) Within 20 work days of receiving the request for review, the Executive Director will make a final determination on appeal. If a final decision cannot be made in 20 work days, the Privacy Act Officer will inform the requester of the reasons for the delay and the date on which a final decision can be expected. Such extensions are unusual, and should not exceed an additional 30 work days.

(b) If the original request was for access and the initial determination is reversed, the procedures in § 1630.7 will be followed. If the initial determination is upheld, the requester will be so informed and advised of the right to judicial review pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(g).

(c) If the initial denial of a request to amend a record is reversed, the Board or the record keeper will correct the record as requested and inform the individual of the correction. If the original decision is upheld, the requester will be informed and notified in writing of the right to judicial review pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(g) and the right to file a concise statement of disagreement with the Executive Director. The statement of disagreement should include an explanation of why the requester believes the record is inaccurate, irrelevant, untimely, or incomplete. The Executive Director shall maintain the statement of disagreement with the disputed record, and shall include a copy of the statement of disagreement to any person or agency to whom the record has been disclosed, if the disclosure was made pursuant to § 1630.9.

[55 FR 18852, May 7, 1990, as amended at 64 FR 67695, Dec. 3, 1999; 79 FR 68094, Nov. 14, 2014]

§ 1630.15 Exemptions.

(a) Pursuant to subsection (k) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, the Board may exempt certain portions of records within designated systems of records from the requirements of the Privacy Act, (including access to and review of such records pursuant to this part) if such portions are:

(1) Subject to the provisions of section 552(b)(1) of the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552;

(2) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes, other than material within the scope of subsection (j)(2) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a: Provided, however, that if any individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit that he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law, or for which he would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such material, such material shall be provided to such individual, except to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, or, prior to the effective date of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence;

(3) Maintained in connection with providing protective services to the President of the United States or other individuals pursuant to section 3056 of title 18 of the United States Code;

(4) Required by statute to be maintained and used solely as statistical records;

(5) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment, military service, Federal contracts, or access to classified information, but only to the extent that the disclosures of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, or, prior to the effective date of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence;

(6) Test or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service, the disclosure of which would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the testing or examination process; or

(7) Evaluation material used to determine potential for promotion in the armed services, but only to the extent that the disclosure of such material be held in confidence, or, prior to the effective date of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence.

(b) Those designated systems of records which are exempt from the requirements of subsections (c)(3); (d); (e)(1); (e)(4)(G), (H), (I); and (f) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, include FRTIB-2, Personnel Security Investigation Files; FRTIB-13, Fraud and Forgery Records; FRTIB-14, FRTIB Legal Case Files; FRTIB-15, Internal Investigations of Harassment and Hostile Work Environment Allegations; and FRTIB-23, Insider Threat Program Records.

(c) Nothing in this part will allow an individual access to any information compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding.

[55 FR 18852, May 7, 1990, as amended at 86 FR 58205, Oct. 21, 2021]

§ 1630.16 Fees.

(a) Individuals will not be charged for:

(1) The search and review of the record; and

(2) Copies of ten (10) or fewer pages of a requested record.

(b) Records of more than 10 pages will be photocopied for 15 cents a page. If the record is larger than 8 1/2 × 14 inches, the fee will be the cost of reproducing the record through Government or commercial sources.

(c) Fees must be paid in full before requested records are disclosed. Payment shall be by personal check or money order payable to the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board, and mailed or delivered to the record keeper or to the Privacy Act Officer, depending upon the nature of the request, at the address listed in § 1630.4.

(d) The Executive Director or the Privacy Act Officer may waive the fee if:

(1) The cost of collecting the fee exceeds the amount to be collected; or

(2) The production of the copies at no charge is in the best interest of the Board.

(e) A receipt will be furnished on request.

[55 FR 18852, May 7, 1990, as amended at 64 FR 67695, Dec. 3, 1999; 79 FR 68094, Nov. 14, 2014]

§ 1630.17 Federal agency requests.

Employing agencies needing automated data processing services from the Board in order to reconcile agency TSP records for TSP purposes may be charged rates based upon the factors of:

(a) Fair market value;

(b) Cost to the TSP; and

(c) Interests of the participants and beneficiaries.

§ 1630.18 Penalties.

(a) Title 18, U.S.C. 1001, Crimes and Criminal Procedures, makes it a criminal offense, subject to a maximum fine of $10,000 or imprisonment for not more than five years, or both, to knowingly and willfully make or cause to be made any false or fraudulent statements or representation in any matter within the jurisdiction of any agency of the United States. Section (i)(3) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(i)(3), makes it a misdemeanor, subject to a maximum fine of $5,000 to knowingly and willfully request or obtain any record concerning an individual under false pretenses. Sections (i) (1) and (2) of 5 U.S.C. 552a provide penalties for violations by agency employees of the Privacy Act or regulations established thereunder.

(b) [Reserved]

PART 1631 AVAILABILITY OF RECORDS

Source: 55 FR 41052, Oct. 9, 1990, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A Production or Disclosure of Records Under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 552.

§ 1631.1 Definitions.

(a) Board means the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board.

(b) Agency means agency as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(e).

(c) Executive Director means the Executive Director of the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 8401(13) and as further described in 5 U.S.C. 8474.

(d) FOIA means Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, as amended.

(e) FOIA Officer means the Board's General Counsel or his or her designee.

(f) General Counsel means the General Counsel of the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board.

(g) Working days or workdays means those days when the Board is open for the conduct of Government business, and does not include Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays.

(h) Requester means a person making a FOIA request.

(i) Submitter means any person or entity which provides confidential commercial information to the Board. The term includes, but is not limited to, corporations, state governments, and foreign governments.

(j) FOIA Public Liaison means the Board official who is responsible for assisting in reducing delays, increasing transparency and understanding of the status of requests, and assisting in the resolution of disputes.

(k) Requestor category means one of the three categories that agencies place requesters in for the purpose of determining whether a requester will be charged fees for search, review, and/or duplication, including:

(1) Commercial use requestors,

(2) Non-commercial scientific or educational institutions or news media requesters, and

(3) All other requestors.

(l) Fee waiver means the waiver or reduction of processing fees if a requester can demonstrate that certain statutory standards are satisfied including that the information is in the public interest and is not requested for a commercial interest.

[55 FR 41052, Oct. 9, 1990, as amended at 79 FR 68094, Nov. 14, 2014; 82 FR 24826, May 31, 2017]

§ 1631.2 Purpose and scope.

This subpart contains the regulations of the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board, implementing 5 U.S.C. 552. The regulations of this subpart describe the procedures by which records may be obtained from all organizational units within the Board and from its recordkeeper. Official records of the Board, except those already published in bulk by the Board, available pursuant to the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552 shall be furnished to members of the public only as prescribed by this subpart. To the extent that it is not prohibited by other laws the Board also will make available records which it is authorized to withhold under 5 U.S.C. 552 whenever it determines that such disclosure is in the interest of the Thrift Savings Plan.

§ 1631.3 Organization and functions.

(a) The Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board was established by the Federal Employees' Retirement System Act of 1986 (Pub. L. 99-335, 5 U.S.C. 8401 et seq.). Its primary function is to manage and invest the Thrift Savings Fund for the exclusive benefit of its participants (e.g., participating Federal employees, Federal judges, and Members of Congress). The Board is responsible for investment of the assets of the Thrift Savings Fund and the management of the Thrift Savings Plan. The Board consists of:

(1) The five part-time members who serve on the Board;

(2) The Office of the Executive Director;

(3) The Office of Participant Experience;

(4) The Office of General Counsel;

(5) The Office of Investments;

(6) The Office of Planning and Risk;

(7) The Office of External Affairs;

(8) The Office of Chief Financial Officer;

(9) The Office of Resource Management; and

(10) The Office of Technology Services.

(b) The Board has no field organization; however, it provides for its recordkeeping responsibility by contract or interagency agreement. The recordkeeper may be located outside of the Washington, DC area. Thrift Savings Plan records maintained for the Board by its recordkeeper are Board records subject to these regulations. Board offices are presently located at 77 K Street, NE., Suite 1000, Washington, DC 20002.

[55 FR 41052, Oct. 9, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 55331, Nov. 7, 1994; 77 FR 11384, Feb. 27, 2012; 79 FR 68094, Nov. 14, 2014; 87 FR 31680, May 24, 2022; 89 FR 19225, Mar. 18, 2024]

§ 1631.4 Proactive disclosure of Board records.

(a) Records that are required by the FOIA to be made available for public inspection and copying may be accessed through the Board's Web site at https://www.frtib.gov. The Board is responsible for determining which of its records are required to be made publicly available, as well as identifying additional records of interest to the public that are appropriate for public disclosure, and for posting and indexing such records. The Board shall ensure that its Web site of posted records and indices is reviewed and updated on an ongoing basis. The Board has a FOIA Public Liaison who can assist individuals in locating records particular to a component. The FOIA Public Liaison can be contacted at frtibfoialiaison@tsp.gov.

(b) The FOIA Officer shall maintain an index of Board regulations, directives, bulletins, and published materials.

(c) The FOIA officer shall also maintain a file open to the public, which shall contain copies of all grants or denials of FOIA requests, appeals, and appeal decisions by the Executive Director. The materials shall be filed by chronological number of request within each calendar year, indexed according to the exceptions asserted, and, to the extent feasible, indexed according to the type of records requested.

[55 FR 41052, Oct. 9, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 55331, 55332, Nov. 7, 1994; 63 FR 41708, Aug. 5, 1998; 77 FR 11384, Feb. 27, 2012; 79 FR 68094, Nov. 14, 2014; 82 FR 24826, May 31, 2017]

§ 1631.5 Records of other agencies.

Requests for records that originated in another agency and that are in the custody of the Board may, in appropriate circumstances, be referred to that agency for consultation or processing, and the requestor shall be notified of the part or parts of the request that have been referred and provided with a point of contact within the receiving agency.

[82 FR 24826, May 31, 2017]

§ 1631.6 How to request records—form and content.

(a) A request made under the FOIA may be submitted by one of the following methods:

(1) In writing addressed to FOIA Officer, Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board, 77 K Street NE., Suite 1000, Washington, DC 20002. The words “FOIA Request” should be clearly marked on both the letter and the envelope.

(2) By electronic mail at FOIAREQUEST@tsp.gov. The subject should include the words “FOIA Request.”

(3) By facsimile, Attn: FOIA Officer, at 202-942-1676. The facsimile should be clearly marked with the words “FOIA Request.”

(b) Each request must reasonably describe the record(s) sought, including, when known: Entity/individual originating the record, date, subject matter, type of document, location, and any other pertinent information which would assist in promptly locating the record(s). Each request should also describe the type of entity the requester is for fee purposes. See § 1631.11.

(c) When a request is not considered reasonably descriptive, or requires the production of voluminous records, or places an extraordinary burden on the Board, seriously interfering with its normal functioning to the detriment of the Thrift Savings Plan, the Board may require the person or agent making the FOIA request to confer with a Board representative in order to attempt to verify, and, if possible, narrow the scope of the request.

(d) Upon initial receipt of the FOIA request, the FOIA Officer will determine which official or officials within the Board shall have the primary responsibility for collecting and reviewing the requested information and drafting a proposed response.

(e) Any Board employee or official who receives a FOIA request shall promptly forward it to the FOIA Officer, at the above address. Any Board employee or official who receives an oral request for records shall inform the requestor that FOIA requires requests to be in writing according to the procedures set out herein.

(f) When a person requesting expedited access to records has demonstrated a compelling need, or when the Board has determined that it is appropriate to expedite its response, the Board will process the request ahead of other requests.

(g) To demonstrate compelling need in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section, the requester must submit a written statement that contains a certification that the information provided therein is true and accurate to the best of the requester's knowledge and belief. The statement must demonstrate that:

(1) The failure to obtain the record on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or

(2) The requester is a person primarily engaged in the dissemination of information, and there is an urgent need to inform the public concerning an actual or alleged Federal Government activity that is the subject of the request.

[55 FR 41052, Oct. 9, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 55331, Nov. 7, 1994; 63 FR 41708, Aug. 5, 1998; 77 FR 11384, Feb. 27, 2012; 77 FR 61229, Oct. 9, 2012; 82 FR 24826, May 31, 2017]

§ 1631.7 Initial determination.

The FOIA Officer shall have the authority to approve or deny requests received pursuant to these regulations. The decision of the FOIA Officer shall be final, subject only to administrative review as provided in § 1631.10.

§ 1631.8 Prompt response.

(a)(1) When the FOIA Officer receives a request for expedited processing, he or she will determine within 10 work days whether to process the request on an expedited basis.

(2) When the FOIA Officer receives a request for records which he or she, in good faith, believes is not reasonably descriptive, he or she will so advise the requester within 5 work days. The time limit for processing such a request will not begin until receipt of a request that reasonably describes the records being sought.

(b) The FOIA Officer will either approve or deny a reasonably descriptive request for records within 20 workdays after receipt of the request. Whenever the Board cannot meet the statutory time limit for processing a request because of “unusual circumstances,” as defined in the FOIA, and the Board extends the time limit on that basis, the Board must, before expiration of the 20-day period to respond, notify the requester in writing of the unusual circumstances involved and of the date by which the Board estimates processing of the request will be completed. Where the extension exceeds 10 working days, the Board must, as described by the FOIA, provide the requester with an opportunity to modify the request or arrange an alternative time period for processing the original or modified request through the Board's FOIA Public Liaison or FOIA Officer.

(c) When additional time is required for one of the reasons stated in paragraph (b) of this section, the FOIA Officer will extend this time period for an additional 10 work days by written notice to the requester. If the Board will be unable to process the request within this additional time period, the requester will be notified and given the opportunity to—

(1) Limit the scope of the request; or

(2) Arrange with the FOIA Officer an alternative time frame for processing the request.

[63 FR 41708, Aug. 5, 1998, as amended at 82 FR 24826, May 31, 2017]

§ 1631.9 Responses—form and content.

(a) When a requested record has been identified and is available, the FOIA officer shall notify the person making the request as to where and when the record is available for inspection or that copies will be made available. The notification shall also provide the requestor with an estimated amount of fees assessed under § 1631.13 of this part, including a breakdown of the fees for search, review, and/or duplication.

(b) A denial or partial denial of a request for a record shall be in writing signed by the FOIA Officer and shall include:

(1) The name and title of the person making the determination;

(2) A statement of fees assessed, if any; and

(3) A reference to the specific exemption under the FOIA authorizing the withholding of the record, and a brief explanation of how the exemption applies to the record withheld; or

(4) If appropriate, a statement that, after diligent effort, the requested records have not been found or have not been adequately examined during the time allowed by § 1631.8, and that the denial will be reconsidered as soon as the search or examination is complete; and

(5) A statement that the denial may be appealed to the Executive Director within 90 calendar days of receipt of the denial or partial denial, that the requestor has the option to contact the Agency's FOIA Liaison at frtibfoialiaison@tsp.gov, and that the requestor has the option to contact the Office of Government Information Service (OGIS) as a non-exclusive alternative to litigation.

(c) If, after diligent effort, existing requested records have not been found, or are known to have been destroyed or otherwise disposed of, the FOIA Officer shall so notify the requester.

[55 FR 41052, Oct. 9, 1990, as amended at 79 FR 68094, Nov. 14, 2014; 82 FR 24827, May 31, 2017]

§ 1631.10 Appeals to the Executive Director from initial denials.

(a) A requestor may appeal any adverse determinations to the Executive Director. The appeal must be made in writing and for it to be considered timely it must be postmarked, or in the case of electronic submissions, transmitted, within 90 calendar days of receipt of the denial or partial denial. The appeal should be addressed to the Executive Director, Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board, 77 K Street NE., Suite 1000, Washington, DC 20002, and should be clearly labeled as a “Freedom of Information Act Appeal.”

(b)(1) The Executive Director will act upon the appeal of a denial of a request for expedited processing within 5 work days of its receipt.

(2) The Executive Director will act upon the appeal of a denial of a request for records within 20 work days of its receipt.

(c) The Executive Director will decide the appeal in writing and mail the decision to the requester.

(d) If the appeal concerns an expedited processing request and the decision is in favor of the person making the request, the Executive Director will order that the request be processed on an expedited basis. If the decision concerning a request for records is in favor of the requester, the Executive Director will order that the subject records be promptly made available to the person making the request.

(e) If the appeal of a request for expedited processing of records is denied, in whole or in part, the Executive Director's decision will set forth the basis for the decision. If the appeal of a request for records is denied, in whole or in part, the Executive Director's decision will set forth the exemption relied on and a brief explanation of how the exemption applies to the records withheld and the reasons for asserting it, if different from the reasons described by the FOIA Officer under § 1631.9. The denial of a request for records will state that the person making the request may, if dissatisfied with the decision on appeal, file a civil action in Federal court. (A Federal court does not have jurisdiction to review a denial of a request for expedited processing after the Board has provided a complete response to the request.) The denial will also inform the requester of the mediation services offered by the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS) of the National Archives and Records Administration as a non-exclusive alternative to litigation. If the FOIA Officer's decision is remanded or modified on appeal, the requestor will be notified of that determination in writing.

(f) No personal appearance, oral argument, or hearing will ordinarily be permitted in connection with an appeal of a request for expedited processing or an appeal for records.

(g) On appeal of a request concerning records, the Executive Director may reduce any fees previously assessed.

(h) Seeking mediation and dispute resolution services through OGIS is a voluntary process. If the requestor chooses to use these services, the Board will work with OGIS to resolve disputes between requestors and the Board as a non-exclusive alternative to litigation.

(i) Before seeking review by a court of the FOIA Officer's adverse determination, a requestor generally must first submit a timely administrative appeal to the Executive Director.

[79 FR 68094, Nov. 14, 2014, as amended at 82 FR 24827, May 31, 2017]

§ 1631.11 Fees to be charged—categories of requesters.

(a) In general, the Board will charge for processing requests under the FOIA in accordance with the provisions of this section and with the OMB Guidelines. For purposes of assessing fees there are three categories of FOIA requestors—commercial use requestors, non-commercial scientific or educational institutions or news media requesters, and all other requestors.

(1) Fees shall be limited to reasonable standard charges for document search, duplication, and review, when records are requested for commercial use. Commercial users are not entitled to two hours of free search time or 100 free pages of reproduction of documents. The full allowable direct cost of searching for, and reviewing records will be charged even if there is ultimately no disclosure of records. A commercial use request is a request that asks for information for a use or a purpose that furthers a commercial, trade, or profit interest, which can include furthering those interests through litigation. The Board's decision to place a requester in the commercial use category will be made on a case-by-case basis based on the requester's intended use of the information. The Board will notify requesters of their placement in this category.

(2) Fees shall be limited to reasonable standard charges for document duplication when records are not sought for commercial use and the request is made by a representative of the news media. A representative of the news media is any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. The term “news” means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. The Board will advise requesters of their placement in this category.

(3) Fees shall be limited to reasonable standard charges for document duplication when records are not sought for commercial use and the request is made by an educational or noncommercial scientific institution, whose purpose is scholarly or scientific research. A noncommercial scientific institution is an institution that is not operated on a “commercial” basis, as defined in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and that is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry. A requester in this category must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are sought to further scientific research and are not for a commercial use. The Board will advise requesters of their placement in this category.

(4) For any request which does not meet the criteria contained in paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section, fees shall be limited to reasonable standard charges for document search and duplication, except that the first 100 pages of reproduction and the first two hours of search time will be furnished without charge. If computer search time is required, the first two hours of computer search time will be based on the hourly cost of operating the central processing unit and the operator's hourly salary plus 23.5 percent. When the cost of the computer search, including the operator time and the cost of operating the computer to process the request, equals the equivalent dollar amount of two hours of the salary of the person performing the search, i.e., the operator, the Board shall begin assessing charges for computer search. Requests from individuals requesting records about themselves filed in the Board's systems of records shall continue to be treated under the provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974, which permit fees only for reproduction. The Board's fee schedule is set out in § 1631.14 of this part.

(b) Except for requests that are for a commercial use, the Board may not charge for the first two hours of search time or for the first 100 pages of reproduction. However, a requestor may not file multiple requests at the same time, each seeking portions of a document or documents, solely in order to avoid payment of fees. When the Board believes that a requester or, on rare occasions, a group of requesters acting in concert, is attempting to break a request down into a series of requests for the purpose of evading the assessment of fees, the Board may aggregate any such requests and charge accordingly. For example, it would be reasonable to presume that multiple requests of this type made within a 30 calendar day period had been made to avoid fees. For requests made over a long period, however, the Board must have a reasonable basis for determining that aggregation is warranted in such cases. Before aggregating requests from more than one requester, the Board must have a reasonable basis on which to conclude that the requesters are acting in concert and are acting specifically to avoid payment of fees. In no case may the Board aggregate multiple requests on unrelated subjects from one requester.

(c) In accordance with the prohibition of section (4)(A)(iv) of the Freedom of Information Act, as amended, the Board shall not charge fees to any requester, including commercial use requesters, if the cost of collecting a fee would be equal to or greater than the fee itself.

(1) For commercial use requesters, if the direct cost of searching for, reviewing for release, and duplicating the records sought would not exceed $25, the Board shall not charge the requester any costs.

(2) For requests from representatives of news media or educational and noncommercial scientific institutions, excluding the first 100 pages which are provided at no charge, if the duplication cost would not exceed $25, the Board shall not charge the requester any costs.

(3) For all other requests not falling within the category of commercial use requests, representatives of news media, or educational and noncommercial scientific institutions, if the direct cost of searching for and duplicating the records sought, excluding the first two hours of search time and first 100 pages which are free of charge, would not exceed $25, the Board shall not charge the requester any costs.

(d) Except as provided in paragraphs (d)(1) through (d)(3) of this section, the Board will not assess any search fees (or duplication fees for requesters under (a)(2) or (3) of this section) if the Board fails to comply with the time limits set forth in § 1631.8.

(1) If the Board determines that “unusual circumstances,” as defined in the FOIA, apply and the Board provided a timely written notice to the requester in accordance with § 1631.8, the Board is excused for an additional 10 days from the restrictions of this section.

(2) If the Board has determined that unusual circumstances apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, the Board may charge search fees (or duplication fees for requesters under (a)(2) or (3) of this section) if the Board provided a timely written notice to the requester in accordance with § 1631.8 and the Board has discussed with the requester, or made not less than 3 good-faith attempts to do so, how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request.

(3) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined in the FOIA, the Agency's delay shall be excused in accordance with the court order.

[55 FR 41052, Oct. 9, 1990, as amended at 63 FR 41708, Aug. 5, 1998; 82 FR 24827, May 31, 2017]

§ 1631.12 Waiver or reduction of fees.

(a) The Board may waive all fees or levy a reduced fee when disclosure of the information requested is deemed to be in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the Board or Federal Government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. In making its decision on waiving or reducing fees, the Board will consider the following factors:

(1) Whether the subject of the requested records concerns the operations or activities of the Board or the Government,

(2) Whether the disclosure is likely to contribute to an understanding of Government operations or activities (including those of the Board),

(3) Whether the disclosure is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of TSP or Government operations or activities,

(4) Whether the requester has a commercial interest that would be furthered by the requested disclosure, and

(5) Whether the magnitude of the identified commercial interest of the requester is sufficiently large, in comparison with the public interest in disclosure, that disclosure is primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.

(b) A fee waiver request must indicate the existence and magnitude of any commercial interest that the requester has in the records that are the subject of the request.

§ 1631.13 Prepayment of fees over $250.

(a) When the Board estimates or determines that allowable charges that a requester may be required to pay are likely to exceed $250.00, the Board may require a requester to make an advance payment of the entire fee before continuing to process the request.

(b) When a requester has previously failed to pay a fee charged in a timely fashion (i.e., within 30 calendar days of the date of the billing), the Board may require the requester to pay the full amount owed plus any applicable interest as provided in § 1631.14(d), and to make an advance payment of the full amount of the estimated fee before the agency begins to process a new request or a pending request from that requester.

(c) When the Board acts under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, the administrative time limits prescribed in subsection (a)(6) of the FOIA (i.e., 20 working days from the receipt of initial requests and 20 working days from receipt of appeals from initial denial, plus permissible extensions of these time limits) will begin only after the Board has received fee payments under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section.

[55 FR 41052, Oct. 9, 1990, as amended at 63 FR 41709, Aug. 5, 1998]

§ 1631.14 Fee schedule.

(a) Manual searches for records. The Board will charge at the salary rate(s) plus 23.5 percent (to cover benefits) of the employee(s) conducting the search. The Board may assess charges for time spend searching, even if the Board fails to locate the records or if records located are determined to be exempt from disclosure.

(b) Computer searches for records. The Board will charge the actual direct cost of providing the service. This will include the cost of operating the central processing unit (CPU) for that portion of operating time that is directly attributable to searching for records responsive to a FOIA request and operator/programmer salary, plus 23.5 percent, apportionable to the search. The Board may assess charges for time spent searching, even if the Board fails to locate the records or if records located are determined to be exempt from disclosure.

(c) Duplication costs. (1) For copies of documents reproduced on a standard office copying machine in sizes up to 8 1/2 × 14 inches, the charge will be $.15 per page.

(2) The fee for reproducing copies of records over 8 1/2 × 14 inches, or whose physical characteristics do not permit reproduction by routine electrostatic copying, shall be the direct cost of reproducing the records through Government or commercial sources. If the Board estimates that the allowable duplication charges are likely to exceed $25, it shall notify the requester of the estimated amount of fees, unless the requester had indicated in advance his/her willingness to pay fees as those anticipated. Such a notice shall offer a requester the opportunity to confer with agency personnel with the objective of reformulating the request to meet his/her needs at a lower cost.

(3) For copies prepared by computer, such as tapes, printouts, or CD's the Board shall charge the actual cost, including operator time, of producing the tapes, printouts, or CD's. If the Board estimates that the allowable duplication charges are likely to exceed $25, it shall notify the requester of the estimated amount of fees, unless the requester has indicated in advance his/her willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated. Such a notice shall offer a requester the opportunity to confer with agency personnel with the objective of reformulating the request to meet his/her needs at a lower cost.

(4) For other methods of reproduction or duplication, the Board shall charge the actual direct costs of producing the document(s). If the Board estimates that the allowable duplication charges are likely to exceed $25, it shall notify the requester of the estimated amount of fees, unless the requester has indicated in advance his/her willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated. Such a notice shall offer a requester the opportunity to confer with agency personnel with the objective of reformulating the request to meet his/her needs at a lower cost.

(d) Interest may be charged to those requesters who fail to pay fees charged. The Board may begin assessing interest charges on the amount billed starting on the 31st calendar day following the day on which the billing was sent. Interest will be at the rate prescribed in section 3717 of title 31 of the United States Code, and it will accrue from the date of the billing.

(e) The Board shall use the most efficient and least costly methods to comply with requests for documents made under the FOIA. The Board may choose to contract with private sector services to locate, reproduce, and disseminate records in response to FOIA requests when that is the most efficient and least costly method. When documents responsive to a request are maintained for distribution by agencies operating statutory-based fee schedule programs, such as, but not limited to, the Government Printing Office or the National Technical Information Service, the Board will inform requesters of the steps necessary to obtain records from those sources.

[55 FR 41052, Oct. 9, 1990, as amended at 63 FR 41709, Aug. 5, 1998; 82 FR 24828, May 31, 2017]

§ 1631.15 Information to be disclosed.

(a) In general, all records of the Board are available to the public, as required by the Freedom of Information Act. However, the Board claims the right, where it is applicable, to withhold material under the provisions specified in the Freedom of Information Act as amended (5 U.S.C. 552(b)). Nevertheless, the Board will consider whether partial disclosure of information is possible whenever full disclosure of the record is not and take reasonable steps to segregate and release nonexempt information.

(b) Records from non-U.S. Government source. (1)(i) Board personnel will generally consider two of the nine exemptions in the FOIA in deciding whether to withhold from disclosure material from a non-U.S. Government source.

(ii) Exemption 4 permits withholding of “trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person as privileged or confidential.” The term “person” refers to individuals as well as to a wide range of entities, including corporations, banks, state governments, agencies of foreign governments, and Native American tribes or nations, who provide information to the government. Exemption 6 permits withholding certain information, the disclosure of which ”would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.”

(2)(i) Exemption 4. Commencing January 1, 1988, the submitter of confidential commercial information must, at the time the information is submitted to the Board or within 30 calendar days of such submission, designate any information the disclosure of which the submitter claims could reasonably be expected to cause substantial competitive harm. The submitter as part of its submission, must explain the rationale for the designation of the information as commercial and confidential.

(ii) Confidential commercial information means records provided to the Board by a submitter that arguably contains material exempt from release under Exemption 4 of the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4), because disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause substantial competitive harm.

(iii) After January 1, 1988, a submitter who does not designate portions of a submission as confidential commercial information waives that basis for nondisclosure unless the Board determines that it has substantial reason to believe that disclosure of the requested records would result in substantial harm to the competitive position of the submitter.

(3) When the Board determines that it has substantial reason to believe that disclosure of the requested records would result in substantial competitive harm to the submitter, and has no designation from the submitter, it shall notify the submitter of the following:

(i) That a FOIA request has been received seeking the record,

(ii) That disclosure of the record may be required,

(iii) That disclosure of the record could result in competitive harm to the submitter,

(iv) That the submitter has a period of seven workdays from date of notice within which it or a designee may object to the disclosure its records, and

(v) That a detailed explanation should be submitted setting forth all grounds as to why the disclosure would result in substantial competitive harm, such as, the general custom or usage in the business of the information in the record, the number and situation of the persons who have access to the record, the type and degree of risk of financial injury that release would cause, and the length of time the record needs to be kept confidential.

(4) In exceptional circumstances, the Board may extend by seven workdays the time for a submitter's response for good cause.

(5) The Board shall give careful consideration to all specified grounds for nondisclosure prior to making an administrative determination on the issue of competitive harm.

(6) Should the Board determine to disclose the requested records, it shall provide written notice to the submitter, explaining briefly why the submitter's objections were not sustained and setting forth the date for disclosure, which date may be less than 10 calendar days after the date of the letter to the submitter.

(7) A submitter who provided records to the Board prior to January 1, 1988, and did not designate which records contain confidential commercial information, shall be notified as provided in § 1631.15(b)(3). After making such notification, the Board will follow the procedures set forth in § 1631.15(b)(4)-(6).

(8) The Board will, as a general rule, look favorably upon recommendations for withholding information about ideas, methods, and processes that are unique; about equipment, materials, or systems that are potentially patentable; or about a unique use of equipment which is specifically outlined.

(9) The Board will not withhold information that is known through custom or usage in the relevant trade, business, or profession, or information that is generally known to any reasonably educated person. Self-evident statements or reviews of the general state of the art will not ordinarily be withheld.

(10) The Board will withhold all cost data submitted, except the total estimated costs from each year of a contract. It will release these total estimated costs and ordinarily release explanatory material and headings associated with the cost data, withholding only the figures themselves. If a contractor believes that some of the explanatory material should be withheld, that material must be identified and a justification be presented as to why it should not be released.

(11) Exemption 6. This exemption is not a blanket exemption for all personal information submitted by a non-U.S. Government source. The Board will balance the need to keep a person's private affairs from unnecessary public scrutiny with the public's right to information on Board records. As a general practice, the Board will release information about any person named in a contract itself or about any person who signed a contract as well as information given in a proposal about any officer of a corporation submitting that proposal. Depending upon the circumstances, the Board may release most information in resumes concerning employees, including education and experience. Efforts will be made to identify information that should be deleted and offerors are urged to point out such material for guidance. Any information in the proposal, such as the names of staff persons, which might, if released, constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy if released should be identified and a justification for non-release provided in order to receive proper consideration.

[55 FR 41052, Oct. 9, 1990, as amended at 82 FR 24828, May 31, 2017]

§ 1631.16 Exemptions.

The Freedom of Information Act exempts from all of its publication and disclosure requirements nine categories of records which are described in 5 U.S.C. 552(b). These categories include such matters as national defense and foreign policy information, investigatory files, internal procedures and communications, materials exempted from disclosure by other statutes, information given in confidence and matters involving personal privacy.

§ 1631.17 Deletion of exempted information.

Where requested records contain matters which are exempted under 5 U.S.C. 552(b) but which matters are reasonably segregable from the remainder of the records, they shall be disclosed by the Board with deletions. To each such record, the Board shall indicate, if technically feasible, the precise amount of information deleted and the exemption under which the deletion is made, at the place in the records where the deletion is made, unless including that indication would harm an interest protected by the exemption.

[82 FR 24828, May 31, 2017]

§ 1631.18 Annual report.

The Executive Director will submit annually, on or before February 1, a Freedom of Information report covering the preceding fiscal year to the Attorney General of the United States. The report will include matters required by 5 U.S.C. 552(e).

[63 FR 41709, Aug. 5, 1998]

§ 1631.19 Preservation of records.

(a) The Board must preserve all correspondence pertaining to the requests that it receives as well as copies of all requested records, until disposition or destruction is authorized by the Board's General Records Schedule of the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) or other NARA-approved records retention schedule.

(b) Materials that are identified as responsive to a FOIA request will not be disposed of or destroyed while the request or a related appeal of lawsuit is pending. This is true even if they would otherwise be authorized for disposition under the Board's General Records Schedule of NARA or other NARA-approved records schedule.

[82 FR 24828, May 31, 2017]

Subpart B Production in Response to Subpoenas or Demands of Courts or Other Authorities

Source: 85 FR 67266, Oct. 22, 2020.

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 301, 522, and 8474(b).

§ 1631.30 Applicability.

This subpart applies to demands and requests to a Board employee for factual or expert testimony relating to official information, or for production of official records or information, in legal proceedings in which neither the Board or nor the Board employee is a named party. However, it does not apply to:

(a) Demands upon, or requests for, a current Board employee to testify as to facts or events that are unrelated to his or her official duties or that are unrelated to the functions of the Board;

(b) Requests for the release of records under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, or the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552(a); and

(c) Congressional demands and requests for testimony of records.

§ 1631.31 Definitions.

Demand means a subpoena, or an order or other command of a court or other competent authority, for the production, disclosure, or release of records or for the appearance and testimony of a Board employee that is issued in a legal proceeding.

General Counsel means the General Counsel of the Board or his or her delegatee.

Legal proceeding means any matter before a court of law, administrative board or tribunal, commission, administrative law judge, hearing officer, or other body that conducts a legal or administrative proceeding. Legal proceeding includes all phases of litigation.

Board employee or employee means:

(1) Any current or former officer or employee of the Board;

(2) Any other individual hired through contractual agreement by or on behalf of the Board or who has performed or is performing services under such an agreement for the Board; and

(3) Any individual who served or is serving in any consulting or advisory capacity to the Board, whether formal or informal.

(4) Provided, that this definition does not include persons who are no longer employed by the Board and who are retained or hired as expert witnesses or who agree to testify about general matters available to the public, or matters with which they had no specific involvement or responsibility during their employment with the Board.

Records or official records and information mean:

(1) All documents and materials which are Board records under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552;

(2) All other documents and materials contained in Board files; and

(3) All other information or materials acquired by a Board employee in the performance of his or her official duties or because of his or her official status.

Request means any informal request, by whatever method, for the production of records and information or for testimony which has not been ordered by a court or other competent authority.

Testimony means any written or oral statements, including depositions, answers to interrogatories, affidavits, declarations, recorded interviews, and statements made by an individual in connection with a legal proceeding.

§ 1631.32 General prohibition.

No employee may produce official records and information or provide any testimony relating to official information in response to a demand or request without the prior, written approval of the General Counsel.

§ 1631.33 Factors the General Counsel will consider.

(a) The General Counsel, in his or her sole discretion, may grant an employee permission to testify on matters relating to official information, or produce official records and information, in response to an appropriate demand or request. Among the relevant factors that the General Counsel may consider in making this decision are whether:

(1) Allowing such testimony or production of records would assist or hinder the Board in performing its statutory duties or use Board resources in a way that will interfere with the ability of Board employees to do their regular work;

(2) Allowing such testimony or production of records would be in the best interest of Thrift Savings Plan participants and beneficiaries;

(3) The records or testimony can be obtained from other sources;

(4) The Board has an interest in the decision that may be rendered in the legal proceeding;

(5) The demand improperly seeks to compel a Board employee to serve as an expert witness for a private interest;

(6) The demand improperly seeks to compel a Board employee to testify as to a matter of law;

(7) Disclosure would result in the Board appearing to favor one private litigant over another private litigant;

(8) Disclosure relates to documents that were produced by another government agency; and

(9) The demand or request is unduly burdensome or otherwise inappropriate under the applicable rules of discovery or the rules of procedure governing the case or matter in which the demand or request arose.

(b) The factors listed in paragraph (a) of this section are illustrative and not exhaustive.

§ 1631.34 Filing requirements for demands or requests for testimony.

You must comply with the following requirements whenever you send a demand or request for testimony to the Board or a Board employee. If you serve a subpoena on the Board or a Board employee that is not accompanied by a written request that complies with the requirements in this section, the General Counsel may oppose the subpoena on grounds that your request was not submitted in accordance with this subpart.

(a) Your request must be in writing and must contain the following information:

(1) The caption of the legal proceeding, docket number, and name and address of the court or other authority involved.

(2) A copy of the complaint or equivalent document setting forth the assertions in the case and any other pleading or document necessary to show relevance;

(3) A specific description of the substance of the testimony sought;

(4) A statement indicating that the information sought is not available from another source, from other persons or entities, or from the testimony of someone other than a Board employee, such as a retained expert;

(5) An explanation as to why no document could be provided and used in lieu of testimony;

(6) If oral testimony is sought, an explanation as to why a written declaration or affidavit cannot be used in lieu of oral testimony;

(7) A description of all prior decisions, orders, or pending motions in the case that bear upon the relevance of the requested testimony;

(8) The name, address, and telephone number of counsel to each party in the case; and

(9) An estimate of the amount of time that the requester and other parties will require with each Board employee for time spent by the employee to prepare for testimony, in travel, and for attendance in the legal proceeding.

(b) The Board reserves the right to require additional information to complete your request where appropriate.

(c) Your request should be submitted at least 45 days before the date that the testimony is required. Requests submitted in less than 45 days before testimony is required must be accompanied by a written explanation stating the reasons for the late request and the reasons for requesting expedited processing.

(d) Failure to cooperate in good faith to enable the General Counsel to make an informed decision may serve as the basis for a determination not to comply with your request.

§ 1631.35 Certification (authentication) of copies of records.

The Board may certify that copies of records are true copies in order to facilitate their use as evidence. The records custodian or other qualified individual shall certify copies of books, records, papers, writings, and documents by attaching a written declaration that complies with current Federal Rules of Evidence. No seal or notarization shall be required.

§ 1631.36 Fees.

(a) Generally. The Board may condition the production, disclosure, or release of records or the appearance and testimony of a Board employee upon advance payment of a reasonable estimate of the costs to the Board.

(b) Fees for records. Fees for the production, disclosure, or release of records are the same as those charged by the Board in its Freedom of Information Act regulations in subpart A of this part.

(c) Fees for oral testimony. Fees for attendance by a witness will include fees, expenses, and allowances prescribed by the court's rules. If no such fees are prescribed, witness fees will be determined based upon the rule of the Federal district court closest to the location where the witness will appear. Such fees will include cost of time spent by the witness to prepare for testimony, in travel, and for attendance in the legal proceeding.

(d) Fees for written testimony. For time spent by each employee preparing affidavits or declarations (including declarations to authenticate records), the Board may assess charges at the rate described in § 1631.14(a).

Subpart C Administrative Subpoenas

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 8480.

Source: 75 FR 8796, Feb. 26, 2010, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1631.40 Subpoena authority.

The Executive Director or General Counsel may issue subpoenas pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 8480. The General Counsel may delegate this authority to a Deputy General Counsel, Associate General Counsel, or Assistant General Counsel.

§ 1631.41 Production of records.

A subpoena may require the production of designated books, documents, records, electronically stored information, or tangible materials in the possession or control of the subpoenaed party when the individual signing the subpoena has determined that production is necessary to carry out any of the Agency's functions.

§ 1631.42 Service.

(a) Return of service. Each subpoena shall be accompanied by a Return of Service certificate stating the date and manner of service and the names of the persons served.

(b) Methods of service. Subpoenas shall be served by one of the following methods:

(1) Certified or registered mail, return receipt requested to the principal place of business or the last known residential address of the subpoenaed party.

(2) Fax or electronic transmission to the subpoenaed party or the subpoenaed party's counsel, provided the subpoenaed party gives prior approval.

(3) Personal delivery at the principal place of business or residence of the subpoenaed party during normal business hours.

§ 1631.43 Enforcement.

Upon the failure of any party to comply with a subpoena, the General Counsel shall request that the Attorney General seek enforcement of the subpoena in the appropriate United States district court.

PART 1632 RULES REGARDING PUBLIC OBSERVATION OF MEETINGS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 552b and 5 U.S.C. 8474.

Source: 53 FR 36777, Sept. 22, 1988, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1632.1 Purpose and scope.

This part is issued by the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board (Board) under section 552b of title 5 of the United States Code, the Government in the Sunshine Act, to carry out the policy of the Act that the public is entitled to the fullest practicable information regarding the decision making processes of the Board while at the same time preserving the rights of individuals and the ability of the Board to carry out its responsibilities. These regulations fulfill the requirement of subsection (g) of the Act that each agency subject to the provisions of the Act shall promulgate regulations to implement the open meeting requirements of subsections (b) through (f) of the Act.

§ 1632.2 Definitions.

For purposes of this part, the following definitions shall apply:

(a) The term Act means the Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b.

(b) The term Board means the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board and subdivisions thereof.

(c) The term meeting means the deliberations of at least the number of individual agency members required to take action on behalf of the Board where such deliberations determine or result in the joint conduct or disposition of official Board business. However, this term does not include—

(1) Deliberations required or permitted by subsection (d) or (e) of the Act (relating to decisions to close all or a portion of a meeting, or to decisions on the timing or content of an announcement of a meeting), or

(2) The conduct or disposition of official agency business by circulating written material to individual members.

(d) The term number of individual agency members required to take action on behalf of the agency means three members.

(e) The term member means a member of the Board appointed under section 101 of the Federal Employees' Retirement System Act of 1986, 5 U.S.C. 8472.

(f) The term public observation means that the public shall have the right to listen and observe but not the right to participate in the meeting or to record any of the meeting by means of cameras or electronic or other recording devices unless approval in advance is obtained from the Secretary of the Board.

§ 1632.3 Conduct of agency business.

Members shall not jointly conduct or dispose of official Board business other than in accordance with this part.

§ 1632.4 Meetings open to public observation.

(a) Except as provided in § 1632.5 of this part, every portion of every meeting of the agency shall be open to public observation.

(b) The Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, and the Board's implementing regulations, 5 CFR part 1611, shall govern the availability to the public of copies of documents considered in connection with the Board's discussion of agenda items for a meeting that is open to public observation.

(c) The annual Board meeting schedule will be maintained on frtib.gov. In addition, agency announcements of meetings open to public observation will be published in the Federal Register. Requests for announcements may be made by telephoning or by writing to the Office of External Affairs, Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board, 77 K Street NE, Suite 1000, Washington, DC 20002.

[53 FR 36777, Sept. 22, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 55331, Nov. 7, 1994; 77 FR 11384, Feb. 27, 2012; 85 FR 12432, Mar. 3, 2020]

§ 1632.5 Exemptions.

(a) Except in a case where the Board finds that the public interest requires otherwise, the Board may close a meeting or a portion or portions of a meeting under the procedures specified in § 1632.7 or § 1632.8 of this part, and withhold information under the provisions of §§ 1632.6, 1632.7, 1632.8, or 1632.11 of this part, where the Board properly determines that such meeting or portion of its meeting or the disclosure of such information is likely to:

(1) Disclose matters that are:

(i) Specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive Order to be kept secret in the interests of national defense or foreign policy, and

(ii) In fact properly classified pursuant to such Executive Order;

(2) Relate solely to internal personnel rules and practices;

(3) Disclose matters specifically exempted from disclosure by statute (other than section 552 of title 5 of the United States Code), provided that such statute:

(i) Requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue, or

(ii) Established particular criteria for withholding or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld;

(4) Disclose trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential;

(5) Involve accusing any person of a crime, or formally censuring any person;

(6) Disclose information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;

(7) Disclose investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes, or information which if written would be contained in such records, but only to the extent that the production of such records or information would:

(i) Interfere with enforcement proceedings,

(ii) Deprive a person of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication,

(iii) Constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy,

(iv) Disclose the identity of a confidential source and, in the case of a record compiled by a criminal law enforcement authority in the course of a criminal investigation, or by a Federal agency conducting a lawful national security intelligence investigation, confidential information furnished only by the confidential source,

(v) Disclose investigative techniques and procedures, or

(vi) Endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel;

(8) Disclose information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by or on behalf of, or for the use of the Board or other Federal agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions;

(9) Disclose information the premature disclosure of which would:

(i) Be likely to (A) lead to significant speculation in currencies, securities, or commodities, or (B) significantly endanger the stability of any financial institution; or

(ii) Be likely to significantly frustrate implementation of a proposed action except that paragraph (a)(9)(ii) of this section shall not apply in any instance where the Board has already disclosed to the public the content or nature of its proposed action, or where the Board is required by law to make such disclosure on its own initiative prior to taking final action on such proposal; or

(10) Specifically concern the issuance of a subpoena, participation in a civil action or proceeding, an action in a foreign court or international tribunal, or an arbitration, or the initiation, conduct, or disposition of a particular case of formal agency adjudication pursuant to the procedures in section 554 of title 5 of the United States Code or otherwise involving a determination on the record after opportunity for a hearing.

(b) [Reserved]

§ 1632.6 Public announcement of meetings.

(a) Except as otherwise provided by the Act, public announcement of meetings open to public observation and meetings to be partially or completely closed to public observation pursuant to § 1632.7 of this part will be made at least one week in advance of the meeting. Except to the extent such information is determined to be exempt from disclosure under § 1632.5 of this part, each such public announcement will state the time, place and subject matter of the meeting, whether it is to be open or closed to the public, and the name and phone number of the official designated to respond to requests for information about the meeting.

(b) If a majority of the members of the Board determines by a recorded vote that Board business requires that a meeting covered by paragraph (a) of this section be called at a date earlier than that specified in paragraph (a) of this section, the Board shall make a public announcement of the information specified in paragraph (a) of this section at the earliest practicable time.

(c) Changes in the subject matter of a publicly announced meeting, or in the determination to open or close a publicly announced meeting or any portion of a publicly announced meeting to public observation, or in the time or place of a publicly announced meeting made in accordance with the procedures specified in § 1632.9 of this part, will be publicly announced at the earliest practicable time.

(d) Public announcements required by this section will be posted at the Board's External Affairs Office and may be made available by other means or at other locations as may be desirable.

(e) Immediately following each public announcement required by this section, notice of the time, place and subject matter of a meeting, whether the meeting is open or closed, any change in one of the preceding announcements and the name and telephone number of the official designated by the Board to respond to requests about the meeting, shall also be submitted for publication in the Federal Register.

§ 1632.7 Meetings closed to public observation.

(a) A meeting or a portion of a meeting will be closed to public observation, or information as to such meeting or portion of a meeting will be withheld, only by recorded vote of a majority of the Members of the Board when it is determined that the meeting or the portion of the meeting or the withholding of information qualifies for exemption under § 1632.5. Votes by proxy are not allowed.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a separate vote of the Members of the Board will be taken with respect to the closing or the withholding of information as to each meeting or portion thereof which is proposed to be closed to public observation or with respect to which information is proposed to be withheld pursuant to this section.

(c) A single vote may be taken with respect to a series of meetings, a portion or portions of which are proposed to be closed to public observation or with respect to any information concerning such series of meetings proposed to be withheld, so long as each meeting or portion thereof in such series involves the same particular matters and is scheduled to be held no more than thirty days after the initial meeting in such series.

(d) Whenever any person's interests may be directly affected by a portion of the meeting for any of the reasons referred to in exemption (a)(5), (a)(6) or (a)(7) of § 1632.5 of this part, such person may request in writing to the Secretary of the Board that such portion of the meeting be closed to public observation. The Secretary, or in his or her absence, the Acting Secretary of the Board, shall transmit the request to the members and upon the request of any one of them a recorded vote shall be taken whether to close such meeting to public observation.

(e) Within one day of any vote taken pursuant to paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section, the agency will make publicly available at the Board's External Affairs Office a written copy of such vote reflecting the vote of each member on the question. If a meeting or a portion of a meeting is to be closed to public observation, the Board, within one day of the vote taken pursuant to paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section, will make publicly available at the Board's External Affairs Office a full written explanation of its action closing the meeting or portion of the meeting together with a list of all persons expected to attend the meeting and their affiliation, except to the extent such information is determined by the Board to be exempt from disclosure under subsection (c) of the Act and § 1632.5 of this part.

(f) Any person may request in writing to the Secretary of the Board that an announced closed meeting, or portion of the meeting, be held open to public observation. The Secretary, or in his or her absence, the Acting Secretary of the Board, will transmit the request to the members of the Board and upon the request of any member a recorded vote will be taken whether to open such meeting to public observation.

§ 1632.8 Changes with respect to publicly announced meetings.

The subject matter of a meeting or the determination to open or close a meeting or a portion of a meeting to public observation may be changed following public announcement under § 1632.6 only if a majority of the Members of the Board determines by a recorded vote that that agency business so requires and that no earlier announcement of the change was possible. Public announcement of such change and the vote of each member upon such change will be made pursuant to § 1632.6(c). Changes in time, including postponements and cancellations of a publicly announced meeting or portion of a meeting or changes in the place of a publicly announced meeting will be publicly announced pursuant to § 1632.6(c) by the Secretary of the Board or, in the Secretary's absence, the Acting Secretary of the Board.

§ 1632.9 Certification of General Counsel.

Before every meeting or portion of a meeting closed to public observation under § 1632.7 of this part, the General Counsel, or in the General Counsel's absence, the Acting General Counsel, shall publicly certify whether or not in his or her opinion the meeting may be closed to public observation and shall state each relevant exemptive provision. A copy of such certification, together with a statement from the presiding officer of the meeting setting forth the time and place of the meeting and the persons present, will be retained for the time prescribed in § 1632.10(d).

§ 1632.10 Transcripts, recordings, and minutes.

(a) The Board will maintain a complete transcript or electronic recording or transcription thereof adequate to record fully the proceedings of each meeting or portion of a meeting closed to public observation pursuant to exemption (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), (a)(5), (a)(6), (a)(7), or (a)(9)(ii) of § 1632.5 of this part. Transcriptions of recordings will disclose the identity of each speaker.

(b) The Board will maintain either such a transcript, recording or transcription thereof, or a set of minutes that will fully and clearly describe all matters discussed and provide a full and accurate summary of any actions taken and the reasons therefor, including a description of each of the views expressed on any item and the record of any roll call vote (reflecting the vote of each member on the question), for meetings or portions of meetings closed to public observation pursuant to exemptions (a)(8), (a)(9)(i)(A) or (a)(10) of § 1632.5 of this part. The minutes will identify all documents considered in connection with any action taken.

(c) Transcripts, recordings or transcriptions thereof, or minutes will promptly be made available to the public in the External Affairs Office except for such item or items of such discussion or testimony as may be determined to contain information that may be withheld under subsection (c) of the Act and § 1632.5 of this part. These documents, disclosing the identity of each speaker, shall be furnished to any person at the actual cost of duplication or transcription.

(d) A complete verbatim copy of the transcript, a complete copy of the minutes, or a complete electronic recording or verbatim copy of a transcription thereof of each meeting or portion of a meeting closed to public observation will be maintained for a period of at least two years, or one year after the conclusion of any Board proceeding with respect to which the meeting or portion thereof was held, whichever occurs later.

§ 1632.11 Procedures for inspection and obtaining copies of transcriptions and minutes.

(a) Any person may inspect or copy a transcript, a recording or transcription, or minutes described in § 1632.10(c) of this part.

(b) Requests for copies of transcripts, recordings or transcriptions of recordings, or minutes described in § 1632.10(c) of this part shall specify the meeting or the portion of meeting desired and shall be submitted in writing to the Secretary of the Board, Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board, 77 K Street, NE., Suite 1000, Washington, DC 20002. Copies of documents identified in minutes may be made available to the public upon request under the provisions of 5 CFR part 1630 (the Board's Freedom of Information Act regulations).

[53 FR 36777, Sept. 22, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 55331, Nov. 7, 1994; 77 FR 11384, Feb. 27, 2012]

PART 1633 STANDARDS OF CONDUCT

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 7301.

§ 1633.1 Cross-reference to employee ethical conduct standards and financial disclosure regulations.

Employees of the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board (Board) are subject to the executive branch-wide Standards of Ethical conduct at 5 CFR part 2635, the Board regulations at 5 CFR part 8601 which supplement the executive branch-wide standards, and the executive branch-wide financial disclosure regulations at 5 CFR part 2634.

[59 FR 50817, Oct. 6, 1994]

PART 1636 ENFORCEMENT OF NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF HANDICAP IN PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES CONDUCTED BY THE FEDERAL RETIREMENT THRIFT INVESTMENT BOARD

Authority: 29 U.S.C. 794.

Source: 58 FR 57696, 57699, Oct. 26, 1993, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1636.101 Purpose.

The purpose of this part is to effectuate section 119 of the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, which amended section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to prohibit discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies or the United States Postal Service.

§ 1636.102 Application.

This part (§§ 1636.101-1636.170) applies to all programs or activities conducted by the agency, except for programs or activities conducted outside the United States that do not involve individuals with handicaps in the United States.

§ 1636.103 Definitions.

For purposes of this part, the term—

Assistant Attorney General means the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice.

Auxiliary aids means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by the agency. For example, auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired vision include readers, Brailled materials, audio recordings, and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TTD's), interpreters, notetakers, written materials, and other similar services and devices.

Complete complaint means a written statement that contains the complainant's name and address and describes the agency's alleged discriminatory action in sufficient detail to inform the agency of the nature and date of the alleged violation of section 504. It shall be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Complaints filed on behalf of classes or third parties shall describe or identify (by name, if possible) the alleged victims of discrimination.

Facility means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, rolling stock or other conveyances, or other real or personal property.

Historic preservation programs means programs conducted by the agency that have preservation of historic properties as a primary purpose.

Historic properties means those properties that are listed or eligible for listing in the National Register of Historic Places or properties designated as historic under a statute of the appropriate State or local government body.

Individual with handicaps means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment. As used in this definition, the phrase:

(1) Physical or mental impairment includes—

(i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: Neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or

(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. The term “physical or mental impairment” includes, but is not limited to, such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness, HIV disease (whether symptomatic or asymptomatic), and drug addiction and alcoholism.

(2) Major life activities include functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working.

(3) Has a record of such an impairment means has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.

(4) Is regarded as having an impairment means—

(i) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by the agency as constituting such a limitation;

(ii) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or

(iii) Has none of the impairments defined in paragraph (1) of this definition but is treated by the agency as having such an impairment.

Qualified individual with handicaps means—

(1) With respect to preschool, elementary, or secondary education services provided by the agency, an individual with handicaps who is a member of a class of persons otherwise entitled by statute, regulation, or agency policy to receive education services from the agency;

(2) With respect to any other agency program or activity under which a person is required to perform services or to achieve a level of accomplishment, an individual with handicaps who meets the essential eligibility requirements and who can achieve the purpose of the program or activity without modifications in the program or activity that the agency can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature;

(3) With respect to any other program or activity, an individual with handicaps who meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity; and

(4) Qualified handicapped person as that term is defined for purposes of employment in 29 CFR 1614.203(a)(6), which is made applicable to this part by § 1636.140.

Section 504 means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394 (29 U.S.C. 794)), as amended. As used in this part, section 504 applies only to programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies and not to federally assisted programs.

Substantial impairment means a significant loss of the integrity of finished materials, design quality, or special character resulting from a permanent alteration.

§§ 1636.104-1636.109 [Reserved]

§ 1636.110 Self-evaluation.

(a) The agency shall, by November 28, 1994, evaluate its current policies and practices, and the effects thereof, that do not or may not meet the requirements of this part and, to the extent modification of any such policies and practices is required, the agency shall proceed to make the necessary modifications.

(b) The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including individuals with handicaps or organizations representing individuals with handicaps, to participate in the self-evaluation process by submitting comments (both oral and written).

(c) The agency shall, for at least three years following completion of the self-evaluation, maintain on file and make available for public inspection:

(1) A description of areas examined and any problems identified; and

(2) A description of any modifications made.

§ 1636.111 Notice.

The agency shall make available to employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons such information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the programs or activities conducted by the agency, and make such information available to them in such manner as the head of the agency finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by section 504 and this part.

§§ 1636.112-1636.129 [Reserved]

§ 1636.130 General prohibitions against discrimination.

(a) No qualified individual with handicaps shall, on the basis of handicap, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency.

(b)(1) The agency, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of handicap—

(i) Deny a qualified individual with handicaps the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service;

(ii) Afford a qualified individual with handicaps an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others;

(iii) Provide a qualified individual with handicaps with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in according equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others;

(iv) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to individuals with handicaps or to any class of individuals with handicaps than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified individuals with handicaps with aid, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others;

(v) Deny a qualified individual with handicaps the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards;

(vi) Otherwise limit a qualified individual with handicaps in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service.

(2) The agency may not deny a qualified individual with handicaps the opportunity to participate in programs or activities that are no separate or different, despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs or activities.

(3) The agency may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration the purpose or effect of which would—

(i) Subject qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap; or

(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with handicaps.

(4) The agency may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would—

(i) Exclude individuals with handicaps from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency; or

(ii) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with handicaps.

(5) The agency, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap.

(6) The agency may not administer a licensing or certification program in a manner that subjects qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap, nor may the agency establish requirements for the programs or activities of licensees or certified entities that subject qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap. However, the programs or activities of entities that are licensed or certified by the agency are not, themselves, covered by this part.

(c) The exclusion of nonhandicapped persons from the benefits of a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to individuals with handicaps or the exclusion of a specific class of individuals with handicaps from a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to a different class of individuals with handicaps is not prohibited by this part.

(d) The agency shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified individuals with handicaps.

§§ 1636.131-1636.139 [Reserved]

§ 1636.140 Employment.

No qualified individual with handicaps shall, on the basis of handicap, be subjected to discrimination in employment under any program or activity conducted by the agency. The definitions, requirements, and procedures of section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791), as established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1614, shall apply to employment in federally conducted programs or activities.

§§ 1636.141-1636.148 [Reserved]

§ 1636.149 Program accessibility: Discrimination prohibited.

Except as otherwise provided in § 1636.150, no qualified individual with handicaps shall, because the agency's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by individuals with handicaps, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency.

§ 1636.150 Program accessibility: Existing facilities.

(a) General. The agency shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps. This paragraph does not—

(1) Necessarily require the agency to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps;

(2) In the case of historic preservation programs, require the agency to take any action that would result in a substantial impairment of significant historic features of an historic property; or

(3) Require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 1636.150(a) would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that individuals with handicaps receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.

(b) Methods—(1) General. The agency may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps. The agency is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section. The agency, in making alterations to existing buildings, shall meet accessibility requirements to the extent compelled by the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), and any regulations implementing it. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the agency shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified individuals with handicaps in the most integrated setting appropriate.

(2) Historic preservation programs. In meeting the requirements of § 1636.150(a) in historic preservation programs, the agency shall give priority to methods that provide physical access to individuals with handicaps. In cases where a physical alteration to an historic property is not required because of § 1636.150(a)(2) or (a)(3), alternative methods of achieving program accessibility include—

(i) Using audio-visual materials and devices to depict those portions of an historic property that cannot otherwise be made accessible;

(ii) Assigning persons to guide individuals with handicaps into or through portions of historic properties that cannot otherwise be made accessible; or

(iii) Adopting other innovative methods.

(c) Time period for compliance. The agency shall comply with the obligations established under this section by January 24, 1994, except that where structural changes in facilities are undertaken, such changes shall be made by November 26, 1996, but in any event as expeditiously as possible.

(d) Transition plan. In the event that structural changes to facilities will be undertaken to achieve program accessibility, the agency shall develop, by May 26, 1994, a transition plan setting forth the steps necessary to complete such changes. The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including individuals with handicaps or organizations representing individuals with handicaps, to participate in the development of the transition plan by submitting comments (both oral and written). A copy of the transition plan shall be made available for public inspection. The plan shall, at a minimum—

(1) Identify physical obstacles in the agency's facilities that limit the accessibility of its programs or activities to individuals with handicaps;

(2) Describe in detail the methods that will be used to make the facilities accessible;

(3) Specify the schedule for taking the steps necessary to achieve compliance with this section and, if the time period of the transition plan is longer than one year, identify steps that will be taken during each year of the transition period; and

(4) Indicate the official responsible for implementation of the plan.

§ 1636.151 Program accessibility: New construction and alterations.

Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of the agency shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps. The definitions, requirements, and standards of the Architectural Barriers Act (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), as established in 41 CFR 101-19.600 to 101-19.607, apply to buildings covered by this section.

§§ 1636.152-1636.159 [Reserved]

§ 1636.160 Communications.

(a) The agency shall take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with applicants, participants, personnel of other Federal entities, and members of the public.

(1) The agency shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids where necessary to afford an individual with handicaps an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a program or activity conducted by the agency.

(i) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the agency shall give primary consideration to the requests of the individual with handicaps.

(ii) The agency need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature.

(2) Where the agency communicates with applicants and beneficiaries by telephone, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's) or equally effective telecommunication systems shall be used to communicate with persons with impaired hearing.

(b) The agency shall ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities.

(c) The agency shall provide signage at a primary entrance to each of its inaccessible facilities, directing users to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility.

(d) This section does not require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 1636.160 would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action required to comply with this section would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, individuals with handicaps receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.

§§ 1636.161-1636.169 [Reserved]

§ 1636.170 Compliance procedures.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section applies to all allegations of discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs and activities conducted by the agency.

(b) The agency shall process complaints alleging violations of section 504 with respect to employment according to the procedures established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1614 pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791).

(c) The Assistant General Counsel (Administration) shall be responsible for coordinating implementation of this section. Complaints may be sent to the Executive Director.

(d) The agency shall accept and investigate all complete complaints for which it has jurisdiction. All complete complaints must be filed within 180 days of the alleged act of discrimination. The agency may extend this time period for good cause.

(e) If the agency receives a complaint over which it does not have jurisdiction, it shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate Government entity.

(f) The agency shall notify the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board upon receipt of any complaint alleging that a building or facility that is subject to the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), is not readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps.

(g) Within 180 days of the receipt of a complete complaint for which it has jurisdiction, the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter containing—

(1) Findings of fact and conclusions of law;

(2) A description of a remedy for each violation found; and

(3) A notice of the right to appeal.

(h) Appeals of the findings of fact and conclusions of law or remedies must be filed by the complainant within 90 days of receipt from the agency of the letter required by § 1636.170(g). The agency may extend this time for good cause.

(i) Timely appeals shall be accepted and processed by the head of the agency.

(j) The head of the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within 60 days of the receipt of the request. If the head of the agency determines that additional information is needed from the complainant, he or she shall have 60 days from the date of receipt of the additional information to make his or her determination on the appeal.

(k) The time limits cited in paragraphs (g) and (j) of this section may be extended with the permission of the Assistant Attorney General.

(l) The agency may delegate its authority for conducting complaint investigations to other Federal agencies, except that the authority for making the final determination may not be delegated to another agency.

[58 FR 57696, 57699, Oct. 26, 1993, as amended at 58 FR 57697, Oct. 26, 1993]

§§ 1636.171-1636.999 [Reserved]

PART 1639 CLAIMS COLLECTION

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 8474 and 31 U.S.C. 3711, 3716, 3720A, and 3720D.

Source: 62 FR 49417, Sept. 22, 1997, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A Administrative Collection, Compromise, Termination, and Referral of Claims

§ 1639.1 Authority.

The regulations of this part are issued under 5 U.S.C. 8474 and 31 U.S.C. 3711, 3716, 3720A, and 3720D.

[79 FR 22594, Apr. 23, 2014]

§ 1639.2 Application of other regulations; scope.

All provisions of the Federal Claims Collection Standards, 4 CFR chapter II, apply to the regulations of this part. This part supplements 4 CFR chapter II by the prescription of procedures and directives necessary and appropriate for operations of the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board. The Federal Claims Collection Standards and this part do not apply to any claim as to which there is an indication of fraud or misrepresentation, as described in 4 CFR 101.3, unless returned by the Department of Justice to the Board for handling.

§ 1639.3 Application to other statutes.

(a) The Executive Director may exercise his or her compromise authority for those debts not exceeding $100,000, excluding interest, in conformity with the Federal Claims Collection Act of 1966, the Federal Claims Collection Standards issued thereunder, and this part, except where standards are established by other statutes or authorized regulations issued pursuant to them.

(b) The authority of the Executive Director of the Board to remit or mitigate a fine, penalty, or forfeiture will be exercised in accordance with the standards for remission or mitigation established in the governing statute. In the absence of such standards, the Federal Claims Collection Standards will be followed to the extent applicable.

§ 1639.4 Definitions.

As used in this part:

Administrative offset, as defined in 31 U.S.C. 3701(a)(1), means withholding funds payable by the United States (including funds payable to the United States on behalf of a State government) to, or held by the United States for, a person to satisfy a debt owed to the United States.

Agency means executive departments and agencies, the United States Postal Service, the Postal Rate Commission, the United States Senate, the United States House of Representatives, and any court, court administrative office, or instrumentality in the judicial or legislative branches of the Government, and Government corporations.

Board means the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board, which administers the Thrift Savings Plan and the Thrift Savings Fund.

Certification means a written debt claim form received from a creditor agency which requests the paying agency to offset the salary of an employee.

Creditor agency means an agency of the Federal Government to which the debt is owed.

Debt means money owed by an individual to the United States including a debt owed to the Thrift Savings Fund or to a Federal agency, but does not include a Thrift Savings Plan loan.

Delinquent debt means a debt that has not been paid within the time limit prescribed by the Board.

Disposable pay means that part of current basic pay, special pay, incentive pay, retirement pay, retainer pay, or, in the case of an employee not entitled to basic pay, other authorized pay remaining after the deduction of any amount required by law to be withheld, excluding any garnishment under 5 CFR parts 581, 582. The Board will include the following deductions in determining disposable pay subject to salary offset:

(1) Federal Social Security and Medicare taxes;

(2) Federal, state, or local income taxes, but no more than would be the case if the employee claimed all dependents to which he or she is entitled and any additional amounts for which the employee presents evidence of a tax obligation supporting the additional withholding;

(3) Health insurance premiums;

(4) Normal retirement contributions as explained in 5 CFR 581.105(e);

(5) Normal life insurance premiums, excluding optional life insurance premiums; and

(6) Levies pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 5514(d).

Employee means a current employee of an agency, including a current member of the Armed Forces or Reserve of the Armed Forces of the United States.

Executive Director means the Executive Director of the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board, or his or her designee.

Federal Claims Collection Standards means the standards published at 4 CFR chapter II.

Hearing official means an individual responsible for conducting any hearing with respect to the existence or amount of a debt claimed, and rendering a decision on the basis of the hearing.

Net Assets Available for Thrift Savings Plan Benefits means all funds owed to Thrift Savings Plan participants and beneficiaries.

Notice of intent to offset or notice of intent means a written notice from a creditor agency to an employee which alleges that the employee owes a debt to the creditor agency and which apprises the employee of certain administrative rights.

Notice of salary offset means a written notice from the paying agency to an employee informing the employee that it has received a certification from a creditor agency and intends to begin salary offset.

Participant means any person with an account in the Thrift Savings Plan, or who would have an account but for an employing agency error.

Paying agency means the agency of the Federal Government which employs the individual who owes a debt to the United States. In some cases, the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board may be both the creditor agency and the paying agency.

Payroll office means the payroll office in the paying agency which is primarily responsible for the payroll records and the coordination of pay matters with the appropriate personnel office with respect to an employee.

Person includes a natural person or persons, profit or non-profit corporation, partnership, association, trust, estate, consortium, State and local governments, or other entity that is capable of owing a debt to the United States Government; however, agencies of the United States, are excluded.

Private collection contractor means a private debt collector under contract with an agency to collect a non-tax debt owed to the United States.

Salary offset means an offset to collect a debt under 5 U.S.C. 5514 by deduction(s) at one or more officially established pay intervals from the current pay account of an employee, without his or her consent.

Tax refund offset means the reduction of a tax refund by the amount of a past-due legally enforceable debt owed to the Board or a Federal agency.

Thrift Savings Fund means the Fund described in 5 U.S.C. 8437.

Thrift Savings Plan means the Federal Retirement Thrift Savings Plan established by the Federal Employees' Retirement System Act of 1986, codified in pertinent part at 5 U.S.C. 8431 et seq..

Waiver means the cancellation, remission, forgiveness, or non-recovery of a debt allegedly owed by a person to the Board or a Federal agency as permitted or required by 5 U.S.C. 5584 or 8346(b), 10 U.S.C. 2774, 32 U.S.C. 716, or any other law.

§ 1639.5 Use of credit reporting agencies.

(a) The Board may report delinquent debts to appropriate credit reporting agencies by providing the following information:

(1) A statement that the debt is valid and is overdue;

(2) The name, address, taxpayer identification number, and any other information necessary to establish the identity of the debtor;

(3) The amount, status, and history of the debt; and

(4) The program or pertinent activity under which the debt arose.

(b) Before disclosing debt information to a credit reporting agency, the Board will:

(1) Take reasonable action to locate the debtor if a current address is not available; and

(2) If a current address is available, notify the debtor by certified mail, return receipt requested:

(i) That a designated Board official has reviewed the claim and has determined that the claim is valid and over-due;

(ii) That within 60 days the Board intends to disclose to a credit reporting agency the information authorized for disclosure by this section; and

(iii) That the debtor can request an explanation of the claim, can dispute the information in the Board's records concerning the claim, and can file for an administrative review, waiver, or reconsideration of the claim, where applicable.

(c) At the time debt information is submitted to a credit reporting agency, the Board will provide a written statement to the reporting agency that all required actions have been taken. In addition, the Board will, thereafter, ensure that the credit reporting agency is promptly informed of any substantive change in the conditions or amount of the debt, and promptly verify or correct information relevant to the claim.

(d) If a debtor disputes the validity of the debt, the credit reporting agency will refer the matter to the appropriate Board official. The credit reporting agency will exclude the debt from its reports until the Board certifies in writing that the debt is valid.

§ 1639.6 Contracting for collection services.

The Board will use the services of a private collection contractor where it determines that such use is in the best interest of the Board. When the Board determines that there is a need to contract for collection services, it will—

(a) Retain sole authority to:

(1) Resolve any dispute by the debtor regarding the validity of the debt;

(2) Compromise the debt;

(3) Suspend or terminate collection action;

(4) Refer the debt to the Department of Justice for litigation; and

(5) Take any other action under this part which does not result in full collection of the debt;

(b) Require the contractor to comply with the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, to the extent specified in 5 U.S.C. 552a(m), with applicable Federal and State laws pertaining to debt collection practices (e.g., the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (15 U.S.C. 1692 et seq.)), and with applicable regulations of the Board;

(c) Require the contractor to account accurately and fully for all amounts collected; and

(d) Require the contractor to provide to the Board, upon request, all data and reports contained in its files relating to its collection actions on a debt.

§ 1639.7 Initial notice to debtor.

(a) When the Executive Director determines that a debt is owed the Board, he will send a written notice to the debtor. The notice will inform the debtor of the following:

(1) The amount, nature, and basis of the debt;

(2) That payment is due immediately after receipt of the notice;

(3) That the debt is considered delinquent if it is not paid within 30 days of the date the notice is mailed or hand-delivered;

(4) That interest charges (except for State and local governments and Indian tribes), penalty charges, and admini strative costs may be assessed against a delinquent debt;

(5) Any rights available to the debtor to dispute the validity of the debt or to have recovery of the debt waived (citing the available review or waiver authority, the conditions for review or waiver, and the effects of the review or waiver request on the collection of the debt); and

(6) The address, telephone number, and name of the Board official available to discuss the debt.

(b) The Board will respond promptly to communications from the debtor.

(c) Subsequent demand letters also will notify the debtor of any interest, penalty, or administrative costs which have been assessed and will advise the debtor that the debt may be referred to a credit reporting agency (see § 1639.5), a collection agency (see § 1639.6), the Department of Justice (see § 1639.10), or the Department of the Treasury (see § 1639.11), if it is not paid.

§ 1639.8 Interest, penalty, and administrative costs.

(a) Interest. The Board will assess interest on all delinquent debts unless prohibited by statute, regulation, or contract.

(1) Interest begins to accrue on all debts from the date the initial notice is mailed or hand-delivered to the debtor. The Board will not recover interest if the debt is paid within 30 days of the date of the initial notice. The Board will assess an annual rate of interest that is equal to the rate of the current value of funds to the United States Treasury (i.e., the Treasury tax and loan account rate) as prescribed and published by the Secretary of the Treasury in the Federal Register and the Treasury Fiscal Requirements Manual Bulletins, unless a different rate is necessary to protect the interests of the Board. The Board will notify the debtor of the basis for its finding when a different rate is necessary to protect the Board's interests.

(2) The Executive Director may extend the 30-day period for payment where he determines that such action is in the best interest of the Board. A decision to extend or not to extend the payment period is final and is not subject to further review.

(b) Penalty. The Board will assess a penalty charge, not to exceed six percent a year, on any portion of a debt that is not paid within 90 days of the initial notice.

(c) Administrative costs. The Board will assess charges to cover administrative costs incurred as the result of the debtor's failure to pay a debt within 30 days of the date of the initial notice. Administrative costs include the additional costs incurred in processing and handling the debt because it became delinquent, such as costs incurred in obtaining a credit report, or in using a private collection contractor, or service fees charged by a Federal agency for collection activities undertaken on behalf of the Board.

(d) Allocation of payments. A partial payment by a debtor will be applied first to outstanding administrative costs, second to penalty assessments, third to accrued interest, and then to the outstanding debt principal.

(e) Waiver. (1) The Executive Director may (without regard to the amount of the debt) waive collection of all or part of accrued interest, penalty, or administrative costs, if he determines that collection of these charges would be against equity and good conscience or not in the best interest of the Board.

(2) A decision to waive interest, penalty charges, or administrative costs may be made at any time before a debt is paid. However, where these charges have been collected before the waiver decision, they will not be refunded. The Executive Director's decision to waive or not waive collection of these charges is final and is not subject to further review.

§ 1639.9 Charges pending waiver or review.

Interest, penalty charges, and administrative costs will continue to accrue on a debt during administrative appeal, either formal or informal, and during waiver consideration by the Board, unless specifically prohibited by a statute or a regulation.

§ 1639.10 Referrals to the Department of Justice.

The Executive Director will refer to the Department of Justice for litigation all claims on which aggressive collection actions have been taken but which could not be collected, compromised, suspended, or terminated. Referrals will be made as early as possible, consistent with aggressive Board collection action, and within the period for bringing a timely suit against the debtor.

§ 1639.11 Cross-servicing agreement with the Department of the Treasury.

The Board will enter into a cross-servicing agreement with the Department of the Treasury which will authorize Treasury to take all of the debt collection actions described in this part. These debt collection services will be provided to the Board in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3701 et seq.

§ 1639.12 Deposit of funds collected.

All funds owed to the Board and collected under this part will be deposited in the Thrift Savings Fund. Funds owed to other agencies and collected under this part will be credited to the account designated by the creditor agency for the receipt of the funds.

§ 1639.13 Antialienation of funds in Thrift Savings Plan participant accounts.

In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 8437, net assets available for Thrift Savings Plan benefits will not be used to satisfy a debt owed by a participant to an agency under the regulations of this part or under the debt collection regulations of any agency.

Subpart B Salary Offset

§ 1639.20 Applicability and scope.

(a) The regulations in this subpart provide Board procedures for the collection by salary offset of a Federal employee's pay to satisfy certain debts owed to the Board or to Federal agencies.

(b) The regulations in this subpart apply to collections by the Executive Director, from:

(1) Federal employees who owe debts to the Board; and

(2) Employees of the Board who owe debts to Federal agencies.

(c) The regulations in this subpart do not apply to debts arising under the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (title 26, United States Code); the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 301 et seq.); the tariff laws of the United States; or to any case where collection of a debt by salary offset is explicitly provided for or prohibited by another statute (e.g., travel advances in 5 U.S.C. 5705 and employee training expenses in 5 U.S.C. 4108).

(d) Nothing in the regulations in this subpart precludes the compromise, suspension, or termination of collection actions under the standards implementing the Federal Claims Collection Act (31 U.S.C. 3711 et seq., 4 CFR Parts 101-105, 38 CFR 1.900-1.994).

(e) A levy pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code takes precedence over a salary offset under this subpart, as provided in 5 U.S.C. 5514(d).

(f) This subpart does not apply to any adjustment to pay arising out of an employee's election of coverage or a change in coverage under a Federal benefits program requiring periodic deductions from pay, if the amount to be recovered was accumulated over four pay periods or less.

§ 1639.21 Waiver requests.

The regulations in this subpart do not preclude an employee from requesting waiver of an overpayment under 5 U.S.C. 5584 or 8346(b), 10 U.S.C. 2774, 32 U.S.C. 716, or under other statutory provisions pertaining to the particular debts being collected.

§ 1639.22 Notice requirements before offset.

Deductions under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 5514 may be made if, a minimum of 30 calendar days before salary offset is initiated, the Board provides the employee with written notice that he or she owes a debt to the Board. This notice of intent to offset an employee's salary will be hand-delivered or sent by certified mail to the most current address that is available to the Board. The notice provided under this section will state:

(a) That the Board has reviewed the records relating to the claim and has determined that a debt is owed, the amount of the debt, and the facts giving rise to the debt;

(b) The Board's intention to collect the debt by deducting money from the employee's current disposable pay account until the debt, and all accumulated interest, penalties, and administrative costs, is paid in full;

(c) The amount, frequency, approximate beginning date, and duration of the intended deductions;

(d) An explanation of the Board's policy concerning interest, penalties, and administrative costs, including a statement that such assessments must be made unless excused in accordance with the Federal Claims Collection Standards, 4 CFR chapter II;

(e) The employee's right to inspect and copy all records pertaining to the debt claimed or to receive copies of those records if personal inspection is impractical;

(f) The right to a hearing conducted by an administrative law judge or other impartial hearing official (i.e., a hearing official not under the supervision or control of the Executive Director), with respect to the existence and amount of the debt claimed or the repayment schedule (i.e., the percentage of disposable pay to be deducted each pay period), so long as a request is filed by the employee as prescribed in § 1639.23;

(g) If not previously provided, the opportunity (under terms agreeable to the Board) to establish a schedule for the voluntary repayment of the debt or to enter into a written agreement to establish a schedule for repayment of the debt in lieu of offset. The agreement must be in writing and signed by both the employee and the Executive Director;

(h) The name, address, and telephone number of an officer or employee of the Board who may be contacted concerning procedures for requesting a hearing;

(i) The method and time period for requesting a hearing;

(j) That the timely filing of a request for a hearing on or before the 15th calendar day following receipt of the notice of intent will stay the commencement of collection proceedings;

(k) The name and address of the officer or employee of the Board to whom the request for a hearing should be sent;

(l) That the Board will initiate certification procedures to implement a salary offset, as appropriate, (which may not exceed 15 percent of the employee's disposable pay) not less than 30 days from the date the employee receives the notice of debt, unless the employee files a timely request for a hearing;

(m) That a final decision on the hearing (if one is requested) will be issued at the earliest practical date, but not later than 60 days after the filing of the petition requesting the hearing, unless the employee requests and the hearing official grants a delay in the proceedings;

(n) That any knowingly false or frivolous statements, representations, or evidence may subject the employee to:

(1) Disciplinary procedures appropriate under 5 U.S.C. chapter 75, 5 CFR part 752, or any other applicable statute or regulations;

(2) Penalties under the False Claims Act, 31 U.S.C. 3729-3733, or any other applicable statutory authority; and

(3) Criminal penalties under 18 U.S.C. 286, 287, 1001, and 102, or any other applicable statutory authority;

(o) Any other rights and remedies available to the employee under statutes or regulations governing the program for which the collection is being made;

(p) That unless there are applicable contractual or statutory provisions to the contrary, amounts paid on or deducted for the debt which are later waived or found not owed will be promptly refunded to the employee; and

(q) That proceedings with respect to the debt are governed by 5 U.S.C. 5514.

§ 1639.23 Hearing.

(a) Request for hearing. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, an employee who desires a hearing concerning the existence or amount of the debt or the proposed offset schedule must send such a request to the Board office designated in the notice of intent. See § 1639.22(k).

(1) The request for hearing must be signed by the employee and fully identify and explain with reasonable specificity all the facts, evidence, and witnesses, if any, that support his or her position.

(2) The request for hearing must be received by the designated office on or before the 15th calendar day following the employee's receipt of the notice. Timely filing will stay the commencement of collection procedures.

(3) The employee must also specify whether an oral or written hearing is requested. If an oral hearing is desired, the request should explain why the matter cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence alone.

(b) Failure to timely submit. (1) If the employee files a request for a hearing after the expiration of the 15th calendar day period provided for in paragraph (a) of this section, the Board will accept the request if the employee can show that the delay was the result of circumstances beyond his or her control or because of a failure to receive notice of the filing deadline (unless the employee had actual notice of the filing deadline).

(2) An employee waives the right to a hearing, and will have his or her disposable pay offset in accordance with the Board's offset schedule, if the employee:

(i) Fails to file a request for a hearing and the failure is not excused; or

(ii) Fails to appear at an oral hearing of which he or she was notified and the hearing official does not determine that failure to appear was due to circumstances beyond the employee's control.

(c) Representation at the hearing. The creditor agency may be represented by legal counsel. The employee may represent himself or herself or may be represented by an individual of his or her choice and at his or her own expense.

(d) Review of Board records related to the debt. (1) In accordance with § 1639.22(e), an employee who intends to inspect or copy Board records related to the debt must send a letter to the official designated in the notice of intent to offset stating his or her intention. The letter must be received within 15 calendar days after the employee's receipt of the notice.

(2) In response to a timely request submitted by the debtor, the designated official will notify the employee of the location and time when the employee may inspect and copy records related to the debt.

(3) If personal inspection is impractical, arrangements will be made to send copies of those records to the employee.

(e) Hearing official. The Board may request an administrative law judge to conduct the hearing or the Board may obtain a hearing official who is not under the supervision or control of the Executive Director.

(f) Procedure—(1) General. After the employee requests a hearing, the hearing official will notify the employee of the form of the hearing to be provided. If the hearing will be oral, the notice will set forth the date, time, and location of the hearing. If the hearing will be written, the employee will be notified that he or she should submit arguments in writing to the hearing official by a specified date after which the record will be closed. This date will give the employee reasonable time to submit documentation.

(2) Oral hearing. An employee who requests an oral hearing will be provided an oral hearing, if the hearing official determines that the matter cannot be resolved by review of documentary evidence alone (e.g., when an issue of credibility is involved). The hearing is not an adversarial adjudication and need not take the form of an evidentiary hearing. Witnesses who testify in oral hearings will do so under oath or affirmation. Oral hearings may take the form of, but are not limited to:

(i) Informal conferences with the hearing official, in which the employee and agency representative will be given full opportunity to present evidence, witnesses, and argument;

(ii) Informal meetings with an interview of the employee; or

(iii) Formal written submissions, with an opportunity for oral presentation.

(3) Record determination. If the hearing official determines that an oral hearing is not necessary, he or she will make the determination based upon a review of the available written record.

(4) Record. The hearing official must maintain a summary record of any hearing provided by this subpart.

(g) Date of decision. The hearing official will issue a written decision, based upon documentary evidence and information developed at the hearing, as soon as practical after the hearing, but not later than 60 days after the date on which the petition was received by the creditor agency, unless the employee requests a delay in the proceedings. In that case, the 60 day decision period will be extended by the number of days by which the hearing was postponed.

(h) Content of decision. The written decision will include:

(1) A statement of the facts presented to support the origin, nature, and amount of the debt;

(2) The hearing official's findings, analysis, and conclusions; and

(3) The terms of any repayment schedules, if applicable.

(i) Failure to appear. (1) In the absence of good cause shown (e.g., excused illness), an employee who fails to appear at a hearing will be deemed, for the purpose of this subpart, to admit the existence and amount of the debt as described in the notice of intent.

(2) If the representative of the creditor agency fails to appear, the hearing official will proceed with the hearing as scheduled, and make his or her determination based upon the oral testimony presented by the representative(s) of the employee and the documentary documentation submitted by both parties.

(3) At the request of both parties, the hearing official will schedule a new hearing date. Both parties will be given reasonable notice of the time and place of this new hearing.

§ 1639.24 Certification.

(a) The Board will provide a certification to the paying agency in all cases in which:

(1) The hearing official determines that a debt exists;

(2) The employee admits the existence and amount of the debt by failing to request a hearing; or

(3) The employee admits the existence of the debt by failing to appear at a hearing.

(b) The certification must be in writing and must include:

(1) A statement that the employee owes the debt;

(2) The amount and basis of the debt;

(3) The date the Board's right to collect the debt first accrued;

(4) A statement that the Board's regulations have been approved by the Office of Personnel Management under 5 CFR part 550, subpart K;

(5) The amount and date of the collection, if only a one-time offset is required;

(6) If the collection is to be made in installments, the number of installments to be collected, the amount of each installment, and the date of the first installment, if a date other than the next officially established pay period is required; and

(7) Information regarding the completion of procedures required by 5 U.S.C. 5514, including the dates of notices and hearings provided to the employee, or, if applicable, the employee's signed consent to salary offset or a signed statement acknowledging receipt of required procedures.

§ 1639.25 Voluntary repayment agreements as alternative to salary offset.

(a) In response to a notice of intent to offset against an employee's salary to recover a debt owed to the Board, an employee may propose to the Board that he or she be allowed to repay the debt through direct payments as an alternative to salary offset. Any employee who wishes to repay a debt without salary offset must submit in writing a proposed agreement to repay the debt. The proposal must admit the existence of the debt and set forth a proposed repayment schedule. The employee's proposal must be received by the official designated in the notice of intent within 15 calendar days after the employee received the notice.

(b) In response to a timely proposal by the debtor, the Executive Director will notify the employee whether the employee's proposed written agreement for repayment is acceptable. It is within the Executive Director's discretion to accept a repayment agreement instead of proceeding by salary offset.

(c) If the Executive Director decides that the proposed repayment agreement is unacceptable, the employee will have 15 days from the date he or she received notice of the decision to file a petition for a hearing.

(d) If the Executive Director decides that the proposed repayment agreement is acceptable, the alternative arrange ment must be in writing and signed by both the employee and the Executive Director.

§ 1639.26 Special review.

(a) An employee subject to salary offset or a voluntary repayment agreement in connection with a debt owed to the Board may, at any time, request that the Board conduct a special review of the amount of the salary offset or voluntary payment, based on materially changed circumstances, such as catastrophic illness, divorce, death, or disability.

(b) To assist the Board in determining whether an offset would prevent the employee from meeting essential subsistence expenses (costs incurred for food, housing, clothing, transportation, and medical care), the employee will submit a detailed statement and supporting documents for the employee, his or her spouse, and dependents, indicating:

(1) Income from all sources;

(2) Assets;

(3) Liabilities;

(4) Number of dependents;

(5) Expenses for food, housing, clothing, and transportation;

(6) Medical expenses; and

(7) Exceptional expenses, if any.

(c) If the employee requests a special review under this section, the employee must file an alternative proposed salary offset or payment schedule and a statement, with supporting documents, showing why the current salary offset or payments result in an extreme financial hardship to the employee.

(d) The Executive Director will evaluate the statement and supporting documents, and determine whether the original offset or repayment schedule imposes an extreme financial hardship on the employee. The Executive Director will notify the employee in writing of his determination, including, if appropriate, a revised offset or payment schedule.

(e) If the special review results in a revised offset or repayment schedule, the Board will provide a new certification to the paying agency.

§ 1639.27 Procedures for salary offset.

(a) The Board will coordinate salary deductions under this subpart.

(b) The Board's payroll office will determine the amount of an employee's disposable pay and will implement the salary offset.

(c) Deductions will begin within three official pay periods following receipt by the Board's payroll office of certification for the creditor agency.

(d) Types of collection—

(1) Lump-sum offset. If the amount of the debt is equal to or less than 15 percent of disposable pay, the debt generally will be collected through one lump-sum offset.

(2) Installment deductions. Installment deductions will be made over a period not greater than the anticipated period of employment. The size and frequency of installment deductions will bear a reasonable relation to the size of the debt and the employee's ability to pay. However, the amount deducted from any period will not exceed 15 percent of the disposable pay from which the deduction is made unless the employee has agreed in writing to the deduction of a greater amount.

(3) Deductions from final check. A deduction exceeding the 15 percent disposable pay limitation may be made from any final salary payment under 31 U.S.C. 3716 and the Federal Claims Collection Standards, 4 CFR chapter II, in order to liquidate the debt, whether the employee is being separated voluntarily or involuntarily.

(4) Deductions from other sources. If an employee subject to salary offset is separated from the Board, and the balance of the debt cannot be liquidated by offset of the final salary check, the Board may offset any later payments of any kind against the balance of the debt, as allowed by 31 U.S.C. 3716 and the Federal Claims Collection Standards, 4 CFR chapter II.

(e) Multiple debts. In instances where two or more creditor agencies are seeking salary offsets, or where two or more debts are owed to a single creditor agency, the Board's payroll office may, at its discretion, determine whether one or more debts should be offset simultaneously within the 15 percent limitation.

(f) Precedence of debts owed to the Board. For Board employees, debts owed to the Board generally take precedence over debts owed to other agencies. In the event that a debt to the Board is certified while an employee is subject to a salary offset to repay another agency, the Board may decide whether to have the first debt repaid in full before collecting the claim or whether changes should be made in the salary deduction being sent to the other agency. If debts owed the Board can be collected in one pay period, the Board payroll office may suspend the salary offset to the other agency for that pay period in order to liquidate the debt to the Board. When an employee owes two or more debts, the best interests of the Board will be the primary con sideration in the payroll office's determination of the order in which the debts should be collected.

§ 1639.28 Coordinating salary offset with other agencies.

(a) Responsibility of the Board as the creditor agency. (1) The Board will coordinate debt collections with other agencies and will, as appropriate:

(i) Arrange for a hearing or special review upon proper petitioning by the debtor; and

(ii) Prescribe, upon consultation with the General Counsel, the additional practices and procedures that may be necessary to carry out the intent of this subpart.

(2) The Board will ensure:

(i) That each notice of intent to offset is consistent with the requirements of § 1639.22;

(ii) That each certification of debt that is sent to a paying agency is consistent with the requirements of § 1639.24; and

(iii) That hearings are properly scheduled.

(3) Requesting recovery from current paying agency. Upon completion of the procedures established in these regulations and pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 5514, the Board will provide the paying agency with a certification as provided in § 1639.24.

(4) If the employee is in the process of separating and has not received a final salary check or other final payment(s) from the paying agency, the Board must submit a debt claim to the paying agency for collection under 31 U.S.C. 3716. The paying agency must certify the total amount of its collection on the debt and notify the employee and the Board. If the paying agency's collection does not fully satisfy the debt, and the paying agency is aware that the debtor is entitled to payments from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund or other similar payments that may be due the debtor employee from other Federal Government sources, the paying agency will provide written notice of the outstanding debt to the agency responsible for making the other payments to the debtor employee. The written notice will state that the employee owes a debt, the amount of the debt, and that the provisions of this section have been fully complied with. The Board must submit a properly certified claim to the agency responsible for making the payments before the collection can be made.

(5) Separated employee. If the employee is already separated and all payments due from his or her former paying agency have been paid, the Board may request, unless otherwise prohibited, that money due and payable to the employee from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund (5 CFR part 831, subpart R, or 5 CFR part 845, subpart D) or other similar funds, be administratively offset to collect the debt.

(6) Employee transfer. When an employee transfers from one paying agency to another paying agency, the Board will not repeat the due process procedures described in 5 U.S.C. 5514 and this subpart to resume the collection. The Board will submit a properly certified claim to the new paying agency and will subsequently review the debt to make sure the collection is resumed by the new paying agency.

(b) Responsibility of the Board as the paying agency—(1) Complete claim. When the Board receives a certified claim from a creditor agency, deductions should be scheduled to begin within three officially established pay intervals. Before deductions can begin, the employee will receive a written notice from the Board including:

(i) A statement that the Board has received a certified debt claim from the creditor agency;

(ii) The amount of the debt claim;

(iii) The date salary offset deductions will begin, and

(iv) The amount of such deductions.

(2) Incomplete claim. When the Board receives an incomplete certification of debt from a creditor agency, the Board will return the debt claim with a notice that procedures under 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 5 CFR part 550, subpart K, must be followed and a properly certified debt claim received before action will be taken to collect from the employee's current pay account.

(3) Review. The Board is not authorized to review the merits of the creditor agency's determination with respect to the amount or validity of the debt certified by the creditor agency.

(4) Employees who transfer from one paying agency to another. If, after the creditor agency has submitted the debt claim to the Board, the employee transfers from the Board to a different paying agency before the debt is collected in full, the Board will certify the total amount collected on the debt and notify the employee and the creditor agency in writing. The notification to the creditor agency will include information on the employee's transfer.

§ 1639.29 Refunds.

(a) If the Board is the creditor agency, it will promptly refund any amount deducted under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 5514, when:

(1) The debt is waived or all or part of the funds deducted are otherwise found not to be owed; or

(2) An administrative or judicial order directs the Board to make a refund.

(b) Unless required or permitted by law or contract, refunds under this section will not bear interest.

§ 1639.30 Non-waiver of rights by payments.

An employee's involuntary payment of all or any portion of a debt being collected under this subpart must not be construed as a waiver of any rights which the employee may have under 5 U.S.C. 5514 or any other provisions of a written contract or law, unless there are statutory or con tractual provisions to the contrary.

Subpart C Tax Refund Offset

§ 1639.40 Applicability and scope.

(a) The regulations in this subpart implement 31 U.S.C. 3720A which authorizes the Department of the Treasury to reduce a tax refund by the amount of a past-due legally enforceable debt owed to a Federal agency.

(b) For purposes of this section, a past-due legally enforceable debt referable to the Department of the Treasury is a debt that is owed to the Board; and:

(1) Is at least $25.00 dollars;

(2) Except in the case of a judgment debt, has been delinquent for at least three months and will not have been delinquent more than 10 years at the time the offset is made;

(3) Cannot be currently collected under the salary offset provisions of 5 U.S.C. 5514;

(4) Is ineligible for administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716(a) by reason of 31 U.S.C. 3716(c)(2) or cannot be collected by administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716(a) by the Board against amounts payable to the debtor by the Board;

(5) With respect to which the Board has given the debtor at least 60 days to present evidence that all or part of the debt is not past due or legally enforceable, has considered evidence presented by the debtor, and has determined that an amount of the debt is past due and legally enforceable;

(6) Which has been disclosed by the Board to a credit reporting agency as authorized by 31 U.S.C. 3711(e), unless the credit reporting agency would be prohibited from reporting information concerning the debt by reason of 15 U.S.C. 1681c;

(7) With respect to which the Board has notified or has made a reasonable attempt to notify the debtor that:

(i) The debt is past due, and

(ii) Unless repaid within 60 days thereafter, the debt will be referred to the Department of the Treasury for offset against any overpayment of tax; and

(8) All other requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3720A and the Department of Treasury regulations relating to the eligibility of a debt for tax return offset have been satisfied.

§ 1639.41 Procedures for tax refund offset.

(a) The Board will be the point of contact with the Department of the Treasury for administrative matters regarding the offset program.

(b) The Board will ensure that the procedures prescribed by the Department of the Treasury are followed in developing information about past-due debts and submitting the debts to the IRS.

(c) The Board will submit a notification of a taxpayer's liability for past-due legally enforceable debt to the Department of the Treasury which will contain:

(1) The name and taxpayer identifying number (as defined in section 6109 of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 6109) of the person who is responsible for the debt;

(2) The dollar amount of the past-due and legally enforceable debt;

(3) The date on which the original debt became past due;

(4) A statement certifying that, with respect to each debt reported, all of the requirements of eligibility of the debt for referral for the refund offset have been satisfied. See § 1639.40(b).

(d) The Board shall promptly notify the Department of the Treasury to correct Board data submitted when it:

(1) Determines that an error has been made with respect to a debt that has been referred;

(2) Receives or credits a payment on the debt; or

(3) Receives notice that the person owing the debt has filed for bankruptcy under Title 11 of the United States Code or has been adjudicated bankrupt and the debt has been discharged.

(e) When advising debtors of an intent to refer a debt to the Department of the Treasury for offset, the Board will also advise the debtors of all remedial actions available to defer or prevent the offset from taking place.

§ 1639.42 Notice requirements before tax refund offset.

(a) The Board must notify, or make a reasonable attempt to notify, the person:

(1) The amount of the debt and that the debt is past due; and

(2) Unless repaid within 60 days, the debt will be referred to the Department of the Treasury for offset against any refund of overpayment of tax.

(b) The Board will provide a mailing address for forwarding any written correspondence and a contact name and telephone number for any questions concerning the offset.

(c) The Board will give the individual debtor at least 60 days from the date of the notice to present evidence that all or part of the debt is not past due or legally enforceable. The Board will consider the evidence presented by the individual and will make a determination whether any amount of the debt is past due and legally enforceable. For purposes of this section, evidence that collection of the debt is affected by a bankruptcy proceeding involving the individual will bar referral of the debt to the Department of the Treasury.

(d) Notice given to a debtor under paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section shall advise the debtor of how he or she may present evidence to the Board that all or part of the debt is not past due or legally enforceable. Such evidence may not be referred to, or considered by, individuals who are not officials, employees, or agents of the United States in making the determination required under paragraph (c) of this section. Unless such evidence is directly considered by an official or employee of the Board, and the determination required under paragraph (c) of this section has been made by an official or employee of the Board, any unresolved dispute with the debtor regarding whether all or part of the debt is past due or legally enforceable must be referred to the Board for ultimate administrative disposition, and the Board must directly notify the debtor of its determination.

Subpart D Administrative Offset

§ 1639.50 Applicability and scope.

(a) The regulations in this subpart apply to the collection of debts owed to the Board, or from a request for an offset received by the Board from a Federal agency. Administrative offset is authorized under section 5 of the Federal Claims Collection Act of 1966, as amended by the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (31 U.S.C. 3716). The regulations in this subpart are consistent with the Federal Claims Collection Standards on administrative offset issued jointly by the Department of Justice and the General Accounting Office as set forth in 4 CFR 102.3.

(b) The Executive Director, after attempting to collect a debt owed to the Board under section 3(a) of the Federal Claims Collection Act of 1966, as amended (31 U.S.C. 3711(a)), may collect the debt by administrative offset, subject to the following:

(1) The debt is certain in amount; and

(2) It is in the best interest of the Board to collect the debt by administrative offset because of the decreased costs of collection and acceleration in the payment of the debt.

(c) The Executive Director may initiate administrative offset with regard to debts owed by a person to a Federal agency, so long as the funds to be offset are not payable from net assets available for Thrift Savings Plan benefits. The head of the creditor agency, or his or her designee, must submit a written request for the offset with a certification that the debt exists and that the person has been afforded the necessary due process rights.

(d) The Executive Director may request another agency that holds funds payable to a Fund debtor to pay the funds to the Board in settlement of the debt. The Board will provide certification that:

(1) The debt exists; and

(2) The person has been afforded the necessary due process rights.

(e) If the six-year period for bringing action on a debt provided in 28 U.S.C. 2415 has expired, then administrative offset may be used to collect the debt only if the costs of bringing such an action are likely to be less than the amount of the debt.

(f) No collection by administrative offset will be made on any debt that has been outstanding for more than 10 years unless facts material to the Board or a Federal agency's right to collect the debt were not known, and reasonably could not have been known, by the official or officials responsible for discovering and collecting the debt.

(g) The regulations in this subpart do not apply to:

(1) A case in which administrative offset of the type of debt involved is explicitly provided for or prohibited by another statute; or

(2) Debts owed to the Board by Federal agencies or by any State or local government.

§ 1639.51 Notice procedures.

Before collecting any debt through administrative offset, the Board will send a notice of intent to offset to the debtor by certified mail, return receipt requested, at the most current address that is available to the Board. The notice will provide:

(a) A description of the nature and amount of the debt and the intention of the Board to collect the debt through administrative offset;

(b) An opportunity to inspect and copy the records of the Board with respect to the debt;

(c) An opportunity for review within the Board of the determination of the Board with respect to the debt; and

(d) An opportunity to enter into a written agreement for repaying the amount of the debt.

§ 1639.52 Board review.

(a) A debtor may dispute the existence of the debt, the amount of debt, or the terms of repayment. A request to review a disputed debt must be submitted to the Board official who provided the notice of intent to offset within 30 calendar days of the debtor's receipt of the written notice described in § 1639.51.

(b) If the debtor requests an opportunity to inspect or copy the Board's records concerning the disputed claim, the Board will grant 10 business days for the review. The time period will be measured from the time the request for inspection is granted or from the time the debtor receives a copy of the records.

(c) Pending the resolution of a dispute by the debtor, transactions in any of the debtor's account(s) maintained in the Board may be temporarily suspended to the extent of the debt that is owed. Depending on the type of transaction, the suspension could preclude its payment, removal, or transfer, as well as prevent the payment of interest or discount due on the transaction. Should the dispute be resolved in the debtor's favor, the suspension will be immediately lifted.

(d) During the review period, interest, penalties, and administrative costs authorized by law will continue to accrue.

(e) If the debtor does not exercise the right to request a review within the time specified in this section or if, as a result of the review, it is determined that the debt is due and no written agreement is executed, then administrative offset will be ordered in accordance with the regulations in this subpart without further notice.

§ 1639.53 Written agreement for repayment.

A debtor who admits liability but elects not to have the debt collected by administrative offset will be afforded an opportunity to negotiate a written agreement for repaying the debt. If the financial condition of the debtor does not support the ability to pay in one lump sum, the Board may consider reasonable installments. No installment arrangement will be considered unless the debtor submits a financial statement, executed under penalty of perjury, reflecting the debtor's assets, liabilities, income, and expenses. The financial statement must be submitted within 10 business days of the Board's request for the statement. At the Board's option, a confess-judgment note or bond of indemnity with surety may be required for installment agreements. Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, any reduction or compromise of a claim will be governed by 31 U.S.C. 3711.

§ 1639.54 Requests for offset to Federal agencies.

The Executive Director may request that funds due and payable to a debtor by another Federal agency be paid to the Board in payment of a debt owed to the Board by that debtor. In requesting administrative offset, the Board, as creditor, will certify in writing to the Federal agency holding funds of the debtor:

(a) That the debtor owes the debt;

(b) The amount and basis of the debt; and

(c) That the Board has complied with the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3716, its own administrative offset regulations in this subpart, and the applicable provisions of 4 CFR part 102 with respect to providing the debtor with due process.

§ 1639.55 Requests for offset from Federal agencies.

Any Federal agency may request that funds due and payable to its debtor by the Board be administratively offset in order to collect a debt owed to that agency by the debtor, so long as the funds are not payable from net assets available for Thrift Savings Plan benefits. The Board will initiate the requested offset only:

(a) Upon receipt of written certification from the creditor agency stating:

(1) That the debtor owes the debt;

(2) The amount and basis of the debt;

(3) That the agency has prescribed regulations for the exercise of administrative offset; and

(4) That the agency has complied with its own administrative offset regulations and with the applicable provisions of 4 CFR part 102, including providing any required hearing or review; and

(b) Upon a determination by the Board that collection by offset against funds payable by the Board would be in the best interest of the United States as determined by the facts and circumstances of the particular case, and that such an offset would not otherwise be contrary to law.

§ 1639.56 Expedited procedure.

The Board may effect an administrative offset against a payment to be made to the debtor before completion of the procedures required by §§ 1639.51 and 1639.52 if failure to take the offset would substantially jeopardize the Board's ability to collect the debt and the time before the payment is to be made does not reasonably permit the completion of those procedures. An expedited offset will be promptly followed by the completion of those procedures. Amounts recovered by offset, but later found not to be owed to the Board, will be promptly refunded.

Subpart E Administrative Wage Garnishment

Source: 79 FR 22594, Apr. 23, 2014, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1639.60 Administrative wage garnishment.

(a) General. The Board may use administrative wage garnishment to collect debts from non-Federal employees in accordance with the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3720D and 31 CFR 285.11. This subpart adopts and incorporates all of the provisions of 31 CFR 285.11 concerning administrative wage garnishment, including the hearing procedures described in 31 CFR 285.11(f). This section does not apply to collection of debt by Federal salary offset, under 5 U.S.C. 5514, the process by which the Board collects debts from the salaries of Federal employees.

(b) [Reserved]

PART 1640 PERIODIC PARTICIPANT STATEMENTS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 8439(c)(1) and (c)(2), 5 U.S.C. 8474(b)(5) and (c)(1).

Source: 68 FR 35501, June 13, 2003, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1640.1 Definitions.

Definitions generally applicable to the Thrift Savings Plan are set forth at 5 CFR 1690.1.

§ 1640.2 Information regarding account.

The TSP or its record keeper will provide to each participant four (4) times each calendar year the information described in §§ 1640.3, 1640.4, and 1640.5. Plan participants can obtain account balance information on a more frequent basis from the TSP Web site and the ThriftLine.

[68 FR 35501, June 13, 2003, as amended at 87 FR 31680, May 24, 2022]

§ 1640.3 Statement of individual account.

In the quarterly statements, the TSP or its record keeper will furnish each participant with the following information concerning the participant's individual account:

(a) Name and account number under which the account is established.

(b) Statement whether the participant has a beneficiary designation on file with the TSP record keeper.

(c) Investment election that is current at the end of the statement period.

(d) Beginning and ending dates of the period covered by the statement.

(e) The following information for and, as of the close of business on the ending date of, the period covered by the statement:

(1) The total account balance and tax-exempt balance, if applicable;

(2) The account balance for each source of contributions;

(3) The account balance and activity in each TSP core fund, including the dollar amount of the transaction, the share price, and the number of shares;

(4) Loan information and activity, if applicable; and

(5) The mutual fund window account balance, if applicable.

(f) Any other information concerning the account that the Executive Director determines should be included in the statement.

[87 FR 31680, May 24, 2022]

§ 1640.4 Account transactions.

(a) Where relevant, the following transactions will be reported in each individual account statement:

(1) Contributions;

(2) Withdrawals;

(3) Forfeitures;

(4) Loan disbursements and repayments;

(5) Fund reallocations and fund transfers among TSP core funds;

(6) Adjustments to prior transactions;

(7) Rollovers from traditional individual retirement accounts (IRAs) and eligible employer plans within the meaning of section 402(c) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 402(c)); and

(8) Any other transaction that the Executive Director determines will affect the status of the individual account.

(b) Where relevant, the statement will contain the following information concerning each transaction identified in paragraph (a) of this section:

(1) Type of transaction;

(2) TSP core funds affected;

(3) Amount of the transaction (in dollars); and

(4) Any other information the Executive Director deems relevant.

[87 FR 31680, May 24, 2022]

§ 1640.5 TSP core fund information.

The TSP or its record keeper will provide to each participant each calendar year information concerning each of the TSP core funds, including:

(a) A summary description of the type of investments made by the fund, written in a manner that will allow the participant to make an informed decision; and

(b) The performance history of the type of investments made by the fund, covering the five-year period preceding the date of the evaluation.

[87 FR 31680, May 24, 2022]

§ 1640.6 Methods of providing information.

The TSP or its record keeper will furnish the information described in this part to participants by making it available on the TSP website. A participant can request paper copies of that information by calling the ThriftLine, submitting a request through the TSP website, or by writing to the TSP record keeper.

[87 FR 31680, May 24, 2022]

PART 1645 CALCULATION OF SHARE PRICES

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 8439(a)(3) and 8474.

Source: 68 FR 35502, June 13, 2003, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1645.1 Definitions.

(a) Definitions generally applicable to the Thrift Savings Plan are set forth at 5 CFR 1690.1.

(b) As used in this part:

Accrued means that income is accounted for when earned and expenses are accounted for when incurred.

Administrative expenses means expenses described in 5 U.S.C. 8437(c)(3).

Basis means the number of shares of an investment fund upon which the calculation of a share price is based.

Business day means any calendar day for which share prices are calculated.

Forfeitures means amounts forfeited to the TSP pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 8432(g)(2) and other non-statutory forfeited amounts, net of restored forfeited amounts.

§ 1645.2 Posting of transactions.

Contributions, loan payments, loan disbursements, withdrawals, fund reallocations, fund transfers, and other transactions will be posted in dollars and in shares by source and by TSP core fund to the appropriate individual account by the TSP record keeper, using the share price for the date the transaction is posted.

[87 FR 31680, May 24, 2022]

§ 1645.3 Calculation of total net earnings for each TSP core fund.

(a) Each business day, net earnings will be calculated separately for each TSP core fund.

(b) Net earnings for each fund will equal:

(1) The sum of the following items, if any, accrued since the last business day:

(i) Interest on money of that fund which is invested in the Government Securities Investment Fund;

(ii) Interest on other short-term investments of the fund;

(iii) Other income (such as dividends, interest, or securities lending income) on investments of the fund; and

(iv) Capital gains or losses on investments of the fund, net of transaction costs.

(2) Minus the accrued administrative expenses of the fund, determined in accordance with § 1645.4.

(c) The net earnings for each TSP core fund determined in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section will be added to the residual net earnings for that fund from the previous business day, as described in § 1645.5(b), to produce the total net earnings. The total net earnings will be used to calculate the share price for that business day.

[70 FR 32214, June 1, 2005, as amended at 87 FR 31681, May 24, 2022]

§ 1645.4 Administrative expenses attributable to each TSP core fund.

A portion of the administrative expenses accrued during each business day will be charged to each TSP core fund. A fund's respective portion of administrative expenses will be determined as follows:

(a) Accrued administrative expenses (other than those described in paragraph (b) of this section) will be reduced by:

(1) Accrued forfeitures;

(2) The fees described in §§ 1601.53(a) (relating to the mutual fund window), 1655.21 (relating to loans), 1653.6 (relating to retirement benefits court orders), and 1653.16 (relating to child support court orders) of this chapter; and

(3) Accrued earnings on forfeitures, abandoned accounts, unapplied deposits, and fees described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.

(b) Investment management fees and other accrued administrative expenses attributable only to a particular fund will be charged solely to that fund.

(c) The amount of accrued administrative expenses not covered by forfeitures, fees, and earnings under paragraph (a) of this section, and not described in paragraph (b) of this section, will be charged on a pro rata basis to all TSP core funds, based on the respective fund balances on the last business day of the prior month end.

[70 FR 32214, June 1, 2005, as amended at 87 FR 31681, May 24, 2022]

§ 1645.5 Calculation of share prices.

(a) Calculation of share price. The share price for each TSP core fund for each business day will apply to all sources of contributions for that fund. The total net earnings (as computed under § 1645.3) for each fund will be divided by the total fund basis (as computed under § 1645.6) for that fund. The resulting number, computed to ten decimal places, represents the incremental change in the value of that fund from the last business day to the current business day. The share price for that fund for the current business day is the sum of the incremental change in the share price for the current business day plus the share price for the prior business day, truncated to four decimal places.

(b) Residual net earnings. When the total net earnings for each business day for each TSP Fund are divided by the total fund basis in that fund, there will be residual net earnings attributable to the truncation described in paragraph (a) of this section which will not be included in the incremental change in the share price of the fund for that business day. The residual net earnings that are not included in the incremental share price for the fund may be added to the earnings for that fund on the next business day.

[70 FR 32214, June 1, 2005, as amended at 87 FR 31681, May 24, 2022]

§ 1645.6 Basis for calculation of share prices.

The total fund basis for a TSP core fund will be the sum of the number of shares in all individual accounts from all sources of contributions in that fund as of the opening of business on each business day.

[70 FR 32215, June 1, 2005, as amended at 87 FR 31681, May 24, 2022]

PART 1650 METHODS OF WITHDRAWING FUNDS FROM THE THRIFT SAVINGS PLAN

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 8351, 8432d, 8433, 8434, 8435, 8474(b)(5) and 8474(c)(1).

Source: 68 FR 35503, June 13, 2003, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General

§ 1650.1 Definitions.

(a) Definitions generally applicable to the Thrift Savings Plan are set forth at 5 CFR 1690.1.

(b) As used in this part:

In-service withdrawal means an age-based or financial hardship withdrawal from the TSP that may be available to a participant who has not yet separated from Government service.

Post-employment distribution means a distribution from the TSP that is available to a participant who is separated from Government service.

Required beginning date means the required beginning date as defined in Internal Revenue Code section 401(a)(9) and the regulations and guidance promulgated thereunder.

Required minimum distribution means the amount required to be distributed to a participant beginning on the required beginning date and every year thereafter pursuant to Internal Revenue Code section 401(a)(9) and the regulations promulgated thereunder, as applicable.

Roth in-plan conversion means a taxable rollover to a designated Roth account as stated in 26 U.S.C. 402A(c)(4).

TSP withdrawal means a post-employment distribution and/or an in-service withdrawal.

[68 FR 35503, June 13, 2003, as amended at 70 FR 32215, June 1, 2005; 84 FR 46420, Sept. 4, 2019; 85 FR 40570, July 7, 2020; 87 FR 31681, May 24, 2022; 91 FR 1672, Jan. 15, 2026]

§ 1650.2 Eligibility and general rules for a TSP withdrawal.

(a) A participant who is separated from Government service can elect a distribution of all or a portion of his or her account balance by one or a combination of the distribution methods described in subpart B of this part.

(b) A post-employment distribution will not be paid unless TSP records indicate that the participant is separated from Government service. The TSP record keeper will, when possible, cancel a pending post-employment distribution election upon receiving information from an employing agency that a participant is no longer separated.

(c) A participant cannot make a full post-employment distribution of his or her account until any outstanding TSP loan has either been repaid in full or declared to be a loan foreclosure. An outstanding TSP loan will not affect a participant's eligibility for a partial post-employment distribution or an in-service withdrawal.

(d) A separated participant who is reemployed in a position in which he or she is eligible to participate in the TSP is subject to the following rules:

(1) A participant who is reemployed in a TSP-eligible position on or before the 31st full calendar day after separation is not eligible to withdraw his or her TSP account in accordance with subpart B of this part.

(2) A participant who is reemployed in a TSP-eligible position more than 31 full calendar days after separation and who made a post-employment withdrawal while separated may not withdraw any remaining portion of his or her account balance in accordance with subpart B of this part until he or she again separates from Government service.

(e) A participant who has not separated from Government service may be eligible to withdraw all or a portion of his or her account in accordance with subparts D and E of this part.

(f) A participant can elect to have any portion of a single or installment payment that is not rolled over to an eligible employer plan, traditional IRA, or Roth IRA deposited directly, by electronic funds transfer (EFT), into a savings or checking account at a financial institution in the United States.

(g) If a participant has a civilian TSP account and a uniformed services TSP account, the rules in this part apply to each account separately. For example, the participant is eligible to make four age-based in-service withdrawals from the civilian account and four age-based in-service withdrawals from the uniformed services account per calendar year. A separate withdrawal request must be made for each account.

(h) A participant may elect to have his or her TSP withdrawal distributed from the participant's traditional balance only, Roth balance only, or pro rata from the participant's traditional and Roth balances. Any distribution from the traditional balance will be prorated between the tax-deferred balance and any tax-exempt balance. Any distribution from the Roth balance will be prorated between contributions in the Roth balance and earnings in the Roth balance. In addition, all TSP withdrawals will be distributed pro rata from all TSP core funds in which the participant's account is invested. All prorated amounts will be based on the balances in each TSP core fund or source of contributions on the day the TSP withdrawal is processed.

[68 FR 35503, June 13, 2003, as amended at 77 FR 26426, May 4, 2012; 84 FR 46420, Sept. 4, 2019; 87 FR 31681, May 24, 2022]

§ 1650.3 Frozen accounts.

(a) All distributions from the TSP are subject to the rules relating to spousal rights (found in subpart G of this part) and to domestic relations orders, alimony and child support legal process, and child abuse enforcement orders (found in 5 CFR part 1653).

(b) A participant may not take a distribution of any portion of his or her account balance if the account is frozen due to a pending retirement benefits court order, an alimony or child support enforcement order, or a child abuse enforcement order, or because a freeze has been placed on the account by the TSP record keeper for another reason.

[87 FR 31681, May 24, 2022]

§ 1650.4 Certification of truthfulness.

By completing a TSP withdrawal request, the participant certifies, under penalty of perjury, that all information provided to the TSP record keeper during the withdrawal process is true and complete, including statements concerning the participant's marital status and, where applicable, the spouse's email or physical address at the time the application is filed or the current spouse's consent to the withdrawal.

[87 FR 31681, May 24, 2022]

§ 1650.5 Returned funds.

If a TSP withdrawal is returned as undeliverable, the TSP record keeper will attempt to locate the participant. If the participant does not respond within 90 days, the returned funds will be forfeited to the TSP. The participant can claim the forfeited funds, although they will not be credited with TSP investment fund returns.

[87 FR 31681, May 24, 2022]

§ 1650.6 Deceased participant.

(a) The TSP record keeper will cancel a pending TSP withdrawal request if it receives notice, in the form and manner prescribed by the TSP record keeper, that a participant is deceased. The TSP record keeper will also cancel an annuity purchase made on or after the participant's date of death but before annuity payments have begun, and the annuity vendor will return the funds to the TSP.

(b) If the TSP record keeper processes a TSP withdrawal request before being notified that a participant is deceased, the funds cannot be returned to the TSP.

[87 FR 31681, May 24, 2022]

Subpart B Post-Employment Withdrawals

§ 1650.11 Post-employment distribution elections.

(a) Subject to the restrictions in this subpart, participants may elect a distribution of all or a portion of their TSP accounts in a single payment, a series of installment payments, a life annuity, or any combination of these options.

(b) If a participant's account balance is less than $5.00 when he or she separates from Government service, the balance will automatically be forfeited to the TSP. The participant can reclaim the money by contacting the TSP record keeper and requesting the amount that was forfeited; however, TSP investment earnings will not be credited to the account after the date of the forfeiture.

(c) Provided that the participant has not submitted a post-employment distribution election prior to the date the automatic payment is processed, if a participant's vested account balance is less than $200 when he or she separates from Government service, the TSP record keeper will automatically pay the balance in a single payment to the participant at his or her TSP address of record. The participant will not be eligible for any other payment option or be allowed to remain in the TSP.

[87 FR 31682, May 24, 2022, as amended at 89 FR 18534, Mar. 14, 2024]

§ 1650.12 Single payment.

Provided that, in the case of a partial distribution, the amount elected is not less than $1,000, a participant can elect a distribution of all or a portion of his or her account balance in a single payment.

[87 FR 31682, May 24, 2022]

§ 1650.13 Installment payments.

(a) A participant can elect a distribution of all or a portion of the account balance in a series of substantially equal installment payments, to be paid on a monthly, quarterly, or annual basis in one of the following manners:

(1) A specific dollar amount. The amount elected must be at least $25 per installment; if the amount elected is less than $25 per installment, the request will be rejected. Payments will be made in the amount requested each installment period.

(2) An installment payment amount calculated based on life expectancy. Payments based on life expectancy are determined using the factors set forth in the Internal Revenue Service life expectancy tables codified at 26 CFR 1.401(a)(9)-9(b) and (c). The installment payment amount is calculated by dividing the account balance by the factor from the IRS life expectancy tables based upon the participant's age as of his or her birthday in the year payments are to begin. This amount is then divided by the number of installment payments to be made per calendar year to yield the installment payment amount. In subsequent years, the installment payment amount is recalculated in January by dividing the prior December 31 account balance by the factor in the IRS life expectancy tables based upon the participant's age as of his or her birthday in the year payments will be made. There is no minimum amount for an installment payment calculated based on this method.

(b) A participant can make the following changes at any time as described in § 1650.17(c):

(1) A participant receiving installment payments calculated based on life expectancy can elect to change to fixed dollar installment payments;

(2) A participant receiving installment payments based on a fixed dollar amount can elect to stop these payments and make a new election to receive installment payments calculated based on life expectancy;

(3) A participant receiving installment payments based on a fixed dollar amount can elect to change the amount of his or her fixed payments; and

(4) A participant receiving fixed dollar installment payments can elect to change the frequency of his or her installment payments.

(c) If a participant elects to receive installments pro rata from his or her traditional and Roth balances, installment payments will be made until the participant's entire account balance is expended, unless the participant elects to change or stop installment payments as described in in § 1650.17(c). If a participant elects to receive installment payments from his or her traditional balance only or Roth balance only, installment payments will automatically continue from the non-elected balance once the elected balance has been expended, unless the participant elects to change or stop installment payments as described in § 1650.17(c).

(d) A participant receiving installment payments, regardless of the calculation method, can elect at any time to receive the remainder or part of his or her account balance in a single payment.

(e) A participant may only have one installment payment series in place at a time.

(f) A participant receiving installment payments may change the investment of his or her account balance among the TSP core funds and may invest through the mutual fund window as provided in 5 CFR part 1601.

(g) Upon receiving information from an employing agency that a participant receiving installment payments is no longer separated, the TSP record keeper will cancel all pending and future installment payments.

[84 FR 46420, Sept. 4, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 57666, Sept. 16, 2020; 85 FR 76420, Nov. 30, 2020; 87 FR 31682, May 24, 2022]

§ 1650.14 Annuities.

(a) A participant electing a post-employment distribution can use all or a portion of his or her total account balance, traditional balance only, or Roth balance only to purchase a life annuity.

(b) If a participant has a traditional balance and a Roth balance and elects to use all or a portion of his or her total account balance to purchase a life annuity, the TSP record keeper must purchase two separate annuity contracts for the participant: One from the portion of the withdrawal distributed from his or her traditional balance and one from the portion of the withdrawal distributed from his or her Roth balance.

(c) A participant cannot elect to purchase an annuity contract with less than $3,500.

(d) Unless an amount must be paid directly to the participant to satisfy any applicable minimum distribution requirement of the Internal Revenue Code, the TSP record keeper will purchase the annuity contract(s) from the TSP's annuity vendor using the participant's entire account balance or the portion specified. In the event that a minimum distribution is required by section 401(a)(9) of the Internal Revenue Code before the date of the first annuity payment, the TSP record keeper will compute that amount prior to purchasing the annuity contract(s) and pay it directly to the participant.

(e) An annuity will provide a payment for life to the participant and, if applicable, to the participant's survivor, in accordance with the type of annuity chosen. The TSP annuity vendor will make the first annuity payment approximately 30 days after the TSP record keeper purchases the annuity.

(f) The amount of an annuity payment will depend on the type of annuity chosen, the participant's age when the annuity is purchased (and the age of the joint annuitant, if applicable), the amount used to purchase the annuity, and the interest rate available when the annuity is purchased.

(g) Participants may choose among the following types of annuities:

(1) A single life annuity with level payments. This annuity provides monthly payments to the participant as long as the participant lives. The amount of the monthly payment remains constant.

(2) A joint life annuity for the participant and spouse with level payments. This annuity provides monthly payments to the participant, as long as both the participant and spouse are alive, and monthly payments to the survivor, as long as the survivor is alive. The amount of the monthly payment remains constant, although the amount received will depend on the type of survivor benefit elected.

(3) A joint life annuity for the participant and another person with level payments. This annuity provides monthly payments to the participant as long as both the participant and the joint annuitant are alive, and monthly payments to the survivor as long as the survivor is alive. The amount of the monthly payment remains constant. The joint annuitant must be either a former spouse or a person who has an insurable interest in the participant.

(i) A person has an “insurable interest in the participant” if the person is financially dependent on the participant and could reasonably expect to derive financial benefit from the participant's continued life.

(ii) A relative (either blood or adopted, but not by marriage) who is closer than a first cousin is presumed to have an insurable interest in the participant.

(iii) A participant can establish that a person not described in paragraph (g)(3)(ii) of this section has an insurable interest in him or her by submitting, with the annuity request, an affidavit from a person other than the participant or the joint annuitant that demonstrates that the designated joint annuitant has an insurable interest in the participant (as described in paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section).

(4) Either a single life or joint (with spouse) life annuity with increasing payments. This annuity provides monthly payments to the participant only, or to the participant and spouse, as applicable. The monthly payments are increased once each year on the anniversary of the first payment by a fixed rate of 2 percent. If the participant chooses a joint life annuity, the annual 2 percent increase also applies to benefits received by the survivor.

(h) For each distribution election in which the participant elects to purchase an annuity with some or all of the amount distributed, if the TSP record keeper must purchase two annuity contracts, the type of annuity, the annuity features, and the joint annuitant (if applicable) selected by the participant will apply to both annuities purchased. For each distribution election, a participant cannot elect more than one type of annuity by which to receive a distribution, or portion thereof, from any one account.

(i) A participant who chooses a joint life annuity (with a spouse, a former spouse, or a person with an insurable interest) must choose either a 50 percent or a 100 percent survivor benefit. The survivor benefit applies when either the participant or the joint annuitant dies.

(1) A 50 percent survivor benefit provides a monthly payment to the survivor which is 50 percent of the amount of the payment that is made when both the participant and the joint annuitant are alive.

(2) A 100 percent survivor benefit provides a monthly payment to the survivor, which is equal to the amount of the payment that is made when both the participant and the joint annuitant are alive.

(3) Either the 50 percent or the 100 percent survivor benefit may be combined with any joint life annuity option. However, the 100 percent survivor benefit can only be combined with a joint annuity with a person other than the spouse (or a former spouse, if required by a retirement benefits court order) if the joint annuitant is not more than 10 years younger than the participant.

(j) The following features are mutually exclusive, but can be combined with certain types of annuities, as indicated:

(1) Cash refund. This feature provides that, if the participant (and joint annuitant, where applicable) dies before an amount equal to the balance used to purchase the annuity has been paid out, the difference between the balance used to purchase the annuity and the sum of monthly payments already made will be paid to the beneficiary(ies) designated by the participant (or by the joint annuitant, where applicable). This feature can be combined with any type of annuity.

(2) Ten-year certain. This feature provides that, if the participant dies before annuity payments have been made for 10 years (120 payments), monthly payments will be made to the beneficiary(ies) until 120 payments have been made. This feature can be combined with any single life annuity, but cannot be combined with a joint life annuity.

(k) Once an annuity has been purchased, the type of annuity, the annuity features, and the identity of the joint annuitant cannot be changed, and the annuity cannot be terminated.

[68 FR 35503, June 13, 2003, as amended at 77 FR 26426, May 4, 2012; 84 FR 46421, Sept. 4, 2019; 85 FR 12432, Mar. 3, 2020; 87 FR 31682, May 24, 2022]

§ 1650.16 Required minimum distributions.

(a) A separated participant must receive required minimum distributions from his or her account commencing no later than the required beginning date and, for each year thereafter, no later than December 31.

(b) A separated participant may elect to withdraw from his or her account or to begin receiving payments before the required beginning date, but is not required to do so.

(c) In the event that a separated participant does not withdraw from his or her account an amount sufficient to satisfy his or her required minimum distribution for the year, the TSP record keeper will automatically distribute the necessary amount on or before the applicable date described in paragraph (a) of this section.

(d) [Reserved]

(e) The rules set forth in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section shall apply to a separated participant who reclaims an account balance that was declared abandoned.

[84 FR 46421, Sept. 4, 2019, as amended at 87 FR 31682, May 24, 2022; 88 FR 74330, Oct. 31, 2023]

§ 1650.17 Changes and cancellation of a post-employment distribution request.

(a) Before processing. A pending post-employment distribution request can be cancelled if the cancellation is received and can be processed before the TSP record keeper processes the request. However, the TSP record keeper processes post-employment distribution requests each business day and those that are entered into the record keeping system by 12 noon eastern time will ordinarily be processed that night; those entered after 12 noon eastern time will be processed the next business day. Consequently, a cancellation request must be received and entered into the system before the cut-off for the day the request is submitted for processing in order to be effective to cancel the post-employment distribution.

(b) After processing. A post-employment distribution election cannot be changed or cancelled after the withdrawal request has been processed. Consequently, funds disbursed cannot be returned to the TSP.

(c) Change in installment payments. If a participant is receiving a series of installment payments, with appropriate supporting documentation as required by the TSP record keeper, the participant can change at any time: The payment amount or frequency (including stopping installment payments), the address to which the payments are mailed, the amount of federal tax withholding, whether or not a payment will be rolled over (if permitted) and the portion to be rolled over, the method by which direct payments to the participant are being sent (EFT or check), the identity of the financial institution to which payments are rolled over or sent directly to the participant by EFT, or the identity of the EFT account.

[87 FR 31683, May 24, 2022]

Subpart C Procedures for Post-Employment Distributions

Source: 87 FR 31683, May 24, 2022, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1650.21 Information provided by employing agency or service.

When a TSP participant separates from Government service, his or her employing agency or service must report the separation and the date of separation to the TSP record keeper. Until the TSP record keeper receives this information from the employing agency or service, it will not pay a post-employment distribution.

§ 1650.22 Accounts of $200 or more.

A participant whose account balance is $200 or more must submit a properly completed distribution election to request a post-employment distribution of his or her account balance.

§ 1650.23 Accounts of less than $200.

Upon receiving information from the employing agency that a participant has been separated for more than 60 days and that any outstanding loans have been closed, provided the participant has not made a distribution election before the distribution is processed, if the account balance is $5.00 or more but less than $200, the TSP record keeper will automatically distribute the entire amount of his or her account balance. The TSP record keeper will not pay this amount by EFT. The participant may not elect to leave this amount in the TSP, nor will the TSP record keeper roll over any automatically distributed amount to an eligible employer plan, traditional IRA, or Roth IRA. However, the participant may make an indirect rollover of this payment into an eligible employer plan, traditional IRA, or Roth IRA to the extent the roll over is permitted by the Internal Revenue Code.

§ 1650.24 How to obtain a post-employment distribution.

To request a post-employment distribution, a participant must initiate a request in the form and manner prescribed by the TSP record keeper.

§ 1650.25 Rollovers from the TSP.

(a) The TSP record keeper will, at the participant's election, roll over all or any portion of an eligible rollover distribution (as defined by section 402(c) of the Internal Revenue Code) directly to an eligible employer plan or an IRA.

(b) If a post-employment distribution includes a payment from a participant's traditional balance and a payment from the participant's Roth balance, the TSP record keeper will, at the participant's election, roll over all or a portion of the payment from the traditional balance to a single plan or IRA and all or a portion of the payment from the Roth balance to another plan or IRA. The TSP record keeper will also allow the traditional and Roth portions of a payment to be rolled over to the same plan or IRA but, for each type of balance, the election must be made separately by the participant and each type of balance will be rolled over separately. However, the TSP record keeper will not roll over portions of the participant's traditional balance to two different institutions or portions of the participant's Roth balance to two different institutions.

(c) If a post-employment distribution includes an amount from a participant's Roth balance and the participant elects to roll over that amount to another eligible employer plan or Roth IRA, the TSP record keeper will inform the plan administrator or trustee of the start date of the participant's Roth 5 year non-exclusion period or the participant's Roth begin date, and the portion of the distribution that represents Roth contributions. If a post-employment distribution includes an amount from a participant's Roth balance and the participant does not elect to roll over the amount, the TSP record keeper will inform the participant of the portion of the distribution that represents Roth contributions.

(d) Tax-exempt contributions can be rolled over only if the IRA or plan accepts such funds.

(e) The TSP record keeper will roll over distributions only to the extent that the rollover is permitted by the Internal Revenue Code.

[87 FR 31683, May 24, 2022, as amended at 91 FR 1672, Jan. 15, 2026]

Subpart D In-Service Withdrawals

§ 1650.31 Age-based withdrawals.

(a) A participant who has reached age 59 1/2 and who has not separated from Government service is eligible to withdraw all or a portion of his or her vested TSP account balance in a single payment. Unless the withdrawal request is for the entire vested account balance, the entire vested traditional balance, or the entire vested Roth balance, the amount of an age-based withdrawal request must be at least $1,000.

(b) An age-based withdrawal is an eligible rollover distribution, so a participant may request that the TSP record keeper roll over all or a portion of the withdrawal to a traditional IRA, an eligible employer plan, or a Roth IRA in accordance with § 1650.25.

(c) A participant is permitted four age-based withdrawals per calendar year for an account.

[68 FR 35503, June 13, 2003, as amended at 75 FR 24785, May 6, 2010; 77 FR 26427, May 4, 2012; 84 FR 46422, Sept. 4, 2019; 87 FR 31683, May 24, 2022; 89 FR 18534, Mar. 14, 2024]

§ 1650.32 Financial hardship withdrawals.

(a) A participant who has not separated from Government service and who can certify that he or she has a financial hardship is eligible to withdraw all or a portion of his or her own contributions to the TSP (and their attributable earnings) in a single payment to meet certain specified financial obligations. The amount of a financial hardship withdrawal request must be at least $1,000.

(b) To be eligible for a financial hardship withdrawal, a participant must have a financial need that results from at least one of the following five conditions:

(1) The participant's monthly cash flow is negative (i.e., the participant's income is less than his or her monthly expenses on a recurring basis);

(2) The participant has incurred medical expenses as a result of a medical condition, illness, or injury to the participant, the participant's spouse, or the participant's dependents. Generally, eligible expenses are those that would be eligible for deduction as medical expenses for Federal income tax purposes. Eligible medical expenses include the cost of household improvements required as a result of a medical condition, illness or injury. Household improvements are structural improvements to the participant's living quarters or the installation of special equipment that is necessary to accommodate the circumstances of the incapacitated person.

(3) The participant must have paid the cost of repair or replacement resulting from a personal casualty loss that would be eligible for deduction for Federal income tax purposes, but without regard to the IRS income limitations on deductibility, fair market value of the property, or number of events. Personal casualty loss includes damage, destruction, or loss of property resulting from a sudden, unexpected, or unusual event, such as an earthquake, hurricane, tornado, flood, storm, fire, or theft.

(4) The participant must have paid attorney fees and court costs associated with separation or divorce. Court-ordered payments to a spouse or former spouse and child support payments are not allowed, nor are costs of obtaining prepaid legal services or other coverage for legal services.

(5) The participant has incurred expenses and losses (including loss of income) on account of a disaster declared by the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, Public Law 100-707, provided that the participant's principal residence or principal place of employment at the time of the disaster was located in an area designated by FEMA for individual assistance with respect to the disaster.

(c) When determining financial hardship needs, a participant cannot use any expenses that are already paid or are reimbursable to the participant by insurance or otherwise.

(d) The amount of a participant's financial hardship withdrawal cannot exceed the smallest of the following:

(1) The amount requested; or

(2) The amount in the participant's account that is equal to his or her own contributions and attributable earnings.

(e) The participant must certify that he or she has a financial hardship as described on the hardship withdrawal request, and that the dollar amount of the withdrawal request does not exceed the actual amount of the financial hardship.

(f) A participant is not eligible for an in-service hardship withdrawal based solely on monthly negative cash flow (as described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section) during the time he or she has pending a petition in bankruptcy under Chapter 13 of the Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. chapter 13).

[68 FR 35503, June 13, 2003, as amended at 68 FR 74451, Dec. 23, 2003; 85 FR 61805, Oct. 1, 2020; 87 FR 31683, May 24, 2022]

§ 1650.33 [Reserved]
§ 1650.34 Uniqueness of loans and in-service withdrawals.

An outstanding TSP loan cannot be converted into an in-service withdrawal or vice versa. Funds distributed as an in-service withdrawal cannot be returned or repaid.

[87 FR 31684, May 24, 2022]

Subpart E Procedures for In-Service Withdrawals

Source: 87 FR 31684, May 24, 2022, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1650.41 How to obtain an age-based withdrawal.

To request an age-based withdrawal, a participant must initiate a request in form and manner prescribed by the TSP record keeper.

§ 1650.42 How to obtain a financial hardship withdrawal.

(a) To request a financial hardship withdrawal, a participant must initiate a request in the form and manner prescribed by the TSP record keeper.

(b) There is no limit on the number of financial hardship withdrawals a participant can make; however, the TSP record keeper will not accept a financial hardship withdrawal request for a period of six months after a financial hardship disbursement is made.

§ 1650.43 [Reserved]

Subpart F Roth In-Plan Conversions

§ 1650.60 Eligibility and general rules for Roth in-plan conversions.

(a) A participant or beneficiary participant may request up to a maximum of 26 Roth in-plan conversions per calendar year.

(b) To be eligible for a Roth in-plan conversion, the participant or beneficiary participant must have a vested account balance of at least $500 at the time of the request.

(c) The total amount of a conversion request must be at least $500.

(d) Participants must retain at least $500 in each of their tax-deferred employee contribution, tax-exempt contribution, agency automatic (1%) contribution, and agency matching contribution balances.

(e) Amounts invested in the Mutual Fund Window cannot be converted unless those amounts are first transferred back into one or more of the TSP core funds.

(f) Administrative holds placed pursuant to § 1690.15 will restrict an individual from requesting a Roth in-plan conversion.

(g) The TSP record keeper shall promptly notify the participant or beneficiary participant if their Roth in-plan conversion request is denied.

[91 FR 1672, Jan. 15, 2026]

Subpart G Spousal Rights

§ 1650.61 Spousal rights applicable to post-employment withdrawals.

(a) The spousal rights described in this section apply to total post-employment distributions when the married participant's vested TSP account balance exceeds $3,500, to partial post-employment distributions without regard to the amount of the participant's account balance, and to any change in the amount or frequency of an existing installment payment series, including a change from payments calculated based on life expectancy to payments based on a fixed-dollar amount.

(b) Unless the participant was granted an exception under this subpart to the spousal notification requirement within 90 days of the date the distribution request is processed by the TSP record keeper, the spouse of a CSRS participant is entitled to notice when the participant applies for a post-employment distribution or makes a change to the amount or frequency of an existing installment payment series. The participant must provide the TSP record keeper with the spouse's correct email or physical address to which to send the required notice.

(c) The spouse of a FERS or uniformed services participant has a right to a joint and survivor annuity with a 50 percent survivor benefit, level payments, and no cash refund based on the participant's entire account balance when the participant elects a total post-employment distribution.

(1) The participant may make a different total post-employment distribution election only if his or her spouse consents to that election and waives the right to this annuity.

(2) A participant's spouse must consent to any partial post-employment distribution election (other than an election to purchase this type of an annuity with such amount) and waive his or her right to this annuity with respect the amount distributed.

(3) A spouse must consent to any change in the amount or frequency of an existing installment payment series and waive his or her right to this annuity with respect to the applicable amount. Spousal consent is not required to stop installment payments.

(4) Unless the participant was granted an exception under this subpart to the spousal consent requirement within 90 days of the date the distribution request is processed by the TSP record keeper, to show that the spouse has consented to a different total or partial post-employment distribution election or installment payment change and waived the right to this annuity with respect to the applicable amount, the participant must submit to the TSP record keeper a properly completed distribution request, signed by his or her spouse.

(5) The spouse's consent and waiver is irrevocable for the applicable distribution or installment payment change once the TSP record keeper has received it.

[84 FR 46422, Sept. 4, 2019, as amended by 85 FR 21312, Apr. 17, 2020; 85 FR 59174, Sept. 21, 2020; 87 FR 31684, May 24, 2022]

§ 1650.62 Spousal rights applicable to in-service withdrawals.

(a) The spousal rights described in this section apply to all in-service withdrawals and do not depend on the amount of the participant's vested account balance or the amount requested for withdrawal.

(b) Unless the participant was granted an exception under this subpart to the spousal notification requirement within 90 days of the date on which the withdrawal request is processed by the TSP record keeper, the spouse of a CSRS participant is entitled to notice when the participant applies for an in-service withdrawal. The participant must provide the TSP record keeper with the spouse's correct email or physical address to which to send the required notice.

(c) Unless the participant was granted an exception under this subpart to the spousal consent requirement within 90 days of the date the withdrawal request is processed by the TSP record keeper, before obtaining an in-service withdrawal, a participant who is covered by FERS or who is a member of the uniformed services must obtain the consent of his or her spouse and waiver of the spouse's right to a joint and survivor annuity described in § 1650.61(c) with respect to the applicable amount. To show the spouse's consent and waiver, a participant must submit to the TSP record keeper a properly completed withdrawal request, signed by his or her spouse. Once a request containing the spouse's consent and waiver has been submitted to the TSP record keeper, the spouse's consent is irrevocable for that withdrawal.

[68 FR 35503, June 13, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 29851, May 26, 2004; 84 Fr 46423, Sept. 4, 2019; 85 FR 21312, Apr. 17, 2020; 85 FR 50174, Sept. 21, 2020; 87 FR 31684, May 24, 2022]

§ 1650.63 Executive Director's exception to the spousal notification requirement.

(a) Whenever this subpart requires the Executive Director to give notice of an action to the spouse of a CSRS participant, an exception to this requirement may be granted if the participant establishes to the satisfaction of the Executive Director that the spouse's whereabouts cannot be determined. A request for such an exception must be submitted to the TSP record keeper in the form and manner prescribed by the TSP record keeper, accompanied by the following:

(1) A court order stating that the spouse's whereabouts cannot be determined;

(2) A police or governmental agency determination, signed by the appropriate department or division head, which states that the spouse's whereabouts cannot be determined; or

(3) Statements by the participant and two other persons, which meet the following requirements:

(i) The participant's statement must give the full name of the spouse, declare the participant's inability to locate the spouse, state the last time the spouse's location was known, explain why the spouse's location is not known currently, and describe the good faith efforts the participant has made to locate the spouse in the 90 days before the request for an exception was received by the TSP record keeper. Examples of attempting to locate the spouse include, but are not limited to, checking with relatives and mutual friends or using telephone directories and directory assistance for the city of the spouse's last known address. Negative statements, such as, “I have not seen nor heard from him,” or “I have not had contact with her,” are not sufficient.

(ii) The statements from two other persons must support the participant's statement that he or she does not know the spouse's whereabouts, and substantiate the participant's description of the efforts he or she made to locate the spouse, including the dates the participant made those efforts.

(iii) All statements must be signed and dated and must include the following certification: “I understand that a false statement or willful misrepresentation is punishable under Federal law (18 U.S.C. 1001) by a fine or imprisonment or both.”.

(b) A TSP withdrawal election will be processed within 90 days of an approved exception so long as the spouse named on the TSP withdrawal request is the spouse for whom the exception has been approved.

(c) The TSP and/or its record keeper may require a participant to provide additional information before granting a waiver. The TSP and/or its record keeper may use any of the information provided to conduct its own search for the spouse.

[68 FR 35503, June 13, 2003, as amended at 70 FR 32215, June 1, 2005; 87 FR 31684, May 24, 2022]

§ 1650.64 Executive Director's exception to the spousal consent requirement.

(a) Whenever this subpart requires the consent of a spouse of a FERS or uniformed services participant to a loan or TSP withdrawal or a waiver of the right to a survivor annuity, an exception to this requirement may be granted if the participant establishes to the satisfaction of the Executive Director that:

(1) The spouse's whereabouts cannot be determined in accordance with the provisions of this subpart; or

(2) Due to exceptional circumstances, requiring the spouse's signature would be inappropriate.

(i) An exception to the requirement for a spouse's signature may be granted based on exceptional circumstances only when the participant presents a court order or government agency determination that contains a finding or a recitation of exceptional circumstances regarding the spouse which would warrant an exception to the signature requirement.

(ii) Exceptional circumstances are narrowly construed, but are exemplified by a court order or government agency determination that:

(A) Indicates that the spouse and the participant have been maintaining separate residences with no financial relationship for three or more years;

(B) Indicates that the spouse abandoned the participant, but for religious or similarly compelling reasons, the parties chose not to divorce; or

(C) Expressly states that the participant may obtain a loan from his or her TSP account or make a TSP withdrawal notwithstanding the absence of the spouse's signature.

(b) A post-employment distribution election or an in-service withdrawal request processed within 90 days of an approved exception will be accepted by the TSP record keeper so long as the spouse named on the request is the spouse for whom the exception has been approved.

[68 FR 35503, June 13, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 29851, May 26, 2004; 87 FR 31685, May 24, 2022]

PART 1651 DEATH BENEFITS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 8424(d), 8432d, 8432(j), 8433(e), 8435(c)(2), 8474(b)(5) and 8474(c)(1).

Source: 62 FR 32429, June 13, 1997, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1651.1 Definitions.

(a) Definitions generally applicable to the Thrift Savings Plan are set forth at 5 CFR 1690.1.

(b) As used in this subpart:

Administrative finding means an evidence-based determination reached by a hearing, inquiry, investigation, or trial before an administrative agency of competent jurisdiction in any State, territory or possession of the United States.

Death benefit means the portion of a deceased participant's account that is payable under FERSA's order of precedence.

Order of precedence means the priority of entitlement to a TSP death benefit specified in 5 U.S.C. 8424(d).

Required beginning date means the required beginning date as defined in Internal Revenue Code section 401(a)(9) and the regulations and guidance promulgated thereunder.

Required minimum distribution means the amount required to be distributed to a beneficiary participant beginning on the required beginning date and every year thereafter pursuant to Internal Revenue Code section 401(a)(9) and the regulations promulgated thereunder, as applicable.

[68 FR 35509, June 13, 2003, as amended at 74 FR 63062, Dec. 2, 2009; 78 FR 57784, Sept. 20, 2013; 84 FR 46423, Sept. 4, 2019; 85 FR 40571, July 7, 2020; 87 FR 31685, May 24, 2022]

§ 1651.2 Entitlement to funds in a deceased participant's account.

(a) Death benefits. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the account balance of a deceased participant will be paid as a death benefit to the individual or individuals surviving the participant, in the following order of precedence:

(1) To the beneficiary or beneficiaries designated by the participant in accordance with § 1651.3;

(2) If there is no designated beneficiary, to the spouse of the participant in accordance with § 1651.5;

(3) If there are no beneficiaries or persons as described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section, to the child or children of the participant and descendants of deceased children by representation in accordance with § 1651.6;

(4) If there are no beneficiaries or persons as described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(3) of this section, to the parents of the participant in equal shares or entirely to the surviving parent in accordance with § 1651.7;

(5) If there are no beneficiaries or persons as described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(4) of this section, to the duly appointed executor or administrator of the estate of the participant in accordance with § 1651.8; or

(6) If there are no beneficiaries or persons as described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(5) of this section, to the next of kin of the participant who is or are entitled under the laws of the state of the participant's domicile on the date of the participant's death in accordance with § 1651.9.

(b) TSP withdrawals. If the TSP record keeper processes a notice that a participant has died, it will cancel any pending request by the participant to withdraw his or her account. The TSP record keeper will also cancel an annuity purchase made on or after the participant's date of death but before annuity payments have begun, and the annuity vendor will return the funds to the TSP. The funds designated by the participant for the withdrawal will be paid as a death benefit in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, unless the participant elected to withdrawal his or her account in the form of an annuity, in which case the funds designated for the purchase of the annuity will be paid as described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (5) of this section:

(1) If the participant requested a single life annuity with no cash refund or 10-year certain feature, the TSP record keeper will pay the funds as a death benefit in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.

(2) If the participant requested a single life annuity with a cash refund or 10-year certain feature, the TSP record keeper will pay the funds as a death benefit to the beneficiary or beneficiaries designated by the participant on the annuity portion of the TSP post-employment distribution request, or as a death benefit in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section if no beneficiary designated on the withdrawal request survives the participant.

(3) If the participant requested a joint life annuity without additional features, the TSP record keeper will pay the funds as a death benefit to the joint life annuitant if he or she survives the participant, or as a death benefit in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section if the joint life annuitant does not survive the participant.

(4) If the participant requested a joint life annuity with a cash refund or 10-year certain feature, the TSP record keeper will pay the funds as a death benefit to the joint life annuitant if he or she survives the participant, or as a death benefit to the beneficiary or beneficiaries designated by the participant on the annuity portion of the TSP post-employment distribution request if the joint life annuitant does not survive the participant, or as a death benefit in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section if neither the joint life annuitant nor any designated beneficiary survives the participant.

(5) If a participant dies after annuity payments have begun, the annuity vendor will make or stop the payments in accordance with the annuity method selected.

(c) TSP loans. If the TSP record keeper processes a notice that a participant has died, any pending loan disbursement will be cancelled and the funds designated for the loan will be distributed as a death benefit in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section. If a TSP loan has been disbursed, but the check has not been negotiated (or an electronic funds transfer (EFT) has been returned), the loan proceeds will be used to pay off the loan. If the loan check has been negotiated (or the EFT has been processed), the funds cannot be returned to the TSP and the TSP record keeper will declare the loan balance as a loan foreclosure in accordance with part 1655 of this chapter.

(d) TSP investments. Upon a participant's death, his or her TSP account will remain invested in the same TSP core funds as the account balance was invested on his or her date of death. If any portion of the participant's TSP account is invested through the mutual fund window at the time of his or her death, his or her mutual fund window account will be closed and the balance will be transferred back to the TSP core funds in the participant's TSP account in accordance with his or her most recent investment election until it is paid out or a beneficiary participant account is established under this part.

[68 FR 35509, June 13, 2003, as amended at 70 FR 32215, June 1, 2005; 80 FR 52174, Aug. 28, 2015; 87 FR 31685, May 24, 2022]

§ 1651.3 Designation of beneficiary.

(a) Designation requirements. A participant may designate one or more beneficiaries for his or her TSP account. A valid TSP designation of beneficiary remains in effect until it is properly changed as described in § 1651.4.

(b) Eligible beneficiaries. Any individual, firm, corporation, or legal entity, including the U.S. Government, may be designated as a beneficiary. A participant can name up to 20 total (primary and contingent) beneficiaries to share the death benefit. A beneficiary may be designated without the knowledge or consent of that beneficiary or the knowledge or consent of the participant's spouse.

(c) Validity requirements. To be valid and accepted by the TSP record keeper, a TSP designation of beneficiary must:

(1) Be received by the TSP record keeper on or before the date of the participant's death;

(2) Identify the participant in such a manner so that the TSP record keeper can locate his or her TSP account;

(3) Be signed and properly dated by the participant and signed and properly dated by one witness:

(i) The participant must either sign the designation of beneficiary in the presence of the witness or acknowledge his or her signature on the designation of beneficiary to the witness;

(ii) A witness must be age 21 or older; and

(iii) A witness designated as a beneficiary will not be entitled to receive a death benefit payment; if a witness is the only named beneficiary, the designation of the beneficiary is invalid. If more than one beneficiary is named, the share of the witness beneficiary will be allocated among the remaining beneficiaries pro rata;

(4) Designate primary beneficiary shares which when summed equal 100%;

(5) Contain no substantive alterations (e.g., struck-through shares or scratched-out names of beneficiaries);

(6) Designate each primary and each contingent beneficiary in such a manner so that the TSP record keeper can identify the individual or entity;

(7) Not attempt to designate beneficiaries for the participant's traditional balance and the participant's Roth balance separately; and

(8) Be received by the TSP record keeper not more than 365 calendar days after the date of the participant's most recent signature.

(d) Will. A participant cannot use a will to designate a TSP beneficiary.

[87 FR 31685, May 24, 2022]

§ 1651.4 How to change a designation of beneficiary.

(a) Change. To change a designation of beneficiary, the participant must submit to the TSP record keeper a new TSP designation of beneficiary meeting the requirements of § 1651.3 to the TSP record keeper. If the TSP record keeper receives more than one valid designation of beneficiary, it will honor the designation with the latest date signed by the participant. A participant may change a TSP beneficiary at any time, without the knowledge or consent of any person, including his or her spouse.

(b) [Reserved]

(c) Will. A participant cannot use a will to change a TSP designation of beneficiary.

[87 FR 31686, May 24, 2022]

§ 1651.5 Spouse of participant.

(a) For purposes of payment under § 1651.2(a)(2) and establishment of beneficiary participant accounts under § 1651.19, the spouse of the participant is the person to whom the participant was married on the date of death. A person is considered to be married even if the parties are separated, unless a court decree of divorce or annulment has been entered. The laws of the jurisdiction in which the marriage was initially established will be used to determine whether the participant was married on the date of death.

(b) If a person claims to have a marriage at common law with a deceased participant, the TSP record keeper will pay benefits to the putative spouse under § 1651.2(a)(2) in accordance with the marital status shown on the most recent Federal income tax return filed by the participant. Alternatively, the putative spouse may submit a court order or administrative adjudication determining that the common law marriage is valid.

[71 FR 9897, Feb. 28, 2006, as amended at 75 FR 78879, Dec. 17, 2010; 78 FR 57784, Sept. 20, 2013; 87 FR 31686, May 24, 2022]

§ 1651.6 Child or children.

If the account is to be paid to the child or children, or to descendants of deceased children by representation, as provided in § 1651.2(a)(3), the following rules apply:

(a) Child. A child includes a natural or adopted child of the deceased participant.

(b) Descendants of deceased children. “By representation” means that, if a child of the participant dies before the participant, all descendants of the deceased child at the same level will equally divide the deceased child's share of the participant's account.

(c) Adoption by another. A natural child of a TSP participant who has been adopted by someone other than the participant during the participant's lifetime will not be considered the child of the participant, unless the adopting parent is the spouse of the TSP participant.

(d) Parentage disputes. If the identity of the father or mother of a child is in dispute or otherwise unclear (e.g., only one parent is listed on a birth certificate), the purported child must submit to the TSP record keeper either:

(1) A court order or other administrative finding establishing parentage; or

(2) Documentation sufficient for establishing parentage under the law of the state in which the participant was domiciled at the time of death.

[62 FR 32429, June 13, 1997, as amended at 74 FR 63063, Dec. 2, 2009; 87 FR 31686, May 24, 2022]

§ 1651.7 Parent or parents.

If the account is to be paid to the participant's parent or parents under § 1651.2(a)(4), the following rules apply:

(a) Amount. If both parents are alive at the time of the participant's death, each parent will be separately paid fifty percent of the account. If only one parent is alive at the time of the participant's death, he or she will receive the entire account balance.

(b) Step-parent. A step-parent is not considered a parent unless the step-parent adopted the participant.

§ 1651.8 Participant's estate.

If the account is to be paid to the duly appointed executor or administrator of the participant's estate under § 1651.2(a)(5), the following rules apply:

(a) Appointment by court. The executor or administrator must provide documentation of court appointment.

(b) Appointment by operation of law. If state law provides procedures for handling small estates, the TSP record keeper will accept the person authorized to dispose of the assets of the deceased participant under those procedures as a duly appointed executor or administrator. Documentation which demonstrates that the person is properly authorized under state law must be submitted to the TSP record keeper.

[62 FR 32429, June 13, 1997, as amended at 87 FR 31686, May 24, 2022]

§ 1651.9 Participant's next of kin.

If the account is to be paid to the participant's next of kin under § 1651.2(a)(6), the next of kin of the participant will be determined in accordance with the state law of the participant's domicile at the time of death.

§ 1651.10 Deceased and non-existent beneficiaries.

(a) Designated beneficiary dies before participant. The share of any designated beneficiary who predeceases the participant will be paid pro rata to the participant's other designated beneficiary or beneficiaries. If no designated beneficiary survives the participant, the account will be paid according to the order of precedence set forth in § 1651.2(a).

(b) Trust designated as beneficiary but not in existence. If a participant designated a trust or other entity as a beneficiary and the entity does not exist on the date of the participant's death, or is not created by will or other document that is effective upon the participant's death, the amount designated to the entity will be paid in accordance with the rules of paragraph (a) of this section, as if the trust were a beneficiary that predeceased the participant.

(c) Non-designated beneficiary dies before participant. If a beneficiary other than a beneficiary designated on a TSP designation of beneficiary dies before the participant, the beneficiary's share will be paid equally to other living beneficiaries bearing the same relationship to the participant as the deceased beneficiary. However, if the deceased beneficiary is a child of the participant, payment will be made to the deceased child's descendants, if any. If there are no other beneficiaries bearing the same relationship or, in the case of children, there are no descendants of deceased children, the deceased beneficiary's share will be paid to the person(s) next in line according to the order of precedence.

(d) Beneficiary dies after participant but before payment. If a beneficiary dies after the participant, the beneficiary's share will be paid to the beneficiary's estate. A copy of a beneficiary's certified death certificate is required in order to establish that the beneficiary has died, and when.

[70 FR 32216, June 1, 2005; as amended at 87 FR 31686, May 24, 2022]

§ 1651.11 Simultaneous death.

If a beneficiary dies at the same time as the participant, the beneficiary will be treated as if he or she predeceased the participant and the account will be paid in accordance with § 1651.10. The same time is considered to be the same hour and minute as indicated on a death certificate. If the participant and beneficiary are killed in the same event, death is presumed to be simultaneous, unless evidence is presented to the contrary.

§ 1651.12 Homicide.

If the participant's death is the result of a homicide, a beneficiary will not be paid as long as the beneficiary is under investigation by local, state or Federal law enforcement authorities as a suspect. If the beneficiary is implicated in the death of the participant and the beneficiary would be precluded from inheriting under state law, the beneficiary will not be entitled to receive any portion of the participant's account. The TSP record keeper will follow the state law of the participant's domicile as that law is set forth in a civil court judgment (that, under the law of the state, would protect the TSP record keeper from double liability or payment) or, in the absence of such a judgment, will apply state law to the facts after all criminal appeals are exhausted. The TSP record keeper will treat the beneficiary as if he or she predeceased the participant and the account will be paid in accordance with § 1651.10.

[62 FR 32429, June 13, 1997, as amended at 75 FR 44066, July 28, 2010; 87 FR 31686, May 24, 2022]

§ 1651.13 How to apply for a death benefit.

To apply for a TSP death benefit, a potential beneficiary must contact the ThriftLine for instructions on providing a certified copy of the participant's death certificate, along with any other information as required by the TSP.

[87 FR 31686, May 24, 2022]

§ 1651.14 How payment is made.

(a) In general. Each beneficiary's death benefit will be disbursed pro rata from the participant's traditional and Roth balances. The payment from the traditional balance will be further pro rated between the tax-deferred balance and tax-exempt balance. The payment from the Roth balance will be further pro rated between contributions in the Roth balance and earnings in the Roth balance. In addition, all death benefits will be disbursed pro rata from all TSP core funds in which the deceased participant's account is invested. All pro rated amounts will be based on the balances in each TSP core fund or source of contributions on the day the disbursement is made. Disbursement will be made separately for each entitled beneficiary.

(b) Spouse beneficiaries. The TSP record keeper will automatically transfer a surviving spouse's death benefit to a beneficiary participant account (described in § 1651.19) established in the spouse's name. The TSP record keeper will not maintain a beneficiary participant account if the balance of the beneficiary participant account is less than $200 on the date the account is established. The TSP record keeper also will not transfer this amount or pay it by electronic funds transfer. Instead, the spouse will receive an immediate distribution in the form of a check.

(c) Nonspouse beneficiaries. The TSP record keeper will send notice of pending payment to each beneficiary. Payment will be sent to the address that is provided on the participant's TSP designation of beneficiary unless the TSP record keeper receives notice of a more recent address. All individual beneficiaries must provide the TSP record keeper with a Social Security number. The following additional rules apply to payments to nonspouse beneficiaries:

(1) Payment to minor child or incompetent beneficiary. Payment will be made in the name of a minor child or incompetent beneficiary. A parent or other guardian may direct where the payment should be sent and may make any permitted tax withholding election. A guardian of a minor child or incompetent beneficiary must submit court documentation showing his or her appointment as guardian.

(2) Payment to executor or administrator. If payment is to the executor or administrator of an estate, the check will be made payable to the estate of the deceased participant, not to the executor or administrator. A taxpayer identification number must be provided for all estates.

(3) Payment to trust. If payment is to a trust, the payment will be made payable to the trust and mailed in care of the trustee. A taxpayer identification number must be provided for the trust.

(4) Payment to inherited IRA on behalf of a nonspouse beneficiary. If payment is to an inherited IRA on behalf of a nonspouse beneficiary, the check will be made payable to the account. Information pertaining to the inherited IRA must be submitted by the IRA trustee. A payment to an inherited IRA will be made only in accordance with the rules set forth in 5 CFR 1650.25.

(5) Undeliverable payments. If a death benefit payment is returned as undeliverable, the TSP record keeper will attempt to contact the beneficiary. If the beneficiary does not respond within 90 days, the death benefit payment will be forfeited to the TSP. The beneficiary can claim the forfeited funds, although they will not be credited with investment returns.

(6) Proper payments. A properly paid death benefit payment cannot be returned to the TSP.

[87 FR 31686, May 24, 2022]

§ 1651.15 Claims referred to the Board.

(a) Contested claims. Any challenge to a proposed death benefit payment must be filed in writing with the TSP record keeper before payment. All contested claims will be referred to the Board. The Board may also consider issues on its own.

(b) Payment deferred. No payment will be made until the Board has resolved the claim.

§ 1651.16 Missing and unknown beneficiaries.

(a) Locate and identify beneficiaries. (1) The TSP record keeper will attempt to identify and locate all potential beneficiaries.

(2) If a beneficiary is not identified and located, and at least one year has passed since the date of the participant's death, the beneficiary will be treated as having predeceased the participant and the beneficiary's share will be paid in accordance with § 1651.10

(b) Payment to known beneficiaries. If all potential beneficiaries are known but one or more beneficiaries (and not all) appear to be missing, payment of part of the participant's account may be made to the known beneficiaries. The lost or unidentified beneficiary's share may be paid in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section at a later date.

(c) Abandoned account. If no beneficiaries of the account are located, the account will be considered abandoned and the funds will revert to the TSP. If there are multiple beneficiaries and one or more of them refuses to cooperate in the TSP record keeper's search for the missing beneficiary, the missing beneficiary's share will be considered abandoned. In such circumstances, the account can be reclaimed if the missing beneficiary is found at a later date. However, earnings will not be credited from the date the account is abandoned. The TSP may require the beneficiary to apply for the death benefit in the form and manner prescribed by the TSP record keeper and submit proof of identity and relationship to the participant.

[62 FR 32429, June 13, 1997, as amended at 70 FR 32217, June 1, 2005; 87 FR 31687, May 24, 2022]

§ 1651.17 Disclaimer of benefits.

(a) Right to disclaim. The beneficiary of a TSP account may disclaim his or her right to receive all or part of a TSP death benefit. If the disclaimant is a minor, the parent or guardian of the minor must sign the disclaimer.

(b) Valid disclaimer. The disclaimer must expressly state that the beneficiary is disclaiming his or her right to receive either all or a stated percentage of the death benefit payable from the TSP account of the named participant and must be:

(1) Submitted in writing;

(2) Signed or acknowledged, in the presence of a notary, by the person (or legal representative) disclaiming the benefit; and

(3) Received before the TSP pays the death benefit.

(c) Invalid disclaimer. A disclaimer is invalid if it:

(1) Is revocable;

(2) Directs to whom the disclaimed benefit should be paid; or

(3) Specifies which balance (traditional, Roth, or tax-exempt) is to be disclaimed.

(d) Disclaimer effect. The disclaimed share will be paid as though the beneficiary predeceased the participant, according to the rules set forth in § 1651.10. Any part of the death benefit which is not disclaimed will be paid to the disclaimant pursuant to § 1651.14.

[68 FR 35510, June 13, 2003, as amended at 75 FR 44066, July 28, 2010; 77 FR 26428, May 4, 2012]

§ 1651.18 Payment to one bars payment to another.

Payment made to a beneficiary(ies) in accordance with this part, based upon information received before payment, bars any claim by any other person.

§ 1651.19 Beneficiary participant accounts.

(a) Initial investment allocation. Each beneficiary participant account, once established, will be allocated to the TSP core funds in which the deceased participant's account balance was invested on his or her date of death. A beneficiary participant may redistribute his or her beneficiary participant account balance among the TSP core funds by making a fund reallocation or fund transfer request described in part 1601, subpart C, of this chapter. A beneficiary participant may move a portion of his or her beneficiary account balance from the TSP core funds to the mutual fund window by making a fund transfer request described in part 1601, subpart F.

(b) Contributions. A beneficiary participant may not make contributions or rollovers to his or her beneficiary participant account. The TSP record keeper will not accept an investment election request described in part 1601, subpart B, of this chapter for a beneficiary participant account.

(c) Required minimum distributions. (1) A beneficiary participant must receive required minimum distributions from his or her beneficiary participant account commencing no later than the required beginning date and, for each year thereafter, no later than December 31.

(2) A beneficiary participant may elect to withdraw from his or her account or to begin receiving payments before the required beginning date, but is not required to do so.

(3) In the event that a beneficiary participant does not withdraw from his or her beneficiary participant account an amount sufficient to satisfy his or her required minimum distribution for the year, the TSP record keeper will automatically distribute the necessary amount on or before the applicable date described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.

(4) The TSP record keeper will disburse required minimum distributions described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section pro rata from the beneficiary participant's traditional balance and the beneficiary participant's Roth balance.

(d) Withdrawal elections. A beneficiary participant may elect any withdrawal option is available to separated participants. The provisions of § 1650.12, § 1650.13, and § 1650.14 shall apply as if all references to a participant are references to a beneficiary participant and all references to an account balance are references to a beneficiary participant account balance.

(e) Ineligibility for certain withdrawals. A beneficiary participant is ineligible to request the following types of withdrawals from his or her beneficiary participant account: Age-based withdrawals described in § 1650.31 of this chapter, financial hardship withdrawals described in § 1650.32 of this chapter, or loans described in part 1655 of this chapter.

(f) Spousal rights. The spousal rights described in 5 U.S.C. 8351, 5 U.S.C. 8435, and § 1650.61 of this chapter do not apply to beneficiary participant accounts.

(g) Rollovers. A beneficiary participant may request that the TSP record keeper roll over all or a portion of an eligible rollover distribution (within the meaning of I.R.C. section 402(c)) from his or her beneficiary participant account to a traditional IRA, Roth IRA or eligible employer plan (including a civilian or uniformed services TSP account other than a beneficiary participant account) in the form and manner prescribed by the TSP record keeper.

(h) Periodic statements. The TSP or its record keeper will furnish beneficiary participants with periodic statements in a manner consistent with part 1640 of this chapter.

(i) Privacy Act. Part 1630 of this chapter shall apply with respect to a beneficiary participant as if the beneficiary participant is a TSP participant.

(j) Error correction. If, because of an error committed by the Board or the TSP record keeper, a beneficiary participant's account is not credited or charged with the investment gains or losses the account would have received had the error not occurred, the account will be credited subject to and in accordance with the rules and procedures set forth in § 1605.21. A beneficiary participant may submit a claim for correction of Board or TSP record keeper error pursuant to the procedures described in § 1605.22.

(k) Court orders. Court orders relating to a civilian beneficiary participant account or uniformed services beneficiary participant account shall be processed pursuant to the procedures set forth in part 1653 of this chapter as if all references to a TSP participant are references to a beneficiary participant and all references to a TSP account or account balance are references to a beneficiary participant account or beneficiary participant account balance. Notwithstanding any provision of part 1653, a payee of a court-ordered distribution from a beneficiary participant account cannot request a rollover of the court-ordered distribution to an eligible employer plan or IRA.

(l) Death of beneficiary participant. To the extent it is not inconsistent with this § 1651.19, a beneficiary participant account shall be disbursed upon the death of the beneficiary participant in accordance with part 1651 as if any reference to a participant is a reference to a beneficiary participant. For example, a beneficiary participant may designate a beneficiary for his or her beneficiary participant account in accordance with §§ 1651.3 and 1651.4. No individual who is entitled to a death benefit from a beneficiary participant account shall be eligible to keep the death benefit in the TSP or request that the TSP record keeper roll over all or a portion of the death benefit to an IRA or eligible employer plan.

(m) Uniformed services beneficiary participant accounts. Uniformed services beneficiary participant accounts are subject to the following additional rules and procedures:

(1) Uniformed services beneficiary participant accounts are established and maintained separately from civilian beneficiary participant accounts. Beneficiary participants who have a uniformed services beneficiary participant account and a civilian beneficiary participant account will be issued two separate TSP account numbers. A beneficiary participant must submit separate fund allocation, fund transfer, re and/or TSP withdrawal requests for each account and submit separate beneficiary designations for each account;

(2) A uniformed services beneficiary participant account and a civilian beneficiary participant account cannot be combined;

(3) If a uniformed services beneficiary participant account contains tax-exempt contributions, any payments or withdrawals from the account will be distributed pro rata from the tax-deferred balance and the tax-exempt balance;

(4) A beneficiary participant may roll over all or any portion of an eligible rollover distribution (within the meaning of I.R.C. section 402(c)) from a uniformed services beneficiary participant account into a civilian or uniformed services TSP participant account. However, tax-exempt money attributable to combat zone contributions cannot be rolled over from a uniformed services beneficiary participant account to a civilian TSP participant account.

(n) Multiple beneficiary accounts. Each beneficiary participant account is maintained separately from all other beneficiary participant accounts. If an individual has multiple beneficiary participant accounts, each of the individual's beneficiary participant accounts will have a unique account number. A beneficiary participant must submit separate fund reallocation, fund transfer, and/or TSP withdrawal requests and submit separate beneficiary designations for each beneficiary participant account that the TSP maintains for him or her. A beneficiary participant account cannot be combined with another beneficiary participant account.

[75 FR 78879, Dec. 17, 2010, as amended at 77 FR 26428, May 4, 2012; 80 FR 52174, Aug. 28, 2015; 84 FR 46423, Sept. 4, 2019; 87 FR 31687, May 24, 2022]

PART 1653 COURT ORDERS AND LEGAL PROCESSES AFFECTING THRIFT SAVINGS PLAN ACCOUNTS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 8432d, 8435, 8436(b), 8437(e), 8439(a)(3), 8467, 8474(b)(5) and 8474(c)(1).

Source: 68 FR 35510, June 13, 2003, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A Retirement Benefits Court Orders

§ 1653.1 Definitions.

(a) Definitions generally applicable to the Thrift Savings Plan are set forth at 5 CFR 1690.1.

(b) As used in this subpart:

Court means any court of any State, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, the Northern Mariana Islands, or the Virgin Islands, and any Indian court as defined by 25 U.S.C. 1301(3).

Effective date of a court order means the date it was entered by the clerk of the court or, if the order does not show a date entered, the date it was filed by the clerk of the court or, if the order does not contain a date entered or a date filed, the date it was signed by the judge.

Entitlement date means the date determined in accordance with § 1653.4(b) and (c).

Payment date refers to the date on which a temporary account is established for the payee in the Thrift Savings Plan (TSP).

Retirement benefits court order or order means a court decree of divorce, annulment or legal separation, or a court order or court-approved property settlement agreement incident to such a decree. Orders may be issued at any stage of a divorce, annulment, or legal separation proceeding.

TSP investment earnings or earnings means both positive and negative fund performance attributable to differences in TSP core fund share prices.

[68 FR 35510, June 13, 2003, as amended at 74 FR 63063, Dec. 2, 2009; 87 FR 31688, May 24, 2022; 90 FR 13408, Mar. 24, 2025]

§ 1653.2 Qualifying retirement benefits court orders.

(a) To be qualifying, and thus enforceable against the TSP, a retirement benefits court order must meet the following requirements:

(1) The order must expressly relate to the Thrift Savings Plan account of a TSP participant. This means that:

(i) The order must expressly refer to the “Thrift Savings Plan” or describe the TSP in such a way that it cannot be confused with other Federal Government retirement benefits or non-Federal retirement benefits;

(ii) The order must be written in terms appropriate to a defined contribution plan rather than a defined benefit plan. For example, it should generally refer to the participant's TSP account or TSP account balance rather than a benefit formula or the participant's eventual benefits; and

(iii) If the participant has a civilian TSP account and a uniformed services TSP account, the order must expressly identify the account to which it relates.

(2) The order must either require the TSP to freeze the participant's account to preserve the status quo pending final resolution of the parties' rights to the participant's TSP account, or to make a payment from the participant's account to a permissible payee.

(3) If the order requires a payment from the participant's account, the award must be for:

(i) A specific dollar amount;

(ii) A stated percentage of the account; or

(iii) A survivor annuity as provided in 5 U.S.C. 8435(d).

(iv) The following examples would qualify to require payment from the TSP, although ambiguous or conflicting language used elsewhere could cause the order to be rejected.

(A) Example 1. ORDERED: [payee's name, Social Security number (SSN), and address] is awarded $____ from the [civilian or uniformed services] Thrift Savings Plan account of [participant's name, account number or SSN, and address].

(B) Example 2. ORDERED: [payee's name, SSN, and address] is awarded ____ % of the [civilian and/or uniformed services] Thrift Savings Plan account[s] of [participant's name, account number or SSN, and address] as of [date].

Note 1 to paragraph (a)(3)(iv):

The following optional language can be used in conjunction with any of the above examples. FURTHER ORDERED: Earnings will be paid on the amount of the entitlement under this ORDER until payment is made.

(4) A court order can require a payment only to a spouse, former spouse, child or dependent of a participant.

(b) The following retirement benefits court orders are not qualifying and thus are not enforceable against the TSP:

(1) An order relating to a TSP account that has been closed;

(2) An order relating to a TSP account that contains only nonvested money;

(3) An order requiring the return to the TSP of money that was properly paid pursuant to an earlier court order;

(4) An order requiring the TSP to make a payment in the future, unless the present value of the payee's entitlement can be calculated, in which case the TSP will make the payment currently;

(5) An order that does not specify the account to which the order applies, if the participant has both a civilian TSP account and a uniformed services TSP account;

(6) An order that requires the TSP to calculate the payee's entitlement or earnings in a manner that is inconsistent with § 1653.4 of this part; and

(7) An order that designates the TSP core fund, source of contributions, or balance (e.g., traditional, Roth, or tax-exempt) from which the payment or portions of the payment shall be made.

[68 FR 35510, June 13, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 29851, May 26, 2004; 71 FR 54893, Sept. 20, 2006; 72 FR 51354, Sept. 7, 2007; 76 FR 78095, Dec. 16, 2011; 77 FR 26428, May 4, 2012; 87 FR 31688, May 24, 2022]

Editorial Note:At 87 FR 31688, May 25, 2022, § 1653.2 was amended by revising paragraph (b)(1); however, the amendment could not be incorporated because no revised text for paragraph (b)(1) was provided.

§ 1653.3 Processing retirement benefits court orders.

(a) The payment of a retirement benefits court order from the TSP is governed solely by FERSA and by the terms of this subpart. The TSP record keeper will honor retirement benefits court orders properly issued and certified by a court (as defined in § 1653.1). However, those courts have no jurisdiction over the TSP and the TSP cannot be made a party to the underlying domestic relations proceedings.

(b) The TSP record keeper will review a retirement benefits court order to determine whether it is enforceable against the TSP only after the TSP record keeper has received a complete copy of the document. Receipt by an employing agency or any other agency of the Government does not constitute receipt by the TSP record keeper. Retirement benefits court orders should be submitted to the TSP record keeper at the current address as provided at https://www.tsp.gov. Receipt by the TSP record keeper is considered receipt by the TSP. To be complete, a court order must be written in English or be accompanied by a certified English translation and contain all pages and attachments; it must also provide (or be accompanied by a document that provides):

(1) The participant's account number or Social Security number (SSN);

(2) The name and last known mailing address of each payee covered by the order; and

(3) The payee's SSN and state of legal residence if he or she is the current or former spouse of the participant.

(c) As soon as practicable after the TSP record keeper receives a document that purports to be a qualifying retirement benefits court order, whether or not complete, the participant's account will be frozen. After the account is frozen, no withdrawals or loan disbursements (other than a required minimum distribution pursuant to section 401(a)(9) of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 401(a)(9)) will be allowed until the account is unfrozen. All other account activity will be permitted.

(d) The following documents do not purport to be qualifying retirement benefits court orders, and accounts of participants to whom such orders relate will not be frozen:

(1) A court order relating to a TSP account that has been closed;

(2) A court order dated before June 6, 1986;

(3) A court order that does not award all or any part of the TSP account to someone other than the participant; and

(4) A court order that does not mention retirement benefits.

(e) After the participant's account is frozen, the TSP record keeper will review the document further to determine if it is complete; if the document is not complete, it will be rejected, the account will be unfrozen, all parties will be notified, and no further action will be taken with respect to the document.

(f) The TSP record keeper will review a complete copy of an order to determine whether it is a qualifying retirement benefits court order as described in § 1653.2. The TSP record keeper will mail a decision letter to all parties containing the following information:

(1) A determination regarding whether the court order is qualifying;

(2) A statement of the applicable statutes and regulations;

(3) An explanation of the effect the court order has on the participant's TSP account; and

(4) If the qualifying order requires payment, the letter will provide:

(i) An explanation of how the payment will be calculated and an estimated amount of payment;

(ii) The anticipated payment date;

(iii) Tax and withholding information to the person responsible for paying Federal income tax on the payment;

(iv) Information on how to roll over the payment to an eligible employer plan within the meaning of section 402(c) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 402(c)), traditional IRA, or Roth IRA (if the payee is the current or former spouse of the participant); and

(v) Information on how to receive the payment through an electronic funds transfer (EFT).

(g)[Reserved]

(h) An account frozen under this section will be unfrozen as follows:

(1) If the account was frozen in response to an order issued to preserve the status quo pending final resolution of the parties' rights to the participant's TSP account, the account will be unfrozen if the TSP record keeper receives a court order that vacates or supersedes the previous order (unless the order vacating or superseding the order itself qualifies to place a freeze on the account). A court order that purports to require a payment from the TSP supersedes an order issued to preserve the status quo, even if it does not qualify to require a payment from the TSP;

(2) If the account was frozen in response to an order purporting to require a payment from the TSP, the freeze will be lifted:

(i) Once payment is made, if the court order is qualifying; or

(ii) Eighteen (18) months after the date of the decision letter if the court order is not qualifying. The 18-month period will be terminated, and the account will be unfrozen, if both parties submit to the TSP record keeper a written request for such a termination.

(i) The TSP record keeper will hold in abeyance the processing of a court-ordered payment if the TSP record keeper is notified in writing that the underlying court order has been appealed, and that the effect of the filing of the appeal is to stay the enforceability of the order.

(1) In the notification, the TSP record keeper must be provided with proper documentation of the appeal and citations to legal authority, which address the effect of the appeal on the enforceability of the underlying court order.

(i) If the TSP record keeper receives proper documentation and citations to legal authority which demonstrate that the underlying court order is not enforceable, the TSP record keeper will inform the parties that the payment will not occur until resolution of the appeal, and the account will remain frozen for loans and withdrawals.

(ii) In the absence of proper documentation and citations to legal authority, the TSP record keeper will presume that the provisions relating to the TSP in the court order remain valid and will proceed with the payment process.

(2) The TSP record keeper must be notified in writing of the disposition of the appeal before the freeze will be removed from the participant's account or a payment will be made. The notification must include a complete copy of an order from the appellate court explaining the effect of the appeal on the participant's account.

(j) Multiple qualifying court orders relating to the same TSP account and received by the TSP record keeper will be processed as follows:

(1) If the orders make awards to the same payee or payees and do not indicate that the awards are cumulative, the TSP record keeper will only honor the order bearing the latest effective date.

(2) If the orders relate to different former spouses of the participant and award survivor annuities, the TSP record keeper will honor them in the order of their effective dates.

(3) If the orders relate to different payees and award fixed dollar amounts, percentages of an account, or portions of an account calculated by the application of formulae, the orders will be honored:

(i) In the order of their receipt by the TSP record keeper, if received by the TSP record keeper on different days; or

(ii) In the order of their effective dates, if received by the TSP record keeper on the same day.

(4) In all other cases, the TSP record keeper will honor multiple qualifying court orders relating to the same TSP account in the order of their receipt by the TSP record keeper.

[87 FR 31688, May 24, 2022, as amended at 90 FR 13408, Mar. 24, 2025]

§ 1653.4 Calculating entitlements.

(a) For purposes of computing the amount of a payee's entitlement under this section, a participant's TSP account balance will include any loan balance outstanding as of the entitlement date unless the court order provides otherwise.

(b) If the court order awards a percentage of an account as of a specific date, the payee's entitlement will be calculated based on the account balance as of that date. If the date specified in the order is not a business day, the TSP record keeper will use the participant's account balance as of the last preceding business day.

(c) If the court order awards a percentage of an account but does not contain a specific date as of which to apply that percentage, the TSP record keeper will use the effective date of the court order.

(d) If the court order awards a specific dollar amount, the payee's entitlement will be the lesser of:

(1) The dollar amount stated in the court order; or

(2) The vested account balance on the payment date.

(e) If a court order describes a payee's entitlement in terms of a fixed dollar amount and a percentage or fraction of the account, the TSP will pay the fixed dollar amount, even if the percentage or fraction, when applied to the account balance, would yield a different result.

(f) The payee's entitlement will be credited with TSP investment earnings as described:

(1) The entitlement calculated under this section will not be credited with TSP investment earnings unless the court order specifically provides otherwise. The court order may not specify a rate for earnings.

(2) If earnings are awarded, the TSP record keeper will calculate earnings by:

(i) Identifying the beginning balance, ending balance, and the cash flows between the two balances over the period of time between the entitlement date and the payment date;

(ii) Calculating the rate of return that increases (or reduces in the case of a loss) the balance at the beginning of the period, accounting for all cash flows, to equal the balance at the end of the period; and

(iii) Multiplying the payee's award amount by the resulting rate of return.

(g) The TSP record keeper will estimate the amount of a payee's entitlement when it prepares the decision letter and will recalculate the entitlement at the time of payment. The recalculation may differ from the initial estimation because:

(1) The estimation of the payee's entitlement includes both vested and nonvested amounts in the participant's account. If, at the time of payment, the nonvested portion of the account has not become vested, the recalculated entitlement will apply only to the participant's vested account balance;

(2) After the estimate of the payee's entitlement is prepared, the TSP record keeper may process account transactions that have an effective date on or before the date used to compute the payee's entitlement. Those transactions will be included when the payee's entitlement is recalculated at the time of payment; and

(3) The amount available for payment from the account may be reduced due to changes in share price (i.e., investment losses).

[68 FR 35510, June 13, 2003, as amended at 74 FR 63063, Dec. 2, 2009; 76 FR 78095, Dec. 16, 2011; 87 FR 31689, May 24, 2022; 90 FR 13408, Mar. 24, 2025]

§ 1653.5 Payment.

(a) Payment date. Payment pursuant to a qualifying retirement benefits court order will generally be made:

(1) As soon as administratively practicable after the date of the decision letter when the payee is the current or former spouse of the participant, but in no event earlier than 30 days after the date of the decision letter.

(2) As soon as administratively practicable after the date of the decision letter when the payee is someone other than the current or former spouse of the participant.

(b) In no case will payment exceed the participant's vested account balance, minus any outstanding loan balance.

(c) The entire amount of a court order payee's entitlement must be disbursed at one time. A series of payments will not be made, even if the court order provides for such a method of payment. A payment pursuant to a court order extinguishes all rights to any further payment under that order, even if the entire amount of the entitlement cannot be paid. Any further award must be contained in a separate court order.

(d) Payment will be made pro rata from the participant's traditional and Roth balances. The distribution from the traditional balance will be further pro rated between the tax-deferred balance and tax-exempt balance. The payment from the Roth balance will be further pro rated between contributions in the Roth balance and earnings in the Roth balance. In addition, all payments will be distributed pro rata from all TSP core funds in which the participant's account is invested. All pro rated amounts will be based on the balances in each fund or source of contributions on the payment date. The TSP record keeper will not honor provisions of a court order that require payment to be made from a specific TSP core fund, source of contributions, or balance.

(e) Payment will be made only to the person or persons specified in the court order. However, if the court order specifies a third-party mailing address for the payment, the TSP record keeper will mail to the address specified any portion of the payment that is not rolled over to a traditional IRA, Roth IRA, or eligible employer plan within the meaning of section 402(c) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 402(c)).

(f) Payment will not be made jointly to two or more persons. If the court order requires payments to more than one person, the order must separately indicate the amount to be paid to each.

(g) If there are insufficient funds to pay each court order payee, payment will be made as follows:

(1) If the order specifies an order of precedence for the payments, the TSP record keeper will honor it.

(2) If the order does not specify an order of precedence for the payments, the TSP record keeper will pay a current or former spouse first and a dependent second.

(h) If the payee dies before a payment is disbursed from the TSP, payment will be made to the estate of the payee, unless otherwise specified by the court order. A distribution to the estate of a deceased court order payee will be reported as income to the decedent's estate. If the participant dies before the payment date, the order will be honored so long as it is submitted to the TSP record keeper before the TSP account has been closed.

(i) If the parties to a divorce or annulment have remarried each other, or a legal separation is terminated, a new court order will be required to prevent payment pursuant to a previously submitted qualifying retirement benefits court order.

(j) Payment to a person (including the estate of the payee) pursuant to a qualifying retirement benefits court order made in accordance with this subpart bars recovery by any other person claiming entitlement to the payment.

(k) If a court ordered payment is returned as undeliverable, the TSP record keeper will attempt to locate the payee by writing to the address provided on the court order. If the payee does not respond within 90 days, the funds will be forfeited to the TSP. The payee can claim the forfeited funds, although they will not be credited with TSP investment fund returns.

(l) A properly paid court order payment cannot be returned to the TSP.

(m) A payee who is a current or former spouse of the participant may elect to roll over a court-ordered payment to a traditional IRA, eligible employer plan within the meaning of section 402(c) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 402(c)), or Roth IRA. Any election permitted by this paragraph (m) must be made pursuant to the rules described in 5 CFR 1650.25.

(n) If a court order payee who is the current or former spouse of the participant has their own TSP account (other than a beneficiary participant account), the payee can request that the TSP record keeper roll over the court-ordered payment to the payee's TSP account in accordance with the rules described in 5 CFR 1650.25. However, any pro rata share attributable to tax-exempt contributions cannot be rolled over; instead, it will be paid directly to the payee.

[68 FR 35510, June 13, 2003, as amended at 68 FR 74451, Dec. 23, 2003; 70 FR 32217, June 1, 2005; 74 FR 63063, Dec. 2, 2009; 76 FR 30510, May 26, 2011; 76 FR 78095, Dec. 16, 2011; 77 FR 26428, May 4, 2012; 83 FR 47547, Sept. 20, 2018; 87 FR 31689, May 24, 2022; 90 FR 13408, Mar. 24, 2025]

§ 1653.6 Fees.

The TSP record keeper will charge a participant a $600.00 court order processing fee as follows:

(a) Upon receipt of a complete court order document (whether draft or final) and prior to reviewing the order to determine whether it is a qualifying retirement benefits court order, the fee will be deducted from his or her TSP account balance on a pro rata basis from the participant's traditional and Roth balances. The portion of the fee deducted from the traditional balance will be further pro rated between the tax-deferred balance and tax-exempt balance. The portion of the fee deducted from the Roth balance will be further pro rated between contributions in the Roth balance and earnings in the Roth balance. In addition, the entire fee will be distributed pro rata from all TSP core funds in which the participant's account is invested. All pro rated amounts will be based on the balances in each fund or source of contributions on the day the fee is deducted;

(b) The fee will be charged only once per court order. However, it will not be refunded in the event that the court order is never determined to be a qualifying retirement benefits court order; and

(c)(1) If the court order:

(i) Is determined to be a qualifying retirement benefits court order; and

(ii) Explicitly requires the fee to be split between the participant and the payee;

(2) The TSP record keeper will deduct the payee's portion of the fee from his or her payment and credit that amount back to the participant's TSP account balance.

[87 FR 31690, May 24, 2022]

Subpart B Legal Process for the Enforcement of a Participant's Legal Obligations To Pay Child Support or Alimony Currently

§ 1653.11 Definitions.

(a) Definitions generally applicable to the Thrift Savings Plan are set forth at 5 CFR 1690.1.

(b) As used in this subpart:

Alimony means the payment of funds for the support and maintenance of a spouse or former spouse. Alimony includes separate maintenance, alimony pendente lite, maintenance, and spousal support. Alimony can also include attorney fees, interest, and court costs, but only if these items are expressly made recoverable by qualifying legal process, as described in § 1653.12.

Child support means payment of funds for the support and maintenance of a child or children of the participant. Child support includes payments to provide for health care, education, recreation, clothing, or to meet other specific needs of a child or children. Child support can also include attorney fees, interest, and court costs, but only if these items are expressly made recoverable by qualifying legal process, as described in § 1653.12.

Competent authority means a court or an administrative agency of competent jurisdiction in any State, territory or possession of the United States; a court or administrative agency of competent jurisdiction in any foreign country with which the United States has entered into an agreement that requires the United States to honor the process; or an authorized official pursuant to an order of such a court or an administrative agency of competent jurisdiction pursuant to state or local law.

Legal process means a writ, order, summons, or other similar process in the nature of a garnishment, which is brought to enforce a participant's legal obligations to pay child support or alimony currently.

[68 FR 35510, June 13, 2003, as amended at 76 FR 78095, Dec. 16, 2011]

§ 1653.12 Qualifying legal processes.

(a) The TSP record keeper will only honor the terms of a legal process that is qualifying under paragraph (b) of this section.

(b) A legal process must meet each of the following requirements to be considered qualifying:

(1) A competent authority must have issued the legal process;

(2) The legal process must expressly relate to the Thrift Savings Plan account of a TSP participant, as described in § 1653.2(a)(1);

(3) The legal process must require the TSP to:

(i) Pay a stated dollar amount from a participant's TSP account; or

(ii) Freeze the participant's account in anticipation of an order to pay from the account.

(c) The following legal processes are not qualifying:

(1) A legal process relating to a TSP account that has been closed;

(2) A legal process relating to a TSP account that contains only nonvested money;

(3) A legal process requiring the return to the TSP of money that was properly paid pursuant to an earlier legal process;

(4) A legal process requiring the TSP to make a payment in the future; and

(5) A legal process requiring a series of payments.

(6) A legal process that designates the specific TSP core fund, source of contributions, or balance from which the payment or portions of the payment shall be made.

[68 FR 35510, June 13, 2003, as amended at 77 FR 26429, May 4, 2012; 87 FR 31690, May 24, 2022]

§ 1653.13 Processing legal processes.

(a) The payment of legal processes from the TSP is governed solely by the Federal Employees' Retirement System Act, 5 U.S.C. chapter 84, and by the terms of this subpart. Although the TSP record keeper will honor legal processes properly issued by a competent authority, those entities have no jurisdiction over the TSP and the TSP cannot be made a party to the underlying proceedings.

(b) The TSP record keeper will review a legal process to determine whether it is enforceable against the TSP only after the TSP record keeper has received a complete copy of the document. Receipt by an employing agency or any other agency of the Government does not constitute receipt by the TSP. Legal processes should be submitted to the TSP record keeper at the current address as provided at https://www.tsp.gov. Receipt by the TSP record keeper is considered receipt by the TSP. To be complete, a legal process must contain all pages and attachments; it must also provide (or be accompanied by a document that provides):

(1) The participant's account number or Social Security number (SSN);

(2) The name and last known mailing address of each payee covered under the order; and

(3) The SSN and state of legal residence of the payee if he or she if the current or former spouse of the participant.

(c) As soon as practicable after the TSP record keeper receives a document that purports to be a qualifying legal process, whether or not complete, the participant's account will be frozen. After the account is frozen, no TSP withdrawal or loan disbursements will be allowed until the account is unfrozen. All other account activity will be permitted, including contributions, loan repayments, adjustments, investment elections, fund reallocations, and fund transfers.

(d) The following documents will not be treated as purporting to be a qualifying legal processes, and accounts of participants to whom such orders relate will not be frozen:

(1) A document that does not indicate on its face (or accompany a document that establishes) that it has been issued by a competent authority;

(2) A legal process relating to a TSP account that has been closed; and

(3) A legal process that does not relate either to the TSP or to the participant's retirement benefits.

(e) After the participant's account is frozen, the TSP record keeper will review the document further to determine if it is complete; if the document is not complete, it will be rejected, the account will be unfrozen, all parties will be notified, and no further action will be taken with respect to the document.

(f) As soon as practicable after receipt of a complete copy of a legal process, the TSP record keeper will review it to determine whether it is a qualifying legal process as described in § 1653.12. The TSP record keeper will mail a decision letter to all parties containing the same information described at § 1653.3(f).

(g) [Reserved]

(h) An account frozen under this section will be unfrozen as follows:

(1) If the account was frozen pursuant to a legal process requiring the TSP to freeze the participant's account in anticipation of an order to pay from the account, the account will be unfrozen if any one of the following events occurs:

(i) As soon as practicable after the TSP record keeper receives a complete copy of an order vacating or superseding the preliminary order (unless the order vacating or superseding the preliminary order qualifies to place a freeze on the account);

(ii) Upon payment pursuant to the order to pay from the account, if the TSP record keeper determines that the order is qualifying; or

(iii) As soon as practicable after the TSP issues a decision letter informing the parties that the order to pay from the account is not a qualifying legal process;

(2) If the account was frozen after the TSP record keeper received a document that purports to be a legal process requiring payment from the participant's account, the account will be unfrozen:

(i) Upon payment pursuant to a qualifying legal process; or

(ii) As soon as practicable after the TSP record keeper informs the parties that the document is not a qualifying legal process.

(i) The TSP record keeper will hold in abeyance the processing of a payment required by legal process if the TSP record keeper is notified in writing that the legal process has been appealed, and that the effect of the filing of the appeal is to stay the enforceability of the legal process. The notification must be accompanied by the documentation and citations to legal authority described at § 1653.3(i).

(j) Multiple qualifying legal processes relating to the same TSP account and received by the TSP record keeper will be processed as follows:

(1) If the legal processes make awards to the same payee or payees and do not indicate that the awards are cumulative, the TSP record keeper will only honor the legal process bearing the latest effective date.

(2) If the legal processes relate to different payees, the legal process will be honored:

(i) In the order of their receipt by the TSP record keeper, if received by the TSP record keeper on different days; or

(ii) In the order of their effective dates, if received by the TSP record keeper on the same day.

[87 FR 31690, May 24, 2022]

§ 1653.14 Calculating entitlements.

A qualifying legal process can only require the payment of a specified dollar amount from the TSP. Payment pursuant to a qualifying legal process will be calculated in accordance with § 1653.4(a), (d), (f), and (g), except that the term “payment date” shall mean the date the payment is disbursed from the TSP.

[90 FR 13408, Mar. 24, 2025]

§ 1653.15 Payment.

Payment pursuant to a qualifying legal process will be made in accordance with § 1653.5, except the term “payment date” shall mean the date the payment is disbursed from the TSP.

[90 FR 13408, Mar. 24, 2025]

§ 1653.16 Fees.

The TSP record keeper will charge a participant a $600.00 legal process processing fee as follows:

(a) Upon receipt of a complete legal process document (whether draft or final) and prior to reviewing order to determine whether it is a qualifying legal process, the fee will be deducted from his or her TSP account balance on a pro rata basis from the participant's traditional and Roth balances. The portion of the fee deducted from the traditional balance will be further pro rated between the tax-deferred balance and tax-exempt balance. The portion of the fee deducted from the Roth balance will be further pro rated between contributions in the Roth balance and earnings in the Roth balance. In addition, the entire fee will be distributed pro rata from all TSP core funds in which the participant's account is invested. All pro rated amounts will be based on the balances in each fund or source of contributions on the day the fee is deducted; and

(b) The fee will be charged only once per legal process. However, it will not be refunded in the event that the court order is never determined to be a qualifying legal process.

[87 FR 31691, May 24, 2022]

Subpart C Child Abuse Court Orders

§ 1653.21 Definitions.

(a) Definitions generally applicable to the Thrift Savings Plan are set forth at 5 CFR 1690.1.

(b) As used in this subpart:

Child means an individual less than 18 years of age.

Judgment against a participant for physically, sexually, or emotionally abusing a child means any legal claim perfected through a final enforceable judgment which is based in whole or in part upon the physical, sexual, or emotional abuse of a child, whether or not that abuse is accompanied by other actionable wrongdoing, such as sexual exploitation or gross negligence.

§ 1653.22 Purpose.

Under 5 U.S.C. 8437(e)(3) and 8467(a)(2), the TSP record keeper will honor a court order or other similar process in the nature of a garnishment that is brought to enforce a judgment against a participant for physically, sexually, or emotionally abusing a child.

[FR 35510, June 13, 2003, as amended at 87 FR 31691, May 24, 2022]

§ 1653.23 Processing and payment.

To the maximum extent consistent with sections 8437(e)(3) and 8467(a)(2), child abuse court orders will be processed by the TSP record keeper under the procedures described in subparts A and B of this part.

[FR 35510, June 13, 2003, as amended at 87 FR 31691, May 24, 2022]

Subpart D Process for the Enforcement of a Participant's Legal Obligation To Pay a Federal Tax Levy or Criminal Restitution Order

Source: 79 FR 53604, Sept. 10, 2014, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1653.31 Definitions.

(a) Definitions generally applicable to the Thrift Savings Plan are set forth at 5 CFR 1690.1.

(b) As used in this subpart:

Criminal restitution order means a complete copy of a judgment in a criminal case issued by a federal court ordering restitution for a crime under 18 U.S.C. 3663A.

Enforcement letter means a letter received from the Department of Justice requesting a payment from a participant's TSP account to enforce a criminal restitution order.

[79 FR 53604, Sept. 10, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 52605, Sept. 1, 2015]

§ 1653.32 Qualifying Federal tax levy.

(a) The TSP record keeper will only honor the terms of a tax levy that is qualifying under paragraph (b) of this section.

(b) A tax levy must meet each of the following requirements to be considered qualifying:

(1) The Internal Revenue Service issued the levy.

(2) The levy includes a signature certifying that it attaches to a retirement plan.

(3) The levy requires the TSP to pay a stated dollar amount from a TSP participant's account.

(4) The levy is dated no earlier than thirty (30) days before receipt.

(5) The levy is issued in the name of the participant only.

(6) The levy expressly refers to the “Thrift Savings Plan” or describes the TSP in such a way that it cannot be confused with other Federal Government retirement benefits or non-Federal retirement benefits.

(c) The following levies will not be considered qualifying:

(1) A levy relating to a TSP account with a zero dollar account balance;

(2) A levy relating to a TSP account that contains only nonvested money, unless the money will become vested within 30 days of the date the TSP receives the order if the participant were to remain in Government service;

(3) A levy requiring the TSP to make a payment at a specified date in the future;

(4) A levy that does not contain a signature certifying that it applies to retirement plans;

(5) A levy requiring a series of payments;

(6) A levy that designates the specific TSP core fund, source of contributions, or balance from which the payment or portions of the payment shall be made.

[79 FR 53604, Sept. 10, 2014, as amended at 87 FR 31691, May 24, 2022]

§ 1653.33 Qualifying criminal restitution order.

(a) The TSP record keeper will only honor the terms of a criminal restitution order that is qualifying under paragraph (b) of this section.

(b) A criminal restitution order must meet each of the following requirements to be considered qualifying:

(1) The restitution must be ordered in the sentencing of the participant as required by 18 U.S.C. 3663A and 18 U.S.C. 3664.

(2) The criminal restitution order must require the participant to pay a stated dollar amount as restitution.

(3) The criminal restitution order must be accompanied by an enforcement letter that states the restitution is ordered under 18 U.S.C. 3663A. The enforcement letter must expressly refer to the “Thrift Savings Plan” or describe the TSP in such a way that it cannot be confused with other Federal Government retirement benefits or non-Federal retirement benefits.

(c) The following orders will not be considered qualifying:

(1) A criminal restitution order relating to a TSP account with a zero dollar account balance;

(2) A criminal restitution order relating to a TSP account that contains only nonvested money, unless the money will become vested within 30 days of the date the TSP record keeper receives the order if the participant were to remain in Government service;

(3) A criminal restitution order accompanied by an enforcement letter that requires the TSP to make a payment in the future;

(4) A forfeiture order related to a monetary garnishment of funds;

(5) A criminal restitution order accompanied by an enforcement letter that requires TSP to make a series of payments;

(6) A criminal restitution order accompanied by an enforcement letter that designates the specific TSP core fund, source of contributions, or balance from which the payment or portions of the payment shall be made.

[79 FR 53604, Sept. 10, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 52605, Sept. 1, 2015; 87 FR 31691, May 24, 2022]

§ 1653.34 Processing Federal tax levies and criminal restitution orders.

(a) The payment of tax levies and criminal restitution orders from the TSP is governed solely by the Federal Employees' Retirement Systems Act, 5 U.S.C. chapter 84, and by the terms of this subpart. Although the TSP record keeper will honor tax levies or criminal restitution orders properly issued, those entities have no jurisdiction over the TSP and the TSP cannot be made a party to the underlying proceedings.

(b) The TSP record keeper will review a tax levy or criminal restitution order to determine whether it is enforceable against the TSP record keeper only after it has received a complete copy of the document. Receipt by an employing agency or any other agency of the Government does not constitute receipt by the TSP record keeper. Tax levies and criminal restitution orders should be submitted to the TSP record keeper at the current address as provided at https://www.tsp.gov. Receipt by the TSP record keeper is considered receipt by the TSP. To be complete, a tax levy or criminal restitution order must meet all the requirements of § 1653.32 or § 1653.33; it must also provide (or be accompanied by a document or enforcement letter that provides):

(1) The participant's TSP account number or Social Security number (SSN); and

(2) The name and mailing address of the payee.

(c) As soon as practicable after the TSP record keeper receives a document that purports to be a qualifying tax levy or criminal restitution order, the participant's account will be frozen. After the participant's account is frozen, no TSP withdrawal or loan disbursements will be allowed until the account is unfrozen. All other account activity will be permitted, including contributions, loan repayments, adjustments, investment elections, fund reallocations, and fund transfers. Once a disbursement from the account is made in accordance with the restitution order or levy, the hold will be removed from the participant's account.

(d) As soon as practicable after receipt of a complete copy of a tax levy or criminal restitution order, the TSP record keeper will review it to determine whether it is qualifying as described in § 1653.32 or § 1653.33. The TSP record keeper will mail a decision letter to all parties containing the following information:

(1) A determination regarding whether the restitution order or levy is qualifying;

(2) A statement of the applicable statutes and regulations;

(3) An explanation of the effect the restitution order or levy has on the participant's TSP account; and

(4) If the qualifying restitution order or levy requires payment, the letter will provide:

(i) An explanation of how the payment will be calculated and an estimated amount of payment;

(ii) The anticipated date of disbursement.

[87 FR 31691, May 24, 2022, as amended at 90 FR 13408, Mar. 24, 2025]

§ 1653.35 Calculating entitlement.

A tax levy or criminal restitution order can only require the payment of a stated dollar amount from the TSP. The payee's entitlement will be the lesser of:

(a) The dollar amount stated in the tax levy or enforcement letter; or

(b) The vested account balance on the date of disbursement, minus any outstanding loan balance.

[79 FR 53604, Sept. 10, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 52606, Sept. 1, 2015]

§ 1653.36 Payment.

(a) Payment pursuant to a qualifying tax levy or criminal restitution order will be made 30 days after the decision letter.

(b) In no case will payment exceed the participant's calculated entitlement.

(c) The entire amount of a criminal restitution order or tax levy entitlement must be disbursed at one time. A series of payments will not be made. A payment pursuant to a criminal restitution order or tax levy extinguishes all rights to any further payment under that order or tax levy, even if the entire amount of the entitlement cannot be paid. Any further award must be contained in a separate criminal restitution order or tax levy.

(d) If a participant has funds in more than one type of account, payment will be made from each account in the following order, until the amount required by the tax levy or stated in the enforcement letter is reached:

(1) Civilian account;

(2) Uniformed services account;

(3) Beneficiary participant account.

(e) Payment will be made pro rata from the participant's traditional and Roth balances. The distribution from the traditional balance will be further pro rated between the tax-deferred balance and tax-exempt balance. The payment from the Roth balance will be further pro rated between contributions in the Roth balance and earnings in the Roth balance. In addition, all payments will be distributed pro rata from all TSP core funds in which the participant's account is invested. All pro rated amounts will be based on the balances in each fund or source of contributions on the day the disbursement is made.

(f) The payment is taxable to the participant and is subject to Federal income tax withholding. The tax withholding will be taken from the payee's entitlement and the gross amount of the payment (i.e., the net payment distributed to the payee plus the amount withheld from the payment for taxes) will be reported to the IRS as income to the participant.

(g) A properly paid tax levy or restitution order cannot be returned to the TSP.

(h) The TSP will not hold a payment pending appeal of a criminal restitution order or the underlying conviction. The TSP will treat the criminal restitution order as a final judgment pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 3664(o) and process payment as provided by this subpart.

[79 FR 53604, Sept. 10, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 52606, Sept. 1, 2015; 87 FR 31692, May 24, 2022]

PART 1655 LOAN PROGRAM

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 8432d, 8433(g), 8439(a)(3) and 8474.

Source: 68 FR 35515, June 13, 2003, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1655.1 Definitions.

(a) Definitions generally applicable to the Thrift Savings Plan are set forth at 5 CFR 1690.1.

(b) As used in this part:

Amortization means the reduction in a loan by periodic payments of principal and interest according to a schedule of payments.

Cure period means the maximum period permitted under 26 CFR 1.72(p)-1 during which a missed loan payment may be made to prevent the loan from being declared a deemed distribution or loan offset.

Deemed distribution means a deemed distribution under Internal Revenue Code section 72(p) and the regulations promulgated thereunder. Also referred to as a loan taxation or taxed loan, it means the amount of outstanding principal and interest on a loan that must be reported to the Internal Revenue Service as taxable income as a result of the failure of a participant who has not separated from Government service to:

(i) Make timely loan repayments before the end of the cure period; or

(ii) Repay the loan in full by the maximum term limit.

General purpose loan means any TSP loan other than a loan for the purchase or construction of a primary residence.

Guaranteed funds means a cashier's check, money order, certified check (i.e., a check certified by the financial institution on which it is drawn), cashier's draft, or treasurer's check from a credit union.

Loan direct debit repayment means a loan repayment made directly from a participant's personal savings or checking account.

Loan issue date means the date on which the TSP record keeper disburses funds from the participant's account for the loan amount.

Loan offset means a loan offset under Internal Revenue Code section 72(p) and the regulations promulgated thereunder. Also referred to as a loan foreclosure, it means the amount of outstanding principal and interest on a loan that must be reported to the Internal Revenue Service as taxable income as the result of the failure of a participant who has separated from Government service to repay his or her loan in full or begin making repayments by the deadline imposed by the TSP record keeper.

Loan repayment period means the time over which payments that are required to repay a loan in full are scheduled.

Principal or principal amount means the amount borrowed by a participant from his or her individual account, or, after reamortization, the amount financed.

Reamortization means the recalculation of periodic payments of principal and interest.

Residential loan means a TSP loan for the purchase or construction of a primary residence.

[68 FR 35515, June 13, 2003, as amended at 70 FR 32217, June 1, 2005; 87 FR 31692, May 24, 2022; 90 FR 59043, Dec. 18, 2025]

Editorial Note:At 87 FR 31692, May 24, 2022, in § 1655.1 a definition of “date of request” was set out; however, the amendment could not be incorporated because no action was given for it.

§ 1655.2 Eligibility for loans.

A participant can apply for a TSP general purpose or residential loan if:

(a) More than 30 business days have elapsed since the participant has repaid in full any TSP loan;

(b) The participant is in pay status;

(c) The participant is eligible to contribute to the TSP; and

(d) The participant has at least $1,000 in employee contributions and attributable earnings in his or her account. Paragraph (b) of this section shall not apply to loan requests made during a Government shutdown by participants who are furloughed or excepted from furlough due to the Government shutdown.

[87 FR 31692, May 24, 2022]

§ 1655.3 Information concerning the cost of a loan.

Information concerning the cost of a loan is provided in the booklet TSP Loan Program (available on the TSP Web site, from the participant's personnel office or service, or from the TSP). From this information, a participant can determine the effects of a loan on his or her final account balance and can compare the cost of a loan to that of other sources of financing.

[68 FR 35515, June 13, 2003, as amended at 87 FR 31692, May 24, 2022]

§ 1655.4 Number of loans.

A participant may have no more than two loans outstanding from his or her TSP account at any time. No more than one outstanding loan from an account may be a residential loan. A participant with both a civilian TSP account and a uniformed services TSP account may have two outstanding loans from each account.

[87 FR 31692, May 24, 2022]

§ 1655.5 Loan repayment period.

(a) Minimum. The minimum repayment period a participant may request for a general purpose loan is 12 months of scheduled payments. The minimum repayment period a participant may request for a residential loan is 61 months of scheduled payments.

(b) Maximum. The maximum repayment period a participant may request for a general purpose loan is 60 months of scheduled payments. The maximum repayment period a participant may request for a residential loan is 180 months years of scheduled payments.

[87 FR 31692, May 24, 2022]

§ 1655.6 Amount of loan.

(a) Minimum amount. The initial principal amount of any loan may not be less than $1,000.

(b) Maximum amount. The principal amount of a new loan must be less than or equal to the smallest of the following:

(1) The portion of the participant's individual account balance that is attributable to employee contributions and attributable earnings (not including any outstanding loan principal);

(2) 50 percent of the participant's vested account balance that is attributable to employee contributions and attributable earnings (including any outstanding loan balance) or $10,000, whichever is greater, minus any outstanding loan balance; or

(3) $50,000 minus the participant's highest outstanding loan balance (if any) during the last 12 months.

(c) If a participant has both a civilian TSP account and a uniformed services TSP account, the maximum loan amount available will be based on a calculation that takes into consideration the account balances and outstanding loan balances for both accounts.

(d) Any amount invested through the mutual fund window at the time the participant makes a loan request will not be considered for purposes of determining either the minimum or maximum loan amounts.

[68 FR 35515, June 13, 2003, as amended at 87 FR 31692, May 24, 2022]

§ 1655.7 Interest rate.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, loans will bear interest at the monthly G Fund interest rate established by the Department of the Treasury in effect on the 15th of the month prior to the date the loan request is made.

(b) The interest rate calculated under this section remains fixed until the loan is repaid, unless a civilian participant informs the TSP record keeper that he or she entered into active duty military service, and, as a result, requests that the interest rate on a loan issued before entry into active duty military service be reduced to an annual rate of 6 percent for the period of such service. The civilian participant must provide the record keeper with the beginning and ending dates of active duty military service.

[68 FR 35515, June 13, 2003, as amended at 87 FR 31692, May 24, 2022]

§ 1655.8 [Reserved]

§ 1655.9 Effect of loans on individual account.

(a) The amount borrowed will be removed from the participant's account when the loan is disbursed. Consequently, these funds will no longer generate earnings.

(b) The loan principal will be disbursed from that portion of the account represented by employee contributions and attributable earnings, pro rata from each TSP core fund in which the account is invested and pro rata from tax-deferred and tax-exempt balances.

(c) The loan principal will be disbursed pro rata from the participant's traditional and Roth balances. The disbursement from the traditional balance will be further pro rated between the tax-deferred balance and tax-exempt balance. The disbursement from the Roth balance will be further pro rated between contributions in the Roth balance and earnings in the Roth balance. In addition, all loan disbursements will be distributed pro rata from all TSP core funds in which the participant's account is invested. All pro rated amounts will be based on the balances in each TSP core fund or source of contributions on the day the disbursement is processed.

(d) Loan payments, including both principal and interest, will be credited to the participant's individual account. Loan payments will be credited to the appropriate TSP Fund in accordance with the participant's most recent contribution allocation. Loan payments will be credited to the participant's traditional and Roth balances in the same proportion that the loan was distributed from the participant's account.

(e) Loan disbursements will not be made from any amounts invested through the mutual fund window and loan payments will not be credited to a participant's mutual fund window account.

[68 FR 35515, June 13, 2003, as amended at 70 FR 32218, June 1, 2005; 77 FR 26429, May 4, 2012; 87 FR 31692, May 24, 2022]

§ 1655.10 Loan request process.

(a) Any participant may apply for a loan by submitting a completed TSP loan request in the form and manner prescribed by the TSP record keeper.

(b) If a participant has a uniformed services account and a civilian account, a separate loan request must be made for each account.

[87 FR 31693, May 24, 2022]

§ 1655.11 Loan acceptance.

If the requirements set forth in §§ 1655.2, 1655.4, and 1655.6(a) are satisfied, the TSP record keeper will nevertheless reject a loan request if:

(a) The participant has failed to provide all required information on the loan request;

(b) The participant has a pending loan request or in-service withdrawal request; or

(c) A hold has been placed on the account pursuant to 5 CFR 1653.3(c).

[87 FR 31693, May 24, 2022]

§ 1655.12 Loan agreement.

(a) Upon determining that a loan request meets the requirements of this part, the TSP record keeper will provide the participant with the terms and conditions of the loan.

(b) By accepting the loan agreement, the participant agrees to be bound by all of its terms and conditions, agrees to repay the loan by payroll deduction, and certifies, under penalty of perjury, to the truth and completeness of all statements made in the loan request and loan agreement to the best of his or her knowledge.

(c) For loan requests not completed on the TSP website, the TSP record keeper must receive the completed loan agreement (including any required supporting documentation) before the expiration date stated on the loan agreement or the agreement will not be processed.

(d) The signed loan agreement must be accompanied by:

(1) In the case of a residential loan, supporting materials that document the purchase or construction of the residence and the amount requested (as described in § 1655.20); and

(2) Any other information that the Executive Director may require.

(e) A participant may request, in the form and manner prescribed by the TSP record keeper, that the loan be disbursed by direct deposit to a checking or savings account maintained by the participant in a financial institution.

[87 FR 31693, May 24, 2022]

§ 1655.13 Loan approval and issuance.

(a) When the completed loan agreement is signed electronically or returned by the participant to the TSP record keeper, together with any documentation required to be submitted, the loan will be initially approved or denied by the TSP record keeper based upon the requirements of this part, including the following conditions:

(1) The participant has signed the promise to repay the loan, has agreed to repay the loan through payroll deductions, and has certified that the information given is true and complete to the best of the participant's knowledge;

(2) Processing of the loan would not be prohibited by § 1655.19 relating to court orders;

(3) The spouse of a FERS or uniformed services participant has consented to the loan or, if the spouse's whereabouts are unknown or exceptional circumstances make it inappropriate to secure the spouse's consent, an exception to the spousal requirement described in § 1655.18 has been granted;

(4) The spouse of a CSRS participant has been given notice or, if the spouse's whereabouts are unknown, an exception to the spousal requirement described in § 1655.18 has been granted;

(5) When a paper agreement is required, the completed loan agreement, including all required supporting documentation, was received by the TSP record keeper before the expiration date specified on the loan agreement; and

(6) The participant has met any other conditions that the Executive Director may require.

(b) If approved, the loan will be issued unless:

(1) The participant's employing agency has reported the participant's separation from Government service;

(2) The TSP record keeper receives written notice that the participant has died;

(3) The participant's account balance on the loan issue date does not contain sufficient employee contributions and associated earnings to make a loan of at least $1,000;

(4) A hold on the account is processed before the loan is disbursed; or

(c) If the loan is otherwise acceptable but the amount available to borrow is less than the requested amount (but is at least $1,000), the loan will be issued in the maximum amount available at the time of the disbursement. In such a case, the periodic payment amount will remain the same and the loan term may be shortened.

(d) The loan issue date is considered to be the date the loan was made.

(e) If a loan disbursement is returned as undeliverable, the TSP record keeper will attempt to locate the participant. If the participant does not respond within 90 days, the TSP record keeper will repay the loan with the returned loan proceeds.

[68 FR 35515, June 13, 2003, as amended at 87 FR 31693, May 24, 2022]

§ 1655.14 Loan payments.

(a) In the case of a participant who has not separated from Government service, loan payments must be made through payroll deduction in accordance with the loan agreement. Once loan payments begin, the employing agency cannot terminate the payroll deductions at the employee's request, unless the TSP or its record keeper instructs it to do so.

(b) The participant may make additional payments by mailing a check or guaranteed funds to the TSP record keeper or by enrolling in loan direct debit repayments from his or her personal savings or checking account. If the TSP record keeper receives a payment that repays the outstanding loan amount and overpays the loan by $10.00 or more, the overpayment will be refunded to the participant. Overpayments of less than $10.00 will be applied to the participant's account and will not be refunded. If a loan overpayment refund is returned as undeliverable, the TSP record keeper will attempt to locate the participant. If the participant does not respond within 90 days, the overpayment refund will be forfeited to the TSP. The participant can claim the forfeited funds, although they will not be credited with TSP investment fund returns.

(c) The initial payment on a loan is due on or before the 60th day following the loan issue date. Interest accrues on the loan from the date of issuance.

(d) Subsequent payments are due at regular intervals as prescribed in the loan agreement, or most recent amortization, according to the participant's pay cycle.

(e) Missed payment. In the case of a participant who has not separated from Government service, if a payment is not made when due, the TSP record keeper will notify the participant of the missed payment.

(1) Making up the missed payment. The participant may make up the missed payment using one of the following methods:

(i) A personal check,

(ii) Guaranteed funds, or

(iii) Direct debit.

(2) Deemed distribution. If the participant has not made a payment in accordance with paragraph (e)(1) of this section and has not resumed payroll deductions by the end of the cure period described in § 1655.1, the TSP record keeper will declare the loan to be a deemed distribution in accordance with § 1655.15(a).

(3) Resuming payroll deductions. When payroll deductions resume, the first deduction shall be applied to the earliest missed payment. Each subsequent regularly scheduled deduction shall be applied to the next missed payment. This process shall continue on a rolling basis, such that the participant remains behind in payments until:

(i) A make up payment is submitted for each missed payment in accordance with paragraph (e)(1) of this section;

(ii) The loan reaches its maximum term and a deemed distribution of the remaining missed payment(s) is declared under § 1655.15(a); or

(iii) Additional missed payments trigger a deemed distribution under § 1655.15(a).

(f) Interest will accrue on all missed payments and will be included in the calculation of any deemed distribution subsequently declared in accordance with § 1655.15(a). Interest will also accrue on payments missed while a participant is in nonpay status and on any deemed distribution until it is repaid in full.

(g) A participant who has separated from Government service with an outstanding loan balance may continue making loan repayments via check, guaranteed funds, or loan direct debit repayments. If a separated participant does not begin making post-separation loan repayments or pay off the loan in full by the deadline imposed by the TSP record keeper, the TSP record keeper will declare the outstanding loan balance and accrued interest to be a loan offset in accordance with § 1655.15(b). In the case of a separated participant who commences post-separation loan repayments, if a payment is not made when due, the TSP record keeper will notify the separated participant of the missed payment and he or she must make up the payment in full. The make-up payment must be in the form of a check, guaranteed funds, or a one-time payment via loan direct debit from his or her personal savings or checking account. If the participant does not make up all missed payments by the end of the cure period described in § 1655.1, the TSP record keeper will declare the outstanding loan balance and accrued interest to be a loan offset in accordance with § 1655.15(b).

[87 FR 31693, May 24, 2022, as amended at 90 FR 59043, Dec. 18, 2025]

§ 1655.15 Deemed Distributions and Loan Offsets.

(a) The TSP record keeper will ensure that all requirements set forth in section 72(p) of the Internal Revenue Code and the regulations promulgated thereunder with respect to deemed distributions are satisfied.

(1) The TSP record keeper will declare the entire unpaid balance of an outstanding loan (including interest) to be a deemed distribution if:

(i) The participant misses two or more loan payments or the participant's payments are made for less than the required amount, and the delinquency is not cured within the cure period;

(ii) The loan is not repaid in full by the maximum term limit; or

(iii) A participant is in a confirmed nonpay status for a period of one year or more, has not advised the TSP record keeper that he or she is serving on active military duty, and payments are not resumed after the participant is notified the loan has been reamortized.

(2) Loan taxation does not relieve a participant of his or her obligation to repay the taxed loan amount. A participant may repay a taxed loan in full (including accrued interest) via check or money order up until the time he or she separates from Government service. The tax basis in a participant's TSP account will be adjusted to reflect the repayment of a taxed loan.

(3) If a participant does not repay a taxed loan:

(i) His or her account balance will be permanently reduced; and

(ii) The taxed loan will count as one of the two loans the participant is permitted per account and is treated as an outstanding loan balance when calculating the participant's maximum loan amount.

(b) The TSP record keeper will ensure that all requirements set forth in section 72(p) of the Internal Revenue Code and the regulations promulgated thereunder with respect to loan offsets are satisfied.

(1) The TSP record keeper will declare a loan offset in the following situations:

(i) A participant separates from Government service and does not begin making loan repayments or repay the outstanding loan principal and interest in full within the period specified by the notice to the participant from the TSP record keeper explaining the participant's repayment options; or

(ii) The participant dies.

(2) [Reserved]

(c) If a deemed distribution or loan offset occurs in accordance with paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, as applicable, the TSP record keeper will notify the participant of the amount and date of the distribution. The TSP record keeper will report the distribution to the Internal Revenue Service as income for the year in which it occurs.

(d) If a participant dies and a loan offset occurs in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, the TSP record keeper will notify the participant's estate of the amount and date of the distribution. Neither the estate nor any other person, including a beneficiary, may repay the loan of a deceased participant, nor can the funds be returned to the TSP.

(e) If, because of Board or TSP record keeper error, a TSP loan is declared a deemed distribution or loan offset under circumstances that make such a declaration inconsistent with this part, or inconsistent with other procedures established by the Board or TSP record keeper in connection with the TSP loan program, the distribution will be reversed. The participant will be provided an opportunity to reinstate loan payments or repay in full the outstanding balance on the loan.

[87 FR 31693, May 24, 2022]

§ 1655.16 Reamortization.

(a) When a participant's pay cycle changes for any reason, he or she must notify the TSP record keeper of the change in the form and manner prescribed by the TSP record keeper. Upon notification, the participant's loan will be reamortized to adjust the scheduled payment to an equivalent amount in the new pay cycle. If the new pay cycle results in fewer payments per year and the participant does not reamortize the loan, the loan may be declared a deemed distribution pursuant to § 1655.15(a)(1).

(b) Upon reamortization, the new principal balance of the loan will equal the outstanding principal on the date of reamortization, plus any accrued interest.

(c) The interest rate on a reamortized loan will be the same as the interest rate on the original loan.

[87 FR 31694, May 24, 2022, as amended at 90 FR 30204, July 9, 2025]

§ 1655.17 Prepayment.

(a) A participant may repay a loan in full, without a penalty, at any time before the declaration of a deemed distribution or loan foreclosure under § 1655.15. Repayment in full means receipt by the TSP record keeper of a payment, by check or guaranteed funds made payable to the Thrift Savings Plan or via loan direct debit repayments, of all principal and interest due on the loan.

(b) If a participant returns a loan check to the TSP record keeper, it will be treated as a repayment; however, additional interest may be owed, which, if not paid, could result in a deemed distribution. The loan, even though repaid, will also be taken into account in determining the maximum amount available for future loans, in accordance with § 1655.6(b).

(c) The amount outstanding on a loan can be obtained from the TSP website, the ThriftLine, or by a written request to the TSP record keeper.

[87 FR 31694, May 24, 2022]

§ 1655.18 Spousal rights.

(a) Spouse of CSRS participant. (1) Before a loan is disbursed to a CSRS participant, the TSP record keeper will send a notice to the participant's current spouse that the participant has applied for a loan.

(2) A CSRS participant may obtain an exception to the requirement described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section if the participant establishes, to the satisfaction of the Executive Director, that the spouse's whereabouts are unknown as described in paragraph (c) of this section.

(b) Spouse of FERS or uniformed services participant. (1) Before a loan agreement is approved for a FERS or uniformed services participant, the spouse must consent to the loan by signing the loan agreement.

(2) A FERS or uniformed services participant may obtain an exception to the requirement described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section if the participant establishes, to the satisfaction of the Executive Director, that:

(i) The spouse's whereabouts are unknown; or

(ii) Exceptional circumstances prevent the participant from obtaining the spouse's consent.

(c) Exception to spousal requirements. The procedures for obtaining an exception to the spousal requirements described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (b)(1) of this section are the same as the procedures described in 5 CFR part 1650, subpart G.

(d) Certification of truthfulness. By completing a loan request, the participant certifies, under penalty of perjury, that all information provided to the TSP record keeper during the loan process is true and complete, including statements concerning the participant's marital status, the spouse's email or physical address at the time the application is filed, or the current spouse's consent to the loan.

[68 FR 35515, June 13, 2003, as amended at 68 FR 74451, Dec. 23, 2003; 87 FR 31694, May 24, 2022]

§ 1655.19 Effect of court order on loan.

Upon receipt of a document that purports to be a qualifying retirement benefits court order, qualifying legal process relating to a participant's legal obligation to provide child support or to make alimony payments, or a qualifying child abuse order, the participant's TSP account will be frozen. After the account is frozen, no loan will be allowed until the account is unfrozen. The Board's procedures for processing court orders and legal processes are explained in 5 CFR part 1653.

§ 1655.20 Residential loans.

(a) A residential loan will be made only for the purchase or construction of the primary residence of the participant, or for the participant and his or her spouse, and for the amount required to close on the purchase. The participant must actually bear all or part of the cost of the purchase. If the participant purchases a primary residence with someone other than his or her spouse, only the portion of the purchase costs that is borne by the participant will be considered in making the loan. A residential loan will not be made for the purpose of paying off an existing mortgage or otherwise providing financing for a previously purchased primary residence.

(b) The participant's primary residence is his or her principal residence. A primary residence may include a house, a townhouse, a condominium, a share in a cooperative housing corporation, or a mobile home; a primary residence does not include a second home or vacation home. A participant cannot have more than one primary residence.

(c) Purchase of a primary residence means acquisition of the residence through the exchange of cash or other property or through the total construction of a new residence. A residential loan will not be made for a lease-to-buy option, unless the option to buy is being exercised and the documentation states that the funds are being used to purchase the primary residence. Construction of an addition to or the renovation of a residence or the purchase of land only does not constitute the purchase of a primary residence.

(d) The amount required to close on the purchase of a primary residence does not include points or loan origination fees charged for a loan. In addition, real estate taxes cannot be included.

(e) The documentation required for a loan under this section is as follows:

(1) For all purchases, except for construction, a signed sale/purchase contract/settlement offer or agreement or addendum; or

(2) For construction, a signed builder's agreement/contract; and

(3) For requests including closing costs and/or settlement charges, a loan estimate/worksheet/statement/closing disclosure from a mortgage company.

(f) The documentation provided under this section must meet the requirements set forth by the TSP record keeper.

[87 FR 31694, May 24, 2022]

§ 1655.21 Loan fee.

The TSP will charge a participant a $50.00 loan fee when it disburses a general purpose loan and a $100.00 loan fee when it disburses a residential loan and will deduct the applicable fee from the proceeds of the loan.

[87 FR 31695, May 24, 2022]

PART 1690 THRIFT SAVINGS PLAN

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 8474.

Source: 68 FR 35519, June 13, 2003, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General

§ 1690.1 Definitions.

As used in this chapter:

Agency automatic (1%) contributions means any contributions made under 5 U.S.C. 8432(c)(1) and (c)(3). It also includes service automatic (1%) contributions made under 5 U.S.C. 8440e(e)(3)(A).

Agency matching contributions means any contributions made under 5 U.S.C. 8432(c)(2). It also includes service matching contributions under 5 U.S.C. 8440e(e)(3)(B).

Basic pay means basic pay as defined in 5 U.S.C. 8331(3). For CSRS and FERS employees, it is the rate of pay used in computing any amount the individual is otherwise required to contribute to the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund as a condition of participating in the Civil Service Retirement System or the Federal Employees' Retirement System, as the case may be. For members of the uniformed services, it is basic pay payable under 37 U.S.C. 204 and compensation received under 37 U.S.C. chapter 206.

Beneficiary participant means a spouse beneficiary for whom the TSP maintains a beneficiary participant account pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 8433(e) and in accordance with 5 CFR 1651.19.

Beneficiary participant account means an account maintained pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 8433(e) and in accordance with 5 CFR 1651.19. The term includes both civilian beneficiary participant accounts and uniformed services beneficiary participant accounts.

Board means the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board established under 5 U.S.C. 8472.

Bonus contributions means contributions made by a participant from any part of any special or incentive pay that the participant receives under chapter 5 of title 37.

BRS means the blended retirement system as established by the National Defense Authorization Act for FY 2016, Public Law 114-92, secs. 631-635 (2015).

BRS participant means a TSP participant covered by BRS.

C Fund means the Common Stock Index Investment Fund established under 5 U.S.C. 8438(b)(1)(C).

Catch-up contributions means TSP contributions from basic pay that are made by participants age 50 and over, which exceed the elective deferral limit of 26 U.S.C. 402(g) and meet the requirements of 5 CFR 1600.23.

Civilian account means a TSP account to which contributions have been made by or on behalf of a civilian employee.

Civilian beneficiary participant account means a beneficiary participant account that is established with a death benefit payment from a TSP account to which contributions were made by or on behalf of a civilian employee.

Civilian employee or civilian participant means a TSP participant covered by the Federal Employees' Retirement System, the Civil Service Retirement System, or equivalent retirement plan.

Contribution election means a request by an employee to start contributing to the TSP, to change the amount or type of contributions (traditional or Roth) made to the TSP each pay period, or to terminate contributions to the TSP.

Court of competent jurisdiction means the court of any state, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, the Northern Mariana Islands, or the Virgin Islands, and any Indian court as defined by 25 U.S.C. 1301(3).

CSRS means the Civil Service Retirement System established by 5 U.S.C. chapter 83, subchapter III, or any equivalent Federal retirement system.

CSRS employee or CSRS participant means any employee or participant covered by CSRS.

Date of appointment means the effective date of an employee's accession as established by the current employing agency.

Day means calendar day, unless otherwise stated.

Eligible employer plan means a plan qualified under I.R.C. section 401(a) (26 U.S.C. 401(a)), including a section 401(k) plan, profit-sharing plan, defined benefit plan, stock bonus plan, and money purchase plan; an annuity plan described in I.R.C. section 403(a) (26 U.S.C. 403(a)); an annuity contract described in I.R.C. section 403(b) (26 U.S.C. 403(b)); and an eligible deferred compensation plan described in I.R.C. section 457(b) (26 U.S.C. 457(b)) which is maintained by an eligible employer described in I.R.C. section 457(e)(1)(A) (26 U.S.C. 457(e)(1)(A)).

Employee contributions means traditional contributions and Roth contributions. Employee contributions are made at the participant's election pursuant to § 1600.12 and are deducted from compensation paid to the employee.

Employer contributions means agency automatic (1%) contributions under 5 U.S.C. 8432(c)(1), 8432(c)(3), or 5 U.S.C. 8440e(e)(3)(A) and agency matching contributions under 5 U.S.C. 8432(c)(2) or 5 U.S.C. 8440e(e)(3)(B).

Employing agency means the organization (or the payroll office that services the organization) that employs an individual eligible to contribute to the TSP and that has authority to make personnel compensation decisions for the individual. It includes the employing service for members of the uniformed services.

Executive Director means the Executive Director of the Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board under 5 U.S.C. 8474.

F Fund means the Fixed Income Investment Fund established under 5 U.S.C. 8438(b)(1)(B).

Federal civilian retirement system means the Civil Service Retirement System established by 5 U.S.C. chapter 83, subchapter III, the Federal Employees' Retirement System established by 5 U.S.C. chapter 84, or any equivalent Federal civilian retirement system.

FERS means the Federal Employees' Retirement System established by 5 U.S.C. chapter 84 or any equivalent Federal retirement system.

FERS employee or FERS participant means any employee or TSP participant covered by FERS.

FERSA means the Federal Employees' Retirement System Act of 1986 (FERSA), Public Law 99-335, 100 Stat. 514. The provisions of FERSA that govern the TSP are codified primarily in subchapters III and VII of Chapter 84 of Title 5, United States Code.

Former spouse means (as defined at 5 U.S.C. 8401(12)) the former spouse of a TSP participant if the participant performed at least 18 months of civilian service creditable under 5 U.S.C. 8411 as an employee or member, and if the participant and former spouse were married to one another for at least nine months.

G Fund means the Government Securities Investment Fund established under 5 U.S.C. 8438(b)(1)(A).

G Fund interest rate means the interest rate computed under 5 U.S.C. 8438(e)(2).

I Fund means the International Stock Index Investment Fund established under 5 U.S.C. 8438(b)(1)(E).

In-service withdrawal request means a properly completed withdrawal election for either an age-based in-service withdrawal under 5 CFR 1650.41 or a financial hardship in-service withdrawal under 5 CFR 1650.42.

Investment election means the participant's apportionment of his or her future contributions, loan payments, and rollovers from eligible employer plans or traditional IRAs among the TSP core funds.

L Fund means the Lifecycle Funds described in 5 CFR part 1601, subpart E.

PEBD means the pay entry base date (or pay entry basic date for some services), which is determined by each uniformed service and is used to calculate how much time in service a member has for the purpose of determining longevity pay rates.

Plan participant or participant means any person with an account (other than a beneficiary participant account) in the Thrift Savings Plan or who would have an account (other than a beneficiary account) but for an employing agency error.

Post-employment distribution request means a properly completed distribution withdrawal election under 5 CFR 1650.24.

Posting means the process of crediting or debiting transactions to an individual account.

Posting date means the date on which a transaction is credited or debited to a participant's account.

Ready Reserve means those members of the uniformed services described at 10 U.S.C. 10142.

Regular employee contributions mean TSP contributions from taxable basic pay that are subject to the Internal Revenue Code limits on elective deferrals and contributions to qualified plans (26 U.S.C. 402(g) and 415(c), respectively), and the maximum contribution percentage limits of 5 U.S.C. 8351(b), 5 U.S.C. 8432(a), or 5 U.S.C. 8440f(a).

Roth 5 year non-exclusion period means the period of five consecutive calendar years beginning on the first day of the calendar year in which the participant's Roth initiation date occurs. It is the period described in section 402A(d)(2)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code.

Roth balance means the sum of:

(1) Roth contributions and associated earnings; and

(2) Amounts rolled over to the TSP from a Roth account maintained by an eligible employer plans and earnings on those amounts.

Roth contributions means employee contributions made to the participant's Roth balance which are authorized by 5 U.S.C. 8432d. Roth contributions may be deducted from taxable pay on an after-tax basis or from pay exempt from taxation under 26 U.S.C. 112.

Roth begin date means

(1) The earlier of:

(i) The actual date of a participant's first Roth contribution to the TSP;

(ii) The “as of” date or attributable pay date (as defined in § 1605.1 of this subchapter) that established the date of the participant's first Roth contribution to the TSP; or

(iii) The date used, by a plan from which the participant directly rolled over Roth money into the TSP, to measure the participant's Roth 5 year non-exclusion period.

(2) If a participant has a civilian account and a uniformed services account, the Roth begin date for both accounts will be the same.

Roth IRA means an individual retirement plan described in Internal Revenue Code section 408A (26 U.S.C. 408A).

S Fund means the Small Capitalization Stock Index Investment Fund established under 5 U.S.C. 8438(b)(1)(D).

Separation from Government service means generally the cessation of employment with the Federal Government. For civilian employees it means termination of employment with the U.S. Postal Service or with any other employer from a position that is deemed to be Government employment for purposes of participating in the TSP for 31 or more full calendar days. For uniformed services members, it means the discharge from active duty or the Ready Reserve or the transfer to inactive status or to a retired list pursuant to any provision of title 10 of the United States Code. The discharge or transfer may not be followed, before the end of the 31-day period beginning on the day following the effective date of the discharge, by resumption of active duty, an appointment to a civilian position covered by the Federal Employees' Retirement System, the Civil Service Retirement System, or an equivalent retirement system, or continued service in or affiliation with the Ready Reserve. Reserve component members serving on full-time active duty who terminate their active duty status and subsequently participate in the drilling reserve are said to continue in the Ready Reserve. Active component members who are released from active duty and subsequently participate in the drilling reserve are said to affiliate with the Ready Reserve.

Share means a portion of a TSP Fund. Transactions are posted to accounts in shares at the share price of the date the transaction is posted. The number of shares for a transaction is calculated by dividing the dollar amount of the transaction by the share price of the appropriate date for the fund in question. The number of shares is computed to four decimal places.

Share price means the value of a share in a TSP Fund. The share price is calculated separately for each fund for each business day. The share price includes the cumulative net earnings or losses for each fund through the date the share price is calculated.

Source of contributions means traditional contributions, Roth contributions, agency automatic (1%) contributions, or agency matching contributions. All amounts in a participant's account are attributed to one of these four sources. Catch-up contributions, rollovers, and loan payments are included in the traditional contribution source or the Roth contribution source.

Special or incentive pay means pay payable as special or incentive pay under 37 U.S.C. chapter 5.

Spouse means the person to whom a TSP participant is married on the date he or she signs a form on which the TSP requests spousal information. Where a participant is seeking to reclaim an account that has been forfeited pursuant to 5 CFR 1650.16, spouse means the person to whom the participant was married on the withdrawal deadline. For purposes of 5 CFR 1651.5 and 5 CFR 1651.19, spouse means the person to whom the participant was married on the date of the participant's death. A TSP participant is considered to be married even if the parties are separated, unless a court decree of divorce or annulment has been entered. The laws of the jurisdiction in which the marriage was initially established will be used to determine whether a TSP participant is married.

Tax-deferred balance means the sum of:

(1) All contributions and rollovers in a participant's traditional balance that would otherwise be includible in gross income if paid directly to the participant and earnings on those amounts; and

(2) Earnings on any tax-exempt contributions in the traditional balance. The tax-deferred balance does not include tax-exempt contributions.

Tax-deferred contributions means employee contributions made to a participant's traditional balance that would otherwise be includible in gross income if paid directly to the participant.

Tax-exempt balance means the sum of tax-exempt contributions within a participant's traditional balance. It does not include earnings on such contributions. Only a traditional balance in a uniformed services participant account or a uniformed services beneficiary participant account may contain a tax-exempt balance.

Tax-exempt contributions means employee contributions made to the participant's traditional balance from pay which is exempt from taxation by 26 U.S.C. 112. The Federal income tax exclusion at 26 U.S.C. 112 is applicable to compensation for active service during a month in which a uniformed service member serves in a combat zone. The term “tax-exempt contributions” does not include contributions made to the participant's Roth balance from pay which is exempt from taxation by 26 U.S.C. 112.

Thrift Savings Fund or Fund means the Fund described in 5 U.S.C. 8437.

Thrift Savings Plan, TSP, or Plan means the Thrift Savings Plan established under subchapters III and VII of the Federal Employees' Retirement System Act of 1986, 5 U.S.C. 8351 and 8401-8479.

ThriftLine means the automated voice response system by which TSP participants may, among other things, access their accounts by telephone. The ThriftLine can be reached at (877) 968-3778.

Traditional balance means the sum of:

(1) Tax-deferred contributions and associated earnings;

(2) Tax-deferred amounts rolled over into the TSP and associated earnings;

(3) Tax-exempt contributions and associated earnings;

(4) Agency matching contributions and associated earnings;

(5) Agency automatic (1%) contributions and associated earnings.

Traditional contributions means tax-deferred employee contributions and tax-exempt employee contributions made to the participant's traditional balance.

Traditional IRA means an individual retirement account described in I.R.C. section 408(a) (26 U.S.C. 408(a)) and an individual retirement annuity described in I.R.C. section 408(b) (26 U.S.C. 408(b)) (other than an endowment contract).

TSP core fund means an investment fund established pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 8438(b)(1)(A)-(E) and (c)(2).

TSP record keeper means the entities the Board engages to perform record keeping and administration services for the Thrift Savings Plan.

TSP record keeper means the entities the Board engages to perform record keeping and administration services for the Thrift Savings Plan.

TSP website means the internet location(s) maintained by the TSP and/or its record keeper, which contain(s) information about the TSP and by which TSP participants may, among other things, access their accounts by computer.

Uniformed service member or uniformed services participant means a TSP participant who is a member of the uniformed services on active duty or a member of the Ready Reserve in any pay status.

Uniformed services means the Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, Coast Guard, Public Health Service Commissioned Corps, and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration Commissioned Officer Corps.

Uniformed services account means a TSP account to which contributions have been made by or on behalf of a member of the uniformed services.

Uniformed services beneficiary participant account means a beneficiary participant account that is established with a death benefit payment from a TSP account to which contributions were made by or on behalf of a member of the uniformed services.

Vested account balance means that portion of an individual's account which is not subject to forfeiture under 5 U.S.C. 8432(g).

[68 FR 35519, June 13, 2003, as amended at 70 FR 32218, June 1, 2005; 71 FR 50320, Aug. 25, 2006; 75 FR 78880, Dec. 17, 2010; 77 FR 26429, May 4, 2012; 78 FR 57784, Sept. 20, 2013; 82 FR 60105, Dec. 19, 2017; 87 FR 31695, May 24, 2022; 91 FR 1672, Jan. 15, 2026; 91 FR 3027, Jan. 26, 2026]

Subpart B Miscellaneous

§ 1690.11 Plan year.

The Thrift Savings Plan's plan year is established on a calendar-year basis for all purposes, except where another applicable provision of law requires that a fiscal year or other basis be used. As used in this section, the term “calendar-year basis” means a twelve-month period beginning on January 1 and ending on December 31 of the same year.

§ 1690.12 Power of attorney.

(a) A participant or beneficiary can appoint an agent to conduct business with the TSP on his or her behalf by using a power of attorney (POA). The agent is called an attorney-in-fact. The TSP record keeper must approve a POA before the agent can conduct business with the TSP; however, the TSP record keeper will accept a document that was signed by the agent before the TSP record keeper approved the POA. The TSP record keeper will approve a POA if it meets the following conditions:

(1) The POA must give the agent either general or specific powers, as explained in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section;

(2) The POA must be signed by the participant;

(3) The POA must provide the names and addresses of the participant and the agent;

(4) The POA must meet the state law requirements of the participant's state of domicile as determined by the address on file with the TSP record keeper;

(5) The POA must be a complete document; and

(6) The POA must be submitted to the TSP record keeper for approval.

(b) A general POA gives an agent unlimited authority to conduct business with the TSP, including the authority to sign any TSP-related document. Additional information regarding general powers of attorney can be accessed at https://www.tsp.gov.

(c) A specific power of attorney gives an agent the authority to conduct specific TSP transactions. A specific POA must expressly describe the authority it grants. Additional information regarding specifical powers of attorney, as well as a sample form, can be accessed at https://www.tsp.gov.

[87 FR 31695, May 24, 2022]

§ 1690.13 Guardianship and conservatorship orders.

(a) A court order can authorize an agent to conduct business with the TSP on behalf of an incapacitated participant or beneficiary. The agent is called a guardian or conservator and the incapacitated person is called a ward. The TSP record keeper must approve a court order before an agent can conduct business with the TSP; however, the TSP record keeper will accept a document that was signed by the agent before the TSP record keeper approved the court order. The TSP record keeper will approve a court order appointing an agent if the following conditions are met:

(1) A court of competent jurisdiction (as defined at § 1690.1) must have issued the court order;

(2) The court order must give the agent either general or specific powers, as explained in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section; and

(3) The agent must demonstrate that he or she meets any precondition specified in the court order, such as a bonding requirement.

(b) A general grant of authority gives a guardian or conservator unlimited authority to conduct business with the TSP, including the authority to sign any TSP-related document. By way of example, an order gives a general grant authority by appointing a “guardian of the ward's estate,” by permitting a guardian to “conduct business transactions” for the ward, or by authorizing a guardian to care for the ward's “personal property” or “Federal Government retirement benefits.”

(c) A specific grant of authority gives a guardian or conservator authority to conduct specific TSP transactions. Such an order must expressly describe the authority it grants. By way of example, an order may authorize an agent to “obtain information about the ward's TSP account” or “borrow or withdraw funds from the ward's TSP account.”

[87 FR 31696, May 24, 2022]

§ 1690.14 Checks made payable to the Thrift Savings Plan.

(a) Accord and satisfaction. The TSP does not agree to accept less than the total amount due by negotiating an instrument such as a check, share draft or money order with a restrictive legend on it (such as “payment in full” or “submitted in full satisfaction of claims”), or by negotiating an instrument that is conditionally tendered to the TSP with an offer of compromise.

(b) TSP payment address. The TSP record keeper has established an address for the receipt of specified TSP payments. The TSP record keeper will not answer correspondence mailed to that payment address.

[70 FR 32218, June 1, 2005, as amended at 87 FR 31696, May 24, 2022]

§ 1690.15 Freezing an account—administrative holds.

(a) The TSP record keeper may freeze (e.g., place an administrative hold on) a participant's account for any of the following reasons:

(1) Pursuant to a qualifying retirement benefits court order as set forth in part 1653 of this chapter;

(2) Pursuant to a request from the Department of Justice under the Mandatory Victims Restitution Act;

(3) Upon the death of a participant;

(4) Upon suspicion or knowledge of fraudulent account activity or identity theft;

(5) In response to litigation pertaining to an account;

(6) For operational reasons (e.g., to correct a processing error or to stop payment on a check when account funds are insufficient);

(7) Pursuant to a written request from a participant made in the manner prescribed by the TSP record keeper; and

(8) For any other reason necessary to ensure the integrity of TSP accounts or compliance with law.

(b) [Reserved]

[87 FR 31696, May 24, 2022]

1691-1699 PARTS 1691-1699 [RESERVED]

CHAPTER VIII OFFICE OF SPECIAL COUNSEL

PART 1800 FILING OF COMPLAINTS AND ALLEGATIONS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 301, 1212(e).

Source: 87 FR 63405, Oct. 19, 2022, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1800.1 Scope and purpose.

The purpose of this part is to implement the U.S. Office of Special Counsel's (OSC) authorities at 5 U.S.C. 1212-1216 and should be read in concert with these statutory provisions. This part does not create new individual rights but instead is intended to inform individuals of filing options they may be entitled to under 5 U.S.C. 1212-1216, and 2302. Individuals are encouraged to go to OSC's website at https://osc.gov for more information about the OSC complaint form that should be used when filing with OSC.

§ 1800.2 Filing complaints of prohibited personnel practices or other prohibited activities.

(a) Prohibited personnel practices. Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 1214 and 1215, OSC has investigative and prosecutorial jurisdiction over allegations that one or more of the prohibited personnel practices enumerated at 5 U.S.C. 2302 were committed against current or former Federal employees or applicants for Federal employment, including:

(1) Discrimination, including discrimination based on marital status or political affiliation (see § 1810.1 of this chapter for information about OSC's deferral policy for discrimination complaints);

(2) Soliciting or considering improper recommendations or statements about any individual requesting, or under consideration for, a personnel action;

(3) Coercing political activity, or engaging in retaliation for refusal to engage in political activity;

(4) Deceiving or obstructing any individual with respect to competition for employment;

(5) Influencing any individual to withdraw from competition to improve or injure the employment prospects of another individual;

(6) Granting an unauthorized preference or advantage to any individual to improve or injure the employment prospects of another individual;

(7) Nepotism involving a covered relative as defined at 5 U.S.C. 3110(a)(3);

(8) Retaliation for whistleblowing (whistleblowing is generally defined as the disclosure of information by an individual who reasonably believes that the information evidences a violation of any law, rule, or regulation; gross mismanagement; a gross waste of funds; an abuse of authority; a substantial and specific danger to public health or safety; or censorship related to scientific research or the integrity of the scientific process if the censorship will cause one of the aforementioned categories of wrongdoing);

(9) Retaliation for:

(i) Exercising certain grievance, complaint, or appeal rights;

(ii) Providing testimony or other assistance to any individual exercising such grievance, complaint, or appeal rights;

(iii) Cooperating with the Special Counsel, an Inspector General, or any other agency component responsible for internal investigation or review; or

(iv) Refusing to obey an order that would require the violation of law, rule, or regulation;

(10) Discrimination based on conduct that would not adversely affect job performance;

(11) Violating a veterans' preference requirement;

(12) Taking or failing to take a personnel action in violation of any law, rule, or regulation implementing or directly concerning merit system principles at 5 U.S.C. 2301(b);

(13) Implementing or enforcing any nondisclosure policy, form, or agreement that fails to include the statement found at 5 U.S.C. 2302(b)(13) or fails to inform any individual that they retain their whistleblowing rights; and

(14) Accessing the medical record of any individual as part of, or otherwise in furtherance of, any other prohibited personnel practice.

(b) Other prohibited activities. Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 1216, OSC also has investigative and prosecutorial jurisdiction over any allegation concerning the following:

(1) Prohibited political activity by Federal employees covered by the Hatch Act at title 5 of the U.S. Code, chapter 73, subchapter III;

(2) Prohibited political activity by State and local officers and employees covered by the Hatch Act at title 5 of the U.S. Code, chapter 15;

(3) Arbitrary and capricious withholding of information that should be released pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act at 5 U.S.C. 552 (except for certain foreign and counterintelligence information);

(4) Activities prohibited by any civil service law, rule, or regulation, including any activity relating to political intrusion in personnel decision-making;

(5) Involvement by any employee in any prohibited discrimination found by any court or appropriate administrative authority to have occurred in the course of any personnel action (unless OSC determines that the allegation may be resolved more appropriately under an administrative appeals procedure); and

(6) Pursuant to 38 U.S.C. 4324, violations of the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act (USERRA), codified at 38 U.S.C. 4301, et seq.

(c) Procedures for filing complaints alleging prohibited personnel practices or other prohibited activities (other than the Hatch Act). (1) Anyone may file a complaint with OSC alleging one or more prohibited personnel practices, or other prohibited activities within OSC's investigative jurisdiction. The OSC complaint form must be used to file all such complaints.

(2) OSC will not process a complaint filed in any format other than the completed OSC complaint form designated in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. OSC will, however, accept material supplementing the contents of Form 14, as long as the filer also submits a signed form. If a filer does not use this form to submit a complaint, OSC will provide the filer with information about the form and obtain a signature on the form. The OSC complaint form will be considered to be filed on the date on which OSC receives a completed form.

(3) The OSC complaint form requests that the filer provide basic information about the alleged prohibited personnel practices or other prohibited activities. A complaint may be amended to clarify or include additional allegations. A complaint is sufficient for investigation when OSC receives information identifying the parties, identifying any relevant personnel action(s), and describing generally the practices or activities at issue.

(4) The OSC complaint form is available:

(i) Online at: https://osc.gov (to print out and complete on paper, or to complete online);

(ii) By writing to OSC at: U.S. Office of Special Counsel, 1730 M Street NW, Suite 218, Washington, DC 20036-4505; or

(iii) By calling OSC at: (800) 872-9855 (toll-free), or (202) 804-7000 (in the Washington, DC area).

(5) A complainant can file a completed OSC complaint form:

(i) Electronically at: https://osc.gov;

(ii) By email to: info@osc.gov; or

(iii) By mail to: U.S. Office of Special Counsel, 1730 M Street NW, Suite 218, Washington, DC 20036-4505.

(d) Alternate Dispute Resolution. For selected cases, OSC may offer Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) pursuant to the voluntary Administrative Dispute Resolution Act of 1996, 5 U.S.C. 571-574. OSC provides information about its ADR program and process on its website at https://osc.gov.

[87 FR 63405, Oct. 19, 2022, as amended at 90 FR 17887, Apr. 30, 2025]

§ 1800.3 Filing disclosures of information evidencing wrongdoing.

(a) General. Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 1213, OSC is authorized to provide an independent and secure channel for use by current or former Federal employees and applicants for Federal employment to disclose information that they reasonably believe evidences wrongdoing by a Federal agency. Within 45 days of receipt of the disclosure, OSC must determine whether there is a substantial likelihood that the information discloses a violation of any law, rule, or regulation; gross mismanagement; a gross waste of funds; an abuse of authority; a substantial and specific danger to public health or safety; or censorship related to scientific research or the integrity of the scientific process if the censorship will cause one of the aforementioned categories of wrongdoing. If it does, the law requires OSC to refer the information to the appropriate agency head for an investigation and a written report on the findings; and the agency head must submit the report to the Special Counsel. OSC may not disclose the identity of an individual who makes the disclosure unless the individual consents or the Special Counsel determines that the disclosure of the identity is necessary because of an imminent danger to public health or safety or imminent violation of any criminal law. The law does not authorize OSC to investigate any disclosure.

(1) Deferral policy for certain disclosures. When OSC determines that a disclosure is being or has been investigated by an Agency, OSC will usually defer to such investigation rather than make a substantial likelihood determination.

(2) [Reserved]

(b) Procedures for filing disclosures. Current or former Federal employees and applicants for Federal employment may file with OSC a disclosure of the type of information described in 5 U.S.C. 1213(a)(1). Such disclosures must be filed in writing.

(1) Filers are encouraged to use the OSC complaint form, which is available online, to file a disclosure of the type of information described in 5 U.S.C. 1213(a)(1). OSC's complaint form provides more information about OSC jurisdiction and procedures for processing whistleblower disclosures. The OSC complaint form is available:

(i) Online at: https://osc.gov (may be completed online or printed out and completed on paper);

(ii) By writing to OSC at: U.S. Office of Special Counsel, 1730 M Street NW, Suite 218, Washington, DC 20036-4505; or

(iii) By calling OSC at: (800) 572-2249 (toll-free), or (202) 804-7004 (in the Washington, DC area).

(2) Filers may use another written format to submit a disclosure to OSC, but the submission should include:

(i) The name, mailing address, and telephone number(s) of the individual(s) making the disclosure(s);

(ii) The department or agency, location, and organizational unit complained of; and

(iii) A statement as to whether the filer consents to disclosure of the filer's identity by OSC to the agency involved, in connection with any OSC referral to that agency.

§ 1800.4 Filing complaints of Hatch Act violations and requesting advisory opinions.

(a) Procedures for filing complaints alleging Hatch Act violations.

(1) Complainants are encouraged to use the OSC complaint form (Form 14) to file Hatch Act complaints. The OSC complaint form is available:

(i) Online at: https://osc.gov (to print out and complete on paper, or to complete online); or

(ii) By writing to OSC at: U.S. Office of Special Counsel, 1730 M Street NW, Suite 218, Washington, DC 20036-4505.

(2) Complaints alleging a violation of the Hatch Act not submitted on Form 14 may also be submitted in any written form, and should include:

(i) The complainant's name, mailing address, and telephone number (unless the matter is submitted anonymously);

(ii) The department or agency, location, and organizational unit complained of; and

(iii) A concise description of the actions complained about, names and positions of employees who took the actions, if known to the complainant, and dates of the actions, preferably in chronological order, together with any documentary evidence that the complainant can provide.

(3) Written Hatch Act complaints including the information in 1800.4(a)(2) above may be filed with OSC:

(i) By email to: hatchact@osc.gov; or

(ii) By mail to: U.S. Office of Special Counsel, 1730 M Street NW, Suite 218, Washington, DC 20036-4505.

(b) Procedures for requesting Hatch Act advisory opinions. Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 1212(f), OSC is authorized to issue advisory opinions only about political activity of Federal officers and employees, and political activity of certain State or local officers and employees. An individual can seek an advisory opinion from OSC:

(1) By email to: hatchact@osc.gov;

(2) By mail to: U.S. Office of Special Counsel, Hatch Act Unit, 1730 M Street NW, Suite 218, Washington, DC 20036-4505; or

(3) By phone at: (800) 854-2824 (toll-free), or (202) 804-7002 (in the Washington, DC area).

PART 1810 INVESTIGATIVE AUTHORITY OF THE SPECIAL COUNSEL

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 301 and 1212(e).

Source: 87 FR 63407, Oct. 19, 2022, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1810.1 Investigative policy in certain discrimination and retaliation complaints.

OSC is authorized to investigate allegations of discrimination and retaliation prohibited by law, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 2302(b)(1) and (b)(9)(A)(ii). Because procedures for investigating discrimination and retaliation complaints have already been established in the agencies and the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, OSC will usually avoid duplicating those procedures and will defer to those procedures rather than initiating an independent investigation.

§ 1810.2 Access to agency information in investigations.

(a) Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 1212(b)(5), OSC is authorized to have timely access to all agency records, data, reports, audits, reviews, documents, papers, recommendations, information, or other material that relate to an OSC investigation, review, or inquiry.

(b) A claim of common law privilege, such as the attorney-client privilege, may not be used by any agency, or officer or employee of any agency, to withhold information from OSC. By providing such information to OSC, an agency will not be deemed to have waived the common law privilege against a non-Federal entity or against any individual in any other proceeding.

(c) In the event of contumacy or failure of an agency to comply with any request under this section, the Special Counsel shall submit a report to the committees of Congress with jurisdiction over OSC and the applicable agency.

§ 1810.3 Termination of certain OSC investigations.

(a) Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 1214(a)(6), within 30 days of receiving a complaint alleging that a prohibited personnel practice occurred, OSC may terminate an investigation of the allegation without further inquiry if:

(1) The same allegation, based on the same set of facts and circumstances, had previously been:

(i) Made by the individual and investigated by OSC; or

(ii) Filed by the individual with the Merit Systems Protection Board;

(2) OSC does not have jurisdiction to investigate the allegation; or

(3) The individual knew or should have known of the alleged prohibited personnel practice more than 3 years before the allegation was received by OSC.

(b) Within 30 days of terminating an investigation described in paragraph (a), OSC shall notify the individual, in writing, of the basis for terminating the investigation.

§ 1810.4 Investigative policy regarding agency liaisons.

Agency liaisons facilitate their agency's cooperation with OSC's investigations by ensuring that agencies timely and accurately respond to OSC's requests for information and witness testimony, as well as by assisting with the resolution of complaints. To maintain the integrity of OSC's investigations and to avoid actual or perceived conflicts, agency liaisons should not have current or past involvement in the personnel actions at issue in the assigned case.

PART 1811 OUTSIDE INSPECTOR GENERAL

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 1212(i).

Source: 87 FR 63407, Oct. 19, 2022, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1811.1 Requirement to contract with an outside inspector general.

The Special Counsel shall enter into at least one agreement with the Inspector General of an agency under which—

(1) the Inspector General shall—

(A) receive, review, and investigate allegations of prohibited personnel practices or wrongdoing filed by employees of the Office of Special Counsel; and

(B) develop a method for an employee of the Office of Special Counsel to communicate directly with the Inspector General; and

(2) the Special Counsel—

(A) may not require an employee of the Office of Special Counsel to seek authorization or approval before directly contacting the Inspector General in accordance with the agreement; and

(B) may reimburse the Inspector General for services provided under the agreement.

[87 FR 63407, Oct. 19, 2022]

PART 1820 FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT REQUESTS; PRODUCTION OF RECORDS OR TESTIMONY

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 552, 301, and 1212(e).

Source: 87 FR 63407, Oct. 19, 2022, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1820.1 General provisions.

This part contains rules and procedures followed by the U.S. Office of Special Counsel (OSC) in processing requests for records under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), codified at 5 U.S.C. 552. These rules and procedures should be read together with the FOIA and the FOIA page of OSC's website (https://osc.gov/FOIA), which set forth additional information about access to agency records and information routinely provided to the public as part of a regular OSC activity. For example, forms, press releases, records published on OSC's website, or public lists maintained at OSC headquarter offices pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 1219, may be requested and provided to the public without following this part. This part also addresses responses to demands by a court or other authority to an OSC employee or former employee for production of official records or testimony in legal proceedings.

Subpart A FOIA Regulations

§ 1820.2 Requirements for making FOIA requests.

(a) Submission of requests. (1) A request for OSC records under the FOIA must be made in writing. The request must be sent:

(i) By email to: foiarequest@osc.gov or other electronic means described on the FOIA page of OSC's website (https://osc.gov/FOIA);

(ii) Electronically to: The National FOIA Portal for the entire federal government at www.foia.gov; or

(iii) By mail to: U.S. Office of Special Counsel, FOIA Officer, 1730 M Street NW, Suite 218, Washington, DC 20036-4505.

(2) Both the request letter and envelope or email subject line should be clearly marked “FOIA Request.”

(3) A FOIA request will not be considered to have been received by OSC until it reaches the FOIA Officer.

(b) Description of records sought. Requests must state in the letter, email, or other prescribed electronic method the words “FOIA Request” or “FOIA/Privacy Request.” The request must also describe the records sought in enough detail for them to be located with a reasonable amount of effort. When requesting records about an OSC case file, the case file number, name, and type (for example, prohibited personnel practice (PPP), Hatch Act, USERRA, Hatch Act advisory opinion, or whistleblower disclosure) should be provided, if known. Whenever possible, requests should describe any particular record sought, such as the date, title or name, author, recipient, and subject matter. OSC requires proof of identification from requestors seeking their own case files. OSC requires a signed release of information from requestors seeking another individual's case file.

(c) Agreement to pay fees. By making a FOIA request the requestor agrees to pay all applicable fees chargeable under § 1820.7 unless the Special Counsel waives fees, the requestor is exempt, or the requestor otherwise qualifies for a waiver of fees.

§ 1820.3 Consultations and referrals.

When OSC receives a FOIA request for a record in its possession, it may determine that another Federal agency or entity is better able to decide whether the record is exempt from disclosure under the FOIA. If so, OSC will either respond to the request for the record after consulting with the other Federal agency or entity or refer the responsibility for responding to the request to the other Federal agency or entity deemed better able to determine whether to release it. OSC will ordinarily respond promptly to consultations and referrals from other Federal agencies or entities.

§ 1820.4 Timing of responses to requests.

(a) In general. OSC ordinarily will respond to FOIA requests in order of receipt. In determining which records are responsive to a request, OSC ordinarily will include only records in its possession on the date that it begins its search. OSC will inform the requestor if it uses any other date.

(b) Multitrack processing. (1) OSC may use two or more processing tracks to distinguish between simple and more complex requests based on the amount of work and/or time estimated to process the request.

(2) When using multitrack processing, OSC may provide requestors in its slower track(s) with an opportunity to limit the scope of their requests in order to qualify for faster processing within the specified limits of the faster track(s).

(c) Expedited processing. (1) OSC will take requests and appeals out of order and provide expedited treatment whenever OSC has established to its satisfaction that:

(i) Failure to obtain requested records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual;

(ii) An urgency exists to inform the public about an actual or alleged federal government activity and the requestor is primarily engaged in disseminating information; or

(iii) The requestor with a personal interest in a case for which they face an imminent filing deadline with the Merit Systems Protection Board or other administrative tribunal or court of law in an individual right of action, or in a USERRA case referred to OSC under title 38 of the U.S. Code. Expedited status granted under this provision will apply only to the following requested records: PPP case closure and notice of appeal rights letters sent to the complainant by OSC and the official complaint form submitted to OSC by a USERRA complainant or the original referred USERRA complaint if referred to OSC under title 38 of the U.S. Code.

(2) A request for expedited processing must be made in writing and sent to OSC's FOIA Officer. The expedited request is deemed received when it reaches the FOIA Officer.

(3) A requestor who seeks expedited processing must submit a statement, certified to be true and correct to the best of that individual's knowledge and belief, explaining in detail the basis for requesting expedited processing. OSC may waive a certification as a matter of administrative discretion.

(4) OSC shall decide whether to grant a request for expedited processing and notify the requestor of its decision within ten (10) calendar days of the FOIA Officer's receipt of the request. If OSC grants the request for expedited processing, it will process the request as soon as practicable. If OSC denies the request for expedited processing, OSC shall rule expeditiously on any administrative appeal of that decision.

(d) Aggregated requests. OSC may aggregate multiple requests by the same requestor, or by a group of requestors acting in concert, if it reasonably believes that such requests actually constitute a single request that would otherwise create “unusual circumstances” as defined in § 1820.5, and that the requests involve clearly related matters.

§ 1820.5 Responses to requests.

(a) General. Ordinarily, OSC has twenty (20) business days from receipt to determine whether to grant or deny a FOIA request.

(1) In unusual circumstances, OSC may extend the twenty (20) business-day deadline by written notice to the requestor setting forth the unusual circumstances justifying the extension. OSC shall notify the requestor if OSC cannot process the request in 20 days and provide the requestor an opportunity to modify the request so that OSC can process the request within the 20-day time limit. OSC and the requestor can also negotiate an alternative time frame for processing the request or modified request. OSC's FOIA Public Liaison is available to assist in the resolution of any disputes between the requestor and OSC. OSC must also advise the requestor of the requestor's right to seek dispute resolution services from the National Archives and Records Administration's (NARA) Office of Government Information Services (OGIS). OSC may consider a requestor's refusal to reasonably modify the request or to negotiate an alternative time frame as a factor in determining whether unusual and/or exceptional circumstances exist.

(2) Unusual circumstances means—

(i) The need to search for and collect the requested records from OSC field offices, NARA storage facilities, or other locations away from OSC's FOIA office;

(ii) The need to search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records demanded in a single request; or

(iii) The need for consultation and/or referral with another OSC unit where the information concerns two or more components of OSC or with a Federal entity that has an interest in the information requested.

(3) Exceptional circumstances means—

(i) OSC has a backlog of pending requests and is making reasonable progress in reducing the backlog; and

(ii) OSC estimates a search yield of more than 5000 pages.

(b) OSC will notify the requestor in writing of its determination to grant or deny in full or in part a FOIA request.

(c) Adverse determinations. Adverse determinations, or denials of requests, consist of: A determination to withhold any requested record in whole or in part; that a requested record does not exist or cannot be located; that a record is not readily reproducible in the form or format sought by the requestor; that the request does not seek a record subject to the FOIA; a determination on any disputed fee matter; or a denial of a request for expedited treatment. A notification to a requestor of an adverse determination on a request shall include:

(1) A brief statement of the reason(s) for the denial of the request, including any FOIA exemption applied by OSC in denying the request; and

(2) A statement that the denial may be appealed under § 1820.6(a), with a description of the requirements of that subsection.

(d) Dispute resolution program. OSC shall inform FOIA requestors at all stages of the FOIA process of the availability of dispute resolution services provided by the FOIA Public Liaison or by NARA's OGIS.

§ 1820.6 Appeals.

(a) Appeals of adverse determinations. A requestor may appeal an adverse determination to OSC's Office of General Counsel. The appeal must be in writing, and must be submitted either:

(1) By email to: foiaappeal@osc.gov, or other electronic means as described on the FOIA page of OSC's website (https://osc.gov/FOIA); or

(2) By mail to: U.S. Office of Special Counsel, Office of General Counsel, 1730 M Street NW, Suite 218, Washington, DC 20036-4505.

(b) Submission and content. The Office of General Counsel must receive the appeal within ninety (90) calendar days of the date of the adverse determination letter. The appeal letter and envelope or email subject line should be clearly marked “FOIA Appeal.” The appeal must clearly identify the OSC determination (including the assigned FOIA request number, if known) being appealed. OSC will not ordinarily act on a FOIA appeal if the request becomes a matter of FOIA litigation.

(c) Responses to appeals. Ordinarily, OSC must issue a written appeal decision within twenty (20) business days from receipt of the appeal. A decision affirming a denial in whole or in part shall inform the requestor of the provisions for judicial review of that decision, and of the availability of dispute resolution services. If OSC's appeal decision reverses or modifies its denial, OSC's notice will state that OSC will reprocess the request in accordance with that appeal decision.

§ 1820.7 Fees.

(a) In general. OSC provides the first two hours of search time and the first 100 pages of duplication free of charge to all requestors. In exceptional circumstances, OSC may charge fees. At the discretion of the Special Counsel, OSC may exempt certain requestors from search and duplication fees, including PPP complainants and subjects; Hatch Act complainants and subjects; Hatch Act advisory opinion requestors; whistleblowers; and USERRA complainants. OSC charges commercial users for search, review, and duplication fees under the FOIA in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, except where a waiver or reduction of fees is granted under paragraph (h) of this section. OSC charges duplication fees, but not search fees, to educational or non-commercial scientific institutions; and to representative of the news media or news media requestors. OSC charges both search fees and duplication fees to all other requestors. If an exempted requestor abuses its exempt fee status to file numerous, duplicative, and/or voluminous FOIA requests, OSC may suspend the requestor's exempt status and charge search and duplication fees. OSC may require up-front payment of fees before sending copies of requested records to a requestor. Requestors must pay fees by submitting to OSC's FOIA Officer a check or money order made payable to the Treasury of the United States. See generally Uniform Freedom of Information Act Fee Schedule and Guidelines (hereinafter OMB Fee Guidelines), 52 FR 10,012, 10,017-18 (Mar. 27, 1987).

(b) Definitions. For purposes of this section:

All other requestors means all requestors who do not fall into the categories of commercial use, educational institution, noncommercial scientific institution, and representatives of the news media.

Commercial use request means a request from or on behalf of an individual who seeks information for a use or purpose that furthers commercial, trade, or profit interests, which can include furthering those interests through litigation. If OSC determines that the requestor seeks to put the records to a commercial use, either because of the nature of the request or because OSC has reasonable cause to doubt a requestor's stated use, OSC shall provide the requestor with a reasonable opportunity to clarify.

Direct costs mean those expenses that OSC incurs in searching for and duplicating (and, in the case of commercial use requests, reviewing) records to respond to a FOIA request. Direct costs include, for example, the salary of the employee performing the work (the basic rate of pay for the employee plus 16 percent of that rate to cover benefits) and the cost of operating duplicating equipment. Direct costs do not include overhead expenses such as rent, heating, or lighting the record storage facility.

Duplication means the reasonable direct cost of making copies of documents.

Educational institution means any school that operates a program of scholarly research. See OMB Fee Guidelines, 52 FR at 10,019. To be in this category, a requestor must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are not sought for a commercial use but are sought to further scholarly research.

Non-commercial scientific institution means an entity that is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry and are not for commercial use.

Representative of the news media or news media requestor means any individual or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. A non-exhaustive list of news media entities includes print newspapers, electronic outlets for print newspapers, broadcast and cable television networks and stations, broadcast and satellite radio networks and stations, internet-only outlets, and other alternative media as methods of news delivery evolve. For “freelance” journalists to be regarded as working for a news organization, they must demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through that organization, whether print or electronic. A requestor seeking to qualify as a news media requestor must not be seeking the requested records for a commercial use. The requestor's news-dissemination function is not considered to be a commercial use.

Review means the process of examining a record located in response to a request in order to determine whether any portion of the record is exempt from release. Review includes redacting exempt material, and otherwise evaluating and preparing the records for release. Review includes time spent obtaining and considering any formal objection to release made by a business submitter under § 1820.8(f). Review does not include time spent resolving general legal or policy issues about the application of exemptions. OSC may charge for review costs in connection with commercial use requests even if a record ultimately is not released.

Search means the process of looking for and retrieving records or information responsive to a FOIA request, as well as page-by-page or line-by-line identification of responsive information within records.

(c) Fees. OSC charges the following fees for responding to FOIA requests:

(1) Search. (i) The first two hours of search are free. OSC may charge for time spent searching even if it fails to locate responsive records, or even if OSC determines that located records are exempt from release.

(ii) OSC charges $5.50 per quarter hour spent by clerical personnel in searching for and retrieving a requested record; $9.00 per quarter hour of search time spent by professional personnel; and $17.50 per quarter hour for search assistance from managerial personnel.

(iii) OSC charges the direct costs of conducting electronic searches, including the costs of operator or programmer staff time apportionable to the search.

(iv) OSC may charge additional costs in accordance with the applicable billing schedule established by NARA for requests requiring the retrieval of records from any Federal Records Center.

(2) Duplication. OSC charges all non-exempt requestors duplication fees after the first 100 pages. OSC's duplication fee for a standard paper photocopy of a record will be 25 cents per page. For copies produced by computer, such as discs or printouts, OSC will charge the direct costs, including staff time, of producing the copy. For other forms of duplication, OSC will charge the direct costs of that duplication.

(3) Review. OSC charges review fees to commercial use requestors. OSC will not charge for review at the administrative appeal level.

(d) Notice of anticipated fees in excess of $25.00. OSC shall notify the requestor of the actual or estimated fees when OSC determines or estimates that fees charged under this section would exceed $25.00, unless the requestor has indicated a willingness to pay fees at that level or if OSC waived fees before undertaking the search. OSC will not conduct a search or process responsive records until OSC and the requestor reach an agreement on the fees. If a requestor wants to pay a lower amount than $25.00, the fee notice will offer the requestor an opportunity to work with OSC to reformulate or narrow the request to try to lower the anticipated fees.

(e) Charges for other services. OSC will notify requestors in advance if OSC intends to charge additional fees to provide special services, such as shipping records by other than ordinary mail.

(f) Aggregating separate requests. OSC may aggregate requests and charge appropriate fees where OSC reasonably believes that a requestor or a group of requestors seek to avoid fees by dividing a request into a series of requests. OSC may presume that multiple such requests made within a 30-day period were divided in order to avoid fees. OSC will aggregate requests separated by more than 30 days only where a reasonable basis exists for determining that aggregation is warranted under the circumstances involved.

(g) Advance payments. (1) For requests other than those described in paragraphs (g)(2) and (3) of this section, OSC will not require the requestor to make an advance payment before work is begun or continued on a request. Payment owed for work already completed (that is, pre-payment after processing a request but before copies are sent to the requestor) is not an advance payment.

(2) OSC may require advance payment up to the amount of the entire anticipated fee before beginning to process the request if OSC determines or estimates that a total fee to be charged under this section will exceed $250.00.

(3) OSC may require the requestor to make an advance payment in full of the anticipated fee where a requestor has previously failed to pay a properly charged FOIA fee within 30 business days of the date of billing.

(h) Requirements for waiver or reduction of fees. (1) OSC will furnish records responsive to a request without charge or at a charge reduced below that established under paragraph (c) of this section where OSC determines, based on all available information, that the requestor has demonstrated that:

(i) Release of the requested records is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government; and

(ii) Release of the records is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requestor.

(2) To determine whether the first fee waiver requirement is met, OSC will consider the following factors:

(i) Whether the subject of the requested records concerns a direct and clear connection to “the operations or activities of the government,” not remote or attenuated.

(ii) Whether the release is “likely to contribute” to an understanding of government operations or activities. The requested records must be meaningfully informative about government operations or activities in order to be “likely to contribute” to an increased public understanding of those operations or activities. The release of records already in the public domain is unlikely to contribute to such understanding.

(iii) Whether release of the requested records will contribute to “public understanding.” The release must contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience of individuals interested in the subject. OSC shall consider a requestor's expertise in the subject area and ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public. A representative of the news media presumptively satisfies this consideration.

(iv) Whether the release is likely to contribute “significantly” to public understanding of government operations or activities. The requestor must demonstrate that the release would significantly enhance the public's understanding of the subject in question.

(3) To determine whether the second fee waiver requirement is met, OSC will consider the following factors:

(i) Whether the requestor has a commercial interest that would be furthered by the requested release. OSC shall consider any commercial interest of the requestor (with reference to the definition of “commercial use” in paragraph (b)(1) of this section), or of any individual on whose behalf the requestor may be acting, that would be furthered by the requested release. Requestors shall be given an opportunity to provide explanatory information about this consideration.

(ii) Whether any identified commercial interest in the disclosure, is equal to or less than that of any identified public interest. OSC ordinarily shall presume that a news media requestor has satisfied the public interest standard. Release to data brokers or others who primarily compile and market government information for direct economic return shall be presumed not to primarily serve the public interest.

(4) Where only a portion of the records to be released satisfies the requirements for a waiver of fees, a waiver shall be granted for that portion.

(5) Requests for the waiver or reduction of fees should address the factors listed in paragraphs (h)(1), (2), and (3) of this section, insofar as they apply to each request. OSC fee reduction or waiver decisions may consider the cost-effectiveness of its allocation of administrative resources.

(i) No assessment of fees. OSC may not assess any search fees if it misses the statutory 20-business-day deadline to respond to the request, except under paragraphs (i)(1) and (2) of this section.

(1) If OSC determined that unusual circumstances apply and OSC provided a timely written notice to the requestor, OSC may extend the 20-day deadline by 10 business days. OSC may not assess any search fees, however, if it misses the extended deadline.

(2) OSC may charge search fees if the search yield would exceed 5,000 pages, and if OSC provides a timely written notice to the requestor.

(ii) [Reserved]

§ 1820.8 Business information.

(a) In general. Business information obtained by OSC from a submitter may be released only pursuant to this section.

(b) Definitions. For purposes of this section:

Business information means trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained by OSC from a submitter that may be protected from release under FOIA Exemption 4. 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4).

Submitter means any individual or entity from whom OSC obtains business information, directly or indirectly.

(c) Designation of business information. A submitter of business information must use good-faith efforts to designate, by appropriate markings, any portion of its submission that it considers to be protected from release under FOIA Exemption 4.

(d) Notice to submitters. OSC shall provide a submitter with prompt written notice of a FOIA request or administrative appeal that appears to seek confidential business information wherever required under paragraph (e) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, in order to give the submitter an opportunity to object to release of any specified portion of those records under paragraph (f) of this section. The notice shall either describe the confidential business information requested or include copies of the requested records or record portions containing the information.

(e) When notice is required. Notice shall be given to a submitter whenever:

(1) The submitter designated the records in good faith as considered protected from release under FOIA Exemption 4; or

(2) OSC has reason to believe that the records or portions of records may be protected from release under FOIA Exemption 4.

(f) Opportunity to object to release. OSC will allow a submitter a reasonable time to respond to the notice described in paragraph (d) of this section and will specify that time period within the notice. The submitter must submit any objections to release in a detailed written statement. The statement must specify all grounds for withholding any portion of the records under any exemption of the FOIA and, in the case of Exemption 4, it must show why the information contained in the record is privileged or confidential. Submitters who fail to respond timely to the notice are deemed to have consented to release of the records. Information provided by a submitter under this paragraph may itself be subject to release under FOIA.

(1) Notice of intent to release. OSC shall consider a submitter's objections and specific grounds for non-release in deciding whether to release business information. If OSC decides to release business information over the objection of a submitter, OSC shall provide written notice including the reason(s) why OSC overruled the submitter's objections; a description of the business information to be released; and a reasonable specified release date.

(2) [Reserved]

(g) Exceptions to notice requirements. The notice requirements of paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section shall not apply if:

(1) OSC determines that the information should not be released;

(2) The information has been lawfully published or has been officially made available to the public;

(3) Release of the information is required by statute (other than the FOIA) or by a regulation issued in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12600; or

(4) The designation made by the submitter under paragraph (c) of this section appears obviously frivolous—except that, in such a case, OSC shall, within a reasonable time prior to a specified release date, give the submitter written notice of any final decision to release the information.

(h) Notice of FOIA lawsuit. OSC shall promptly notify a submitter if a requestor files a lawsuit seeking to compel the release of the submitter's business information.

(i) Corresponding notice to requestors. OSC shall notify requestor(s): that it provided submitters the opportunity to object to release under paragraph (d) of this section; if OSC subsequently releases the requested records under paragraph (g) of this section; and whenever a submitter files a lawsuit seeking to prevent OSC's release of business information.

§ 1820.9 Other rights and services.

This subpart does not create a right or entitlement for any individual to any service or to the release of any record other than those available under FOIA.

Subpart B Production of Records or Testimony

§ 1820.10 Scope and purpose.

(a) This part establishes policy, assigns responsibilities, and prescribes procedures with respect to the production of official information, records, or testimony by current and former OSC employees, contractors, advisors, and consultants in connection with federal or state litigation or administrative proceedings in which OSC is not a party.

(b) OSC intends this part to:

(1) Conserve OSC employee time for conducting official business;

(2) Minimize OSC employee involvement in issues unrelated to OSC's mission;

(3) Maintain OSC employee impartiality in disputes between non-OSC litigants; and

(4) Protect OSC's sensitive, confidential information and deliberative processes.

(c) OSC does not waive the sovereign immunity of the United States when allowing OSC employees to provide testimony or records under this part.

§ 1820.11 Applicability.

This part applies to demands and requests from non-OSC litigants for testimony from current and former OSC employees, contractors, advisors, and consultants relating to official OSC information and/or for production of official OSC records or information in legal proceedings in which OSC is not a party.

§ 1820.12 Definitions.

The following definitions apply to this part.

Demand means an order, subpoena, or other command of a court or other competent authority for OSC's production or release of records or for an OSC employee's appearance and testimony in a legal proceeding.

General Counsel means OSC's General Counsel or an individual to whom the General Counsel has delegated authority under this part.

Legal proceeding means any matter before a court of law, administrative board or tribunal, commission, administrative law judge, hearing officer, or other body that conducts a legal or administrative proceeding.

OSC employee or employee means any current or former OSC employee or contractor, including but not limited to OSC: temporary employees, interns, volunteers, consultants, and/or other advisors.

Records or official records and information means all information in OSC's custody and control, relating to information in OSC's custody and control, or acquired by an OSC employee in the performance of official duties.

Request means any request, by whatever method, for the production of records and information or for testimony which has not been ordered by a court or other competent authority.

Testimony means any written or oral statements, including depositions, answers to interrogatories, affidavits, declarations, and interviews made by an individual in connection with a legal proceeding.

§ 1820.13 General prohibition.

No OSC employee may testify or produce official records or information in response to a demand or request without the General Counsel's prior written approval.

§ 1820.14 Factors OSC will consider.

The General Counsel has discretion to grant an employee permission to testify on matters relating to official information or produce official records and information, in response to a demand or request, with the general proviso that OSC's release of information is subject to the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and applicable privileges including but not limited to the attorney work product and deliberative process privileges. See especially §§ 1830.1(e)(2)(ii) and 1830.10(a) below. The General Counsel may also consider whether:

(a) The purposes of this part are met;

(b) Allowing such testimony or production of records would be necessary to prevent a miscarriage of justice; would assist or hinder OSC in performing its statutory duties; or would be in the best interest of OSC or the United States;

(c) The records or testimony can be obtained from other sources;

(d) The demand or request is unduly burdensome or otherwise inappropriate under the applicable rules of discovery or the rules of procedure governing the case or matter in which the demand or request arose;

(e) Release would violate a statute, Executive Order, or regulation; would reveal trade secrets, confidential, sensitive, or privileged information, or information that would otherwise be inappropriate for release; or would impede or interfere with an ongoing law enforcement investigation or proceeding, or compromise constitutional rights or national security interests;

(f) Allowing such testimony or production of records would result in OSC appearing to favor one litigant over another;

(g) A substantial government interest is implicated;

(h) The demand or request is within the authority of the party making it; and/or

(i) The demand or request is sufficiently specific to be answered.

§ 1820.15 Service of requests or demands.

Requests or demands for official records or information or testimony under this subpart must be served by mail to the U.S. Office of Special Counsel, Office of General Counsel, 1730 M Street NW, Suite 218, Washington, DC 20036-4505; or by email to ogc@osc.gov. The subject line should read “Touhy Request.”

§ 1820.16 Requirements for litigants seeking documents or testimony.

A litigant must comply with the following requirements when submitting a request for testimony or official records and information under this part. A request should be submitted before a demand is issued.

(a) The request must be in writing (email suffices) and must be submitted to the General Counsel.

(b) The written request must contain the following information:

(1) The caption of the legal or administrative proceeding, docket number, and name and address of the court or other administrative or regulatory authority involved;

(2) A copy of the complaint or equivalent document setting forth the assertions in the case and any other pleading or document necessary to show relevance;

(3) A list of categories of records sought, a detailed description of how the information sought is relevant to the issues in the legal or administrative proceeding, and a specific description of the substance of the testimony or records sought;

(4) A statement addressing the factors set out in § 1820.14;

(5) A statement indicating that the information sought is not available from another source;

(6) If testimony is requested, the intended use of the testimony, and a showing that no document could be provided and used in lieu of testimony;

(7) A description of all prior decisions, orders, or pending motions in the case that bear upon the relevance of the requested records or testimony;

(8) The name, address, and telephone number of counsel to each party in the case; and

(9) An estimate of the amount of time that the requestor and other parties will require of each OSC employee for time spent by the employee to prepare for testimony, in travel, and for attendance in the legal proceeding.

(c) OSC reserves the right to require additional information to complete the request where appropriate.

(d) The request should be submitted at least 14 days before the date that records or testimony is required.

(e) The General Counsel may deny a request for records or testimony based on a requestor's failure to cooperate in good faith to enable the General Counsel to make an informed decision.

(f) The request should state that the requestor will provide a copy of the OSC employee's testimony free of charge and that the requestor will permit OSC to have a representative present during the employee's testimony.

§ 1820.17 Processing requests or demands.

(a) Absent exigent circumstances, OSC will issue a determination within 10 business days after the General Counsel received the request or demand.

(b) The General Counsel may grant a waiver of any procedure described by this subpart where a waiver is considered necessary to promote a significant interest of OSC or the United States, or for other good cause.

(c) On request, OSC may certify that records are true copies in order to facilitate their use as evidence.

§ 1820.18 Restrictions that apply to testimony.

(a) The General Counsel may impose conditions or restrictions on OSC employee testimony including, for example:

(1) Limiting the areas of testimony;

(2) Requiring the requestor and other parties to the legal proceeding to agree that the transcript of the testimony will be kept under seal;

(3) Requiring that the transcript will be used or made available only in the particular legal proceeding for which testimony was requested.

(b) OSC may offer the employee's written declaration in lieu of testimony.

(c) If authorized to testify under this part, employees may testify as to facts within their personal knowledge, but, unless specifically authorized to do so by the General Counsel, the employee shall not:

(1) Reveal confidential or privileged information; or

(2) For a current OSC employee, testify as an expert or opinion witness with regard to any matter arising out of the employee's official duties or the functions of OSC unless testimony is being given on behalf of the United States (see also 5 CFR 2635.805).

(d) The scheduling of an employee's testimony, including the amount of time that the employee will be made available for testimony, will be subject to OSC's approval.

§ 1820.19 Restrictions that apply to released records.

(a) The General Counsel may impose conditions or restrictions on the release of official OSC records and information, including the requirement that parties to the proceeding obtain a protective order or execute a confidentiality agreement to limit access and any further disclosure.

(b) If the General Counsel so determines, original OSC records may be presented for examination in response to a request, but they may not be presented as evidence or otherwise used in a manner by which they could lose their identity as official OSC records, nor may they be marked or altered.

§ 1820.20 Procedure in the event a decision is not made prior to the time a response is required.

If a requestor needs a response to a demand or request before the General Counsel makes a determination whether to grant the demand or request, the employee upon whom the demand or request is made, unless otherwise advised by the General Counsel, will appear, if necessary, at the stated time and place, produce a copy of this part, state that the employee has been advised by counsel not to provide the requested testimony or produce documents at this time, and respectfully decline to comply with the demand or request, citing United States ex rel. Touhy v. Ragen, 340 U.S. 462 (1951).

§ 1820.21 Fees.

(a) Witness fees. OSC may assess fees for attendance by a witness. Such fees will include fees, expenses, and allowances prescribed by the court's rules. If no such fees are prescribed, witness fees will be determined based on 28 U.S.C. 1821, and upon the rule of the federal district closest to the location where the witness will appear. Such fees will include the costs of time spent by the witness to prepare for testimony, in travel, and for attendance in the legal proceeding, plus travel costs.

(b) Payment of fees. A requestor must pay witness fees for current OSC employees and any record certification fees by submitting to the General Counsel a check or money order for the appropriate amount made payable to the United States Department of Treasury.

§ 1820.22 Final determination.

The General Counsel will notify the requestor and, when appropriate, the court or other body of the final determination, the reasons for the response to the request or demand, and any conditions that the General Counsel may impose on the testimony of an OSC employee or the release of OSC records or information. The General Counsel has the sole discretion to make the final determination regarding requests to employees for testimony or production of official records and information in litigation in which OSC is not a party. The General Counsel's decision exhausts administrative remedies for purposes of release of the information.

§ 1820.23 Penalties.

(a) An employee who releases official records or information or gives testimony relating to official information, except as expressly authorized by OSC, or as ordered by a court after OSC has had the opportunity to be heard, may face the penalties provided under applicable laws. Additionally, former OSC employees are subject to the restrictions and penalties of 18 U.S.C. 207 and 216.

(b) A current OSC employee who testifies or produces official records and information in violation of this part may be subject to disciplinary action.

§ 1820.24 Conformity with other laws and regulations; other rights.

This regulation is not intended to conflict with 5 U.S.C. 2302(b)(13) or with any statutory or common law privilege against the release of protected information. This part does not create any right, entitlement, or benefit, substantive or procedural, that a party may rely upon in any legal proceeding against the United States.

PART 1830 PRIVACY ACT REGULATIONS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 552a(f), 301, and 1212(e).

Source: 87 FR 63413, Oct. 19, 2022, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1830.1 Scope and purpose.

(a) This part contains rules and procedures followed by OSC in processing requests for records under the Privacy Act. Further information about access to OSC records generally is available on OSC's website at https://osc.gov/Privacy.

(b) This part implements the Privacy Act of 1974, codified at 5 U.S.C. 552a, by establishing OSC policies and procedures for the release of records and maintenance of certain systems of records. See 5 U.S.C. 552a(f). This part also establishes policies and procedures for an individual to correct or amend their record if they believe it is not accurate, timely, complete, or relevant or necessary to accomplish an OSC function.

(c) OSC personnel protected by the Privacy Act include all staff, experts, contractors, consultants, volunteers, interns, and temporary employees.

(d) Other individuals engaging with OSC protected by the Privacy Act include, but are not limited to, PPP complainants, subjects of PPP complaints, Hatch Act complainants, subjects of Hatch Act complaints, Hatch Act advisory opinion requesters, whistleblowers filing disclosures under 5 U.S.C. 1213, and USERRA complainants, and the subjects of USERRA complaints.

(e) This part does not:

(1) Apply to OSC record systems that are not Privacy Act Record Systems.

(2) Make any records available to individuals other than:

(i) individuals who are the subjects of the records (“subject individuals”);

(ii) individuals who can prove they have the consent of the subject individual; or

(iii) individuals acting as legal representatives on behalf of such subject individuals.

(3) Make available information compiled by OSC in reasonable anticipation of court litigation or formal administrative proceedings. The availability of such information, including to any subject individual or party to such litigation or proceeding, shall be governed by applicable constitutional principles, rules of discovery, privileges, and part 1820 of this chapter; or

(4) Apply to personnel records maintained by the Human Capital Office of OSC. Those records are subject to regulations of the Office of Personnel Management in 5 CFR parts 293, 294, and 297.

§ 1830.2 Definitions.

As used in this part:

Access means availability of a record to a subject individual.

Disclosure means the availability or release of a record.

Maintain means to maintain, collect, use, or disseminate when used in connection with the term “record;” and to have control over or responsibility for a system of records when used in connection with the term “system of records.”

Notification means communication to an individual whether or not they are a subject individual.

Record means any item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual that is maintained by OSC, including, but not limited to, the individual's education, financial transactions, medical history, criminal, or employment history, that contains a name or an identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual. When used in this part, record means only a record that is in a system of records.

Release means making available all or part of the information or records contained in an OSC system of records.

Responsible OSC official means the officer listed in a notice of a system of records as the system manager or another individual listed in the notice of a system of records to whom requests may be made, or the designee of either such officer or individual.

Subject individual means that individual to whom a record pertains.

System of records means any group of records under the control of OSC from which a record is retrieved by personal identifier such as the name of the individual, number, symbol or other unique retriever assigned to the individual. Single records or groups of records which are not retrieved by a personal identifier are not part of a system of records. See 5 U.S.C. 552a(a)(5).

§ 1830.3 Requirements for making Privacy Act requests.

(a) Submission of requests. A request for OSC records under the Privacy Act must be made in writing. The request must be sent:

(1) By email to: foiarequest@osc.gov; or

(2) By mail to: U.S. Office of Special Counsel, Chief Privacy Officer, 1730 M Street NW, Suite 218, Washington, DC 20036-4505.

(3) Both the request letter and envelope or email should clearly be marked “Privacy Act Request.” A Privacy Act request is deemed received by OSC when it reaches the Chief Privacy Officer.

(b) Description of records sought. Requestors must describe the records sought in enough detail for OSC to locate them with a reasonable amount of effort, including, where known, data such as the date, title or name, author, recipient, and subject matter of the requested record.

(c) Proof of identity. OSC requires proof of identity from requestors seeking their own files, preferably a government-issued document bearing the subject individual's photograph. OSC requires a signed consent from the subject individual to release records to an individual's representative.

(d) Freedom of Information Act processing. OSC also processes all Privacy Act requests for access to records under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, by following the rules contained in part 1820 of this chapter.

§ 1830.4 Medical records.

When a request for access involves medical records that are not otherwise exempt from disclosure, OSC may advise the requesting individual that OSC will only provide the records to a licensed health care professional the individual designates in writing. Upon receipt of the designation, the licensed health care professional will be permitted to review the records or to receive copies by mail upon proper verification of identity.

§ 1830.5 Requirements for requesting amendment of records.

(a) Submission of requests. Individuals may request amendment of records pertaining to them that are subject to amendment under the Privacy Act and this part. The request must be sent:

(1) By email to: foiarequest@osc.gov; or

(2) By mail to: Chief Privacy Officer, U.S. Office of Special Counsel, 1730 M Street NW, Suite 218, Washington, DC 20036-4505.

(3) Both the request letter and envelope or email should be clearly marked “Privacy Act Amendment Request.” Whether sent by mail or email, a Privacy Act amendment request is considered received by OSC when it reaches the Chief Privacy Officer.

(b) Description of amendment sought. Requests for amendment should include the identification of the records together with a statement of the basis for the requested amendment and all available supporting documents and materials. The request needs to articulate whether information should be added, deleted, or substituted with another record and clearly articulate the reason for believing that the record should be corrected or amended.

(c) Proof of identity. Rules and procedures set forth in § 1830.3 apply to requests made under this section.

(d) Acknowledgement and response. Requests for amendment shall be acknowledged by OSC no later than ten (10) business days after receipt by the Chief Privacy Officer and a determination on the request shall be made promptly.

(e) What will not change. The Privacy Act amendment or correction process will not be used to alter, delete, or amend information which is part of a determination of fact or which is evidence received in the record of a claim in any form of an administrative appeal process. Disagreements with these determinations are to be resolved through the assigned OSC Program Office.

(f) Notice of error. If the record is wrong, OSC will correct it promptly. If wrong information was disclosed from the record, we will tell those of whom we are aware received that information that it was wrong and will give them the correct information. This will not be necessary if the change is not due to an error—e.g., a change of name or address.

(g) Record found to be correct. If the record is correct, OSC will inform the requestor in writing of the reason why we refuse to amend the record, the right to appeal the refusal, and the name and address of the official to whom the appeal should be sent.

(h) Record of another government agency. If you request OSC to correct or amend a record governed by the regulation of another government agency, we will forward your request to such government agency for processing and we will inform you in writing of the referral.

§ 1830.6 Appeals.

(a) Appeals of adverse determinations. A requestor may appeal a denial of a Privacy Act request for access to or amendment of records to OSC's Office of General Counsel. The appeal must be in writing and be sent:

(1) By email to: foiarequest@osc.gov; or

(2) By mail to: U.S. Office of Special Counsel, Office of General Counsel, 1730 M Street NW, Suite 218, Washington, DC 20036-4505.

(3) The appeal must be received by the Office of General Counsel within 45 calendar days of the date of the letter denying the request. Both the appeal letter and envelope or email should be clearly marked “Privacy Act Appeal.” An appeal is considered received by OSC when it reaches the Office of General Counsel. The appeal letter may include as much or as little related information as the requestor wishes, as long as it clearly identifies OSC's determination (including the assigned request number, if known) being appealed. An appeal ordinarily will not be acted on if the request becomes a matter of litigation.

(b) Responses to appeals. OSC's decision on an appeal will be made in writing. A final determination will be issued within 20 business days—unless OSC shows good cause to extend the 20-day period.

§ 1830.7 Exemptions.

OSC exempts investigatory material from records subject to Privacy Act record requests or requests to amend records. This exemption aims to prevent interference with OSC's inquiries into matters under its jurisdiction, and to protect identities of confidential sources of information. OSC also reserves the right to assert exemptions for records received from another agency that could be properly claimed by that agency. OSC may exempt any information compiled in reasonable anticipation of a legal action or proceeding.

§ 1830.8 Fees.

Requests for records under this section shall be subject to the fees set forth in part 1820 of this chapter.

§ 1830.9 Accounting for releases.

OSC will maintain an accounting of all releases of a record for six (6) years or for the life of the record in accordance with the General Records Schedule, whichever is longer—except that, we will not make an accounting for releases:

(a) Of a subject individual's records record made with the subject individual's consent;

(b) To employees of OSC who have a need for the record to perform their duties; and

(c) Required under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, and part 1820 of this chapter.

§ 1830.10 Conditions of release.

OSC shall not release any record that is contained in a system of records to any individual or to another agency, except as follows:

(a) Consent to release by the subject individual. Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section authorizing releases of records without consent, no release of a record will be made without the consent of the subject individual. The consent shall be in writing and signed by the subject individual. The consent shall specify the individual, agency, or other entity to whom the record may be released, which record may be released and, where applicable, during which time frame the record may be released. The subject individual's identity and, where applicable, the identity of the individual to whom the record is to be released shall be verified as set forth in § 1830.3(c).

(b) Releases without the consent of the subject individual. The releases listed in this paragraph may be made without the consent of the subject individual, including:

(1) To employees and contractors of the Office of Special Counsel who have a need for the record to perform their duties.

(2) As required by the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, and part 1820 of this chapter.

(3) To the entities listed in in the Privacy Act at 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(1) through (12).

PART 1840 SUBPOENAS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 1212(e).

§ 1840.1 Service of subpoenas by mail.

In addition to all other methods of authorized service, an Office of Special Counsel subpoena may be served by mailing a copy to the person at his or her residence or place of business by certified or registered mail.

[54 FR 47345, Nov. 14, 1989]

PART 1850 ENFORCEMENT OF NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF DISABILITY IN PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES CONDUCTED BY THE OFFICE OF SPECIAL COUNSEL

Authority: 29 U.S.C. 794.

Source: 87 FR 63415, Oct. 19, 2022, unless otherwise noted.

§ 1850.101 Purpose.

The purpose of this part is to implement section 119 of the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, which amended Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to prohibit discrimination on the basis of disability in programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies or the United States Postal Service.

§ 1850.102 Application.

This part applies to all programs or activities conducted by OSC, except for programs or activities conducted outside the United States that do not involve individuals with disabilities in the United States.

§ 1850.103 Definitions.

Auxiliary aids means services or devices that enable individuals with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by OSC. For example, auxiliary aids useful for individuals with impaired vision include readers, Braille materials, audio recordings, and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for individuals with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunication devices for deaf individuals (TDDs), interpreters, notetakers, written materials, and other similar services and devices.

Complete complaint means a written statement that contains the complainant's name and address and describes OSC's alleged discriminatory action in sufficient detail to inform OSC of the nature and date of the alleged violation of Section 504. It shall be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on the complainant's behalf. Complaints filed on behalf of classes or third parties shall describe or identify (by name, if possible) the alleged victims of discrimination.

Days means calendar days, unless otherwise stated.

Facility means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, rolling stock or other conveyances, or other real or personal property.

Historic properties means those properties that are listed or eligible for listing in the National Register of Historic Places or properties designated as historic under a statute of the appropriate State or local government body.

Individual with a disability means any individual who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment. The following phrases used in this definition are further defined as follows:

Physical or mental impairment includes—

(1) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: Neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or

(2) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities.

(3) Also, physical and mental impairment includes, but is not limited to, such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness, and drug addiction and alcoholism.

Major life activities include functions such as—

(1) Caring for oneself, performing manual tasks, seeing, hearing, eating, sleeping, walking, standing, sitting, reaching, lifting, bending, speaking, breathing, learning, reading, concentrating, thinking, writing, communicating, interacting with others, and working; and

(2) The operation of a major bodily function, such as the functions of the immune system, special sense organs and skin, normal cell growth, and digestive, genitourinary, bowel, bladder, neurological, brain, respiratory, circulatory, cardiovascular, endocrine, hemic, lymphatic, musculoskeletal, and reproductive systems. The operation of a major bodily function includes the operation of an individual organ within a body system.

Qualified individual with a disability means—

(1) With respect to any OSC program or activity under which an individual is required to perform services or to achieve a level of accomplishment, an individual with a disability who meets the essential eligibility requirements and who can achieve the purpose of OSC's program or activity without modifications in the program or activity that OSC can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature;

(2) With respect to any other program or activity, an individual with a disability who meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity; and

(3) Qualified individuals with disabilities as that term is defined for purposes of employment in 29 CFR 1614.203, which is made applicable to this part by § 1850.130.

Has a record of such an impairment means has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.

Is regarded as having an impairment means—

(1) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by the agency as constituting such a limitation;

(2) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or

(3) Has none of the impairments defined in paragraph (1) of this definition but is treated by the agency as having such an impairment.

Section 504 means Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. No. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394 (29 U.S.C. 794)), as amended by the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974 (Pub. L. No. 93-516, 88 Stat. 1617); the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978 (Pub. L. No. 95-602, 92 Stat. 2955); and the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1986 (Pub. L. 99-506, 100 Stat. 1810). As used in this part, Section 504 applies only to programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies and not to federally assisted programs.

§§ 1850.104-1850.109 [Reserved]

§ 1850.110 Notice.

OSC shall make available to all interested individuals information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the programs or activities conducted by OSC as necessary to apprise such individuals of the protections assured them by Section 504 and this part.

§§ 1850.111-1850.119 [Reserved]

§ 1850.120 General prohibitions against discrimination against individuals with disabilities.

(a) No qualified individual with a disability shall, on the basis of such disability, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by OSC.

(b) OSC, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of disability—

(1) Deny a qualified individual with a disability the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service;

(2) Afford a qualified individual with a disability an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others;

(3) Provide a qualified individual with a disability with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others;

(4) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to individuals with disabilities or to any class of individuals with disabilities than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified individuals with disabilities with aid, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others;

(5) Deny a qualified individual with a disability the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards;

(6) Otherwise limit a qualified individual with a disability in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service.

(7) OSC may not exclude a qualified individual with a disability from participation in any of OSC's programs or activities, even though permissibly separate or different programs or activities exist.

(c) OSC may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration the purpose or effect of which would—

(1) Subject qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability; or

(2) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with disabilities.

(d) OSC may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would—

(1) Exclude individuals with disabilities from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by OSC, or;

(2) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with disabilities.

(e) OSC, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability.

(f) OSC may not administer a licensing or certification program in a manner that subjects qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability, nor may OSC establish requirements for the programs or activities of licensees or certified entities that subject qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability. However, the programs or activities of entities that are licensed or certified by OSC are not, themselves, covered by this part.

(g) This part does not prohibit the exclusion of nondisabled individuals from the benefits of a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to individuals with disabilities or the exclusion of a specific class of individuals with disabilities from a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to a different class of individuals with disabilities.

(h) OSC shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified individuals with disabilities.

§§ 1850.121-1850.129 [Reserved]

§ 1850.130 Employment of qualified individuals with disabilities.

OSC shall not subject any qualified individual with a disability, on the basis of such disability, to discrimination in employment under any program or activity OSC conducts. The definitions, requirements, and procedures of Section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791), as established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1614, shall apply to employment in federally conducted programs or activities.

§§ 1850.131-1850.139 [Reserved]

§ 1850.140 Program accessibility: Discrimination against qualified individuals with disabilities prohibited.

Except as otherwise provided in § 1850.150, no qualified individual with disabilities shall, because OSC's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by individuals with disabilities, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by OSC.

§§ 1850.141-1850.149 [Reserved]

§ 1850.150 Program accessibility: Existing facilities.

(a) General. OSC shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. This paragraph does not—

(1) Necessarily require OSC to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities;

(2) In the case of historic preservation programs, require OSC to take any action that would result in a substantial impairment of significant historic features of an historic property; or

(3) Require OSC to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where OSC personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, OSC has the burden of proving that compliance with this paragraph (a) would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the Special Counsel or the Special Counsel's designee after considering all OSC resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, OSC shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that individuals with disabilities receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.

(b) Methods—(1) General. OSC may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. OSC is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section. OSC, in making alterations to existing buildings, shall meet accessibility requirements to the extent compelled by the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), and any regulations implementing it. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, OSC shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified individuals with disabilities in the most integrated setting appropriate.

(2) Historic preservation programs. In meeting the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section in historic preservation programs, OSC shall give priority to methods that provide physical access to individuals with disabilities. In cases where a physical alteration to an historic property is not required because of paragraphs (a)(2) or (3) of this section, alternative methods of achieving program accessibility include—

(i) Using audio-visual materials and devices to depict those portions of an historic property that cannot otherwise be made accessible;

(ii) Assigning individuals to guide individuals with disabilities into or through portions of historic properties that cannot otherwise be made accessible; or

(iii) Adopting other innovative methods.

§ 1850.151 Program accessibility: New construction and alterations.

Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of OSC shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. The definitions, requirements, and standards of the Architectural Barriers Act (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), as established in 41 CFR 101-19.600 to 101-19.607, apply to buildings covered by this section.

§§ 1850.152-1850.159 [Reserved]

§ 1850.160 Communications.

(a) OSC shall take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with applicants, participants, personnel of other Federal entities, and members of the public.

(1) OSC shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids where necessary to afford an individual with a disability an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a program or activity conducted by OSC.

(i) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, OSC shall give primary consideration to the requests of the individual with a disability.

(ii) OSC need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature.

(2) Where OSC communicates with parties by telephone, telecommunication devices for deaf individuals or equally effective telecommunication systems shall be used to communicate with individuals with impaired hearing.

(b) OSC shall ensure that interested individuals, including individuals with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities.

(c) OSC shall provide signage at a primary entrance to each of its inaccessible facilities, if any, directing users to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility.

(d) This section does not require OSC to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where OSC personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, OSC has the burden of proving that compliance with this section would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the Special Counsel or the Special Counsel's designee after considering all OSC resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action required to comply with this section would result in such an alteration or such burdens, OSC shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, individuals with disabilities receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.

§§ 1850.161-1850.169 [Reserved]

§ 1850.170 Compliance procedures.

(a) OSC shall process complaints alleging violations of section 504 with respect to employment according to the procedures established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1614 pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791).

(b) All complaints of discrimination on the basis of disability in programs and activities conducted by OSC shall be filed under the procedures described in this paragraph.

(1) Who may file. Any individual who believes that they have been subjected to discrimination prohibited by this part, or an authorized representative of such individual, may file a complaint. Any individual who believes that any specific class of individuals has been subjected to discrimination prohibited by this part and who is a member of that class or the authorized representative of a member of that class may file a complaint. A charge on behalf of an individual or member of a class of individuals claiming to be aggrieved may be made by any individual, agency, or organization.

(2) Where and when to file. Complaints shall be filed with the Director, Office of Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO Director), U.S. Office of Special Counsel, 1730 M Street NW, Suite 218, Washington, DC 20036 within 35-calendar days of the alleged act of discrimination. A complaint filed by personal delivery is considered filed on the date it is received by the EEO Director. The date of filing by email is the date the email is sent. The date of filing by mail is determined by the postmark date; if no legible postmark date appears on the mailing, the submission is presumed to have been mailed five days (excluding days on which the agency is closed for business) before its receipt. The date of filing by commercial overnight delivery is the date the document was delivered to the commercial overnight delivery service.

(3) Acceptance of complaint. (i) OSC shall accept a complete complaint that is filed in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section and over which it has jurisdiction. The EEO Director shall notify the complainant of receipt and acceptance of the complaint.

(ii) If OSC receives a complaint over which it does not have jurisdiction, it shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate entity.

(iii) If the EEO Director receives a complaint that is not complete, the Director shall notify the complainant that additional information is needed. If the complainant fails to complete the complaint and return it to the EEO Director within 15 days of the complainant's receipt of the request for additional information, the EEO Director shall dismiss the complaint with prejudice and shall inform the complainant.

(4) Within 180 days of the receipt of a complete complaint, the EEO Director shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in an initial decision containing—

(i) Findings of fact and conclusions of law;

(ii) When applicable, a description of a remedy for each violation found; and

(iii) A notice of the right to appeal.

(5) Any appeal of the EEO Director's initial decision must be filed with the Principal Deputy Special Counsel (PDSC), U.S. Office of Special Counsel, 1730 M Street NW, Suite 218, Washington, DC 20036 by the complainant within 35 days of the date the EEO Director issues the decision required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section. OSC may extend this time for good cause when a complainant shows that circumstances beyond the complainant's control prevented the filing of an appeal within the prescribed time limit. An appeal filed by personal delivery is considered filed on the date it is received by the PDSC. The date of filing by mail is determined by the postmark date; if no legible postmark date appears on the mailing, the submission is presumed to have been mailed five days (excluding days on which the agency is closed for business) before its receipt. The date of filing by commercial overnight delivery is the date the document was delivered to the commercial overnight delivery service. The appeal should be clearly marked “Appeal of Section 504 Decision” and must contain specific objections explaining why the complainant believes the initial decision was factually or legally wrong. A copy of the initial decision being appealed should be attached to the appeal letter.

(6) The PDSC shall notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within 60 days of the receipt of the request. If the PDSC needs additional information from the complainant, the PDSC shall have 60 days from the date the additional information is received to make a determination on the appeal.

(7) The time limits cited in paragraphs (b)(2) and (5) of this section may be extended for an individual case when the PDSC determines there is good cause, based on the particular circumstances of that case.

(8) OSC may delegate its authority for conducting complaint investigations to other Federal agencies or may contract with a nongovernmental investigator to perform the investigation, but the authority for making the final determination may not be delegated to another entity.

(c) OSC shall notify the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board upon receipt of any complaint alleging that a building or facility that is subject to the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), is not readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities.

1851-1899 PARTS 1851-1899 [RESERVED]

CHAPTER IX APPALACHIAN REGIONAL COMMISSION

PART 1900 EMPLOYEE RESPONSIBILITIES AND CONDUCT

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 7301, 40 U.S.C. App. 106.

§ 1900.100 Cross-references to employee ethical conduct standards and financial disclosure regulations.

Officers and employees of the Appalachian Regional Commission Federal Staff are subject to the Standards of Ethical Conduct for Employees of the Executive Branch at 5 CFR part 2635 and the executive branch-wide financial disclosure regulations at 5 CFR part 2634.

[60 FR 62702, Dec. 7, 1995; 61 FR 13051, Mar. 26, 1996]

1901-1999 PARTS 1901-1999 [RESERVED]

CHAPTER XI ARMED FORCES RETIREMENT HOME

PART 2100 ARMED FORCES RETIREMENT HOME PRIVACY ACT PROCEDURES

Authority: Public Law 93-579, 88 Stat. 1896, 5 U.S.C. 552a(f).

Source: 59 FR 30669, June 15, 1994, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2100.1 Purpose.

Pursuant to the requirements of the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, as amended, the following rules of procedures are established with respect to access and amendment of records maintained on the individual subjects of these records by the Armed Forces Retirement Home, which includes the continuing care retirement communities of the U.S. Soldiers' and Airmen's Home and the U.S. Naval Home. These rules do not apply to civilian employees' records maintained by the individual facilities which are covered by the Office of Personnel Management systems of records.

§ 2100.2 Definitions.

(a) All terms used in this part which are defined in 5 U.S.C. 552a, as amended, shall have the same meaning herein.

(b) Agency, as used in this part, means the Armed Forces Retirement Home (AFRH).

(c) Facility or facilities refers to the continuing care retirement communities of the U.S. Soldiers' and Airmen's Home (USSAH) and the U.S. Naval Home (USNH), which are incorporated within the Armed Forces Retirement Home (AFRH).

(d) Access means providing a copy of a record to, or allowing review of the original record by, the individual or the individual's authorized representative, legal guardian or conservator.

§ 2100.3 Procedure for requesting information.

Individuals shall submit written inquiries regarding all AFRH records to the appropriate facility at the following addresses: Associate Director, Resource Management, U.S. Soldiers' and Airmen's Home, 3700 N. Capitol Street, NW., Washington, DC 20317-0002; or, Administrative Services, U.S. Naval Home, 1800 Beach Drive, Gulfport, Mississippi 39507-1597. All personal (walk-in) requests will require some form of common identification.

§ 2100.4 Requirements for identification.

Only upon proper identification will any individual be granted access to records which pertain to him/her. Identification is required both for accurate record identification and to avoid disclosing records to unauthorized individuals. Individuals must provide their full name and as much information as possible in order that a proper search for records can be accomplished. Requests made by mail shall be signed by the individual requesting his/her records. Inclusion of a telephone number for the requester is recommended to expedite certain matters. Requesters applying in person must provide an identification with photograph, such as a driver's license, military or annuitant identification card, or any official document as acceptable identification validation. Personal requests can only be accepted on regularly scheduled workdays (Monday through Friday, excluding Federal holidays) between the hours of 7:30 a.m. and 3:30 p.m.

§ 2100.5 Access by individuals.

(a) No individual will be allowed access to any information compiled or maintained in reasonable anticipation of civil actions or proceedings, or otherwise exempt under § 2100.12. Requests for pending investigations will be denied and the requester instructed to forward another request giving adequate time for the investigation to be completed. Requesters shall be provided the telephone number so they can call and check on the status in order to know when to resubmit the request.

(b) Any individual may authorize the facility to provide a copy of his/her records to a third party. This authorization must be in writing and shall be provided to the facility with the initial request.

(c) Access to records may be authorized to the legal guardian or conservator acting on behalf of an individual who has been declared to be incompetent due to physical or mental incapacity or age by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(d) When an individual requesting access to his/her record wishes to be accompanied by another individual during the course of the examination of the record, the individual making the request shall submit to the official having operational control of the record, a signed statement authorizing that person access to the record.

(e) If medical records are requested and a USSAH or USNH practitioner believes that access to the records by the subject could harm that person's mental or physical health, the requester will be asked to name a practitioner to receive the records. If this requirement poses a hardship on the individual, he/she will be offered the service of an USSAH or USNH practitioner other than the one who provided treatment. If the individual refuses to name a recipient, the record will not be released.

§ 2100.6 Schedule of fees.

(a) Individuals will not be charged for:

(1) The search and review of the record.

(2) Copies of the record produced as a necessary part of the process of making the record available for access; or,

(3) Copies of the requested record when it has been determined that access can only be accomplished by providing a copy of the record through the mail.

(b) Waiver. The official having operational control at the appropriate facility may at no charge, provide copies of a record if it is determined the production of the copies is in the interest of the Government.

(c) Fee Schedule and method of payment. With the exception of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, fees will be charged as indicated below:

(1) Records will be duplicated at a rate of $.10 per page for all copying of 5 pages or more. There is no charge for duplication of 4 or fewer pages.

(2) Where it is anticipated that the fees chargeable under this section will amount to more than $30.00, the requester shall be promptly notified of the amount of the anticipated fee or such portion thereof as can readily be estimated. In instances where the estimated fees will exceed $30.00, an advance deposit may be required. The notice or request for advance deposit shall extend an offer to the requester in order to reformulate the request in a manner which will reduce the fees, yet still meet the needs of the requester.

(3) Fees should be paid in full prior to issuance of requested copies. In the event the requester is in arrears for previous requested copies, no subsequent request will be processed until the arrears have been paid in full.

(4) Remittances shall be in the form either of a personal check, bank draft drawn on a bank in the United States, or a postal money order. Remittances shall be made payable to the facility to which the request is being made, and mailed or delivered to the appropriate facility (see § 2100.3 of this part).

(5) A receipt for fees paid will be given upon request.

§ 2100.7 Request for correction or amendment.

(a) Requests to correct or amend a file shall be addressed to the system manager in which the file is located. The request must reasonably describe the record to be amended, the items to be changed as specifically as possible, the type of amendment (e.g., deletion, correction, amendment), and the reason for the amendment. The request should also include the reasons why the requester believes the record is not accurate, relevant, timely, or complete. The burden of proof will be upon the individual to furnish sufficient facts to persuade the change of the record of the inaccuracy, irrelevancy, timeliness, or incompleteness of the record. Normally all documents submitted, to include court orders, shall be certified. Amendments under this part are limited to correcting factual matters and not matters of official judgement or opinions.

(b) Requirements of identification as outlined in § 2100.4 apply to requests to correct or amend a file.

(c) Incomplete requests shall not be honored, but the requester shall be contacted for the additional information needed to process the request.

(d) The amendment process is not intended to permit the alteration of evidence presented in the course of judicial or quasi-judicial proceedings. Any amendments or changes to these records normally are made through the specific procedures established for the amendment of such records.

(e) When records sought to be amended are actually covered by another issuance, the administrative procedures under that issuance must be exhausted before using the procedures under the Privacy Act.

§ 2100.8 Review of request for amendment.

(a) A written acknowledgement of the receipt of a request for amendment of a record will be provided to the requester within 10 working days, unless final action regarding approval or denial will constitute acknowledgment.

(b) Where there is a determination to grant all or a portion of a request to amend a record, the record shall be promptly amended and the requesting individual notified. Individuals, agencies or components shown by disclosure accounting records to have received copies of the record, or to whom disclosure has been made, will be notified of the amendment by the system manager in which the file is located.

(c) Where there is a determination to deny all or a portion of a request to amend a record, a designated official will promptly advise the requesting individual of the specifics of the refusal and the reasons; and inform the individual that he/she may request a review of the denial(s).

§ 2100.9 Appeal of denial to grant access or to amend records.

(a) All appeals of denial to grant access or to amend records should be addressed to the appropriate facility at the following addresses: Associate Director, Resource Management, U.S. Soldiers' and Airmen's Home, 3700 N. Capitol Street, NW., Washington, DC 20317-0002; or, Administrative Services, U.S. Naval Home, 1800 Beach Drive, Gulfport, Mississippi 39507-1597. The appeal should be concise and should specify the reasons the requester believes that the initial action was not satisfactory. If an appeal is denied, the designated official will notify the requester of the reason for denial and of the right to judicial review pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(g). If an initial denial of a request to amend records is upheld, the requestor will also be advised of his or her right to file a statement of dispute disagreeing with the denial and such statement will be provided to all future users of the file.

(b) If the designated official decides to amend the record, the requester and all previous recipients of the disputed information will be notified of the amendment. If the appeal is denied, the designated official will notify the requester of the reason of the denial, of the requester's right to file a statement of dispute disagreeing with the denial, that such statement of dispute will be retained in the file, that the statement will be provided to all future users of the file, and that the requester may file suit in a Federal district court to contest the decision not to amend the record.

(c) The designated official will respond to all appeals within 30 working days or will notify the requester of an estimated date of completion if the 30 day limit cannot be met.

§ 2100.10 Conditions of disclosure and accounting of certain disclosures.

No record containing personally identifiable information within an AFRH system of records shall be disclosed by any means to any person or agency outside the AFRH, except by written request or prior written consent of the individual subject of the record, or as provided for in the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, unless when such disclosure is:

(a) To those officers and employees of the agency which maintains the record and who have a need for the record in the performance of their duties;

(b) Required under 5 U.S.C. 552;

(c) For a routine use of the record compatible with the purpose for which it was collected;

(d) To the Bureau of the Census for purposes of planning or carrying out a census or survey or related activity pursuant to 13 U.S.C.;

(e) To a recipient who has provided the AFRH with advance adequate written assurance that the record will be used solely as a statistical research or reporting record, and the record is to be transferred in a form that is not individually identifiable;

(f) To the National Archives of the United States as a record which has sufficient historical or other value to warrant its continued preservation by the U.S. Government or for evaluation by the Archivist of the United States, or his/her designee, to determine whether the record has such value;

(g) To another agency or to an instrumentality of any governmental jurisdiction within or under the control of the United States for a civil or criminal law enforcement activity if the activity is authorized by law, and if the head of the agency or instrumentality, has made a written request to the agency which maintains the record specifying the particular portion desired and the law enforcement activity for which the record is sought;

(h) To a person pursuant to a showing of compelling circumstances affecting the health or safety of an individual if upon such disclosure notification is transmitted to the last known address of such individual;

(i) To either House of Congress, or, to the extent of matter within its jurisdiction, any committee or subcommittee thereof, any joint committee of Congress or subcommittee of any such joint committee;

(j) To the Comptroller General, or any authorized representatives, in the course of the performance of the duties of the General Accounting Office;

(k) Pursuant to the order of a court of competent jurisdiction; or

(l) To a consumer reporting agency in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3711(f).

§ 2100.11 Penalties.

(a) An individual may bring a civil action against the AFRH to correct or amend the record, or where there is a refusal to comply with an individual request or failure to maintain any record with accuracy, relevance, timeliness and completeness, so as to guarantee fairness, or failure to comply with any other provision of the Privacy Act. The court may order correction or amendment of records. The court may enjoin the AFRH from withholding the records and order the production of the record.

(b) Where it is determined that the action was willful or intentional with respect to 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1)(C) or (D), the United States may be liable for the actual damages sustained.

(c) Criminal penalties may be imposed against an officer or employee of the USSAH or USNH who discloses material, which he/she knows is prohibited from disclosure, or who willfully maintains a system of records without compliance with the notice requirements.

(d) Criminal penalties may be imposed against any person who knowingly and willfully requests or obtains any record concerning another individual from an agency under false pretenses.

(e) All of these offenses are misdemeanors with a fine not to exceed $5,000.

§ 2100.12 Accounting of disclosure.

(a) The AFRH or agency will maintain a record of disclosures in cases where records about the individual are disclosed from a system of records except—

(1) When the disclosure is made pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, as amended; or

(2) When the disclosure is made to those officers and employees of the AFRH who have a need for the record in the performance of their duties.

(b) This accounting of the disclosures will be retained for a least 5 years or for the life of the record, whichever is longer, and will contain the following information:

(1) A brief description of the record disclosed;

(2) The date, nature, and purpose for the disclosure; and,

(3) The name and address of the person, agency, or other entity to whom the disclosure is made.

(c) Except for the accounting of disclosure made to agencies, individuals, or entities in law enforcement activities or disclosures made from the AFRH exempt systems of records, the accounting of disclosures will be made available to the data subject upon request in accordance with the access procedures of this part.

§ 2100.13 Specific exemptions.

Subsection (k) of 5 U.S.C. 552a authorizes the AFRH to adopt rules designating eligible system of records as exempt from certain requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a. To be eligible for a specific exemption under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 552a(k), the pertinent records within a designated system must contain one or more of the following:

(a) Investigative records compiled for law enforcement purposes. If this information has been used to deny someone a right however, the AFRH must release it unless doing so would reveal the identify of a confidential source ((k)(2) exemption).

(b) Records used only for statistical, research, or other evaluation purposes, and which are not used to make decisions on the rights, benefits, or privileges of individuals, except as permitted by 13 U.S.C. 8 (Use of census data) ((k)(4) exemption).

(c) Data compiled to determine suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal service, Federal contracts, or access to classified information. This information may be withheld only if disclosure would reveal the identity of a confidential source ((k)(5) exemption).

(d) Test or examination material used solely to determine individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Federal service, the disclosure of which would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the testing or examination process ((k)(6) exemption).

2101-2199 PARTS 2101-2199 [RESERVED]

CHAPTER XIV FEDERAL LABOR RELATIONS AUTHORITY, GENERAL COUNSEL OF THE FEDERAL LABOR RELATIONS AUTHORITY AND FEDERAL SERVICE IMPASSES PANEL

SUBCHAPTER A TRANSITION RULES AND REGULATIONS [RESERVED]

SUBCHAPTER B GENERAL PROVISIONS

2400-2410 PARTS 2400-2410 [RESERVED]

PART 2411 AVAILABILITY OF OFFICIAL INFORMATION

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 552, as amended; Freedom of Information Improvement Act of 2016, Pub. L. 114-185, 130 Stat. 528; Openness Promotes Effectiveness in our National Government Act of 2007 (OPEN Government Act), Pub. L. 110-175, 121 Stat. 2524.

Source: 74 FR 50674, Oct. 1, 2009, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2411.1 Purpose.

This part contains the rules that the Federal Labor Relations Authority (FLRA), including the three-Member Authority component (Authority), the General Counsel of the FLRA (General Counsel), the Federal Service Impasses Panel (Panel), and the Inspector General of the FLRA (IG), follow in processing requests for information under the Freedom of Information Act, as amended, 5 U.S.C. 552 (FOIA) These regulations should be read in conjunction with the text of the FOIA and the Uniform Freedom of Information Fee Schedule and Guidelines published by the Office of Management and Budget. Requests by individuals for records about themselves under the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, are processed in accordance with the Authority's Privacy Act regulations, see 5 CFR part 2412, as well as under this subpart.

[82 FR 2850, Jan. 10, 2017]

§ 2411.2 Scope.

(a) For the purpose of this part, the term record and any other term used in reference to information includes any information that would be subject to the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552 when maintained by the Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, or the IG in any format, including an electronic format. All written requests for information from the public that are not processed under parts 2412 and 2417 of this chapter will be processed under this part. The Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, and the IG may each continue, regardless of this part, to furnish the public with the information that it has furnished in the regular course of performing its official duties, unless furnishing the information would violate the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, or another law.

(b) When the subject of a record, or the subject's representative, requests the record from a Privacy Act system of records, as that term is defined by 5 U.S.C. 552a(a)(5), and the FLRA retrieves the record by the subject's name or other personal identifier, the FLRA will handle the request under the procedures and subject to the fees set out in part 2412. When a third party requests access to those records, without the written consent of the subject of the record, the FLRA will process the request under this part.

(c) Nothing in 5 U.S.C. 552 or this part requires that the Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, or the IG, as appropriate, create a new record in order to respond to a request for the records.

[82 FR 2850, Jan. 10, 2017]

§ 2411.3 Delegation of authority.

(a) Chief FOIA Officer. The Chairman of the FLRA designates the Chief FOIA Officer, who has agency-wide responsibility for the efficient and appropriate compliance with the FOIA. The Chief FOIA Officer monitors the implementation of the FOIA throughout the agency.

(b) Solicitor/IG. The Solicitor of the FLRA and the IG are delegated the exclusive authority to act upon all requests for information, documents, and records that are received from any person or organization under § 2411.5(a) and (b).

(c) FOIA Public Liaison(s). The Chief FOIA Officer shall designate the FOIA Public Liaison(s), who shall serve as the supervisory official(s) to whom a FOIA requester can raise concerns about the service that the FOIA requester has received following an initial response.

[82 FR 2850, Jan. 10, 2017, as amended at 88 FR 67059, Sept. 29, 2023]

§ 2411.4 Information policy.

(a)(1) It is the policy of the Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, and the IG to make available for public inspection in an electronic format:

(i) Final decisions and orders of the Authority and administrative rulings of the General Counsel; procedural determinations, final decisions and orders of the Panel; factfinding and arbitration reports; and reports and executive summaries of the IG;

(ii) Statements of policy and interpretations that have been adopted by the Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, or the IG and that are not published in the Federal Register;

(iii) Administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff that affect a member of the public (except those establishing internal operating rules, guidelines, and procedures for the investigation, trial, and settlement of cases);

(iv) Copies of all records, regardless of form or format, that have been released to any person under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(3) and that:

(A) Because of the nature of their subject matter, the Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, or the IG determines have become, or are likely to become, the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records; or

(B) Have been requested three or more times; and

(v) A general index of the records referred to in paragraph (a)(i)-(iv) of this section.

(2) It is the policy of the Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, and the IG to make promptly available for public inspection in an electronic format, upon request by any person, other records where the request reasonably describes such records and otherwise conforms to the procedures of this part.

(b)(1) Any person may examine and copy items in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section, at each regional office of the Authority and at the offices of the Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, and the IG, respectively, in Washington, DC, under conditions prescribed by the Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, and the IG, respectively, and at reasonable times during normal working hours, so long as it does not interfere with the efficient operations of the Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, or the IG. To the extent required to prevent a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, identifying details may be deleted and, in each case, the justification for the deletion shall be fully explained in writing. On the released portion of the record, the amount of information deleted, and the exemption under which the deletion is made, shall be indicated unless an interest protected by the exemption would be harmed.

(2) All records covered by this section are available on the FLRA's Web site (https://www.flra.gov/elibrary).

(c) The Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, and the IG shall maintain and make available for public inspection in an electronic format the current indexes and supplements to the records that are required by 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2) and, as appropriate, a record of the final votes of each Member of the Authority and of the Panel in every agency proceeding. Any person may examine and copy such document or record of the Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, or the IG at the offices of either the Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, or the IG, as appropriate, in Washington, DC, under conditions prescribed by the Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, or the IG at reasonable times during normal working hours, so long as it does not interfere with the efficient operations of the Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, or the IG.

(d) All agency records, except those exempt from mandatory disclosure by one or more provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552(b), will be made promptly available to any person submitting a written request in accordance with the procedures of this part.

(e)(1) The formal documents constituting the record in a case or proceeding are matters of official record and, until destroyed pursuant to applicable statutory authority, are available to the public for inspection and copying at the appropriate regional office of the Authority, or the offices of the Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, or the IG in Washington, DC, as appropriate, under conditions prescribed by the Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, or the IG at reasonable times during normal working hours so long as it does not interfere with the efficient operations of the Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, or the IG.

(2) The Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, or the IG, as appropriate, shall certify copies of the formal documents upon request made a reasonable time in advance of need and payment of lawfully prescribed costs.

(f)(1) Copies of forms prescribed by the General Counsel for the filing of charges and petitions may be obtained without charge from any regional office of the Authority or on the Authority's Web site at: https://www.flra.gov/resources-training/resources/forms-checklists.

(2) Copies of forms prescribed by the Panel for the filing of requests may be obtained without charge from the Panel's offices in Washington, DC or on the Authority's Web site at: https://www.flra.gov/resources-training/resources/forms-checklists.

(3) Copies of optional forms for filing exceptions or appeals with the Authority may be obtained without charge from the Office of Case Intake and Publication at the Authority's offices in Washington, DC or on the Authority's Web site at: https://www.flra.gov/resources-training/resources/forms-checklists.

[74 FR 50674, Oct. 1, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 2850, Jan. 10, 2017]

§ 2411.5 Procedure for obtaining information.

(a) Any person who desires to inspect or copy any records, documents, or other information of the Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, or the IG, covered by this part, other than those specified in § 2411.4(a)(1) and (c), shall submit an electronic written request via the FOIAXpress system or a written, facsimiled, or email request (see FOIAXpress, office and email addresses listed at https://www.flra.gov/foia_contact) as follows:

(1) If the request is for records, documents, or other information in the Authority, the Office of General Counsel, or the Panel, it should be made to the Office of the Solicitor, Washington, DC;

(2) If the request is for records, documents or other information in the offices of the IG in Washington, DC, it should be made to the IG, Washington, DC.

(b) Each request under this part should be clearly and prominently identified as a request for information under the FOIA and, if submitted by mail or otherwise submitted in an envelope or other cover, should be clearly identified as such on the envelope or other cover. A request shall be considered an agreement by the requester to pay all applicable fees charged under § 2411.13, up to $25.00, unless the requester seeks a waiver of fees. When making a request, the requester may specify a willingness to pay a greater or lesser amount. Fee charges will be assessed for the full allowable direct costs of document search, review, and duplication, as appropriate, in accordance with § 2411.13. If a request does not comply with the provisions of this paragraph, it shall not be deemed received by the Office of the Solicitor or the IG, as appropriate.

[88 FR 67059, Sept. 29, 2023]

§ 2411.6 Identification of information requested.

(a) Reasonably describe and identify records. Each request under this part shall reasonably describe the records being sought in a way that the FLRA can identify and locate them. A request shall be legible and include all pertinent details that will help identify the records sought. Before submitting a request, a requester may contact the FLRA's Chief FOIA Officer or FOIA Public Liaison to discuss the records that the individual seeks and to receive assistance in describing the records.

(b) Agency efforts to further identify records. If the description does not meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, the officer processing the request shall so notify the person making the request and indicate the additional information needed. Every reasonable effort shall be made to assist in the identification and location of the records sought. A requester who is attempting to reformulate or modify his or her request may discuss the request with the FLRA's Chief FOIA Officer or FOIA Public Liaison.

(c) Public logs. Upon receipt of a request for records, the Solicitor or the IG, as appropriate, shall enter it in a public log. The log shall state: The request number; the date received; the nature of the records requested; the action taken on the request; the agency's response date; any exemptions that were applied (if applicable) and their descriptions; and whether any fees were charged for processing the request.

(d) Consultation, referral, and coordination. When reviewing records located in response to a request, the Solicitor or the IG, as appropriate, will determine whether another agency of the Federal Government is better able to determine whether the record is exempt from disclosure under the FOIA. As to any such record, the Solicitor or the IG will proceed in one of the following ways:

(1) Consultation. When records originated with the Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, or the IG, but contain within them information of interest to another agency or other Federal Government component, the Solicitor or the IG, as appropriate, will typically consult with that other entity prior to making a release determination.

(2) Referral. (i) When the Solicitor or the IG believes that a different agency or component is best able to determine whether to disclose the record, the Solicitor or the IG will typically refer the responsibility for responding to the request regarding that record to that agency or component. Ordinarily, the agency or component that originated the record is presumed to be the best agency or component to make the disclosure determination. However, if the FLRA and the originating agency or component jointly agree that the FLRA is in the best position to respond regarding the record, then the record may be handled as a consultation.

(ii) Whenever the Solicitor or the IG refers any part of the responsibility for responding to a request to another Federal agency, it must document the referral, maintain a copy of the record that it refers, and notify the requester of the referral, informing the requester of the name(s) of the agency to which the record was referred, including that agency's FOIA contact information.

(3) Coordination. The standard referral procedure is not appropriate where disclosure of the identity of the agency to which the referral would be made could harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption, such as the exemptions that protect personal privacy or national-security interests. In such instances, in order to avoid harm to an interest protected by an applicable exemption, the Solicitor or the IG should coordinate with the originating agency to seek its views on the disclosability of the record. The release determination for the record that is the subject of the coordination should then be conveyed to the requester by the Solicitor or the IG.

[82 FR 2851, Jan. 10, 2017, as amended at 88 FR 67059, Sept. 29, 2023]

§ 2411.7 Format of disclosure.

(a) After a determination has been made to grant a request in whole or in part, the Solicitor or the IG, as appropriate, will notify the requester in writing. The notice will describe the manner in which the record will be disclosed and will inform the requester of the availability of the Authority's FOIA Public Liaison to offer assistance. The Solicitor or the IG, as appropriate, will provide the record in the form or format requested if the record is readily reproducible in that form or format, provided the requester has agreed to pay and/or has paid any fees required by § 2411.13 of this part. The Solicitor or the IG, as appropriate, will determine on a case-by-case basis what constitutes a readily reproducible format. These offices will make a reasonable effort to maintain their records in commonly reproducible forms or formats.

(b) Alternatively, the Solicitor or the IG, as appropriate, may make a copy of the releasable portions of the record available to the requester for inspection at a reasonable time and place. The procedure for such an inspection will not unreasonably disrupt the operations of the office.

[88 FR 67060, Sept. 29, 2023]

§ 2411.8 Time limits for processing requests.

(a) The 20-day period (excepting Saturdays, Sundays, and federal public holidays), established in this section, shall commence on the date on which the request is first received by the Solicitor or the IG, but in any event not later than 10 days after the request is first received by the FLRA component responsible for receiving FOIA requests under part 2411. The 20-day period does not run when:

(1) the Solicitor or the IG makes one request to the requester for information and is awaiting such information that it has reasonably requested from the requester;

(2) it is necessary to clarify with the requester issues regarding fee assessment; or

(3) the Solicitor's or the IG's s receipt of the requested information or clarification triggers the commencement of the 20-day period.

(b) A request for records shall be logged by the Solicitor or the IG, as appropriate, pursuant to § 2411.6(c). All requesters must reasonably describe the records sought. An oral request for records shall not begin any time requirement. A written request for records sent to other than the appropriate officer will be forwarded to that officer by the receiving officer, but, in that event, the applicable time limit for response shall begin as set forth in paragraph (a) of this section.

(c) Except as provided in § 2411.11, the Solicitor or the IG, as appropriate, shall, within 20 working days following receipt of the request, as provided by paragraph (a) of this section, respond in writing to the requester, determining whether, or the extent to which, the request shall be complied with.

(1) If all of the records requested have been located, and a final determination has been made with respect to disclosure of all of the records requested, the response shall so state.

(2) If all of the records have not been located, or a final determination has not been made with respect to disclosure of all of the records requested, the response shall state the extent to which the records involved shall be disclosed pursuant to the rules established in this part.

(3) If the request is expected to involve allowed charges in excess of $250.00, the response shall specify or estimate the fee involved and shall require prepayment of any charges in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (g) of § 2411.13 before the request is processed further.

(4) Whenever possible, subject to the provisions of paragraph (g) of § 2411.13, the response relating to a request for records that involves a fee of less than $250.00 shall be accompanied by the requested records. Where this is not possible, the records shall be forwarded as soon as possible thereafter, consistent with other obligations of the Solicitor or the IG.

(5) Search fees shall not be assessed to requesters (or duplication fees in the case of an educational or noncommercial scientific institution, whose purpose is scholarly or scientific research; or a representative of the news media requester, as defined by § 2411.13(a)(8)) under this subparagraph if an agency component fails to comply with any of the deadlines in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(A), except as provided in the following paragraphs (c)(5)(i) through (iii) below:

(i) If the Solicitor or the IG has determined that unusual circumstances apply (as the term is defined in § 2411.11(b)) and the Solicitor or the IG provided a timely written notice to the requester in accordance with § 2411.11(a), a failure described in this paragraph (c)(5) is excused for an additional 10 days. If the Solicitor or the IG fails to comply with the extended time limit, the Solicitor or the IG may not assess any search fees (or, in the case of a requester described in § 2411.13(a)(8), duplication fees).

(ii) If the Solicitor or the IG determines that unusual circumstances apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, the Solicitor or the IG may charge search fees or, in the case of requesters defined in § 2411.13(6) through (8), may charge duplication fees, if the following steps are taken. The Solicitor or the IG must have provided timely written notice of unusual circumstances to the requester in accordance with the FOIA and must have discussed with the requester via written mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii). If this exception is satisfied, the Solicitor or the IG may charge all applicable fees incurred in the processing of the request.

(iii) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined by the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.

(d) If a request will take longer than 10 days to process:

(1) An individualized tracking number will be assigned to the request and provided to the requester; and

(2) Using the tracking number, the requester can find, by calling the Office of the Solicitor, emailing solmail@flra.gov, or visiting FOIAXPress (see telephone numbers and addresses at https://www.flra.gov/foia_contact), status information about the request including:

(i) The date on which the agency originally received the request; and

(ii) An estimated date on which the agency will complete action on the request.

(e) If any request for records is denied in whole or in part, the response required by paragraph (c) of this section shall notify the requester of the denial. Such denial shall specify the reason therefore, set forth the name and title or position of the person responsible for the denial, and notify the person making the request of the right to appeal the denial under the provisions of § 2411.10. Such denial shall also notify the requester of the assistance available from the FLRA's FOIA Public Liaison and the dispute resolution services offered by the Office of Government Information Services of the National Archives and Records Administration (OGIS).

[74 FR 50674, Oct. 1, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 2852, Jan. 10, 2017; 88 FR 67060, Sept. 29, 2023]

§ 2411.9 Business information.

(a) In general. Business information obtained by the FLRA from a submitter will be disclosed under the FOIA only under this section.

(b) Definitions. For purposes of this section:

(1) Business information means commercial or financial information obtained by the FLRA from a submitter that may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA.

(2) Submitter means any person or entity from whom the FLRA obtains business information, directly or indirectly. The term includes corporations; state, local, and tribal governments; and foreign governments.

(c) Designation of business information. A submitter of business information will use good-faith efforts to designate, by appropriate markings, either at the time of submission or at a reasonable time thereafter, any portions of its submission that it considers to be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4. These designations will expire ten years after the date of the submission unless the submitter requests, and provides justification for, a longer designation period.

(d) Notice to submitters. The FLRA shall provide a submitter with prompt written notice of a FOIA request or administrative appeal that seeks its business information wherever required under paragraph (e) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, in order to give the submitter an opportunity to object to disclosure of any specified portion of that information under paragraph (f) of this section. The notice shall either describe the business information requested or include copies of the requested records or record portions containing the information. When notification of a voluminous number of submitters is required, notification may be made by posting or publishing the notice in a place reasonably likely to accomplish it.

(e) Where notice is required. Notice shall be given to a submitter wherever:

(1) The information has been designated in good faith by the submitter as information considered protected from disclosure under Exemption 4; or

(2) The FLRA has reason to believe that the information may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4.

(f) Opportunity to object to disclosure. The FLRA will allow a submitter a reasonable time to respond to the notice described in paragraph (d) of this section and will specify that time period within the notice. If a submitter has any objection to disclosure, it is required to submit a detailed written statement. The statement must specify all grounds for withholding any portion of the information under any exemption of the FOIA and, in the case of Exemption 4, it must show why the information is a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential. In the event that a submitter fails to respond to the notice within the time specified in it, the submitter will be considered to have no objection to disclosure of the information. Information provided by the submitter that is not received by the FLRA until after it has made its disclosure decision shall not be considered by the FLRA. Information provided by a submitter under this paragraph may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.

(g) Notice of intent to disclose. The FLRA shall consider a submitter's objections and specific grounds for nondisclosure in deciding whether to disclose business information. Whenever the FLRA decides to disclose business information over the objection of a submitter, the FLRA shall give the submitter written notice, which shall include:

(1) A statement of the reason(s) why each of the submitter's disclosure objections were not sustained;

(2) A description of the business information to be disclosed; and

(3) A specified disclosure date, which shall be a reasonable time subsequent to the notice.

(h) Exceptions to notice requirements. The notice requirements of paragraphs (d) and (g) of this section shall not apply if:

(1) The FLRA determines that the information should not be disclosed;

(2) The information lawfully has been published or has been officially made available to the public;

(3) Disclosure of the information is required by statute (other than the FOIA) or by a regulation issued in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12600, (52 FR 23781, 3 CFR, 1987 Comp. p. 235); or

(4) The designation made by the submitter under paragraph (c) of this section appears to be obviously frivolous—except that, in such a case, the FLRA shall, within a reasonable time prior to a specified disclosure date, give the submitter written notice of any final decision to disclose the information.

(i) Notice of FOIA lawsuit. Whenever a requester files a lawsuit seeking to compel the disclosure of business information, the FLRA shall promptly notify the submitter.

(j) Corresponding notice to requesters. Whenever the FLRA provides a submitter with notice and an opportunity to object to disclosure under paragraph (d) of this section, the FLRA shall also notify the requester(s). Whenever the FLRA notifies a submitter of its intent to disclose requested information under paragraph (g) of this section, the FLRA shall also notify the requester(s). Whenever a submitter files a lawsuit seeking to prevent the disclosure of business information, the FLRA shall notify the requester(s).

[74 FR 50674, Oct. 1, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 2853, Jan. 10, 2017]

§ 2411.10 Appeal from denial of request.

(a)(1) When a request for records is denied, in whole or in part, a requester may appeal the denial by submitting a written appeal by mail or online that is postmarked, or in the case of an electronic submission, transmitted, within 90 calendar days after the requester receives notification that the request has been denied or after the requester receives any records being made available, in the event of partial denial. The appeal should clearly identify the agency determination that is being appealed and the assigned request number.

(i) If the denial was made for records related to work performed by the Authority component of the FLRA, including the IG, the appeal shall be filed with the Chairman of the Authority or the Chairman's designee in Washington, DC.

(ii) If the denial was made for records related to work performed by the Office of the General Counsel, the appeal shall be filed with the General Counsel or the General Counsel's designee in Washington, DC.

(iii) If the denial was made for records related to work performed by the Panel, the appeal shall be filed with the Chairman of the Panel or the Chairman's designee.

(2) The Chairman of the Authority, the General Counsel, or the Chairman of the Panel, or their designees, as appropriate, shall, within 20 working days (excepting Saturdays, Sundays, and federal public holidays) from the time of receipt of the appeal, except as provided in § 2411.11, make a determination on the appeal and respond in writing to the requester, determining whether, or the extent to which, the request shall be granted. An appeal ordinarily will not be adjudicated if the request becomes a matter of FOIA litigation.

(i) If the determination is to grant the request and the request is expected to involve an assessed fee in excess of $250.00, the determination shall specify or estimate the fee involved, and it shall require prepayment of any charges due in accordance with the provisions of § 2411.13(a) before the records are made available.

(ii) Whenever possible, the determination relating to a request for records that involves a fee of less than $250.00 shall be accompanied by the requested records when there is no history of the requester having previously failed to pay fees in a timely manner. Where this is not possible, the records shall be forwarded as soon as possible thereafter, consistent with other obligations of the Solicitor or the IG.

(b) If, on appeal, the denial of the request for records is upheld in whole or in part by the Chairman of the Authority, the General Counsel, or the Chairman of the Panel, or their designees, as appropriate, the person making the request shall be notified of the reasons for the determination, the name and title or position of the person responsible for the denial, and the provisions for judicial review of that determination under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4). The determination will also inform the requester of the mediation services offered by the National Archives, Office of Government Information Services (OGIS) as a non-exclusive alternative to litigation. Mediation is a voluntary process. If the FLRA agrees to participate in the mediation services provided by the OGIS, it will actively engage as a partner to the process in an attempt to resolve the dispute.

(c) Even though no appeal is filed from a denial in whole or in part of a request for records by the person making the request, the Chairman of the Authority, the General Counsel, or the Chairman of the Panel, or their designees, as appropriate, may, without regard to the time limit for filing of an appeal, sua sponte initiate consideration of a denial under this appeal procedure by written notification to the person making the request. In such event, the time limit for making the determination shall commence with the issuance of such notification.

(d) Before seeking judicial review of the FLRA's denial of a request, a requester generally must first submit a timely administrative appeal.

[82 FR 2854, Jan. 10, 2017, as amended at 88 FR 67060, Sept. 29, 2023]

§ 2411.11 Modification of time limits.

(a) In unusual circumstances, as specified in this section, the time limits prescribed with respect to initial determinations or determinations on appeal may be extended by written notice from the agency component handling the request (either initial or on appeal) to the person making such request setting forth the reasons for such extension and the date on which a determination is expected to be dispatched. As appropriate, the notice shall provide the requester with an opportunity to limit the scope of the request so that it may be processed within the time limit or an opportunity to arrange with the processing agency component an alternative time frame for processing the request or a modified request. No such notice shall specify a date that would result in a total extension of more than 10 working days. To aid the requester, the FOIA Public Liaison shall assist in the resolution of any disputes between the requester and the processing agency component, and shall notify the requester of the requester's right to seek dispute resolution services from the OGIS.

(b) As used in this section, “unusual circumstances” means, but only to the extent reasonably necessary to the proper processing of the particular request:

(1) The need to search for and collect the requested records from field facilities or other establishments that are separate from the processing agency component;

(2) The need to search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records that are demanded in a single request; or

(3) The need for consultation, which shall be conducted with all practicable speed, with another agency having a substantial interest in the determination of the request or among two or more components of the agency having substantial subject matter interest therein.

(c) Expedited processing of a request for records, or an appeal of a denial of a request for expedited processing, shall be provided when the requester demonstrates a compelling need for the information and in other cases as determined by the officer processing the request. A requester seeking expedited processing can demonstrate a compelling need by submitting a statement certified by the requester to be true and correct to the best of such person's knowledge and belief and that satisfies the statutory and regulatory definitions of compelling need. Requesters shall be notified within 10 calendar days after receipt of such a request whether expedited processing, or an appeal of a denial of a request for expedited processing, was granted. As used in this section, “compelling need” means:

(1) That a failure to obtain requested records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or

(2) With respect to a request made by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information, urgency to inform the public concerning actual or alleged Federal Government activity.

[82 FR 2854, Jan. 10, 2017]

§ 2411.12 Effect of failure to meet time limits.

Failure by the Solicitor or the IG either to deny or grant any request under this part within the time limits prescribed by the FOIA, as amended and these regulations shall be deemed to be an exhaustion of the administrative remedies available to the person making this request.

[88 FR 67061, Sept. 29, 2023]

§ 2411.13 Fees.

(a) Definitions. For the purpose of this section:

(1) The term direct costs means those expenditures that the Solicitor or the IG actually incurs in searching for and duplicating (and in the case of commercial requesters, reviewing) documents to respond to a FOIA request. Direct costs include, for example, the salary of the employee performing work (the basic rate of pay for the employee plus 16 percent of the rate to cover benefits) and the cost of operating duplication machinery. Not included in direct costs are overhead expenses such as costs of space, and heating or lighting the facility in which the records are stored.

(2) The term search includes all time spent looking for material that is responsive to a request, including page-by-page or line-by-line identification of material within documents as well as all reasonable efforts to locate and retrieve information from records maintained in electronic form or format. Searches may be done manually or by computer using existing programming. The Solicitor or the IG shall ensure that searches are done in the most efficient and least expensive manner reasonably possible. For example, if duplicating an entire document would be quicker and less expensive, a line-by-line search should not be done.

(3) The term duplication refers to the process of making a copy of a document necessary to respond to a FOIA request. Such copies can take the form of paper copy, audio-visual materials, or machine-readable documentation, among others.

(4) The term review refers to the process of examining documents located in response to a commercial-use request (see paragraph (a)(5) of this section) to determine whether any portion of any document located is permitted to be withheld. It also includes processing any documents for disclosure, e.g., doing all that is necessary to prepare them for release. Review does not include time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions.

(5) The term commercial-use request refers to a request from or on behalf of one who seeks information for a use or purpose that furthers the commercial, trade, or profit interests of the requester or the person on whose behalf the request is made. In determining whether a requester properly belongs in this category, the Solicitor or the IG will look first to the use to which a requester will put the document requested. Where the Solicitor or the IG has reasonable cause to doubt the use to which a requester will put the records sought, or where that use is not clear from the request itself, the Solicitor or the IG may seek additional clarification before assigning the request to a specific category.

(6) The term educational institution refers to a preschool, a public or private elementary or secondary school, an institution of undergraduate higher education, an institution of graduate higher education, an institution of professional education, or an institution of vocational education that operates a program or programs of scholarly research.

(7) The term non-commercial scientific institution refers to an institution that is not operated on a commercial basis as that term is referenced in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, and that is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research, the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry.

(8) The term representative of the news media refers to any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. The term news means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news-media entities include television or radio stations broadcasting to the public at large and publishers of periodicals that disseminate “news” and make their products available through a variety of means to the general public including news organizations that disseminate solely on the Internet. These examples are not intended to be all-inclusive. Moreover, as methods of news delivery evolve, such alternative media shall be considered to be news-media entities. A freelance journalist shall be regarded as working for a news-media entity if the journalist can demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through that entity, whether or not the journalist is actually employed by the entity. A publication contract would present a solid basis for such an expectation; the FLRA may also consider the past publication record of the requester in making such a determination.

(b) Exceptions to fee charges. (1) With the exception of requesters seeking documents for a commercial use, the Solicitor or the IG will provide the first 100 pages of duplication and the first two hours of search time without charge. The word pages in this paragraph refers to paper copies of standard size, usually 8 1/2 by 11. The term search time in this paragraph is based on a manual search for records. In applying this term to searches made by computer, when the cost of the search as set forth in paragraph (d)(2) of this section equals the equivalent dollar amount of two hours of the salary of the person performing the search, the Solicitor or the IG will begin assessing charges for the computer search. No search or review fees will be charged for a quarter-hour period unless more than half of that period is required for search or review.

(2) The Solicitor or the IG will not charge fees to any requester, including commercial-use requesters, if the cost of collecting the fee would be equal to or greater than the fee itself.

(3) As provided in § 2411.8(c)(5), the Solicitor or the IG will not charge search fees (or duplication fees if the requester is an educational or noncommercial scientific institution, whose purpose is scholarly or scientific research; or a representative of the news media, as described in this section), when the time limits are not met.

(4)(i) The Solicitor or the IG will provide documents without charge or at reduced charges if disclosure of the information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government; and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.

(ii) In determining whether disclosure is in the “public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government” under paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section, the Solicitor or the IG, as appropriate, will consider the following factors:

(A) The subject of the request. The subject of the requested records must concern identifiable operations or activities of the Federal government, with a connection that is direct and clear, not remote or attenuated;

(B) The informative value of the information to be disclosed. The disclosable portions of the requested records must be meaningfully informative about government operations or activities in order to be “likely to contribute” to an increased public understanding of those operations or activities. The disclosure of information that already is in the public domain, in either a duplicative or a substantially identical form, would not be as likely to contribute to such understanding where nothing new would be added to the public's understanding;

(C) The contribution to an understanding of the subject by the general public likely to result from disclosure. The disclosure must contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience of persons interested in the subject, as opposed to the individual understanding of the requester. A requester's expertise in the subject area and his or her ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public shall be considered. It shall be presumed that a representative of the news media will satisfy this consideration; and

(D) The significance of the contribution to the public understanding. The public's understanding of the subject in question, as compared to the level of public understanding existing prior to the disclosure, must be enhanced by the disclosure to a significant extent. The Solicitor or the IG, as appropriate, shall not make value judgments about whether information that would contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government is “important” enough to be made public.

(iii) In determining whether disclosure “is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester” under paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section, the Solicitor or the IG, as appropriate, will consider the following factors:

(A) The existence and magnitude of a commercial interest. The processing agency component will identify any commercial interest of the requester (with reference to the definition of “commercial use” in paragraph (a)(5) of this section), or of any person on whose behalf the requester may be acting, that would be furthered by the requested disclosure. Requesters shall be given an opportunity in the administrative process to provide explanatory information regarding this consideration; and,

(B) The primary interest in disclosure. A fee waiver or reduction is justified where the public interest standard is satisfied and that public interest is greater in magnitude than that of any identified commercial interest in disclosure. The Solicitor or the IG, as appropriate, ordinarily shall presume that where a news media requester has satisfied the public interest standard, the public interest will be the interest primarily served by disclosure to that requester. Disclosure to data brokers or others who merely compile and market government information for direct economic return shall not be presumed to primarily serve the public interest.

(iv) A request for a fee waiver based on the public interest under paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section must address these factors as they apply to the request for records in order to be considered by the Solicitor or the IG.

(v) Requests for a waiver or reduction of fees should be made when the request is first submitted to the Solicitor or the IG. A requester may submit a fee-waiver request at a later time so long as the underlying record request is pending or on administrative appeal. When a requester who has committed to pay fees subsequently asks for a waiver of those fees, and that waiver is denied, the requester must pay any costs incurred up to the date on which the fee-waiver request was received.

(vi) When only some of the records to be released satisfy the requirements for a waiver of fees, a waiver shall be granted for those records.

(c) Level of fees to be charged. The level of fees to be charged by the Solicitor or the IG, in accordance with the schedule set forth in paragraph (d) of this section, depends on the category of the requester. The fee levels to be charged are as follows:

(1) A request for documents appearing to be for commercial use will be charged to recover the full direct costs of searching for, reviewing for release, and duplicating the records sought.

(2) A request for documents from an educational or non-commercial scientific institution will be charged for the cost of duplication alone, excluding charges for the first 100 pages. To be eligible for inclusion in this category, requesters—whether faculty, staff, or students—must show that the request is being made in connection with their role at the institution, and that the records are not sought for a commercial use, but are sought in furtherance of scholarly (if the request is from an educational institution) or scientific (if the request is from a non-commercial scientific institution) research.

(3) The Solicitor or the IG shall provide documents to requesters who are representatives of the news media for the cost of duplication alone, excluding charges for the first 100 pages.

(4) The Solicitor or the IG shall charge requesters who do not fit into any of the categories of this section fees that recover the full direct cost of searching for and duplicating records that are responsive to the request, except that the first 100 pages of duplication and the first two hours of search time shall be furnished without charge. Requests from record subjects for records about themselves filed in Authority, Office of General Counsel, Panel, or IG systems of records will continue to be treated under the fee provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974, which permits fees only for duplication.

(d) The following fees shall be charged in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section:

(1) Manual searches for records. The salary rate (i.e., basic pay plus 16 percent) of the employee(s) making the search. Search time under this paragraph and paragraph (d)(2) of this section may be charged for even if the Solicitor or the IG fails to locate records or if records located are determined to be exempt from disclosure.

(2) Computer searches for records. The actual direct cost of providing the service, including the cost of operating computers and other electronic equipment, and the salary (i.e., basic pay plus 16 percent of that rate to cover benefits) of the employee conducting the search.

(3) Review of records. The salary rate (i.e., basic pay plus 16 percent of that rate to cover benefits) of the employee(s) conducting the review. This charge applies only to requesters who are seeking documents for commercial use, and only to the review necessary at the initial administrative level to determine the applicability of any relevant FOIA exemptions, and not at the administrative-appeal level of an exemption already applied.

(4) Duplication of records. Twenty-five cents per page for paper-copy duplication of documents, which the Solicitor or the IG has determined is the reasonable direct cost of making such copies, taking into account the average salary of the operator and the cost of the duplication machinery. For copies of records produced on tapes, disks, or other media, the Solicitor or the IG shall charge the actual cost of production, including operator time. When paper documents must be scanned in order to comply with a requester's preference to receive the records in an electronic format, the requester shall pay the direct costs associated with scanning those materials, including operator time. For all other forms of duplication, the Solicitor or the IG will charge the direct costs, including operator time.

(5) Forwarding material to destination. Postage, insurance, and special fees will be charged on an actual-cost basis.

(e) Aggregating requests. When the Solicitor or the IG reasonably believes that a requester or group of requesters is attempting to break a request down into a series of requests for the purpose of evading the assessment of fees, the Solicitor or the IG will aggregate any such requests and charge accordingly.

(f) Charging interest. Interest at the rate prescribed in 31 U.S.C. 3717 may be charged to those requesters who fail to pay fees charged, beginning on the 31st day following the billing date. Receipt of a fee by the Solicitor or the IG, whether processed or not, will stay the accrual of interest.

(g) Advance payments. The Solicitor or the IG will not require a requester to make an advance payment, i.e., payment before work is commenced or continued on a request, unless:

(1) The Solicitor or the IG estimates or determines that allowable charges that a requester may be required to pay are likely to exceed $250. In those circumstances, the Solicitor or the IG will notify the requester of the likely cost and obtain satisfactory assurance of full payment, where the requester has a history of prompt payment of FOIA fees, or require an advance payment of an amount up to the full estimated charges in the case of requesters with no history of payment; or

(2) A requester has previously failed to pay a fee charged in a timely fashion (i.e., within 30 days of the date of the billing), in which case the Solicitor or the IG requires the requester to pay the full amount owed plus any applicable interest, as provided in this section, or demonstrate that the requester has, in fact, paid the fee, and to make an advance payment of the full amount of the estimated fee before the agency begins to process a new request or a pending request from that requester. When the Solicitor or the IG has a reasonable basis to believe that a requester has misrepresented his or her identity in order to avoid paying outstanding fees, it may require that the requester provide proof of identity. When the Solicitor or the IG acts under paragraph (g)(1) or (2) of this section, the administrative time limits prescribed in subsection (a)(6) of the FOIA (i.e., 20 working days from receipt of initial requests and 20 working days from receipt of appeals from initial denial, plus permissible extension of these time limits) will begin only after the Solicitor or the IG has received fee payments described in this section. If the requester does not pay the advance payment within 30 calendar days after the date of the fee determination, the request will be closed.

(h) When a person other than a party to a proceeding before the FLRA makes a request for a copy of a transcript or recording of the proceeding, the Solicitor or the IG, as appropriate, will handle the request under this part.

(i) Payment of fees shall be made by check or money order payable to the U.S. Treasury.

(j) The fee schedule of this section does not apply to fees charged under any statute that specifically requires the Authority, the General Counsel, the Panel, the Solicitor or the IG to set and collect fees for particular types of records. In instances in which records responsive to a request are subject to a statutorily based fee-schedule program, the Solicitor or the IG will inform the requester of the contact information for that program.

[74 FR 50674, Oct. 1, 2009, as amended at 82 FR 2855, Jan. 10, 2017; 88 FR 67061, Sept. 29, 2023]

§ 2411.14 Record retention and preservation.

The Solicitor and the IG shall preserve all correspondence pertaining to the requests that it receives under this subpart, as well as copies of all requested records, until such time as disposition or destruction is authorized by title 44 of the United States Code or the National Archives and Records Administration's General Records Schedule 14. Records will not be disposed of while they are the subject of a pending request, appeal, or lawsuit under the FOIA.

[88 FR 67063, Sept. 29, 2023]

§ 2411.15 Annual report.

Each year, on or around February 1, as requested by the Department of Justice's Office of Information Policy, the Chief FOIA Officer of the FLRA shall submit a report of the activities of the Solicitor and the IG with regard to public information requests during the preceding fiscal year to the Attorney General of the United States and the Director of the OGIS. The report shall include those matters required by 5 U.S.C. 552(e), and it shall be made available electronically. The Chief FOIA Officer of the FLRA shall make each such report available for public inspection in an electronic format. In addition, the Chief FOIA Officer of the FLRA shall make the raw statistical data used in each report available in a timely manner for public inspection in an electronic format, which shall be available—

(a) Without charge, license, or registration requirement;

(b) In an aggregated, searchable format; and

(c) In a format that may be downloaded in bulk.

[88 FR 67063, Sept. 29, 2023]

PART 2412 PRIVACY

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 552a.

Source: 88 FR 84067, Dec. 4, 2023, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2412.1 Purpose and scope.

This part contains the regulations that the Federal Labor Relations Authority (FLRA), including the Authority component (Authority), the General Counsel of the FLRA (General Counsel), the Inspector General (IG), and the Federal Service Impasses Panel (Panel), follow under the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, 5 U.S.C. 552a. These regulations should be read together with the Privacy Act, which provides additional information about records maintained on individuals. The regulations apply to all records maintained by the Authority, the General Counsel, the IG, and the Panel that are contained in a system of records, as defined at § 2412.2(d), and that are retrieved by an individual's name or personal identifier. They describe the procedures by which individuals may request access to records about themselves, request amendment or correction of those records, and request an accounting of disclosures of those records. In addition, the regulations limit the access of other persons to those records. The Authority, the General Counsel, the IG, and the Panel also process all Privacy Act requests for access to records under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, giving requesters the benefit of both statutes. These regulations do not relate to those personnel records of Federal Government employees, which are under the Office of Personnel Management's (OPM) jurisdiction, to the extent such records are subject to OPM regulations.

§ 2412.2 Definitions.

For the purposes of this part—

Individual means a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence.

Maintain includes maintain, collect, use, or disseminate.

Record means any item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual that is maintained by the Authority, the General Counsel, the IG, or the Panel including, but not limited to, information regarding the individual's education, financial transactions, medical history, and criminal or employment history, that contains the individual's name, or the identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual, such as a finger or voice print or a photograph.

Request for access to a record means a request made under the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(1).

Request for amendment or correction of a record means a request made under the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(2).

Request for an accounting means a request made under the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3).

Requester means an individual who makes an existence-of-records request, a request for access, a request for amendment or correction, or a request for an accounting under the Privacy Act.

Routine use means, with respect to the disclosure of a record, the use of such record for a purpose which is compatible with the purpose for which it was collected.

System of records means a group of any records under the control of the Authority, the General Counsel, the IG, or the Panel from which information is retrieved by the name of the individual or by some identifying particular assigned to the individual.

§ 2412.3 Notice and publication.

The Authority, the General Counsel, the IG, and the Panel will publish in the Federal Register such notices describing systems of records as are required by law.

§ 2412.4 Existence-of-records requests.

(a) If you want to know whether a system of records maintained by the Authority, the General Counsel, the IG, or the Panel contains a record pertaining to you, you may submit a written existence-of-records request by mail to the FLRA's Solicitor or IG, as appropriate, at the Authority's offices in Washington, DC, or by email to privacy@flra.gov.

(b) You should clearly and prominently identify your request as a Privacy Act request. If you submit the request by mail, it should bear the mark “Privacy Act Request” on the envelope or other cover, as well as your return address. If you submit the request by email, the subject line of the email should include the phrase “Privacy Act Request.” If you do not comply with the provisions of this paragraph, your request will not be deemed received until the time it is actually received by the FLRA's Solicitor or IG.

(c) An existence-of-records request must include your name and address and must reasonably describe the system of records in question. Whenever possible, the request should also describe the time periods in which you believe the records were compiled and the name or identifying number of each system of records in which you believe the records are kept. The Authority, the General Counsel, the IG, and the Panel have published descriptions of the systems of records they maintain in the Federal Register.

(d) When you make an existence-of-records request regarding records about yourself, you must verify your identity. You must state your full name, current address, and date and place of birth. You must sign your request and your signature must either be notarized or submitted by you under 28 U.S.C. 1746, a law that permits statements to be made under penalty of perjury as a substitute for notarization. In order to help the identification and location of requested records, you may also, at your option, include your social security number.

(e) When making an existence-of-records request as the parent or guardian of a minor or as the guardian of someone determined by a court to be incompetent, you must establish:

(1) The identity of the individual who is the subject of the record, by stating the name, current address, date and place of birth, and, at your option, the social security number of the individual;

(2) Your own identity, following the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section;

(3) That you are the parent or guardian of that individual, which you may prove by providing a copy of the individual's birth certificate showing your parentage or by providing a court order establishing your guardianship; and

(4) That you are acting on behalf of that individual in making the request.

(f) The Solicitor or IG, as appropriate, will advise you in writing within ten (10) working days from receipt of your request whether the system of records you identified contains a record pertaining to you or to the individual for whom you are a parent or guardian and, if so, the office in which that record is located. If the Solicitor or IG is prohibited from, or there is otherwise an exemption that prevents, disclosing whether a system of records contains a record pertaining to you or to the individual for whom you are a parent or guardian, you will be notified in writing of the reasons of that determination, and of your right to appeal that determination under the provisions § 2412.12.

§ 2412.5 Individual access requests.

(a) You may make a request for access to a record about yourself that is contained in a system of records maintained by the Authority, the General Counsel, the IG, or the Panel by submitting a written request reasonably identifying the records sought to be inspected or copied by mail to the FLRA's Solicitor or the IG at the Authority's offices in Washington, DC, or by email to privacy@flra.gov. You must describe the records that you want in enough detail to enable Authority, General Counsel, IG, or Panel personnel to locate the system of records containing them with a reasonable amount of effort. Whenever possible, your request should describe the time periods in which you believe the records were compiled and the name or identifying number of each system of records in which you believe the records are kept. The Authority, the General Counsel, the IG, and the Panel have published descriptions of the systems of records they maintain in the Federal Register.

(b) Your written request should be clearly and prominently identified as a Privacy Act request. If you submit the request by mail, it should bear the mark “Privacy Act Request” on the envelope or other cover, as well as your return address. If you submit the request by email, the subject line of the email should include the phrase “Privacy Act Request.” If your request does not comply with the provisions of this paragraph, it will not be deemed received until the time it is actually received by the FLRA's Solicitor or IG.

(c) If you desire, you may be accompanied by another person during your review of the records. If you desire to be accompanied by another person during the inspection, you must notify the Solicitor or IG at least twenty-four hours in advance of the agreed-upon inspection date. Additionally, you must sign a statement and provide it to the representative of the Authority, the General Counsel, the IG, or the Panel, as appropriate, at the time of the inspection, authorizing that person to accompany you. The agency may require a written statement from you authorizing discussion of your record in the accompanying person's presence.

(d) When you make a request for access to records about yourself, you must verify your identity. You must state your full name, current address, and date and place of birth. You must sign your request and your signature must either be notarized or submitted by you under 28 U.S.C. 1746, a law that permits statements to be made under penalty of perjury as a substitute for notarization. In order to help the identification and location of requested records, you may also, at your option, include your social security number.

(e) When making a request as the parent or guardian of a minor or as the guardian of someone determined by a court to be incompetent, for access to records about that individual, you must establish:

(1) The identity of the individual who is the subject of the record, by stating the name, current address, date and place of birth, and, at your option, the social security number of the individual;

(2) Your own identity, following the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section;

(3) That you are the parent or guardian of that individual, which you may prove by providing a copy of the individual's birth certificate showing your parentage or by providing a court order establishing your guardianship; and

(4) That you are acting on behalf of that individual in making the request.

§ 2412.6 Records about other individuals, medical records, and limitations on disclosures.

(a) Requests for records about an individual made by person other than that individual shall also be directed to the FLRA's Solicitor or IG, as appropriate, at the Authority's offices in Washington, DC, or by email to privacy@flra.gov. You must describe the records that you want in enough detail to enable Authority, General Counsel, IG, or Panel personnel to locate the system of records containing them with a reasonable amount of effort. Whenever possible, your request should describe the time periods in which you believe the records were compiled and the name or identifying number of each system of records in which you believe the records are kept. The Authority, the General Counsel, the IG, and the Panel have published descriptions of the systems of records they maintain in the Federal Register.

(b) Such records shall only be made available to persons other than that individual in the following circumstances:

(1) To any person with the prior written consent of the individual about whom the records are maintained;

(2) To officers and employees of the Authority, the General Counsel, the IG, and the Panel who have a need for the records in the performance of their official duties;

(3) For a routine use compatible with the purpose for which it was collected, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552a(a)(7) and as described under 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(D);

(4) To any person to whom disclosure is required by the Freedom of Information Act, as amended, 5 U.S.C. 552;

(5) To the Bureau of the Census for purposes of planning or carrying out a census or survey or related activity pursuant to title 13 of the United States Code;

(6) In a form not individually identifiable to a recipient who has provided the Solicitor or IG with advance adequate written assurance that the record will be used solely as a statistical research or reporting record;

(7) To the National Archives and Records Administration or other appropriate entity as a record which has sufficient historical or other value warranting its preservation, or for evaluation by the Archivist of the United States or the designee of such official to determine whether the record has such value;

(8) To another agency or to an instrumentality of any governmental jurisdiction within or under control of the United States for a civil or criminal law enforcement activity that is authorized by law if the head of the agency or instrumentality has made a written request for the record to the Solicitor or IG, in accordance with part 2417 of this chapter, specifying the particular portion desired and the law enforcement activity for which the record is sought;

(9) To a person pursuant to a showing of compelling circumstances affecting the health or safety of an individual, provided that notification of such a disclosure shall be immediately mailed to the last known address of the individual;

(10) To either House of Congress or to any committee thereof with appropriate jurisdiction;

(11) To the Comptroller General, or any of Comptroller General's authorized representatives, in the performance of the official duties of the General Accountability Office;

(12) Pursuant to the order of a court of competent jurisdiction; or

(13) To a consumer reporting agency in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3711(e).

(c) The request shall be in writing and should be clearly and prominently identified as a Privacy Act request and, if submitted by mail or otherwise submitted in an envelope or other cover, should bear the mark “Privacy Act Request” on the envelope or other cover. If a request does not comply with the provisions of this paragraph, it shall not be deemed received until the time it is actually received by the Solicitor or the IG.

(d) If medical records are requested for inspection which, in the opinion of the Solicitor or the IG, as appropriate, may be harmful to the requester if personally inspected by such person, such records will be furnished only to a licensed health care professional designated to receive such records by the requester. Prior to such disclosure, the requester must furnish a signed written authorization to make such disclosure and the licensed health care professional must furnish a written request for the licensed health care professional's receipt of such records to the Solicitor or the IG, as appropriate.

(1) If such authorization is not executed within the presence of an Authority, General Counsel, or Panel representative, the authorization must be accompanied by a notarized statement verifying the identification of the requester.

(2) [Reserved]

§ 2412.7 Initial decision on access requests.

(a) Within ten (10) working days of the receipt of a request pursuant to § 2412.5, the FLRA's Solicitor or IG will make an initial decision regarding whether the requested records exist and whether they will be made available to the requester. The Solicitor or IG will promptly communicate that initial decision to you in writing or other appropriate form.

(b) When the initial decision is to provide access to the requested records, the writing or other appropriate communication notifying you of the decision will:

(1) Briefly describe the records to be made available;

(2) State whether any records maintained about you in the system of records in question are not being made available;

(3) State whether any further verification of your identity is necessary; and

(4) Notify you of any fee charged under § 2412.13.

(5) The Solicitor or IG will promptly disclose the requested records to you upon payment of any applicable fee under § 2412.13.

(c) When the initial decision is not to provide access to requested records and accountings, the Solicitor or IG will, by writing or other appropriate communication, explain the reason for that decision. The Solicitor or IG will only refuse to provide you access when:

(1) Your verification of identity is inadequate under § 2412.5(d);

(2) No such records are maintained or an exemption applies;

(3) Your information is contained in, and inseparable from, another individual's record;

(4) The requested records have been compiled in reasonable anticipation of civil or criminal action or other proceedings.

§ 2412.8 Accountings of disclosures and requests for accountings.

(a) The FLRA's Solicitor or IG, as appropriate, will maintain a record (“accounting”) of every instance in which records about an individual are made available, pursuant to this part, to any person other than:

(1) Officers or employees of the Authority, the General Counsel, the IG, or the Panel in the performance of their duties; or

(2) Any person pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act, as amended, 5 U.S.C. 552.

(b) The accounting which shall be retained for at least five (5) years or the life of the record, whichever is longer, shall contain the following information:

(1) A brief description of records disclosed;

(2) The date, nature and, where known, the purpose of the disclosure; and

(3) The name and address of the person or agency to whom the disclosure is made.

(c) Except when accountings of disclosures are not required to be kept (as stated in paragraph (a) of this section) or are withheld accounting of disclosures that were made pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(7), you may make a request for an accounting of any disclosure that has been made by the Solicitor or IG, to another person, organization, or agency of any record about you. This accounting contains the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure, as well as the name and address of the person, organization, or agency to which the disclosure was made. Your request for an accounting should identify each particular record in question and should be made by writing to the FLRA's Solicitor or IG, as appropriate, following the procedures in § 2412.5.

(d) The FLRA's Solicitor or IG, as appropriate, will respond to your request for access to an accounting following the procedures in § 2412.7. You may appeal the Solicitor or IG's decision on your request under the procedures in § 2412.12.

§ 2412.9 Requests for amendment or correction of records.

(a) Unless the record is not subject to amendment or correction as stated in paragraph (b) of this section, you may make a request for amendment or correction of an Authority, General Counsel, IG, or Panel record about yourself or about an individual for whom you are a parent or guardian by submitting a written request to the FLRA's Solicitor or IG, as appropriate, following the procedures in § 2412.5. Your request should identify each particular record in question, state the amendment or correction that you want, and state why you believe that the record is not accurate, relevant, timely, or complete. Please note that a requester bears the burden of proving by the preponderance of the evidence that information is not accurate, relevant, timely, or complete. You may submit any documentation that you think would be helpful. If you believe that the same record is in more than one system of records, your request should state that.

(b) The following records are not subject to amendment or correction:

(1) Transcripts of testimony given under oath or written statements made under oath;

(2) Transcripts of grand jury proceedings, judicial proceedings, or quasi-judicial proceedings, which are the official record of those proceedings;

(3) Records in systems of records that have been exempted from amendment and correction under the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(j) or (k), by notice published in the Federal Register; and

(4) Records compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding.

§ 2412.10 Initial decision on amendment or correction.

(a) Within ten (10) working days after receiving your request for amendment or correction, the FLRA's Solicitor or IG, as appropriate, will acknowledge receipt of the request and, under normal circumstances, the Solicitor or IG will notify you, by mail or other appropriate means, of the decision regarding the request not later than thirty (30) working days after receiving of the request.

(b) The notice of decision will include:

(1) A statement of whether the Solicitor or IG has granted or denied your request, in whole or in part;

(2) A quotation or description of any amendment or correction made to any records; and

(3) When a request is denied in whole or in part, an explanation of the reason for that denial and of your right to appeal the decision to the Chairman of the Authority, pursuant to § 2412.12.

§ 2412.11 Amendment or correction of previously disclosed records.

When a record is amended or corrected pursuant to § 2412.10, or a written statement of disagreement filed, pursuant to § 2412.12, the FLRA's Solicitor or IG, as appropriate, will give notice of that correction, amendment, or written statement of disagreement to all persons to whom such records or copies have been disclosed, as recorded in the accounting kept pursuant to § 2412.8.

§ 2412.12 Agency review of refusal to inform, to provide access to, or to amend or correct records.

(a) If your request for information regarding whether a system of records contains information about you or an individual for whom you are a parent or guardian, or your request for access to, or amendment or correction of, records of the Authority, the General Counsel, the IG, or the Panel, or an accounting of disclosure from such records, has been denied in whole or in part by an initial decision, you may, within thirty (30) working days after your receipt of notice of the initial decision, appeal that decision by filing a written request by mail to the Chairman of the Authority at the Authority's offices in Washington, DC, or by email to privacy@flra.gov.

(b) The appeal must describe:

(1) The request you initially made for information regarding, access to, or the amendment or correction of, records;

(2) The initial decision of the FLRA's Solicitor or IG on the request; and

(3) The reasons why that initial decision should be modified by the Chairman of the Authority.

(c) Not later than thirty (30) working days after receipt of a request for review (unless such period is extended by the Chairman of the Authority or the Chairman's designee for good cause shown), the Chairman of the Authority or the Chairman's designee will notify you of their decision on your request. If the Chairman of the Authority or the Chairman's designee upholds the initial decision not to inform the individual of whether requested records exist, or not to provide access to requested records or accountings, or not to amend or correct the records as requested, then the Chairman of the Authority or the Chairman's designee will notify you of your right:

(1) To judicial review of the Chairman of the Authority or the Chairman's designee's decision pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1); and

(2) To file with the FLRA's Solicitor or IG, as appropriate, a concise written statement of disagreement with the determination. That written statement of disagreement will be made a part of the record and will accompany that record in any use or disclosure of the record.

§ 2412.13 Fees.

(a) Your Privacy Act request for access to records will be considered an agreement to pay all applicable fees charged under paragraph (b) of this section, up to $25.00. When making a request, you may specify a willingness to pay a greater or lesser amount.

(b) There will be a charge of twenty-five cents per page for paper-copy duplication of records disclosed under this part. For copies of records produced on tapes, disks, or other media, the Solicitor or IG will charge the actual cost of production, including operator time.

(c) The FLRA's Solicitor or IG may waive or reduce any charges under this section whenever it is in the public interest to do so.

§ 2412.14 Penalties.

Any person who knowingly and willfully requests or obtains any record concerning an individual from the Authority, the General Counsel, the IG, or the Panel under false pretenses will be subject to criminal prosecution under 5 U.S.C. 552a(i)(3), which provides that such person shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and fined not more than $5,000.

§ 2412.15 Exemptions.

(a) Files of FLRA's Office of Inspector General (OIG) compiled for the purpose of a criminal investigation and for related purposes. Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), the FLRA hereby exempts the system of records entitled “FLRA/OIG-1, Office of Inspector General Investigative Files,” insofar as it consists of information compiled for the purposes of a criminal investigation or for other purposes within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), from the application of 5 U.S.C. 552a, except for 5 U.S.C. 552a(b), (c)(1) and (2), (e)(4)(A) through (F), (e)(6), (7), (9), (10), (11) and (i).

(b) OIG files compiled for other law enforcement purposes. Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), the FLRA hereby exempts the system of records entitled “FLRA/OIG-1, Office of Inspector General Investigative Files,” insofar as it consists of information compiled for law enforcement purposes other than material within the scope of 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), from the application of 5 U.S.C. 552a, (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), and (I), and (f).

PART 2413 OPEN MEETINGS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 552b.

Source: 45 FR 3494, Jan. 17, 1980, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2413.1 Purpose and scope.

This part contains the regulations of the Federal Labor Relations Authority implementing the Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b.

§ 2413.2 Public observation of meetings.

Every portion of every meeting of the Authority shall be open to public observation, except as provided in § 2413.4, and Authority members shall not jointly conduct or dispose of agency business other than in accordance with the provisions of this part.

§ 2413.3 Definition of meeting.

For purposes of this part, meeting shall mean the deliberations of at least two (2) members of the Authority where such deliberations determine or result in the joint conduct or disposition of official agency business, but does not include deliberations to determine whether a meeting should be closed to public observation in accordance with the provisions of this part.

§ 2413.4 Closing of meetings; reasons therefor.

(a) Except where the Authority determines that the public interest requires otherwise, meetings, or portions thereof, shall not be open to public observation where the deliberations concern the issuance of a subpena, the Authority's participation in a civil action or proceeding or an arbitration, or the initiation, conduct or disposition by the Authority of particular cases of formal agency adjudication pursuant to the procedures in 5 U.S.C. 554 or otherwise involving a determination on the record after opportunity for a hearing, or any court proceedings collateral or ancillary thereto.

(b) Meetings, or portions thereof, may also be closed by the Authority, except where it determines that the public interest requires otherwise, when the deliberations concern matters or information falling within the reasons for closing meetings specified in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(1) (secret matters concerning national defense or foreign policy); (c)(2) (internal personnel rules and practices); (c)(3) (matters specifically exempted from disclosure by statute); (c)(4) (privileged or confidential trade secrets and commercial or financial information); (c)(5) (matters of alleged criminal conduct or formal censure); (c)(6) (personal information where disclosure would cause a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy); (c)(7) (certain materials or information from investigatory files compiled for law enforcement purposes); or (c)(9)(B) (disclosure would significantly frustrate implementation of a proposed agency action).

§ 2413.5 Action necessary to close meeting; record of votes.

A meeting shall be closed to public observation under § 2413.4, only when a majority of the members of the Authority who will participate in the meeting vote to take such action.

(a) When the meeting deliberations concern matters specified in § 2413.4(a), the Authority members shall vote at the beginning of the meeting, or portion thereof, on whether to close such meeting, or portion thereof, to public observation and on whether the public interest requires that a meeting which may properly be closed should nevertheless be open to public observation. A record of such vote, reflecting the vote of each member of the Authority, shall be kept and made available to the public at the earliest practicable time.

(b) When the meeting deliberations concern matters specified in § 2413.4(b), the Authority shall vote on whether to close such meeting, or portion thereof, to public observation, and on whether there is a public interest which requires that a meeting which may properly be closed should nevertheless be open to public observation. The vote shall be taken at a time sufficient to permit inclusion of information concerning the open or closed status of the meeting in the public announcement thereof. A single vote may be taken with respect to a series of meetings at which the deliberations will concern the same particular matters where such subsequent meetings are scheduled to be held within thirty (30) days after the initial meeting. A record of such vote, reflecting the vote of each member of the Authority, shall be kept and made available for the public within one (1) day after the vote is taken.

(c) Whenever any person whose interests may be directly affected by deliberations during a meeting, or a portion thereof, requests that the Authority close that meeting, or portion thereof, to public observation for any of the reasons specified in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c)(5) (matters of alleged criminal conduct or formal censure), (c)(6) (personal information where disclosure would cause a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy), or (c)(7) (certain materials or information from investigatory files compiled for law enforcement purposes), the Authority members participating in the meeting, upon request of any one of its members, shall vote on whether to close such meeting, or a portion thereof, for that reason. A record of such vote, reflecting the vote of each member of the Authority participating in the meeting, shall be kept and made available to the public within one (1) day after the vote is taken.

(d) After public announcement of a meeting as provided in § 2413.6, a meeting, or portion thereof, announced as closed may be opened, or a meeting, or portion thereof, announced as open may be closed only if a majority of the members of the Authority who will participate in the meeting determine by a recorded vote that Authority business so requires and that an earlier announcement of the change was not possible. The change made and the vote of each member on the change shall be announced publicly at the earliest practicable time.

(e) Before a meeting may be closed pursuant to § 2413.4, the Solicitor of the Authority shall certify that in the Solicitor's opinion the meeting may properly be closed to public observation. The certification shall set forth each applicable exemptive provision for such closing. Such certification shall be retained by the agency and made publicly available as soon as practicable.

§ 2413.6 Notice of meetings; public announcement and publication.

(a) A public announcement setting forth the time, place and subject matter of meetings, or portions thereof, closed to public observation pursuant to the provisions of § 2413.4(a), shall be made at the earliest practicable time.

(b) Except for meetings closed to public observation pursuant to the provisions of § 2413.4(a), the agency shall make public announcement of each meeting to be held at least seven (7) days before the scheduled date of the meeting. The announcement shall specify the time, place and subject matter of the meeting, whether it is to be open to public observation or closed, and the name, address, and phone number of an agency official designated to respond to requests for information about the meeting. The seven (7) day period for advance notice may be shortened only upon a determination by a majority of the members of the Authority who will participate in the meeting that agency business requires that such meeting be called at an earlier date, in which event the public announcements shall be made at the earliest practicable time. A record of the vote to schedule a meeting at an earlier date shall be kept and made available to the public.

(c) Within one (1) day after a vote to close a meeting, or any portion thereof, pursuant to the provisions § 2413.4(b), the agency shall make publicly available a full written explanation of its action closing the meeting, or portion thereof, together with a list of all persons expected to attend the meeting and their affiliation.

(d) If after public announcement required by paragraph (b) of this section has been made, the time and place of the meeting are changed, a public announcement shall be made at the earliest practicable time. The subject matter of the meeting may be changed after the public announcement only if a majority of the members of the Authority who will participate in the meeting determine that agency business so requires and that no earlier announcement of the change was possible. When such a change in subject matter is approved, a public announcement of the change shall be made at the earliest practicable time. A record of the vote to change the subject matter of the meeting shall be kept and made available to the public.

(e) All announcements or changes thereto issued pursuant to the provisions of paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section or pursuant to the provisions of § 2413.5(d) shall be submitted for publication in the Federal Register immediately following their release to the public.

(f) Announcements of meetings made pursuant to the provisions of this section shall be made publicly available by the Executive Director.

§ 2413.7 Transcripts, recordings or minutes of closed meeting; public availability; retention.

(a) For every meeting, or portion thereof, closed under the provisions of § 2413.4, the presiding officer shall prepare a statement setting forth the time and place of the meeting and the persons present, which statement shall be retained by the agency. For each such meeting, or portion thereof, there shall also be maintained a complete transcript or electronic recording of the proceedings, except that for meetings closed pursuant to § 2413.4(a), the Authority may, in lieu of a transcript or electronic recording, maintain a set of minutes fully and accurately summarizing any action taken, the reasons therefor and views thereon, documents considered and the members' vote on each rollcall vote.

(b) The agency shall make promptly available to the public copies of transcripts, recordings or minutes maintained as provided in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, except to the extent the items therein contain information which the agency determines may be withheld pursuant to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552b(c). Copies of transcripts or minutes, or transcriptions of electronic recordings including the identification of speakers, shall to the extent determined to be publicly available, be furnished to any person, subject to the payment of duplication costs in accordance with the schedule of fees set forth in § 2411.10 of this subchapter and the actual cost of transcription.

(c) The agency shall maintain a complete verbatim copy of the transcript, a complete copy of the minutes, or a complete electronic recording of each meeting, or portion of a meeting, closed to the public, for a period of at least two (2) years after such meeting or until one (1) year after the conclusion of any agency proceeding with respect to which the meeting or portion was held whichever occurs later.

PART 2414 EX PARTE COMMUNICATIONS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 7134.

Source: 45 FR 3495, Jan. 17, 1980, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2414.1 Purpose and scope.

This part contains the regulations of the Federal Labor Relations Authority relating to ex parte communications.

§ 2414.2 Unauthorized communications.

(a) No interested person outside this agency shall, in any agency proceeding subject to 5 U.S.C. 557(a), make or knowingly cause to be made any prohibited ex parte communication to any Authority member, Administrative Law Judge, or other Authority employee who is or may reasonably be expected to be involved in the decisional process of the proceeding.

(b) No Authority member, Administrative Law Judge, or other Authority employee who is or may reasonably be expected to be involved in the decisional process of the proceeding relevant to the merits of the proceeding shall: (1) Request any prohibited ex parte communications; or (2) make or knowingly cause to be made any prohibited ex parte communications about the proceeding to any interested person outside this agency relevant to the merits of the proceeding.

§ 2414.3 Definitions.

When used in this part:

(a) The term person outside this agency, to whom the prohibitions apply, shall include any individual outside the Authority, labor organization, agency, or other entity, or an agent thereof, and the General Counsel or his representative when prosecuting an unfair labor practice proceeding before the Authority pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 7118.

(b) The term ex parte communication means an oral or written communication not on the public record with respect to which reasonable prior notice to all parties is not given, subject however, to the provisions of §§ 2414.5 and 2414.6.

§ 2414.4 Duration of prohibition.

Unless otherwise provided by specific order of the Authority entered in the proceeding, the prohibition of § 2414.2 shall be applicable in any agency proceeding subject to 5 U.S.C. 557(a) beginning at the time of which the proceeding is noticed for hearing, unless the person responsible for the communication has knowledge that it will be noticed, in which case the prohibitions shall apply beginning at the time of such person's acquisition of such knowledge.

§ 2414.5 Communications prohibited.

Except as provided in § 2414.6, ex parte communications prohibited by § 2414.2 shall include:

(a) Such communications, when written, if copies thereof are not contemporaneously served by the communicator on all parties to the proceeding in accordance with the provisions of part 2429 of this chapter; and

(b) Such communications, when oral, unless advance notice thereof is given by the communicator to all parties in the proceeding and adequate opportunity afforded to them to be present.

§ 2414.6 Communications not prohibited.

Ex parte communications prohibited by § 2414.2 shall not include:

(a) Oral or written communications which relate solely to matters which the Hearing Officer, Regional Director, Administrative Law Judge, General Counsel or member of the Authority is authorized by law or Authority rules to entertain or dispose of on an ex parte basis;

(b) Oral or written requests for information solely with respect to the status of a proceeding;

(c) Oral or written communications which all the parties to the proceeding agree, or which the responsible official formally rules, may be made on an ex parte basis;

(d) Oral or written communications proposing settlement or an agreement for disposition of any or all issues in the proceeding;

(e) Oral or written communications which concern matters of general significance to the field of labor-management relations or administrative practice and which are not specifically related to any agency proceeding subject to 5 U.S.C. 557(a); or

(f) Oral or written communications from the General Counsel to the Authority when the General Counsel is acting on behalf of the Authority under 5 U.S.C. 7123(d).

§ 2414.7 Solicitation of prohibited communications.

No person shall knowingly and willfully solicit the making of an unauthorized ex parte communication by any other person.

§ 2414.8 Reporting of prohibited communications; penalties.

(a) Any Authority member, Administrative Law Judge, or other Authority employee who is or may reasonably be expected to be involved in the decisional process of the proceeding relevant to the merits of the proceeding to whom a prohibited oral ex parte communication is attempted to be made, shall refuse to listen to the communication, inform the communicator of this rule, and advise such person that if the person has anything to say it should be said in writing with copies to all parties. Any such Authority member, Administrative Law Judge, or other Authority employee who is or may reasonably be expected to be involved in the decisional process of the proceeding relevant to the merits of the proceeding who receives, or who makes or knowingly causes to be made, an unauthorized ex parte communication, shall place or cause to be placed on the public record of the proceeding: (1) The communication, if it was written; (2) a memorandum stating the substance of the communication, if it was oral; (3) all written responses to the prohibited communication; and (4) memoranda stating the substance of all oral responses to the prohibited communication. The Executive Director, if the proceeding is then pending before the Authority, the Administrative Law Judge, if the proceeding is then pending before any such judge, or the Regional Director, if the proceeding is then pending before a Hearing Officer or the Regional Director, shall serve copies of all such materials placed on the public record of the proceeding on all other parties to the proceeding and on the attorneys of record for the parties. Within ten (10) days after the mailing of such copies, any party may file with the Executive Director, Administrative Law Judge, or Regional Director serving the communication, as appropriate, and serve on all other parties, a statement setting forth facts or contentions to rebut those contained in the prohibited communication. All such responses shall be placed in the public record of the proceeding, and provision may be made for any further action, including reopening of the record, which may be required under the circumstances. No action taken pursuant to this provision shall constitute a waiver of the power of the Authority to impose an appropriate penalty under § 2414.9.

§ 2414.9 Penalties and enforcement.

(a) Where the nature and circumstances of a prohibited communication made by or caused to be made by a party to the proceeding are such that the interests of justice and statutory policy may require remedial action, the Authority, Administrative Law Judge, or Regional Director, as appropriate, may issue to the party making the communication a notice to show cause, returnable before the Authority, Administrative Law Judge, or Regional Director, within a stated period not less than seven (7) days from the date thereof, why the Authority, Administrative Law Judge, or Regional Director should not determine that the interests of justice and statutory policy require that the claim or interest in the proceeding of a party who knowingly makes a prohibited communication or knowingly causes a prohibited communication to be made, should be dismissed, denied, disregarded or otherwise adversely affected on account of such violation.

(b) Upon notice and hearing, the Authority may censure, suspend, or revoke the privilege of practice before the agency of any person who knowingly and willfully makes or solicits the making of a prohibited ex parte communication. However, before the Authority institutes formal proceedings under this subsection, it shall first advise the person or persons concerned in writing that it proposes to take such action and that they may show cause, within a period to be stated in such written advice, but not less than seven (7) days from the date thereof, why it should not take such action.

(c) The Authority may censure, or, to the extent permitted by law, suspend, dismiss, or institute proceedings for the dismissal of, any Authority agent who knowingly and willfully violates the prohibitions and requirements of this rule.

PART 2415 EMPLOYEE RESPONSIBILITIES AND CONDUCT

Authority: E.O. 12674, 54 FR 15159 (April 12, 1989), as modified by E.O. 12731, 55 FR 42547 (October 17, 1990); 5 CFR 735.101, et seq., 2634.101, et seq., 2635.101, et seq., and 2637.101, et seq.

§ 2415.1 Employee responsibilities and conduct.

The Federal Labor Relations Authority, the General Counsel of the Federal Labor Relations Authority and the Federal Service Impasses Panel, respectively, hereby adopt the rules and regulations contained in parts 735, 2634, 2635, and 2637 of title 5 of the Code of Federal Regulations, prescribing standards of conduct and responsibilities, and governing statements reporting employment and financial interests for officers and employees, including special Government employees, for application, as appropriate, to the officers and employees, including special Government employees, of the Authority, the General Counsel and the Panel.

[74 FR 51742, Oct. 8, 2009]

PART 2416 ENFORCEMENT OF NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF HANDICAP IN PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES CONDUCTED BY THE FEDERAL LABOR RELATIONS AUTHORITY

Authority: 29 U.S.C. 794.

Source: 53 FR 25881, 25885, July 8, 1988, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2416.101 Purpose.

The purpose of this regulation is to effectuate section 119 of the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, which amended section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to prohibit discrimination on the basis of disability in programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies or the United States Postal Service.

[74 FR 51742, Oct. 8, 2009]

§ 2416.102 Application.

This part applies to all programs or activities conducted by the agency, except for programs or activities conducted outside the United States that do not involve individuals with disabilities in the United States.

[74 FR 51742, Oct. 8, 2009]

§ 2416.103 Definitions.

For purposes of this regulation, the term—

Assistant Attorney General means the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice.

Auxiliary aids means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by the agency. For example, auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired vision include readers, Brailled materials, audio recordings, and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's), interpreters, notetakers, written materials, and other similar services and devices.

Complete complaint means a written statement that contains the complainant's name and address and describes the agency's alleged discriminatory action in sufficient detail to inform the agency of the nature and date of the alleged violation of section 504. It shall be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Complaints filed on behalf of classes or third parties shall describe or identify (by name, if possible) the alleged victims of discrimination.

Facility means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, rolling stock or other conveyances, or other real or personal property.

Historic preservation programs means programs conducted by the agency that have preservation of historic properties as a primary purpose.

Historic properties means those properties that are listed or eligible for listing in the National Register of Historic Places or properties designated as historic under a statute of the appropriate State or local government body.

Individual with disabilities means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment.

Qualified individual with disabilities means—

(1) With respect to preschool, elementary, or secondary education services provided by the agency, an individual with disabilities who is a member of a class of persons otherwise entitled by statute, regulation, or agency policy to receive education services from the agency;

(2) With respect to any other agency program or activity under which a person is required to perform services or to achieve a level of accomplishment, an individual with disabilities who meets the essential eligibility requirements and who can achieve the purpose of the program or activity without modifications in the program or activity that the agency can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature;

(3) With respect to any other program or activity, an individual with disabilities who meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity; and

(4) Qualified disabled person as that term is defined for purposes of employment in 29 CFR 1615.103, which is made applicable to this regulation by § 2416.140.

Section 504 means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394 (29 U.S.C. 794)), as amended by the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-516, 88 Stat. 1617); the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-602, 92 Stat. 2955); and the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1986 (Pub. L. 99-506, 100 Stat. 1810). As used in this regulation, section 504 applies only to programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies and not to federally assisted programs.

Substantial impairment means a significant loss of the integrity of finished materials, design quality, or special character resulting from a permanent alteration.

[53 FR 25881, 25885, July 8, 1988, as amended at 74 FR 51742, Oct. 8, 2009]

§§ 2416.104-2416.109 [Reserved]
§ 2416.110 Notice.

The agency shall make available to employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons such information regarding the provisions of this regulation and its applicability to the programs or activities conducted by the agency, and make such information available to them in such manner as the head of the agency finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by section 504 and this regulation.

[53 FR 25881, 25885, July 8, 1988. Redesignated at 75 FR 48273, Aug. 10, 2010]

§§ 2416.111-2416.129 [Reserved]
§ 2416.130 General prohibitions against discrimination.

(a) No qualified individual with disabilities shall, on the basis of disability, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency.

(b)(1) The agency, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of disability—

(i) Deny a qualified individual with disabilities the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service;

(ii) Afford a qualified individual with disabilities an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others;

(iii) Provide a qualified individual with disabilities with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others;

(iv) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to individuals with disabilities or to any class of individuals with disabilities than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified individuals with disabilities with aid, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others;

(v) Deny a qualified individual with disabilities the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards;

(vi) Otherwise limit a qualified individual with disabilities in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service.

(2) The agency may not deny a qualified individual with disabilities the opportunity to participate in programs or activities that are not separate or different, despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs or activities.

(3) The agency may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration the purpose or effect of which would—

(i) Subject qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability; or

(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with disabilities.

(4) The agency may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would—

(i) Exclude individuals with disabilities from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency; or

(ii) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with disabilities.

(5) The agency, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability.

(6) The agency may not administer a licensing or certification program in a manner that subjects qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability, nor may the agency establish requirements for the programs or activities of licensees or certified entities that subject qualified individuals with disabilities to discrimination on the basis of disability. However, the programs or activities of entities that are licensed or certified by the agency are not, themselves, covered by this regulation.

(c) The exclusion of individuals without a disability from the benefits of a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to individuals with disabilities or the exclusion of a specific class of individuals with disabilities from a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to a different class of individuals with disabilities is not prohibited by this regulation.

(d) The agency shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified individuals with disabilities.

[74 FR 51743, Oct. 8, 2009]

§§ 2416.131-2416.139 [Reserved]
§ 2416.140 Employment.

No qualified individual with disabilities shall, on the basis of disability, be subject to discrimination in employment under any program or activity conducted by the agency. The definitions, requirements, and procedures of section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791), as established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1614, shall apply to employment in federally conducted programs or activities.

[74 FR 51743, Oct. 8, 2009]

§§ 2416.141-2416.148 [Reserved]
§ 2416.149 Program accessibility: Discrimination prohibited.

Except as otherwise provided in § 2416.150, no qualified individual with disabilities shall, because the agency's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by individuals with disabilities, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency.

[74 FR 51743, Oct. 8, 2009]

§ 2416.150 Program accessibility: Existing facilities.

(a) General. The agency shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. This paragraph does not—

(1) Necessarily require the agency to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities;

(2) In the case of historic preservation programs, require the agency to take any action that would result in a substantial impairment of significant historic features of an historic property; or

(3) Require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 2416.150(a) would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that individuals with disabilities receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.

(b) Methods—(1) General. The agency may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. The agency is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section. The agency, in making alterations to existing buildings, shall meet accessibility requirements to the extent compelled by the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), and any regulations implementing it. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the agency shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified individuals with disabilities in the most integrated setting appropriate.

(2) Historic preservation programs. In meeting the requirements of § 2416.150(a) in historic preservation programs, the agency shall give priority to methods that provide physical access to individuals with disabilities. In cases where a physical alteration to an historic property is not required because of § 2416.150(a) (2) or (3), alternative methods of achieving program accessibility include—

(i) Using audio-visual materials and devices to depict those portions of an historic property that cannot otherwise be made accessible;

(ii) Assigning persons to guide individuals with disabilities into or through portions of historic properties that cannot otherwise be made accessible; or

(iii) Adopting other innovative methods.

[74 FR 51743, Oct. 8, 2009]

§ 2416.151 Program accessibility: New construction and alterations.

Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of the agency shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. The definitions, requirements, and standards of the Architectural Barriers Act (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), as established in 41 CFR 101-19.600 to 101-19.607, apply to buildings covered by this section.

[74 FR 51744, Oct. 8, 2009]

§§ 2416.152-2416.159 [Reserved]
§ 2416.160 Communications.

(a) The agency shall take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with applicants, participants, personnel of other Federal entities, and members of the public.

(1) The agency shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids where necessary to afford an individual with disabilities an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a program or activity conducted by the agency.

(i) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the agency shall give primary consideration to the requests of the individual with disabilities.

(ii) The agency need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature.

(2) Where the agency communicates with applicants and beneficiaries by telephone, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's) or equally effective telecommunication systems shall be used to communicate with persons with impaired hearing.

(b) The agency shall ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities.

(c) The agency shall provide signage at a primary entrance to each of its inaccessible facilities, directing users to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility.

(d) This section does not require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 2416.160 would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action required to comply with this section would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, individuals with disabilities receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.

[53 FR 25881, 25885, July 8, 1988, as amended at 74 FR 51744, Oct. 8, 2009]

§§ 2416.161-2416.169 [Reserved]
§ 2416.170 Compliance procedures.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section applies to all allegations of discrimination on the basis of disability in programs and activities conducted by the agency.

(b) The agency shall process complaints alleging violations of section 504 with respect to employment according to the procedures established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1614 pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791).

(c) The Director, Equal Employment Opportunity, shall be responsible for coordinating implementation of this section. Complaints may be sent to Director, Equal Employment Opportunity, Federal Labor Relations Authority, 1400 K Street, NW., Washington, DC 20424-0001.

(d) The agency shall accept and investigate all complete complaints for which it has jurisdiction. All complete complaints must be filed within 180 days of the alleged act of discrimination. The agency may extend this time period for good cause.

(e) If the agency receives a complaint over which it does not have jurisdiction, it shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate Government entity.

(f) The agency shall notify the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board upon receipt of any complaint alleging that a building or facility that is subject to the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157) is not readily accessible to and useable by individuals with disabilities.

(g) Within 180 days of the receipt of a complete complaint for which it has jurisdiction, the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter containing—

(1) Findings of fact and conclusions of law;

(2) A description of a remedy for each violation found; and

(3) A notice of the right to appeal.

(h) Appeals of the findings of fact and conclusions of law or remedies must be filed by the complainant within 90 days of receipt from the agency of the letter required by § 2416.170(g). The agency may extend this time for good cause.

(i) Timely appeals shall be accepted and processed by the head of the agency.

(j) The head of the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within 60 days of the receipt of the request. If the head of the agency determines that additional information is needed from the complainant, he or she shall have 60 days from the date of receipt of the additional information to make his or her determination on the appeal.

(k) The time limits cited in paragraphs (g) and (j) of this section may be extended with the permission of the Assistant Attorney General.

(l) The agency may delegate its authority for conducting complaint investigations to other Federal agencies, except that the authority for making the final determination may not be delegated to another agency.

[53 FR 25881, 25885, July 8, 1988, as amended at 53 FR 25881, July 8, 1988; 68 FR 10953, Mar. 7, 2003; 74 FR 51744, Oct. 8, 2009]

§§ 2416.171-2416.999 [Reserved]

PART 2417 TESTIMONY BY EMPLOYEES RELATING TO OFFICIAL INFORMATION AND PRODUCTION OF OFFICIAL RECORDS IN LEGAL PROCEEDINGS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 7105; 31 U.S.C. 9701; 44 U.S.C. 3101-3107.

Source: 74 FR 11640, Mar. 19, 2009, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General Provisions
§ 2417.101 Scope and purpose.

(a) These regulations establish policy, assign responsibilities and prescribe procedures with respect to:

(1) The production or disclosure of official information or records by employees, members, advisors, and consultants of the Federal Labor Relations Authority's (FLRA's) three-Member Authority component (the Authority), the Office of the General Counsel(the General Counsel), or the Federal Service Impasses Panel (the Panel); and

(2) The testimony of current and former employees, members, advisors, and consultants of the Authority, the General Counsel, or the Panel relating to official information, official duties, or official records, in connection with a legal proceeding on behalf of any party to a cause pending in civil federal or state litigation, including any proceeding before the FLRA or any other board, commission, or administrative agency of the United States.

(b) The FLRA intends these provisions to:

(1) Conserve employees' time for conducting official business;

(2) Minimize employees' involvement in issues unrelated to the FLRA's mission;

(3) Maintain employees' impartiality in disputes between private litigants; and

(4) Protect sensitive, confidential information and the integrity of the FLRA's administrative and deliberative processes.

(c) In providing for these requirements, the FLRA does not waive the sovereign immunity of the United States.

(d) This part provides guidance for the FLRA's internal operations. It does not create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, that a party may rely upon in any legal proceeding against the United States.

[74 FR 11640, Mar. 19, 2009,as amended at 81 FR 63362, Sept. 15, 2016]

§ 2417.102 Applicability.

This part applies to requests and demands to current and former employees, members, advisors, and consultants for factual or expert testimony relating to official information or official duties, or for production of official records or information, in civil legal proceedings. This part does not apply to:

(a) Requests for or demands upon an employee to testify as to facts or events that are unrelated to his or her official duties, or that are unrelated to the functions of the Authority, the General Counsel, or the Panel;

(b) Requests for or demands upon a former employee to testify as to matters in which the former employee was not directly or materially involved while at the Authority, the General Counsel, or the Panel;

(c) Requests for the release of records under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, or the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a;

(d) Congressional requests and demands for testimony, records, or information; or

(e) Requests or demands for testimony, records, or information by any Federal, state, or local agency in furtherance of an ongoing investigation of possible violations of criminal law.

[74 FR 11640, Mar. 19, 2009,as amended at 81 FR 63362, Sept. 15, 2016]

§ 2417.103 Definitions.

The following definitions apply to this part:

Demand means an order, subpoena, or other command of a court or other competent authority for the production, disclosure, or release of records, or for the appearance and testimony of an employee in a civil legal proceeding.

Employee means:

(1)(i) Any current or former employee or member of the Authority, the General Counsel, or the Panel;

(ii) Any other individual hired through contractual agreement by or on behalf of the Authority, the General Counsel, or the Panel, or who has performed or is performing services under such an agreement for the Authority, the General Counsel, or the Panel; and

(iii) Any individual who served or is serving in any consulting or advisory capacity to the Authority, the General Counsel, or the Panel, whether formal or informal.

(2) This definition does not include former FLRA employees who agree to testify about general matters, matters available to the public, or matters with which they had no specific involvement or responsibility during their employment with the FLRA.

Legal proceeding means any matter before a court of law, administrative board or tribunal, commission, administrative law judge, hearing officer, or other body that conducts a civil legal or administrative proceeding. Legal proceeding includes all phases of litigation.

Records or official records and information means all information in the custody and control of the Authority, the General Counsel, or the Panel, relating to information in the custody and control thereof, or acquired by an employee while in the performance of his or her official duties or because of his or her official status, while the individual was employed by or on behalf of the Authority, the General Counsel, or the Panel.

Request means any request, by whatever method, for the production of records and information or for testimony that has not been ordered by a court or other competent authority.

Requester means anyone who makes a request or demand under this part upon the FLRA.

Testimony means any written or oral statements, including depositions, answers to interrogatories, affidavits, declarations, interviews, and statements made by an individual in connection with a legal proceeding.

[81 FR 63362, Sept. 15, 2016]

Subpart B Requests or Demands for Testimony and Production of Documents
§ 2417.201 General prohibition and designation of the appropriate decision-maker.

(a) General prohibition. No employee or former employee of the Authority, the General Counsel, or the Panel may produce official records and information or provide any testimony relating to official information in response to a request or demand without the prior, written approval of the Chairman of the FLRA, the General Counsel, or the Chairman of the Panel, as appropriate.

(b) Appropriate decision-maker. (1) The Chairman of the FLRA, or his or her designee, determines whether to grant approval if the record requested or demanded is maintained by the FLRA's Authority component, or the person who is the subject of the request or demand is subject to the supervision or control of the FLRA's Authority component or was subject to such supervision or control when formerly employed at the FLRA.

(2) The General Counsel, or his or her designee, determines whether to grant approval if the record requested or demanded is maintained by the General Counsel, or the person who is the subject of the request or demand is subject to the supervision or control of the General Counsel or was subject to such supervision or control when formerly employed at the FLRA.

(3) The Chairman of the Panel, or his or her designee, determines whether to grant approval if the record requested or demanded is maintained by the Panel, or the person who is the subject of the request or demand is subject to the supervision or control of the Panel or was subject to such supervision or control when formerly employed at the FLRA.

[81 FR 63362, Sept. 15, 2016]

§ 2417.202 Factors that the decision-maker will consider.

The Chairman of the FLRA, the General Counsel, or the Chairman of the Panel, as appropriate, in his or her sole discretion, may grant an employee permission to testify on matters relating to official information, or produce official records and information, in response to a request or demand. Among the relevant factors that the Chairman of the FLRA, the General Counsel, or the Chairman of the Panel may consider in making this decision are whether:

(a) The purposes of this part are met;

(b) Allowing such testimony or production of records would be necessary to prevent a miscarriage of justice;

(c) Allowing such testimony or production of records would assist or hinder the FLRA in performing its statutory duties;

(d) Allowing such testimony or production of records would be in the best interest of the FLRA;

(e) The records or testimony can be obtained from other sources;

(f) The request or demand is unduly burdensome or otherwise inappropriate under the applicable rules of discovery or the rules of procedure governing the case or matter in which the request or demand arose;

(g) Disclosure would violate a statute, Executive Order or regulation;

(h) Disclosure would reveal confidential, sensitive, or privileged information; trade secrets or similar, confidential or financial information; otherwise protected information; or information that would otherwise be inappropriate for release;

(i) Disclosure would impede or interfere with an ongoing law-enforcement investigation or proceeding, or compromise constitutional rights or national-security interests;

(j) Disclosure would result in the FLRA appearing to favor one litigant over another;

(k) The request was served before the demand;

(l) A substantial Government interest is implicated;

(m) The request or demand is within the authority of the party making it;

(n) The request or demand is sufficiently specific to be answered; and

(o) Any other factor deemed relevant under the circumstances of the particular request or demand.

[74 FR 11640, Mar. 19, 2009,as amended at 81 FR 63363, Sept. 15, 2016]

§ 2417.203 Filing requirements for litigants seeking documents or testimony.

A requester must comply with the following requirements when filing a request or demand for official records and information or testimony under part 2417. Requesters should file a request before a demand.

(a) The request or demand must be in writing and must be submitted to the FLRA's Office of the Solicitor.

(b) The written request or demand must contain the following information:

(1) The caption of the legal proceeding, docket number, and name and address of the court or other authority involved;

(2) A copy of the complaint or equivalent document setting forth the assertions in the case and any other pleading or document necessary to show relevance;

(3) A list of categories of records sought, a detailed description of how the information sought is relevant to the issues in the legal proceeding, and a specific description of the substance of the testimony or records sought;

(4) A statement as to how the need for the information outweighs any need to maintain the confidentiality of the information and the burden on the FLRA to produce the records or provide testimony;

(5) A statement indicating that the information sought is not available from another source, from other persons or entities, or from the testimony of someone other than an employee, such as a retained expert;

(6) If testimony is sought, the intended use of the testimony, and a showing that no document could be provided and used in lieu of testimony;

(7) A description of all prior decisions, orders, or pending motions in the case that bear upon the relevance of the requested records or testimony;

(8) The name, address, and telephone number of counsel to each party in the case; and

(9) An estimate of the amount of time that the requester and other parties will require for each employee to prepare for testimony, to travel to the legal proceeding, and to attend the legal proceeding.

(c) The Office of the Solicitor reserves the right to require additional information to complete the request, where appropriate.

(d) Requesters should submit their request or demand at least 30 days before the date that records or testimony are required. Requests or demands submitted fewer than 30 days before records or testimony are required must be accompanied by a written explanation stating the reasons for the late request or demand and the reasons that would justify expedited processing.

(e) Failure to cooperate in good faith to enable the FLRA to make an informed decision may serve as the basis for a determination not to comply with the request or demand.

(f) The request or demand should state that the requester will provide a copy of the employee's statement at the expense of the requester and that the requester will permit the FLRA to have a representative present during the employee's testimony.

[74 FR 11640, Mar. 19, 2009, as amended at 81 FR 63362, Sept. 15, 2016]

§ 2417.204 Where to submit a request or demand.

(a) Requests or demands for official records, information, or testimony under this part must be served on the Office of the Solicitor at the following address: Office of the Solicitor, Federal Labor Relations Authority, 1400 K Street NW, Suite 300, Washington, DC 20424-0001; telephone: (771) 444-5775; fax: (202) 343-1007; or email: solmail@flra.gov. The request or demand must be sent by mail, fax, or email and clearly marked “Part 2417 Request for Testimony or Official Records in Legal Proceedings.”

(b) A person requesting public FLRA information and non-public FLRA information under this part may submit a combined request for both to the Office of the Solicitor. If a requester decides to submit a combined request under this section, the FLRA will process the combined request under this part and not under part 2411 (the FLRA's Freedom of Information Act regulations).

[81 FR 63363, Sept. 15, 2016, as amended at 89 11701, Feb. 15, 2024]

§ 2417.205 Consideration of requests or demands.

(a) After receiving service of a request or a demand for official records, information, or testimony, the appropriate decision-maker will review the request and, in accordance with the provisions of this part, determine whether, or under what conditions, to authorize the employee to testify on matters relating to official information and/or produce official records and information.

(b) Absent exigent circumstances, the appropriate decision-maker will issue a determination within 30 days from the date that it receives the request.

(c) The appropriate decision-maker may grant a waiver of any procedure described by this part where a waiver is considered necessary to promote a significant interest of the FLRA or the United States or for other good cause.

(d) The FLRA may certify that records are true copies in order to facilitate their use as evidence. If a requester seeks certification, the requester must request certified copies from the Office of the Solicitor at least 30 days before the date that they will be needed.

[81 FR 63363, Sept. 15, 2016]

§ 2417.206 Final determination.

The Chairman of the FLRA, the General Counsel, or the Chairman of the Panel, as appropriate, makes the final determination on demands or requests to employees thereof for production of official records and information or testimony in civil litigation under this part. All final determinations are within the sole discretion of the Chairman of the FLRA, the General Counsel, or the Chairman of the Panel, as appropriate. The appropriate decision-maker will notify the requester and, when appropriate, the court or other competent authority of the final determination, the reasons for the grant or denial of the request, and any conditions that may be imposed on the release of records or information, or on the testimony of an employee. This final determination exhausts administrative remedies for discovery of the information.

[81 FR 63363, Sept. 15, 2016]

§ 2417.207 Restrictions that apply to testimony.

(a) Conditions or restrictions may be imposed on the testimony of employees including, for example:

(1) Limiting the areas of testimony;

(2) Requiring the requester and other parties to the legal proceeding to agree that the transcript of the testimony will be kept under seal;

(3) Requiring that the transcript will be used or made available only in the particular legal proceeding for which testimony was requested. The requester may also be required to provide a copy of the transcript of testimony at the requester's expense.

(b) The employee's written declaration may be provided in lieu of testimony.

(c) If authorized to testify pursuant to this part, an employee may testify as to facts within his or her personal knowledge, but, unless specifically authorized to do so by the Chairman of the FLRA, the General Counsel, or the Chairman of the Panel, as appropriate, the employee shall not:

(1) Disclose confidential or privileged information; or

(2) For a current employee, testify as an expert or opinion witness with regard to any matter arising out of the employee's official duties or the functions of the FLRA unless testimony is being given on behalf of the United States (see also 5 CFR 2635.805).

(d) The scheduling of an employee's testimony, including the amount of time that the employee will be made available for testimony, will be subject to the approval of the Chairman of the FLRA, the General Counsel, or the Chairman of the Panel, as appropriate.

[74 FR 11640, Mar. 19, 2009, as amended at 81 FR 63364, Sept. 15, 2016]

§ 2417.208 Restrictions that apply to released records.

(a) The Chairman of the FLRA, the General Counsel, or the Chairman of the Panel, as appropriate may impose conditions or restrictions on the release of official records and information, including the requirement that parties to the proceeding obtain a protective order or execute a confidentiality agreement to limit access and any further disclosure. The terms of the protective order or of a confidentiality agreement must be acceptable to the Chairman of the FLRA, the General Counsel, or the Chairman of the Panel, as appropriate. In cases where protective orders or confidentiality agreements have already been executed, the Chairman of the FLRA, the General Counsel, or the Chairman of the Panel, as appropriate may condition the release of official records and information on an amendment to the existing protective order or confidentiality agreement.

(b) If the Chairman of the FLRA, the General Counsel, or the Chairman of the Panel, as appropriate so determines, original records may be presented for examination in response to a request, but they may not be presented as evidence or otherwise used in a manner by which they could lose their identity as official records, nor may they be marked or altered. In lieu of the original records, certified copies may be presented for evidentiary purposes.

[81 FR 63364, Sept. 15, 2016]

§ 2417.209 Procedure when a decision is not made before the time that a response is required.

If a response to a demand or request is required before the Chairman of the FLRA, the General Counsel, or the Chairman of the Panel can make the determination referred to in § 2417.206, the Chairman of the FLRA, the General Counsel, or the Chairman of the Panel, when necessary, will provide the court or other competent authority with a copy of this part, inform the court or other competent authority that the request is being reviewed, provide an estimate as to when a decision will be made, and seek a stay of the demand or request pending a final determination.

[81 FR 63364, Sept. 15, 2016]

§ 2417.210 Procedure in the event of an adverse ruling.

If the court or other competent authority fails to stay a demand or request, the employee upon whom the demand or request is made, unless otherwise advised by the Chairman of the FLRA, the General Counsel, or the Chairman of the Panel, as appropriate, will appear, if necessary, at the stated time and place, produce a copy of this part, state that the employee has been advised by counsel not to provide the requested testimony or produce documents, and respectfully decline to comply with the demand or request, citing United States ex rel. Touhy v. Ragen, 340 U.S. 462 (1951).

[81 FR 63364, Sept. 15, 2016]

Subpart C Schedule of Fees
§ 2417.301 Fees.

(a) Generally. The Chairman of the FLRA, the General Counsel, or the Chairman of the Panel, as appropriate, may condition the production of records or appearance for testimony upon advance payment of a reasonable estimate of the costs.

(b) Fees for records. Fees for producing records will include fees for searching, reviewing, and duplicating records; costs for employee time spent reviewing the request; and expenses generated by materials and equipment used to search for, produce, and copy the responsive information. The FLRA will calculate and charge these fees, costs, and expenses as it charges like fees and costs arising from requests made pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act regulations in part 2411 of this chapter.

(c) Witness fees. Fees for attendance by a witness will include fees, expenses, and allowances prescribed by the court's rules. If no such fees are prescribed, witness fees will be determined based upon the rule of the Federal district court closest to the location where the witness will appear and on 28 U.S.C. 1821, as applicable. Such fees will include costs for time spent by the witness to prepare for testimony, to travel to the legal proceeding, and to attend the legal proceeding.

(d) Payment of fees. A requester must pay witness fees for current employees and any record certification fees by submitting to the Office of the Solicitor a check or money order for the appropriate amount made payable to the Treasury of the United States. In the case of testimony of former employees, the requester must pay applicable fees directly to the former employee in accordance with 28 U.S.C. 1821 or other applicable statutes.

(e) Waiver or reduction of fees. The Chairman of the FLRA, the General Counsel, or the Chairman of the Panel, as appropriate, in his or her sole discretion, may, upon a showing of reasonable cause, waive or reduce any fees in connection with the testimony, production, or certification of records.

(f) De minimis fees. The FLRA will not assess fees if the total charge would be $10.00 or less.

[81 FR 63364, Sept. 15, 2016]

Subpart D Penalties
§ 2417.401 Penalties.

(a) An employee who discloses official records or information, or who gives testimony relating to official information, except as expressly authorized by the Chairman of the FLRA, the General Counsel, or the Chairman of the Panel, as appropriate, or as ordered by a Federal court after the FLRA has had the opportunity to be heard, may face the penalties provided in 18 U.S.C. 641 and other applicable laws. Additionally, former employees are subject to the restrictions and penalties of 18 U.S.C. 207 and 216.

(b) A current employee who testifies or produces official records and information in violation of this part may be subject to disciplinary action.

[74 FR 11640, Mar. 19, 2009, as amended at 81 FR 63364, Sept. 15, 2016]

PART 2418 FLRA DEBT COLLECTION

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 5514; 5 U.S.C. 5584; 5 U.S.C. 6402; 31 U.S.C. 3701, 3711; 3716, 3717, 3718, 3720A, 3720D.

Source: 80 FR 24780, May 1, 2015, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General Provisions
§ 2418.1 What definitions apply to the regulations in this part?

As used in this part:

Administrative offset or offset means withholding funds payable by the United States (including funds payable by the United States on behalf of a State Government) to, or held by the United States for, a person to satisfy a debt owed by the person. The term “administrative offset” includes, but is not limited to, the offset of Federal salary, vendor, retirement, and Social-Security-benefit payments. The terms “centralized administrative offset” and “centralized offset” refer to the process by which the Treasury Department's Financial Management Service offsets Federal payments through the Treasury Offset Program.

Administrative wage garnishment means the process by which a Federal agency orders a non-Federal employer to withhold amounts from a debtor's wages to satisfy a debt, as authorized by 31 U.S.C. 3720D, 31 CFR 285.11, and this part.

Agency or federal agency means a department, agency, court, court administrative office, or instrumentality in the executive, judicial, or legislative branch of the Federal Government, including government corporations.

Chairman means the Chairman of the FLRA or his or her designee.

Creditor agency means any Federal agency that is owed a debt.

Debt means any amount of money, funds, or property that has been determined by an appropriate official of the Federal Government to be owed to the United States by a person. As used in this part, the term “debt” does not include, as described in 31 U.S.C. 3701(d), debts arising under: The Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 1 et seq.); the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 301 et seq.), except to the extent provided under sections 204(f) and 1631(b)(4) of such Act [42 U.S.C. 404(f) and 1383(b)(4)] and section 3716(c) [31 U.S.C. 3716(c)], or the tariff laws of the United States.

Debtor means a person who owes a debt to the United States.

Delinquent debt means a debt that has not been paid by the date specified in the agency's initial written demand for payment or applicable agreement or instrument (including a post-delinquency payment agreement) unless other satisfactory payment arrangements have been made.

Delinquent FLRA debt means a delinquent debt owed to the FLRA.

Disposable pay has the same meaning as that term is defined in 5 CFR 550.1103.

Employee or Federal employee means a current employee of the FLRA or other Federal agency, including a current member of the Armed Forces, Reserve of the Armed Forces of the United States, or the National Guard.

Executive Director means the Executive Director of the FLRA or his or her designee.

FCCS means the Federal Claims Collection Standards, which were jointly published by the Departments of the Treasury and Justice and codified at 31 CFR parts 900 through 904.

Financial Management Service means the Financial Management Service, a bureau of the Treasury Department, which is responsible for the centralized collection of delinquent debts through the offset of Federal payments and other means.

FLRA means the Federal Labor Relations Authority and all of its components.

FLRA debt means a debt that a person owes the FLRA.

Payment agency or Federal payment agency means any Federal agency that transmits payment requests in the form of certified payment vouchers, or other similar forms, to a disbursing official for disbursement. The “payment agency” may be the agency that employs the debtor. In some cases, the FLRA may be both the creditor agency and the payment agency.

Person means an individual, corporation, partnership, association, organization, State or local government, or any other type of entity other than a Federal agency.

Salary offset means a type of administrative offset to collect, from the current pay account of a Federal employee, a debt that the employee owes.

Tax refund offset is defined in 31 CFR 285.2(a).

Treasury Department means the United States Department of the Treasury. Waiver means the cancellation, remission, forgiveness, or non-recovery of a debt allegedly owed by an employee to an agency as permitted or required by 5 U.S.C. 5584, 10 U.S.C. 2774, 32 U.S.C. 716, 5 U.S.C. 8346(b), 42 U.S.C. 404(b), or any other law.

§ 2418.2 Why is the FLRA issuing these regulations, and what do they cover?

(a) Scope. This part provides procedures for the collection of FLRA debts. This part also provides procedures for collection of other debts owed to the United States when the FLRA receives, from another agency, a request for offset of an FLRA payment (for example, when an FLRA employee owes a debt to the United States Department of Education).

(b) Applicability. (1) This part applies to the FLRA when collecting an FLRA debt, to persons who owe FLRA debts, and to Federal agencies requesting offset of a payment issued by the FLRA as a payment agency (including salary payments to FLRA employees).

(2) This part does not apply to tax debts or to any debt for which there is an indication of fraud or misrepresentation, as described in 31 CFR 900.3 of the FCCS, unless the Department of Justice returns the debt to the FLRA for handling.

(3) Nothing in this part precludes collection or disposition of any debt under statutes and regulations other than those described in this part. See, for example, 5 U.S.C. 5705, Advancements and Deductions, which authorizes agencies to recover travel advances by offset of up to 100% of a Federal employee's accrued pay. See, also, 5 U.S.C. 4108, governing the collection of training expenses. To the extent that the provisions of laws and other regulations differ from the provisions of this part, those provisions of law and other regulations—and not the provisions of this part—apply to the remission or mitigation of fines, penalties, and forfeitures, as well as debts arising under the tariff laws of the United States.

(c) Duplication not required. Nothing in this part requires the FLRA to duplicate notices or administrative proceedings required by contract, this part, or other laws or regulations.

(d) Use of multiple collection remedies allowed. The FLRA and other Federal agencies may simultaneously use multiple collection remedies to collect a debt, except as prohibited by law. This part is intended to promote aggressive debt collection, using for each debt all available collection remedies. These remedies are not listed in any prescribed order, so that the FLRA may have flexibility in determining which remedies will be most efficient in collecting the particular debt.

§ 2418.3 Do these regulations adopt the Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS)?

This part adopts and incorporates all provisions of the FCCS. This part also supplements the FCCS by prescribing procedures consistent with the FCCS, as necessary and appropriate for FLRA operations.

Subpart B Procedures to Collect FLRA Debts
§ 2418.4 What notice will the FLRA send to a debtor when collecting an FLRA debt?

(a) Notice requirements. The FLRA shall aggressively collect FLRA debts. The FLRA shall promptly send at least one written notice to a debtor informing the debtor of the consequences of failing to pay or otherwise resolve an FLRA debt. The notice(s) shall be sent to the debtor at the most current address of the debtor in the FLRA's records. Generally, before starting the collection actions described in §§ 2418.5 and 2418.9 through 2418.16, the FLRA will send no more than two written notices to the debtor. The purpose of the notice(s) is to explain why the debt is owed, the amount of the debt, how a debtor may pay the debt or make alternative payment arrangements, how a debtor may review documents related to the debt, how a debtor may dispute the debt, the collection remedies available to the FLRA if the debtor refuses to pay the debt, and other consequences to the debtor if the debt is not paid. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the written notice(s) shall explain to the debtor:

(1) The nature and amount of the debt, and the facts giving rise to the debt;

(2) How interest, penalties, and administrative costs are added to the debt, the date by which payment should be made to avoid such charges, and that such assessments must be made unless excused in accordance with 31 CFR 901.9 (see § 2418.5);

(3) The date by which payment should be made to avoid the enforced collection actions described in paragraph (a)(6) of this section;

(4) The FLRA's willingness to discuss alternative payment arrangements and how the debtor may enter into a written agreement to repay the debt under terms acceptable to the FLRA (see § 2418.6);

(5) The name, address, and telephone number of a contact person or office within the FLRA;

(6) The FLRA's intention to enforce collection if the debtor fails to pay or otherwise resolve the debt, by taking one or more of the following actions:

(i) Offset. Offset the debtor's Federal payments, including income-tax refunds, salary, certain benefit payments (such as Social Security), retirement, vendor, travel reimbursements and advances, and other Federal payments (see §§ 2418.10 through 2418.12);

(ii) Private collection agency. Refer the debt to a private collection agency (see § 2418.15);

(iii) Credit-bureau reporting. Report the debt to a credit bureau (see § 2418.14);

(iv) Administrative wage garnishment. Garnish the debtor's wages through administrative wage garnishment (see § 2418.13);

(v) Litigation. Refer the debt to the Department of Justice to initiate litigation to collect the debt (see § 2418.16);

(vi) Treasury Department's Financial Management Service. Refer the debt to the Financial Management Service for collection (see § 2418.9);

(7) That Treasury debts over 180 days delinquent must be referred to the Financial Management Service for the collection actions described in paragraph (a)(6) of this section (see § 2418.9);

(8) How the debtor may inspect and copy records related to the debt;

(9) How the debtor may request a review of the FLRA's determination that the debtor owes a debt and present evidence that the debt is not delinquent or legally enforceable (see §§ 2418.10(c) and 2418.11(c));

(10) How a debtor may request a hearing if the FLRA intends to garnish the debtor's private-sector (i.e., non-Federal) wages (see § 2418.13(a)), including:

(i) The method and time period for requesting a hearing;

(ii) That the timely filing of a request for a hearing on or before the 15th business day following the date of the notice will stay the commencement of administrative wage garnishment, but not necessarily other collection procedures; and

(iii) The name and address of the office to which the request for a hearing should be sent.

(11) How a debtor who is a Federal employee subject to Federal salary offset may request a hearing (see § 2418.12(e)), including:

(i) The method and time period for requesting a hearing;

(ii) That the timely filing of a request for a hearing on or before the 15th calendar day following receipt of the notice will stay the commencement of salary offset, but not necessarily other collection procedures;

(iii) The name and address of the office to which the request for a hearing should be sent;

(iv) That the FLRA will refer the debt to the debtor's employing agency or to the Financial Management Service to implement salary offset, unless the employee files a timely request for a hearing;

(v) That a final decision on the hearing, if requested, will be issued at the earliest practical date, but not later than 60 days after the filing of the request for a hearing, unless the employee requests and the hearing official grants a delay in the proceedings;

(vi) That any knowingly false or frivolous statements, representations, or evidence may subject the Federal employee to penalties under the False Claims Act (31 U.S.C. 3729-3731) or other applicable statutory authority, and criminal penalties under 18 U.S.C. 286, 287, 1001, and 1002, or other applicable statutory authority;

(vii) That, unless prohibited by contract or statute, amounts paid on or deducted for the debt that are later waived or found not owed to the United States will be promptly refunded to the employee; and

(viii) That 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 31 U.S.C. 3716 govern proceedings with respect to such debt.

(12) How the debtor may request a waiver of the debt, if applicable (see Appendix A of this part);

(13) How the debtor's spouse may claim his or her share of a joint-income-tax refund by filing Form 8379 with the Internal Revenue Service (see http://www.irs.gov);

(14) How the debtor may exercise other statutory or regulatory rights and remedies available to the debtor;

(15) That an employee's involuntary payment of all or any portion of a debt being collected will not be construed as a waiver of any rights that the employee may have under any provision of contract or law, unless there are statutory, regulatory, or contractual provisions to the contrary; and

(16) That the debtor should advise the FLRA of a bankruptcy proceeding of the debtor or another person liable for the debt being collected.

(b) Exceptions to notice requirements. The FLRA may omit from a notice to a debtor one or more of the provisions contained in paragraphs (a)(6) through (16) of this section if the FLRA, in consultation with its legal counsel, determines that any provision is not legally required given the collection remedies to be applied to a particular debt.

(c) Respond to debtors; comply with FCCS. The FLRA will respond promptly to communications from debtors and comply with other FCCS provisions applicable to the administrative collection of debts. See 31 CFR part 901.

§ 2418.5 How will the FLRA add interest, penalty charges, and administrative costs to an FLRA debt?

(a) Assessment and notice. The FLRA shall assess interest, penalties, and administrative costs on FLRA debts in accordance with the provisions of 31 U.S.C. 3717 and 31 CFR 901.9. Interest shall be charged in accordance with the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3717(a). Penalties shall accrue at the rate of 6% per year, or such other higher rate as authorized by law. The FLRA shall determine administrative costs, that is, the costs of processing and handling a delinquent debt. In the notice to the debtor described in § 2418.4, the FLRA must explain how interest, penalties, costs, and other charges are assessed, unless the requirements are included in a contract or repayment agreement.

(b) Waiver of interest, penalties, and administrative costs. Unless otherwise required by law, the FLRA may not charge interest if the amount due on the debt is paid within 30 days after the date from which the interest accrues. See 31 U.S.C. 3717(d). The FLRA may waive interest, penalties, and administrative costs, or any portion thereof, when it would be against equity and good conscience or not in the FLRA's best interest to collect such charges, in accordance with FLRA guidelines for waiving claims against FLRA employees for erroneous overpayments. See appendix A of this part.

(c) Accrual during suspension of debt collection. In most cases, interest, penalties, and administrative costs will begin and continue to accrue 30 days after notice is given to the employee and during any period when collection has been suspended for any reason (for example, when the debtor has requested a hearing). The FLRA may suspend accrual of any or all of these charges when accrual would be against equity and good conscience or not in the FLRA's best interest, in accordance with FLRA guidelines for waiving claims against FLRA employees for erroneous overpayments. See appendix A of this part.

§ 2418.6 When will the FLRA allow a debtor to pay an FLRA debt in installments instead of one lump sum?

If a debtor is financially unable to pay the debt in one lump sum, then the FLRA may accept payment of an FLRA debt in regular installments, in accordance with 31 CFR 901.8.

§ 2418.7 When will the FLRA compromise an FLRA debt?

If the FLRA cannot collect the full amount of an FLRA debt, then the FLRA may compromise the debt in accordance with 31 CFR part 902.

§ 2418.8 When will the FLRA suspend or terminate debt collection on an FLRA debt?

If, after pursuing all appropriate means of collection, the FLRA determines that an FLRA debt is uncollectible, then the FLRA may suspend or terminate debt-collection activity in accordance with the provisions of 31 CFR part 903 and the FLRA's policies and procedures.

§ 2418.9 When will the FLRA transfer an FLRA debt to the Treasury Department's Financial Management Service for collection?

(a) The FLRA will transfer any eligible debt that is more than 180 days delinquent to the Financial Management Service for debt-collection services, a process known as “cross-servicing.” See 31 U.S.C. 3711(g) and 31 CFR 285.12. The FLRA may transfer debts delinquent 180 days or less to the Financial Management Service in accordance with the procedures described in 31 CFR 285.12. The Financial Management Service takes appropriate action to collect or compromise the transferred debt, or to suspend or terminate collection action thereon, in accordance with the statutory and regulatory requirements and authorities applicable to the debt and the collection action to be taken. See 31 CFR 285.12(c)(2). Appropriate action includes, but is not limited to: Contact with the debtor; referral of the debt to the Treasury Offset Program, private collection agencies, or the Department of Justice; reporting of the debt to credit bureaus; and administrative wage garnishment.

(b) At least sixty (60) days before transferring an FLRA debt to the Financial Management Service, the FLRA will send notice to the debtor as required by § 2418.4. The FLRA will certify to the Financial Management Service, in writing, that the debt is valid, delinquent, legally enforceable, and that there are no legal bars to collection. In addition, the FLRA will certify its compliance with all applicable due-process and other requirements as described in this part and other Federal laws. See 31 CFR 285.12(i) regarding the certification requirement.

(c) As part of its debt-collection process, the Financial Management Service uses the Treasury Offset Program to collect Treasury debts by administrative and tax-refund offset. See 31 CFR 285.12(g). The Treasury Offset Program is a centralized offset program administered by the Financial Management Service to collect delinquent debts owed to Federal agencies and states (including past-due child support). Under the Treasury Offset Program, before a Federal payment is disbursed, the Financial Management Service compares the name and taxpayer identification number (TIN) of the payee with the names and TINs of debtors that have been submitted by Federal agencies and states to the Treasury Offset Program database. If there is a match, the Financial Management Service (or, in some cases, another Federal disbursing agency) offsets all or a portion of the Federal payment, disburses any remaining payment to the payee, and pays the offset amount to the creditor agency. Federal payments eligible for offset include, but are not limited to, income-tax refunds, salary, travel advances and reimbursements, retirement and vendor payments, and Social Security and other benefit payments.

§ 2418.10 How will the FLRA use administrative offset (offset of non-tax Federal payments) to collect an FLRA debt?

(a) Centralized administrative offset through the Treasury Offset Program. (1) In most cases, the Financial Management Service uses the Treasury Offset Program to collect Treasury debts by the offset of Federal payments. See § 2418.9(c). If not already transferred to the Financial Management Service under § 2418.9, the FLRA will refer any eligible debt over 180 days delinquent to the Treasury Offset Program for collection by centralized administrative offset. See 31 U.S.C. 3716(c)(6); 31 CFR part 285, subpart A; and 31 CFR 901.3(b). The FLRA may refer any eligible debt less than 180 days delinquent to the Treasury Offset Program for offset.

(2) At least sixty (60) days prior to referring a debt to the Treasury Offset Program, in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the FLRA will send notice to the debtor in accordance with the requirements of § 2418.4. The FLRA will certify to the Financial Management Service, in writing, that the debt is valid, delinquent, legally enforceable, and that there are no legal bars to collection by offset. In addition, the FLRA will certify its compliance with the requirements described in this part.

(b) Non-centralized administrative offset for FLRA debts. (1) When centralized administrative offset through the Treasury Offset Program is not available or appropriate, the FLRA may collect past-due, legally enforceable FLRA debts through non-centralized administrative offset. See 31 CFR 901.3(c). In these cases, the FLRA may offset a payment internally or make an offset request directly to a Federal payment agency.

(2) At least thirty (30) days prior to offsetting a payment internally or requesting a Federal payment agency to offset a payment, the FLRA will send notice to the debtor in accordance with the requirements of § 2418.4. (For debts outstanding more than ten (10) years on or before June 11, 2009, the FLRA will comply with the additional notification requirements of 31 CFR 285.7(d).) When referring a debt for offset under this paragraph (b), the FLRA will certify, in writing, that the debt is valid, delinquent, legally enforceable, and that there are no legal bars to collection by offset. In addition, the FLRA will certify its compliance with these regulations concerning administrative offset. See 31 CFR 901.3(c)(2)(ii).

(c) Administrative review. The notice described in § 2418.4 shall explain to the debtor how to request an administrative review of the FLRA's determination that the debtor owes an FLRA debt and how to present evidence that the debt is not delinquent or legally enforceable. In addition to challenging the existence and amount of the debt, the debtor may seek a review of the terms of repayment. In most cases, the FLRA will provide the debtor with a “paper hearing” based upon a review of the written record, including documentation provided by the debtor. The FLRA shall provide the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing when the debtor requests reconsideration of the debt and the FLRA determines that the question of the indebtedness cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence, for example, when the validity of the debt turns on an issue of credibility or veracity. Unless otherwise required by law, an oral hearing under this section is not required to be a formal evidentiary hearing, although the FLRA will carefully document all significant matters discussed at the hearing. The FLRA may suspend collection through administrative offset and/or other collection actions pending the resolution of a debtor's dispute.

(d) Procedures for expedited offset. Under the circumstances described in 31 CFR 901.3(b)(4)(iii), the FLRA may effect an offset against a payment to be made to the debtor prior to sending a notice to the debtor, as described in § 2418.4, or completing the procedures described in paragraph (b)(2) and (c) of this section. The FLRA shall give the debtor notice and an opportunity for review as soon as practicable and promptly refund any money ultimately found not to have been owed to the Government.

§ 2418.11 How will the FLRA use tax-refund offset to collect an FLRA debt?

(a) Tax-refund offset. In most cases, the Financial Management Service uses the Treasury Offset Program to collect FLRA debts by the offset of tax refunds and other Federal payments. See § 2418.9(c). If not already transferred to the Financial Management Service under § 2418.9, the FLRA will refer to the Treasury Offset Program any past-due, legally enforceable debt for collection by tax-refund offset. See 26 U.S.C. 6402(d), 31 U.S.C. 3720A and 31 CFR 285.2.

(b) Notice. At least sixty (60) days before referring a debt to the Treasury Offset Program, the FLRA will send notice to the debtor in accordance with the requirements of § 2418.4. The FLRA will certify to the Financial Management Service's Treasury Offset Program, in writing, that the debt is past due and legally enforceable in the amount submitted and that the FLRA has made reasonable efforts to obtain payment of the debt as described in 31 CFR 285.2(d). In addition, the FLRA will certify its compliance with all applicable due-process and other requirements described in this part and other Federal laws. See 31 U.S.C. 3720A(b) and 31 CFR 285.2.

(c) Administrative review. The notice described in § 2418.4 shall provide the debtor with at least 60 days prior to the initiation of tax-refund offset to request an administrative review as described in § 2418.10(c). The FLRA may suspend collection through tax-refund offset and/or other collection actions pending the resolution of the debtor's dispute.

§ 2418.12 How will the FLRA offset a Federal employee's salary to collect an FLRA debt?

(a) Federal salary offset. (1) Salary offset is used to collect debts that FLRA employees and other Federal employees owe to the United States. If a Federal employee owes an FLRA debt, then the FLRA may offset the employee's Federal salary to collect the debt in the manner described in this section. For information on how a Federal agency other than the FLRA may collect debt from the salary of an FLRA employee, see §§ 2418.19 and 2418.20.

(2) Nothing in this part requires the FLRA to collect an FLRA debt in accordance with this section if Federal law allows otherwise. See, for example, 5 U.S.C. 5705 (travel advances not used for allowable travel expenses are recoverable from the employee or his estate by setoff against accrued pay and other means) and 5 U.S.C. 4108 (recovery of training expenses).

(3) The FLRA may use the administrative-wage-garnishment procedure described in § 2418.13 to collect a debt from an individual's non-Federal wages.

(b) Centralized salary offset through the Treasury Offset Program. As described in § 2418.9(a), the FLRA will refer FLRA debts to the Financial Management Service for collection by administrative offset, including salary offset, through the Treasury Offset Program. When possible, the FLRA will attempt salary offset through the Treasury Offset Program before applying the procedures in paragraph (c) of this section. See 5 CFR 550.1109.

(c) Non-centralized salary offset for FLRA debts. When centralized salary offset through the Treasury Offset Program is not available or appropriate, the FLRA may collect delinquent FLRA debts through non-centralized salary offset. See 5 CFR 550.1109. In these cases, the FLRA may offset a payment internally or make a request directly to a Federal payment agency to offset a salary payment to collect a delinquent debt that a Federal employee owes. At least thirty (30) days prior to offsetting internally or requesting a Federal agency to offset a salary payment, the FLRA will send notice to the debtor in accordance with the requirements of § 2418.4. (For debts outstanding more than ten (10) years on or before June 11, 2009, the FLRA will comply with the additional notification requirements of 31 CFR 285.7(d).) When referring a debt for offset, the FLRA will certify to the payment agency, in writing, that the debt is valid, delinquent, and legally enforceable in the amount stated, and that there are no legal bars to collection by salary offset. In addition, the FLRA will certify that all due-process and other prerequisites to salary offset have been met. See 5 U.S.C. 5514, 31 U.S.C. 3716(a), and this section for a description of the due-process and other prerequisites for salary offset.

(d) When prior notice not required. The FLRA is not required to provide prior notice to an employee when the FLRA makes the following adjustments to an FLRA employee's pay:

(1) Any adjustment to pay arising out of any employee's election of coverage or a change in coverage under a Federal-benefits program requiring periodic deductions from pay, if the amount to be recovered was accumulated over four pay periods or less;

(2) A routine intra-agency adjustment of pay that is made to correct an overpayment of pay attributable to clerical or administrative errors or delays in processing pay documents, if the overpayment occurred within the four pay periods preceding the adjustment, and, at the time of such adjustment, or as soon thereafter as practical, the individual is provided written notice of the nature and the amount of the adjustment and the point of contact for contesting such adjustment; or

(3) Any adjustment to collect a debt amounting to $ 50 or less, if, at the time of such adjustment, or as soon thereafter as practical, the individual is provided written notice of the nature and the amount of the adjustment and a point of contact for contesting such adjustment.

(e) Hearing procedures—(1) Request for a hearing. A Federal employee who has received a notice that his or her FLRA debt will be collected by means of salary offset may request a hearing concerning the existence or amount of the debt. The Federal employee also may request a hearing concerning the amount proposed to be deducted from the employee's pay each pay period. The employee must send any request for hearing, in writing, to the office designated in the notice described in § 2418.4. See § 2418.4(a)(11). The request must be received by the designated office on or before the 15th calendar day following the employee's receipt of the notice. The employee must sign the request and specify whether an oral or paper hearing is requested. If an oral hearing is requested, then the employee must explain why the matter cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence alone. An oral hearing may, at the debtor's option, be conducted either in-person or by telephone conference. All travel expenses incurred by the Federal employee in connection with an in-person hearing will be borne by the employee. All telephonic charges incurred during the hearing will be the responsibility of the agency.

(2) Failure to submit timely request for hearing. If the employee fails to submit a request for hearing within the time period described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, then the employee will have waived the right to a hearing, and salary offset may be initiated. However, the FLRA will accept a late request for hearing if the employee can show that the late request was the result of circumstances beyond the employee's control or because of a failure to receive actual notice of the filing deadline.

(3) Hearing official. The FLRA must obtain the services of a hearing official who is not under the supervision or control of the Chairman. The FLRA may contact an agent of any agency designated in appendix A to 5 CFR part 581 (List of Agents Designated to Accept Legal Process) to request a hearing official.

(4) Notice of hearing. After the employee requests a hearing, the designated hearing official shall inform the employee of the form of the hearing to be provided. For oral hearings, the notice shall set forth the date, time, and location of the hearing. For paper hearings, the notice shall notify the employee of the date by which he or she should submit written arguments to the designated hearing official. The hearing official shall give the employee reasonable time to submit documentation in support of the employee's position. The hearing official shall schedule a new hearing date if requested by both parties. The hearing official shall give both parties reasonable notice of the time and place of a rescheduled hearing.

(5) Oral hearing. The hearing official will conduct an oral hearing if he or she determines that the matter cannot be resolved by review of documentary evidence alone (for example, when an issue of credibility or veracity is involved). The hearing need not take the form of an evidentiary hearing, but may be conducted in a manner determined by the hearing official, including but not limited to:

(i) Informal conferences with the hearing official, in which the employee and agency representative will be given full opportunity to present evidence, witnesses, and argument;

(ii) Informal meetings with an interview of the employee by the hearing official; or

(iii) Formal written submissions, with an opportunity for oral presentation.

(6) Paper hearing. If the hearing official determines that an oral hearing is not necessary, then he or she will make the determination based upon a review of the available written record, including any documentation submitted by the employee in support of his or her position.

(7) Failure to appear or submit documentary evidence. In the absence of good cause shown (for example, excused illness), if the employee fails to appear at an oral hearing or fails to submit documentary evidence as required for a paper hearing, then the employee will have waived the right to a hearing, and salary offset shall be initiated. If the FLRA representative fails to appear at an oral hearing, then the hearing official shall proceed with the hearing as scheduled, and make his or her determination based upon the oral testimony presented and the documentary evidence submitted by both parties.

(8) Burden of proof. The FLRA will have the initial burden to prove the existence and amount of the debt. Thereafter, if the employee disputes the existence or amount of the debt, then the employee must prove by a preponderance of the evidence that no debt exists or that the amount of the debt is incorrect. In addition, the employee may present evidence that the proposed terms of the repayment schedule are unlawful, would cause a financial hardship to the employee, or that collection of the debt may not be pursued due to operation of law.

(9) Record. The hearing official shall maintain a summary record of any hearing provided by this part. Witnesses will testify under oath or affirmation in oral hearings.

(10) Date of decision. The hearing official shall issue a written opinion stating his or her decision, based upon documentary evidence and information developed at the hearing, as soon as practicable after the hearing, but not later than 60 days after the date on which the FLRA received the request for hearing. If the employee requests a delay in the proceedings, then the deadline for the decision may be postponed by the number of days by which the hearing was postponed. When a decision is not timely rendered, the FLRA shall waive penalties applied to the debt for the period beginning with the date the decision is due and ending on the date the decision is issued.

(11) Content of decision. The written decision shall include:

(i) A statement of the facts presented to support the origin, nature, and amount of the debt;

(ii) The hearing official's findings, analysis, and conclusions; and

(iii) The terms of any repayment schedules, if applicable.

(12) Final agency action. The hearing official's decision shall be final.

(f) Waiver not precluded. Nothing in this part precludes an employee from requesting waiver of an overpayment under 5 U.S.C. 5584 or 8346(b), 10 U.S.C. 2774, 32 U.S.C. 716, or other statutory authority.

(g) Salary-offset process—(1) Determination of disposable pay. The FLRA's Office of the Executive Director will determine the amount of an FLRA employee's disposable pay (as defined in § 2418.1) and will implement salary offset when requested to do so by the FLRA, as described in paragraph (c) of this section, or another agency, as described in § 2418.19. If the debtor is not employed by the FLRA, then the agency employing the debtor will determine the amount of the employee's disposable pay and will implement salary offset upon request.

(2) When salary offset begins. Deductions shall normally begin within three official pay periods following receipt of the creditor agency's request for offset.

(3) Amount of salary offset. The amount to be offset from each salary payment will be up to 15 percent of a debtor's disposable pay, as follows:

(i) If the amount of the debt is equal to or less than 15 percent of the disposable pay, then such debt generally will be collected in one lump-sum payment;

(ii) Installment deductions will be made over a period of no greater than the anticipated period of employment. An installment deduction will not exceed 15 percent of the disposable pay from which the deduction is made unless the employee has agreed in writing to the deduction of a greater amount, or a higher deduction has been ordered by a court under section 124 of Public Law 97-276 (96 Stat. 1195), or the creditor agency has determined that smaller deductions are appropriate based on the employee's ability to pay.

(4) Final salary payment. After the employee has separated either voluntarily or involuntarily from the payment agency, the payment agency may make a lump-sum deduction exceeding 15 percent of disposable pay from any final salary or other payments pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716 in order to satisfy a debt.

(h) Payment agency's responsibilities. (1) As required by 5 CFR 550.1109, if the employee separates from the payment agency from which the FLRA has requested salary offset, then the payment agency must certify the total amount of its collection and notify the FLRA and the employee of the amounts collected. If the payment agency is aware that the employee is entitled to payments from the Civil Service Retirement Fund and Disability Fund, the Federal Employee Retirement System, or other similar payments, then it must provide written notification to the payment agency responsible for making such payments that the debtor owes a debt, the amount of the debt, and that the FLRA has complied with the provisions of this section. The FLRA must submit a properly certified claim to the new payment agency before the collection can be made.

(2) If the employee is already separated from employment and all payments due from his or her former payment agency have been made, then the FLRA may request that money due and payable to the employee from the Civil Service Retirement Fund and Disability Fund, the Federal Employee Retirement System, or other similar funds, be administratively offset to collect the debt. Generally, the FLRA will collect such monies through the Treasury Offset Program as described in § 2418.9(c).

(3) When an employee transfers to another agency, the FLRA should resume collection with the employee's new payment agency in order to continue salary offset.

§ 2418.13 How will the FLRA use administrative wage garnishment to collect an FLRA debt from a debtor's wages?

(a) The FLRA is authorized to collect debts from a debtor's wages by means of administrative wage garnishment in accordance with the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3720D and 31 CFR 285.11. This part adopts and incorporates all of the provisions of 31 CFR 285.11 concerning administrative wage garnishment, including the hearing procedures described in 31 CFR 285.11(f). The FLRA may use administrative wage garnishment to collect a delinquent FLRA debt unless the debtor is making timely payments under an agreement to pay the debt in installments (see § 2418.6). At least thirty (30) days before initiating an administrative wage garnishment, the FLRA will send notice to the debtor in accordance with the requirements of § 2418.4 of this part, including the requirements of § 2418.4(a)(10). (For debts outstanding more than ten (10) years on or before June 11, 2009, the FLRA will comply with the additional notification requirements of 31 CFR 285.7(d).) For FLRA debts referred to the Financial Management Service under § 2418.9, the FLRA may authorize the Financial Management Service to send a notice informing the debtor that administrative wage garnishment will be initiated and how the debtor may request a hearing as described in § 2418.4(a)(10). If a debtor makes a timely request for a hearing, administrative wage garnishment will not begin until a hearing is held and a decision is sent to the debtor. See 31 CFR 285.11(f)(4). If a debtor's hearing request is not timely, then the FLRA may suspend collection by administrative wage garnishment in accordance with the provisions of 31 CFR 285.11(f)(5). All travel expenses incurred by the debtor in connection with an in-person hearing will be borne by the debtor. If a hearing is conducted telephonically, all telephonic charges incurred during the hearing will be the responsibility of the agency.

(b) This section does not apply to Federal salary offset, the process by which the FLRA collects debts from the salaries of Federal employees (see § 2418.12).

§ 2418.14 How will the FLRA report FLRA debts to credit bureaus?

The FLRA shall report delinquent FLRA debts to credit bureaus in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3711(e), 31 CFR 901.4, and the Office of Management and Budget Circular A-129, “Policies for Federal Credit Programs and Nontax Receivables.” For additional information, see Financial Management Service's “Guide to the Federal Credit Bureau Program,” which may be found at http://www.fms.treas.gov/debt. At least sixty (60) days prior to reporting a delinquent debt to a consumer-reporting agency, the FLRA will send notice to the debtor in accordance with the requirements of § 2418.4. Before disclosing information to a consumer-reporting agency, the FLRA shall provide, on request of a person alleged to be responsible for the delinquent debt, for a review of the obligation of the debtor, including an opportunity for reconsideration of the initial decision on the debt. The FLRA may authorize the Financial Management Service to report to credit bureaus those delinquent FLRA debts that have been transferred to the Financial Management Service under § 2418.9.

§ 2418.15 How will the FLRA refer FLRA debts to private collection agencies?

The FLRA will transfer delinquent FLRA debts to the Financial Management Service to obtain debt-collection services provided by private collection agencies. See § 2418.9.

§ 2418.16 When will the FLRA refer FLRA debts to the Department of Justice?

(a) Compromise or suspension or termination of collection activity. The FLRA shall refer FLRA debts having a principal balance over $ 100,000, or such higher amount as authorized by the Attorney General, to the Department of Justice for approval of any compromise of a debt or suspension or termination of collection activity. See §§ 2418.7 and 2418.8; 31 CFR 902.1; 31 CFR 903.1.

(b) Litigation. The FLRA shall promptly refer to the Department of Justice for litigation delinquent FLRA debts on which aggressive collection activity has been taken in accordance with this part and that should not be compromised, and on which collection activity should not be suspended or terminated. See 31 CFR part 904. The FLRA may authorize the Financial Management Service to refer to the Department of Justice for litigation those delinquent FLRA debts that have been transferred to the Financial Management Service under § 2418.9.

§ 2418.17 How does a debtor request a special review based on a change in circumstances such as catastrophic illness, divorce, death, or disability?

(a) Material change in circumstances. A debtor who owes an FLRA debt may, at any time, request a special review by the FLRA of the amount of any offset, administrative wage garnishment, or voluntary payment, based on materially changed circumstances beyond the control of the debtor such as, but not limited to, catastrophic illness, divorce, death, or disability.

(b) Inability to pay. For purposes of this section, in determining whether an involuntary or voluntary payment would prevent the debtor from meeting essential subsistence expenses (costs incurred for food, housing, clothing, transportation, and medical care), the debtor shall submit a detailed statement and supporting documents for the debtor, his or her spouse, and dependents, indicating:

(1) Income from all sources;

(2) Assets;

(3) Liabilities;

(4) Number of dependents;

(5) Expenses for food, housing, clothing, and transportation;

(6) Child-care or elder-care expenses;

(7) Medical expenses; and

(8) Exceptional expenses, if any.

(c) Alternative payment arrangement. If the debtor requests a special review under this section, the debtor shall submit an alternative proposed payment schedule and a statement to the FLRA, with supporting documents, showing why the current offset, garnishment, or repayment schedule imposes an extreme financial hardship on the debtor. The FLRA will evaluate the statement and documentation and determine whether the current offset, garnishment, or repayment schedule imposes extreme financial hardship on the debtor. The FLRA shall notify the debtor in writing of such determination, including, if appropriate, a revised offset, garnishment, or payment schedule. If the special review results in a revised offset, garnishment, or repayment schedule, then the FLRA will notify the appropriate agency or other persons about the new terms.

§ 2418.18 Will the FLRA issue a refund if money is erroneously collected on a debt?

The FLRA shall promptly refund to a debtor any amount collected on an FLRA debt when the debt is waived or otherwise found not to be owed to the United States, or as otherwise required by law. Refunds under this part shall not bear interest unless required by law.

Subpart C Procedures for Offset of FLRA Payments to Collect Debts Owed to Other Federal Agencies
§ 2418.19 How do other Federal agencies use the offset process to collect debts from payments issued by the FLRA?

(a) Offset of FLRA payments to collect debts owed to other Federal agencies. (1) In most cases, Federal agencies submit eligible debts to the Treasury Offset Program to collect delinquent debts from payments issued by the FLRA and other Federal agencies, a process known as “centralized offset.” When centralized offset is not available or appropriate, any Federal agency may ask the FLRA (when acting as a “payment agency”) to collect a debt owed to such agency by offsetting funds payable to a debtor by the FLRA, including salary payments issued to FLRA employees. This section and § 2418.20 apply when a Federal agency asks the FLRA to offset a payment issued by the FLRA to a person who owes a debt to the United States.

(2) This subpart does not apply to FLRA debts. See §§ 2418.10 through 2418.12 for offset procedures applicable to FLRA debts.

(3) This subpart does not apply to the collection of non-FLRA debts through tax refund offset. See 31 CFR 285.2 for tax-refund-offset procedures.

(b) Administrative offset (including salary offset); certification. The FLRA will initiate a requested offset only upon receipt of written certification from the creditor agency that the debtor owes the past-due, legally enforceable debt in the amount stated, and that the creditor agency has fully complied with all applicable due-process and other requirements contained in 31 U.S.C. 3716, 5 U.S.C. 5514, and the creditor agency's regulations, as applicable. Offsets will continue until the debt is paid in full or otherwise resolved to the satisfaction of the creditor agency.

(c) Where a creditor agency makes requests for offset. Requests for offset under this section shall be sent to the Federal Labor Relations Authority, ATTN: Office of the Executive Director, 1400 K Street NW., Washington, DC 20424.

(d) Incomplete certification. The FLRA will return an incomplete debt certification to the creditor agency with notice that the creditor agency must comply with paragraph (b) of this section before action will be taken to collect a debt from a payment issued by the FLRA.

(e) Review. The FLRA is not authorized to review the merits of the creditor agency's determination with respect to the amount or validity of the debt certified by the creditor agency.

(f) When the FLRA will not comply with offset request. The FLRA will comply with the offset request of another agency unless the FLRA determines that the offset would not be in the best interests of the United States, or would otherwise be contrary to law.

(g) Multiple debts. When two or more creditor agencies are seeking offsets from payments made to the same person, or when two or more debts are owed to a single creditor agency, the FLRA may determine the order in which the debts will be collected or whether one or more debts should be collected by offset simultaneously.

(h) Priority of debts owed to FLRA. For purposes of this section, debts owed to the FLRA generally take precedence over debts owed to other agencies. The FLRA may determine whether to pay debts owed to other agencies before paying a debt owed to the FLRA. The FLRA will determine the order in which the debts will be collected based on the best interests of the United States.

§ 2418.20 What does the FLRA do upon receipt of a request to offset the salary of an FLRA employee to collect a debt owed by the employee to another Federal agency?

(a) Notice to the FLRA employee. When the FLRA receives proper certification of a debt owed by one of its employees, the FLRA will begin deductions from the employee's pay at the next officially established pay period. The FLRA will send a written notice to the employee indicating that a certified debt claim has been received from the creditor agency, the amount of the debt that the creditor agency claims is owed, the date deductions from salary will begin, and the amount of such deductions.

(b) Amount of deductions from FLRA employee's salary. The amount deducted under § 2418.19(b) will be the lesser of the amount of the debt certified by the creditor agency or an amount up to 15% of the debtor's disposable pay. Deductions shall continue until the FLRA knows that the debt is paid in full or until otherwise instructed by the creditor agency. Alternatively, the amount offset may be an amount that the debtor and the creditor agency agree upon in writing. See § 2418.12(g) (salary-offset process).

(c) When the debtor is no longer employed by the FLRA—(1) Offset of final and subsequent payments. If an FLRA employee retires or resigns or if his or her employment otherwise ends before collection of the debt is complete, then the FLRA will continue to offset, under 31 U.S.C. 3716, up to 100% of an employee's subsequent payments until the debt is paid or otherwise resolved. Such payments include a debtor's final salary payment, lump-sum leave payment, and other payments payable to the debtor by the FLRA. See 31 U.S.C. 3716 and 5 CFR 550.1104(l) and 550.1104(m).

(2) Notice to the creditor agency. If the employee is separated from the FLRA before the debt is paid in full, then the FLRA will certify to the creditor agency the total amount of its collection. If the FLRA is aware that the employee is entitled to payments from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund, Federal Employee Retirement System, or other similar payments, then the FLRA will provide written notice to the agency making such payments that the debtor owes a debt (including the amount) and that the provisions of 5 CFR 550.1109 have been fully complied with. The creditor agency is responsible for submitting a certified claim to the agency responsible for making such payments before collection may begin. Generally, creditor agencies will collect such monies through the Treasury Offset Program as described in § 2418.9(c).

(3) Notice to the debtor. The FLRA will provide to the debtor a copy of any notices sent to the creditor agency under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.

(d) When the debtor transfers to another Federal agency—(1) Notice to the creditor agency. If the debtor transfers to another Federal agency before the debt is paid in full, then the FLRA will notify the creditor agency and will certify the total amount of its collection on the debt. The FLRA will provide a copy of the certification to the creditor agency. The creditor agency is responsible for submitting a certified claim to the debtor's new employing agency before collection may begin.

(2) Notice to the debtor. The FLRA will provide to the debtor a copy of any notices and certifications sent to the creditor agency under paragraph (d)(1) of this section.

(e) Request for hearing official. The FLRA will provide a hearing official upon the creditor agency's request with respect to an FLRA employee. See 5 CFR 550.1107(a).

0
Appendix A to Part 2418 Waiving Claims Against FLRA Employees for Erroneous Payments

Date: May 1, 2015.

Subject: Waiving Claims Against FLRA Employees for Erroneous Payments.

1. Purpose

This appendix establishes the FLRA's policies and procedures for waiving claims by the Government against an employee for erroneous payments of: (1) Pay and allowances (e.g., health and life insurance) and (2) travel, transportation, and relocation expenses and allowances.

2. Background

a. 5 U.S.C. 5584 authorizes the waiver of claims by the United States in whole or in part against an employee arising out of erroneous payments of pay and allowances, travel, transportation, and relocation expenses and allowances. A waiver may be considered when collection of the claim would be against equity and good conscience and not in the best interest of the United States, provided that there does not exist, in connection with the claim, an indication of fraud, misrepresentation, fault, or lack of good faith on the part of the employee or any other person having an interest in obtaining a waiver of the claim.

b. The General Accounting Office Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-316), Title I, section 103(d), enacted October 19, 1996, amended 5 U.S.C. 5584 by transferring the authority to waive claims for erroneous payments exceeding $1,500 from the Comptroller General of the United States to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). OMB subsequently redelegated this waiver authority to the executive agency that made the erroneous payment. The authority to waive claims not exceeding $1,500, which was vested in the head of each agency prior to the enactment of Public Law 104-316, was unaffected by the Act.

c. 5 U.S.C. 5514 authorizes the head of each agency, upon a determination that an employee is indebted to the United States for debts to which the United States is entitled to be repaid at the time of the determination, to deduct up to 15%, or a greater amount if agreed to by the employee or a higher deduction has been ordered by a court under section 124 of Public Law 97-276 (96 Stat. 1195), from the employee's pay at officially established pay intervals in order to repay the debt.

3. Delegation

The Executive Director is delegated the authority to waive, in whole or in part, a claim of the United States against an employee for an erroneous payment of pay and allowances, travel, transportation, and relocation expenses and allowances, in accordance with the limitations and standards in 5 U.S.C. 5584.

4. Responsibilities

The Office of the Executive Director shall:

(1) Promptly notify an employee upon discovery of an erroneous payment to that employee;

(2) Promptly act to collect the erroneous overpayment, following established debt-collection policies and procedures;

(3) Establish time frames for employees to request a waiver in writing and for the Executive Director to review the waiver request. These time frames must take into consideration the responsibilities of the United States to take prompt action to pursue enforced collection on overdue debts, which may arise from erroneous payments.

(4) Notify employees whose requests for waiver of claims are denied in whole or in part of the basis for the denial.

(5) Pay a refund when appropriate if a waiver is granted;

(6) Fulfill all labor-relations responsibilities when implementing the provisions of this appendix; and

(7) Fulfill any other responsibility of the agency imposed by 5 U.S.C. 5584 or other applicable laws and regulations.

Additionally, the Office of the Executive Director may initiate a waiver application during the processing of a claim under 5 CFR part 2418.

5. Reporting Requirements

a. The FLRA shall maintain a register of waiver actions. The register shall cover each fiscal year and be prepared by December 31 of each year for the preceding fiscal year. The register shall contain the following information:

(1) The total amount waived by the FLRA;

(2) The number and dollar amount of waiver applications granted in full;

(3) The number and dollar amount of waiver applications granted in part and denied in part, and the dollar amount of each;

(4) The number and dollar amount of waiver applications denied in their entirety; and

(5) The number of waiver applications referred to the Executive Director for initial action.

b. The FLRA shall retain a written record of each waiver action for 6 years and 3 months. At a minimum, the written record shall contain:

(1) The FLRA's summary of the events surrounding the erroneous payment;

(2) Any written comments submitted by the employee from whom collection is sought;

(3) An account of the waiver action taken and the reasons for such action; and

(4) Other pertinent information such as any action taken to refund amounts repaid.

6. Effect of Request for Waiver

A request for a waiver of a claim shall not affect an employee's opportunity under 5 U.S.C. 5514(a)(2)(D) for a hearing on the determination of the agency concerning the existence or the amount of the debt, or the terms of the repayment schedule. A request by an employee for a hearing under 5 U.S.C. 5514(a)(2)(D) shall not affect an employee's right to request a waiver of the claim. The determination whether to waive a claim may be made at the discretion of the deciding official either before or after a final decision is rendered pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 5514(a)(2)(D) concerning the existence or the amount of the debt, or the terms of the repayment schedule.

7. Guidelines for Determining Requests

a. A request for a waiver shall not be granted if the deciding official determines there exists, in connection with the claim, an indication of fraud, misrepresentation, fault, or lack of good faith on the part of the employee or any other person having an interest in obtaining a waiver of the claim. There are no exceptions to this rule for financial hardship or otherwise.

(1) “Fault” exists if, in light of all the circumstances, it is determined that the employee knew or should have known that an error existed, but failed to take action to have it corrected. Fault can derive from an act or a failure to act. Unlike fraud, fault does not require a deliberate intent to deceive. Whether an employee should have known about an error in pay is determined from the perspective of a reasonable person. Pertinent considerations in finding fault include whether:

(a) The payment resulted from the employee's incorrect, but not fraudulent, statement that the employee should have known was incorrect;

(b) The payment resulted from the employee's failure to disclose material facts that were in the employee's possession and that the employee should have known to be material; or

(c) The employee accepted a payment, that the employee knew or should have known to be erroneous.

(2) Every case must be examined in light of its particular facts. For example, where an employee is promoted to a higher grade but the step level for the employee's new grade is miscalculated, it may be appropriate to conclude that there is no fault on the employee's part because employees are not typically expected to be aware of and understand the rules regarding determination of step level upon promotion. On the other hand, a different conclusion as to fault potentially may be reached if the employee in question is a personnel specialist or an attorney who concentrates on personnel law.

b. If the deciding official finds an indication of fraud, misrepresentation, fault, or lack of good faith on the part of the employee or any other person having an interest in obtaining a waiver of the claim, then the request for a waiver must be denied.

c. If the deciding official finds no indication of fraud, misrepresentation, fault, or lack of good faith on the part of the employee or any other person having an interest in obtaining a waiver of the claim, then the employee is not automatically entitled to a waiver. Before a waiver can be granted, the deciding official must also determine that collection of the claim against an employee would be against equity and good conscience and not in the best interests of the United States. Factors to consider when determining whether collection of a claim against an employee would be against equity and good conscience and not in the best interests of the United States include, but are not limited to:

(1) Whether collection of the claim would cause serious financial hardship to the employee from whom collection is sought.

(2) Whether, because of the erroneous payment, the employee either has relinquished a valuable right or changed positions for the worse, regardless of the employee's financial circumstances.

(a) To establish that a valuable right has been relinquished, it must be shown that the right was, in fact, valuable; that it cannot be regained; and that the action was based chiefly or solely on reliance on the overpayment.

(b) To establish that the employee's position has changed for the worse, it must be shown that the decision would not have been made but for the overpayment, and that the decision resulted in a loss.

(c) An example of a “detrimental reliance” would be a decision to sign a lease for a more expensive apartment based chiefly or solely upon reliance on an erroneous calculation of salary, and the funds spent for rent cannot be recovered.

(3) The cost of collecting the claim equals or exceeds the amount of the claim;

(4) The time elapsed between the erroneous payment and discovery of the error and notification of the employee;

(5) Whether failure to make restitution would result in unfair gain to the employee;

(6) Whether recovery of the claim would be unconscionable under the circumstances.

d. The burden is on the employee to demonstrate that collection of the claim would be against equity and good conscience and not in the best interest of the United States.

8. Authorities

a. 5 U.S.C. 5584, “Claims for Overpayment of Pay and Allowances, and of Travel, Transportation and Relocation Expenses and Allowances.”

b. 31 U.S.C. 3711, “Collection and Compromise.”

c. 31 U.S.C. 3716, “Administrative Offset.”

d. 31 U.S.C. 3717, “Interest and Penalty on Claims.”

e. 5 CFR part 550, subpart K, “Collection by Offset from Indebted Government Employees.”

f. 31 CFR part 5, subpart B, “Salary Offset.”

g. Determination with Respect to Transfer of Functions Pursuant to Public Law 104-316, OMB, December 17, 1996.

9. Cancellation

FLRA Internal Regulation 2790, dated December 29, 1986, is superseded.

PART 2419 THE ADMINISTRATIVE FALSE CLAIMS ACT

Authority: 31 U.S.C. 3803(g), 3809; Sec. 5203(j), Pub. L. 118-159, 138 Stat. 2440.

Source: 91 FR 21715, Apr. 23, 2026, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2419.1 Background.

(a) Legal authority. This part implements the Administrative False Claims Act, codified at 31 U.S.C. 3801 through 3812. Section 3809 of that Act requires each authority head to promulgate regulations necessary to implement the provisions of the statute. Administrative False Claims Act liability is identified at 31 U.S.C. 3802. Liability for false claims can include an assessment of up to twice the amount of the false claim and a civil penalty. Liability for a false statement is a civil penalty. The civil penalty for a false claim or false statement actionable under that section is $12,500.

(b) Limitations. A notice to a person alleged to be liable under the Administrative False Claims Act referenced in 31 U.S.C. 3803(d)(1) must be mailed or delivered by the timeframes noted in 31 U.S.C. 3808(a). Those timeframes are the later of: 6 years after the date on which the violation of 31 U.S.C. 3802 is committed; or 3 years after the date on which facts material to the action are known or reasonably should have been known by the authority head, but in no event more than 10 years after the date on which the violation is committed. A civil action to recover a penalty or assessment must be commenced within the 3-year timeframe noted in 31 U.S.C. 3808(b).

(c) Computation of time. In computing any period of time under this part or in an order issued thereunder, the time begins with the day following the act, event, or default, and includes the last day of the period, unless the last day is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday observed by the Federal Government, in which event the period includes the next business day.

(1) When the period of time allowed is less than 7 days, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays observed by the Federal Government shall be excluded from the computation.

(2) Where a document has been served or issued by placing it in the mail, an additional 5 days will be added to the time permitted for any response.

(d) Stays ordered by the Department of Justice. If, at any time, the Attorney General or an Assistant Attorney General designated by the Attorney General transmits to the authority head a written finding that continuation of the administrative process described in this part with respect to a claim or statement may adversely aflect any pending or potential criminal or civil action related to such claim or statement, the authority head shall stay the process immediately. The authority head may order the process resumed only upon receipt of the written authorization of the Attorney General, the Assistant Attorney General who ordered the stay, or other appropriate Department of Justice Official.

(e) Additional referrals. Federal agencies that receive or discover any specific information regarding bribery, gratuities, conflict of interest, or other corruption or similar activity in relation to a false claim or statement, must immediately report that information consistent with the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3808(c) to the Attorney General and agency Inspector General as appropriate.

(f) Board of contract appeals. If a Federal agency uses a presiding officer who is a member of a board of contract appeals as permitted by 31 U.S.C. 3801(a)(7)(C) for a matter, the procedural rules implemented by that board of contract appeals will control the litigation of that matter to the extent there is an inconsistency between the board's procedural rules and the procedural rules of this part.

[91 FR 21715, Apr. 23, 2026; 91 FR 25073, May 8, 2026]

§ 2419.2 Definitions.

(a) Definitions from the statute. The definitions of “authority,” “claim,” “investigating official,” “knows or has reason to know,” “person,” “presiding officer,” “reviewing official,” “statement,” “material,” and “obligation” are found in 31 U.S.C. 3801. The investigating official at the Federal Labor Relations Authority is identified as the Federal Labor Relations Authority's Inspector General, and the Federal Labor Relations Authority's Solicitor is designated to be the reviewing official by the authority head at the Federal Labor Relations Authority.

(b) Complaint means the administrative complaint served by the reviewing official on the defendant under § 2419.4(b).

(c) Defendant means any person alleged in a complaint under § 2419.4(a) to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment under § 2419.1.

(d) Authority Head means the Chairman of the Federal Labor Relations Authority.

(e) Representative means a party's attorney or other duly qualified representative.

§ 2419.3 Pre-complaint procedures.

(a) Investigating Official. The investigating official may elect to investigate matters potentially resulting in an Administrative False Claims Act action using the subpoena authority at 31 U.S.C. 3804, or any other authority granted to the investigating official, such as the authority of the Inspector General Act at 5 United States Code, Chapter 4.

(1) If the investigating official concludes that an action under the Administrative False Claims Act may be warranted, the investigating official shall submit a report containing the findings and conclusions of such investigation to the reviewing official.

(2) Nothing in this section shall preclude or limit the investigating official's discretion to refer allegations directly to the Department of Justice for suit under the False Claims Act (31 U.S.C. 3729-3733) or other civil relief, or to defer or postpone a report or referral to the reviewing official to avoid interference with a criminal investigation or prosecution.

(3) Nothing in this section modifies any responsibility of the investigating official to report violations of criminal law to the Attorney General.

(b) Reviewing Official. The procedures for the reviewing official are as follows:

(1) Determination. If, based on the report of the investigating official under § 2419.3(a)(2), the reviewing official determines that there is adequate evidence to believe that a person is liable under the Administrative False Claims Act, and there is a reasonable prospect of collecting an appropriate amount of penalties and assessments, the reviewing official shall transmit to the Attorney General a written notice of the reviewing official's intention to have a complaint issued under § 2419.4(a).

(2) Written notice. A written notice of the reviewing official's intention to have a complaint issued under § 2419.4(a) shall include:

(i) A statement of the reviewing official's reasons for issuing a complaint;

(ii) A statement specifying the evidence that supports the allegations of liability;

(iii) A description of the claims or statements upon which the allegations of liability are based;

(iv) An estimate of the amount of money, or the value of property, services, or other benefits, requested or demanded in violation of the Administrative False Claims Act;

(v) A statement of any exculpatory or mitigating circumstances that may relate to the claims or statements known by the reviewing official or the investigating official; and

(vi) A statement that there is a reasonable prospect of collecting an appropriate amount of penalties and assessments.

(c) Request for authorization from the Department of Justice. The reviewing official may issue a complaint under § 2419.4(a) only if:

(1) The Department of Justice approves the issuance of a complaint in a written statement described in 31 U.S.C. 3803(b)(1), and

(2) In the case of allegations of liability under 31 U.S.C. 3802(a)(1) with respect to a claim, the reviewing official determines that, with respect to such claim or a group of related claims submitted at the same time such claim is submitted, the amount of money, or the value of property or services, demanded or requested in violation of section 3802(a)(1) does not exceed $1,000,000.

(3) For the purposes of this section, a related group of claims submitted at the same time shall include only those claims arising from the same transaction (e.g., grant, loan, application, or contract) that are submitted simultaneously as part of a single request, demand, or submission.

(4) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the reviewing official's authority to join in a single complaint against a person, claims that are unrelated or were not submitted simultaneously, regardless of the amount of money, or the value of property or services, demanded or requested.

(d) Written notifications. The reviewing official shall make all appropriate written notifications required by section 3803(j)(2) of title 31 of the United States Code.

§ 2419.4 Complaint and pre-hearing procedures.

(a) Complaint. The reviewing official will identify the allegations of liability in a complaint. The complaint must identify the following:

(1) The allegations of liability against the defendant, including the statutory basis for liability, an identification of the claims or statements that are the basis for the alleged liability, and the reasons why liability allegedly arises from such claims or statements;

(2) The maximum amount of penalties and assessments for which the defendant may be held liable;

(3) Instructions for filing an answer, including a specific statement of the defendant's right to request a hearing and to be represented by a representative;

(4) Identification and contact information for the governmental employee representing the reviewing official in the matter if the reviewing official is not handling the matter personally; and

(5) The fact that failure to file an answer within 30 days of service of the complaint will result in the imposition of the maximum amount of penalties and assessments without right to appeal, as provided in § 2419.4(d).

(6) At the same time the reviewing official serves the complaint, he or she shall serve the defendant with a copy of these regulations or identify a free online resource where the defendant can access these regulations.

(b) Service of the complaint. The Federal Labor Relations Authority must mail or deliver the complaint to the person alleged to be liable in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3803(d)(1) within the time limitations identified at 31 U.S.C. 3808(a).

(c) Answer. The defendant may file an answer to the complaint within 30 days of service of the complaint by mail or facsimile to the reviewing official (current mailing address and facsimile numbers posted at https://www.flra.gov/components-offices/offices/office-solicitor).

(1) In the answer, the defendant:

(i) Shall admit or deny each of the allegations of liability made in the complaint;

(ii) Shall state any defense on which the defendant intends to rely;

(iii) May state any reasons why the defendant contends that the penalties and assessments should be less than the statutory maximum; and

(iv) Shall state the name, postal address, electronic mail address, and telephone number of the person authorized by the defendant to act as defendant's representative, if any.

(2) Hearing. The defendant may request a hearing with the presiding officer within 30 days of service of the complaint. Upon receipt of an answer, the reviewing official shall file the complaint and answer with the presiding officer.

(3) General answer. If the defendant is unable to file an answer meeting the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section within the time provided, the defendant may, before the expiration of 30 days from service of the complaint, file with the reviewing official a general answer denying liability and requesting a hearing, and a request for an extension of time within which to file an answer meeting the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section. The reviewing official shall file promptly with the presiding officer the complaint, the general answer denying liability, and the request for an extension of time as provided in paragraph (d) of this section. For good cause shown, the presiding officer may grant the defendant up to 30 additional days within which to file an answer meeting the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section. The presiding officer shall decide expeditiously whether the defendant shall be granted the additional period of time to file such answer.

(d) Default upon failure to file an answer. If the defendant does not file an answer within the time prescribed in this section, the reviewing official must refer the complaint to the presiding officer within a reasonable time.

(1) Upon the referral of the complaint, the presiding officer shall promptly serve on the defendant in the manner prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section, a notice that an initial decision will be issued under this section.

(2) The presiding officer shall assume the facts alleged in the complaint to be true and, if such facts establish liability under 31 U.S.C. 3802, the presiding officer shall issue an initial decision imposing the maximum amount of penalties and assessments allowed under the statute.

(3) Except as otherwise provided in this section, by failing to file a timely answer the defendant waives any right to further review of the penalties and assessments imposed under paragraph (d)(2) of this section and the initial decision shall become final and binding upon the parties 30 days after it is issued.

(4) If, before such an initial decision becomes final, the defendant files a motion with the presiding officer seeking to reopen on the grounds that extraordinary circumstances prevented the defendant from filing an answer, the initial decision shall be stayed pending the presiding officer's decision on the motion.

(5) If, on such motion, the defendant can demonstrate extraordinary circumstances excusing the failure to file a timely answer, the presiding officer shall withdraw the initial decision in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if such a decision has been issued, and shall grant the defendant an opportunity to answer the complaint.

(6) A decision of the presiding officer denying a defendant's motion under paragraph (d)(4) of this section is not subject to reconsideration under § 2419.6(d).

(7) The defendant may appeal to the authority head the decision denying a motion to reopen by filing a notice of appeal with the authority head within 15 days after the presiding officer denies the motion. The timely filing of a notice of appeal shall stay the initial decision until the authority head decides the issue.

(8) If the defendant files a timely notice of appeal with the authority head, the presiding officer shall forward the record of the proceeding to the authority head.

(9) The authority head shall decide expeditiously whether extraordinary circumstances excuse the defendant's failure to file a timely answer based solely on the record before the presiding officer.

(10) If the authority head decides that extraordinary circumstances excused the defendant's failure to file a timely answer, the authority head shall remand the case to the presiding officer with instructions to grant the defendant an opportunity to answer.

(11) If the authority head decides that the defendant's failure to file a timely answer is not excused, the authority head shall reinstate the initial decision of the presiding officer, which shall become final and binding upon the parties 30 days after the authority head issues such decision.

(e) Presiding officer disqualification and authorities. A presiding officer may be removed from a case on the presiding officer's own initiative or on motion by the parties for disqualification of the presiding officer.

(1) Motion and affidavit. The motion shall be accompanied by an affidavit alleging personal bias or other reason for disqualification.

(i) Such motion and affidavit shall be filed promptly with the presiding officer upon the party's discovery of reasons requiring disqualification, or such objections shall be deemed waived.

(ii) Such affidavit shall state specific facts that support the party's belief that personal bias or other reason for disqualification exists and the time and circumstances of the party's discovery of such facts. It shall be accompanied by a certificate of the representative of record that it is made in good faith.

(iii) Upon the filing of such a motion and affidavit, the presiding officer shall proceed no further in the case until the presiding officer resolves the matter of disqualification in accordance with this section.

(2) Authority of the presiding officer. The presiding officer shall conduct a fair and impartial hearing, avoid delay, maintain order, and assure that a record of the proceeding is made. The presiding officer has the authority to:

(i) Set and change the date, time, and place of the hearing upon reasonable notice to the parties;

(ii) Continue or recess the hearing in whole or in part for a reasonable period of time;

(iii) Hold conferences to identify or simplify the issues, or to consider other matters that may aid in the expeditious disposition of the proceeding;

(iv) Administer oaths and affirmations;

(v) For the purpose of conducting a hearing, the presiding officer may issue subpoenas requiring the attendance and testimony of witnesses as well as the production of information as set forth in 31 U.S.C. 3804(b)(2);

(vi) Rule on motions and other procedural matters;

(vii) Regulate the requirements regarding motions including requiring any oral motion to be reduced to writing and establishing the time within which a response to any written motion will be due if the motion will not be due within 15 days after the written motion is served;

(viii) Regulate the scope and timing of discovery;

(ix) Regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of representatives and parties to include imposing sanctions such as drawing adverse inferences, striking pleadings, deeming items admitted, restricting use of evidence, dismissing an action, or issuing an initial decision—that reasonably relate to the severity and nature of the failure or misconduct;

(x) Examine witnesses;

(xi) Receive, rule on, exclude, or limit evidence;

(xii) Upon motion of a party, take official notice of facts;

(xiii) Upon motion of a party, decide cases, in whole or in part, by summary judgment where there is no disputed issue of material fact;

(xiv) Conduct any conference, argument, or hearing on motions in person or by telephone, videoconference, or other virtual method; and

(xv) Exercise such other authority as is necessary to carry out the responsibilities of the presiding officer under this part.

(xvi) Irrespective of any implications of the above, the presiding officer does not have the authority to find Federal statutes or regulations invalid.

(xvii) Additionally, the presiding officer shall not, except to the extent required for the disposition of ex parte matters as authorized by law:

(A) Consult a person or party on a fact in issue, unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to the hearing to participate; or

(B) Be responsible to or subject to the supervision or direction of the investigating official or the reviewing official.

(f) Prehearing. The prehearing procedures are as follows:

(1) Entitlement to review and obtain information. Defendants receiving notice of the hearing from the presiding officer under 31 U.S.C. 3803(d)(2)(B) are entitled to information identified in 31 U.S.C. 3803(e), including a copy of all relevant and material documents, transcripts, records, and other materials, which relate to the allegations and upon which the findings and conclusions of the investigating official are based. Defendants should request any such information from the reviewing official's point of contact identified in the complaint. The reviewing official will provide all requested information expeditiously. Information subject to payment of a fee will be expeditiously provided upon payment of any applicable reasonable duplication fee.

(2) Discovery. Unless mutually agreed to by the parties, discovery is available only as ordered by the presiding officer.

(i) The presiding officer may order the following types of discovery:

(A) Requests for production of documents for inspection and copying;

(B) Requests for admissions of the authenticity of any relevant document or of the truth of any relevant fact;

(C) Written interrogatories; and

(D) Depositions.

(ii) A party seeking discovery must file a motion with the presiding officer. Such a motion shall be accompanied by a copy of the requested discovery, or in the case of depositions, a summary of the scope of the proposed deposition. Within 10 days of service, a party may file an opposition to the motion and/or a motion for protective order as provided in § 2419.4(f)(3). The presiding officer may grant a motion for discovery only if he or she finds that the discovery sought:

(A) Is necessary for the expeditious, fair, and reasonable consideration of the issues;

(B) Is not unduly costly or burdensome;

(C) Will not unduly delay the proceeding; and

(D) Does not seek privileged information.

(iii) The burden of showing that discovery should be allowed is on the party seeking discovery.

(iv) The presiding officer shall regulate the timing of discovery.

(3) Protective orders. A party or a prospective witness or deponent may file a motion for a protective order with respect to discovery sought by an opposing party or with respect to the hearing, seeking to limit the availability or disclosure of evidence. The presiding officer may issue any order which justice requires to protect a party or person from annoyance, embarrassment, oppression, or undue burden or expense, including one or more of the following:

(i) That the discovery not be had;

(ii) That the discovery may be had only on specified terms and conditions, including a designation of the time or place;

(iii) That the discovery may be had only through a method of discovery other than that requested;

(iv) That certain matters not be the subject of inquiry, or that the scope of discovery be limited to certain matters;

(v) That discovery be conducted with no one present except persons designated by the presiding officer;

(vi) That the contents of discovery or evidence be sealed;

(vii) That a sealed deposition be opened only by order of the presiding officer;

(viii) That a trade secret or other confidential research, development, commercial information, or facts pertaining to any criminal investigation, proceeding, or other administrative investigation not be disclosed or be disclosed only in a designated way; or

(ix) That the parties simultaneously file specified documents.

(4) Prehearing orders. The presiding officer shall issue scheduling orders the presiding officer deems appropriate to ensure a fair and impartial hearing, avoid delay, maintain order, and assure that a record of the proceeding is made. At a minimum, the presiding officer must issue an order that:

(i) Sets the hearing in a location permissible under 31 U.S.C. 3803(g)(4);

(ii) Provides the written notice required by 31 U.S.C. 3803(g)(2)(A);

(iii) Governs the exchange of witness lists, statements, and exhibits;

(iv) Ensures the defendant has an opportunity to present their case, to submit rebuttal evidence, and to conduct such cross-examination as may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts; and

(v) Includes in any written notice of a hearing to a defendant a description of the procedures for the conduct of the hearing.

§ 2419.5 Hearing.

(a) Determinations. The presiding officer will conduct the hearing consistent with that officer's authority to make the determinations identified in 31 U.S.C. 3803(f) by a preponderance of the evidence.

(b) Determining the amount of penalties and assessments. In determining an appropriate amount of civil penalties and assessments, the presiding officer and the authority head, upon appeal, should evaluate any circumstances that mitigate or aggravate the violation and should articulate in their opinions the reasons that support the penalties and assessments they impose. Because of the intangible costs of fraud, the expense of investigating such conduct, and the need to deter others who might be similarly tempted, double damages and a significant civil penalty ordinarily should be imposed. Although not exhaustive, the following factors are among those that may influence the presiding officer and the authority head in determining the amount of penalties and assessments to impose with respect to the misconduct (i.e., the false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or statements) charged in the complaint:

(1) The number of false, fictitious or fraudulent claims or statements;

(2) The time period over which such claims or statements were made;

(3) The degree of the defendant's culpability with respect to the misconduct;

(4) The amount of money or the value of the property, services, or benefit falsely claimed;

(5) The cost of the United States Government's actual loss as a result of the misconduct, including foreseeable consequential damages and the costs of investigation;

(6) The relationship of the amount imposed as civil penalties to the amount of the United States Government's loss;

(7) The potential or actual impact of the misconduct upon public confidence in the management of United States Government programs and operations;

(8) Whether the defendant has engaged in a pattern of the same or similar misconduct;

(9) Whether the defendant attempted to conceal the misconduct;

(10) The degree to which the defendant has involved others in the misconduct or in concealing it;

(11) Where the misconduct of employees or agents is imputed to the defendant, the extent to which the defendant's practices fostered or attempted to preclude such misconduct;

(12) Whether the defendant cooperated in or obstructed an investigation of the misconduct;

(13) Whether the defendant assisted in identifying and prosecuting other wrongdoers;

(14) The complexity of the program or transaction, and the degree of the defendant's sophistication with respect to it, including the extent of the defendant's prior participation in the program or in similar transactions;

(15) Whether the defendant has been found, in any criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding to have engaged in similar misconduct or to have dealt dishonestly with the United States Government or of a state, directly or indirectly;

(16) The need to deter the defendant and others from engaging in the same or similar misconduct; and

(17) The potential impact of the misconduct on the rights of others.

(c) Other factors. Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the presiding officer or the authority head from considering any other factors that in any given case may mitigate or aggravate the offense for which penalties and assessments are imposed.

(d) The Record. The hearing shall be recorded and transcribed.

(1) Transcripts shall be available following the hearing at a cost not to exceed the actual cost of duplication and any court reporter's reasonable fee.

(2) The transcript of testimony, exhibits and other evidence admitted at the hearing, and all documents filed in the proceeding constitute the record for the decision by the presiding officer and the authority head.

(3) The record may be inspected and copied by anyone upon payment of a reasonable fee, unless otherwise ordered by the presiding officer.

§ 2419.6 Post-hearing procedures.

(a) Post-hearing motions. The presiding officer may decide any post-hearing motions.

(b) Post-hearing briefs. Any party may file a post-hearing brief. The presiding officer shall fix the time for filing such briefs, not to exceed 60 days from the date the parties receive the transcript of the hearing or, if applicable, the stipulated record. Such briefs may be accompanied by proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law. The presiding officer may permit the parties to file reply briefs.

(c) Decision. Except for good cause, the presiding officer shall issue a written decision required by 31 U.S.C. 3803(h) within 90 days after the time for submission of post-hearing briefs and reply briefs, if permitted, has expired.

(d) Appeal to the authority head. Parties may not appeal interlocutory rulings by the presiding officer to the authority head.

(1) Except in case of default, if the defendant is determined in the decision to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment, the defendant may appeal such decision to the authority head by filing a notice of appeal with the authority head in accordance with this section. A notice of appeal shall be accompanied by a written brief specifying exceptions to the decision and reasons supporting the exceptions.

(i) A notice of appeal may be filed at any time within 30 days after the presiding officer issues the decision.

(ii) The authority head may extend the initial 30-day period for an additional 30 days if the defendant files with the authority head a request for an extension within the initial 30-day period and shows good cause.

(2) The reviewing official's representative or other designated agency official may file a brief in opposition to the notice of appeal within 30 days of receiving the notice of appeal and accompanying brief.

(3) The authority head's review will occur within the limitations noted in 31 U.S.C. 3803(i)(2)(B) and (C). There is no right to appear personally before the authority head.

(e) Judicial review. Section 3805 of title 31, United States Code, authorizes judicial review by an appropriate United States District Court of a final decision of the authority head imposing penalties and/or assessments under this part and specifies the procedures for such review.

(f) Collection. Sections 3806 and 3808(b) of title 31, United States Code, authorize actions for collection of civil penalties and assessments imposed under this part and specify the procedures for such actions.

SUBCHAPTER C FEDERAL LABOR RELATIONS AUTHORITY AND GENERAL COUNSEL OF THE FEDERAL LABOR RELATIONS AUTHORITY

PART 2420 PURPOSE AND SCOPE

Authority: 3 U.S.C. 431; 5 U.S.C. 7134.

§ 2420.1 Purpose and scope.

The regulations contained in this subchapter are designed to implement the provisions of chapter 71 of title 5 and, where applicable, section 431 of title 3 of the United States Code. They prescribe the procedures, basic principles or criteria under which the Federal Labor Relations Authority or the General Counsel of the Federal Labor Relations Authority, as applicable, will:

(a) Determine the appropriateness of units for labor organization representation under 5 U.S.C. 7112;

(b) Supervise or conduct elections to determine whether a labor organization has been selected as an exclusive representative by a majority of the employees in an appropriate unit and otherwise administer the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 7111 relating to the according of exclusive recognition to labor organizations;

(c) Resolve issues relating to the granting of national consultation rights under 5 U.S.C. 7113;

(d) Resolve issues relating to determining compelling need for agency rules and regulations under 5 U.S.C. 7117(b);

(e) Resolve issues relating to the duty to bargain in good faith under 5 U.S.C. 7117(c);

(f) Resolve issues relating to the granting of consultation rights with respect to conditions of employment under 5 U.S.C. 7117(d);

(g) Conduct hearings and resolve complaints of unfair labor practices under 5 U.S.C. 7118;

(h) Resolve exceptions to arbitrators' awards under 5 U.S.C. 7122; and

(i) Take such other actions as are necessary and appropriate effectively to administer the provisions of chapter 71 of title 5 of the United States Code.

[45 FR 3497, Jan. 17, 1980, as amended at 63 FR 46158, Aug. 31, 1998]

PART 2421 MEANING OF TERMS AS USED IN THIS SUBCHAPTER

Authority: 3 U.S.C. 431; 5 U.S.C. 7134.

Source: 45 FR 3497, Jan. 17, 1980, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2421.1 Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statute.

The term Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statute means chapter 71 of title 5 of the United States Code.

§ 2421.2 Terms defined in 5 U.S.C. 7103(a); General Counsel; Assistant Secretary.

(a) The terms person, employee, agency, labor organization, dues, Authority, Panel, collective bargaining agreement, grievance, supervisor, management official, collective bargaining, confidential employee, conditions of employment, professional employee, exclusive representative, firefighter, and United States, as used in this subchapter shall have the meanings set forth in 5 U.S.C. 7103(a). The terms covered employee, employee, employing office, and agency, when used in connection with the Presidential and Executive Office Accountability Act, 3 U.S.C. 401 et seq., shall have the meaning set out in 3 U.S.C. 401(b), and 431(b) and (d)(2). Employees who are employed in the eight offices listed in 3 U.S.C. 431(d)(2) shall be excluded from coverage if the Authority determines that such exclusion is required because of a conflict of interest, an appearance of a conflict of interest, or the President's or Vice President's constitutional responsibilities, in addition to the exemptions currently set forth in 5 U.S.C. 7103(a).

(b) The term General Counsel means the General Counsel of the Authority.

(c) The term Assistant Secretary means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Labor-Management Relations.

[45 FR 3497, Jan. 17, 1980, as amended at 63 FR 46158, Aug. 31, 1998]

§ 2421.3 National consultation rights; consultation rights on Government-wide rules or regulations; exclusive recognition; unfair labor practices.

(a) National consultation rights has the meaning as set forth in 5 U.S.C. 7113;

(b) Consultation rights on Government-wide rules or regulations has the meaning as set forth in 5 U.S.C. 7117(d);

(c) Exclusive recognition has the meaning as set forth in 5 U.S.C. 7111; and

(d) Unfair labor practices has the meaning as set forth in 5 U.S.C. 7116.

§ 2421.4 Activity.

Activity means any facility, organizational entity, or geographical subdivision or combination thereof, of any agency.

§ 2421.5 Primary national subdivision.

Primary national subdivision of an agency means a first-level organizational segment which has functions national in scope that are implemented in field activities.

§ 2421.6 Regional Director.

Regional Director means the Director of a region of the Authority with geographical boundaries as fixed by the Authority.

[91 FR 65442, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2421.7 Executive Director.

Executive Director means the Executive Director of the Authority.

§ 2421.8 Hearing Officer.

Hearing Officer means the individual designated to conduct a hearing involving a question concerning the appropriateness of a unit or such other matters as may be assigned.

§ 2421.9 Administrative Law Judge.

Administrative Law Judge means the Chief Administrative Law Judge or any Administrative Law Judge designated by the Chief Administrative Law Judge to conduct a hearing in cases under 5 U.S.C. 7116, and such other matters as may be assigned.

§ 2421.10 Chief Administrative Law Judge.

Chief Administrative Law Judge means the Chief Administrative Law Judge of the Authority.

§ 2421.11 Party.

Party means:

(a) Any labor organization, employing agency or activity or individual filing a charge, petition, or request;

(b) Any labor organization or agency or activity

(1) Named as

(i) A charged party in a charge,

(ii) A respondent in a complaint, or

(iii) An employing agency or activity or an incumbent labor organization in a petition;

(2) Whose intervention in a proceeding has been permitted or directed by the Authority; or

(3) Who participated as a party

(i) In a matter that was decided by an agency head under 5 U.S.C. 7117, or

(ii) In a matter where the award of an arbitrator was issued; and

(c) The General Counsel, or the General Counsel's designated representative, in appropriate proceedings.

[60 FR 67291, Dec. 29, 1995]

§ 2421.12 Intervenor.

Intervenor means a party in a proceeding whose intervention has been permitted or directed by the Authority, its agents or representatives.

§ 2421.13 Certification.

Certification means the determination by the Authority, its agents or representatives, of the results of an election, or the results of a petition to consolidate existing exclusively recognized units.

§ 2421.14 Appropriate unit.

Appropriate unit means that grouping of employees found to be appropriate for purposes of exclusive recognition under 5 U.S.C. 7111, and for purposes of allotments to representatives under 5 U.S.C. 7115(c), and consistent with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 7112. In determining an appropriate unit in a proceeding under part 2422 of this Chapter, for the eight offices listed in 3 U.S.C. 431(d)(2), employees shall be excluded from the unit if it is determined that such exclusion is required because of a conflict of interest or appearance of a conflict of interest or because of the President's or Vice President's constitutional responsibilities, in addition to the standards set out in 5 U.S.C. 7112.

[63 FR 46158, Aug. 31, 1998]

§ 2421.15 Secret ballot.

Secret ballot means the expression by ballot, voting machine or otherwise, but in no event by proxy, of a choice with respect to any election or vote taken upon any matter, which is cast in such a manner that the person expressing such choice cannot be identified with the choice expressed, except in that instance in which any determinative challenged ballot is opened.

§ 2421.16 Showing of interest.

Showing of interest means evidence of membership in a labor organization; employees' signed and dated authorization cards or petitions authorizing a labor organization to represent them for purposes of exclusive recognition; allotment of dues forms executed by an employee and the labor organization's authorized official; current dues records; an existing or recently expired agreement; current exclusive recognition or certification; employees' signed and dated petitions or cards indicating that they no longer desire to be represented for the purposes of exclusive recognition by the currently recognized or certified labor organization; employees' signed and dated petitions or cards indicating a desire that an election be held on a proposed consolidation of units; or other evidence approved by the Authority.

§ 2421.17 Regular and substantially equivalent employment.

Regular and substantially equivalent employment means employment that entails substantially the same amount of work, rate of pay, hours, working conditions, location of work, kind of work, and seniority rights, if any, of an employee prior to the cessation of employment in an agency because of any unfair labor practice under 5 U.S.C. 7116.

§ 2421.18 Petitioner.

Petitioner means the party filing a petition under part 2422 of this subchapter.

[60 FR 67291, Dec. 29, 1995]

§ 2421.19 Eligibility period.

Eligibility period means the payroll period during which an employee must be in an employment status with an agency or activity in order to be eligible to vote in a representation election under part 2422 of this subchapter.

[60 FR 67291, Dec. 29, 1995]

§ 2421.20 Election agreement.

Election agreement means an agreement under part 2422 of this subchapter signed by all the parties, and approved by the Regional Director, concerning the details and procedures of a representation election in an appropriate unit.

[91 FR 65442, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2421.21 Affected by issues raised.

The phrase affected by issues raised, as used in part 2422, should be construed broadly to include parties and other labor organizations, or agencies or activities that have a connection to employees affected by, or questions presented in, a proceeding.

[60 FR 67291, Dec. 29, 1995]

§ 2421.22 Determinative challenged ballots.

Determinative challenged ballots are challenges that are unresolved prior to the tally and sufficient in number after the tally to affect the results of the election.

[60 FR 67291, Dec. 29, 1995]

PART 2422 REPRESENTATION PROCEEDINGS

Authority: 3 U.S.C. 431; 5 U.S.C. 7134.

Source: 77 FR 37752, June 25, 2012, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2422.1 What is your purpose for filing a petition?

You, the petitioner, may file a petition for the following purposes:

(a) Elections or eligibility for dues allotment. To request:

(1)(i) An election to determine whether employees in an appropriate unit wish to be represented for the purpose of collective bargaining by an exclusive representative, and/or

(ii) A determination of eligibility for dues allotment in an appropriate unit without an exclusive representative; or

(2) An election to determine whether employees in a unit no longer wish to be represented for the purpose of collective bargaining by an exclusive representative.

(3) Petitions under this subsection must be accompanied by an appropriate showing of interest.

(b) Clarification or amendment. To clarify, and/or amend:

(1) A recognition or certification then in effect; and/or

(2) Any other matter relating to representation.

(c) Consolidation. To consolidate two or more units, with or without an election, in an agency where a labor organization is the exclusive representative.

§ 2422.2 Who may file a petition?

An individual; a labor organization; two or more labor organizations acting as a joint-petitioner; an individual acting on behalf of any employee(s); an agency or activity; or a combination of the above may file a representation petition. But,

(a) Only a labor organization may file a petition under § 2422.1(a)(1);

(b) Only an individual may file a petition under § 2422.1(a)(2); and

(c) Only an agency or a labor organization may file a petition under § 2422.1(b) or (c).

§ 2422.3 What information should you include in your petition?

(a) You must file a petition either in writing with your signature or electronically using the eFiling system on the FLRA's Web site at www.flra.gov. Your petition must provide the following information on a form designated by the Authority, or on a substantially similar form, or electronically using the eFiling system on the FLRA's Web site at www.flra.gov:

(1) The name and mailing address for each agency or activity affected by issues raised in the petition, including street number, city, state and zip code.

(2) The name, mailing address and work telephone number, fax number and email address (if known) of the contact person for each agency or activity affected by issues raised in the petition.

(3) The name and mailing address for each labor organization affected by issues raised in the petition, including street number, city, state and zip code. If a labor organization is affiliated with a national organization, the local designation and the national affiliation should both be included. If a labor organization is an exclusive representative of any of the employees affected by issues raised in the petition, the date of the recognition or certification and the date any collective bargaining agreement covering the unit will expire or when the most recent agreement did expire should be included, if known.

(4) The name, mailing address and work telephone number, fax number and email address (if known) of the contact person for each labor organization affected by issues raised in the petition.

(5) Your name and mailing address, including street number, city, state and zip code, and fax number and email address. If you are a labor organization affiliated with a national organization, the local designation and the national affiliation should both be included.

(6) A description of the unit(s) affected by issues raised in the petition. The description should generally indicate the geographic locations and the classifications of the employees included (or sought to be included) in, and excluded (or sought to be excluded) from, the unit.

(7) The approximate number of employees in the unit(s) affected by issues raised in the petition.

(8) A clear and concise statement of the issues raised by the petition and the results the petitioner seeks.

(9) A declaration by the person signing the petition, under the penalties of the Criminal Code (18 U.S.C. 1001), that the contents of the petition are true and correct to the best of the person's knowledge and belief.

(10) The title, mailing address and telephone number of the person filing the petition.

(b) Certification of compliance with 5 U.S.C. 7111(e). A labor organization/petitioner complies with 5 U.S.C. 7111(e) by submitting to the agency or activity and to the Department of Labor a roster of its officers and representatives, a copy of its constitution and bylaws, and a statement of its objectives. By signing the petition form, the labor organization/petitioner certifies that it has submitted these documents to the activity or agency and to the Department of Labor.

(c) Showing of interest supporting a representation petition (defined at 5 CFR 2421.16). When filing a petition requiring a showing of interest, you must:

(1) So indicate on the petition form;

(2) Submit with the petition a showing of interest of not less than thirty percent (30%) of the employees in the unit involved in the petition; and

(3) Include an alphabetical list of the names constituting the showing of interest.

(d) Petition seeking dues allotment. When there is no exclusive representative, a petition seeking certification for dues allotment must be accompanied by a showing of membership in the petitioner of not less than ten percent (10%) of the employees in the unit claimed to be appropriate. An alphabetical list of names constituting the showing of membership must be submitted.

[77 FR 37752, June 25, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 13941, Mar. 24, 2026]

§ 2422.4 What service requirements must you meet when filing a petition?

You must serve every petition, motion, brief, request, challenge, written objection, or application for review on all parties affected by issues raised in the filing. The service must include all supporting documentation, with the exceptions of a showing of interest, evidence supporting challenges to the validity of a showing of interest, and evidence supporting objections to an election. You must submit a statement of service to the Regional Director.

[91 FR 65442, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.5 Where do you file petitions?

(a) Where to file. You must file a petition with the Regional Director for the region in which the unit or employee(s) affected by issues raised in the petition are located. If the unit(s) or employees are located in two or more regions of the Authority, you must file the petitions with the Regional Director for the region where the headquarters of the agency or activity is located.

(b) Method of filing. You may file a petition with the Regional Director in person or by commercial delivery, first class mail, facsimile, certified mail, or electronically through use of the eFiling system on the FLRA's Web site at www.flra.gov. If you file electronically or by facsimile transmission you are not required to file an original copy of the petition with the Region. You assume responsibility for the Regional Director's receipt of a petition.

(c) Date of filing. When a Regional Director receives a petition, it is deemed filed, subject to the following conditions. A petition received electronically or by facsimile on a business day—even if it is received outside a Region's business hours—is deemed filed on the day on which it is received (either by the Regional Office fax machine or by the eFiling system), using the local time in the Region where it is filed. A petition received electronically or by facsimile on a non-business day is deemed filed on the next business day after it is received (either by the Regional Office fax machine or by the eFiling system), using the local time in the Region where it is filed. When a Region receives a petition by any other method during its business hours, it is deemed filed that day. But when a Region receives a petition by any other method after the close of the business day, or on a non-business day, it will be deemed filed on the next business day after it is received. The business hours for each of the Regional Offices are set forth at https://www.flra.gov.

[77 FR 37752, June 25, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 13942, Mar. 24, 2026]

§ 2422.6 How are parties notified of the filing of a petition?

(a) Notification to parties. After you file a petition, the Regional Director will notify any labor organization, agency, or activity identified as being affected by issues raised by the petition, that a petition has been filed. The Regional Director will also make reasonable efforts to identify and notify any other party affected by the issues raised by the petition. However, the Regional Director's reasonable efforts do not relieve you of your own notification and service obligations.

(b) Contents of the notification. The notification will inform the labor organization, agency, or activity of:

(1) Your name (the petitioner);

(2) The description of the unit(s) or employees affected by issues raised in the petition; and,

(3) A statement that all affected parties should advise the Regional Director in writing of their interest in the issues raised in the petition.

[77 FR 37752, June 25, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 13942, Mar. 24, 2026]

§ 2422.7 Will an activity or agency post a notice of filing of a petition?

(a) Posting notice of petition. After you file a petition, when appropriate, the Regional Director will direct the agency or activity to post copies of a notice to all employees in places where notices are normally posted for the employees affected by issues raised in the petition and/or distribute copies of a notice in a manner by which notices are normally distributed.

(b) Contents of notice. The notice must advise affected employees about the petition.

(c) Duration of notice. The notice must be conspicuously posted for a period of ten (10) days and must not be altered, defaced, or covered by other material.

[77 FR 37752, June 25, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 13942, Mar. 24, 2026; 91 FR 65442, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.8 What is required to file an intervention or cross-petition?

(a) Cross-petitions. A cross-petition is a petition that involves any employees in a unit covered by a pending representation petition. If you file a cross-petition, it must be filed under the requirements of this subpart.

(b) Intervention requests and cross-petitions. (1) You may file a request to intervene, along with any necessary showing of interest, with either the Regional Director or the Hearing Officer. This must be filed either in person, or by commercial delivery, first-class mail, certified mail or facsimile. You must file a request to intervene before the hearing opens, unless you show good cause for granting an extension. If no hearing is held, you must file a request to intervene before action is taken under § 2422.30.

(2) You may file a cross-petition, along with any necessary showing of interest, with either the Regional Director or the Hearing Officer. This must be filed electronically through the use of the eFiling system on the FLRA's Web site at www.flra.gov or, in person, by commercial delivery, first-class mail, certified mail or facsimile. Any cross-petition must be filed before the hearing opens, unless you show good cause for granting an extension. If no hearing is held, you must file a cross-petition before action is taken under § 2422.30.

(c) Labor organization intervention requests. Except for incumbent intervenors, a labor organization seeking to intervene must submit a statement that it has complied with 5 U.S.C. 7111(e) and one of the following:

(1) A showing of interest of ten percent (10%) or more of the employees in the unit covered by a petition seeking an election, with an alphabetical list of the names of the employees establishing the showing of interest; or

(2) A current or recently expired collective bargaining agreement covering any of the employees in the unit affected by issues raised in the petition; or

(3) Evidence that it is or was, before a reorganization, the recognized or certified exclusive representative of any of the employees affected by issues raised in the petition.

(d) Incumbent. An incumbent exclusive representative, without regard to the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section, will be considered a party in any representation proceeding raising issues that affect employees the incumbent represents, unless it serves the Regional Director with a written disclaimer of any representation interest in the claimed unit.

(e) Employing agency. An agency or activity will be considered a party if any of its employees are affected by issues raised in the petition.

(f) Agency or activity intervention. An agency or activity seeking to intervene in any representation proceeding must submit evidence that one or more employees of the agency or activity may be affected by issues raised in the petition.

§ 2422.9 How is the adequacy of a showing of interest determined?

(a) Adequacy. Adequacy of a showing of interest refers to the percentage of employees in the unit involved as required by §§ 2422.3(c) and (d) and 2422.8(c)(1).

(b) Regional Director investigation of showing of interest and Decision and Order. The Regional Director will conduct an investigation if deemed appropriate. A Regional Director's determination that the showing of interest is adequate is final and binding and not subject to collateral attack at a representation hearing or on appeal to the Authority. If the Regional Director determines that a showing of interest is inadequate, the Regional Director will issue a Decision and Order dismissing the petition, or denying a request for intervention.

[77 FR 37752, June 25, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 13942, Mar. 24, 2026; 91 FR 65442, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.10 How do you challenge the validity of a showing of interest?

(a) Validity. Validity questions are raised by challenges to a showing of interest on grounds other than adequacy.

(b) Validity challenge. The Regional Director or any party may challenge the validity of a showing of interest.

(c) When and where validity challenges may be filed. Your challenges to the validity of a showing of interest must be in writing and filed with the Regional Director or the Hearing Officer before the hearing opens, unless you show good cause for granting an extension. If no hearing is held, you must file challenges to the validity of a showing of interest before action is taken under § 2422.30.

(d) Contents of validity challenges. Your challenges to the validity of a showing of interest must be supported with evidence.

(e) Regional Director investigation and Decision and Order. The Regional Director will conduct an investigation if deemed appropriate. The Regional Director's determination that a showing of interest is valid is final and binding and is not subject to collateral attack or appeal to the Authority. If the Regional Director finds that the showing of interest is not valid, the Regional Director will issue a Decision and Order dismissing the petition or denying the request to intervene.

[77 FR 37752, June 25, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 13942, Mar. 24, 2026; 91 FR 65443, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.11 How do you challenge the status of a labor organization?

(a) Basis of challenge to labor organization status. Non-compliance with 5 U.S.C. 7103(a)(4) is the only basis on which you may challenge the status of a labor organization.

(b) Format and time for filing a challenge. If you file a challenge to the status of a labor organization involved in the processing of a petition you must do so in writing to the Regional Director or the Hearing Officer before the hearing opens, unless you show good cause for granting an extension. If no hearing is held, you must file challenges before action is taken under § 2422.30.

§ 2422.12 What circumstances does the Region consider to determine whether your petition is timely filed?

(a) Election bar. Where there is no certified exclusive representative, a petition seeking an election will not be considered timely if filed within twelve (12) months of a valid election involving the same unit or a subdivision of the same unit.

(b) Certification bar. Where there is a certified exclusive representative of employees, a petition seeking an election will not be considered timely if filed within twelve (12) months after the certification of the exclusive representative of the employees in an appropriate unit. If a collective bargaining agreement covering the claimed unit is pending agency head review under 5 U.S.C. 7114(c) or is in effect, paragraph (c), (d), or (e) of this section applies.

(c) Bar during 5 U.S.C. 7114(c) agency head review. A petition seeking an election will not be considered timely if filed during the period of agency head review under 5 U.S.C. 7114(c). This bar expires upon either the passage of thirty (30) days absent agency head action, or upon the date of any timely agency head action.

(d) Contract bar where the contract is for three (3) years or less. Where a collective bargaining agreement is in effect covering the claimed unit and has a term of three (3) years or less from the date it became effective, a petition seeking an election will be considered timely if filed not more than one hundred and five (105) and not less than sixty (60) days before the expiration of the agreement.

(e) Contract bar where the contract is for more than three (3) years. Where a collective bargaining agreement is in effect covering the claimed unit and has a term of more than three (3) years from the date on which it became effective, a petition seeking an election will be considered timely if filed not more than one hundred and five (105) and not less than sixty (60) days before the expiration of the initial three (3) year period, and any time after the expiration of the initial three (3) year period.

(f) Unusual circumstances. A petition seeking an election or a determination relating to representation matters may be filed at any time when unusual circumstances exist that substantially affect the unit or majority representation.

(g) Premature extension. Where a collective bargaining agreement with a term of three (3) years or less has been extended before sixty (60) days before its expiration date, the extension will not serve as a basis for dismissal of a petition seeking an election filed in accordance with this section.

(h) Contract requirements. Collective bargaining agreements, including agreements that go into effect under 5 U.S.C. 7114(c) and those that automatically renew without further action by the parties, are not a bar to a petition seeking an election under this section unless a clear effective date, renewal date where applicable, duration, and termination date are ascertainable from the agreement and relevant accompanying documentation.

[77 FR 37752, June 25, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 13942, Mar. 24, 2026; 91 FR 65443, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.13 How are issues raised by your petition resolved?

(a) Meetings before filing a representation petition. All parties affected by the representation issues that may be raised in a petition are encouraged to meet before the filing of the petition to discuss their interests and narrow and resolve the issues. If requested by all parties, a representative of the appropriate Regional Office will participate in these meetings.

(b) Meetings to narrow and resolve the issues after the petition is filed. The Regional Director may require all affected parties to meet to narrow and resolve the issues raised in the petition.

[91 FR 65443, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.14 What is the effect of your withdrawal or the Regional Director's dismissal of a petition?

(a) Withdrawal/dismissal less than sixty (60) days before contract expiration. (1) If you withdraw a timely filed petition seeking an election, or the Regional Director dismisses the petition less than sixty (60) days before the existing agreement between the incumbent exclusive representative and the agency or activity expires, or any time after the agreement expires, another petition that seeks an election will not be considered timely if filed within a ninety (90) day period beginning with either:

(i) The date on which the Regional Director approves the withdrawal; or

(ii) The date on which the Regional Director dismisses the petition when the Authority does not receive an application for review; or

(iii) The date on which the Authority rules on an application for review.

(2) Other pending petitions that have been timely filed under this part will continue to be processed.

(b) Withdrawal by petitioner. If you submit a withdrawal request for a petition seeking an election that the Regional Director receives after the notice of hearing issues or after approval of an election agreement, whichever occurs first, you will be barred from filing another petition seeking an election for the same unit or any subdivision of the unit for six (6) months from the date on which the Regional Director approves the withdrawal.

(c) Withdrawal by incumbent. When an election is not held because the incumbent disclaims any representation interest in a unit, an incumbent's petition seeking an election involving the same unit or a subdivision of the same unit will be considered untimely if filed within six (6) months of cancellation of the election.

[77 FR 37752, June 25, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 13943, Mar. 24, 2026; 91 FR 65443, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.15 Do parties have a duty to provide information and cooperate after a petition is filed?

(a) Relevant information. After you file a petition, all parties must, upon request of the Regional Director, provide the Regional Director and serve all parties affected by issues raised in the petition with information concerning parties, issues, and agreements raised in or affected by the petition.

(b) Inclusions and exclusions. After you file a petition seeking an election, the Regional Director may direct the agency or activity to provide the Regional Director and all parties affected by issues raised in the petition with a current alphabetized list of employees and job classifications included in and/or excluded from the existing or claimed unit affected by issues raised in the petition.

(c) Cooperation. All parties are required to cooperate in every aspect of the representation process. This obligation includes cooperating fully with the Regional Director, submitting all required and requested information, and participating in prehearing conferences and hearings. The Regional Director may take appropriate action, including dismissal of the petition or denial of intervention, if parties fail to cooperate in the representation process.

[91 FR 65443, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.16 May parties enter into election agreements, and if they do not, will the Regional Director direct an election?

(a) Election agreements. Parties are encouraged to enter into election agreements.

(b) Regional Director directed election. If the parties are unable to agree on procedural matters, specifically, the eligibility period, method of election, dates, hours, or locations of the election, the Regional Director will decide election procedures and issue a Direction of Election, without prejudice to the rights of a party to file objections to the procedural conduct of the election.

(c) Opportunity for a hearing. Before directing an election, the Regional Director must provide affected parties an opportunity for a hearing on non-procedural matters, and then may:

(1) Issue a Decision and Order; or

(2) If there are no questions regarding unit appropriateness, issue a Direction of Election without a Decision and Order.

(d) Challenges or objections to a directed election. A Direction of Election issued under this section will be issued without prejudice to the right of a party to file a challenge to the eligibility of any person participating in the election and/or objections to the election.

[77 FR 37752, June 25, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 13943, Mar. 24, 2026; 91 FR 65444, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.17 What are a notice of hearing and prehearing conference?

(a) Purpose of notice of a hearing. The Regional Director may issue a notice of hearing involving any issues raised in the petition.

(b) Contents. The notice of hearing will advise affected parties about the hearing. The Regional Director will also notify affected parties of the issues raised in the petition and establish a date for the prehearing conference.

(c) Prehearing conference. A prehearing conference will be conducted by the Hearing Officer, either by meeting or teleconference. All parties must participate in a prehearing conference and be prepared to fully discuss, narrow, and resolve the issues set forth in the notification of the prehearing conference.

(d) No interlocutory appeal of hearing determination. A party may not appeal to the Authority a Regional Director's determination of whether to issue a notice of hearing.

[77 FR 37752, June 25, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 13943, Mar. 24, 2026; 91 FR 65444, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.18 What is the purpose of a representation hearing and what procedures are followed?

(a) Purpose of a hearing. Representation hearings are considered investigatory and not adversarial. The purpose of the hearing is to develop a full and complete record of relevant and material facts.

(b) Conduct of hearing. Hearings will be open to the public unless otherwise ordered by the Hearing Officer. There is no burden of proof, with the exception of proceedings on objections to elections under § 2422.27(b). Formal rules of evidence do not apply.

(c) Hearing officer. The Regional Director appoints a hearing officer to conduct a hearing. Another hearing officer may be substituted for the presiding Hearing Officer at any time.

(d) Transcript. An official reporter will make the official transcript of the hearing. Copies of the official transcript may be examined in the appropriate Regional Office during normal working hours. Parties should contact the official hearing reporter to purchase copies of the official transcript.

[77 FR 37752, June 25, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 13943, Mar. 24, 2026; 91 FR 65444, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.19 When is it appropriate for a party to file a motion at a representation hearing?

(a) Purpose of a motion. After the Regional Director issues a Notice of Hearing in a representation proceeding, a party who seeks a ruling, an order, or relief must do so by filing or raising a motion stating the order or relief sought and the grounds in support. The Regional Director or Hearing Officer may treat challenges and other filings referenced in other sections of this subpart as a motion.

(b) Prehearing motions. Parties must file prehearing motions in writing with the Regional Director. Any response must be filed with the Regional Director within five (5) days after service of the motion. The Regional Director may rule on the motion or refer the motion to the Hearing Officer.

(c) Motions made at the hearing. During the hearing, parties may make oral motions on the record to the Hearing Officer unless required to be in writing. Responses may be oral on the record or in writing, but must be provided before the hearing closes, absent permission of the Hearing Officer. When appropriate, the Hearing Officer will rule on motions made at the hearing or referred to the Hearing Officer by the Regional Director.

(d) Posthearing motions. Parties must file motions made after the hearing closes in writing with the Regional Director. Any response to a posthearing motion must be filed with the Regional Director within five (5) days after service of the motion.

[91 FR 65444, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.20 What rights do parties have at a hearing?

(a) Rights. A party at a hearing will have the right:

(1) To appear in person or by a representative;

(2) To examine and cross-examine witnesses; and

(3) To introduce into the record relevant evidence.

(b) Documentary evidence and stipulations. Parties must submit two (2) copies of documentary evidence to the Hearing Officer and copies to all other parties. Stipulations of fact between the parties may be introduced into evidence.

(c) Oral argument. Parties will have a reasonable period before the close of the hearing for oral argument. Presentation of a closing oral argument does not preclude a party from filing a brief under paragraph (d) of this section.

(d) Briefs. A party will be given an opportunity to file a brief with the Regional Director.

(1) A party must file an original and two (2) copies of a brief with the Regional Director within thirty (30) days from the close of the hearing.

(2) No later than five (5) days before the date the brief is due a party must file and the Regional Director must receive a written request for an extension of time to file a brief.

(3) Absent the Regional Director's permission, parties may not file a reply brief.

[77 FR 37752, June 25, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 13944, Mar. 24, 2026; 91 FR 65444, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.21 What are the duties and powers of the Hearing Officer?

(a) Duties of the Hearing Officer. The Hearing Officer receives evidence and inquires fully into the relevant and material facts concerning the matters that are the subject of the hearing. The Hearing Officer may make recommendations on the record to the Regional Director.

(b) Powers of the Hearing Officer. After the Regional Director assigns a case to a Hearing Officer and before the close of the hearing, the Hearing Officer may take any action necessary to schedule, conduct, continue, control, and regulate the hearing, including ruling on motions when appropriate.

[91 FR 65444, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.22 What are objections and exceptions concerning the conduct of the hearing?

(a) Objections. Objections are oral or written complaints concerning the conduct of a hearing.

(b) Exceptions to rulings. There are automatic exceptions to all adverse rulings.

§ 2422.23 What election procedures are followed?

(a) Regional Director conducts or supervises election. The Regional Director will decide to either conduct or supervise the election. In supervised elections, agencies will perform all acts as specified in the Election Agreement or Direction of Election.

(b) Notice of election. Before the election the activity posts a notice of election, prepared by the Regional Director. The notice is posted in places where notices to employees are customarily posted and/or distributed in a manner by which notices are normally distributed. The notice of election contains the details and procedures of the election, including the appropriate unit, the eligibility period, the date(s), hour(s), and location(s) of the election, a sample ballot, and the effect of the vote.

(c) Sample ballot. The reproduction of any document that claims to be a copy of the official ballot and that suggests either directly or indirectly to employees that the Authority endorses a particular choice in the election may constitute grounds for setting aside an election if objections are filed under § 2422.26.

(d) Secret ballot. All elections are by secret ballot.

(e) Intervenor withdraws from ballot. When two or more labor organizations are included as choices in an election, an intervening labor organization may, before the approval of an election agreement or before the direction of an election, file a written request with the Regional Director to remove its name from the ballot. If the Regional Director does not receive the request before the approval of an election agreement or before the direction of an election, the intervening labor organization will remain on the ballot, unless the parties and the Regional Director agree otherwise. The Regional Director's decision on the request is final, and no party may file an application for review with the Authority.

(f) Incumbent withdrawal from ballot in an election to decertify an incumbent representative. When there is no intervening labor organization, an election to decertify an incumbent exclusive representative is not held if the incumbent provides the Regional Director with a written disclaimer of any representation interest in the unit. When there is an intervenor, an election is held if the intervening labor organization proffers a thirty percent (30%) showing of interest within the time period established by the Regional Director.

(g) Petitioner withdraws from ballot in an election. When there is no intervening labor organization, an election is not held if the petitioner provides the Regional Director with a written request to withdraw the petition. When there is an intervenor, an election is held if the intervening labor organization presents a thirty percent (30%) showing of interest within the time period established by the Regional Director.

(h) Observers. Subject to the Regional Director's approval, all parties may select representatives to observe at the polling location(s).

(1) A party who wants to name observers must file a written request with specific names with the Regional Director. This request must be filed at least fifteen (15) days before an election. The Regional Director may grant an extension of time to file a request for named observers for good cause where a party requests an extension or on the Regional Director's own motion. The request must name and identify the observers requested.

(2) An agency or activity may use as its observers any employees who are not eligible to vote in the election, except:

(i) Supervisors or management officials;

(ii) Employees who have any official connection with any of the labor organizations involved; or

(iii) Non-employees of the Federal government.

(3) A labor organization may use as its observers any employees eligible to vote in the election, except:

(i) Employees on leave without pay status who are working for the labor organization involved; or

(ii) Employees who hold an elected office in the labor organization.

(4) Within five (5) days after service of the request for observers, any party that objects must file an objection with the Regional Director that states the reasons.

(5) The Regional Director's ruling on requests for and objections to observers is final and binding, and parties may not file an application for review with the Authority.

[77 FR 37752, June 25, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 13944, Mar. 24, 2026; 91 FR 65444, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.24 What are challenged ballots?

(a) Filing challenges. A party or the Regional Director may, for good cause, challenge the eligibility of any person to participate in the election.

(b) Challenged ballot procedure. An individual whose eligibility to vote is in dispute will be given the opportunity to vote a challenged ballot. If the parties and the Region are unable to resolve the challenged ballot(s) before the tally of ballots, the Region will impound and preserve the unresolved challenged ballot(s) until the Regional Director makes a determination, if necessary.

[91 FR 65445, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.25 When does the Region tally the ballots?

(a) Tallying the ballots. When the election is concluded, the Regional Director will tally the ballots.

(b) Service of the tally. When the tally is completed, the Regional Director will serve the tally of ballots on the parties in accordance with the election agreement or direction of election.

(c) Valid ballots cast. Representation will be determined by the majority of the valid ballots cast.

[77 FR 37752, June 25, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 13944, Mar. 24, 2026; 91 FR 65445, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.26 How are objections to the election processed?

(a) Filing objections to the election. Any party may file objections to the procedural conduct of the election or to conduct that may have improperly affected the results of the election. A party must file an objection and the Regional Director must receive it within five (5) days after the tally of ballots has been served. Any objections must be timely regardless of whether the challenged ballots are sufficient in number to affect the results of the election. The objections must be supported by clear and concise reasons. A party must file an original and two (2) copies of the objections.

(b) Supporting evidence. The objecting party must file evidence, including signed statements, documents, and other materials supporting the objections, with the Regional Director within ten (10) days after the party files the objections.

[77 FR 37752, June 25, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 13944, Mar. 24, 2026; 91 FR 65445, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.27 How does the Region address determinative challenged ballots and objections?

(a) Investigation. The Regional Director investigates objections and/or determinative challenged ballots that are sufficient in number to affect the results of the election.

(b) Burden of proof. An objecting party bears the burden of proof on objections by a preponderance of the evidence. However, no party bears the burden of proof on challenged ballots.

(c) Regional Director action. After investigation, the Regional Director takes appropriate action consistent with § 2422.30.

(d) Consolidated hearing on objections and/or determinative challenged ballots and an unfair labor practice hearing. When appropriate, and under § 2422.33, a Regional Director may consolidate objections and/or determinative challenged ballots with an unfair labor practice hearing. An Administrative Law Judge conducts these consolidated hearings, except the following provisions do not apply:

(1) Sections 2423.18 and 2423.19(j) of this subchapter concerning the burden of proof and settlement conferences are not applicable;

(2) The Administrative Law Judge may not recommend remedial action to be taken or notices to be posted as provided by § 2423.26(a) of this subchapter.

(e) Party exceptions filed with the Authority. A party may file exceptions and related submissions with the Authority, and the Authority then issues a decision under part 2423 of this chapter.

[77 FR 37752, June 25, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 13945, Mar. 24, 2026; 91 FR 65445, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.28 When is a runoff election required?

(a) When a runoff may be held. A runoff election is required in an election involving at least three (3) choices, one of which is “no union” or “neither,” when no choice receives a majority of the valid ballots cast. However, a runoff may not be held until the Regional Director has ruled on objections to the election and determinative challenged ballots.

(b) Eligibility. Employees who were eligible to vote in the original election and who are also eligible on the date of the runoff election may vote in the runoff election.

(c) Ballot. The ballot in the runoff election will provide for a selection between the two choices receiving the highest and second highest number of votes in the election.

[77 FR 37752, June 25, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 13945, Mar. 24, 2026; 91 FR 65445, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.29 How does the Region address an inconclusive election?

(a) Inconclusive elections. An inconclusive election is one where challenged ballots are not sufficient to affect the outcome of the election and one of the following occurs:

(1) The ballot provides for at least three (3) choices, one of which is “no union” or “neither,” and the votes are equally divided; or

(2) The ballot provides for at least three (3) choices, the choice receiving the highest number of votes does not receive a majority, and at least two other choices receive the next highest and same number of votes; or

(3) When a runoff ballot provides for a choice between two labor organizations and results in the votes being equally divided; or

(4) When the Regional Director determines that there have been significant procedural irregularities.

(b) Eligibility to vote in a rerun election. The Region uses the latest payroll period to determine eligibility to vote in a rerun election.

(c) Ballot. If the Regional Director determines that the election is inconclusive, the election will be rerun with all the choices that appeared on the original ballot.

(d) Number of reruns. There will be only one rerun of an inconclusive election. If the rerun results in another inconclusive election, the tally of ballots will show a majority of valid ballots has not been cast for any choice, and the Regional Director will issue a certification of results. If necessary, a runoff may be held when an original election is rerun.

[91 FR 65446, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.30 When does a Regional Director investigate a petition, issue notices of hearings, take actions, and issue Decisions and Orders?

(a) Regional Director investigation. The Regional Director will investigate the petition and any other matter as the Regional Director deems necessary.

(b) Regional Director notice of hearing. The Regional Director will issue a notice of hearing to inquire into any matter about which a material issue of fact exists, and any time there is reasonable cause to believe a question exists regarding unit appropriateness.

(c) Regional Director action. After investigation or hearing, the Regional Director can direct an election, or approve an election agreement, or issue a Decision and Order.

(d) Appeal of Regional Director Decision and Order. A party may file with the Authority an application for review of a Regional Director Decision and Order.

(e) Contents of the Record. When there has not been a hearing all material submitted to and considered by the Regional Director during the investigation becomes a part of the record. When a hearing has been held, the transcript and all material entered into evidence, including any posthearing briefs, become a part of the record.

[91 FR 65446, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.31 When do you file an application for review of a Regional Director Decision and Order?

(a) Filing an application for review. A party must file an application for review with the Authority within sixty (60) days of the Regional Director's Decision and Order. The sixty (60) day time limit under 5 U.S.C. 7105(f) may not be extended or waived. The filing party must serve a copy on the Regional Director and all other parties, and must also file a statement of service with the Authority.

(b) Contents. An application for review must be sufficient for the Authority to rule on the application without looking at the record. However, the Authority may, in its discretion, examine the record in evaluating the application. An application must specify the matters and rulings to which exception(s) is taken, include a summary of evidence relating to any issue raised in the application, and make specific references to page citations in the transcript if a hearing was held. An application may not raise any issue or rely on any facts not timely presented to the Hearing Officer or Regional Director.

(c) Review. The Authority may grant an application for review only when the application demonstrates that review is warranted on one or more of the following grounds:

(1) The decision raises an issue for which there is an absence of precedent;

(2) Established law or policy warrants reconsideration; or,

(3) There is a genuine issue over whether the Regional Director has:

(i) Failed to apply established law;

(ii) Committed a prejudicial procedural error; or

(iii) Committed a clear and prejudicial error concerning a substantial factual matter.

(d) Opposition. A party may file with the Authority an opposition to an application for review within ten (10) days after the party is served with the application. The opposing party must serve a copy on the Regional Director and all other parties, and must also file a statement of service with the Authority.

(e) Regional Director Decision and Order becomes the Authority's action. A Decision and Order of a Regional Director becomes the action of the Authority when:

(1) No party files an application for review with the Authority within sixty (60) days after the date of the Regional Director's Decision and Order; or

(2) A party files a timely application for review with the Authority and the Authority does not undertake to grant review of the Regional Director's Decision and Order within sixty (60) days of the filing of the application; or

(3) The Authority denies an application for review of the Regional Director's Decision and Order.

(f) Authority grant of review and stay. The Authority may rule on the issue(s) in an application for review in its order granting the application for review. Neither filing nor granting an application for review will stay any action ordered by the Regional Director unless specifically ordered by the Authority.

(g) Briefs if review is granted. If the Authority does not rule on the issue(s) in the application for review in its order granting review, the Authority may, in its discretion, give the parties an opportunity to file briefs. The briefs will be limited to the issue(s) referenced in the Authority's order granting review.

[91 FR 65446, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.32 When does a Regional Director issue a certification or a revocation of certification?

(a) Certifications. The Regional Director issues an appropriate certification when:

(1) After an election, runoff, or rerun:

(i) No party files an objection or challenged ballots are not determinative; or

(ii) The Region decides and resolves objections and determinative challenged ballots; or

(2) The Regional Director issues a Decision and Order requiring a certification and the Decision and Order becomes the action of the Authority under § 2422.31(e) or the Authority directs the issuance of a certification.

(b) Revocations. Without prejudice to any rights and obligations that may exist under the Statute, the Regional Director revokes a recognition or certification, as appropriate, and provides a written statement of reasons when:

(1) An incumbent exclusive representative files, during a representation proceeding, a disclaimer of any representational interest in the unit; or

(2) Due to a substantial change in the character and scope of the unit, the unit is no longer appropriate and an election is not warranted.

[91 FR 65446, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.33 Relief under part 2423 of this chapter.

Remedial relief that was or could have been obtained as a result of a motion, objection, or challenge filed or raised under this subpart, may not be the basis for similar relief under part 2423 of this chapter. But related matters may be consolidated for hearing as noted in § 2422.27(d) of this subpart.

[91 FR 65447, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2422.34 What are the parties' rights and obligations when a representation proceeding is pending?

(a) Existing recognitions, agreements, and obligations under the Statute. (1) Except for the circumstances described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, when a representation proceeding is pending before the FLRA, parties must maintain existing recognitions, follow the terms and conditions of existing collective bargaining agreements, and fulfill all other representational and bargaining responsibilities under the Statute.

(2) The filing of a motion for reconsideration or motion for a stay does not relieve parties of their obligations to comply with a final decision or order of the Authority, unless so ordered by the Authority.

(b) Unit status of individual employees. A party may take action based on its position regarding the bargaining unit status of individual employees, under 3 U.S.C. 431(d)(2), and 5 U.S.C. 7103(a)(2), 7112(b), and 7112(c), but its actions may be challenged, reviewed, and remedied where appropriate.

[91 FR 13945, Mar. 24, 2026]

PART 2423 UNFAIR LABOR PRACTICE PROCEEDINGS

Authority: 3 U.S.C. 431; 5 U.S.C. 7134.

Source: 62 FR 40916, July 31, 1997, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2423.0 Applicability of this part.

This part applies to any unfair labor practice cases that are pending or filed with the FLRA on or after July 25, 2012.

[77 FR 37759, June 25, 2012]

Subpart A Filing, Investigating, Resolving, and Acting on Charges

Source: 77 FR 37759, June 25, 2012, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2423.1 Can a Regional Office help the parties resolve unfair labor practice disputes before a Regional Director decides whether to issue a complaint?

(a) Resolving unfair labor practice disputes before filing a charge. The purposes and policies of the Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statute (Statute) can best be achieved by the collaborative efforts of all persons covered by that law. The General Counsel encourages all persons to meet and, in good faith, attempt to resolve unfair labor practice disputes before filing unfair labor practice charges. If requested, and the parties agree, a representative of the Regional Office, in appropriate circumstances, may participate in these meetings to assist the parties to identify the issues and their interests and to resolve the dispute. Parties' attempts to resolve unfair labor practice disputes before filing an unfair labor practice charge do not toll the time limitations for filing a charge set forth at 5 U.S.C. 7118(a)(4).

(b) Resolving unfair labor practice disputes after filing a charge. The General Counsel encourages the informal resolution of unfair labor practice allegations after a charge is filed and before the Regional Director makes a merit determination. A representative of the appropriate Regional Office, as part of the investigation, may assist the parties in informally resolving their dispute.

§ 2423.2 What Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) services does the OGC provide?

(a) Purpose of ADR services. The Office of the General Counsel furthers its mission and implements the agency-wide Federal Labor Relations Authority Collaboration and Alternative Dispute Resolution Program by promoting stable and productive labor-management relationships governed by the Statute and by providing services that assist labor organizations and agencies, on a voluntary basis, to:

(1) Develop collaborative labor-management relationships;

(2) Avoid unfair labor practice disputes; and

(3) Informally resolve unfair labor practice disputes.

(b) Types of ADR Services. Agencies and labor organizations may jointly request, or agree to, the provision of the following services by the Office of the General Counsel:

(1) Facilitation. Assisting the parties in improving their labor-management relationship as governed by the Statute;

(2) Intervention. Intervening when parties are experiencing or expect significant unfair labor practice disputes;

(3) Training. Training labor organization officials and agency representatives on their rights and responsibilities under the Statute and how to avoid litigation over those rights and responsibilities, and on using problem-solving and ADR skills, techniques, and strategies to resolve informally unfair labor practice disputes; and

(4) Education. Working with the parties to recognize the benefits of, and establish processes for, avoiding unfair labor practice disputes, and resolving any unfair labor practice disputes that arise by consensual, rather than adversarial, methods.

(c) ADR services after initiation of an investigation. As part of processing an unfair labor practice charge, the Office of the General Counsel may suggest to the parties, as appropriate, that they may benefit from these ADR services.

§ 2423.3 Who may file charges?

(a) Filing charges. Any person may charge an activity, agency, or labor organization with having engaged in, or engaging in, any unfair labor practice prohibited under 5 U.S.C. 7116.

(b) Charging Party. Charging Party means the individual, labor organization, activity, or agency filing an unfair labor practice charge with a Regional Director.

(c) Charged Party. Charged Party means the activity, agency, or labor organization charged with allegedly having engaged in, or engaging in, an unfair labor practice.

§ 2423.4 What must you state in the charge and what supporting evidence and documents should you submit?

(a) What to file. You, the Charging Party, may file a charge alleging a violation of 5 U.S.C. 7116 by providing the following information on a form designated by the General Counsel, or on a substantially similar form, or electronically through the use of the eFiling system on the FLRA's Web site at www.flra.gov, or by facsimile transmission:

(1) The Charging Party's name and mailing address, including street number, city, state, and zip code;

(2) The Charged Party's name and mailing address, including street number, city, state, and zip code;

(3) The Charging Party's point of contact's name, address, telephone number, facsimile number, if known, and email address, if known;

(4) The Charged Party's point of contact's name, address, telephone number, facsimile number, if known, and email address, if known;

(5) A clear and concise statement of the facts alleged to constitute an unfair labor practice, a statement of how those facts allegedly violate specific section(s) and paragraph(s) of the Statute, and the date and place of occurrence of the particular acts; and

(6) A statement whether the subject matter raised in the charge:

(i) Has been raised previously in a grievance procedure;

(ii) Has been referred to the Federal Service Impasses Panel, the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service, the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, the Merit Systems Protection Board, or the Office of Special Counsel for consideration or action;

(iii) Involves a negotiability issue that you raised in a petition pending before the Authority under part 2424 of this subchapter; or

(iv) Has been the subject of any other administrative or judicial proceeding.

(7) A statement describing the result or status of any proceeding identified in paragraph (a)(6) of this section.

(b) When and how to file. Under 5 U.S.C. 7118(a)(4), a charge alleging an unfair labor practice must be in writing and signed or filed electronically using the eFiling system on the FLRA's Web site at www.flra.gov. It is normally filed within six (6) months of its occurrence unless one of the two (2) circumstances described under paragraph (B) of 5 U.S.C. 7118(a)(4) applies.

(c) Declarations of truth and statement of service. A charge must also contain a declaration by the individual signing the charge, under the penalties of the Criminal Code (18 U.S.C. 1001), that its contents are true and correct to the best of that individual's knowledge and belief.

(d) Statement of service. You must also state that you served the charge on the Charged Party, and you must list the name, title and location of the individual served, and the method of service.

(e) Self-contained document. A charge must be a self-contained document describing the alleged unfair labor practice without a need to refer to supporting evidence and documents submitted under paragraph (f) of this section.

(f) Submitting supporting evidence and documents and identifying potential witnesses. When filing a charge, you must submit to the Regional Director any supporting evidence and documents, including, but not limited to, correspondence and memoranda, records, reports, applicable collective bargaining agreement clauses, memoranda of understanding, minutes of meetings, applicable regulations, statements of position, and other documentary evidence. You also must identify potential witnesses with contact information (telephone number, email address, and facsimile number) and provide a brief synopsis of their expected testimony.

§ 2423.5 [Reserved]
§ 2423.6 What is the process for filing and serving copies of charges?

(a) Where to file. You must file the charge with the Regional Director for the region in which the alleged unfair labor practice has occurred or is occurring. A charge alleging that an unfair labor practice has occurred or is occurring in two or more regions may be filed with the Regional Director in any of those regions.

(b) Date of filing. When a Regional Director receives a charge, it is deemed filed. A charge filed during business hours by facsimile or electronic means is deemed received on the business day on which it is received (either by the Regional Office fax machine or by the eFiling system), until midnight local time in the Region where it is filed. But when a Region receives a charge after the close of the business day by any other method, it will be deemed received and docketed on the next business day. The business hours for each of the Regional Offices are set forth at http://www.FLRA.gov.

(c) Method of filing. You may file a charge with the Regional Director in person or by commercial delivery, first class mail, certified mail, facsimile, or electronically through use of the eFiling system on the FLRA's Web site at www.flra.gov. If filing by facsimile transmission or by electronic means, you are not required to file an original copy of the charge with the Region. You assume responsibility for the Regional Director's receipt of a charge. Supporting evidence and documents must be submitted to the Regional Director in person, by commercial delivery, first class mail, certified mail, facsimile transmission, or through the FLRA's eFiling system.

(d) Service of the charge. You must serve a copy of the charge (without supporting evidence and documents) on the Charged Party. Where facsimile equipment is available, you may serve the charge by facsimile transmission, as paragraph (c) of this section discusses. Alternatively, you may serve the charge by electronic mail (“email”), but only if the Charged Party has agreed to be served by email. The Region routinely serves a copy of the charge on the Charged Party, but you remain responsible for serving the charge, consistent with the requirements in this paragraph.

§ 2423.7 [Reserved]
§ 2423.8 How are charges investigated?

(a) Investigation. The Regional Director, on behalf of the General Counsel, conducts an investigation of the charge as deemed necessary. During the course of the investigation, all parties involved are given an opportunity to present their evidence and views to the Regional Director.

(b) Cooperation. The purposes and policies of the Statute can best be achieved by the parties' full cooperation and their timely submission of all relevant information from all potential sources during the investigation. All persons must cooperate fully with the Regional Director in the investigation of charges. A failure to cooperate during the investigation of a charge may provide grounds to dismiss a charge for failure to produce evidence supporting the charge. Cooperation includes any of the following actions, when deemed appropriate by the Regional Director:

(1) Making union officials, employees, and agency supervisors and managers available to give sworn/affirmed testimony regarding matters under investigation;

(2) Producing documentary evidence pertinent to the matters under investigation;

(3) Providing statements of position on the matters under investigation; and

(4) Responding to an agent's communications during an investigation in a timely manner.

(c) Investigatory subpoenas. If a person fails to cooperate with the Regional Director in the investigation of a charge, the General Counsel, upon recommendation of a Regional Director, may decide in appropriate circumstances to issue a subpoena under 5 U.S.C. 7132 for the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of documentary or other evidence. However, no subpoena, which requires the disclosure of intramanagement guidance, advice, counsel, or training within an agency or between an agency and the Office of Personnel Management, will issue under this section.

(1) A subpoena can only be served by any individual who is at least 18 years old and who is not a party to the proceeding. The individual who served the subpoena must certify that he or she did so:

(i) By delivering it to the witness in person;

(ii) By registered or certified mail; or

(iii) By delivering the subpoena to a responsible individual (named in the document certifying the delivery) at the residence or place of business (as appropriate) of the person for whom the subpoena was intended. The subpoena must show on its face the name and address of the Regional Director and the General Counsel.

(2) Any person served with a subpoena who does not intend to comply must, within 5 days after the date of service of the subpoena upon such person, petition in writing to revoke the subpoena. A copy of any petition to revoke must be served on the General Counsel.

(3) The General Counsel must revoke the subpoena if the witness or evidence, the production of which is required, is not material and relevant to the matters under investigation or in question in the proceedings, or the subpoena does not describe with sufficient particularity the evidence the production of which is required, or if for any other reason sufficient in law the subpoena is invalid. The General Counsel must state the procedural or other grounds for the ruling on the petition to revoke. The petition to revoke becomes part of the official record if there is a hearing under subpart C of this part.

(4) Upon the failure of any person to comply with a subpoena issued by the General Counsel, the General Counsel must determine whether to institute proceedings in the appropriate district court for the enforcement of the subpoena. Enforcement must not be sought if to do so would be inconsistent with law, including the Statute.

(d) Confidentiality. It is the General Counsel's policy to protect the identity of individuals who submit statements and information during the investigation, and to protect against the disclosure of documents obtained during the investigation, to ensure the General Counsel's ability to obtain all relevant information. However, after a Regional Director issues a complaint and when necessary to prepare for a hearing, the Region may disclose the identification of witnesses, a synopsis of their expected testimony, and documents proposed to be offered into evidence at the hearing, as required by the prehearing disclosure requirements in § 2423.23.

§ 2423.9 How are charges amended?

Before the issuance of a complaint, the Charging Party may amend the charge under the requirements set forth in § 2423.6.

§ 2423.10 What actions may the Regional Director take with regard to your charge?

(a) Regional Director action. The Regional Director, on behalf of the General Counsel, may take any of the following actions, as appropriate:

(1) Approve a request to withdraw a charge;

(2) Dismiss a charge;

(3) Approve a written settlement agreement under § 2423.12;

(4) Issue a complaint; or

(5) Withdraw a complaint.

(b) Request for appropriate temporary relief. Parties may request the General Counsel to seek appropriate temporary relief (including a restraining order) under 5 U.S.C. 7123(d). The General Counsel may initiate and prosecute injunctive proceedings under 5 U.S.C. 7123(d) only upon approval of the Authority. A determination by the General Counsel not to seek approval of the Authority to seek temporary relief is final and cannot be appealed to the Authority.

(c) General Counsel requests to the Authority. When a complaint issues and the Authority approves the General Counsel's request to seek appropriate temporary relief (including a restraining order) under 5 U.S.C. 7123(d), the General Counsel may make application for appropriate temporary relief (including a restraining order) in the district court of the United States within which the unfair labor practice is alleged to have occurred or in which the party sought to be enjoined resides or transacts business. The General Counsel may seek temporary relief if it is just and proper and the record establishes probable cause that an unfair labor practice is being committed. Temporary relief will not be sought if it would interfere with the ability of the agency to carry out its essential functions.

(d) Actions subsequent to obtaining appropriate temporary relief. The General Counsel must inform the district court that granted temporary relief under 5 U.S.C. 7123(d) whenever an Administrative Law Judge recommends dismissal of the complaint, in whole or in part.

§ 2423.11 What happens if a Regional Director decides not to issue a complaint?

(a) Opportunity to withdraw a charge. If the Regional Director determines that the charge has not been timely filed, that the charge fails to state an unfair labor practice, or for other appropriate reasons, the Regional Director may request the Charging Party to withdraw the charge.

(b) Dismissal letter. If the Charging Party does not withdraw the charge within a reasonable period of time, the Regional Director will dismiss the charge and provide the parties with a written statement of the reasons for not issuing a complaint.

(c) Appeal of a dismissal letter. The Charging Party may obtain review of the Regional Director's decision to dismiss a charge by filing an appeal with the General Counsel, either in writing or by email to ogc.appeals@flra.gov, within 25 days after the Regional Director served the decision. A Charging Party must serve a copy of the appeal on the Regional Director. The General Counsel must serve notice on the Charged Party that the Charging Party has filed an appeal.

(d) Extension of time. The Charging Party may file a request, either in writing or by email to ogc.appeals@flra.gov, for an extension of time to file an appeal, which must be received by the General Counsel not later than five (5) days before the date the appeal is due. A Charging Party must serve a copy of the request for an extension of time on the Regional Director.

(e) Grounds for granting an appeal. The General Counsel may grant an appeal when the appeal establishes at least one of the following grounds:

(1) The Regional Director's decision did not consider material facts that would have resulted in issuance of a complaint;

(2) The Regional Director's decision is based on a finding of a material fact that is clearly erroneous;

(3) The Regional Director's decision is based on an incorrect statement or application of the applicable rule of law;

(4) There is no Authority precedent on the legal issue in the case; or

(5) The manner in which the Region conducted the investigation has resulted in prejudicial error.

(f) General Counsel action. The General Counsel may deny the appeal of the Regional Director's dismissal of the charge, or may grant the appeal and remand the case to the Regional Director to take further action. The General Counsel's decision on the appeal states the grounds listed in paragraph (e) of this section for denying or granting the appeal, and is served on all the parties. Absent a timely motion for reconsideration, the General Counsel's decision is final.

(g) Reconsideration. After the General Counsel issues a final decision, the Charging Party may move for reconsideration of the final decision if it can establish extraordinary circumstances in its moving papers. The motion must be filed within 10 days after the date on which the General Counsel's final decision is postmarked. A motion for reconsideration must state with particularity the extraordinary circumstances claimed and must be supported by appropriate citations. The decision of the General Counsel on a motion for reconsideration is final.

§ 2423.12 What types of settlements of unfair labor practice charges are possible after a Regional Director decides to issue a complaint but before issuance of a complaint?

(a) Bilateral informal settlement agreement. Before issuing a complaint, the Regional Director may give the Charging Party and the Charged Party a reasonable period of time to enter into an informal settlement agreement to be approved by the Regional Director. When a Charged Party complies with the terms of an informal settlement agreement approved by the Regional Director, no further action is taken in the case. If the Charged Party fails to perform its obligations under the approved informal settlement agreement, the Regional Director may institute further proceedings.

(b) Unilateral informal settlement agreement. If the Charging Party elects not to become a party to a bilateral settlement agreement, which the Regional Director concludes fulfills the policies of the Statute, the Regional Director may choose to approve a unilateral settlement between the Regional Director and the Charged Party. The Regional Director, on behalf of the General Counsel, must issue a letter stating the grounds for approving the settlement agreement and declining to issue a complaint. The Charging Party may obtain review of the Regional Director's action by filing an appeal with the General Counsel under § 2423.11(c) and (d). The General Counsel may grant an appeal when the Charging Party has shown that the Regional Director's approval of a unilateral settlement agreement does not fulfill the purposes and policies of the Statute. The General Counsel must take action on the appeal as set forth in § 2423.11(b) through (g).

§§ 2423.13-2423.19 [Reserved]
Subpart B Post Complaint, Prehearing Procedures
§ 2423.20 Issuance and contents of the complaint; answer to the complaint; amendments; role of Office of Administrative Law Judges.

(a) Complaint. Whenever formal proceedings are deemed necessary, the Regional Director shall file and serve, in accordance with § 2429.12 of this subchapter, a complaint with the Office of Administrative Law Judges. The decision to issue a complaint shall not be subject to review. Any complaint may be withdrawn by the Regional Director prior to the hearing. The complaint shall set forth:

(1) Notice of the charge;

(2) The basis for jurisdiction;

(3) The facts alleged to constitute an unfair labor practice;

(4) The particular sections of 5 U.S.C., chapter 71 and the rules and regulations involved;

(5) Notice of the date, time, and place that a hearing will take place before an Administrative Law Judge; and

(6) A brief statement explaining the nature of the hearing.

(b) Answer. Within 20 days after the date of service of the complaint, but in any event, prior to the beginning of the hearing, the Respondent shall file and serve, in accordance with part 2429 of this subchapter, an answer with the Office of Administrative Law Judges. The answer shall admit, deny, or explain each allegation of the complaint. If the Respondent has no knowledge of an allegation or insufficient information as to its truthfulness, the answer shall so state. Absent a showing of good cause to the contrary, failure to file an answer or respond to any allegation shall constitute an admission. Motions to extend the filing deadline shall be filed in accordance with § 2423.21.

(c) Amendments. The Regional Director may amend the complaint at any time before the answer is filed. The Respondent then has 20 days from the date of service of the amended complaint to file an answer with the Office of Administrative Law Judges. Prior to the beginning of the hearing, the answer may be amended by the Respondent within 20 days after the answer is filed. Thereafter, any requests to amend the complaint or answer must be made by motion to the Office of Administrative Law Judges.

(d) Office of Administrative Law Judges. Pleadings, motions, conferences, hearings, and other matters throughout as specified in subparts B, C, and D of this part shall be administered by the Office of Administrative Law Judges, as appropriate. The Chief Administrative Law Judge, or any Administrative Law Judge designated by the Chief Administrative Law Judge, shall administer any matters properly submitted to the Office of Administrative Law Judges. Throughout subparts B, C, and D of this part, “Administrative Law Judge” or “Judge” refers to the Chief Administrative Law Judge or his or her designee.

§ 2423.21 Motions procedure.

(a) General requirements. All motions, except those made during a prehearing conference or hearing, shall be in writing. Motions for an extension of time, postponement of a hearing, or any other procedural ruling shall include a statement of the position of the other parties on the motion. All written motions and responses in subparts B, C, or D of this part shall satisfy the filing and service requirements of part 2429 of this subchapter.

(b) Motions made to the Administrative Law Judge. Prehearing motions and motions made at the hearing shall be filed with the Administrative Law Judge. Unless otherwise specified in subparts B or C of this part, or otherwise directed or approved by the Administrative Law Judge:

(1) Prehearing motions shall be filed at least 10 days prior to the hearing, and responses shall be filed within 5 days after the date of service of the motion;

(2) Responses to motions made during the hearing shall be filed prior to the close of hearing;

(3) Posthearing motions shall be filed within 10 days after the date the hearing closes, and responses shall be filed within 5 days after the date of service of the motion; and

(4) Motions to correct the transcript shall be filed with the Administrative Law Judge within 10 days after receipt of the transcript, and responses shall be filed within 5 days after the date of service of the motion.

(c) Post-transmission motions. After the case has been transmitted to the Authority, motions shall be filed with the Authority. Responses shall be filed within 5 days after the date of service of the motion.

(d) Interlocutory appeals. Motions for an interlocutory appeal of any ruling and responses shall be filed in accordance with this section and § 2423.31(c).

§ 2423.22 Intervenors.

Motions for permission to intervene and responses shall be filed in accordance with § 2423.21. Such motions shall be granted upon a showing that the outcome of the proceeding is likely to directly affect the movant's rights or duties. Intervenors may participate only: on the issues determined by the Administrative Law Judge to affect them; and to the extent permitted by the Judge. Denial of such motions may be appealed pursuant to § 2423.21(d).

§ 2423.23 Prehearing disclosure.

Unless otherwise directed or approved by the Judge, the parties shall exchange, in accordance with the service requirements of § 2429.27(b) of this subchapter, the following items at least 14 days prior to the hearing:

(a) Witnesses. Proposed witness lists, including a brief synopsis of the expected testimony of each witness;

(b) Documents. Copies of documents, with an index, proposed to be offered into evidence; and

(c) Theories. A brief statement of the theory of the case, including relief sought, and any and all defenses to the allegations in the complaint.

§ 2423.24 Powers and duties of the Administrative Law Judge during prehearing proceedings.

(a) Prehearing procedures. The Administrative Law Judge shall regulate the course and scheduling of prehearing matters, including prehearing orders, conferences, disclosure, motions, and subpoena requests.

(b) Changing date, time, or place of hearing. After issuance of the complaint or any prehearing order, the Administrative Law Judge may, in the Judge's discretion or upon motion by any party through the motions procedure in § 2423.21, change the date, time, or place of the hearing.

(c) Prehearing order. (1) The Administrative Law Judge may, in the Judge's discretion or upon motion by any party through the motions procedure in § 2423.21, issue a prehearing order confirming or changing:

(i) The date, time, or place of the hearing;

(ii) The schedule for prehearing disclosure of witness lists and documents intended to be offered into evidence at the hearing;

(iii) The date for submission of procedural and substantive motions;

(iv) The date, time, and place of the prehearing conference; and

(v) Any other matter pertaining to prehearing or hearing procedures.

(2) The prehearing order shall be served in accordance with § 2429.12 of this subchapter.

(d) Prehearing conferences. The Administrative Law Judge shall conduct one or more prehearing conferences, either by telephone or in person, at least 7 days prior to the hearing date, unless the Administrative Law Judge determines that a prehearing conference would serve no purpose and no party has moved for a prehearing conference in accordance with § 2423.21. If a prehearing conference is held, all parties must participate in the prehearing conference and be prepared to discuss, narrow, and resolve the issues set forth in the complaint and answer, as well as any prehearing disclosure matters or disputes. When necessary, the Administrative Law Judge shall prepare and file for the record a written summary of actions taken at the conference. Summaries of the conference shall be served on all parties in accordance with § 2429.12 of this subchapter. The following may also be considered at the prehearing conference:

(1) Settlement of the case, either by the Judge conducting the prehearing conference or pursuant to § 2423.25;

(2) Admissions of fact, disclosure of contents and authenticity of documents, and stipulations of fact;

(3) Objections to the introduction of evidence at the hearing, including oral or written testimony, documents, papers, exhibits, or other submissions proposed by a party;

(4) Subpoena requests or petitions to revoke subpoenas;

(5) Any matters subject to official notice;

(6) Outstanding motions; or

(7) Any other matter that may expedite the hearing or aid in the disposition of the case.

(e) Sanctions. The Administrative Law Judge may, in the Judge's discretion or upon motion by any party through the motions procedure in § 2423.21, impose sanctions upon the parties as necessary and appropriate to ensure that a party's failure to fully comply with subpart B or C of this part is not condoned. Such authority includes, but is not limited to, the power to:

(1) Prohibit a party who fails to comply with any requirement of subpart B or C of this part from, as appropriate, introducing evidence, calling witnesses, raising objections to the introduction of evidence or testimony of witnesses at the hearing, presenting a specific theory of violation, seeking certain relief, or relying upon a particular defense.

(2) Refuse to consider any submission that is not filed in compliance with subparts B or C of this part.

§ 2423.25 Post complaint, prehearing settlements.

(a) Informal and formal settlements. Post complaint settlements may be either informal or formal.

(1) Informal settlement agreements provide for withdrawal of the complaint by the Regional Director and are not subject to approval by or an order of the Authority. If the Respondent fails to perform its obligations under the informal settlement agreement, the Regional Director may reinstitute formal proceedings consistent with this subpart.

(2) Formal settlement agreements are subject to approval by the Authority, and include the parties' agreement to waive their right to a hearing and acknowledgment that the Authority may issue an order requiring the Respondent to take action appropriate to the terms of the settlement. The formal settlement agreement shall also contain the Respondent's consent to the Authority's application for the entry of a decree by an appropriate federal court enforcing the Authority's order.

(b) Informal settlement procedure. If the Charging Party and the Respondent enter into an informal settlement agreement that is accepted by the Regional Director, the Regional Director shall withdraw the complaint and approve the informal settlement agreement. If the Charging Party fails or refuses to become a party to an informal settlement agreement offered by the Respondent, and the Regional Director concludes that the offered settlement will effectuate the policies of the Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statute, the Regional Director shall enter into the agreement with the Respondent and shall withdraw the complaint. The Charging Party then may obtain a review of the Regional Director's action by filing an appeal with the General Counsel as provided in subpart A of this part.

(c) Formal settlement procedure. If the Charging Party and the Respondent enter into a formal settlement agreement that is accepted by the Regional Director, the Regional Director shall withdraw the complaint upon approval of the formal settlement agreement by the Authority. If the Charging Party fails or refuses to become a party to a formal settlement agreement offered by the Respondent, and the Regional Director concludes that the offered settlement will effectuate the policies of the Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statute, the agreement shall be between the Respondent and the Regional Director. The formal settlement agreement together with the Charging Party's objections, if any, shall be submitted to the Authority for approval. The Authority may approve a formal settlement agreement upon a sufficient showing that it will effectuate the policies of the Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statute.

(d) Settlement judge program. The Administrative Law Judge, in the Judge's discretion or upon the request of any party, may assign a judge or other appropriate official, who shall be other than the hearing judge unless otherwise mutually agreed to by the parties, to conduct negotiations for settlement.

(1) The settlement official shall convene and preside over settlement conferences by telephone or in person.

(2) The settlement official may require that the representative for each party be present at settlement conferences and that the parties or agents with full settlement authority be present or available by telephone.

(3) The settlement official shall not discuss any aspect of the case with the hearing judge.

(4) No evidence regarding statements, conduct, offers of settlement, and concessions of the parties made in proceedings before the settlement official shall be admissible in any proceeding before the Administrative Law Judge or Authority, except by stipulation of the parties.

§ 2423.26 Stipulations of fact submissions.

(a) General. When all parties agree that no material issue of fact exists, the parties may jointly submit a motion to the Administrative Law Judge or Authority requesting consideration of the matter based upon stipulations of fact. Briefs of the parties are required and must be submitted within 30 days of the joint motion. Upon receipt of the briefs, such motions shall be ruled upon expeditiously.

(b) Stipulations to the Administrative Law Judge. Where the stipulation adequately addresses the appropriate material facts, the Administrative Law Judge may grant the motion and decide the case through stipulation.

(c) Stipulations to the Authority. Where the stipulation provides an adequate basis for application of established precedent and a decision by the Administrative Law Judge would not assist in the resolution of the case, or in unusual circumstances, the Authority may grant the motion and decide the case through stipulation.

(d) Decision based on stipulation. Where the motion is granted, the Authority will adjudicate the case and determine whether the parties have met their respective burdens based on the stipulation and the briefs.

§ 2423.27 Summary judgment motions.

(a) Motions. Any party may move for a summary judgment in its favor on any of the issues pleaded. Unless otherwise approved by the Administrative Law Judge, such motion shall be made no later than 10 days prior to the hearing. The motion shall demonstrate that there is no genuine issue of material fact and that the moving party is entitled to a judgment as a matter of law. Such motions shall be supported by documents, affidavits, applicable precedent, or other appropriate materials.

(b) Responses. Responses must be filed within 5 days after the date of service of the motion. Responses may not rest upon mere allegations or denials but must show, by documents, affidavits, applicable precedent, or other appropriate materials, that there is a genuine issue to be determined at the hearing.

(c) Decision. If all issues are decided by summary judgment, no hearing will be held and the Administrative Law Judge shall prepare a decision in accordance with § 2423.34. If summary judgment is denied, or if partial summary judgment is granted, the Administrative Law Judge shall issue an opinion and order, subject to interlocutory appeal as provided in § 2423.31(c) of this subchapter, and the hearing shall proceed as necessary.

§ 2423.28 Subpoenas.

(a) When necessary. Where the parties are in agreement that the appearance of witnesses or the production of documents is necessary, and such witnesses agree to appear, no subpoena need be sought.

(b) Requests for subpoenas. A request for a subpoena by any person, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 7103(a)(1), shall be in writing and filed with the Office of Administrative Law Judges not less than 10 days prior to the hearing, or with the Administrative Law Judge during the hearing. Requests for subpoenas made less than 10 days prior to the hearing shall be granted on sufficient explanation of why the request was not timely filed.

(c) Subpoena procedures. The Office of Administrative Law Judges, or any other employee of the Authority designated by the Authority, as appropriate, shall furnish the requester the subpoenas sought, provided the request is timely made. Requests for subpoenas may be made ex parte. Completion of the specific information in the subpoena and the service of the subpoena are the responsibility of the party on whose behalf the subpoena was issued.

(d) Service of subpoena. A subpoena may be served by any person who is at least 18 years old and who is not a party to the proceeding. The person who served the subpoena must certify that he or she did so:

(1) By delivering it to the witness in person,

(2) By registered or certified mail, or

(3) By delivering the subpoena to a responsible person (named in the document certifying the delivery) at the residence or place of business (as appropriate) of the person for whom the subpoena was intended. The subpoena shall show on its face the name and address of the party on whose behalf the subpoena was issued.

(e)(1) Petition to revoke subpoena. Any person served with a subpoena who does not intend to comply shall, within 5 days after the date of service of the subpoena upon such person, petition in writing to revoke the subpoena. A copy of any petition to revoke a subpoena shall be served on the party on whose behalf the subpoena was issued. Such petition to revoke, if made prior to the hearing, and a written statement of service, shall be filed with the Office of Administrative Law Judges for ruling. A petition to revoke a subpoena filed during the hearing, and a written statement of service, shall be filed with the Administrative Law Judge.

(2) The Administrative Law Judge, or any other employee of the Authority designated by the Authority, as appropriate, shall revoke the subpoena if the person or evidence, the production of which is required, is not material and relevant to the matters under investigation or in question in the proceedings, or the subpoena does not describe with sufficient particularity the evidence the production of which is required, or if for any other reason sufficient in law the subpoena is invalid. The Administrative Law Judge, or any other employee of the Authority designated by the Authority, as appropriate, shall state the procedural or other ground for the ruling on the petition to revoke. The petition to revoke, any answer thereto, and any ruling thereon shall not become part of the official record except upon the request of the party aggrieved by the ruling.

(f) Failure to comply. Upon the failure of any person to comply with a subpoena issued and upon the request of the party on whose behalf the subpoena was issued, the Solicitor of the Authority shall institute proceedings on behalf of such party in the appropriate district court for the enforcement thereof, unless to do so would be inconsistent with law and the Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statute.

§ 2423.29 [Reserved]
Subpart C Hearing Procedures
§ 2423.30 General rules.

(a) Open hearing. The hearing shall be open to the public unless otherwise ordered by the Administrative Law Judge.

(b) Administrative Procedure Act. The hearing shall, to the extent practicable, be conducted in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 554-557, and other applicable provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act.

(c) Rights of parties. A party shall have the right to appear at any hearing in person, by counsel, or by other representative; to examine and cross-examine witnesses; to introduce into the record documentary or other relevant evidence; and to submit rebuttal evidence, except that the participation of any party shall be limited to the extent prescribed by the Administrative Law Judge.

(d) Objections. Objections are oral or written complaints concerning the conduct of a hearing. Any objection not raised to the Administrative Law Judge shall be deemed waived.

(e) Oral argument. Any party shall be entitled, upon request, to a reasonable period prior to the close of the hearing for oral argument, which shall be included in the official transcript of the hearing.

(f) Official transcript. An official reporter shall make the only official transcript of such proceedings. Copies of the transcript may be examined in the appropriate Regional Office during normal working hours. Parties desiring a copy of the transcript shall make arrangements for a copy with the official hearing reporter.

§ 2423.31 Powers and duties of the Administrative Law Judge at the hearing.

(a) Conduct of hearing. The Administrative Law Judge shall conduct the hearing in a fair, impartial, and judicial manner, taking action as needed to avoid unnecessary delay and maintain order during the proceedings. The Administrative Law Judge may take any action necessary to schedule, conduct, continue, control, and regulate the hearing, including ruling on motions and taking official notice of material facts when appropriate. No provision of these regulations shall be construed to limit the powers of the Administrative Law Judge provided by 5 U.S.C. 556, 557, and other applicable provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act.

(b) Evidence. The Administrative Law Judge shall receive evidence and inquire fully into the relevant and material facts concerning the matters that are the subject of the hearing. The Administrative Law Judge may exclude any evidence that is immaterial, irrelevant, unduly repetitious, or customarily privileged. Rules of evidence shall not be strictly followed.

(c) Interlocutory appeals. Motions for an interlocutory appeal shall be filed in writing with the Administrative Law Judge within 5 days after the date of the contested ruling. The motion shall state why interlocutory review is appropriate, and why the Authority should modify or reverse the contested ruling.

(1) The Judge shall grant the motion and certify the contested ruling to the Authority if:

(i) The ruling involves an important question of law or policy about which there is substantial ground for difference of opinion; and

(ii) Immediate review will materially advance completion of the proceeding, or the denial of immediate review will cause undue harm to a party or the public.

(2) If the motion is granted, the Judge or Authority may stay the hearing during the pendency of the appeal. If the motion is denied, exceptions to the contested ruling may be filed in accordance with § 2423.40 of this subchapter after the Judge issues a decision and recommended order in the case.

(d) Bench decisions. Upon joint motion of the parties, the Administrative Law Judge may issue an oral decision at the close of the hearing when, in the Judge's discretion, the nature of the case so warrants. By so moving, the parties waive their right to file posthearing briefs with the Administrative Law Judge, pursuant to § 2423.33. If the decision is announced orally, it shall satisfy the requirements of § 2423.34(a)(1)-(5) and a copy thereof, excerpted from the transcript, together with any supplementary matter the judge may deem necessary to complete the decision, shall be transmitted to the Authority, in accordance with § 2423.34(b), and furnished to the parties in accordance with § 2429.12 of this subchapter.

(e) Settlements after the opening of the hearing. As set forth in § 2423.25(a), settlements may be either informal or formal.

(1) Informal settlement procedure: Judge's approval of withdrawal. If the Charging Party and the Respondent enter into an informal settlement agreement that is accepted by the Regional Director, the Regional Director may request the Administrative Law Judge for permission to withdraw the complaint and, having been granted such permission, shall withdraw the complaint and approve the informal settlement between the Charging Party and Respondent. If the Charging Party fails or refuses to become a party to an informal settlement agreement offered by the Respondent, and the Regional Director concludes that the offered settlement will effectuate the policies of the Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statute, the Regional Director shall enter into the agreement with the Respondent and shall, if granted permission by the Administrative Law Judge, withdraw the complaint. The Charging Party then may obtain a review of the Regional Director's decision as provided in subpart A of this part.

(2) Formal settlement procedure: Judge's approval of settlement. If the Charging Party and the Respondent enter into a formal settlement agreement that is accepted by the Regional Director, the Regional Director may request the Administrative Law Judge to approve such formal settlement agreement, and upon such approval, to transmit the agreement to the Authority for approval. If the Charging Party fails or refuses to become a party to a formal settlement agreement offered by the Respondent, and the Regional Director concludes that the offered settlement will effectuate the policies of the Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statute, the agreement shall be between the Respondent and the Regional Director. After the Charging Party is given an opportunity to state on the record or in writing the reasons for opposing the formal settlement, the Regional Director may request the Administrative Law Judge to approve such formal settlement agreement, and upon such approval, to transmit the agreement to the Authority for approval.

§ 2423.32 Burden of proof before the Administrative Law Judge.

The General Counsel shall present the evidence in support of the complaint and have the burden of proving the allegations of the complaint by a preponderance of the evidence. The Respondent shall have the burden of proving any affirmative defenses that it raises to the allegations in the complaint.

§ 2423.33 Posthearing briefs.

Except when bench decisions are issued pursuant to § 2423.31(d), posthearing briefs may be filed with the Administrative Law Judge within a time period set by the Judge, not to exceed 30 days from the close of the hearing, unless otherwise directed by the judge, and shall satisfy the filing and service requirements of part 2429 of this subchapter. Reply briefs shall not be filed absent permission of the Judge. Motions to extend the filing deadline or for permission to file a reply brief shall be filed in accordance with § 2423.21.

§ 2423.34 Decision and record.

(a) Recommended decision. Except when bench decisions are issued pursuant to § 2423.31(d), the Administrative Law Judge shall prepare a written decision expeditiously in every case. All written decisions shall be served in accordance with § 2429.12 of this subchapter. The decision shall set forth:

(1) A statement of the issues;

(2) Relevant findings of fact;

(3) Conclusions of law and reasons therefor;

(4) Credibility determinations as necessary; and

(5) A recommended disposition or order.

(b) Transmittal to Authority. The Judge shall transmit the decision and record to the Authority. The record shall include the charge, complaint, service sheet, answer, motions, rulings, orders, prehearing conference summaries, stipulations, objections, depositions, interrogatories, exhibits, documentary evidence, basis for any sanctions ruling, official transcript of the hearing, briefs, and any other filings or submissions made by the parties.

§§ 2423.35-2423.39 [Reserved]
Subpart D Post-Transmission and Exceptions to Authority Procedures
§ 2423.40 Exceptions; oppositions and cross-exceptions; oppositions to cross-exceptions; waiver.

(a) Exceptions. Any exceptions to the Administrative Law Judge's decision must be filed with the Authority within 25 days after the date of service of the Judge's decision. Exceptions shall satisfy the filing and service requirements of part 2429 of this subchapter. Exceptions shall consist of the following:

(1) The specific findings, conclusions, determinations, rulings, or recommendations being challenged; the grounds relied upon; and the relief sought.

(2) Supporting arguments, which shall set forth, in order: all relevant facts with specific citations to the record; the issues to be addressed; and a separate argument for each issue, which shall include a discussion of applicable law. Attachments to briefs shall be separately paginated and indexed as necessary.

(3) Exceptions containing 25 or more pages shall include a table of legal authorities cited.

(b) Oppositions and cross-exceptions. Unless otherwise directed or approved by the Authority, oppositions to exceptions, cross-exceptions, and oppositions to cross-exceptions may be filed with the Authority within 20 days after the date of service of the exceptions or cross-exceptions, respectively. Oppositions shall state the specific exceptions being opposed. Oppositions and cross-exceptions shall be subject to the same requirements as exceptions set out in paragraph (a) of this section.

(c) Reply briefs. Reply briefs shall not be filed absent prior permission of the Authority.

(d) Waiver. Any exception not specifically argued shall be deemed to have been waived.

[62 FR 40916, July 31, 1997, as amended at 77 FR 26433, May 4, 2012]

§ 2423.41 Action by the Authority; compliance with Authority decisions and orders.

(a) Authority decision; no exceptions filed. In the absence of the filing of exceptions within the time limits established in § 2423.40, the findings, conclusions, and recommendations in the decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall, without precedential significance, become the findings, conclusions, decision and order of the Authority, and all objections and exceptions to the rulings and decision of the Administrative Law Judge shall be deemed waived for all purposes. Failure to comply with any filing requirement established in § 2423.40 may result in the information furnished being disregarded.

(b) Authority decision; exceptions filed. Whenever exceptions are filed in accordance with § 2423.40, the Authority shall issue a decision affirming or reversing, in whole or in part, the decision of the Administrative Law Judge or disposing of the matter as is otherwise deemed appropriate.

(c) Authority's order. Upon finding a violation, the Authority shall, in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 7118(a)(7), issue an order directing the violator, as appropriate, to cease and desist from any unfair labor practice, or to take any other action to effectuate the purposes of the Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statute. With regard to employees covered by 3 U.S.C. 431, upon finding a violation, the Authority's order may not include an order of reinstatement, in accordance with 3 U.S.C. 431(a).

(d) Dismissal. Upon finding no violation, the Authority shall dismiss the complaint.

(e) Report of compliance. After the Authority issues an order, the Respondent shall, within the time specified in the order, provide to the appropriate Regional Director a report regarding what compliance actions have been taken. Upon determining that the Respondent has not complied with the Authority's order, the Regional Director shall refer the case to the Authority for enforcement or take other appropriate action.

[62 FR 40916, July 31, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 46158, Aug. 31, 1998]

§ 2423.42 Backpay proceedings.

After the entry of an Authority order directing payment of backpay, or the entry of a court decree enforcing such order, if it appears to the Regional Director that a controversy exists between the Authority and a Respondent regarding backpay that cannot be resolved without a formal proceeding, the Regional Director may issue and serve on all parties a notice of hearing before an Administrative Law Judge to determine the backpay amount. The notice of hearing shall set forth the specific backpay issues to be resolved. The Respondent shall, within 20 days after the service of a notice of hearing, file an answer in accordance with § 2423.20. After the issuance of a notice of hearing, the procedures provided in subparts B, C, and D of this part shall be followed as applicable.

§§ 2423.43-2423.49 [Reserved]

PART 2424 NEGOTIABILITY PROCEEDINGS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 7134.

Source: 63 FR 66413, Dec. 2, 1998, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A Applicability of This Part and Definitions
§ 2424.1 Applicability of this part.

This part applies to all petitions for review filed on or after August 29, 2025.

[90 FR 42132, Aug. 29, 2025]

§ 2424.2 Definitions.

In this part, the following definitions apply:

(a) Bargaining obligation dispute means a disagreement between an exclusive representative and an agency concerning whether, in the specific circumstances involved in a particular case, the parties are obligated by law to bargain over a proposal that otherwise may be negotiable. Examples of bargaining obligation disputes include disagreements between an exclusive representative and an agency concerning agency claims that:

(1) A proposal concerns a matter that is covered by a collective bargaining agreement;

(2) Bargaining is not required because there has not been a change in bargaining-unit employees' conditions of employment or because the effect of the change is de minimis; and

(3) The exclusive representative is attempting to bargain at the wrong level of the agency.

(b) [Reserved]

(c) Negotiability dispute means a disagreement between an exclusive representative and an agency concerning the legality of a proposal or provision. A negotiability dispute exists when an exclusive representative disagrees with an agency contention that (without regard to any bargaining obligation dispute) a proposal is outside the duty to bargain, including disagreement with an agency contention that a proposal is bargainable only at its election. A negotiability dispute also exists when an exclusive representative disagrees with an agency head's disapproval of a provision as contrary to law. A negotiability dispute may exist where there is no bargaining obligation dispute. Examples of negotiability disputes include disagreements between an exclusive representative and an agency concerning whether a proposal or provision:

(1) Affects a management right under 5 U.S.C. 7106(a);

(2) Affects bargaining-unit employees' conditions of employment;

(3) Enforces an “applicable law,” within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 7106(a)(2);

(4) Concerns a matter negotiable at the election of the agency under 5 U.S.C. 7106(b)(1);

(5) Constitutes a “procedure” or “appropriate arrangement,” within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 7106(b)(2) and (3), respectively;

(6) Is consistent with a Government-wide rule or regulation; and

(7) Is negotiable notwithstanding agency rules or regulations because:

(i) The proposal or provision is consistent with agency rules or regulations for which a compelling need exists under 5 U.S.C. 7117(a)(2);

(ii) The agency rules or regulations violate applicable law, rule, regulation, or appropriate authority outside the agency;

(iii) The agency rules or regulations were not issued by the agency or by any primary national subdivision of the agency;

(iv) The exclusive representative represents an appropriate unit including not less than a majority of the employees in the rule- or regulation-issuing agency or primary national subdivision; or

(v) No compelling need exists for the rules or regulations to bar negotiations.

(d) Petition for review means an appeal filed with the Authority by an exclusive representative requesting resolution of a negotiability dispute. An appeal that concerns only a bargaining obligation dispute may not be resolved under this part.

(e) Proposal means any matter offered for bargaining that has not been agreed to by the parties. If a petition for review concerns more than one proposal, then the term “proposal” includes each proposal concerned.

(f) Provision means any matter that has been disapproved by the agency head on review pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 7114(c). If a petition for review concerns more than one provision, then the term “provision” includes each provision concerned.

(g) Service means the delivery of copies of documents filed with the Authority to the other party's principal bargaining representative and, in the case of an exclusive representative, also to the head of the agency. Compliance with part 2429 of this subchapter is required.

(h) Severance means the division of a proposal or provision into separate parts having independent meaning, for the purpose of determining whether any of the separate parts is within the duty to bargain or is contrary to law. In effect, severance results in the creation of separate proposals or provisions. Severance applies when some parts of the proposal or provision are determined to be outside the duty to bargain or contrary to law.

(i) Written allegation concerning the duty to bargain means an agency allegation that the duty to bargain in good faith does not extend to a proposal.

[63 FR 66413, Dec. 2, 1998, as amended at 88 FR 62455, Sept. 12, 2023; 88 FR 69873, Oct. 10, 2023; 90 FR 42132, Aug. 29, 2025]

§§ 2424.3-2424.9 [Reserved]
Subpart B Requesting and Providing Allegations Concerning the Duty to Bargain
§ 2424.10 [Reserved]
§ 2424.11 Requesting and providing written allegations concerning the duty to bargain.

(a) General. An exclusive representative may file a petition for review after receiving a written allegation concerning the duty to bargain from the agency. An exclusive representative also may file a petition for review if it requests in writing that the agency provide it with a written allegation concerning the duty to bargain and the agency does not respond to the request within ten (10) days.

(b) Agency allegation in response to request. The agency has an obligation to respond within ten (10) days to a written request by the exclusive representative for a written allegation concerning the duty to bargain. The agency's allegation in response to the exclusive representative's request must be in writing and must be served in accord with § 2424.2(g).

(c) Unrequested agency allegation. If an agency provides an exclusive representative with an unrequested written allegation concerning the duty to bargain, then the exclusive representative may either file a petition for review under this part, or continue to bargain and subsequently request in writing a written allegation concerning the duty to bargain, if necessary. If the exclusive representative chooses to file a petition for review based on an unrequested written allegation concerning the duty to bargain, then the time limit in § 2424.21(a)(1) applies.

[88 FR 62456, Sept. 12, 2023; 88 FR 69873, Oct. 10, 2023]

§§ 2424.12-2424.19 [Reserved]
Subpart C Filing and Responding to a Petition for Review; Conferences
§ 2424.20 Who may file a petition for review.

A petition for review may be filed by an exclusive representative that is a party to the negotiations.

§ 2424.21 Time limits for filing a petition for review.

(a) A petition for review must be filed within fifteen (15) days after the date of service of either:

(1) An agency's written allegation that the exclusive representative's proposal is not within the duty to bargain, or

(2) An agency head's disapproval of a provision.

(b) If the agency has not served a written allegation on the exclusive representative within ten (10) days after the agency's principal bargaining representative has received a written request for such allegation, as provided in § 2424.11(a), then the petition may be filed at any time, subject to the following:

(1) If the agency serves a written allegation on the exclusive representative more than ten (10) days after receiving a written request for such allegation, then the petition must be filed within fifteen (15) days after the date of service of that allegation on the exclusive representative.

(2) [Reserved]

[88 FR 62456, Sept. 12, 2023]

§ 2424.22 Exclusive representative's petition for review; purpose; divisions; content; service.

(a) Purpose. The purpose of a petition for review is to initiate a negotiability proceeding and provide the agency with notice that the exclusive representative requests a decision from the Authority that a proposal or provision is within the duty to bargain or not contrary to law, respectively.

(b) Divisions. The petition will be resolved according to how the exclusive representative divides matters into proposals or provisions. If the exclusive representative seeks a negotiability determination on particular matters standing alone, then the exclusive representative must submit those matters as distinct proposals or provisions. However, the exclusive representative will have an opportunity to divide proposals or provisions into separate parts when the exclusive representative files a response under § 2424.25.

(c) Content. You must file a petition for review on a form that the Authority has provided for that purpose, or in a substantially similar format. You meet this requirement if you file your petition electronically through use of the eFiling system on the FLRA's website at www.flra.gov. That website also provides copies of petition forms. You must date the petition, unless you file it electronically through use of the FLRA's eFiling system. And, regardless of how you file the petition, you must ensure that it includes the following:

(1) The exact wording and explanation of the meaning of the proposal or provision, including an explanation of special terms or phrases, technical language, or other words that are not in common usage, as well as how the proposal or provision is intended to work;

(2) Specific citation to any law, rule, regulation, section of a collective bargaining agreement, or other authority that you rely on in your argument or that you reference in the proposal or provision, and a copy of any such material that the Authority cannot easily access (which you may upload as attachments if you file the petition electronically through use of the FLRA's eFiling system);

(i) An explanation of how the cited law, rule, regulation, section of a collective bargaining agreement, or other authority relates to your argument, proposal, or provision;

(ii) [Reserved]

(3) A statement as to whether the proposal or provision is also involved in an unfair labor practice charge under part 2423 of this subchapter, a grievance pursuant to the parties' negotiated grievance procedure, or an impasse procedure under part 2470 of this subchapter, and whether any other petition for review has been filed concerning a proposal or provision arising from the same bargaining or the same agency head review;

(i) Documents relevant to the statement, including a copy of any related unfair labor practice charge, grievance, request for impasse assistance, or other petition for review; and

(ii) [Reserved]

(4) Any request for a hearing before the Authority and the reasons supporting such request, with the understanding that the Authority rarely grants such requests.

(d) Service. The petition for review, including all attachments, must be served in accord with § 2424.2(g).

[88 FR 62456, Sept. 12, 2023; 88 FR 69873, Oct. 10, 2023, as amended at 88 FR 77883, Nov. 14, 2023]

§ 2424.23 Post-petition conferences; conduct and record.

(a) Scheduling a post-petition conference. The FLRA will, in its discretion, schedule a post-petition conference to be conducted by an FLRA representative by telephone, in person, or through other means. Unless the Authority or an FLRA representative directs otherwise, parties must observe all time limits in this part, regardless of whether a post-petition conference is conducted or may be conducted.

(b) Conduct of conference. The post-petition conference will be conducted with representatives of the exclusive representative and the agency, who must be prepared and authorized to discuss, clarify, and resolve matters including the following:

(1) The meaning of the proposal or provision in dispute;

(2) Any disputed factual issue(s);

(3) Negotiability dispute objections and bargaining obligation claims regarding the proposal or provision; and

(4) Status of any proceedings—including an unfair labor practice charge under part 2423 of this subchapter, a grievance under the parties' negotiated grievance procedure, or an impasse procedure under part 2470 of this subchapter—that are directly related to the negotiability petition.

(c) Discretionary extension of time limits. The FLRA representative may, on determining that it will effectuate the purposes of the Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statute, 5 U.S.C. 7101 et seq., and this part, extend the time limits for filing the agency's statement of position and any subsequent filings.

(d) Record of the conference. After the post-petition conference has been completed, the FLRA representative will prepare, and the FLRA will serve on the parties, a written record that includes whether the parties agree on the meaning of the disputed proposal or provision, the resolution of any disputed factual issues, and any other appropriate matter.

(e) Hearings. Instead of, or in addition to, conducting a post-petition conference, the Authority may exercise its discretion under § 2424.31 to hold a hearing or take other appropriate action to aid in decision making.

[88 FR 62457, Sept. 12, 2023; 88 FR 69873, Oct. 10, 2023]

§ 2424.24 Agency's statement of position; purpose; time limits; content; service.

(a) Purpose. The purpose of the agency's statement of position is to inform the Authority and the exclusive representative why a proposal or provision is outside the duty to bargain or contrary to law, respectively, and whether the agency disagrees with any facts or arguments made by the exclusive representative in the petition.

(b) Time limit for filing. Unless the time limit for filing has been extended pursuant to § 2424.23 or part 2429 of this subchapter, the agency must file its statement of position within thirty (30) days after the date the head of the agency receives a copy of the petition for review.

(c) Content. You must file your statement of position on a form that the Authority has provided for that purpose, or in a substantially similar format. You meet this requirement if you file your statement electronically through use of the eFiling system on the FLRA's website at www.flra.gov. That website also provides copies of statement forms. You must date your statement, unless you file it electronically through use of the eFiling system. And, regardless of how you file your statement, your statement must:

(1) Withdraw either:

(i) The allegation that the duty to bargain in good faith does not extend to the exclusive representative's proposal, or

(ii) The disapproval of the provision under 5 U.S.C. 7114(c); or

(2) Set forth in full your position on any matters relevant to the petition that you want the Authority to consider in reaching its decision, including: A statement of the arguments and authorities supporting any bargaining obligation or negotiability claims; any disagreement with claims that the exclusive representative made in the petition for review; specific citation to, and explanation of the relevance of, any law, rule, regulation, section of a collective bargaining agreement, or other authority on which you rely; and a copy of any such material that the Authority may not easily access (which you may upload as attachments if you file your statement of position electronically through use of the FLRA's eFiling system). Your statement of position must also include the following:

(i) If different from the exclusive representative's position, an explanation of the meaning the agency attributes to the proposal or provision and the reasons for disagreeing with the exclusive representative's explanation of meaning;

(ii) If different from the exclusive representative's position, an explanation of how the proposal or provision would work, and the reasons for disagreeing with the exclusive representative's explanation;

(3) Status of any proceedings—including an unfair labor practice charge under part 2423 of this subchapter, a grievance under the parties' negotiated grievance procedure, or an impasse procedure under part 2470 of this subchapter—that are directly related to the negotiability petition, and whether any other petition for review has been filed concerning a proposal or provision arising from the same bargaining or the same agency head review;

(i) If they have not already been provided with the petition, documents relevant to the status updates, including a copy of any related unfair labor practice charge, grievance, request for impasse assistance, or other petition for review; and

(ii) [Reserved]

(4) Any request for a hearing before the Authority and the reasons supporting such request, with the understanding that the Authority rarely grants such requests.

(d) Service. A copy of the agency's statement of position, including all attachments, must be served in accord with § 2424.2(g).

[88 FR 62457, Sept. 12, 2023; 88 FR 69873, Oct. 10, 2023]

§ 2424.25 Response of the exclusive representative; purpose; time limits; content; severance; service.

(a) Purpose. The purpose of the exclusive representative's response is to inform the Authority and the agency why, despite the agency's arguments in its statement of position, the proposal or provision is within the duty to bargain or not contrary to law, respectively, and whether the exclusive representative disagrees with any facts or arguments in the agency's statement of position.

(b) Time limit for filing. Unless the time limit for filing has been extended pursuant to § 2424.23 or part 2429 of this subchapter, within fifteen (15) days after the date the exclusive representative receives a copy of an agency's statement of position, the exclusive representative must file a response.

(c) Content. You must file your response on a form that the Authority has provided for that purpose, or in a substantially similar format. You meet this requirement if you file your response electronically through use of the eFiling system on the FLRA's website at www.flra.gov. That website also provides copies of response forms. With the exception of severance under paragraph (d) of this section, you must limit your response to the matters that the agency raised in its statement of position. You must date your response, unless you file it electronically through use of the FLRA's eFiling system. And, regardless of how you file your response, you must ensure that it identifies any disagreement with the agency's bargaining obligation or negotiability claims. You must: State the arguments and authorities supporting your opposition to any agency argument; include specific citation to, and explanation of the relevance of, any law, rule, regulation, section of a collective bargaining agreement, or other authority on which you rely; and provide a copy of any such material that the Authority may not easily access (which you may upload as attachments if you file your response electronically through use of the FLRA's eFiling system). You are not required to repeat arguments that you made in your petition for review. If not included in the petition for review, then you must state the arguments and authorities supporting your position on all of the relevant bargaining obligation and negotiability matters identified in § 2424.2(a) and (c), respectively.

(d) Severance. The exclusive representative may, of its own accord, accomplish the severance of a previously submitted proposal or provision. To accomplish severance, the exclusive representative must identify the proposal or provision that the exclusive representative is severing and set forth the exact wording of the newly severed portion(s). Further, as part of the exclusive representative's explanation and argument about why the newly severed portion(s) are within the duty to bargain or not contrary to law, the exclusive representative must explain how the severed portion(s) stand alone with independent meaning, and how the severed portion(s) would operate. The explanation and argument in support of the severed portion(s) must meet the same requirements for specific information set forth in paragraph (c) of this section, and must satisfy the exclusive representative's burdens under § 2424.32.

(e) Service. A copy of the response of the exclusive representative, including all attachments, must be served in accord with § 2424.2(g).

[63 FR 66413, Dec. 2, 1998, as amended at 74 FR 51745, Oct. 8, 2009; 77 FR 26434, May 4, 2012; 88 FR 62458, Sept. 12, 2023; 88 FR 69873, Oct. 10, 2023; 88 FR 70579, Oct. 12, 2023; 88 FR 71731, Oct. 18, 2023]

§ 2424.26 Agency's reply; purpose; time limits; content; service.

(a) Purpose. The purpose of the agency's reply is to inform the Authority and the exclusive representative whether and why it disagrees with any facts or arguments made for the first time in the exclusive representative's response.

(b) Time limit for filing. Unless the time limit for filing has been extended pursuant to § 2424.23 or part 2429 of this subchapter, within fifteen (15) days after the date the agency receives a copy of the exclusive representative's response to the agency's statement of position, the agency may file a reply.

(c) Content. You must file your reply on a form that the Authority has provided for that purpose, or in a substantially similar format. You meet this requirement if you file your reply electronically through use of the eFiling system on the FLRA's website at www.flra.gov. That website also provides copies of reply forms. You must limit your reply to matters that the exclusive representative raised for the first time in its response. You must date your reply, unless you file it electronically through use of the FLRA's eFiling system. And, regardless of how you file your reply, you must ensure that it identifies any disagreement with the exclusive representative's assertions in its response, including your disagreements with assertions about the bargaining obligation and negotiability matters identified in § 2424.2(a) and (c), respectively. You must: State the arguments and authorities supporting your position; include specific citation to, and explanation of the relevance of, any law, rule, regulation, section of a collective bargaining agreement, or other authority on which you rely; and provide a copy of any such material that the Authority may not easily access (which you may upload as attachments if you file your reply electronically through use of the FLRA's eFiling system). You are not required to repeat arguments that you made in your statement of position.

(d) Service. A copy of the agency's reply, including all attachments, must be served in accord with § 2424.2(g).

[88 FR 62458, Sept. 12, 2023]

§ 2424.27 Additional submissions to the Authority.

The Authority will not consider any submission filed by any party other than those authorized under this part, provided however that the Authority may, in its discretion, grant permission to file an additional submission based on a written request showing extraordinary circumstances by any party. The additional submission must be filed with the written request. All documents filed under this section must be served in accord with § 2424.2(g).

[88 FR 62458, Sept. 12, 2023]

§§ 2424.28-2424.29 [Reserved]
Subpart D Processing a Petition for Review
§ 2424.30 Procedure through which the petition for review will be resolved.

(a) Exclusive representative has filed related unfair labor practice charge or grievance alleging an unfair labor practice. Except for proposals or provisions that are the subject of an agency's compelling need claim under 5 U.S.C. 7117(a)(2), the Authority will dismiss a petition for review when an exclusive representative files an unfair labor practice charge pursuant to part 2423 of this subchapter or a grievance alleging an unfair labor practice under the parties' negotiated grievance procedure, and the charge or grievance concerns issues directly related to the petition for review filed pursuant to this part. The dismissal will be without prejudice to the right of the exclusive representative to refile the petition for review after the unfair labor practice charge or grievance has been resolved administratively, including resolution pursuant to an arbitration award that has become final and binding. No later than thirty (30) days after the date on which the unfair labor practice charge or grievance is resolved administratively, the exclusive representative may refile the petition for review, and the Authority will determine whether resolution of the petition is still required. For purposes of this subsection, a grievance is resolved administratively when:

(1) The exclusive representative withdraws the grievance;

(2) The parties mutually resolve the grievance;

(3) An arbitrator has issued an award resolving the grievance, and the 30-day period under 5 U.S.C. 7122(b) has passed without an exception being filed; or

(4) An arbitrator has issued an award resolving the grievance, a party has filed an exception to that award, and the Authority has issued a decision resolving that exception.

(b) Exclusive representative has not filed related unfair labor practice charge or grievance alleging an unfair labor practice. The petition will be processed as follows:

(1) No bargaining obligation dispute exists. The Authority will resolve the petition for review under the procedures of this part.

(2) A bargaining obligation dispute exists. The exclusive representative may have an opportunity to file an unfair labor practice charge pursuant to part 2423 of this subchapter or a grievance under the parties' negotiated grievance procedure concerning the bargaining obligation dispute, and, where the exclusive representative pursues either of these courses, the Authority will proceed in accord with paragraph (a) of this section. If the exclusive representative does not file an unfair labor practice charge or grievance concerning the bargaining obligation dispute, then the Authority will proceed to resolve all disputes necessary for disposition of the petition unless, in its discretion, the Authority determines that resolving all disputes is not appropriate because, for example, resolution of the bargaining obligation dispute under this part would unduly delay resolution of the negotiability dispute, or the procedures in another, available administrative forum are better suited to resolve the bargaining obligation dispute.

[88 FR 62458, Sept. 12, 2023]

§ 2424.31 Hearings and other appropriate action.

When necessary to resolve disputed issues of material fact in a negotiability or bargaining obligation dispute, or when it would otherwise aid in decision making, the Authority, or its designated representative, may, in its discretion:

(a) Direct the parties to provide specific documentary evidence;

(b) Direct the parties to provide answers to specific factual questions;

(c) Refer the matter to a hearing pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 7117(b)(3) or (c)(5); or

(d) Take any other appropriate action.

[63 FR 66413, Dec. 2, 1998, as amended at 88 FR 62459, Sept. 12, 2023; 88 FR 69873, Oct. 10, 2023]

§ 2424.32 Parties' responsibilities; failure to raise, support, or respond to arguments; failure to participate in conferences or respond to Authority orders.

(a) Responsibilities of the exclusive representative. The exclusive representative has the burden of explaining the meaning, operation, and effects of the proposal or provision; and raising and supporting arguments that the proposal or provision is within the duty to bargain, within the duty to bargain at the agency's election, or not contrary to law, respectively.

(b) Responsibilities of the agency. The agency has the burden of explaining the agency's understanding of the meaning, operation, and effects of the proposal or provision, if the agency disagrees with the exclusive representative's explanations; and raising and supporting arguments that the proposal or provision is outside the duty to bargain or contrary to law, respectively.

(c) Responsibilities to sufficiently explain. Each party has the burden to give sufficiently detailed explanations to enable the Authority to understand the party's position regarding the meaning, operation, and effects of a proposal or provision. A party's failure to provide such explanations may affect the Authority's decision in a manner that is adverse to the party.

(d) Failure to raise, support, or respond to arguments.

(1) Failure to raise and support an argument may, in the Authority's discretion, be deemed a waiver of such argument. Absent good cause:

(i) Arguments that could have been but were not raised by an exclusive representative in the petition for review, or made in its response to the agency's statement of position, may not be made in this or any other proceeding; and

(ii) Arguments that could have been but were not raised by an agency in the statement of position, or made in its reply to the exclusive representative's response, may not be raised in this or any other proceeding.

(2) Failure to respond to an argument or assertion raised by the other party may, in the Authority's discretion, be treated as conceding such argument or assertion.

(e) Failure to participate in conferences; failure to respond to Authority orders. Where a party fails to participate in a post-petition conference pursuant to § 2424.23, a direction or proceeding under § 2424.31, or otherwise fails to provide timely or responsive information pursuant to an Authority order, including an Authority procedural order directing the correction of technical deficiencies in filing, the Authority may, in addition to those actions set forth in paragraph (d) of this section, take any other action that, in the Authority's discretion, it deems appropriate, including dismissal of the petition for review (with or without prejudice to the exclusive representative's refiling of the petition for review), and granting the petition for review and directing bargaining or rescission of an agency head disapproval under 5 U.S.C. 7114(c) (with or without conditions).

[88 FR 62459, Sept. 12, 2023; 88 FR 69873, Oct. 10, 2023]

§§ 2424.33-2424.39 [Reserved]
Subpart E Decision and Order
§ 2424.40 Authority decision and order.

(a) Issuance. Subject to the requirements of this part, the Authority will expedite proceedings under this part to the extent practicable and will issue to the exclusive representative and to the agency a written decision, explaining the specific reasons for the decision, at the earliest practicable date. The decision will include an order, as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, but, with the exception of an order to bargain, such order will not include remedies that could be obtained in an unfair labor practice proceeding under 5 U.S.C. 7118(a)(7).

(b) Cases involving proposals. If the Authority finds that the duty to bargain extends to the proposal, then the Authority will order the agency to bargain concerning the proposal. If the Authority finds that the duty to bargain does not extend to the proposal, then the Authority will dismiss the petition for review as to that proposal. If the Authority finds that the proposal is bargainable only at the election of the agency, then the Authority will so state. If the Authority resolves a negotiability dispute by finding that a proposal is within the duty to bargain, but there are unresolved bargaining obligation dispute claims, then the Authority will order the agency to bargain in the event its bargaining obligation claims are resolved in a manner that requires bargaining.

(c) Cases involving provisions. If the Authority finds that a provision is not contrary to law, rule, or regulation, or is bargainable at the election of the agency, then the Authority will direct the agency to rescind its disapproval of such provision in whole or in part as appropriate. If the Authority finds that a provision is contrary to law, rule, or regulation, then the Authority will dismiss the petition for review as to that provision.

[63 FR 66413, Dec. 2, 1998, as amended at 88 FR 62459, Sept. 12, 2023; 88 FR 69873, Oct. 10, 2023]

§ 2424.41 Compliance.

The exclusive representative may report to the appropriate Regional Director an agency's failure to comply with an order issued in accordance with § 2424.40. The exclusive representative must report such failure within a reasonable period of time following expiration of the 60-day period under 5 U.S.C. 7123(a), which begins on the date of issuance of the Authority order. If, on referral from the Regional Director, the Authority finds such a failure to comply with its order, the Authority will take whatever action it deems necessary to secure compliance with its order, including enforcement under 5 U.S.C. 7123(b).

[88 FR 62460, Sept. 12, 2023]

§§ 2424.42-2424.49 [Reserved]
Subpart F Criteria for Determining Compelling Need for Agency Rules and Regulations
§ 2424.50 Illustrative criteria.

A compelling need exists for an agency rule or regulation concerning any condition of employment when the rule or regulation was issued by the agency or any primary national subdivision of the agency, and the agency demonstrates that the rule or regulation satisfies one of the following illustrative criteria:

(a) The rule or regulation is essential, as distinguished from helpful or desirable, to the accomplishment of the mission or the execution of functions of the agency or primary national subdivision in a manner that is consistent with the requirements of an effective and efficient government.

(b) The rule or regulation is necessary to ensure the maintenance of basic merit principles.

(c) The rule or regulation implements a mandate to the agency or primary national subdivision under law or other outside authority, which implementation is essentially nondiscretionary in nature.

[63 FR 66413, Dec. 2, 1998, as amended at 88 FR 62460, Sept. 12, 2023]

§§ 2424.51-2424.59 [Reserved]

PART 2425 REVIEW OF ARBITRATION AWARDS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 7134.

Source: 75 FR 42290, July 21, 2010, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2425.1 Applicability of this part.

This part applies to all arbitration cases in which exceptions are filed with the Authority, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 7122, on or after August 29, 2025.

[90 FR 42132, Aug. 29, 2025]

§ 2425.2 Exceptions—who may file; time limits for filing, including determining date of service of arbitration award for the purpose of calculating time limits; procedural and other requirements for filing.

(a) Who may file. Either party to arbitration under the provisions of chapter 71 of title 5 of the United States Code may file an exception to an arbitrator's award rendered pursuant to the arbitration.

(b) Timeliness requirements—general. The time limit for filing an exception to an arbitration award is thirty (30) days after the date of service of the award. This thirty (30)-day time limit may not be extended or waived. In computing the thirty (30)-day period, the first day counted is the day after, not the day of, service of the arbitration award. Example: If an award is served on May 1, then May 2 is counted as day 1, and May 31 is day 30; an exception filed on May 31 would be timely, and an exception filed on June 1 would be untimely. In order to determine the date of service of the award, see the rules set forth in subsection (c) of this section, and for additional rules regarding computing the filing date, see 5 CFR 2429.21 and 2429.22.

(c) Methods of service of arbitration award; determining date of service of arbitration award for purposes of calculating time limits for exceptions. If the parties have reached an agreement as to what is an appropriate method(s) of service of the arbitration award, then that agreement—whether expressed in a collective bargaining agreement or otherwise—is controlling for purposes of calculating the time limit for filing exceptions. If the parties have not reached such an agreement, then the arbitrator may use any commonly used method—including, but not limited to, electronic mail (hereinafter “e-mail”), facsimile transmission (hereinafter “fax”), regular mail, commercial delivery, or personal delivery—and the arbitrator's selected method is controlling for purposes of calculating the time limit for filing exceptions. The following rules apply to determine the date of service for purposes of calculating the time limits for filing exceptions, and assume that the method(s) of service discussed are either consistent with the parties' agreement or chosen by the arbitrator absent such an agreement:

(1) If the award is served by regular mail, then the date of service is the postmark date or, if there is no legible postmark, then the date of the award; for awards served by regular mail, the excepting party will receive an additional five days for filing the exceptions under 5 CFR 2429.22.

(2) If the award is served by commercial delivery, then the date of service is the date on which the award was deposited with the commercial delivery service or, if that date is not indicated, then the date of the award; for awards served by commercial delivery, the excepting party will receive an additional five days for filing the exceptions under 5 CFR 2429.22.

(3) If the award is served by e-mail or fax, then the date of service is the date of transmission, and the excepting party will not receive an additional five days for filing the exceptions.

(4) If the award is served by personal delivery, then the date of personal delivery is the date of service, and the excepting party will not receive an additional five days for filing the exceptions.

(5) If the award is served by more than one method, then the first method of service is controlling when determining the date of service for purposes of calculating the time limits for filing exceptions. However, if the award is served by e-mail, fax, or personal delivery on one day, and by mail or commercial delivery on the same day, the excepting party will not receive an additional five days for filing the exceptions, even if the award was postmarked or deposited with the commercial delivery service before the e-mail or fax was transmitted.

(d) Procedural and other requirements for filing. Exceptions must comply with the requirements set forth in 5 CFR 2429.24 (Place and method of filing; acknowledgment), 2429.25 (Number of copies and paper size), 2429.27 (Service; statement of service), and 2429.29 (Content of filings).

§ 2425.3 Oppositions—who may file; time limits for filing; procedural and other requirements for filing.

(a) Who may file. A party to arbitration under the provisions of chapter 71 of title 5 of the United States Code may file an opposition to an exception that has been filed under § 2425.2 of this part.

(b) Timeliness requirements. Any opposition must be filed within thirty (30) days after the date the exception is served on the opposing party. For additional rules regarding computing the filing date, see 5 CFR 2425.8, 2429.21 and 2429.22.

(c) Procedural requirements. Oppositions must comply with the requirements set forth in 5 CFR 2429.24 (Place and method of filing; acknowledgment), 2429.25 (Number of copies and paper size), 2429.27 (Service; statement of service), and 2429.29 (Content of filings).

§ 2425.4 Content and format of exceptions.

(a) What is required. You must date your exception, unless you file it electronically through use of the eFiling system on the FLRA's Web site at www.flra.gov. Regardless of how you file your exception, you must ensure that it is self-contained and that it sets forth, in full, the following:

(1) A statement of the grounds on which review is requested, as discussed in § 2425.6 of this part;

(2) Arguments in support of the stated grounds, including specific references to the record, citations of authorities, and any other relevant documentation;

(3) Legible copies of any documents (which you may upload as attachments if you file electronically through use of the FLRA's eFiling system) that you reference in the arguments discussed in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, and that the Authority cannot easily access (such as internal agency regulations or provisions of collective bargaining agreements);

(4) Arguments in support of any request for an expedited, abbreviated decision within the meaning of § 2425.7 of this part;

(5) A legible copy of the award of the arbitrator; and

(6) The arbitrator's name, mailing address, and, if available and authorized for use by the arbitrator, the arbitrator's e-mail address or facsimile number.

(b) What is not required. Exceptions are not required to include copies of documents that are readily accessible to the Authority, such as Authority decisions, decisions of Federal courts, current provisions of the United States Code, and current provisions of the Code of Federal Regulations.

(c) What is prohibited. Consistent with 5 CFR 2429.5, an exception may not rely on any evidence, factual assertions, arguments (including affirmative defenses), requested remedies, or challenges to an awarded remedy that could have been, but were not, presented to the arbitrator.

(d) Format. You may file your exception on an optional form that is available on the FLRA's Web site at www.flra.gov, or in any other format that is consistent with paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section. You meet this requirement if you file your exception electronically through use of the FLRA's eFiling system on that Web site. Your failure to use, or properly fill out, an Authority-provided form will not, by itself, provide a basis for dismissing your exception.

[75 FR 42290, July 21, 2010, as amended at 77 FR 26434, May 4, 2012]

§ 2425.5 Content and format of opposition.

If you choose to file an opposition, then you may file your opposition on an optional form that is available on the FLRA's Web site at www.flra.gov, or in any other format that is consistent with this section. You meet this requirement if you file your opposition electronically through use of the FLRA's eFiling system on that Web site. Your failure to use, or properly fill out, an Authority-provided form will not, by itself, provide a basis for dismissing your opposition. If you choose to file an opposition, and you dispute any assertions that have been made in the exceptions, then you should address those assertions—including any assertions that any evidence, factual assertions, arguments (including affirmative defenses), requested remedies, or challenges to an awarded remedy were raised before the arbitrator. If the excepting party has requested an expedited, abbreviated decision under § 2425.7 of this part, then you should state whether you support or oppose such a decision and provide supporting arguments. You must provide copies of any documents upon which you rely (which you may upload as attachments if you file your opposition electronically through use of the FLRA's eFiling system), unless the Authority can easily access those documents (as discussed in § 2425.4(b) of this part) or the excepting party provided them with its exceptions.

[77 FR 26435, May 4, 2012]

§ 2425.6 Grounds for review; potential dismissal or denial for failure to raise or support grounds.

(a) The Authority will review an arbitrator's award to which an exception has been filed to determine whether the award is deficient—

(1) Because it is contrary to any law, rule or regulation; or

(2) On other grounds similar to those applied by Federal courts in private sector labor-management relations.

(b) If a party argues that an award is deficient on private-sector grounds under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, then the excepting party must explain how, under standards set forth in the decisional law of the Authority or Federal courts:

(1) The arbitrator:

(i) Exceeded his or her authority; or

(ii) Was biased; or

(iii) Denied the excepting party a fair hearing; or

(2) The award:

(i) Fails to draw its essence from the parties' collective bargaining agreement; or

(ii) Is based on a nonfact; or

(iii) Is incomplete, ambiguous, or contradictory as to make implementation of the award impossible; or

(iv) Is contrary to public policy; or

(v) Is deficient on the basis of a private-sector ground not listed in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (b)(2)(iv) of this section.

(c) If a party argues that the award is deficient on a private-sector ground raised under paragraph (b)(2)(v) of this section, the party must provide sufficient citation to legal authority that establishes the grounds upon which the party filed its exceptions.

(d) The Authority does not have jurisdiction over an award relating to:

(1) An action based on unacceptable performance covered under 5 U.S.C. 4303;

(2) A removal, suspension for more than fourteen (14) days, reduction in grade, reduction in pay, or furlough of thirty (30) days or less covered under 5 U.S.C. 7512; or

(3) Matters similar to those covered under 5 U.S.C. 4303 and 5 U.S.C. 7512 which arise under other personnel systems.

(e) An exception may be subject to dismissal or denial if:

(1) The excepting party fails to raise and support a ground as required in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, or otherwise fails to demonstrate a legally recognized basis for setting aside the award; or

(2) The exception concerns an award described in paragraph (d) of this section.

§ 2425.7 Requests for expedited, abbreviated decisions in certain arbitration matters that do not involve unfair labor practices.

Where an arbitration matter before the Authority does not involve allegations of unfair labor practices under 5 U.S.C. 7116, and the excepting party wishes to receive an expedited Authority decision, the excepting party may request that the Authority issue a decision that resolves the parties' arguments without a full explanation of the background, arbitration award, parties' arguments, and analysis of those arguments. In determining whether such an abbreviated decision is appropriate, the Authority will consider all of the circumstances of the case, including, but not limited to: whether any opposition filed under § 2425.3 of this part objects to issuance of such a decision and, if so, the reasons for such an objection; and the case's complexity, potential for precedential value, and similarity to other, fully detailed decisions involving the same or similar issues. Even absent a request, the Authority may issue expedited, abbreviated decisions in appropriate cases.

§ 2425.8 [Reserved]
§ 2425.9 Means of clarifying records or disputes.

When required to clarify a record or when it would otherwise aid in disposition of the matter, the Authority, or its designated representative, may, as appropriate:

(a) Direct the parties to provide specific documentary evidence, including the arbitration record as discussed in 5 CFR 2429.3;

(b) Direct the parties to respond to requests for further information;

(c) Meet with parties, either in person or via telephone or other electronic communications systems, to attempt to clarify the dispute or matters in the record;

(d) Direct the parties to provide oral argument; or

(e) Take any other appropriate action.

§ 2425.10 Authority decision.

The Authority shall issue its decision and order taking such action and making such recommendations concerning the award as it considers necessary, consistent with applicable laws, rules, or regulations.

PART 2426 NATIONAL CONSULTATION RIGHTS AND CONSULTATION RIGHTS ON GOVERNMENT-WIDE RULES OR REGULATIONS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 7134.

Source: 45 FR 3513, Jan. 17, 1980, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A National Consultation Rights
§ 2426.1 Requesting; granting; criteria.

(a) An agency shall accord national consultation rights to a labor organization that:

(1) Requests national consultation rights at the agency level; and

(2) Holds exclusive recognition for either:

(i) Ten percent (10%) or more of the total number of civilian personnel employed by the agency and the non-appropriated fund Federal instrumentalities under its jurisdiction, excluding foreign nationals; or

(ii) 3,500 or more employees of the agency.

(b) An agency's primary national subdivision which has authority to formulate conditions of employment shall accord national consultation rights to a labor organization that:

(1) Requests national consultation rights at the primary national subdivision level; and

(2) Holds exclusive recognition for either:

(i) Ten percent (10%) or more of the total number of civilian personnel employed by the primary national subdivision and the non-appropriated fund Federal instrumentalities under its jurisdiction, excluding foreign nationals; or

(ii) 3,500 or more employees of the primary national subdivision.

(c) In determining whether a labor organization meets the requirements as prescribed in paragraphs (a)(2) and (b)(2) of this section, the following will not be counted:

(1) At the agency level, employees represented by the labor organization under national exclusive recognition granted at the agency level.

(2) At the primary national subdivision level, employees represented by the labor organization under national exclusive recognition granted at the agency level or at that primary national subdivision level.

(d) An agency or a primary national subdivision of an agency shall not grant national consultation rights to any labor organization that does not meet the criteria prescribed in paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) of this section.

§ 2426.2 Requests; petition and procedures for determination of eligibility for national consultation rights.

(a) Requests by labor organizations for national consultation rights shall be submitted in writing to the headquarters of the agency or the agency's primary national subdivision, as appropriate, which headquarters shall have fifteen (15) days from the date of service of such request to respond thereto in writing.

(b) Issues relating to a labor organization's eligibility for, or continuation of, national consultation rights shall be referred to the Authority for determination as follows:

(1) A petition for determination of the eligibility of a labor organization for national consultation rights under criteria set forth in § 2426.1 may be filed by a labor organization.

(2) A petition for determination of eligibility for national consultation rights shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the Authority and shall set forth the following information:

(i) Name and affiliation, if any, of the petitioner and its address, telephone number, and email address;

(ii) A statement that the petitioner has submitted to the agency or the primary national subdivision and to the Assistant Secretary a roster of its officers and representatives, a copy of its constitution and bylaws, and a statement of its objectives;

(iii) A declaration by the person signing the petition, under the penalties of the Criminal Code (18 U.S.C. 1001), that its contents are true and correct to the best of such person's knowledge and belief;

(iv) The signature of the petitioner's representative, including such person's title, telephone number, and email address;

(v) The name, address, telephone number, and email address of the agency or primary national subdivision in which the petitioner seeks to obtain or retain national consultation rights, and the persons to contact and their titles, if known;

(vi) A showing that petitioner holds adequate exclusive recognition as required by § 2426.1; and

(vii) A statement as appropriate:

(A) That such showing has been made to and rejected by the agency or primary national subdivision, together with a statement of the reasons for rejection, if any, offered by that agency or primary national subdivision;

(B) That the agency or primary national subdivision has served notice of its intent to terminate existing national consultation rights, together with a statement of the reasons for termination; or

(C) That the agency or primary national subdivision has failed to respond in writing to a request for national consultation rights made under paragraph (a) of this section within fifteen (15) days after the date the request is served on the agency or primary national subdivision.

(3) The following regulations govern petitions filed under this section:

(i) A petition for determination of eligibility for national consultation rights shall be filed with the Regional Director for the region wherein the headquarters of the agency or the agency's primary national subdivision is located.

(ii) A statement of any other relevant facts and of all correspondence shall be filed.

(iii) Copies of the petition together with the attachments referred to in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section shall be served by the petitioner on all known interested parties, and a written statement of such service shall be filed with the Regional Director.

(iv) A petition shall be filed within thirty (30) days after the service of written notice by the agency or primary national subdivision of its refusal to accord national consultation rights pursuant to a request under paragraph (a) of this section or its intention to terminate existing national consultation rights. If an agency or a primary national subdivision fails to respond in writing to a request for national consultation rights made under paragraph (a) of this section within fifteen (15) days after the date the request is served on the agency or primary national subdivision, a petition shall be filed within thirty (30) days after the expiration of such fifteen (15) day period.

(v) If an agency or primary national subdivision wishes to terminate national consultation rights, notice of its intention to do so shall include a statement of its reasons and shall be served not less than thirty (30) days prior to the intended termination date. A labor organization, after receiving such notice, may file a petition within the time period prescribed herein, and thereby cause to be stayed further action by the agency or primary national subdivision pending disposition of the petition. If no petition has been filed within the provided time period, an agency or primary national subdivision may terminate national consultation rights.

(vi) Within fifteen (15) days after the receipt of a copy of the petition, the agency or primary national subdivision shall file a response thereto with the Regional Director raising any matter which is relevant to the petition.

(vii) The Regional Director shall make such investigations as the Regional Director deems necessary and thereafter shall issue and serve on the parties a Decision and Order with respect to the eligibility for national consultation rights which shall be final: Provided, however, That an application for review of the Regional Director's Decision and Order may be filed with the Authority in accordance with the procedure set forth in § 2422.17 of this subchapter. A determination by the Regional Director to issue a notice of hearing shall not be subject to the filing of an application for review. The Regional Director, if appropriate, may cause a notice of hearing to be issued to all interested parties where substantial factual issues exist warranting a hearing. Hearings shall be conducted by a Hearing Officer in accordance with §§ 2422.9 through 2422.15 of this subchapter and after the close of the hearing a Decision and Order shall be issued by the Regional Director in accordance with § 2422.16 of this subchapter.

[45 FR 3513, Jan. 17, 1980, as amended at 48 FR 40193, Sept. 6, 1983; 91 FR 13946, Mar. 24, 2026; 91 FR 65447, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2426.3 Obligation to consult.

(a) When a labor organization has been accorded national consultation rights, the agency or the primary national subdivision which has granted those rights shall, through appropriate officials, furnish designated representatives of the labor organization:

(1) Reasonable notice of any proposed substantive change in conditions of employment; and

(2) Reasonable time to present its views and recommendations regarding the change.

(b) If a labor organization presents any views or recommendations regarding any proposed substantive change in conditions of employment to an agency or a primary national subdivision, that agency or primary national subdivision shall:

(1) Consider the views or recommendations before taking final action on any matter with respect to which the views or recommendations are presented; and

(2) Provide the labor organization a written statement of the reasons for taking the final action.

(c) Nothing in this subpart shall be construed to limit the right of any agency or exclusive representative to engage in collective bargaining.

Subpart B Consultation Rights on Government-wide Rules or Regulations
§ 2426.11 Requesting; granting; criteria.

(a) An agency shall accord consultation rights on Government-wide rules or regulations to a labor organization that:

(1) Requests consultation rights on Government-wide rules or regulations from an agency; and

(2) Holds exclusive recognition for 3,500 or more employees.

(b) An agency shall not grant consultation rights on Government-wide rules or regulations to any labor organization that does not meet the criteria prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section.

§ 2426.12 Requests; petition and procedures for determination of eligibility for consultation rights on Government-wide rules or regulations.

(a) Requests by labor organizations for consultation rights on Government-wide rules or regulations shall be submitted in writing to the headquarters of the agency, which headquarters shall have fifteen (15) days from the date of service of such request to respond thereto in writing.

(b) Issues relating to a labor organization's eligibility for, or continuation of, consultation rights on Government-wide rules or regulations shall be referred to the Authority for determination as follows:

(1) A petition for determination of the eligibility of a labor organization for consultation rights under criteria set forth in § 2426.11 may be filed by a labor organization.

(2) A petition for determination of eligibility for consultation rights shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the Authority and shall set forth the following information:

(i) Name and affiliation, if any, of the petitioner and its address, telephone number, and email address;

(ii) A statement that the petitioner has submitted to the agency and to the Assistant Secretary a roster of its officers and representatives, a copy of its constitution and bylaws, and a statement of its objectives;

(iii) A declaration by the person signing the petition, under the penalties of the Criminal Code (18 U.S.C. 1001), that its contents are true and correct to the best of such person's knowledge and belief;

(iv) The signature of the petitioner's representative, including such person's title, telephone number, and email address;

(v) The name, address, telephone number, and email address of the agency in which the petitioner seeks to obtain or retain consultation rights on Government-wide rules or regulations, and the persons to contact and their titles, if known;

(vi) A showing that petitioner meets the criteria as required by § 2426.11; and

(vii) A statement, as appropriate:

(A) That such showing has been made to and rejected by the agency, together with a statement of the reasons for rejection, if any, offered by that agency;

(B) That the agency has served notice of its intent to terminate existing consultation rights on Government-wide rules or regulations, together with a statement of the reasons for termination; or

(C) That the agency has failed to respond in writing to a request for consultation rights on Government-wide rules or regulations made under § 2426.12(a) within fifteen (15) days after the date the request is served on the agency.

(3) The following regulations govern petitions filed under this section:

(i) A petition for determination of eligibility for consultation rights on Government-wide rules or regulations shall be filed with the Regional Director for the region wherein the headquarters of the agency is located.

(ii) A statement of any other relevant facts and of all correspondence shall be filed.

(iii) Copies of the petition together with the attachments referred to in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section shall be served by the petitioner on the agency, and a written statement of such service shall be filed with the Regional Director.

(iv) A petition shall be filed within thirty (30) days after the service of written notice by the agency of its refusal to accord consultation rights on Government-wide rules or regulations pursuant to a request under § 2426.12(a) or its intention to terminate such existing consultation rights. If an agency fails to respond in writing to a request for consultation rights on Government-wide rules or regulations made under § 2426.12(a) within fifteen (15) days after the date the request is served on the agency, a petition shall be filed within thirty (30) days after the expiration of such fifteen (15) day period.

(v) If an agency wishes to terminate consultation rights on Government-wide rules or regulations, notice of its intention to do so shall be served not less than thirty (30) days prior to the intended termination date. A labor organization, after receiving such notice, may file a petition within the time period prescribed herein, and thereby cause to be stayed further action by the agency pending disposition of the petition. If no petition has been filed within the provided time period, an agency may terminate such consultation rights.

(vi) Within fifteen (15) days after the receipt of a copy of the petition, the agency shall file a response thereto with the Regional Director raising any matter which is relevant to the petition.

(vii) The Regional Director shall make such investigation as the Regional Director deems necessary and thereafter shall issue and serve on the parties a Decision and Order with respect to the eligibility for consultation rights which shall be final: Provided, however, That an application for review of the Regional Director's Decision and Order may be filed with the Authority in accordance with the procedure set forth in § 2422.17 of this subchapter. A determination by the Regional Director to issue a notice of hearing shall not be subject to the filing of an application for review. The Regional Director, if appropriate, may cause a notice of hearing to be issued where substantial factual issues exist warranting a hearing. Hearings shall be conducted by a Hearing Officer in accordance with §§ 2422.9 through 2422.15 of this chapter and after the close of the hearing a Decision and Order shall be issued by the Regional Director in accordance with § 2422.16 of this subchapter.

[45 FR 3513, Jan. 17, 1980, as amended at 48 FR 40193, Sept. 6, 1983; 91 FR 13947, Mar. 24, 2026; 91 FR 65447, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2426.13 Obligation to consult.

(a) When a labor organization has been accorded consultation rights on Government-wide rules or regulations, the agency which has granted those rights shall, through appropriate officials, furnish designated representatives of the labor organization:

(1) Reasonable notice of any proposed Government-wide rule or regulation issued by the agency affecting any substantive change in any condition of employment; and

(2) Reasonable time to present its views and recommendations regarding the change.

(b) If a labor organization presents any views or recommendations regarding any proposed substantive change in any condition of employment to an agency, that agency shall:

(1) Consider the views or recommendations before taking final action on any matter with respect to which the views or recommendations are presented; and

(2) Provide the labor organization a written statement of the reasons for taking the final action.

PART 2427 GENERAL STATEMENTS OF POLICY OR GUIDANCE

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 7134.

Source: 45 FR 3516, Jan. 17, 1980, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2427.1 Scope.

This part sets forth procedures under which requests may be submitted to the Authority seeking the issuance of general statements of policy or guidance under 5 U.S.C. 7105(a)(1).

§ 2427.2 Requests for general statements of policy or guidance.

(a) The head of an agency (or designee), the national president of a labor organization (or designee), or the president of a labor organization not affiliated with a national organization (or designee) may separately or jointly ask the Authority for a general statement of policy or guidance. The head of any lawful association not qualified as a labor organization may also ask the Authority for such a statement provided the request is not in conflict with the provisions of chapter 71 of title 5 of the United States Code or other law.

(b) The Authority ordinarily will not consider a request related to any matter pending before the Authority, General Counsel, Panel or Assistant Secretary.

§ 2427.3 Content of request.

(a) A request for a general statement of policy or guidance shall be in writing and must contain:

(1) A concise statement of the question with respect to which a general statement of policy or guidance is requested together with background information necessary to an understanding of the question;

(2) A statement of the standards under § 2427.5 upon which the request is based;

(3) A full and detailed statement of the position or positions of the requesting party or parties;

(4) Identification of any cases or other proceedings known to bear on the question which are pending under chapter 71 of title 5 of the United States Code; and

(5) Identification of other known interested parties.

(b) A copy of each document also shall be served on all known interested parties, including the General Counsel, the Panel, the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service, and the Assistant Secretary, where appropriate.

§ 2427.4 Submissions from interested parties.

Prior to issuance of a general statement of policy or guidance the Authority, as it deems appropriate, will afford an opportunity to interested parties to express their views orally or in writing.

§ 2427.5 Standards governing issuance of general statements of policy or guidance.

In deciding whether to issue a general statement of policy or guidance, the Authority shall consider:

(a) Whether the question presented can more appropriately be resolved by other means;

(b) Where other means are available, whether an Authority statement would prevent the proliferation of cases involving the same or similar question;

(c) Whether the resolution of the question presented would have general applicability under the Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statute;

(d) Whether the question currently confronts parties in the context of a labor-management relationship;

(e) Whether the question is presented jointly by the parties involved; and

(f) Whether the issuance by the Authority of a general statement of policy or guidance on the question would promote constructive and cooperative labor-management relationships in the Federal service and would otherwise promote the purposes of the Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statute.

PART 2428 ENFORCEMENT OF ASSISTANT SECRETARY STANDARDS OF CONDUCT DECISIONS AND ORDERS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 7134.

Source: 45 FR 3516, Jan. 17, 1980, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2428.1 Scope.

This part sets forth procedures under which the Authority, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 7105(a)(2)(I), will enforce decisions and orders of the Assistant Secretary in standards of conduct matters arising under 5 U.S.C. 7120.

§ 2428.2 Petitions for enforcement.

(a) The Assistant Secretary may petition the Authority to enforce any Assistant Secretary decision and order in a standards of conduct case arising under 5 U.S.C. 7120. The Assistant Secretary shall transfer to the Authority the record in the case, including a copy of the transcript if any, exhibits, briefs, and other documents filed with the Assistant Secretary. A copy of the petition for enforcement shall be served on the labor organization against which such order applies.

(b) An opposition to Authority enforcement of any such Assistant Secretary decision and order may be filed by the labor organization against which such order applies twenty (20) days from the date of service of the petition, unless the Authority, upon good cause shown by the Assistant Secretary, sets a shorter time for filing such opposition. A copy of the opposition to enforcement shall be served on the Assistant Secretary.

§ 2428.3 Authority decision.

(a) A decision and order of the Assistant Secretary shall be enforced unless it is arbitrary and capricious or based upon manifest disregard of the law.

(b) The Authority shall issue its decision on the case enforcing, enforcing as modified, refusing to enforce, or remanding the decision and order of the Assistant Secretary.

PART 2429 MISCELLANEOUS AND GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 7134; § 2429.18 also issued under 28 U.S.C. 2112(a).

Source: 45 FR 3516, Jan. 17, 1980, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A Miscellaneous
§ 2429.1 [Reserved]
§ 2429.2 Transfer and consolidation of cases.

In any matter arising pursuant to parts 2422 and 2423 of this subchapter, whenever it appears necessary in order to effectuate the purposes of the Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statute or to avoid unnecessary costs or delay, Regional Directors may consolidate cases within their own region or may transfer such cases to any other region, for the purpose of investigation or consolidation with any proceedings which may have been instituted in, or transferred to, such region.

[91 FR 65448, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2429.3 Transfer of record.

In any case under part 2425 of this subchapter, upon request by the Authority, the parties jointly shall transfer the record in the case, including a copy of the transcript, if any, exhibits, briefs and other documents filed with the arbitrator, to the Authority.

§ 2429.4 Referral of policy questions to the Authority.

Notwithstanding the procedures set forth in this subchapter, the General Counsel, the Assistant Secretary, or the Panel may refer for review and decision or general ruling by the Authority any case involving a major policy issue that arises in a proceeding before any of them. Any such referral shall be in writing and a copy of such referral shall be served on all parties to the proceeding. Before decision or general ruling, the Authority shall obtain the views of the parties and other interested persons, orally or in writing, as it deems necessary and appropriate.

§ 2429.5 Matters not previously presented; official notice.

The Authority will not consider any evidence, factual assertions, arguments (including affirmative defenses), requested remedies, or challenges to an awarded remedy that could have been, but were not, presented in the proceedings before the Regional Director, Hearing Officer, Administrative Law Judge, or arbitrator. The Authority may, however, take official notice of such matters as would be proper.

[91 FR 65448, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2429.6 Oral argument.

The Authority or the General Counsel, in their discretion, may request or permit oral argument in any matter arising under this subchapter under such circumstances and conditions as they deem appropriate.

§ 2429.7 Subpoenas.

(a) Any member of the Authority, the General Counsel, any Administrative Law Judge appointed by the Authority under 5 U.S.C. 3105, and any Regional Director, Hearing Officer, or other employee of the Authority designated by the Authority may issue subpoenas requiring the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of documentary or other evidence. However, no subpoena shall be issued under this section which requires the disclosure of intramanagement guidance, advice, counsel, or training within an agency or between an agency and the Office of Personnel Management.

(b) Where the parties are in agreement that the appearance of witnesses or the production of documents is necessary, and such witnesses agree to appear, no such subpoena need be sought.

(c) A request for a subpoena by any person, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 7103(a)(1), shall be in writing and filed with the Regional Director, in proceedings arising under parts 2422 and 2426 of this subchapter, or with the Authority, in proceedings arising under parts 2424 and 2425 of this subchapter, not less than 10 days prior to the hearing, or with the appropriate presiding official(s) during the hearing. Requests for subpoenas made less than 10 days prior to the opening of the hearing shall be granted on sufficient explanation of why the request was not timely filed.

(d) The Authority, General Counsel, Regional Director, Hearing Officer, or any other employee of the Authority designated by the Authority, as appropriate, shall furnish the requester the subpoenas sought, provided the request is timely made. Requests for subpoenas may be made ex parte. Completion of the specific information in the subpoena and the service of the subpoena are the responsibility of the party on whose behalf the subpoena was issued. A subpoena may be served by any person who is at least 18 years old and who is not a party to the proceeding. The person who served the subpoena must certify that he or she did so:

(1) By delivering it to the witness in person,

(2) By registered or certified mail, or

(3) By delivering the subpoena to a responsible person (named in the document certifying the delivery) at the residence or place of business (as appropriate) of the person for whom the subpoena was intended. The subpoena shall show on its face the name and address of the party on whose behalf the subpoena was issued.

(e)(1) Any person served with a subpoena who does not intend to comply, shall, within 5 days after the date of service of the subpoena upon such person, petition in writing to revoke the subpoena. A copy of any petition to revoke a subpoena shall be served on the party on whose behalf the subpoena was issued. Such petition to revoke, if made prior to the hearing, and a written statement of service, shall be filed with the Regional Director in proceedings arising under parts 2422 and 2426 of this subchapter, and with the Authority, in proceedings arising under parts 2424 and 2425 of this subchapter, for ruling. A petition to revoke a subpoena filed during the hearing, and a written statement of service, shall be filed with the appropriate presiding official(s).

(2) The Authority, General Counsel, Regional Director, Hearing Officer, or any other employee of the Authority designated by the Authority, as appropriate, shall revoke the subpoena if the person or evidence, the production of which is required, is not material and relevant to the matters under investigation or in question in the proceedings, or the subpoena does not describe with sufficient particularity the evidence the production of which is required, or if for any other reason sufficient in law the subpoena is invalid. The Authority, General Counsel, Regional Director, Hearing Officer, or any other employee of the Authority designated by the Authority, as appropriate, shall state the procedural or other ground for the ruling on the petition to revoke. The petition to revoke, any answer thereto, and any ruling thereon shall not become part of the official record except upon the request of the party aggrieved by the ruling.

(f) Upon the failure of any person to comply with a subpoena issued and upon the request of the party on whose behalf the subpoena was issued, the Solicitor of the Authority shall institute proceedings on behalf of such party in the appropriate district court for the enforcement thereof, unless to do so would be inconsistent with law and the Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statute.

[45 FR 3516, Jan. 17, 1980, as amended at 62 FR 40922, July 31, 1997; 91 FR 13948, Mar. 24, 2026]

§ 2429.8 [Reserved]
§ 2429.9 Amicus curiae.

Upon petition of an interested person, a copy of which petition shall be served on the parties, and as the Authority deems appropriate, the Authority may grant permission for the presentation of written and/or oral argument at any stage of the proceedings by an amicus curiae and the parties shall be notified of such action by the Authority.

§ 2429.10 Advisory opinions.

The Authority and the General Counsel will not issue advisory opinions.

§ 2429.11 Interlocutory appeals.

Except as set forth in part 2423, the Authority and the General Counsel ordinarily will not consider interlocutory appeals.

[62 FR 40923, July 31, 1997]

§ 2429.12 Service of process and papers by the Authority.

(a) Methods of service. Notices of hearings, decisions and orders of Regional Directors, decisions and recommended orders of Administrative Law Judges, decisions of the Authority, complaints, amended complaints, withdrawals of complaints, written rulings on motions, and all other papers required by this subchapter to be issued by the Authority, the General Counsel, Regional Directors, Hearing Officers, Administrative Law Judges, and Regional Directors when not acting as a party under part 2423 of this subchapter, shall be served personally, by first-class mail, by facsimile transmission, by certified mail, or, as described below with respect to documents issued by the Authority, by electronic mail (hereinafter, “email”). Where facsimile equipment is available, rulings on motions; information pertaining to prehearing disclosure, conferences, orders, or hearing dates, and locations; information pertaining to subpoenas; and other similar or time sensitive matters may be served by facsimile transmission. Where a party using the FLRA's eFiling system has consented to electronic service of documents issued by the Authority in a particular case, the Authority shall serve documents on that party exclusively by email to the email address provided by the party.

(b) Upon whom served. All papers required to be served under paragraph (a) of this section shall be served upon all counsel of record or other designated representative(s) of parties, and upon parties not so represented. Service upon such counsel or representative shall constitute service upon the party, but a copy also shall be transmitted to the party.

(c) Proof of service. Proof of service shall be verified by certificate of the individual serving the papers describing the manner of such service. When service is by mail, the date of service shall be the day when the matter served is deposited in the United States mail. When service is by facsimile, the date of service shall be the date the facsimile transmission is transmitted and, when necessary, verified by a dated facsimile record of transmission. When parties are served documents by the Authority by email, the date of service shall be the date the email is sent.

[45 FR 3516, Jan. 17, 1980, as amended at 48 FR 40194, Sept. 6, 1983; 62 FR 40923, July 31, 1997; 88 FR 43426, July 10, 2023; 91 FR 13949, Mar. 24, 2026; 91 FR 65448, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2429.13 Official time for witnesses.

If the participation of any employee in any phase of any proceeding before the Authority, including the investigation of unfair labor practice charges and representation petitions and the participation in hearings and representation elections, is deemed necessary by the Authority, the General Counsel, any Administrative Law Judge, Regional Director, Hearing Officer, or other agent of the Authority designated by the Authority, the employee shall be granted official time for such participation, including necessary travel time, as occurs during the employee's regular work hours and when the employee would otherwise be in a work or paid leave status.

[62 FR 40923, July 31, 1997]

§ 2429.14 Witness fees.

(a) Witnesses, whether appearing voluntarily or pursuant to a subpoena, shall be paid the fee and mileage allowances which are paid subpoenaed witnesses in the courts of the United States. However, any witness who is employed by the Federal Government shall not be entitled to receive witness fees.

(b) Witness fees, as appropriate, as well as transportation and per diem expenses for a witness shall be paid by the party that calls the witness to testify.

[62 FR 40923, July 31, 1997]

§ 2429.15 Authority requests for advisory opinions.

(a) Whenever the Authority, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 7105(i) requests an advisory opinion from the Director of the Office of Personnel Management concerning the proper interpretation of rules, regulations, or policy directives issued by that Office in connection with any matter before the Authority, a copy of such request, and any response thereto, shall be served upon the parties in the matter.

(b) The parties shall have fifteen (15) days from the date of service of a copy of the response of the Office of Personnel Management to file with the Authority comments on that response which the parties wish the Authority to consider before reaching a decision in the matter. Such comments shall be in writing and copies shall be served upon the other parties in the matter and upon the Office of Personnel Management.

§ 2429.16 General remedial authority.

The Authority shall take any actions which are necessary and appropriate to administer effectively the provisions of chapter 71 of title 5 of the United States Code.

§ 2429.17 Reconsideration.

After a final decision or order of the Authority has been issued, a party to the proceeding before the Authority who can establish in its moving papers extraordinary circumstances for so doing, may move for reconsideration of such final decision or order. The motion shall be filed within ten (10) days after service of the Authority's decision or order. A motion for reconsideration shall state with particularity the extraordinary circumstances claimed and shall be supported by appropriate citations. The filing and pendency of a motion under this provision shall not operate to stay the effectiveness of the action of the Authority, unless so ordered by the Authority. A motion for reconsideration need not be filed in order to exhaust administrative remedies.

[46 FR 40675, Aug. 11, 1981]

§ 2429.18 Service of petitions for review of final authority orders.

Any aggrieved person filing pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 7123(a) a petition for review of a final Authority order in an appropriate Federal circuit court of appeals within 10 days of issuance of the Authority's final order must ensure that a court-stamped copy of the petition for review is received by the Solicitor of the Authority within that 10-day period in order to qualify for participation in the random selection process established in Public Law No. 100-236 for determining the appropriate court of appeals to review an agency final order when petitions for review of that order are filed in more than one court of appeals.

[55 FR 2509, Jan. 25, 1990]

§ 2429.19 Revocation of assignments.

Consistent with the exceptions in 5 U.S.C. 7115(b), after the expiration of the one-year period during which an assignment may not be revoked under 5 U.S.C. 7115(a), an employee may initiate the revocation of a previously authorized assignment at any time that the employee chooses. After the expiration of the one-year period of irrevocability under 5 U.S.C. 7115(a), upon receiving an employee's request to revoke a previously authorized dues assignment, an agency must process the revocation request as soon as administratively feasible.

[85 FR 41172, July 9, 2020]

Subpart B General Requirements
§ 2429.21 How to compute the due date for filing documents with the FLRA; how the FLRA determines the date on which documents have been filed.

(a) How to compute the due date for filing documents with the FLRA. In computing the due date for filing any document with the FLRA under this subchapter, follow these rules:

(1) General rules. Except in the situations discussed in paragraphs (a)(2) and (3) of this section, follow these steps in order to determine the date on which you must file any document with the FLRA.

(i) Step 1: Determine the act, event, or default (“the triggering event”) that you are filing in response to. The act, event, or default constitutes the triggering event even if it falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or federal legal holiday.

(ii) Step 2: Determine the number of days that you have to file (“the filing period”).

(iii) Step 3: Determine the first day of the filing period. This is the day after, not the day of, the triggering event, and constitutes the first day of the filing period even if it is a Saturday, Sunday, or federal legal holiday.

(iv) Step 4: Starting with the first day of the filing period, count calendar days—including Saturdays, Sundays, and federal legal holidays—until you reach the last day of the filing period (“the last day”).

(v) Step 5: Ask: Does the last day fall on a Saturday, Sunday, or federal legal holiday? If no, then your filing is due on that day (unless you are entitled to an additional 5 days under § 2429.22). If yes, then find the next day on the calendar that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or federal legal holiday. Your filing is due on that day (unless you are entitled to an additional 5 days under § 2429.22), even if you are filing electronically through use of the eFiling system on the FLRA's Web site at www.flra.gov (although, as discussed in paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section, you are permitted to file electronically on Saturdays, Sundays, or federal legal holidays). See § 2429.22 for rules regarding how to calculate your due date if you are entitled to an additional 5 days.

(2) Agreement-bar exception. If you are filing a petition in an agreement-bar situation under 5 CFR 2422.12(c), (d), (e), and (f), then, as discussed further in those regulations, you must file a petition no later than 60 days before the expiration date of the existing collective-bargaining agreement (“the 60-day date”). The first day (“day one”) of the period is the day before, not the day on which, the collective-bargaining agreement expires. Start with day one, and count back on the calendar from that day, including Saturdays, Sundays, and federal legal holidays. If the 60th day falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or federal legal holiday, then you must file your petition by the close of business on the last official workday that comes before, not after, that Saturday, Sunday, or federal legal holiday.

(3) Exception for filing periods that are 7 days or less. If your filing period is 7 days or less, then determine the act, event, or default that you are filing in response to (“the triggering event”). Find the first day after the triggering event that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or federal legal holiday. Start counting the 7-day period on (and including) that day, but exclude any Saturdays, Sundays, or federal legal holidays. The 7th day is the due date for filing.

(b) How the FLRA determines the date on which documents have been filed. The FLRA applies the following rules in determining the date on which a party has filed documents.

(1) General rules. Except in the situations discussed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the FLRA looks to the method by which documents have been filed in order to determine the date on which those documents have been filed. Specifically:

(i) Documents filed with the FLRA by first-class mail. If the mailing contains a legible postmark date, then that date is the date of filing. If the mailing does not contain a legible postmark date, then the FLRA presumes that it was filed 5 days prior to the date on which the appropriate FLRA component, officer, or agent receives it.

(ii) Documents filed with the FLRA by facsimile (“fax”). If the date of transmission on a fax is clear, then that date is the filing date. If the date of transmission on a fax is not clear, then the date of filing is the date on which the appropriate FLRA component, officer, or agent receives the fax.

(iii) Documents filed with the FLRA by personal delivery. The date of filing is the date on which the appropriate FLRA component, officer, or agent receives the filing.

(iv) Documents filed with the FLRA by deposit with a commercial-delivery service that provides a record showing the date of deposit. The date of filing is the date of deposit with the commercial-delivery service.

(v) Documents filed electronically through use of the eFiling system on the FLRA's Web site at www.flra.gov. The date of filing is the calendar day (including Saturdays, Sundays, and federal legal holidays) on which the document is transmitted in the eFiling system. Although documents that are filed electronically may be filed on Saturdays, Sundays, and federal legal holidays, they are not required to be filed on such days, as discussed in paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section.

(2) Exceptions. The rules in paragraph (b)(1) of this section do not apply to filing an unfair labor practice charge under 5 CFR part 2423, a representation petition under 5 CFR part 2422, and a request for an extension of time under § 2429.23(a). See those provisions for more information.

(c) Compliance with § 2429.24. All documents filed or required to be filed with the Authority must be filed in accordance with the rules set out in § 2429.24.

[77 FR 26435, May 4, 2012]

§ 2429.22 Additional time for filing with the FLRA if you are filing in response to a document that has been served on you by first-class mail or commercial delivery.

(a) General rules. Except as discussed in paragraphs (b), (c), (d), and (e) of this section, apply the following rules if and only if you are filing a document with the FLRA in response to a document that has been served on you by first-class mail or commercial delivery. First, look to § 2429.21(a)(1) and apply steps 1 through 5 of that section in order to determine what normally would be your due date. Second, starting with the next calendar day, which will be day one, count forward on the calendar, including Saturdays, Sundays, and federal legal holidays, until you reach day five. If day five is not a Saturday, Sunday, or federal legal holiday, then your filing is due with the FLRA on that day. If day five is a Saturday, Sunday, or federal legal holiday, then find the next calendar day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or federal legal holiday; your filing is due with the FLRA on that day.

(b) Rules that apply when you have been served by more than one method. If someone has served you with a document using more than one method of service, then, as a general rule, the first method of service is controlling for purposes of determining your due date for filing with the FLRA. For example, if someone serves you with a document by first-class mail or commercial delivery on one day, and then serves you by some other method (such as electronic mail) the next day, then you may add 5 days to your due date, as described in paragraph (a) of this section. But if someone serves you with a document one day by any method other than first-class mail or commercial delivery, and later serves you with the document by first-class mail or commercial delivery, then you may not add 5 days to your due date; rather, you must look to § 2429.21(a)(1) and apply steps 1 through 5 of that section in order to determine your due date. Also, if someone serves you by first-class mail or commercial delivery on one day, and by any other method on the same day, then you may not add 5 days—even if the first-class mail was postmarked or the time of deposit with the commercial-delivery service was earlier in the day than the time at which the other method of service was effected.

(c) Exception for applications for review filed under 5 CFR 2422.31. You do not get an additional 5 days to file an application for review of a Regional Director's Decision and Order under 5 CFR 2422.31, regardless of the method of service of that Decision and Order.

(d) Exception where extension of time has been granted. You do not get an additional 5 days in any instance where an extension of time already has been granted.

(e) Rules that apply to exceptions to arbitration awards. For specific rules that apply to filing exceptions to arbitration awards, see 5 CFR 2425.2(c).

[77 FR 26436, May 4, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 13949, Mar. 24, 2026; 91 FR 65449, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2429.23 Extension; waiver.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, and notwithstanding § 2429.21(b) of this subchapter, the Authority or General Counsel, or their designated representatives, as appropriate, may extend any time limit provided in this subchapter for good cause shown, and shall notify the parties of any such extension. Requests for extensions of time shall be in writing and received by the appropriate official not later than five (5) days before the established time limit for filing, shall state the position of the other parties on the request for extension, and shall be served on the other parties.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, the Authority or General Counsel, or their designated representatives, as appropriate, may waive any expired time limit in this subchapter in extraordinary circumstances. Request for a waiver of time limits shall state the position of the other parties and shall be served on the other parties.

(c) The time limits established in this subchapter may not be extended or waived in any manner other than that described in this subchapter.

(d) Time limits established in 5 U.S.C. 7105(f), 7117(c)(2) and 7122(b) may not be extended or waived under this section.

[45 FR 3516, Jan. 17, 1980, as amended at 48 FR 40194, Sept. 6, 1983; 51 FR 45752, Dec. 22, 1986]

§ 2429.24 Place and method of filing; acknowledgement.

(a) Except for documents that are filed electronically through use of the eFiling system on the FLRA's website at www.flra.gov, anyone who files a document with the Authority (as distinguished from the General Counsel, a Regional Director, or an Administrative Law Judge) must file that document with the Chief, Case Intake and Publication, Federal Labor Relations Authority, Docket Room, Suite 300, 1400 K Street NW, Washington, DC 20424-0001 (telephone: (771) 444-5805). To file documents by personal delivery, you must schedule an appointment at least one business day in advance by calling the telephone number in the previous sentence. Personal delivery is accepted by appointment Monday through Friday (except federal holidays). If you file documents electronically through use of the FLRA's eFiling system, then you may file those documents on any calendar day—including Saturdays, Sundays, and federal legal holidays—and the Authority will consider those documents filed on a particular day if you file them no later than 11:59 p.m. Eastern Time on that day. Note, however, that although you may eFile documents on Saturdays, Sundays, and federal legal holidays, you are not required to do so. Also note that you may not file documents with the Authority by electronic mail (“email”).

(b) A document submitted to the General Counsel pursuant to this subchapter shall be filed with the General Counsel at the address set forth in the appendix.

(c) A document submitted to a Regional Director pursuant to this subchapter shall be filed with the appropriate regional office, as set forth in the appendix.

(d) Unless electronically filed pursuant to paragraph (f)(15) of this section, a document filed with the Office of Administrative Law Judges pursuant to this subchapter shall be submitted to the address for the Chief Administrative Law Judge, as set forth in the appendix.

(e) Except as discussed in paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section, if you are filing documents with the FLRA, then you must file them in person, by commercial delivery, by first-class mail, or by certified mail.

(f) As an alternative to the filing methods discussed in paragraph (e) of this section, you may file the following documents, and only the following documents, electronically through use of the eFiling system on the FLRA's Web site at www.flra.gov:

(1) Applications for review under 5 CFR 2422.31(a) through (c);

(2) Oppositions to applications for review under 5 CFR 2422.31(d);

(3) Exceptions to Administrative Law Judges' decisions under 5 CFR 2423.40(a);

(4) Oppositions to exceptions to Administrative Law Judges' decisions under 5 CFR 2423.40(b);

(5) Cross-exceptions under 5 CFR 2423.40(b);

(6) Exclusive representatives' petitions for review under 5 CFR 2424.22;

(7) Agencies' statements of position under 5 CFR 2424.24;

(8) Exclusive representatives' responses under 5 CFR 2424.25;

(9) Agencies' replies under 5 CFR 2424.26;

(10) Exceptions to arbitration awards under 5 CFR part 2425; and

(11) Oppositions to exceptions to arbitration awards under 5 CFR part 2425.

(12) Petitions under 5 CFR part 2422.

(13) Cross-petitions under 5 CFR part 2422.

(14) Charges under 5 CFR part 2423.

(15) Documents submitted to the Office of Administrative Law Judges under 5 CFR part 2423, including answers to complaints, motions, briefs, pre-hearing disclosures, stipulations, and any other documents as permitted by the eFiling system for the Office of Administrative Law Judges.

(g) As another alternative to the methods of filing described in paragraph (e) of this section, you may file the following documents by facsimile (“fax”), so long as fax equipment is available and your entire, individual filing does not exceed 10 pages in total length, with normal margins and font sizes. You may file only the following documents by fax under this paragraph (g):

(1) Motions;

(2) Information pertaining to prehearing disclosure, conferences, orders, or hearing dates, times, and locations;

(3) Information pertaining to subpoenas;

(4) Appeals of a dismissal of an unfair labor practice charge; and

(5) Other matters that are similar to those in paragraphs (g)(1) through (3) of this section.

(h) You must legibly print, type, or otherwise duplicate any documents that you file under this section. For purposes of documents that are filed electronically through use of the FLRA's eFiling system under paragraph (f) of this section, “legibly * * * duplicated” means that documents that you upload as attachments into the eFiling system must be legible.

(i) Documents, including correspondence, in any proceedings under this subchapter must show the title of the proceeding and the case number, if any.

(j) Except for documents that are filed electronically through use of the FLRA's eFiling system, the original of each document required to be filed under this subchapter must be signed by either the filing party or that party's attorney, other representative of record, or officer, and also must contain the address and telephone number of the person who signs the document. Documents that are filed electronically using the FLRA's eFiling system must contain the mailing address, email address, and telephone number of the individual who files the document, but not that individual's signature.

(k) A return postal receipt may serve as acknowledgement that the Authority, General Counsel, Administrative Law Judge, Regional Director, or Hearing Officer has received a filed document. Otherwise, the FLRA will acknowledge receipt of filed documents only if the filing party:

(1) Asks the receiving FLRA officer to do so;

(2) Includes an extra copy of the document or the letter to which the document is attached, which the receiving FLRA office will date-stamp and return to the filing party; and

(3) For returns that are to be sent by mail, includes a self-addressed, stamped envelope.

[45 FR 3516, Jan. 17, 1980, as amended at 51 FR 45752, Dec. 22, 1986; 58 FR 53105, Oct. 14, 1993; 62 FR 40924, July 31, 1997; 68 FR 10953, Mar. 7, 2003; 68 FR 23885, May 6, 2003; 73 FR 27459, May 13, 2008; 77 FR 26436, May 4, 2012; 77 FR 37762, June 25, 2012; 80 FR 9190, Feb. 20, 2015; 88 FR 80092, Nov. 17, 2023; 89 FR 11702, Feb. 15, 2024; 91 FR 13949, Mar. 24, 2026; 91 FR 65449, Oct. 15, 2026]

§ 2429.25 Number of copies and paper size.

(a) General rule. Except as discussed in paragraph (b) of this section, and unless you use an FLRA-prescribed form, any document that you file with the Authority, General Counsel, Administrative Law Judge, Regional Director, or Hearing Officer, including any attachments, must be on 8 1/2 by 11-inch size paper, using normal margins and font sizes. You must file one original document, but you may substitute for the original document a clean copy of that document, so long as the copy is capable of being used as an original for purposes such as further reproduction.

(b) Exceptions. You are not required to comply with paragraph (a) of this section if and only if:

(1) You file documents electronically through use of the FLRA's eFiling system;

(2) The Authority or the General Counsel, or their designated representatives, allow you not to comply; or

(3) Another provision of this subchapter allows you not to comply.

[77 FR 26437, May 4, 2012, as amended at 89 FR 11702, Feb. 15, 2024]

§ 2429.26 Other documents.

(a) The Authority or the General Counsel, or their designated representatives, as appropriate, may in their discretion grant leave to file other documents as they deem appropriate.

(b) A copy of such other documents shall be served on the other parties.

§ 2429.27 Service; statement of service.

(a) Except as provided in § 2423.10(c) and (d), any party filing a document as provided in this subchapter is responsible for serving a copy upon all counsel of record or other designated representative(s) of parties, upon parties not so represented, and upon any interested person who has been granted permission by the Authority pursuant to § 2429.9 to present written and/or oral argument as amicus curiae. Service upon such counsel or representative shall constitute service upon the party, but a copy also shall be transmitted to the party.

(b) If you are serving a document under paragraph (a) of this section, then you must use one of the following methods of service:

(1) Certified mail;

(2) First-class mail;

(3) Commercial delivery;

(4) In-person delivery;

(5) Facsimile (“fax”) service, but only for the types of documents listed in § 2429.24(g) and only where fax equipment is available; or

(6) Electronic mail (“email”), but only when the receiving party has agreed to be served by email.

(c) If you serve a document under this section, then you must file, with the appropriate FLRA office, a statement indicating that the party has served that document (a “statement of service”). If you are filing documents electronically using the FLRA's eFiling system, then you must certify, in the FLRA's eFiling system and at the time of filing, that you have served copies of the filing and any supporting documents on the appropriate individual(s) specified in paragraph (a) of this section. Regardless of how you file a statement of service with the FLRA, you must ensure that your statement of service includes the names of the parties and persons that you served, their addresses, the date on which you served them, the nature of the document(s) that you served, and the manner in which you served the parties or persons that you served. You must also sign and date the statement of service, unless you are using the FLRA's eFiling system.

(d) Date of service. For any documents that you serve under this section, the date of service depends on the manner in which you serve the documents. Specifically, the date of service shall be the date on which you have: deposited the served documents in the U.S. mail; delivered them in person; deposited them with a commercial-delivery service that will provide a record showing the date on which the document was tendered to the delivery service; transmitted them by fax (where allowed under paragraph (b)(5) of this section); or transmitted them by email (where allowed under paragraph (b)(6) of this section).

[45 FR 3516, Jan. 17, 1980, as amended at 62 FR 40924, July 31, 1997; 74 FR 51745, Oct. 8, 2009; 77 FR 26437, May 4, 2012]

§ 2429.28 Petitions for amendment of regulations.

Any interested person may petition the Authority or General Counsel in writing for amendments to any portion of these regulations. Such petition shall identify the portion of the regulations involved and provide the specific language of the proposed amendment together with a statement of grounds in support of such petition.

§ 2429.29 Content of filings.

With one exception, if you file any document with the Authority or the Office of Administrative Law Judges in a proceeding covered by this subchapter—including any briefs that you upload into the FLRA's eFiling system as attachments—and that document exceeds 10 double-spaced pages in length, then you must ensure that the document includes a table of contents. The one exception is that, if you use the fillable forms in the FLRA's eFiling system, then you are not required to submit a table of contents to accompany the fillable forms.

[77 FR 26437, May 4, 2012]

PART 2430 AWARDS OF ATTORNEY FEES AND OTHER EXPENSES

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 504.

Source: 46 FR 48623, Oct. 2, 1981, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2430.1 Purpose.

The Equal Assess to Justice Act, 5 U.S.C. 504, provides for the award of attorney, agent, or witness fees and other expenses to eligible individuals and entities who are parties to Authority adversary adjudications. An eligible party may receive an award when it prevails over the General Counsel, unless the General Counsel's position in the proceeding was substantially justified, or special circumstances make an award unjust. The rules in this part describe the parties eligible for awards, and the Authority proceeding that is covered. They also set forth the procedures for applying for such awards, and the procedures by which the Authority will rule on such applications.

[51 FR 33837, Sept. 23, 1986]

§ 2430.2 Proceedings affected; eligibility for award.

(a) The provisions of this part apply to unfair labor practice proceedings pending on complaint against a labor organization at any time since October 1, 1981.

(b) A respondent in an unfair labor proceeding which has prevailed in the proceeding, or in a significant and discrete portion of the proceeding, and who otherwise meets the eligibility requirements of this section, is eligible to apply for an award of attorneys fees and other expenses allowable under the provisions of § 2430.4 of these rules.

(1) Applicants eligible to receive an award in proceedings conducted by the Authority are any partnership, corporation, association, or public or private organization with a net worth of not more than $5 million ($7 million in cases involving adversary adjudications pending on or commenced on or after August 5, 1985) and not more than 500 employees.

(2) For the purpose of eligibility, the net worth and number of employees of an applicant shall be determined as of the date the complaint was issued.

(3) The employees of an applicant include all persons who regularly perform services for remuneration for the applicant, under the applicant's direction and control. Part-time employees shall be included on a proportional basis.

(4) An applicant that participates in a proceeding primarily on behalf of one or more other persons or entities that would be ineligible is not itself eligible for an award.

[46 FR 48623, Oct. 2, 1981, as amended at 51 FR 33837, Sept. 23, 1986]

§ 2430.3 Standards for awards.

(a) An eligible applicant may receive an award for fees and expenses incurred in connection with a proceeding, or in a significant and discrete portion of the proceeding, unless the position of the General Counsel over which the applicant has prevailed was substantially justified. The burden of proof that an award should not be made to an eligible applicant is on the General Counsel, who may avoid an award by showing that its position in initiating the proceeding was reasonable in law and fact.

(b) An award will be reduced or denied if the applicant has unduly or unreasonably protracted the proceeding or if special circumstances make the award sought unjust.

§ 2430.4 Allowable fees and expenses.

(a)(1)(i) No award for the fee of an attorney or agent under this part may exceed $125.00 per hour, or for adversary adjudications commenced prior to March 29, 1996, $75.00 per hour, indexed to reflect cost of living increases as follows:

(ii) The cost of living index to be used is the Consumer Price Index, All Urban Consumers, U.S. City Average, All Items (CPI-U). If legal services are provided during more than one year, each year shall be calculated separately. If an annual average CPI-U for a particular year is not yet available, the prior year's annual average CPI-U shall be used.

(2) No award to compensate an expert witness may exceed the highest rate that the Authority pays expert witnesses. However, an award may also include the reasonable expenses of the attorney, agent, or witness as a separate item, if the attorney, agent, or witness ordinarily charges clients separately for such expenses.

(b) In determining the reasonableness of the fee sought for an attorney, agent or expert witness, the following matters may be considered:

(1) If the attorney, agent or witness is in practice, his or her customary fee for similar services, or, if an employee of the applicant, the fully allocated cost of the services;

(2) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent or witness ordinarily performs services;

(3) The time actually spent in the representation of the applicant;

(4) The time reasonably spent in light of the difficulty or complexity of the issues in the proceeding; and

(5) Such other factors as may bear on the value of the services provided.

(c) The reasonable cost of any study, analysis, engineering report, test, project or similar matters prepared on behalf of an applicant may be awarded, to the extent that the charge for the service does not exceed the prevailing rate for similar services, and the study or other matter was necessary for preparation of the applicant's case.

[46 FR 48623, Oct. 2, 1981, as amended at 64 FR 30861, June 9, 1999; 65 FR 10374, Feb. 28, 2000]

§ 2430.5 Rulemaking on maximum rates for attorney fees.

If warranted by special factors, attorney fees may be awarded at a rate higher than that established in § 2430.4. Any such increase in the rate for attorney fees shall be made only upon a petition submitted by the applicant, pursuant to § 2430.6. Determinations regarding fee adjustments are subject to Authority review as specified in § 2430.13.

[65 FR 10374, Feb. 28, 2000]

§ 2430.6 Contents of application; net worth exhibit; documentation of fees and expenses.

(a) An application for an award of fees and expenses under the Act shall identify the applicant and the proceeding for which an award is sought. The application shall state the particulars in which the applicant has prevailed and identify the positions of the General Counsel in the proceeding that the applicant alleges were not substantially justified. The application shall also state the number of employees of the applicant and describe briefly the type and purpose of its organization or business.

(b) The application shall include a statement that the applicant's net worth does not exceed $5 million.

(c) The application shall state the amount of fees and expenses for which an award is sought.

(d) The application may also include any other matters that the applicant wishes the Authority to consider in determining whether and in what amount an award should be made.

(e) The application shall be signed by the applicant or an authorized officer or attorney of the applicant. It shall also contain or be accompanied by a written verification under oath or under penalty of perjury that the information provided in the application is true.

(f) Each applicant must provide with its application a detailed exhibit showing the net worth of the applicant when the proceeding was initiated. The exhibit may be in any form convenient to the applicant that provides full disclosure of the applicant's assets and liabilities and is sufficient to determine whether the applicant qualifies under the standards in this part. The Administrative Law Judge may require an applicant to file additional information to determine its eligibility for an award.

(g) The application shall be accompanied by full documentation of the fees and expenses for which an award is sought. A separate itemized statement shall be submitted for each professional firm or individual whose services are covered by the application, showing the hours spent in connection with the proceeding by each individual, the rate at which each fee has been computed, any expenses for which reimbursement is sought, the total amount claimed, and the total amount paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity for the services provided. The Administrative Law Judge may require the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, or other substantiation for any expenses claimed.

§ 2430.7 When an application may be filed; referral to Administrative Law Judge; stay of proceeding.

(a) An application may be filed after entry of the final order establishing that the applicant has prevailed in the proceeding, or in a significant and discrete substantive portion of the proceeding, but in no case later than thirty (30) days after the entry of the Authority's final order in the proceeding. The application for an award shall be filed with the Authority in Washington, DC, in an original and four copies, and served on all parties to the unfair labor practice proceeding. Service of the application shall be in the same manner as prescribed in §§ 2429.22 and 2429.27. Upon filing, the application shall be referred by the Authority to the Administrative Law Judge who heard the proceeding upon which the application is based, or, in the event the proceeding had not previously been heard by an Administrative Law Judge, it shall be referred to the Chief Administrative Law Judge for designation of an Administrative Law Judge, to consider the application. When the Administrative Law Judge to whom the application has been referred is or becomes unavailable, the provisions of § 2423.20 shall be applicable.

(b) Proceedings for the award of fees and other expenses, but not the time limit of this section for filing an application for an award, shall be stayed pending final disposition of the case, in the event any persons seeks Authority reconsideration or court review of the Authority decision that forms the basis for the application for fees and expenses.

§ 2430.8 Filing and service of documents.

All pleadings or documents after the time the case is referred by the Authority to an Administative Law Judge, until the issuance of the Judge's decision, shall be filed in an original and four copies with the Administrative Law Judge and served on all parties to the proceeding. Service of such documents shall be in the same manner as prescribed in §§ 2429.22 and 2429.27.

§ 2430.9 Answer to application; reply to answer; comments by other parties; extensions of time to file documents.

(a) Within 30 days after service of an application, the General Counsel may file an answer to the application. The filing of a motion to dismiss the application shall stay the time for filing an answer to a date thirty (30) days after issuance of any order denying the motion.

(b) If the General Counsel and the applicant believe that the issues in the fee application can be settled, they may jointly file a statement of their intent to negotiate toward a settlement. The filing of such a statement shall extend the time for filing an answer for an additional 30 days.

(c) The answer shall explain in detail any objections to the award requested, and identify the facts relied on in support of the General Counsel's position. If the answer is based on alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, supporting affidavits shall be provided or a request made for further proceedings under § 2430.11.

(d) Within fifteen (15) days after service of an answer, the applicant may file a reply. If the reply is based on alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, supporting affidavits shall be provided or a request made for further proceedings under § 2430.11.

(e) Any party to a proceeding other than the applicant and the General Counsel may file comments on an application within 30 days after it is served, or on an answer within 15 days after it is served. A commenting party may not participate further in the proceeding on the application unless the Administrative Law Judge determines that such participation is required in order to permit full exploration of matters raised in the comments.

(f) Motions for extensions of time to file documents permitted by this section or § 2430.11 shall be filed with the Administrative Law Judge not less than five (5) days before the due date of the document.

§ 2430.10 Settlement.

The applicant and the General Counsel may agree on a proposed settlement of the award before final action on the application. If an applicant and the General Counsel agree on a proposed settlement of an award before an application has been filed, the proposed settlement shall be filed with the application. All such settlements shall be subject to approval by the Authority.

§ 2430.11 Further proceedings.

(a) The determination of an award may be made on the basis of the documents in the record, or the Administrative Law Judge, upon request of either the applicant or the General Counsel, or on his or her own initiative, may order further proceedings. Such further proceedings may include, but shall not be limited to, an informal conference, oral argument, additional written submissions, or an evidentiary hearing.

(b) A request that the Administrative Law Judge order further proceedings under this section shall specifically identify the disputed issues and the evidence sought to be adduced, and shall explain why the additional proceedings are necessary to resolve the issues.

(c) An order of the Administrative Law Judge scheduling oral argument, additional written submissions, or an evidentiary hearing, shall specify the issues to be considered in such argument, submission, or hearing.

(d) Any evidentiary hearing held pursuant to this section shall be conducted not earlier than forty-five (45) days after the date on which the application is served. In all other respects, such hearing shall be conducted in accordance with §§ 2423.14, 2423.16, 2423.17, 2423.19 through 2423.21, 2423.23, and 2423.24, insofar as these sections are consistent with the provisions of this part.

§ 2430.12 Administrative Law Judge's decision; contents; service; transfer of case to the Authority; contents of record in case.

(a) Upon conclusion of proceedings under §§ 2430.6 to 2430.11, the Administrative Law Judge shall prepare a decision. The decision shall include written findings and conclusions on the applicant's status as a prevailing party and eligibility, and an explanation of the reasons for any difference between the amount requested and the amount awarded. The decision shall also include, if at issue, findings on whether the agency's position was substantially justified, whether the applicant unduly protracted the proceedings, or whether special circumstances make an award unjust. The Administrative Law Judge shall cause the decision to be served promptly on all parties to the proceeding. Thereafter, the Administrative Law Judge shall transmit the case to the Authority, including the judge's decision and the record. Service of the Administrative Law Judge's decision and of the order transferring the case to the Board shall be complete upon mailing.

(b) The record in a proceeding on an application for an award of fees and expenses shall consist of the application for an award of fees and expenses and any amendments or attachments thereto, the net worth exhibit, the answer and any amendments or attachments thereto, any reply to the answer, any comments by other parties, motions, rulings, orders, stipulations, written submissions, the stenographic transcript of oral argument, the stenographic transcript of the hearing, exhibits and depositions, together with the Administrative Law Judge's decision, and the exceptions and briefs as provided in § 2430.13, and the record of the unfair labor practice proceeding upon which the application is based.

§ 2430.13 Exceptions to Administrative Law Judge's decision; briefs; action of Authority.

Procedures before the Authority, including the filing of exceptions to the administrative law judge's decision rendered pursuant to § 2430.12, and action by the Authority, shall be in accordance with §§ 2423.26(c), 2423.27, and 2423.28 of these rules. The Authority's review of the matter shall be in accordance with § 2423.29(a).

§ 2430.14 Payment of award.

To obtain payment of an award made by the Authority the applicant shall submit to the Executive Director of the Authority a copy of the Authority's final decision granting the award, accompanied by a statement that the applicant will not seek court review of the decision. The amount awarded will then be paid unless judicial review of the award, or of the underlying decision, has been sought by the applicant or any other party to the proceeding.

SUBCHAPTER D FEDERAL SERVICE IMPASSES PANEL

PART 2470 GENERAL

Authority: 3 U.S.C. 431; 5 U.S.C. 7119, 7134.

Subpart A Purpose
§ 2470.1 Purpose.

The regulations contained in this subchapter are intended to implement the provisions of section 7119 of title 5 and, where applicable, section 431 of title 3 of the United States Code. They prescribe procedures and methods which the Federal Service Impasses Panel may utilize in the resolution of negotiation impasses when voluntary arrangements, including the services of the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service or any other third-party meditation, fail to resolve the disputes. It is the policy of the Panel to encourage labor and management to resolve disputes on terms that are mutually agreeable at any stage of the Panel's procedures.

[63 FR 46159, Aug. 31, 1998]

Subpart B Definitions
§ 2470.2 Definitions.

(a) The terms agency, labor organization, and conditions of employment as used in this subchapter shall have the meaning set forth in 5 U.S.C. 7103(a). When used in connection with 3 U.S.C. 431, the term agency as used in the Panel's regulations in this subchapter means an employing office as defined in 3 U.S.C. 401(a)(4).

(b) The term Executive Director means the Executive Director of the Panel.

(c) The terms designated representative or designee of the Panel means a Panel member, a staff member, or other individual designated by the Panel to act on its behalf.

(d) The term hearing means a factfinding hearing, arbitration hearing, or any other hearing procedure deemed necessary to accomplish the purposes of 5 U.S.C. 7119.

(e) The term impasse means that point in the negotiation of conditions of employment at which the parties are unable to reach agreement, notwithstanding their efforts to do so by direct negotiations and by the use of mediation or other voluntary arrangements for settlement.

(f) The term Panel means the Federal Service Impasses Panel described in 5 U.S.C. 7119(c) or a quorum thereof.

(g) The term party means the agency or the labor organization participating in the negotiation of conditions of employment.

(h) The term quorum means a majority of the members of the Panel.

(i) The term voluntary arrangements means any method adopted by the parties for the purpose of assisting them in their resolution of a negotiation dispute which is not inconsistent with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 7119.

[45 FR 3520, Jan. 17, 1980, as amended at 48 FR 19693, May 2, 1983; 63 FR 46159, Aug. 31, 1998]

PART 2471 PROCEDURES OF THE PANEL

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 7119, 7134.

Source: 45 FR 3520, Jan. 17, 1980, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2471.1 Request for Panel consideration; request for Panel approval of binding arbitration.

If voluntary arrangements, including the services of the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service or any other third-party mediation, fail to resolve a negotiation impasse:

(a) Either party, or the parties jointly, may request the Panel to consider the matter by filing a request as hereinafter provided; or the Panel may, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 7119(c)(1), undertake consideration of the matter upon request of (i) the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service, or (ii) the Executive Director; or

(b) The parties may jointly request the Panel to approve any procedure, which they have agreed to adopt, for binding arbitration of the negotiation impasse by filing a request as hereinafter provided.

§ 2471.2 Request form.

A form is available for parties to use in filing either a request for consideration of an impasse or an approval of a binding arbitration procedure. Copies are available on the FLRA's website at www.flra.gov or, with advance permission only, from the Office of the Executive Director, Federal Service Impasses Panel, Suite 300, 1400 K Street NW, Washington, DC 20424-0001. Telephone (771) 444-5762. Use of the form is not required, provided that the request includes all of the information set forth in § 2471.3.

[89 FR 20843, Mar. 26, 2024]

§ 2471.3 Content of request.

(a) A request from a party or parties to the Panel for consideration of an impasse must be in writing and include the following information:

(1) Identification of the parties and individuals authorized to act on their behalf, including their addresses, telephone numbers, and facsimile numbers;

(2) Statement of issues at impasse and the summary positions of the initiating party or parties with respect to those issues; and

(3) Number, length, and dates of negotiation and mediation sessions held, including the nature and extent of all other voluntary arrangements utilized.

(b) A request for approval of a binding arbitration procedure must be in writing, jointly filed by the parties, and include the following information about the pending impasse:

(1) Identification of the parties and individuals authorized to act on their behalf, including their addresses, telephone numbers, and facsimile numbers;

(2) Brief description of the impasse including the issues to be submitted to the arbitrator;

(3) Number, length, and dates of negotiation and mediation sessions held, including the nature and extent of all other voluntary arrangements utilized;

(4) Statement as to whether any of the proposals to be submitted to the arbitrator contain questions concerning the duty to bargain and a statement of each party's position concerning such questions; and

(5) Statement of the arbitration procedures to be used, including the type of arbitration, the method of selecting the arbitrator, and the arrangement for paying for the proceedings or, in the alternative, those provisions of the parties' labor agreement which contain this information.

[45 FR 3520, Jan. 17, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 41294, Aug. 8, 1996]

§ 2471.4 Where to file.

Requests to the Panel provided for in this part must either be filed electronically through use of the eFiling system on the FLRA's website at www.flra.gov, or be addressed to the Executive Director, Federal Service Impasses Panel, Suite 300, 1400 K Street NW, Washington, DC 20424-0001. All inquiries or correspondence on the status of impasses or other related matters must be submitted by regular mail to the street address above, by using the telephone number (771) 444-5762, or by using the facsimile number (202) 482-6674.

[89 FR 11702, Feb. 15, 2024]

§ 2471.5 Filing and service.

(a) Filing and service of request. (1) Any party submitting a request for Panel consideration of an impasse or a request for approval of a binding arbitration procedure shall file an original and one copy with the Panel, unless the request is filed electronically as discussed below. A clean copy may be submitted for the original. Requests may be submitted electronically through use of the eFiling system on the FLRA's website at www.flra.gov, or by registered mail, certified mail, regular mail, or commercial delivery. Requests also may be accepted by the Panel if transmitted to the facsimile machine of its office, the number of which is (202) 482-6674. A party submitting a request by facsimile shall also file an original for the Panel's records, but failure to do so shall not affect the validity of the filing by facsimile, if otherwise proper. While requests may also be submitted by in-person delivery to the FSIP, you must first obtain permission, by calling (771) 444-5762, and then schedule an appointment at least one business day in advance of submission. In-person delivery is accepted with permission, and by appointment only, Monday through Friday (except Federal holidays).

(2) The party submitting the request shall serve a copy of such request upon all counsel of record or other designated representative(s) of parties, upon parties not so represented, and upon any mediation service which may have been utilized. Service upon such counsel or representative shall constitute service upon the party, but a copy also shall be transmitted to the party. Service of a request may be made in person or by registered mail, certified mail, regular mail, or commercial delivery. With the permission of the person receiving the request, service may be made by electronic or facsimile transmission, or by any other agreed-upon method. When the Panel acts on a request from the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service or acts on a request from the Executive Director under § 2471.1(a), it will notify the parties to the dispute, their counsel of record, if any, and any mediation service which may have been utilized.

(b) Filing and service of other documents. (1) Any party submitting a response to, or other document in connection with, a request for Panel consideration of an impasse or a request for approval of a binding arbitration procedure shall file an original and one copy with the Panel, with the exception of responses or documents filed simultaneously with the electronic filing of a request through use of the FLRA's eFiling system. Responses or documents may be submitted electronically through use of the eFiling system on the FLRA's website at www.flra.gov, or by registered mail, certified mail, regular mail, or commercial delivery. Responses or documents also may be accepted by the Panel if transmitted to the facsimile machine of its office, the number of which is (202) 482-6674. A party submitting a response or document by facsimile shall also file an original for the Panel's records, but failure to do so shall not affect the validity of the filing by facsimile, if otherwise proper. While responses or documents may also be submitted by in-person delivery to the FSIP, you must first obtain permission, by calling (771) 444-5762, and then schedule an appointment at least one business day in advance of submission. In-person delivery is accepted with permission, and by appointment only, Monday through Friday (except Federal holidays).

(2) The party submitting the document shall serve a copy of such request upon all counsel of record or other designated representative(s) of parties, or upon parties not so represented. Service upon such counsel or representative shall constitute service upon the party, but a copy also shall be transmitted to the party. Service of a document may be made in person or by registered mail, certified mail, regular mail, or commercial delivery. With the permission of the person receiving the document, service may be made by electronic or facsimile transmission, or by any other agreed-upon method.

(c) A signed and dated statement of service shall accompany each document submitted to the Panel, unless the document is a request under § 2471.5(a) that is filed electronically through use of the FLRA's eFiling system. For requests under § 2471.5(a) that are filed electronically through use of the FLRA's eFiling system, the filing party shall certify, in the FLRA's eFiling system and at the time of filing, that copies of the request and any supporting documents have been served as required. The statement of service, however filed, shall include the names of the parties and persons served, their addresses, the date of service, the nature of the document served, and the manner in which service was made.

(d) The date of service or date served shall be the day when the matter served, if properly addressed, is deposited in the U.S. mail, deposited with a commercial-delivery service that will provide a record showing the date the document was tendered to the delivery service, or delivered in person after permission to do so is granted. Where service is made by electronic or facsimile transmission, the date of service shall be the date of transmission.

(e) Unless otherwise provided by the Panel or its designated representatives, any document or paper filed with the Panel under this section, together with any enclosure filed therewith, shall be typewritten on 8 1/2 × 11 inch plain white paper, shall have margins no less than 1 inch on each side, shall be in typeface no smaller than 10 characters per inch, and shall be numbered consecutively. Nonconforming papers may, at the Panel's discretion, be rejected.

[48 FR 19694, May 2, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 41294, Aug. 8, 1996; 77 FR 5988, Feb. 7, 2012; 89 FR 20844, Mar. 26, 2024]

§ 2471.6 Investigation of request; Panel procedures; approval of binding arbitration.

(a) Upon receipt of a request for consideration of an impasse, the Panel or its designee will promptly conduct an investigation, consulting when necessary with the parties and with any mediation service utilized. After due consideration, the Panel shall either:

(1) Decline to assert jurisdiction in the event that it finds that no impasse exists or that there is other good cause for not asserting jurisdiction, in whole or in part, and so advise the parties in writing, stating its reasons; or

(2) Assert jurisdiction and

(i) Recommend to the parties procedures for the resolution of the impasse; and/or

(ii) Assist the parties in resolving the impasse through whatever methods and procedures the Panel considers appropriate. The procedures utilized by the Panel may include, but are not limited to: informal conferences with a Panel designee; factfinding (by a Panel designee or a private factfinder); written submissions; show cause orders; oral presentations to the Panel; and arbitration or mediation-arbitration (by a Panel designee or a private arbitrator). Following procedures used by the Panel, it may issue a report to the parties containing recommendations for settlement prior to taking final action to resolve the impasse.

(b) Upon receipt of a request for approval of a binding arbitration procedure, the Panel or its designee will promptly conduct an investigation, consulting when necessary with the parties and with any mediation service utilized. After due consideration, the Panel shall promptly approve or disapprove the request, normally within five (5) workdays.

[45 FR 3520, Jan. 17, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 41294, Aug. 8, 1996]

§ 2471.7 Preliminary factfinding procedures.

When the Panel determines that a factfinding hearing is necessary under § 2471.6, and it appoints one or more of its designees to conduct such hearing, it will issue and serve upon each of the parties a notice of hearing and a notice of prehearing conference, if any. The notice will state:

(a) The names of the parties to the dispute;

(b) The date, time, place, type, and purpose of the hearing;

(c) The date, time, place, and purpose of the prehearing conference, if any;

(d) The name of the designated representatives appointed by the Panel;

(e) The issues to be resolved; and

(f) The method, if any, by which the hearing shall be recorded.

[45 FR 3520, Jan. 17, 1980, as amended at 48 FR 19694, May 2, 1983; 61 FR 41295, Aug. 8, 1996]

§ 2471.8 Conduct of factfinding and other hearings; prehearing conferences.

(a) A designated representative of the Panel, when so appointed to conduct a hearing, shall have the authority on behalf of the Panel to:

(1) Administer oaths, take the testimony or deposition of any person under oath, receive other evidence, and issue subpenas;

(2) Conduct the hearing in open, or in closed session at the discretion of the designated representative for good cause shown;

(3) Rule on motions and requests for appearance of witnesses and the production of records;

(4) Designate the date on which posthearing briefs, if any, shall be submitted.

(5) Determine all procedural matters concerning the hearing, including the length of sessions, conduct of persons in attendance, recesses, continuances, and adjournments; and take any other appropriate procedural action which, in the judgment of the designated representative, will promote the purpose and objectives of the hearing.

(b) A prehearing conference may be conducted by the designated representative of the Panel in order to:

(1) Inform the parties of the purpose of the hearing and the procedures under which it will take place;

(2) Explore the possibilities of obtaining stipulations of fact;

(3) Clarify the positions of the parties with respect to the issues to be heard; and

(4) Discuss any other relevant matters which will assist the parties in the resolution of the dispute.

[45 FR 3520, Jan. 17, 1980, as amended at 48 FR 19694, May 2, 1983]

§ 2471.9 Report and recommendations.

(a) When a report is issued after a factfinding hearing is conducted pursuant to § 2471.7 and 2471.8, it normally shall be in writing and, when authorized by the Panel, shall contain recommendations.

(b) A report of the designated representative containing recommendations shall be submitted to the parties, with two (2) copies to the Executive Director, within a period normally not to exceed thirty (30) calendar days after receipt of the transcript or briefs, if any.

(c) A report of the designated representative not containing recommendations shall be submitted to the Panel with a copy to each party within a period normally not to exceed thirty (30) calendar days after receipt of the transcript or briefs, if any. The Panel shall then take whatever action it may consider appropriate or necessary to resolve the impasse.

[45 FR 3520, Jan. 17, 1980, as amended at 61 FR 41295, Aug. 8, 1996]

§ 2471.10 Duties of each party following receipt of recommendations.

(a) Within thirty (30) calendar days after receipt of a report containing recommendations of the Panel or its designated representative, each party shall, after conferring with the other, either:

(1) Accept the recommendations and so notify the Executive Director; or

(2) Reach a settlement of all unresolved issues and submit a written settlement statement to the Executive Director; or

(3) Submit a written statement to the Executive Director setting forth the reasons for not accepting the recommendations and for not reaching a settlement of all unresolved issues.

(b) A reasonable extension of time may be authorized by the Executive Director for good cause shown when requested in writing by either party prior to the expiration of the time limits.

[45 FR 3520, Jan. 17, 1980, as amended at 48 FR 19694, May 2, 1983]

§ 2471.11 Final action by the Panel.

(a) If the parties do not arrive at a settlement as a result of or during actions taken under §§ 2471.6(a)(2), 2471.7, 2471.8, 2471.9, and 2471.10, the Panel may take whatever action is necessary and not inconsistent with 5 U.S.C. chapter 71 to resolve the impasse, including but not limited to, methods and procedures which the Panel considers appropriate, such as directing the parties to accept a factfinder's recommendations, ordering binding arbitration conducted according to whatever procedure the Panel deems suitable, and rendering a binding decision.

(b) In preparation for taking such final action, the Panel may hold hearings, administer oaths, take the testimony or deposition of any person under oath, and issue subpenas as provided in 5 U.S.C. 7132, or it may appoint or designate one or more individuals pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 7119(c)(4) to exercise such authority on its behalf.

(c) When the exercise of authority under this section requires the holding of a hearing, the procedure contained in § 2471.8 shall apply.

(d) Notice of any final action of the Panel shall be promptly served upon the parties, and the action shall be binding on such parties during the term of the agreement, unless they agree otherwise.

[45 FR 3520, Jan. 17, 1980, as amended at 48 FR 19694, May 2, 1983]

§ 2471.12 Inconsistent labor agreement provisions.

Any provisions of the parties' labor agreements relating to impasse resolution which are inconsistent with the provisions of either 5 U.S.C. 7119 or the procedures of the Panel shall be deemed to be superseded, unless such provisions are permitted under 5 U.S.C. 7135.

PART 2472 IMPASSES ARISING PURSUANT TO AGENCY DETERMINATIONS NOT TO ESTABLISH OR TO TERMINATE FLEXIBLE OR COMPRESSED WORK SCHEDULES

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 6131.

Source: 48 FR 19695, May 2, 1983, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A Purpose and Definitions
§ 2472.1 Purpose.

The regulations contained in this Part are intended to implement the provisions of section 6131 of title 5 of the United States Code. They prescribe procedures and methods which the Federal Service Impasses Panel may utilize in the resolution of negotiations impasses arising from agency determinations not to establish or to terminate flexible and compressed work schedules.

§ 2472.2 Definitions.

(a) The term the Act means the Federal Employees Flexible and Compressed Work Schedules Act of 1982, Pub. L. 97-221, 5 U.S.C. 6120 et seq.

(b) The term adverse agency impact shall have the meaning set forth in 5 U.S.C. 6131(b).

(c) The term agency shall have the meaning set forth in 5 U.S.C. 6121(1).

(d) The term duly authorized delegatee means an official who has been delegated the authority to act for the head of the agency in the matter concerned.

(e) The term agency determination means a determination: (1) Not to establish a flexible or compressed work schedule under 5 U.S.C. 6131(c)(2); or (2) to terminate such a schedule under 5 U.S.C. 6131(c)(3).

(f) The terms collective bargaining agreement and exclusive representative shall have the meanings set forth in 5 U.S.C. 6121(8).

(g) The term Executive Director means the Executive Director of the Panel.

(h) The terms designated representative or designee of the Panel means a Panel member, staff member, or other individual designated by the Panel to act on its behalf.

(i) The term flexible and compressed work schedules shall have the meaning set forth in 5 U.S.C. 6121 et seq.

(j) The term hearing means a factfinding hearing or any other hearing procedures deemed necessary to accomplish the purpose of 5 U.S.C. 6131.

(k) The term impasse means that point in the negotiation of flexible and compressed work schedules at which the parties are unable to reach agreement on whether a schedule has had or would have an adverse agency impact.

(l) The term Panel means the Federal Service Impasses Panel described in 5 U.S.C. 7119(c) or a quorum thereof.

(m) The term party means the agency or the exclusive representative participating in negotiations concerning flexible and compressed work schedules.

(n) The term quorum means a majority of the members of the Panel.

(o) The term schedule(s) means flexible and compressed work schedules.

[48 FR 19695, May 2, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 41295, Aug. 8, 1996]

Subpart B Procedures of the Panel
§ 2472.3 Request for Panel Consideration.

Either party, or the parties jointly, may request the Panel to resolve an impasse resulting from an agency determination not to establish or to terminate a flexible or compressed work schedule by filing a request as hereinafter provided. A form is available for use by the parties in filing a request with the Panel. Copies are available on the FLRA's website at www.flra.gov or, with advance permission only, from the Office of the Executive Director, Federal Service Impasses Panel, Suite 300, 1400 K Street NW, Washington, DC 20424-0001. Telephone (771) 444-5762. Fax (202) 482-6674. Use of the form is not required provided that the request includes all of the information set forth in § 2472.4.

[89 FR 20844, Apr. 25, 2024]

§ 2472.4 Content of request.

(a) A request from a party or parties to the Panel for consideration of an impasse arising from an agency determination not to establish or to terminate a flexible or compressed work schedule under section 6131 (c)(2) or (c)(3) of the Act must be in writing and shall include the following information:

(1) Identification of the parties and individuals authorized to act on their behalf, including their addresses, telephone numbers, and facsimile numbers;

(2) Description of the bargaining unit involved in the dispute and the date recognition was accorded to the exclusive representative;

(3) Number, length, and dates of negotiation sessions held;

(4) A copy of any collective bargaining agreement between the parties and any other agreements concerning flexible and compressed work schedules;

(5) A copy of the schedule or proposed schedule, if any, which is the subject of the agency's determination;

(6) A copy of the agency's written determination and the finding on which the determination is based, including, in a case where the finding is made by a duly authorized delegatee, evidence of a specific delegation of authority to make such a finding; and

(7) A summary of the position of the initiating party or parties with respect to the agency's determination.

[48 FR 19695, May 2, 1983, as amended at 61 FR 41295, Aug. 8, 1996]

§ 2472.5 Where to file.

Requests to the Panel provided for in this part must either be filed electronically through use of the FLRA's eFiling system on the FLRA's website at www.flra.gov, or be addressed to the Executive Director, Federal Service Impasses Panel, Suite 300, 1400 K Street NW, Washington, DC 20424-0001. All inquiries or correspondence on the status of impasses or other related matters must be submitted by regular mail to the street address above, by using the telephone number (771) 444-5762, or by using the facsimile number (202) 482-6674.

[89 FR 20844, Mar. 26, 2024]

§ 2472.6 Filing and service.

(a) Filing and service of request. (1) Any party submitting a request for Panel consideration of an impasse filed pursuant to § 2472.3 of these rules shall file an original and one copy with the Panel unless the request is filed electronically as discussed below. A clean copy may be submitted for the original. Requests may be submitted electronically through use of the eFiling system on the FLRA's website at www.flra.gov, or by registered mail, certified mail, regular mail, or commercial delivery. Requests also may be accepted by the Panel if transmitted to the facsimile machine of its office, the number of which is (202) 482-6674. A party submitting a request by facsimile shall also file an original for the Panel's records, but failure to do so shall not affect the validity of the filing by facsimile, if otherwise proper. While requests may also be submitted by in-person delivery to the FSIP, you must first obtain permission, by calling (771) 444-5762, and then schedule an appointment at least one business day in advance of submission. In-person delivery is accepted with permission, and by appointment only, Monday through Friday (except Federal holidays).

(2) The party submitting the request shall serve a copy of such request upon all counsel of record or other designated representative(s) of parties, and upon parties not so represented. Service upon such counsel or representative shall constitute service upon the party, but a copy also shall be transmitted to the party. Service of a request may be made in person or by registered mail, certified mail, regular mail, or commercial delivery. With the permission of the person receiving the request, service may be made by facsimile or electronic transmission, or by any other agreed-upon method.

(b) Filing and service of other documents. (1) Any party submitting a response to, or other document in connection with, a request for Panel consideration of an impasse filed pursuant to § 2472.3 shall file an original and one copy with the Panel, with the exception of responses or documents that are filed simultaneously with the electronic filing of a request for Panel consideration. A clean copy may be submitted for the original. Responses or documents may be submitted electronically through use of the eFiling system on the FLRA's website at www.flra.gov, or by registered mail, certified mail, regular mail, or commercial delivery. Responses or documents also may be accepted by the Panel if transmitted to the facsimile machine of its office, the number of which is (202) 482-6674. A party submitting a response or document by facsimile shall also file an original for the Panel's records, but failure to do so shall not affect the validity of the filing by facsimile, if otherwise proper. While responses or documents may also be submitted by in-person delivery to the FSIP, you must first obtain permission, by calling (771) 444-5762, and then schedule an appointment at least one business day in advance of submission. In-person delivery is accepted with permission, and by appointment only, Monday through Friday (except Federal holidays).

(2) The party submitting the document shall serve a copy of such request upon all counsel of record or other designated representative(s) of parties, or upon parties not so represented. Service of a document may be made in person or by registered mail, certified mail, regular mail, or commercial delivery. With the permission of the person receiving the document, service may be made by electronic or facsimile transmission, or by any other agreed-upon method.

(c) A signed and dated statement of service shall accompany each document submitted to the Panel, unless the document is a request under § 2472.3 that is filed electronically. For requests under § 2472.3 that are filed electronically, the filing party shall certify, in the FLRA's eFiling system and at the time of filing, that copies of the request and any supporting documents have been served as required. The statement of service, however filed, shall include the names of the parties and persons served, their addresses, the date of service, the nature of the document served, and the manner in which service was made.

(d) The date of service or date served shall be the day when the matter served, if properly addressed, is deposited in the U.S. mail, deposited with a commercial-delivery service that will provide a record showing the date the document was tendered to the delivery service, or delivered in person after permission to do so is granted. Where service is made by electronic or facsimile transmission, the date of service shall be the date of transmission.

(e) Unless otherwise provided by the Panel or its designated representatives, any document or paper filed with the Panel under this part, together with any enclosure filed therewith, shall be typewritten on 8 1/2 × 11 inch plain white paper, shall have margins no less than 1 inch on each side, shall be in typeface no smaller than 10 characters per inch, and shall be numbered consecutively. Nonconforming papers may, at the Panel's discretion, be rejected.

(f) An impasse arising pursuant to section 6131(c) (2) or (3) of the Act will not be considered to be filed, and no Panel action will be taken, until the party initiating the request has complied with § 2472.4, 2472.5, and 2472.6 of these regulations.

[48 FR 19695, May 2, 1983. Redesignated and amended at 61 FR 41295, Aug. 8, 1996; 77 FR 5989, Feb. 7, 2012; 89 FR 20844, Mar. 26, 2024]

§ 2472.7 Investigation of request; Panel assistance.

(a) Upon receipt of a request for consideration of an impasse filed in accordance with these rules, the Panel or its designee shall promptly conduct an investigation, consulting when necessary with the parties. After due consideration, the Panel shall determine the procedures by which the impasse shall be resolved and shall notify the parties of its determination.

(b) The procedures utilized by the Panel shall afford the parties an opportunity to present their positions, including supporting evidence and arguments orally and/or in writing. They include, but are not limited to: informal conferences with a Panel designee; factfinding (by a Panel designee or a private factfinder); written submissions; show cause orders; and oral presentations to the Panel.

[48 FR 19695, May 2, 1983. Redesignated and amended at 61 FR 41295, 41296, Aug. 8, 1996]

§ 2472.8 Preliminary hearing procedures.

When the Panel determines that a hearing shall be held, and it appoints one or more of its designees to conduct such a hearing, it will issue and serve upon each of the parties a notice of hearing and a notice of prehearing conference, if any. The notice will state:

(a) The names of the parties to the dispute;

(b) The date, time, place, type, and purpose of the hearing;

(c) The date, time, place, and purpose of the prehearing conference, if any;

(d) The name of the designated representative(s) appointed by the Panel;

(e) The issue(s) to be resolved; and

(f) The method, if any, by which the hearing shall be transcribed.

[61 FR 41296, Aug. 8, 1996]

§ 2472.9 Conduct of hearing and prehearing conference.

(a) A designated representative of the Panel, when so appointed to conduct a hearing, shall have the authority on behalf of the Panel to:

(1) Administer oaths, take the testimony or deposition of any person under oath, receive other evidence, and issue subpoenas;

(2) Conduct the hearing in open or in closed session at the discretion of the designated representative for good cause shown;

(3) Rule on motions and requests for appearance of witnesses and the production of records;

(4) Designate the date on which posthearing briefs, if any, shall be submitted; and

(5) Determine all procedural matters concerning the hearing, including the length of sessions, conduct of persons in attendance, recesses, continuances, and adjournments; and take any other action which, in the judgment of the designated representative, will promote the purpose and objectives of the hearing.

(b) A prehearing conference may be conducted by the designated representative of the Panel to:

(1) Inform the parties of the purpose of the hearing and the procedures under which it will take place;

(2) Explore the possibilities of obtaining stipulations of fact;

(3) Clarify the positions of the parties with respect to the issues to be heard; and

(4) Discuss any other relevant matters which will assist the parties in the resolution of the dispute.

[48 FR 19695, May 2, 1983. Redesignated at 61 FR 41295, Aug. 8, 1996]

§ 2472.10 Reports.

When a report is issued after a hearing conducted pursuant to § 2472.8 and 2472.9, it normally shall be in writing and shall be submitted to the Panel, with a copy to each party, within a period normally not to exceed 30 calendar days after the close of the hearing and receipt of briefs, if any.

[61 FR 41296, Aug. 8, 1996]

§ 2472.11 Final action by the Panel.

(a) After due consideration of the parties' positions, evidence, and arguments, including any report submitted in accordance with § 2472.10, the Panel shall take final action in favor of the agency's determination if:

(1) The finding on which a determination under 5 U.S.C. 6131(c)(2) not to establish a flexible or compressed work schedule is based is supported by evidence that the schedule is likely to cause an adverse agency impact; or

(2) The finding on which a determination under 5 U.S.C. 6131(c)(3) to terminate a flexible or compressed work schedule is based is supported by evidence that the schedule has caused an adverse agency impact.

(b) If the finding on which an agency determination under 5 U.S.C. 6131(c)(2) or (c)(3) is based is not supported by evidence that the schedule is likely to cause or has caused an adverse agency impact, the Panel shall take whatever final action is appropriate.

(c) In preparation for taking such final action, the Panel may hold hearings, administer oaths, take the testimony or deposition of any person under oath, and issue subpoenas, or it may appoint one or more individuals to exercise such authority on its behalf. Such action may be taken without regard to procedures previously authorized by the Panel.

(d) Notice of any final action of the Panel shall be promptly served upon the parties.

[48 FR 19695, May 2, 1983. Redesignated and amended at 61 FR 41295, 41296, Aug. 8, 1996]

PART 2473 SUBPOENAS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 7119, 7134.

§ 2473.1 Subpenas.

(a) Any member of the Panel, the Executive Director, or other person designated by the Panel, may issue subpenas requiring the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of documentary or other evidence. However, no subpena shall be issued under this section which requires the disclosure of intramanagement guidance, advice, counsel, or training within an agency or between an agency and the Office of Personnel Management.

(b) Where the parties are in agreement that the appearance of witnesses or the production of documents is necessary, and such witnesses agree to appear, no such subpena need be sought.

(c) A request for a subpena by any person, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 7103(a)(1), shall be in writing and filed with the Executive Director, not less than fifteen (15) days prior to the opening of a hearing, or with the appropriate presiding official(s) during the hearing.

(d) All requests shall name and identify the witnesses or documents sought, and state the reasons therefor. The Panel, Executive Director, or any other person designated by the Panel, as appropriate, shall grant the request upon the determination that the testimony or documents appear to be necessary to the matters under consideration and the request describes with sufficient particularity the documents sought. Service of an approved subpena is the responsibility of the party on whose behalf the subpena was issued. The subpena shall show on its face the name and address of the party on whose behalf the subpena was issued.

(e) Any person served with a subpena who does not intend to comply shall within five (5) days after the date of service of the subpena upon such person, petition in writing to revoke the subpena. A copy of any petition to revoke a subpena shall be served on the party on whose behalf the subpena was issued. Such petition to revoke, if made prior to the hearing, and a written statement of service, shall be filed with the Executive Director. A petition to revoke a subpena filed during the hearing, and a written statement of service shall be filed with the appropriate presiding official(s). The Executive Director, or the appropriate presiding official(s) will, as a matter of course, cause a copy of the petition to revoke to be served on the party on whose behalf the subpena was issued, but shall not be deemed to assume responsibility for such service. The Panel, Executive Director, or any other person designated by the Panel, as appropriate, shall revoke the subpena if the evidence the production of which is required does not relate to any matter under consideration in the proceedings, or the subpena does not describe with sufficient particularity the evidence the production of which is required, or if for any other reason sufficient in law the subpena is invalid. The Panel, Executive Director, or any other person designated by the Panel, as appropriate, shall make a simple statement of procedural or other ground for the ruling on the petition to revoke. The petition to revoke, any answer thereto, and any ruling thereon shall not become part of the official record except upon the request of the party aggrieved by the ruling.

(f) Upon the failure of any person to comply with a subpena issued, and upon the request of the party on whose behalf the subpena was issued, the Solicitor of the FLRA shall, on behalf of such party, institute proceedings in the appropriate district court for the enforcement thereof, unless to do so would be inconsistent with law and the policies of the Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statute. The Solicitor of the FLRA shall not be deemed thereby to have assumed responsibility for the effective prosecution of the same before the court thereafter.

(g) All papers submitted to the Executive Director under this section shall be filed in duplicate, along with a statement of service showing that a copy has been served on the other party to the dispute.

(h)(1) Witnesses (whether appearing voluntarily or under a subpena) shall be paid the fee and mileage allowances which are paid subpenaed witnesses in the courts of the United States: Provided, that any witness who is employed by the Federal Government shall not be entitled to receive witness fees in addition to compensation received in conjunction with official time granted for such participation, including necessary travel time, as occurs during the employee's regular work hours and when the employee would otherwise be in a work or paid leave status.

(2) Witness fees and mileage allowances shall be paid by the party at whose instance the witnesses appear except when the witness receives compensation in conjunction with official time as described in paragraph (h)(1) of this section.

[61 FR 41296, Aug. 8, 1996]

2474-2499 PARTS 2474-2499 [RESERVED]

Appendix A to 5 CFR Chapter XIV Current Addresses and Geographic Jurisdictions

(a) The Office address, telephone number, and fax number of the Authority are: Suite 300, 1400 K Street NW, Washington, DC 20424-0001; telephone: (771) 444-5801; fax: (202) 482-6657.

(b) The Office address, telephone number, and fax number of the General Counsel are: 1400 K Street NW, 3rd Floor, Washington, DC 20424; telephone: (771) 444-5790; fax: (202) 482-6608.

(c) The Office address, telephone number, and fax number of the Chief Administrative Law Judge are: Suite 300, 1400 K Street NW, Washington, DC 20424; telephone: (771) 444-5715; fax: (202) 482-6629.

(d) The Office addresses, telephone and fax numbers of the Regional Offices of the Authority are as follows:

(1) Washington, DC Regional Office—1400 K Street NW, 3rd Floor, Washington, DC 20424-0001; telephone: (771) 444-5780; fax: (202) 482-6724.

(2) Atlanta Regional Office—229 Peachtree Street NE, Suite 900, Atlanta, Georgia 30303; telephone: (470) 681-7630; fax: (678) 498-2697.

(3) Denver Regional Office—1244 Speer Boulevard, Suite 446, Denver, Colorado 80204-3581; telephone: (303) 225-0340; fax: (303) 844-2774.

(4) San Francisco Regional Office—1301 Clay Street, Suite 1180N, Oakland, California 94612-5242; telephone: (510) 982-5440; fax: (415) 872-1445.

(e) The Office address, telephone number, and fax number of the Federal Service Impasses Panel are: Suite 300, 1400 K Street NW, Washington, DC 20424; telephone: (771) 444-5762; fax: (202) 482-6674.

(f) The geographic jurisdictions of the Regional Directors of the Federal Labor Relations Authority are as follows:

State or other locality | Regional office

Alabama | Atlanta.

Alaska | San Francisco.

Arizona | San Francisco.

Arkansas | Denver.

California | San Francisco.

Colorado | Denver.

Connecticut | Washington, DC.

Delaware | Washington, DC.

District of Columbia | Washington, DC.

Florida | Atlanta.

Georgia | Atlanta.

Hawaii, and all land and water areas west of the continents of North and South America (except coastal islands) to long. 90 degrees East | San Francisco.

Idaho | Denver.

Illinois | Denver.

Indiana | Denver.

Iowa | Denver.

Kansas | Denver.

Kentucky | Atlanta.

Louisiana | Denver.

Maine | Washington, DC.

Maryland | Washington, DC.

Massachusetts | Washington, DC.

Michigan | Washington, DC.

Minnesota | Denver.

Mississippi | Atlanta.

Missouri | Denver.

Montana | Denver.

Nebraska | Denver.

Nevada | San Francisco.

New Hampshire | Washington, DC.

New Jersey | Washington, DC.

New Mexico | San Francisco.

New York | Washington, DC.

North Carolina | Atlanta.

North Dakota | Denver.

Ohio | Washington, DC.

Oklahoma | Denver.

Oregon | San Francisco.

Pennsylvania | Washington, DC.

Puerto Rico and coastal islands | Atlanta.

Rhode Island | Washington, DC.

South Carolina | Atlanta.

South Dakota | Denver.

Tennessee | Atlanta.

Texas | San Francisco.

Utah | Denver.

Vermont | Washington, DC.

Virginia | Washington, DC.

Washington | Denver.

West Virginia | Washington, DC.

Wisconsin | Denver.

Wyoming | Denver.

Virgin Islands | Atlanta.

Panama/limited FLRA jurisdiction | Atlanta.

All land and water areas east of the continents of North and South America to long. 90 degrees East, except the Virgin Islands, Panama/limited FLRA jurisdiction, Puerto Rico and coastal islands | Washington, DC.

[89 FR 11702, Feb. 15, 2024, as amended at 90 FR 42132, Aug. 29, 2025]

Appendix B to 5 CFR Chapter XIV Memorandum Describing the Authority and Assigned Responsibilities of the General Counsel of the Federal Labor Relations Authority

The statutory authority and responsibility of the General Counsel of the Federal Labor Relations Authority are stated in section 7104(f), subsections (1), (2) and (3), of the Federal Service Labor-Management Relations Statute as follows:

(1) The General Counsel of the Authority shall be appointed by the President, by and with the advice and consent of the Senate, for a term of 5 years. The General Counsel may be removed at any time by the President. The General Counsel shall hold no other office or position in the Government of the United States except as provided by law.

(2) The General Counsel may—

(A) investigate alleged unfair labor practices under this chapter,

(B) file and prosecute complaints under this chapter, and

(C) exercise such other powers of the Authority as the Authority may prescribe.

(3) The General Counsel shall have direct authority over, and responsibility for, all employees in the office of the General Counsel, including employees of the General Counsel in the regional offices of the Authority.

This memorandum is intended to describe the statutory authority and set forth the prescribed duties and authority of the General Counsel of the Federal Labor Relations Authority, effective January 28, 1980.

I. Case handling—A. Unfair labor practice cases. The General Counsel has full and final authority and responsibility, on behalf of the Authority, to accept and investigate charges filed, to enter into and approve the informal settlement of charges, to approve withdrawal requests, to dismiss charges, to determine matters concerning the consolidation and severance of cases before the complaint issues, to issue complaints and notices of hearing, to appear before Administrative Law Judges in hearings on complaints and prosecute as provided in the Authority's and the General Counsel's rules and regulations, and to initiate and prosecute injunction proceedings as provided for in section 7123(d) of the Statute. After issuance of the Administrative Law Judge's decision, the General Counsel may file exceptions and briefs and appear before the Authority in oral argument, subject to the Authority's and the General Counsel's rules and regulations.

B. Compliance actions (injunction proceedings). The General Counsel is authorized and responsible, on behalf of the Authority, to seek and effect compliance with the Authority's orders and make such compliance reports to the Authority as it may from time to time require.

On behalf of the Authority, the General Counsel will, in full accordance with the directions of the Authority, initiate and prosecute injunction proceedings as provided in section 7123(d) of the Statute: Provided however, That the General Counsel will initiate and conduct injunction proceedings under section 7123(d) of the Statute only upon approval of the Authority.

C. Representation cases. The statutory authority of the Federal Labor Relations Authority to delegate to Regional Directors its authority to process and determine representation matters is set forth in section 7105(e)(1) and (f) of the Statute as follows:

(e)(1) The Authority may delegate to any regional director its authority under this chapter—

(A) to determine whether a group of employees is an appropriate unit;

(B) to conduct investigations and to provide for hearings;

(C) to determine whether a question of representation exists and to direct an election; and

(D) to supervise or conduct secret ballot elections and certify the results thereof.

(f) If the Authority delegates any authority to any regional director . . . to take any action pursuant to subsection (e) of this section, the Authority may, upon application by any interested person filed within 60 days after the date of the action, review such action, but the review shall not, unless specifically ordered by the Authority, operate as a stay of action. The Authority may affirm, modify, or reverse any action reviewed under this subsection. If the Authority does not undertake to grant review of the action under this subsection within 60 days after the later of—

(1) the date of the action, or

(2) the date of the filing of any application under this subsection for review of the action;

the action shall become the action of the Authority at the end of such 60 day period.

In accordance with section 7105(e)(1) and (f) of the Statute, Regional Directors, who are directed and supervised by the General Counsel as provided by section III of this memorandum, are hereby delegated the authority to determine whether a group of employees is an appropriate unit, to conduct investigations and to provide for hearings, to determine whether a question of representation exists and to direct an election, and to supervise or conduct secret ballot elections and certify the results thereof.

Regional Directors are authorized and have responsibility to receive and process, in accordance with decisions of the Authority and the rules and regulations of the Authority and the General Counsel, all petitions filed pursuant to sections 7111, 7112(d), 7113, 7115, and 7117(d) of the Statute.

The authority and responsibility of Regional Directors in cases filed involving such petitions shall extend to all phases of the investigation of such petitions through the conclusion of the hearing to be conducted by a Regional Office employee (if a hearing should be necessary to resolve disputed issues), including decisional action by the Regional Director after such investigation or hearing.

Regional Directors also are authorized and have responsibility to direct an election after a hearing pursuant to sections 7111 and 7112(d) of the Statute and to approve consent election agreements in accordance with section 7111(g) of the Statute.

In the event a Regional Director directs an election or approves a consent election agreement, the Regional Director is authorized to supervise or conduct the election pursuant to sections 7111 and 7112(d) of the Statute. In such instances, Regional Directors are authorized and have responsibility to determine the validity of determinative challenges and objections to the conduct of the election and other similar matters. This authority and responsibility extends to all phases of the investigation such determinative challenges and objections through the conclusion of a hearing to be conducted by a Regional Office employee (if a hearing should be necessary to resolve disputed issues), including decisional action by the Regional Director after such investigation or hearing.

Decisions and Orders of Regional Directors made pursuant to this delegation of authority become the action of the Authority:

(1) If no interested person files an application for review of the Regional Director's Decision and Order with the Authority within sixty (60) days after the Regional Director's Decision and Order; or

(2) If the Authority does not undertake to grant review of the Regional Director's Decision and Order within sixty (60) days after the filing of a timely application for review;

If no interested person files an application for review of the Regional Director's Decision and Order with the Authority within (60) days after the Regional Director's Decision and Order, or if the Authority does not undertake to grant review of the action of the regional Director's Decision and Order within sixty (60) days after the filing of a timely application for review, the Regional Director's Decision and Order will become final and binding, and the Regional Director will certify to the parties the results of any election held or issue any clarification of unit, amendment of recognition or certification, determination of eligibility for dues allotment, or certification on consolidation of units as required.

The Authority will undertake to grant review of a Decision and Order of a Regional Director upon the timely filing of an application for review only where compelling reasons exist therefor as set forth in the rules and regulations.

The Authority's granting of review upon the timely filing of an application for review of a Regional Director's Decision and Order will not operate as a stay of such action ordered by the Regional Director, unless specifically ordered by the Authority. If the Authority grants review, the Authority may affirm, modify or reverse action reviewed.

II. Liaison with other governmental agencies. The General Counsel is authorized and has responsibility, on behalf of the Authority, to maintain appropriate and adequate liaison and arrangements with the Office of the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Labor-Management Relations with reference to the financial and other reports required to be filed with the Assistant Secretary pursuant to section 7120(c) of the Statute and the availability to the Authority and the General Counsel of the contents thereof. The General Counsel is authorized and has responsibility, on behalf of the Authority, to maintain appropriate and adequate liaison with the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service with respect to functions which may be performed by the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service.

III. Personnel. Under 5 U.S.C. 7105(d), the Authority is authorized to appoint Regional Directors. In order better to ensure the effective exercise of the duties and responsibilities of the General Counsel, the General Counsel is delegated authority to recommend the appointment, transfer, demotion, or discharge of any Regional Director. However, such actions may be taken only with the approval of the Authority. In the event of a vacant Regional Director position, the General Counsel may, without the approval of the Authority, detail personnel as acting Regional Director for a total period of up to 120 days commencing on the day the position becomes vacant. If the position remains vacant for more than 120 days, a detail must be approved by the Authority. Other details of personnel to act as Regional Director during periods when there is an incumbent in the position shall be accomplished by the General Counsel without the approval of the Authority. The General Counsel shall have authority to direct and supervise the Regional Directors. Under 5 U.S.C. 7104(f)(3), the General Counsel shall have direct authority over, and responsibility for all employees in the Office of the General Counsel and all personnel of the General Counsel in the Regional Offices of the Authority. This includes full and final authority subject to applicable laws and rules, regulations, and procedures of the Office of Personnel Management and the Authority over the selection, retention, transfer, promotion, demotion, discipline, discharge, and in all other respects of such personnel except the detail in the event of a vacancy for a period in excess of 120 days, appointment, transfer, demotion, or discharge of any Regional Director. Further, the establishment, transfer, or elimination of any Regional Office or non-Regional Office duty location may be accomplished only with the approval of the Authority. The Authority will provide such administrative support functions, including personnel management, financial management, and procurement functions, through the Office of the Executive Director of the Authority as are required by the General Counsel to carry out the General Counsel's statutory and prescribed functions.

IV. To the extent that the above-described duties, powers and authority rest by statute with the Authority, the foregoing statement constitutes a prescription and assignment of such duties, powers and authority, whether or not so specified.

(3 U.S.C. 431; 5 U.S.C. 7105(d), 7134. Section I.C. also issued under 5 U.S.C. 7105(e)(1), (f).)

[45 FR 3523, Jan. 17, 1980, as amended at 48 FR 28814, June 23, 1983; 61 FR 16043, Apr. 11, 1996; 91 FR 13951, Mar. 24, 2026; 91 FR 65452, Oct. 15, 2026]

CHAPTER XVI OFFICE OF GOVERNMENT ETHICS

SUBCHAPTER A ORGANIZATION AND PROCEDURES

PART 2600 ORGANIZATION AND FUNCTIONS OF THE OFFICE OF GOVERNMENT ETHICS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. App. (Ethics in Government Act of 1978); E.O. 12674, 54 FR 15159, 3 CFR, 1989 Comp., p. 215, as modified by E.O. 12731, 55 FR 42547, 3 CFR, 1990 Comp., p. 306.

Source: 68 FR 41682, July 15, 2003, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2600.101 Mission and history.

(a) The U.S. Office of Government Ethics (OGE) was established by the Ethics in Government Act of 1978, Public Law 95-521, 92 Stat. 1824 (1978). OGE exercises leadership in the executive branch of the Federal Government to prevent conflicts of interest on the part of executive branch employees and resolve those conflicts of interest that do occur. In partnership with executive branch departments and agencies, OGE fosters high ethical standards for executive branch employees which, in turn, strengthens the public's confidence that the Government's business is conducted with impartiality and integrity.

(b) Originally an entity within the Office of Personnel Management, OGE became a separate executive branch agency on October 1, 1989, pursuant to section 3 of the Office of Government Ethics Reauthorization Act of 1988, Public Law 100-598, 102 Stat. 3031 (1988). OGE is the supervising ethics office for all executive branch officers and employees pursuant to the Ethics Reform Act of 1989, Public Law 101-194, 103 Stat. 1716 (1989), as amended by Public Law 101-280, 104 Stat. 149 (1990). Additionally, OGE has various responsibilities under Executive Order 12674 of April 12, 1989, “Principles of Ethical Conduct for Government Officers and Employees” (3 CFR, 1989 Comp., pp. 215-218), as modified by Executive Order 12731 of October 17, 1990 (3 CFR, 1990 Comp., pp. 306-311).

[68 FR 41682, July 15, 2003, as amended at 80 FR 57072, Sept. 22, 2015]

§ 2600.102 Contact information.

(a) Address. OGE is located at 1201 New York Avenue NW., Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005-3917. OGE does not have any regional offices. OGE's general email address is contactoge@oge.gov.

(b) Web site. Information about OGE and its role in the executive branch ethics program as well as copies of publications that have been developed for training, educational and reference purposes are available electronically on OGE's Web site (www.oge.gov). OGE has posted on its Web site various Executive Orders, statutes, and regulations that together form the basis for the executive branch ethics program. The site also contains ethics advisory opinions and letters published by OGE, as well as other pertinent information.

(c) Telephone numbers. OGE's main telephone number is 202-482-9300. Persons who are deaf or speech impaired may contact OGE at the following TDD (Telecommunications Device for the Deaf and Speech Impaired) number: 202-482-9293. The main OGE FAX number is 202-482-9237.

[68 FR 41682, July 15, 2003, as amended at 80 FR 57072, Sept. 22, 2015]

§ 2600.103 Office of Government Ethics organization and functions.

OGE's Director is appointed by the President and confirmed by the Senate for a five-year term. Additional information regarding OGE's organization and functions is available on its Web site at www.oge.gov.

[80 FR 57072, Sept. 22, 2015]

PART 2601 IMPLEMENTATION OF OFFICE OF GOVERNMENT ETHICS STATUTORY GIFT ACCEPTANCE AUTHORITY

Authority: 5 U.S.C. App. (Ethics in Government Act of 1978).

Source: 68 FR 60594, Oct. 22, 2003, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General Provisions
§ 2601.101 Authority.

Section 2 of the Office of Government Ethics Authorization Act of 1996, amending the Ethics in Government Act of 1978, as codified at 5 U.S.C. app. 403(b), authorizes the Office of Government Ethics (OGE) to accept and utilize gifts for the purpose of aiding or facilitating the work of OGE.

§ 2601.102 Purpose.

The purpose of this part is to establish guidelines governing the implementation of OGE's gift authority by defining its scope and application, by prescribing the policies, standards and procedures that govern the solicitation, acceptance and use of gifts, and by setting forth accounting requirements related to the use of this authority.

§ 2601.103 Policy.

(a) Scope. OGE may use its statutory authority to solicit, accept and utilize gifts to the agency that aid or facilitate the agency's work. The authority to solicit, accept and utilize gifts includes the authority to receive, administer, spend, invest and dispose of gifts. Gifts to the agency from individuals or organizations can be a useful adjunct to appropriated funds and may enhance the agency's ability to fulfill its mission, as well as further mutually beneficial public/private partnerships, or other useful arrangements or relationships. Such uses of this authority are appropriate provided that solicitation or acceptance of a gift does not compromise the integrity of OGE, its programs or employees.

(b) Use of gifts. Gifts to OGE may be used to carry out any activity that furthers the mission, programs, responsibilities, functions or activities of the agency. Gifts may be used to carry out program functions whether or not appropriated funds are available for that purpose, provided that such expenditures are not barred by law or regulation. Gifts may also be used for official travel by employees to events or activities required to carry out the agency's statutory or regulatory functions. Gifts to the agency may also be used for the travel expenses of spouses accompanying employees on official travel, if such travel could be paid for by appropriated funds.

(c) Sources. Generally, gifts may be solicited or accepted from any source, including a prohibited source, provided that the standards of this part are met. Gifts generally should be made directly to the agency and not through intermediaries. However, where a gift is offered by an intermediary, both the intermediary and the ultimate source of the gift should be analyzed to determine whether acceptance would be appropriate.

(d) Endorsement. Acceptance of a gift pursuant to this part will not in any way be deemed to be an endorsement of the donor, or the donor's products, services, activities, or policies. Letters to a donor expressing appreciation of a gift are permitted.

(e) Type of gift. The agency may solicit or accept any gift that is within its statutory authority. However, as a matter of policy, OGE will not solicit or accept gifts of currency pursuant to this part. Donors who offer currency should be advised that the gift may be made by check or money order payable to the U.S. Office of Government Ethics.

[68 FR 60594, Oct. 22, 2003, as amended at 80 FR 57072, Sept. 22, 2015]

§ 2601.104 Relationship to other authorities.

(a) This part does not apply to gifts to the agency of:

(1) Travel and travel-related expenses made pursuant to the authority set forth in 31 U.S.C. 1353; or

(2) Volunteer services made pursuant to the authority set forth in 5 U.S.C. 3111.

(b) This part does not apply to gifts to an individual agency employee, including:

(1) Gifts of contributions, awards or other expenses for training made pursuant to the authority set forth in the Government Employees Training Act, 5 U.S.C. 4111;

(2) Gifts made by a foreign government or organization, or representative thereof, pursuant to the authority set forth in 5 U.S.C. 7342;

(3) Gifts made by a political organization that may be accepted by an agency employee who, in accordance with the terms of the Hatch Act Reform Amendments of 1993, at 5 U.S.C. 7323, may take an active part in political management or in political campaigns; or

(4) Gifts made directly or indirectly that an employee may accept in a personal capacity pursuant to the authority set forth in 5 CFR part 2635, subpart B or subpart C.

§ 2601.105 Definitions.

As used in this part:

Agency means the U.S. Office of Government Ethics (OGE).

Authorized agency official means the Director of OGE or the Director's delegee.

Director means the Director of OGE.

Employee means an employee of OGE.

Gift means any gift, donation, bequest or devise of money, use of facilities, personal property, or services and may include travel reimbursements or payments for attendance at or participation in meetings or events.

Money means currency, checks, money orders or other forms of negotiable instruments.

Personal property means all property, tangible or intangible, not defined as real property, and includes stocks and bonds.

Prohibited source means any source described in 5 CFR 2635.203(d).

Services means all forms of voluntary and uncompensated personal services.

Use of facilities means use of space, equipment and all other facilities.

[68 FR 60594, Oct. 22, 2003, as amended at 80 FR 57072, Sept. 22, 2015]

Subpart B Guidelines for Solicitation and Acceptance of Gifts
§ 2601.201 Delegation.

(a) The authority to solicit, accept, and utilize gifts in accordance with this part resides with the Director.

(b) The Director may delegate this authority.

(c) Authorities delegated in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section may be redelegated only through a written delegation authorizing an agency employee to solicit or accept specific types of gifts, or a gift for a specific purpose, function, or event.

§ 2601.202 Procedure.

(a) The authorized agency official will have the authority to solicit, accept, refuse, return, or negotiate the terms of acceptance of a gift.

(b) An employee, other than an authorized agency official, will immediately forward all offers of gifts covered by this part regardless of value to an authorized agency official for consideration and will provide a description of the gift offered. An employee will also inform an authorized agency official of all discussions of the possibility of a gift. An employee will not provide a donor with any commitment, privilege, concession or other present or future benefit (other than an appropriate acknowledgment) in return for a gift.

(c) Only an authorized agency official may solicit, accept or decline a gift after making the determination required under the conflict of interest standard in § 2601.203. An authorized agency official may find that, while acceptance of an offered gift is permissible, it is in the interest of the agency to qualify acceptance by, for example, limiting the gift in some way. Approval of acceptance of a gift in-kind after receipt of the gift may be granted as deemed appropriate by the authorized agency official.

(d) Gifts may be acknowledged in writing in the form of a letter of acceptance to the donor. The amount of a monetary gift will be specified. In the case of nonmonetary gifts, the letter will not make reference to the value of the gift. Valuation of nonmonetary gifts is the responsibility of the donor. Letters of acceptance will not include any statement regarding the tax implications of a gift, which remain the responsibility of the donor. No statement of endorsement should appear in a letter of acceptance to the donor.

(e) A gift may be declined by an authorized official orally or in writing. A donor may be advised of the reason why the gift has been declined. A gift may be declined solely as a matter of agency discretion, even though acceptance would not be precluded under the conflict of interest standard in § 2601.203.

(f) A gift of money or the proceeds of a gift will be deposited in an appropriately documented agency fund. A check or money order should be made payable to the “U.S. Office of Government Ethics.”

[68 FR 60594, Oct. 22, 2003, as amended at 80 FR 57073, Sept. 22, 2015]

§ 2601.203 Conflict of interest analysis.

(a) A gift will not be solicited or accepted if the authorized agency official determines that such solicitation or acceptance of the gift would reflect unfavorably upon the ability of the agency, or any employee of the agency, to carry out OGE responsibilities or official duties in a fair and objective manner, or would compromise the integrity or the appearance of the integrity of its programs or any official involved in those programs.

(b) In making the determination required under paragraph (a) of this section, an authorized agency official may be guided by all relevant considerations, including, but not limited to the following:

(1) The identity of the donor;

(2) The monetary or estimated market value or the cost to the donor;

(3) The purpose of the gift as described in any written statement or oral proposal by the donor;

(4) The identity of any other expected recipients of the gift on the same occasion, if any;

(5) The timing of the gift;

(6) The nature and sensitivity of any matter pending at the agency affecting the interests of the donor;

(7) The significance of an individual employee's role in any matter affecting the donor, if benefits of the gift will accrue to the employee;

(8) The nature of the gift offered;

(9) The frequency of other gifts received from the same donor; and

(10) The agency activity, purpose or need that the gift will aid or facilitate.

(c) An authorized agency official may ask the donor to provide in writing any additional information needed to assist in making the determination under this section. Such information may include a description of the donor's business or organizational affiliation and any matters that are pending or are expected to be pending before the agency.

[68 FR 60594, Oct. 22, 2003, as amended at 80 FR 57073, Sept. 22, 2015]

§ 2601.204 Conditions for acceptance.

(a) No gift may be accepted that:

(1) Attaches conditions inconsistent with applicable laws or regulations;

(2) Is conditioned upon or will require the expenditure of appropriated funds that are not available to the agency;

(3) Requires the agency to provide the donor with some privilege, concession or other present or future benefit in return for the gift;

(4) Requires the agency to adhere to particular requirements as to deposit, investment, or management of funds donated;

(5) Requires the agency to undertake or engage in activities that are not related to the agency's mission, programs or statutory authorities; or

(6) Would reflect unfavorably upon the ability of the agency, or any of its employees, to carry out its responsibilities or official duties in a fair and objective manner, or would compromise or appear to compromise the integrity or the appearance of the integrity of its programs or any official involved in those programs.

(b) [Reserved]

Note to § 2601.204:

Nothing in this part will prohibit the agency from offering or providing the donor an appropriate acknowledgment of its gift in a publication, speech or other medium.

[68 FR 60594, Oct. 22, 2003, as amended at 80 FR 57073, Sept. 22, 2015]

Subpart C Accounting Requirements
§ 2601.301 Accounting of gifts.

(a) OGE's Designated Agency Ethics Official (DAEO) will ensure that gifts are properly accounted for by following appropriate internal controls and accounting procedures.

(b) The DAEO will maintain an inventory of donated personal property valued at over $500. The inventory will be updated each time an item is sold, excessed, destroyed or otherwise disposed of or discarded.

(c) The DAEO will maintain a log of all gifts valued at over $500 accepted pursuant to this part. The log will include, to the extent known:

(1) The name and address of the donor;

(2) A description of the gift; and

(3) The date the gift is accepted.

[68 FR 60594, Oct. 22, 2003, as amended at 80 FR 57073, Sept. 22, 2015]

PART 2602 EMPLOYEE RESPONSIBILITIES AND CONDUCT, ADDENDUM [RESERVED]

PART 2604 FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT RULES AND SCHEDULE OF FEES FOR THE PRODUCTION OF PUBLIC FINANCIAL DISCLOSURE REPORTS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 552; 5 U.S.C. App. 101-505; E.O. 12600, 52 FR 23781, 3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 235; E.O. 13392, 70 FR 75373, 3 CFR, 2005 Comp., p. 216.

Source: 80 FR 57073, Sept. 22, 2015, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General Provisions
§ 2604.101 Purpose.

This part contains the regulations of the U.S. Office of Government Ethics (OGE) implementing the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), as amended. It describes how any person may obtain records from OGE under the FOIA. It also implements section 105(b)(1) of the Ethics in Government Act of 1978 (Ethics Act), as amended, which authorizes an agency to charge reasonable fees to cover the cost of reproduction and mailing of public financial disclosure reports requested by any person.

§ 2604.102 Applicability.

(a) General. The FOIA and this rule apply to all OGE records. However, if another law sets forth procedures for the disclosure of specific types of records, such as section 105 of the Ethics in Government Act of 1978, 5 U.S.C. appendix, OGE will process a request for those records in accordance with the procedures that apply to those specific records. See 5 CFR 2634.603 and subpart G of this part. If there is any record which is not required to be released under those provisions, OGE will consider the request under the FOIA and this rule, provided that the special Ethics Act access procedures cited must be complied with as to any record within the scope thereof.

(b) The relationship between the FOIA and the Privacy Act of 1974. The Freedom of Information Act applies to third-party requests for documents concerning the general activities of the government and of OGE in particular. The Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, applies to records that are about individuals, but only if the records are in a system of records as defined in the Privacy Act. When an individual requests access to his or her own records that are contained in an OGE system of records, the individual is making a Privacy Act request, not a FOIA request. Although OGE determines whether a request is a FOIA or Privacy Act request, OGE processes requests in accordance with both laws and will not deny access by a first party to a record under the FOIA or the Privacy Act if the record is available to that individual under both statutes. This provides the greatest degree of lawful access while safeguarding individuals' personal privacy.

(c) Records available through routine distribution procedures. When the record requested includes material published and offered for sale (e.g., by the Government Publishing Office) or which is available to the public through an established distribution system (such as that of the National Technical Information Service of the Department of Commerce), OGE will explain how the record may be obtained through those channels. If the requester, after having been advised of such alternative access, asks for regular FOIA processing instead, OGE will provide the record in accordance with its usual FOIA procedures under this part.

§ 2604.103 Definitions.

As used in this part:

Agency has the meaning given in 5 U.S.C. 551(1) and 5 U.S.C. 552(f).

Business information means trade secrets or other commercial or financial information, provided to OGE by a submitter, which arguably is protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the Freedom of Information Act.

Business submitter means any person who provides business information, directly or indirectly, to OGE and who has a proprietary interest in the information.

Chief FOIA Officer means the OGE official designated in 5 U.S.C. 552(j)(1) to provide oversight of all of OGE's FOIA program operations.

Commercial use means, when referring to a request, that the request is from, or on behalf of one who seeks information for a use or purpose that furthers the commercial, trade, or profit interests of the requester or of a person on whose behalf the request is made. Whether a request is for a commercial use depends on the purpose of the request and the use to which the records will be put. When a request is from a representative of the news media, a purpose or use supporting the requester's news dissemination function is not a commercial use.

Direct costs means those expenditures actually incurred in searching for and duplicating (and, in the case of commercial use requesters, reviewing) records to respond to a FOIA request. Direct costs include the salary of the employee performing the work and the cost of operating duplicating machinery. Not included in direct costs are overhead expenses such as costs of space and heating or lighting of the facility in which the records are stored.

Duplication means the process of making a copy of a record. Such copies include photocopies, flash drives, and optical discs.

Educational institution means a preschool, elementary or secondary school, institution of undergraduate or graduate higher education, or institute of professional or vocational education, which operates a program of scholarly research.

Fee waiver means waiving or reducing processing fees if a requester can demonstrate that certain statutory standards are satisfied, including that the information is in the public interest and is not requested for a commercial interest.

FOIA Officer means the OGE employee designated to handle various initial FOIA matters, including requests and related matters such as fees.

FOIA Public Liaison means the OGE official designated in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii) and 552(l) to review upon request any concerns of FOIA requesters about the service received from OGE's FOIA Requester Service Center and to address any other FOIA-related inquiries.

FOIA Requester Service Center means the OGE unit designated under E.O. 13392 and referenced in 5 U.S.C. 552(l) to answer any questions requesters have about the status of OGE's processing of their FOIA requests.

Freedom of Information Act or FOIA means 5 U.S.C. 552.

Noncommercial scientific institution means an institution that is not operated solely for purposes of furthering its own or someone else's business, trade, or profit interests, and that is operated for purposes of conducting scientific research the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry.

Office or OGE means the United States Office of Government Ethics.

Person has the meaning given in 5 U.S.C. 551(2), including “an individual, partnership, corporation, association, or public or private organization other than an agency.”

Records means any handwritten, typed, or printed documents (such as memoranda, books, brochures, studies, writings, drafts, letters, transcripts, and minutes) and documentary material in other forms (such as electronic documents, electronic mail, magnetic tapes, cards or discs, paper tapes, audio or video recordings, maps, photographs, slides, microfilm and motion pictures) that are either created or obtained by OGE and are under its control. It does not include objects or articles such as exhibits, models, equipment, and duplication machines or audiovisual processing materials.

Representative of the news media means a person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. In this clause, the term “news” means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news media entities include television or radio stations broadcasting to the public at large and publishers of periodicals (but only if such entities qualify as disseminators of “news”) who distribute their products to the general public or who make their products available for purchase or subscription by the general public, and entities that may disseminate news through other media, such as electronic dissemination of text. Freelance journalists will be considered as representatives of a news media entity if they can show a solid basis for expecting publication through such an entity. A publication contract is such a basis, and the requester's past publication record may show such a basis.

Request means any request for records made pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(3).

Requester means any person who makes a request for records to OGE.

Requester category means one of three classifications that OGE assigns to requesters to determine whether OGE will charge fees for search, review and duplication. These categories are: Commercial requesters; noncommercial scientific or educational institutions or representatives of the news media; and all other requesters.

Review means the process of initially, or upon appeal (see § 2604.501(b)(3)), examining documents located in a response to a request to determine whether any portion of any document is permitted to be withheld. It also includes processing documents for disclosure, such as redacting portions which may be withheld. Review does not include time spent resolving general legal and policy issues regarding the application of exemptions.

Search means the time spent looking for material manually or by automated means that is responsive to a request, including page-by-page or line-by-line identification of material within documents.

Working days means calendar days, excepting Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays.

[80 FR 57073, Sept. 22, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 94216, Dec. 23, 2016]

§ 2604.104 Preservation of records.

OGE will preserve all correspondence pertaining to the requests that it receives under this part, as well as copies of all responsive records, until disposition or destruction is authorized by title 44 of the United States Code or the National Archives and Records Administration's General Records Schedule. Records will not be disposed of while they are the subject of a pending request, appeal, or lawsuit.

§ 2604.105 Other rights and services.

Nothing in this part will be construed to entitle any person, as of right, to any service or to the disclosure of any record to which such person is not entitled under the FOIA.

Subpart B FOIA Public Reading Room Facility and Web Site; Index Identifying Information for the Public
§ 2604.201 Public reading room facility and Web site.

(a)(1) Location of public reading room facility. OGE maintains a public reading room facility at its offices located at 1201 New York Avenue NW., Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005-3917. Persons desiring to utilize the reading room facility should contact OGE, in writing or by telephone: 202-482-9300, TDD: 202-482-9293, or FAX: 202-482-9237, to arrange a time to inspect the materials available there.

(2) Web site. The records listed in paragraph (b) of this section that were created on or after November 1, 1996, or which OGE is otherwise able to make electronically available, along with the OGE FOIA and Public Records Guide and OGE's annual FOIA reports, are also available via OGE's Web site (www.oge.gov). OGE will proactively identify additional records of interest to the public and will post such records on its Web site when practicable.

(b) Records available. The OGE Web site contains OGE records which are required by 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2) to be made available for public inspection in an electronic format, including:

(1) Any final opinions, as well as orders, made in the adjudication of cases;

(2) Any statements of policy and interpretation which have been adopted by OGE and are not published in the Federal Register;

(3) Any administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff that affect a member of the public, and which are not exempt from disclosure under section (b) of the FOIA;

(4) Copies of records created by OGE that have been released to any person under subpart C of this part and that, because of the nature of their subject matter, OGE determines have become or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records or that have been requested three or more times; and

(5) A general index of the records referred to under § 2604.201(b)(4).

(c) OGE may delete from the copies of materials made available under this section any identifying details necessary to prevent a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy. Any such deletions will be explained in writing and the extent of such deletions will be indicated on the portion of the records that are made available or published, unless the indication would harm an interest protected by the FOIA exemption pursuant to which the deletions are made. If technically feasible, the extent of any such deletions will be indicated at the place in the records where they are made.

[80 FR 57073, Sept. 22, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 94216, Dec. 23, 2016]

§ 2604.202 Index identifying information for the public.

(a) OGE will maintain and make available for public inspection in an electronic format a current index of the materials available on its Web site that are required to be indexed under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2).

(b) The Director of the Office of Government Ethics has determined that it is unnecessary and impracticable to publish quarterly or more frequently and distribute (by sale or otherwise) copies of each index and supplements thereto, as provided in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2). The Office will provide copies of such indexes upon request, at a cost not to exceed the direct cost of duplication and mailing, if sending records by other than ordinary mail.

[80 FR 57073, Sept. 22, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 94216, Dec. 23, 2016]

Subpart C Production and Disclosure of Records Under FOIA
§ 2604.301 Requests for records.

(a) Addressing requests. Requests for copies of records may be made by mail or email. Requests sent by mail should be addressed to the FOIA Officer, U.S. Office of Government Ethics, 1201 New York Avenue NW., Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005-3917. The envelope containing the request and the letter itself should both clearly indicate that the subject is a Freedom of Information Act request. Email requests should be sent to usoge@oge.gov and should indicate in the subject line that the message contains a Freedom of Information Act request.

(b) Description of records. Each request must reasonably describe the desired records in sufficient detail to enable OGE personnel to locate the records with a reasonable amount of effort. A request for a specific category of records will be regarded as fulfilling this requirement if it enables responsive records to be identified by a technique or process that is not unreasonably burdensome or disruptive of OGE operations.

(1) Wherever possible, a request should include specific information about each record sought, such as the date, title or name, author, recipient, and subject matter of the record.

(2) If the FOIA Officer determines that a request does not reasonably describe the records sought, the FOIA Officer will either advise the requester what additional information is needed to locate the record, or otherwise state why the request is insufficient. The FOIA Officer will also extend to the requester an opportunity to confer with OGE personnel with the objective of reformulating the request in a manner which will meet the requirements of this section.

(c) Agreement to pay fees. The filing of a request under this subpart will be deemed to constitute an agreement by the requester to pay all applicable fees charged under subpart E of this part, up to $25.00, unless a waiver of fees is sought. The request may also specify a limit on the amount the requester is willing to spend, or may indicate a willingness to pay an amount greater than $25.00, if applicable. In cases where a requester has been notified that actual or estimated fees may amount to more than $25.00, the request will be deemed not to have been received until the requester has agreed to pay the anticipated total fee. If, in the course of negotiating fees, the requester does not respond to correspondence from OGE, OGE will administratively close the FOIA request after 30 calendar days have passed from the date of its last correspondence to the requester.

(d) Requests for records relating to corrective actions. No record developed pursuant to the authority of 5 U.S.C. app. 402(f)(2) concerning the investigation of an employee for a possible violation of any provision relating to a conflict of interest will be made available pursuant to this part unless the request for such information identifies the employee to whom the records relate and the subject matter of any alleged violation to which the records relate. Nothing in this subsection will affect the application of subpart D of this part to any record so identified.

(e) Seeking expedited processing. (1) A requester may seek expedited processing of a FOIA request if a compelling need for the requested records can be shown.

(2) “Compelling need” means:

(i) Circumstances in which failure to obtain copies of the requested records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or

(ii) An urgency to inform the public about an actual or alleged Federal Government activity, if the request is made by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information.

(3) A requester seeking expedited processing should so indicate in the initial request, and should state all the facts supporting the need to obtain the requested records quickly. The requester must also certify in writing that these facts are true and correct to the best of the requester's knowledge and belief.

§ 2604.302 Response to requests.

(a) Acknowledgement of requests. If the FOIA Officer determines that a request will take longer than 10 working days to process, OGE will send a written acknowledgment that includes the request's individualized tracking number.

(b) Response to initial request. The FOIA Officer is authorized to grant or deny any request for a record and to determine appropriate fees.

(c) Referral to, or consultation with, another agency. When a requester seeks access to records that originated in another Government agency subject to the FOIA, OGE will normally refer the request to the other agency for response; alternatively, OGE may consult with the other agency in the course of deciding itself whether to grant or deny a request for access to such records. If OGE refers the request to another agency, it will notify the requester of the referral and provide a point of contact within the receiving agency. If release of certain records may adversely affect United States relations with foreign governments, OGE will usually consult with the Department of State. A request for any records classified by some other agency will be referred to that agency for response.

(d) Honoring form or format requests. In making any record available to a requester, OGE will provide the record in the form or format requested, if the record already exists or is readily reproducible by OGE in that form or format. If a form or format request cannot be honored, OGE will so inform the requester and provide a copy of a nonexempt record in its existing form or format or another convenient form or format which is readily reproducible. OGE will not, however, generally develop a completely new record (as opposed to providing a copy of an existing record in a readily reproducible new form or format, as requested) of information in order to satisfy a request.

(e) Record cannot be located. If a requested record cannot be located from the information supplied, the FOIA Officer will so notify the requester in writing.

§ 2604.303 Form and content of responses.

(a) Form of notice granting a request. After the FOIA Officer has made a determination to grant a request in whole or in part, the requester will be notified in writing. The notice will describe the manner in which the record will be disclosed, whether by providing a copy of the record with the response or at a later date, or by making a copy of the record available to the requester for inspection at a reasonable time and place. The procedure for such an inspection may not unreasonably disrupt OGE operations. The response letter will inform the requester of the right of the requester to seek assistance from the FOIA Public Liaison. The response letter will also inform the requester in the response of any fees to be charged in accordance with the provisions of subpart E of this part.

(b) Form of notice denying a request. When the FOIA Officer denies a request in whole or in part, the FOIA Officer will so notify the requester in writing. The response will be signed by the FOIA Officer and will include:

(1) The name and title or position of the person making the denial;

(2) A brief statement of the reason or reasons for the denial, including the FOIA exemption or exemptions which the FOIA Officer has relied upon in denying the request;

(3) When only a portion of a document is being withheld, the amount of information deleted and the FOIA exemption(s) justifying the deletion will generally be indicated on the copy of the released portion of the document. If technically feasible, such indications will appear at the place in the copy of the document where any deletion is made. If a document is withheld in its entirety, an estimate of the volume of the withheld material will generally be given. However, neither an indication of the amount of information deleted nor an estimation of the volume of material withheld will be included in a response if doing so would harm an interest protected by any of the FOIA exemptions pursuant to which the deletion or withholding is made; and

(4) A statement that the denial may be appealed under § 2604.304, and a description of the requirements of that section; and

(5) A statement of the right of the requester to seek dispute resolution services from the FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS).

[80 FR 57073, Sept. 22, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 94216, Dec. 23, 2016]

§ 2604.304 Appeal of denials.

(a) Right of appeal. If a request has been denied in whole or in part, the requester may appeal the denial by mail or email to the Program Counsel of the U.S. Office of Government Ethics. Requests sent by mail should be addressed to 1201 New York Avenue NW., Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005-3917. The envelope containing the request and the letter itself should both clearly indicate that the subject is a Freedom of Information Act appeal. Email requests should be sent to usoge@oge.gov and should indicate in the subject line that the message contains a Freedom of Information Act appeal.

(b) Letter of appeal. The appeal must be in writing and must be sent within 90 calendar days of receipt of the denial letter. An appeal should include a copy of the initial request, a copy of the letter denying the request in whole or in part, and a statement of the circumstances, reasons or arguments advanced in support of disclosure of the record.

(c) Action on appeal. The disposition of an appeal will be in writing and will constitute the final action of OGE on a request. A decision affirming in whole or in part the denial of a request will include a brief statement of the reason or reasons for affirmance, including each FOIA exemption relied on. If the denial of a request is reversed in whole or in part on appeal, the request will be processed promptly in accordance with the decision on appeal.

(d) Judicial review. If the denial of the request for records is upheld in whole or in part, OGE will notify the person making the request of the right to seek judicial review under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4).

(e) Dispute Resolution Services. If the denial of the request for records is upheld in whole or in part, OGE will notify the requester about the dispute resolution services offered by the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS) and provide contact information for that office.

[80 FR 57073, Sept. 22, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 94216, Dec. 23, 2016]

§ 2604.305 Time limits.

(a)(1) Initial request. Following receipt of a request for records, the FOIA Officer will determine whether to comply with the request and will notify the requester in writing of the determination within 20 working days.

(2) Tolling. OGE may toll the 20-working day period once while awaiting a response to information reasonably requested from the requester. OGE may also toll the 20-working day period while awaiting a response to a request for clarification regarding fees. There is no limit on the number of times OGE may toll the statutory time period to request clarification regarding fees. In either case, the tolling period ends upon receipt of the requester's response to the request for information or clarification. If OGE does not receive a response to a request for clarification regarding fees within 30 calendar days, it will consider the request “closed.”

(3) Request for expedited processing. When a request for expedited processing under § 2604.301(e) is received, the FOIA Officer will respond within 10 calendar days from the date of receipt of the request, stating whether or not the request for expedited processing has been granted. If the request for expedited processing is denied, any appeal of that decision will be acted upon expeditiously.

(b) Appeal. A written determination on an appeal submitted in accordance with § 2604.304 will be issued within 20 working days after receipt of the appeal.

(c) Extension of time limits. When additional time is required for one of the reasons stated in paragraph (d) of this section, OGE will, within the statutory 20-working day period, issue written notice to the requester setting forth the reasons for the extension and the date on which a determination is expected to be made. If more than 10 additional working days are needed, the requester will be notified and provided an opportunity to limit the scope of the request or to arrange for an alternative time frame for processing the request or a modified request. To aid the requester, OGE will make available its FOIA Public Liaison to assist in the resolution of any disputes. Additionally, OGE will notify the requester of the right of the requester to seek dispute resolution services from OGIS.

(d) For the purposes of paragraph (c) of this section, unusual circumstances means that there is a need to:

(1) Search for and collect records from archives;

(2) Search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records which are demanded in a single request; or

(3) Consult with another agency having a substantial interest in the determination of the request, or consult with various OGE components that have substantial subject matter interest in the records requested.

[80 FR 57073, Sept. 22, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 94216, Dec. 23, 2016]

Subpart D Exemptions Under FOIA
§ 2604.401 Policy.

(a) Foreseeable harm standard. A requested record will not be withheld from inspection or copying unless it comes within one of the classes of records exempted by 5 U.S.C. 552 and OGE reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by an exemption described in 5 U.S.C. 552(b) or is prohibited by law. Nothing in this paragraph requires disclosure of information that is otherwise prohibited from disclosure by law, or otherwise exempted from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3).

(b) Pledge of confidentiality. Information obtained from any individual or organization, furnished in reliance on a provision for confidentiality authorized by applicable statute, Executive Order or regulation, will not be disclosed to the extent it can be withheld under one of the exemptions. However, this paragraph (b) does not itself authorize the giving of any pledge of confidentiality by any officer or employee of OGE.

(c) Exception for law enforcement information. OGE may treat records compiled for law enforcement purposes as not subject to the requirements of the Freedom of Information Act when:

(1) The investigation or proceeding involves a possible violation of criminal law;

(2) There is reason to believe that the subject of the investigation or proceeding is unaware of its pendency; and

(3) The disclosure of the existence of the records could reasonably be expected to interfere with the enforcement proceedings.

(d) Partial application of exemptions. Any reasonably segregable portion of a record will be provided to any person requesting the record after deletion of the portions which are exempt under this subpart.

[80 FR 57073, Sept. 22, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 94216, Dec. 23, 2016]

§ 2604.402 Business information.

(a) In general. Business information provided to OGE by a submitter will not be disclosed pursuant to a Freedom of Information Act request except in accordance with this section.

(b) Designation of business information. Submitters of business information should use good-faith efforts to designate, by appropriate markings, either at the time of submission or at a reasonable time thereafter, those portions of their submissions which they deem to be protected under Exemption 4 of the FOIA (5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4)). Any such designation will expire 10 years after the records were submitted to the Government, unless the submitter requests, and provides reasonable justification for, a designation period of longer duration.

(c) Predisclosure notification. The FOIA Officer will provide a submitter with prompt written notice of a FOIA request regarding its business information if:

(1) The information has been designated by the submitter as information deemed protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA; or

(2) The FOIA Officer has reason to believe that the information may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA. Such written notice will either describe the exact nature of the business information requested or provide copies of the records containing the business information. The requester also will be notified that notice and an opportunity to object are being provided to a submitter.

(d) Opportunity to object to disclosure. OGE will give a submitter a reasonable time, up to 10 working days, from receipt of the predisclosure notification to provide a written statement of any objection to disclosure. Such statement will specify all the grounds for withholding any of the information under any exemption of the FOIA and, in the case of Exemption 4, will demonstrate why the information is deemed to be a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential. Information provided by a submitter pursuant to this paragraph (d) may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.

(e) Notice of intent to disclose. The FOIA Officer will consider all objections raised by a submitter and specific grounds for nondisclosure prior to determining whether to disclose business information. Whenever the FOIA Officer decides to disclose business information over the objection of a submitter, the FOIA Officer will send the submitter a written notice at least 10 working days before the date of disclosure containing:

(1) A statement of the reasons why the submitter's objections were not sustained;

(2) A copy of the records which will be disclosed or a written description of the records; and

(3) A specified disclosure date. The requester will also be notified of the FOIA Officer's determination to disclose records over a submitter's objections.

(f) Notice of FOIA lawsuit. Whenever a requester brings suit seeking to compel disclosure of business information, the FOIA Officer will promptly notify the submitter.

(g) Exceptions to predisclosure notification. The notice requirements in paragraph (c) of this section do not apply if:

(1) The FOIA Officer determines that the information should not be disclosed;

(2) The information has been published previously or has been officially made available to the public;

(3) Disclosure of the information is required by law (other than 5 U.S.C. 552); or

(4) The designation made by the submitter in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section appears obviously frivolous; except that, in such a case, the FOIA Officer will provide the submitter with written notice of any final decision to disclose business information within a reasonable number of days prior to a specified disclosure date.

Subpart E Schedule of Fees
§ 2604.501 Fees to be charged—general.

(a) Policy. Fees will be assessed according to the schedule contained in paragraph (b) of this section and the category of requesters described in § 2604.502 for services rendered in responding to and processing requests for records under subpart C of this part. All fees will be charged to the requester, except where the charging of fees is limited under § 2604.503(a) and (b) or where a waiver or reduction of fees is granted under § 2604.503(c). Requesters will pay fees by check or money order made payable to the Treasury of the United States.

(b) Types of charges. The types of charges that may be assessed in connection with the production of records in response to a FOIA request are as follows:

(1) Searches—(i) Manual searches for records. Whenever feasible, OGE will charge at the salary rate (i.e., basic pay plus 16%) of the employee making the search. However, where a homogeneous class of personnel is used exclusively in a search (e.g., all clerical time or all professional time) OGE will charge $16.00 per hour for clerical time and $28.00 per hour for professional time. Charges for search time will be billed by 15minute segments.

(ii) Computer searches for records. Requesters will be charged the actual direct cost of conducting a search using existing programming. These direct costs will include the cost of operating a central processing unit for that portion of operating time that is directly attributable to searching for records responsive to a request, as well as the cost of operator/programmer salary apportionable to the search. OGE will not alter or develop programming to conduct a search.

(iii) Unproductive searches. OGE will charge search fees even if no records are found which are responsive to the request, or if the records found are exempt from disclosure.

(2) Duplication. The standard copying charge for documents in paper copy is $0.15 per page. When responsive information is provided in a format other than paper copy, such as in the form of computer tapes, flash drives, and discs, the requester may be charged the direct costs of the medium used to produce the information, as well as any related reproduction costs.

(3) Review. Costs associated with the review of documents, as defined in § 2604.103, will be charged at the salary rate (i.e., basic pay plus 16%) of the employee conducting the review. Except as noted below, charges may be assessed only for review at the initial level, i.e., the review undertaken the first time the documents are analyzed to determine the applicability of specific exemptions to a particular record or portion of the records. A requester will not be charged for review at the administrative appeal level concerning the applicability of an exemption already applied at the initial level. However, when a record has been withheld pursuant to an exemption which is subsequently determined not to apply and the record is reviewed again at the appeal level to determine the potential applicability of other exemptions, the costs of such additional review may be assessed.

(4) Other services and materials. Where OGE elects, as a matter of administrative discretion, to comply with a request for a special service or materials, such as certifying that records are true copies or sending records by special methods, the actual direct costs of providing the service or materials will be charged.

§ 2604.502 Fees to be charged—categories of requesters.

(a) Fees for various requester categories. The paragraphs below state, for each category of requester, the type of fees generally charged by OGE. However, for each of these categories, the fees may be limited, waived or reduced in accordance with the provisions set forth in § 2604.503. In determining whether a requester belongs in any of the following categories, OGE will determine the use to which the requester will put the documents requested. If OGE has reasonable cause to doubt the use to which the requester will put the records sought, or where the use is not clear from the request itself, OGE will seek clarification before assigning the request to a specific category.

(b) Commercial use requester. OGE will charge the full costs of search, review, and duplication. Commercial use requesters are not entitled to two hours of free search time or 100 free pages of reproduction as described in § 2604.503(a); however, the minimum fees provision of § 2604.503(b) does apply to such requesters.

(c) Educational and noncommercial scientific institutions and news media. If the request is from an educational institution or a noncommercial scientific institution, operated for scholarly or scientific research, or a representative of the news media, and the request is not for a commercial use, OGE will charge only for duplication of documents, excluding charges for the first 100 pages.

(d) All other requesters. If the request is not one described in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, OGE will charge the full and direct costs of searching for and reproducing records that are responsive to the request, excluding the first 100 pages of duplication and the first two hours of search time.

§ 2604.503 Limitations on charging fees.

(a) In general. Except for requesters seeking records for a commercial use as described in § 2604.502(b), OGE will provide, without charge, the first 100 pages of duplication and the first two hours of search time, or their cost equivalent.

(b) Minimum fees. OGE will not assess fees for individual requests if the total charge would be $10.00 or less.

(c) Waiver or reduction of fees. Records responsive to a request under 5 U.S.C. 552 will be furnished without charge or at a reduced charge if a requester can demonstrate that certain statutory standards are satisfied, including that the information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the Government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. Requests for a waiver or reduction of fees will be considered on a case-by-case basis.

(1) In determining whether disclosure is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the Government, OGE will consider the following factors:

(i) The subject of the request: Whether the subject of the requested records concerns the operations or activities of the Government. The subject matter of the requested records, in the context of the request, must specifically and directly concern identifiable operations or activities of the Federal Government. Furthermore, the records must be sought for their informative value with respect to those Government operations or activities;

(ii) The informative value of the information to be disclosed: Whether the information is likely to contribute to an understanding of Government operations or activities. The disclosable portions of the requested records must be meaningfully informative on specific Government operations or activities in order to hold potential for contributing to increased public understanding of those operations and activities. The disclosure of information which is already in the public domain, in either a duplicative or substantially identical form, would not be likely to contribute to such understanding, as nothing new would be added to the public record;

(iii) The contribution to an understanding of the subject by the public likely to result from disclosure: Whether disclosure of the requested information will contribute to public understanding. The disclosure must contribute to the understanding of the public at large, as opposed to the individual understanding of the requester or a narrow segment of interested persons. A requester's identity and qualifications—e.g., expertise in the subject area and ability and intention to convey information to the general public—will be considered; and

(iv) The significance of the contribution to public understanding: Whether the disclosure is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of Government operations or activities. The public's understanding of the subject matter in question, as compared to the level of public understanding existing prior to the disclosure, must be likely to be significantly enhanced by the disclosure.

(2) In determining whether disclosure of the requested information is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester, OGE will consider the following factors:

(i) The existence and magnitude of a commercial interest: Whether the requester has a commercial interest that would be furthered by the requested disclosure. OGE will consider all commercial interests of the requester, or any person on whose behalf the requester may be acting, which would be furthered by the requested disclosure. In assessing the magnitude of identified commercial interests, consideration will be given to the effect that the information disclosed would have on those commercial interests; and

(ii) The primary interest in disclosure: Whether the magnitude of the identified commercial interest of the requester is sufficiently large, in comparison with the public interest in disclosure, that disclosure is primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. A fee waiver or reduction is warranted only where the public interest can fairly be regarded as greater in magnitude than the requester's commercial interest in disclosure. OGE will ordinarily presume that, where a news media requester has satisfied the public interest standard, the public interest will be served primarily by disclosure to that requester. Disclosure to data brokers and others who compile and market Government information for direct economic return will not be presumed to primarily serve the public interest.

(3) Where only a portion of the requested record satisfies the requirements for a waiver or reduction of fees under this paragraph (c), a waiver or reduction will be granted only as to that portion.

(4) A request for a waiver or reduction of fees must accompany the request for disclosure of records, and should include:

(i) A clear statement of the requester's interest in the documents;

(ii) The proposed use of the documents and whether the requester will derive income or other benefit from such use;

(iii) A statement of how the public will benefit from release of the requested documents; and

(iv) If specialized use of the documents is contemplated, a statement of the requester's qualifications that are relevant to the specialized use.

(5) A requester may appeal the denial of a request for a waiver or reduction of fees in accordance with the provisions of § 2604.304.

(d) If OGE does not comply with one of the time limits under § 2604.305, it will not assess search fees (or in the case of a requester described under § 2604.502(c), duplication fees), except as provided in paragraphs (d)(1) through (d)(3) of this section.

(1) If OGE has determined that unusual circumstances apply, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B), and OGE provided timely written notice to the requester in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B), a failure to comply with the time limit is excused for an additional 10 days.

(2) If OGE has determined that unusual circumstances apply, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B), and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, OGE may charge search fees (or in the case of requesters described under § 2604.502(c), duplication fees) if OGE has provided timely written notice to the requester in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B) and OGE has discussed with the requester via written mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with 5. U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii).

(3) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B), a failure to comply with the time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.

[80 FR 57073, Sept. 22, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 94216, Dec. 23, 2016]

§ 2604.504 Miscellaneous fee provisions.

(a) Notice of anticipated fees in excess of $25.00. Where OGE determines or estimates that the fees to be assessed under this section may amount to more than $25.00, it will notify the requester as soon as practicable of the actual or estimated amount of fees, unless the requester has indicated in advance the willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated. Where a requester has been notified that the actual or estimated fees may exceed $25.00, the request will be deemed not to have been received until the requester has agreed to pay the anticipated total fee. A notice to the requester pursuant to this paragraph (a) will include the opportunity to confer with OGE personnel in order to reformulate the request to meet the requester's needs at a lower cost.

(b) Aggregating requests. A requester may not file multiple requests, each seeking portions of a document or documents in order to avoid the payment of fees. Where there is reason to believe that a requester, or group of requesters acting in concert, is attempting to divide a request into a series of requests for the purpose of evading the assessment of fees, OGE may aggregate the requests and charge accordingly. OGE will presume that multiple requests of this type made within a 30-calendar day period have been made in order to evade fees. Multiple requests regarding unrelated matters will not be aggregated.

(c) Advance payments. An advance payment before work is commenced or continued will not be required unless:

(1) OGE estimates or determines that the total fee to be assessed under this section is likely to exceed $250.00. When a determination is made that the allowable charges are likely to exceed $250.00, the requester will be notified of the likely cost and will be required to provide satisfactory assurance of full payment where the requester has a history of prompt payment of FOIA fees, or will be required to submit an advance payment of an amount up to the full estimated charges in the case of requesters with no history of payment; or

(2) A requester has previously failed to pay a fee charged in a timely fashion (i.e., within 30 calendar days of the date of the billing). In such cases the requester may be required to pay the full amount owed plus any applicable interest as provided by paragraph (e) of this section, and to make an advance payment of the full amount of the estimated fee before OGE begins to process a new request.

(3) When OGE requests an advance payment of fees, the administrative time limits described in subsection (a)(6) of the FOIA will begin to run only after OGE has received the advance payment.

(d) Billing and payment. Normally OGE will require a requester to pay all fees before furnishing the requested records. However, OGE may send a bill along with, or following the furnishing of records, in cases where the requester has a history of prompt payment.

(e) Interest charges. Interest charges on an unpaid bill may be assessed starting on the 31st calendar day following the day on which the billing was sent. Interest will be at the rate prescribed in 31 U.S.C. 3717 and will accrue from the date of billing. To collect unpaid bills, OGE will follow the provisions of the Debt Collection Act of 1982, as amended (96 Stat. 1749 et seq.) including the use of consumer reporting agencies, collection agencies, and offset.

Subpart F Annual OGE FOIA Report
§ 2604.601 Electronic posting and submission of annual OGE FOIA report.

On or before February 1 of each year, OGE will submit to the Office of Information Policy at the United States Department of Justice and to the Director of OGIS an Annual FOIA Report. The report will include the information required by 5 U.S.C. 552(e). OGE will electronically post on its Web site the report and the raw statistical data used in each report, in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(e)(3).

[80 FR 57073, Sept. 22, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 94216, Dec. 23, 2016]

Subpart G Fees for the Reproduction and Mailing of Public Financial Disclosure Reports
§ 2604.701 Policy.

Fees for the reproduction and mailing of public financial disclosure reports requested pursuant to section 105 of the Ethics in Government Act of 1978, as amended, and § 2634.603 of this chapter will be assessed according to the schedule contained in § 2604.702. Requesters will pay fees by check or money order made payable to the Treasury of the United States. Except as provided in § 2604.702(d), nothing concerning fees in subpart E of this part supersedes the charges set forth in this subpart for records covered in this subpart.

§ 2604.702 Charges.

(a) Duplication. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, copies of public financial disclosure reports requested pursuant to section 105 of the Ethics in Government Act of 1978, as amended, and § 2634.603 of this chapter will be provided upon payment of $0.15 per page furnished.

(b) Mailing. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the actual direct cost of mailing public financial disclosure reports will be charged for all forms requested. Where OGE elects to comply, as a matter of administrative discretion, with a request for special mailing services, the actual direct cost of such service will be charged.

(c) Minimum fees. OGE will not assess fees for individual requests if the total charge would be $10.00 or less.

(d) Miscellaneous fee provisions. The miscellaneous fee provisions set forth in § 2604.504 apply to requests for public financial disclosure reports pursuant to § 2634.603 of this chapter.

PART 2606 PRIVACY ACT RULES

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 552a, 5 U.S.C. App. (Ethics in Government Act of 1978).

Source: 68 FR 27891, May 22, 2003, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General Provisions
§ 2606.101 Purpose.

This part sets forth the regulations of the Office of Government Ethics (OGE) implementing the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (5 U.S.C. 552a). It governs access, maintenance, disclosure, and amendment of records contained in OGE's executive branch Governmentwide and internal systems of records, and establishes rules of conduct for OGE employees who have responsibilities under the Act.

§ 2606.102 Definitions.

For the purpose of this part, the terms listed below are defined as follows:

Access means providing a copy of a record to, or allowing review of the original record by, the data subject or the requester's authorized representative, parent or legal guardian;

Act means the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, 5 U.S.C. 552a;

Amendment means the correction, addition, deletion, or destruction of a record or specific portions of a record;

Data subject means the individual to whom the information pertains and by whose name or other individual identifier the information is maintained or retrieved;

He, his, and him include she, hers and her.

Office or OGE means the U.S. Office of Government Ethics;

System manager means the Office or other agency official who has the authority to decide Privacy Act matters relative to a system of records;

System of records means a group of any records containing personal information controlled and managed by OGE from which information is retrieved by the name of an individual or by some personal identifier assigned to that individual;

Working day as used in calculating the date when a response is due means calendar days, excepting Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays.

§ 2606.103 Systems of records.

(a) Governmentwide systems of records. The Office of Government Ethics maintains two executive branch Governmentwide systems of records: the OGE/GOVT-1 system of records, comprised of Executive Branch Personnel Public Financial Disclosure Reports and Other Name-Retrieved Ethics Program Records; and the OGE/GOVT-2 system of records, comprised of Executive Branch Confidential Financial Disclosure Reports. These Governmentwide systems of records are maintained by OGE, and through Office delegations of authority, by Federal executive branch departments and agencies with regard to their own employees, applicants for employment, individuals nominated to a position requiring Senate confirmation, candidates for a position, and former employees.

(b) OGE Internal systems of records. The Office of Government Ethics internal systems of records are under OGE's physical custody and control and are established and maintained by the Office on current and former OGE employees regarding matters relating to the internal management of the Office. These systems of records consist of the OGE/INTERNAL-1 system, comprised of Pay, Leave and Travel Records; the OGE/INTERNAL-2 system, comprised of Telephone Call Detail Records; the OGE/INTERNAL-3 system, comprised of Grievance Records; the OGE/INTERNAL-4 system, comprised of Computer Systems Activity and Access Records; and the OGE/INTERNAL-5 system, comprised of Employee Locator and Emergency Notification Records.

§ 2606.104 OGE and agency responsibilities.

(a) The procedures in this part apply to:

(1) All initial Privacy Act access and amendment requests regarding records contained in an OGE system of records.

(2) Administrative appeals from an Office or agency denial of an initial request for access to, or to amend, records contained in an OGE system of records.

(b) For records contained in an OGE Governmentwide system of records, each agency is responsible (unless specifically excepted by the Office) for responding to initial requests for access or amendment of records in its custody and administrative appeals of denials thereof.

(c) For records and material of another agency that are in the custody of OGE, but not under its control or ownership, OGE may refer a request for the records to that other agency, consult with the other agency prior to responding, or notify the requester that the other agency is the proper agency to contact.

§ 2606.105 Rules for individuals seeking to ascertain if they are the subject of a record.

An individual seeking to ascertain if any OGE system of records contains a record pertaining to him must follow the access procedures set forth at § 2606.201(a) and (b).

§ 2606.106 OGE employee Privacy Act rules of conduct and responsibilities.

Each OGE employee involved in the design, development, operation, or maintenance of any system of records, or in maintaining any record covered by the Privacy Act, shall comply with the pertinent provisions of the Act relating to the treatment of such information. Particular attention is directed to the following provisions of the Privacy Act:

(a) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(7). The requirement to maintain in a system of records no record describing how any individual exercises rights guaranteed by the First Amendment of the Constitution of the United States unless expressly authorized by statute or by the individual about whom the record is maintained or unless pertinent to and within the scope of an authorized law enforcement activity.

(b) 5 U.S.C. 552a(b). The requirement that no agency shall disclose any record which is contained in a system of records by any means of communication to any person or to another agency, except pursuant to a written request by, or with the prior written consent of, the individual to whom the record pertains, except under certain limited conditions specified in subsections (b)(1) through (b)(12) of the Privacy Act.

(c) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(1). The requirement for an agency to maintain in its systems of records only such information about an individual as is relevant and necessary to accomplish a purpose of the agency required to be accomplished by statute or by Executive order.

(d) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(2). The requirement to collect information to the greatest extent practicable directly from the subject individual when the information may result in adverse determinations about an individual's rights, benefits, and privileges under Federal programs.

(e) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(3). The requirement to inform each individual asked to supply information to be maintained in a system of records the authority which authorizes the solicitation of the information and whether disclosure of such information is mandatory or voluntary; the principal purpose or purposes for which the information is intended to be used; the routine uses which may be made of the information; and the effects on the individual, if any, of not providing all or any part of the requested information.

(f) 5 U.S.C. 552a(b) and (e)(10). The requirement to comply with established safeguards and procedures to ensure the security and confidentiality of records and to protect personal data from any anticipated threats or hazards to their security or integrity which could result in substantial harm, embarrassment, inconvenience, or unfairness to an individual on whom information is maintained in a system of records.

(g) 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(1), (c)(2) and (c)(3). The requirement to maintain an accounting of specified disclosures of personal information from systems of records in accordance with established Office procedures.

(h) 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(5) and (e)(6). The requirements to maintain all records in a system of records which are used by the agency in making any determination about an individual with such accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness as is reasonably necessary to assure fairness to the individual in the determination; and to make reasonable efforts to assure that such records are accurate, complete, timely, and relevant for agency purposes, prior to disseminating any record about an individual to any person other than an agency (unless the dissemination is required by the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552).

(i) 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(1), (d)(2) and (d)(3). The requirement to permit individuals to have access to records pertaining to themselves in accordance with established Office procedures and to have an opportunity to request that such records be amended.

(j) 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(4) and (d)(4). The requirement to inform any person or other agency about any correction or notation of dispute made by the agency in accordance with subsection (d) of the Act of any record that has been disclosed to the person or agency if an accounting of the disclosure was made; and, in any disclosure of information about which an individual has filed a statement of disagreement, to note clearly any portion of the record which is disputed and to provide copies of the statement (and if the agency deems it appropriate, copies of a concise statement of the reasons of the agency for not making the amendments requested) to persons or other agencies to whom the disputed record has been disclosed.

(k) 5 U.S.C. 552a(n). The requirement for an agency not to sell or rent an individual's name or address, unless such action is specifically authorized by law.

(l) 5 U.S.C. 552a(i). The criminal penalties to which an employee may be subject for failing to comply with certain provisions of the Privacy Act.

Subpart B Access to Records and Accounting of Disclosures
§ 2606.201 Requests for access.

(a) Records in an OGE Governmentwide system of records. An individual requesting access to records pertaining to him in an OGE Governmentwide system of records should submit a written request, which includes the words “Privacy Act Request” on both the envelope and at the top of the request letter, to the appropriate system manager as follows:

(1) Records filed directly with OGE by non-OGE employees: The Deputy Director, Office of Agency Programs, Office of Government Ethics, Suite 500, 1201 New York Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20005-3917;

(2) Records filed with a Designated Agency Ethics Official (DAEO) or the head of a department or agency: The DAEO at the department or agency concerned; or

(3) Records filed with the Federal Election Commission by candidates for President or Vice President: The General Counsel, Office of General Counsel, Federal Election Commission, 999 E Street, NW., Washington, DC 20463.

(b) Records in an OGE Internal System of Records. An individual requesting access to records pertaining to him in an OGE internal system of records should submit a written request, which includes the words “Privacy Act Request” on both the envelope and at the top of the request letter, to the Deputy Director, Office of Administration and Information Management, Office of Government Ethics, Suite 500, 1201 New York Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20005-3917.

(c) Content of request. (1) A request should contain a specific reference to the OGE system of records from which access to the records is sought. Notices of OGE systems of records subject to the Privacy Act are published in the Federal Register, and copies of the notices are available on OGE's Web site at http://www.usoge.gov, or upon request from OGE's Office of General Counsel and Legal Policy. A biennial compilation of such notices also is made available online and published by the Office of Federal Register at the GPO Access Web site (http://www.access.gpo.gov/su_docs/aces/PrivacyAct.shtml) in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a(f) of the Act.

(2) If the written inquiry does not refer to a specific system of records, it should include other information that will assist in the identification of the records for which access is being requested. Such information may include, for example, the individual's full name (including her maiden name, if pertinent), dates of employment, social security number (if any records in the system include this identifier), current or last place and date of Federal employment. If the request for access follows a prior request to determine if an individual is the subject of a record, the same identifying information need not be included in the request for access if a reference is made to that prior correspondence, or a copy of the response to that request is attached.

(3) The request should state whether the requester wants a copy of the record, or wants to examine the record in person.

§ 2606.202 OGE or other agency action on requests.

A response to a request for access should include the following:

(a) A statement that there is a record or records as requested or a statement that there is not a record in the system of records;

(b) The method of access (if a copy of all the records requested is not provided with the response);

(c) The amount of any fees to be charged for copies of records under § 2606.206 of this part or other agencies' Privacy Act regulations as referenced in that section;

(d) The name, title, and telephone number of the official having operational control over the record; and

(e) If the request is denied in whole or in part, or no record is found in the system, a statement of the reasons for the denial, or a statement that no record has been found, and notice of the procedures for appealing the denial or no record finding.

§ 2606.203 Granting access.

(a) The methods for allowing access to records, when such access has been granted by OGE or the other agency concerned are:

(1) Examination in person in a designated office during the hours specified by OGE or the other agency;

(2) Providing photocopies of the records; or

(3) Transfer of records at the option of OGE or the other agency to another more convenient Federal facility.

(b) When a requester has not indicated whether he wants a copy of the record, or wants to examine the record in person, the appropriate system manager may choose the means of granting access. However, the means chosen should not unduly impede the data subject's right of access. A data subject may elect to receive a copy of the records after having examined them.

(c) Generally, OGE or the other agency concerned will not furnish certified copies of records. When copies are to be furnished, they may be provided as determined by OGE or the other agency concerned.

(d) When the data subject seeks to obtain original documentation, the Office and the other agencies concerned reserve the right to limit the request to copies of the original records. Original records should be made available for review only in the presence of the appropriate system manager or his designee.

Note to paragraph (d) of § 2606.203:

Section 2071(a) of title 18 of the United States Code makes it a crime to conceal, remove, mutilate, obliterate, or destroy any record filed in a public office, or to attempt to do so.

(e) Identification requirements—(1) Access granted in person—(i) Current or former employees. Current or former employees requesting access to records pertaining to them in a system of records may, in addition to the other requirements of this section, and at the sole discretion of the official having operational control over the record, have their identity verified by visual observation. If the current or former employee cannot be so identified by the official having operational control over the records, adequate identification documentation will be required, e.g., an employee identification card, driver's license, passport, or other officially issued document with a picture of the person requesting access.

(ii) Other than current or former employees. Individuals other than current or former employees requesting access to records pertaining to them in a system of records must produce adequate identification documentation prior to being granted access. The extent of the identification documentation required will depend on the type of records to be accessed. In most cases, identification verification will be accomplished by the presentation of two forms of identification with a picture of the person requesting access (such as a driver's license and passport). Any additional requirements are specified in the system notices published pursuant to subsection (e)(4) of the Act.

(2) Access granted by mail. For records to be accessed by mail, the appropriate system manager shall, to the extent possible, establish identity by a comparison of signatures in situations where the data in the record is not so sensitive that unauthorized access could cause harm or embarrassment to the individual to whom they pertain. No identification documentation will be required for the disclosure to the data subject of information required to be made available to the public by 5 U.S.C. 552, the Freedom of Information Act. When, in the opinion of the system manager, the granting of access through the mail could reasonably be expected to result in harm or embarrassment if disclosed to a person other than the individual to whom the record pertains, a notarized statement of identity or some similar assurance of identity may be required.

(3) Unavailability of identification documentation. If an individual is unable to produce adequate identification documentation, the individual will be required to sign a statement asserting identity and acknowledging that knowingly or willfully seeking or obtaining access to records about another person under false pretenses may result in a criminal fine of up to $5,000 under subsection (i)(3) of the Act. In addition, depending upon the sensitivity of the records sought to be accessed, the appropriate system manager or official having operational control over the records may require such further reasonable assurances as may be considered appropriate, e.g., statements of other individuals who can attest to the identity of the data subject. No verification of identity will be required of data subjects seeking access to records which are otherwise available to any person under 5 U.S.C. 552.

(4) Inadequate identification. If the official having operational control over the records in a system of records determines that an individual seeking access has not provided sufficient identification documentation to permit access, the official shall consult with the appropriate system manager prior to denying the individual access. Whenever the system manager determines, in accordance with the procedures herein, that access will not be granted, the response will also include a statement of the procedures to obtain a review of the decision to deny access in accordance with § 2606.205.

(f) Access by the parent of a minor, or legal guardian. A parent of a minor, upon presenting suitable personal identification as otherwise provided under this section, may access on behalf of the minor any record pertaining to the minor in a system of records. A legal guardian, upon presentation of documentation establishing guardianship and suitable personal identification as otherwise provided under this section, may similarly act on behalf of a data subject declared to be incompetent due to physical or mental incapacity or age by a court of competent jurisdiction. Minors are not precluded from exercising on their own behalf rights given to them by the Privacy Act.

(g) Accompanying individual. A data subject requesting access to his records in a system of records may be accompanied by another individual of the data subject's choice during the course of the examination of the record. The official having operational control of the record may require the data subject making the request to submit a signed statement authorizing the accompanying individual's access to the record.

(h) Access to medical records. When a request for access involves medical or psychological records that the appropriate system manager believes requires special handling, the data subject should be advised that the material will be provided only to a physician designated by the data subject. Upon receipt of the designation and upon verification of the physician's identity as otherwise provided under this section, the records will be made available to the physician, who will disclose those records to the data subject.

(i) Exclusion. Nothing in these regulations permits a data subject's access to any information compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding (see subsection (d)(5) of the Act).

(j) Maximum access. This regulation is not intended to preclude access by a data subject to records that are available to that individual under other processes, such as the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) or the rules of civil or criminal procedure, provided that the appropriate procedures for requesting access thereunder are followed.

§ 2606.204 Request for review of an initial denial of access.

(a)(1) A data subject may submit a written appeal of the decision by OGE or the other agency to deny an initial request for access to records or a no record response.

(i) For records filed directly with OGE, the appeal must be submitted to the Director, Office of Government Ethics, Suite 500, 1201 New York Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20005-3917.

(ii) For records in OGE's executive branch Governmentwide systems of records that are filed directly with an agency (including the Federal Election Commission) other than OGE, the appeal must be submitted to the Privacy Act access appeals official as specified in the agency's own Privacy Act regulations or the respective head of the agency concerned if it does not have any Privacy Act regulations.

(2) The words “Privacy Act Appeal” should be included on the envelope and at the top of the letter of appeal.

(b) The appeal should contain a brief description of the records involved or copies of the correspondence from OGE or the agency in which the initial request for access was denied. The appeal should attempt to refute the reasons given by OGE or the other agency concerned in its decision to deny the initial request for access or the no record finding.

§ 2606.205 Response to a request for review of an initial denial of access.

(a) If the OGE Director or agency reviewing official determines that access to the records should be granted, the response will state how access will be provided if the records are not included with the response.

(b) Any decision that either partially or fully affirms the initial decision to deny access shall inform the requester of the right to seek judicial review of the decision in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552a(g) of the Privacy Act.

§ 2606.206 Fees.

(a) Fees for records filed with OGE—(1) Services for which fees will not be charged:

(i) The search and review time expended by OGE to produce a record;

(ii) The first copy of the records provided; or

(iii) The Office of Government Ethics making the records available to be personally reviewed by the data subject.

(2) Additional copies of records. When additional copies of records are requested, an individual may be charged $.15 per page.

(i) Notice of anticipated fees in excess of $25.00. If the charge for these additional copies amounts to more than $25.00, the requester will be notified and payment of fees may be required before the additional copies are provided, unless the requester has indicated in advance his willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated.

(ii) Advance payments. An advance payment before additional copies of the records are made will be required if:

(A) The Office estimates or determines that the total fee to be assessed under this section is likely to exceed $250.00. When a determination is made that the allowable charges are likely to exceed $250.00, the requester will be notified of the likely cost and will be required to provide satisfactory assurance of full payment where the requester has a history of prompt payment of Privacy Act fees, or will be required to submit an advance payment of an amount up to the full estimated charges in the case of requesters with no history of payment; or

(B) The requester has previously failed to pay a Privacy Act fee charged in a timely fashion (i.e., within 30 days of the date of the billing). In such cases, the requester may be required to pay the full amount owed plus any applicable interest as provided by paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section, and to make an advance payment of the full amount of the estimated fee before the Office begins to process a new request.

(iii) Interest charges. Interest charges on an unpaid bill may be assessed starting on the 31st day following the day on which the billing was sent. Interest shall be at the rate prescribed in 31 U.S.C. 3717 and shall accrue from the date of billing. To collect unpaid bills, the Office will follow the provisions of the Debt Collection Act of 1982, as amended (96 Stat. 1749 et seq.) and the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996 (110 Stat. 1321-358 et seq.), including the use of consumer reporting agencies, collection agencies, and offset.

(iv) Remittance. Remittance should be made by either a personal check, bank draft or a money order that is payable to the Department of the Treasury of the United States.

(b) Fees for records filed with agencies other than OGE. An agency shall apply its own Privacy Act fee schedule for records in OGE's executive branch Governmentwide systems that are filed directly with the agency. An agency that does not have a Privacy Act fee schedule may apply the fee schedule in this section.

§ 2606.207 Accounting of disclosures.

(a) The Office of Government Ethics or the other agency concerned will maintain an accounting of disclosures in cases where records about the data subject are disclosed from OGE's system of records except—

(1) When the disclosure is made pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. 552); or

(2) When the disclosure is made to those officers and employees of OGE or the other agency which maintains the records who have a need for the records in the performance of their duties.

(b) This accounting of disclosures will be retained for at least five years or for the life of the record, whichever is longer, and will contain the following information:

(1) A brief description of the record disclosed;

(2) The date, nature, and purpose for the disclosure; and

(3) The name and address of the individual, agency, or other entity to whom the disclosure is made.

(c) Under sections 102 and 105 of the Ethics in Government Act, 18 U.S.C. 208(d) and 5 CFR parts 2634 and 2640 of OGE's executive branch regulations, a requester other than the data subject must submit a signed, written application on the OGE Form 201 or agency equivalent form to inspect or receive copies of certain records, such as SF 278 Public Financial Disclosure Reports, Certificates of Divestiture, 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1) and (b)(3) waivers, and OGE certified qualified blind and diversified trust instruments and other publicly available qualified trust materials. The written application requests the name, occupation and address of the requester as well as lists the prohibitions on obtaining or using the records. These applications are used as the accounting of disclosures for these records.

(d) Except for the accounting of a disclosure made under subsection (b)(7) of the Privacy Act for a civil or criminal law enforcement activity that is authorized by law, the accounting of disclosures will be made available to the data subject upon request in accordance with the access procedures of this part.

Subpart C Amendment of Records
§ 2606.301 Requests to amend records.

(a) Amendment request. A data subject seeking to amend a record or records that pertain to him in a system of records must submit his request in writing in accordance with the following procedures, unless this requirement is waived by the appropriate system manager. Records not subject to the Privacy Act will not be amended in accordance with these provisions.

(b) Addresses—(1) Records in an OGE Governmentwide system of records. A request to amend a record in an OGE Governmentwide system of records should be sent to the appropriate system manager as follows:

(i) Records filed directly with OGE by non-OGE employees: The Deputy Director, Office of Agency Programs, Office of Government Ethics, Suite 500, 1201 New York Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20005-3917;

(ii) Records filed with a Designated Agency Ethics Official (DAEO) or the head of a department or agency: The DAEO at the department or agency concerned; or

(iii) Records filed with the Federal Election Commission by candidates for President or Vice President: The General Counsel, Office of General Counsel, Federal Election Commission, 999 E Street, NW., Washington, DC 20463.

(2) Records in an OGE internal system of records. A request to amend a record in an OGE internal system of records should include the words “Privacy Act Amendment Request” on both the envelope and at the top of the request letter, and should be sent to the Deputy Director, Office of Administration and Information Management, Office of Government Ethics, Suite 500, 1201 New York Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20005-3917.

(c) Contents of request. (1) A request to amend a record in an OGE Governmentwide system of records or an OGE internal system of records should include the words “Privacy Act Amendment Request” on both the envelope and at the top of the request letter.

(2) The name of the system of records and a brief description of the record(s) proposed for amendment must be included in any request for amendment. In the event the request to amend the record(s) is the result of the data subject's having gained access to the record(s) in accordance with the provisions concerning access to records as set in subpart B of this part, copies of previous correspondence between the requester and OGE or the agency will serve in lieu of a separate description of the record.

(3) The exact portion of the record(s) the data subject seeks to have amended should be indicated clearly. If possible, proposed alternative language should be set forth, or, at a minimum, the reasons why the data subject believes his record is not accurate, relevant, timely, or complete should be set forth with enough particularity to permit OGE or the other agency concerned not only to understand the data subject's basis for the request, but also to make an appropriate amendment to the record.

(d) Burden of proof. The data subject has the burden of proof when seeking the amendment of a record. The data subject must furnish sufficient facts to persuade the appropriate system manager of the inaccuracy, irrelevance, untimeliness, or incompleteness of the record.

(e) Identification requirement. When the data subject's identity has been previously verified pursuant to § 2606.203, further verification of identity is not required as long as the communication does not suggest a need for verification. If the data subject's identity has not been previously verified, the appropriate system manager may require identification validation as described in § 2606.203.

§ 2606.302 OGE or other agency action on requests.

(a) Time limit for acknowledging a request for amendment. To the extent possible, OGE or the other agency concerned will acknowledge receipt of a request to amend a record or records within 10 working days.

(b) Initial determination on an amendment request. The decision of OGE or the other agency in response to a request for amendment of a record in a system of records may grant in whole, or deny any part of the request to amend the record(s).

(1) If OGE or the other agency concerned grants the request, the appropriate system manager will amend the record(s) and provide a copy of the amended record(s) to the data subject. Where an accounting of disclosure has been maintained, the system manager shall advise all previous recipients of the record that an amendment has been made and give the substance of the amendment. Where practicable, the system manager shall send a copy of the amended record to previous recipients.

(2) If OGE or the other agency concerned denies the request in whole or in part, the reasons for the denial will be stated in the response letter. In addition, the response letter will state:

(i) The name and address of the official with whom an appeal of the denial may be lodged; and

(ii) A description of any other procedures which may be required of the data subject in order to process the appeal.

§ 2606.303 Request for review of an initial refusal to amend a record.

(a)(1) A data subject may submit a written appeal of the initial decision by OGE or an agency denying a request to amend a record in an OGE system of records.

(i) For records which are filed directly with OGE, the appeal must be submitted to the Director, Office of Government Ethics, Suite 500, 1201 New York Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20005-3917.

(ii) For records which are filed directly with an agency (including the Federal Election Commission) other than OGE, the appeal must be submitted to the Privacy Act amendments appeals official as specified in the agency's own Privacy Act regulations, or to the respective head of the agency concerned if it does not have Privacy Act regulations.

(2) The words “Privacy Act Appeal” should be included on the envelope and at the top of the letter of the appeal.

(b) The request for review should contain a brief description of the record(s) involved or copies of the correspondence from OGE or the agency in which the request to amend was denied, and the reasons why the data subject believes that the disputed information should be amended.

§ 2606.304 Response to a request for review of an initial refusal to amend; disagreement statements.

(a) The OGE Director or agency reviewing official should make a final determination in writing not later than 30 days from the date the appeal was received. The 30-day period may be extended for good cause. Notice of the extension and the reasons therefor will be sent to the data subject within the 30-day period.

(b) If the OGE Director or agency reviewing official determines that the record(s) should be amended in accordance with the data subject's request, the OGE Director or agency reviewing official will take the necessary steps to advise the data subject, and to direct the appropriate system manager:

(1) To amend the record(s), and

(2) To notify previous recipients of the record(s) for which there is an accounting of disclosure that the record(s) have been amended.

(c) If the appeal decision does not grant in full the request for amendment, the decision letter will notify the data subject that he may:

(1) Obtain judicial review of the decision in accordance with the terms of the Privacy Act at 5 U.S.C. 552a(g); and

(2) File a statement setting forth his reasons for disagreeing with the decision.

(d)(1) A data subject's disagreement statement must be concise. The appropriate system manager has the authority to determine the “conciseness” of the statement, taking into account the scope of the disagreement and the complexity of the issues.

(2) In any disclosure of information about which an individual has filed a statement of disagreement, the appropriate system manager will clearly note any disputed portion(s) of the record(s) and will provide a copy of the statement to persons or other agencies to whom the disputed record or records has been disclosed and for whom an accounting of disclosure has been maintained. A concise statement of the reasons for not making the amendments requested may also be provided.

PART 2608 TESTIMONY BY OGE EMPLOYEES RELATING TO OFFICIAL INFORMATION AND PRODUCTION OF OFFICIAL RECORDS IN LEGAL PROCEEDINGS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. App. (Sec. 401, Ethics in Government Act of 1978); 31 U.S.C. 9701; 44 U.S.C. 3101-3107, 3301-3303a, 3308-3314.

Source: 67 FR 35710, May 21, 2002, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General Provisions
§ 2608.101 Scope and purpose.

(a) This part sets forth policies and procedures you must follow when you submit a demand or request to an employee of the Office of Government Ethics (OGE) to produce official records and information, or provide testimony relating to official information, in connection with a legal proceeding. You must comply with these requirements when you request the release or disclosure of official records and information.

(b) The Office of Government Ethics intends these provisions to:

(1) Promote economy and efficiency in its programs and operations;

(2) Minimize the possibility of involving OGE in controversial issues not related to our functions;

(3) Maintain OGE's impartiality among private litigants where OGE is not a named party; and

(4) Protect sensitive, confidential information and the deliberative processes of OGE.

(c) In providing for these requirements, OGE does not waive the sovereign immunity of the United States.

(d) This part provides guidance for the internal operations of OGE. It does not create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, that a party may rely upon in any legal proceeding against the United States.

§ 2608.102 Applicability.

This part applies to demands and requests to employees for factual or expert testimony relating to official information, or for production of official records or information, in legal proceedings in which OGE is not a named party. However, it does not apply to:

(a) Demands upon or requests for an OGE employee to testify as to facts or events that are unrelated to his or her official duties or that are unrelated to the functions of OGE;

(b) Demands upon or requests for a former OGE employee to testify as to matters in which the former employee was not directly or materially involved while at the OGE;

(c) Requests for the release of records under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, or the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a; and

(d) Congressional demands and requests for testimony or records.

§ 2608.103 Definitions.

The following definitions apply to this part:

Demand means a subpoena, or an order or other command of a court or other competent authority, for the production, disclosure, or release of records or for the appearance and testimony of an OGE employee that is issued in a legal proceeding.

General Counsel means the General Counsel of OGE or a person to whom the General Counsel has delegated authority under this part.

Legal proceeding means any matter before a court of law, administrative board or tribunal, commission, administrative law judge, hearing officer, or other body that conducts a legal or administrative proceeding. Legal proceeding includes all phases of litigation.

OGE means the U.S. Office of Government Ethics.

OGE employee or employee means:

(1)(i) Any current or former officer or employee of OGE;

(ii) Any other individual hired through contractual agreement by or on behalf of OGE or who has performed or is performing services under such an agreement for OGE; and

(iii) Any individual who served or is serving in any consulting or advisory capacity to OGE, whether formal or informal.

(2) Provided, that this definition does not include persons who are no longer employed by OGE and who are retained or hired as expert witnesses or who agree to testify about general matters, matters available to the public, or matters with which they had no specific involvement or responsibility during their employment with OGE.

Records or official records and information mean:

(1) All documents and materials which are OGE agency records under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552;

(2) All other documents and materials contained in OGE files; and

(3) All other information or materials acquired by an OGE employee in the performance of his or her official duties or because of his or her official status.

Request means any informal request, by whatever method, for the production of records and information or for testimony which has not been ordered by a court or other competent authority.

Testimony means any written or oral statements, including depositions, answers to interrogatories, affidavits, declarations, interviews, and statements made by an individual in connection with a legal proceeding.

Subpart B Requests for Testimony and Production of Documents
§ 2608.201 General prohibition.

No employee may produce official records and information or provide any testimony relating to official information in response to a demand or request without the prior, written approval of the General Counsel.

§ 2608.202 Factors OGE will consider.

The General Counsel, in his or her sole discretion, may grant an employee permission to testify on matters relating to official information, or produce official records and information, in response to a demand or request. Among the relevant factors that the General Counsel may consider in making this decision are whether:

(a) The purposes of this part are met;

(b) Allowing such testimony or production of records would be necessary to prevent a miscarriage of justice;

(c) OGE has an interest in the decision that may be rendered in the legal proceeding;

(d) Allowing such testimony or production of records would assist or hinder OGE in performing its statutory duties or use OGE resources where responding to the demand or request will interfere with the ability of OGE employees to do their work;

(e) Allowing such testimony or production of records would be in the best interest of OGE or the United States;

(f) The records or testimony can be obtained from other sources;

(g) The demand or request is unduly burdensome or otherwise inappropriate under the applicable rules of discovery or the rules of procedure governing the case or matter in which the demand or request arose;

(h) Disclosure would violate a statute, Executive order or regulation;

(i) Disclosure would reveal confidential, sensitive, or privileged information, trade secrets or similar, confidential commercial or financial information, otherwise protected information, or information which would otherwise be inappropriate for release;

(j) Disclosure would impede or interfere with an ongoing law enforcement investigation or proceedings, or compromise constitutional rights;

(k) Disclosure would result in OGE appearing to favor one litigant over another;

(l) Disclosure relates to documents that were produced by another agency;

(m) A substantial Government interest is implicated;

(n) The demand or request is within the authority of the party making it; and

(o) The demand or request is sufficiently specific to be answered.

§ 2608.203 Filing requirements for demands or requests for documents or testimony.

You must comply with the following requirements whenever you issue demands or requests to an OGE employee for official records and information or testimony:

(a) Your request must be in writing and must be submitted to the General Counsel. If you serve a subpoena on OGE or an OGE employee before submitting a written request and receiving a final determination, OGE will oppose the subpoena on grounds that your request was not submitted in accordance with this subpart.

(b) Your written request must contain the following information:

(1) The caption of the legal proceeding, docket number, and name and address of the court or other authority involved;

(2) A copy of the complaint or equivalent document setting forth the assertions in the case and any other pleading or document necessary to show relevance;

(3) A list of categories of records sought, a detailed description of how the information sought is relevant to the issues in the legal proceeding, and a specific description of the substance of the testimony or records sought;

(4) A statement as to how the need for the information outweighs the need to maintain any confidentiality of the information and outweighs the burden on OGE to produce the records or provide testimony;

(5) A statement indicating that the information sought is not available from another source, from other persons or entities, or from the testimony of someone other than an OGE employee, such as a retained expert;

(6) If testimony is requested, the intended use of the testimony, a general summary of the desired testimony, and a showing that no document could be provided and used in lieu of testimony;

(7) A description of all prior decisions, orders, or pending motions in the case that bear upon the relevance of the requested records or testimony;

(8) The name, address, and telephone number of counsel to each party in the case; and

(9) An estimate of the amount of time that the requester and other parties will require with each OGE employee for time spent by the employee to prepare for testimony, in travel, and for attendance in the legal proceeding.

(c) The Office of Government Ethics reserves the right to require additional information to complete your request where appropriate.

(d) Your request should be submitted at least 45 days before the date that records or testimony is required. Requests submitted in less than 45 days before records or testimony is required must be accompanied by a written explanation stating the reasons for the late request and the reasons for expedited processing.

(e) Failure to cooperate in good faith to enable the General Counsel to make an informed decision may serve as the basis for a determination not to comply with your request.

§ 2608.204 Service of subpoenas or requests.

Subpoenas or requests for official records or information or testimony must be served on the General Counsel, Office of Government Ethics, Suite 500, 1201 New York Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20005-3917.

§ 2608.205 Processing demands or requests.

(a) After service of a demand or request to testify, the General Counsel will review the demand or request and, in accordance with the provisions of this subpart, determine whether, or under what conditions, to authorize the employee to testify on matters relating to official information and/or produce official records and information.

(b) The Office of Government Ethics will process requests in the order in which they are received. Absent exigent or unusual circumstances, OGE will respond within 45 days from the date that we receive it. The time for response will depend upon the scope of the request.

(c) The General Counsel may grant a waiver of any procedure described by this subpart where a waiver is considered necessary to promote a significant interest of OGE or the United States or for other good cause.

§ 2608.206 Final determination.

The General Counsel makes the final determination on demands and requests to employees for production of official records and information or testimony. All final determinations are within the sole discretion of the General Counsel. The General Counsel will notify the requester and the court or other authority of the final determination, the reasons for the grant or denial of the demand or request, and any conditions that the General Counsel may impose on the release of records or information, or on the testimony of an OGE employee.

§ 2608.207 Restrictions that apply to testimony.

(a) The General Counsel may impose conditions or restrictions on the testimony of OGE employees including, for example, limiting the areas of testimony or requiring the requester and other parties to the legal proceeding to agree that the transcript of the testimony will be kept under seal or will only be used or made available in the particular legal proceeding for which testimony was requested. The General Counsel may also require a copy of the transcript of testimony at the requester's expense.

(b) The Office of Government Ethics may offer the employee's written declaration in lieu of testimony.

(c) If authorized to testify pursuant to this part, an employee may testify as to facts within his or her personal knowledge, but, unless specifically authorized to do so by the General Counsel, the employee shall not:

(1) Disclose confidential or privileged information; or

(2) For a current OGE employee, testify as an expert or opinion witness with regard to any matter arising out of the employee's official duties or the functions of OGE unless testimony is being given on behalf of the United States (see also § 2635.805 of this chapter).

§ 2608.208 Restrictions that apply to released records.

(a) The General Counsel may impose conditions or restrictions on the release of official records and information, including the requirement that parties to the proceeding obtain a protective order or execute a confidentiality agreement to limit access and any further disclosure. The terms of the protective order or of a confidentiality agreement must be acceptable to the General Counsel. In cases where protective orders or confidentiality agreements have already been executed, OGE may condition the release of official records and information on an amendment to the existing protective order or confidentiality agreement.

(b) If the General Counsel so determines, original OGE records may be presented for examination in response to a demand or request, but they are not to be presented as evidence or otherwise used in a manner by which they could lose their identity as official OGE records, nor are they to be marked or altered. In lieu of the original records, certified copies will be presented for evidentiary purposes (see 28 U.S.C. 1733).

§ 2608.209 Procedure when a decision is not made prior to the time a response is required.

If a response to a demand or request is required before the General Counsel can make the determination referred to in § 2608.201, the General Counsel, when necessary, will provide the court or other competent authority with a copy of this part, inform the court or other competent authority that the demand or request is being reviewed, and seek a stay of the demand or request pending a final determination.

§ 2608.210 Procedure in the event of an adverse ruling.

If the court or other competent authority fails to stay the demand or request, the employee upon whom the demand or request is made, unless otherwise advised by the General Counsel, will appear at the stated time and place, produce a copy of this part, state that the employee has been advised by counsel not to provide the requested testimony or produce documents, and respectfully decline to comply with the demand or request, citing United States ex rel. Touhy v. Ragen, 340 U.S. 462 (1951). A written response may be offered to a request, or to a demand, if permitted by the court or other competent authority.

Subpart C Schedule of Fees
§ 2608.301 Fees.

(a) Generally. The General Counsel may condition the production of records or appearance for testimony upon advance payment of a reasonable estimate of the costs to OGE.

(b) Fees for records. Fees for producing records will include fees for searching, reviewing, and duplicating records, costs of attorney time spent in reviewing the demand or request, and expenses generated by materials and equipment used to search for, produce, and copy the responsive information. Costs for employee time will be calculated on the basis of the hourly pay of the employee (including all pay, allowance, and benefits). Fees for duplication will be the same as those charged by OGE in its Freedom of Information Act and Ethics in Government Act fee regulations at 5 CFR part 2604, subparts E and G.

(c) Witness fees. Fees for attendance by a witness will include fees, expenses, and allowances prescribed by the court's rules. If no such fees are prescribed, witness fees will be determined based upon the rule of the Federal district court closest to the location where the witness will appear. Such fees will include cost of time spent by the witness to prepare for testimony, in travel, and for attendance in the legal proceeding.

(d) Payment of fees. You must pay witness fees for current OGE employees and any records certification fees by submitting to the General Counsel a check or money order for the appropriate amount made payable to the Treasury of the United States. In the case of testimony by former OGE employees, you must pay applicable fees directly to the former employee in accordance with 28 U.S.C. 1821 or other applicable statutes.

(e) Certification (authentication) of copies of records. The Office of Government Ethics may certify that records are true copies in order to facilitate their use as evidence. If you seek certification, you must request certified copies from OGE at least 45 days before the date they will be needed. The request should be sent to the General Counsel. You will be charged a certification fee of $15.00 for each document certified.

(f) Waiver or reduction of fees. The General Counsel, in his or her sole discretion, may, upon a showing of reasonable cause, waive or reduce any fees in connection with the testimony, production, or certification of records.

(g) De minimis fees. Fees will not be assessed if the total charge would be $10.00 or less.

Subpart D Penalties
§ 2608.401 Penalties.

(a) An employee who discloses official records or information or gives testimony relating to official information, except as expressly authorized by OGE or as ordered by a Federal court after OGE has had the opportunity to be heard, may face the penalties provided in 18 U.S.C. 641 and other applicable laws. Additionally, former OGE employees are subject to the restrictions and penalties of 18 U.S.C. 207 and 216.

(b) A current OGE employee who testifies or produces official records and information in violation of this part shall be subject to disciplinary action.

PART 2610 IMPLEMENTATION OF THE EQUAL ACCESS TO JUSTICE ACT

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 504(c)(1); 5 U.S.C. App. (Ethics in Government Act of 1978).

Source: 57 FR 33268, July 28, 1992, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General Provisions
§ 2610.101 Definitions.

(a) Act means the Equal Access to Justice Act, 5 U.S.C. 504, as amended.

(b) Adjudicative officer means the official, without regard to whether the official is designated as a hearing examiner, administrative law judge, administrative judge, or otherwise, who presided at the adversary adjudication.

(c) Adversary adjudication means:

(1) An adjudication under 5 U.S.C. 554 in which the position of the United States is represented by counsel or otherwise, but not including an adjudication for the purpose of establishing or fixing a rate or for the purpose of granting or renewing a license; and

(2) An appeal of a decision of a contracting officer made pursuant to section 6 of the Contracts Disputes Act of 1978 (41 U.S.C. 605) as provided in section 8 of that statute (41 U.S.C. 607).

(d) Agency counsel means:

(1) When the position of the Office is being represented, the attorney or attorneys designated by the Office's General Counsel to represent the Office in a proceeding covered by this part; and

(2) When the position of another agency of the United States is being represented, the representative or representatives as designated by that agency.

(e) Office means the United States Office of Government Ethics, or the organizational unit within the Office responsible for conducting an adversary adjudication subject to this part.

(f) Proceeding means an adversary adjudication as defined above.

(g) Director means the Director of the United States Office of Government Ethics.

§ 2610.102 Purpose.

The Act provides for the award of attorney fees and other expenses to eligible individuals and entities who are parties to certain administrative proceedings (“adversary adjudications”) before the Office of Government Ethics. An eligible party may receive an award when it prevails over the Office, unless the Office's position in the proceeding was substantially justified or special circumstances make an award unjust. An eligible party may also receive an award when the demand of the Office is substantially in excess of the decision in the adversary adjudication and is unreasonable when compared with such decision, under the facts and circumstances of the case, unless the party has committed a willful violation of law or otherwise acted in bad faith or special circumstances make an award unjust. The rules in this part describe the parties eligible for awards and the proceedings that are covered. They also explain how to apply for awards, and the procedures and standards that the Office will use to make them.

[57 FR 33268, July 28, 1992, as amended at 63 FR 13116, Mar. 18, 1998]

§ 2610.103 When the Act applies.

The Act applies to any adversary adjudication pending or commenced before the Office of Government Ethics on or after October 1, 1989, which is the date the Office became a separate executive agency. Prior to October 1, 1989, the Office was part of the Office of Personnel Management. Any adversary adjudication pending or commenced before October 1, 1989, and not finally disposed of by that date, is governed by the rules and policies implementing the Equal Access to Justice Act as adopted by the Office of Personnel Management.

§ 2610.104 Proceedings covered.

(a) This part applies to adversary administrative adjudications conducted by the Office of Government Ethics. When all other conditions in the Act and in these rules are met, the types of proceedings to which this part applies are adversary administrative adjudications conducted by the Office under:

(1) The Debt Collection Act of 1982, 5 U.S.C. 5514;

(2) The Contract Disputes Act of 1978, 41 U.S.C. 605, 607;

(3) The Ethics in Government Act of 1978, section 402(f)(2), 5 U.S.C. app., and subpart E of part 2638 of this chapter.

(b) The Office's failure to identify a type of proceeding as an adversary adjudication shall not preclude the filing of an application by a party who believes the proceeding is covered by the Act; whether the proceeding is covered will then be an issue for resolution in the proceedings on the application.

(c) If a proceeding includes both matters covered by the Act and matters specifically excluded from coverage, any award made will include only fees and expenses related to covered matters.

§ 2610.105 Eligibility of applicants.

(a) To be eligible for an award of attorney fees and other expenses under the Act, the applicant must be a party to the adversary adjudication for which it seeks an award. The term “party” is defined in 5 U.S.C. 551(3). The applicant must show that it meets all conditions of eligibility set out in this subpart and in subpart B of this part.

(b) The types of eligible applicants are as follows:

(1) An individual with a net worth of not more than $2,000,000;

(2) The sole owner of an unincorporated business who has a net worth of not more than $7,000,000, including both personal and business interests, and not more than 500 employees;

(3) A charitable or other tax-exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3), with not more than 500 employees;

(4) A cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act, 12 U.S.C. 1141j(a), with not more than 500 employees;

(5) Any other partnership, corporation, association, unit of local government, or organization with a net worth of not more than $7,000,000 and not more than 500 employees; and

(6) For purposes of § 2610.106(b), a small entity as defined in 5 U.S.C. 601.

(c) For the purpose of eligibility, the net worth and number of employees of an applicant shall be determined as of the date the underlying proceeding was initiated. For appeals of decisions of contracting officers made pursuant to section 6 of the Contracts Disputes Act of 1978, the net worth and number of employees of an applicant shall be determined as of the date the applicant filed its appeal under 41 U.S.C. 606.

(d) An applicant who owns an unincorporated business will be considered as an “individual” rather than a “sole owner of an unincorporated business” if the issues on which the applicant prevails are related primarily to personal interests rather than to business interests.

(e) The employees of an applicant include all persons who regularly perform services for remuneration for the applicant, under the applicant's direction and control. Part-time employees shall be included on a proportional basis.

(f) The net worth and number of employees of the applicant and all of its affiliates shall be aggregated to determine eligibility. An individual, corporation or other entity that directly or indirectly controls or owns a majority of the voting shares or other interests of the applicant, or any corporation or other entity of which the applicant directly or indirectly owns or controls a majority of the voting shares or other interest, will be considered an affiliate for purposes of this part, unless the adjudicative officer determines that such treatment would be unjust and contrary to the purposes of the Act in light of the actual relationship between the affiliated entities. In addition, the adjudicative officer may determine that financial relationships of the applicant other than those described in this paragraph constitute special circumstances that would make an award unjust.

(g) An applicant that participates in a proceeding primarily on behalf of one or more other persons or entities that would be ineligible is not itself eligible for an award.

[57 FR 33268, July 28, 1992, as amended at 63 FR 13116, Mar. 18, 1998]

§ 2610.106 Standards for awards.

(a) A prevailing applicant may receive an award for fees and expenses incurred in connection with a proceeding or in a significant and discrete substantive portion of the proceeding, unless the position of the Office was substantially justified. The position of the Office includes, in addition to the position taken by the Office in the adversary adjudication, the action or failure to act by the Office upon which the adversary adjudication is based. The burden of proof that an award should not be made to an eligible prevailing applicant because the Office's position was substantially justified is on the Office. No presumption arises that the Office's position was not substantially justified simply because the Office did not prevail.

(b) If, in a proceeding arising from an Office action to enforce an applicant's compliance with a statutory or regulatory requirement, the demand of the Office is substantially in excess of the decision in the proceeding and is unreasonable when compared with that decision under the facts and circumstances of the case, the applicant shall be awarded the fees and other expenses related to defending against the excessive demand, unless the applicant has committed a willful violation of law or otherwise acted in bad faith or special circumstances make an award unjust. The burden of proof that the demand of the Office is substantially in excess of the decision and is unreasonable when compared with such decision is on the applicant. As used in this paragraph, “demand” means the express demand of the Office which led to the adversary adjudication, but it does not include a recitation by the Office of the maximum statutory penalty in the administrative complaint, or elsewhere when accompanied by an express demand for a lesser amount. Fees and expenses awarded under this paragraph shall be paid only as a consequence of appropriations provided in advance.

(c) Awards for fees and expenses incurred before the date on which a proceeding was initiated will be made only if the applicant can demonstrate that they were reasonably incurred in preparation for the proceeding.

(d) An award under this part will be reduced or denied if the Office's position was substantially justified in law and fact, if the applicant has unduly or unreasonably protracted the proceeding, if the applicant has falsified the application (including documentation) or net worth exhibit, or if special circumstances make the award unjust.

[57 FR 33268, July 28, 1992, as amended at 60 FR 38666, July 28, 1995; 63 FR 13116, Mar. 18, 1998]

§ 2610.107 Allowable fees and expenses.

(a) Awards will be based on rates customarily charged by persons engaged in the business of acting as attorneys, agents and expert witnesses, even if the services were made available without charge or at reduced rate to the applicant.

(b) Except as provided in § 2610.108, no award for the fee of an attorney or agent under these rules may exceed $125.00 per hour. No award to compensate an expert witness may exceed the highest rate at which the Office pays expert witnesses. However, an award may also include the reasonable expenses of the attorney, agency, or witness as a separate item, if the attorney, agent or witness ordinarily charges clients separately for such expenses.

(c) In determining the reasonableness of the fee sought for an attorney, agent or expert witness, the adjudicative officer shall consider the following:

(1) If the attorney, agent or witness is in private practice, his or her customary fees for similar services, or, if an employee of the applicant, the fully allocated costs of the services;

(2) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent or witness ordinarily performs services;

(3) The time actually spent in the representation of the applicant;

(4) The time reasonably spent in light of the difficulty or complexity of the issues in the proceeding; and

(5) Such other factors as may bear on the value of the services provided.

(d) The reasonable cost of any study, analysis, engineering report, test, project or similar matter prepared on behalf of a party may be awarded, to the extent that the charge for the services does not exceed the prevailing rate for similar services, and the study or other matter was necessary for preparation of applicant's case.

[57 FR 33268, July 28, 1992, as amended at 63 FR 13116, Mar. 18, 1998]

§ 2610.108 Rulemaking on maximum rate for attorney and agent fees.

(a) If warranted by an increase in the cost of living or by special circumstances (such as limited availability of attorneys or agents qualified to handle certain types of proceedings), the Office may adopt regulations providing that attorney or agent fees may be awarded at a rate higher than $125.00 per hour in some or all of the types of proceedings covered by this part. The Office will conduct any rulemaking proceedings for this purpose under the informal rulemaking procedures of the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 553.

(b) Any person may file with the Office a petition for rulemaking to increase the maximum rate for attorney or agent fees as provided in 5 U.S.C. 504(b)(1)(A)(ii). The petition should identify the rate the petitioner believes the Office should establish and the types of proceedings in which the rate should be used. It should also explain fully the reasons why the higher rate is warranted. The Office will respond to the petition within 60 days after it is filed, by initiating a rulemaking proceeding, denying the petition, or taking other appropriate action.

[57 FR 33268, July 28, 1992, as amended at 63 FR 13116, Mar. 18, 1998]

§ 2610.109 Awards against other agencies.

If an applicant is entitled to an award because it prevails over another agency of the United States that participates in a proceeding before the Office of Government Ethics and takes a position that is not substantially justified, the award or an appropriate portion of the award shall be made against that agency.

Subpart B Information Required From Applicants
§ 2610.201 Contents of application.

(a) An application for an award of fees and expenses under the Act shall identify the applicant and the proceeding for which an award is sought. Unless the applicant is an individual, the application shall further state the number of employees of the applicant and describe briefly the type and purpose of its organization or business. The application shall also:

(1) Show that the applicant has prevailed and identify the position of the Office in the proceeding that the applicant alleges was not substantially justified; or

(2) Show that the demand by the Office in the proceeding was substantially in excess of, and was unreasonable when compared with, the decision in the proceeding.

(b) The application shall also include, for purposes of § 2610.106 (a) or (b), a statement that the applicant's net worth does not exceed $2,000,000 (for individuals) or $7,000,000 (for all other applicants, including their affiliates) or alternatively, for purposes of § 2610.106(b) only, a declaration that the applicant is a small entity as defined in 5 U.S.C. 601. However, an applicant may omit the statement concerning its net worth if:

(1) It attaches a copy of a ruling by the Internal Revenue Service that it qualifies as an organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) or, in the case of a tax-exempt organization not required to obtain a ruling from the Internal Revenue Service on its exempt status, a statement that describes the basis for the applicant's belief that it qualifies under such section; or

(2) It states that it is a cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)).

(c) The application shall state the amount of fees and expenses for which an award is sought.

(d) The application may also include any other matters that the applicant wishes the Office to consider in determining whether and in what amount an award should be made.

(e) The application shall be signed by the applicant or an authorized officer or attorney of the applicant. It shall also contain or be accompanied by a written verification made by the applicant or authorized officer or attorney of the applicant under oath or under penalty of perjury that the information provided in the application is true and correct.

(f) These collections of information are not subject to Office of Management and Budget review under the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. chapter 35) because they are expected to involve nine or fewer persons each year.

[57 FR 33268, July 28, 1992, as amended at 59 FR 34755, July 7, 1994; 63 FR 13116, Mar. 18, 1998]

§ 2610.202 Net worth exhibit.

(a) Each applicant, except a qualified tax-exempt organization or cooperative association, must provide with its application a detailed exhibit showing the net worth of the applicant and any affiliates (as defined in § 2610.105(f)) when the underlying adversary adjudication was initiated. The exhibit may be in any form convenient to the applicant that provides full disclosure of the applicant's and its affiliates' assets and liabilities and is sufficient to determine whether the applicant qualifies under the standards in this part. The adjudicative officer may require an applicant to file additional information to determine its eligibility for an award.

(b) Ordinarily, the net worth exhibit will be included in the public record of the proceeding. However, an applicant that objects to public disclosure of information in any portion of the exhibit and believes there are legal grounds for withholding it from disclosure may submit that portion of the exhibit directly to the adjudicative officer in a sealed envelope labeled “Confidential Financial Information,” accompanied by a motion to withhold the information from public disclosure. The motion shall describe the information sought to be withheld and explain, in detail, why it falls within one or more of the specific exemptions from mandatory disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(1)-(9), why public disclosure of the information would adversely affect the applicant, and why disclosure is not required in the public interest. The material in question shall be served on counsel representing the Office, but need not be served on any other party to the proceeding, if any. If the adjudicative officer finds that the information should not be withheld from disclosure, it shall be placed in the public record of the proceeding. Otherwise, any request by another party or the public to inspect or copy the exhibit shall be resolved in accordance with the Office of Government Ethics' established procedures under the Freedom of Information Act.

§ 2610.203 Documentation of fees and expenses.

The application shall be accompanied by full and itemized documentation of the fees and expenses, including the cost of any study, analysis, engineering report, test, project or similar matter, for which an award is sought. A separate itemized statement shall be submitted for each professional firm or individual whose services are covered by the application, showing the hours spent in connection with the proceeding by each individual, a description of the specific services performed, the rates at which each fee has been computed, any expenses for which reimbursement is sought, the total amount claimed, and the total amount paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity for the services provided. The adjudicative officer may require the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, logs, or other documentation for any fees or expenses claimed, pursuant to § 2610.306.

§ 2610.204 When an application may be filed.

(a) An application may be filed whenever the applicant has prevailed in the proceeding or in a significant and discrete substantive portion of the proceeding. An application may also be filed when the demand of the Office is substantially in excess of the decision in the proceeding and is unreasonable when compared with such decision. In no case may an application be filed later than 30 days after the Office of Government Ethics' final disposition of the proceeding.

(b) For purposes of this rule, final disposition means the date on which a decision or order disposing of the merits of the proceeding or any other complete resolution of the proceeding, such as a settlement or voluntary dismissal, becomes final and unappealable, both within the Office and to the courts.

(c) If review or reconsideration is sought or taken of a decision as to which an applicant believes it has prevailed or has been subjected to a demand from the Office substantially in excess of the decision in the adversary adjudication and unreasonable when compared to that decision, proceedings for the award of fees shall be stayed pending final disposition of the underlying controversy. When the United States appeals the underlying merits of an adversary adjudication to a court, no decision on an application for fees and other expenses in connection with that adversary adjudication shall be made until a final and unreviewable decision is rendered by the court on the appeal or until the underlying merits of the case have been finally determined pursuant to the appeal.

[57 FR 33268, July 28, 1992, as amended at 63 FR 13116, Mar. 18, 1998]

Subpart C Procedures for Considering Applications
§ 2610.301 Jurisdiction of adjudicative officer.

Any provision in the Office's rules and regulations other than this part which limits or terminates the jurisdiction of an adjudicative officer upon the effective date of his or her decision in the underlying proceeding shall not in any way affect his or her jurisdiction to render a decision under this part.

§ 2610.302 Filing and service of documents.

Any application for an award or other pleading or document related to an application shall be filed and served on all parties to the proceeding in the same manner as other pleadings in the proceeding, except as provided in § 2610.202(b) for confidential financial information.

§ 2610.303 Answer to application.

(a) Within 30 days after service of an application, counsel representing the Office may file an answer to the application. Agency counsel may request an extension of time for filing. If agency counsel fails to answer or otherwise fails to contest or settle the application within the 30-day period, the adjudicative officer, upon a satisfactory showing of entitlement by the applicant, may make an award for the applicant's fees and other expenses under the Act.

(b) If agency counsel and the applicant believe that the issues in the fee application can be settled, they may jointly file a statement of their intent to negotiate a settlement. The filing of this statement shall extend the time for filing an answer for an additional 30 days, and further extensions may be granted for good cause by the adjudicative officer upon request by agency counsel and the applicant.

(c) The answer shall explain in detail any objections to the award requested and identify the facts relied on in support of agency counsel's position. If the answer is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, agency counsel shall include with the answer either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 2610.307.

§ 2610.304 Reply.

Within 15 days after service of an answer, the applicant may file a reply. If the reply is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the applicant shall include with the reply either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 2610.307.

§ 2610.305 Comments by other parties.

Any party to a proceeding other than the applicant and agency counsel may file comments on an application within 30 days after it is served, or on an answer within 15 days after it is served. A commenting party may not participate further in proceedings on the application unless the adjudicative officer determines that the public interest requires such participation in order to permit full exploration of matters raised in the comments.

§ 2610.306 Settlement.

The applicant and agency counsel may agree on a proposed settlement of the award before final action on the application, either in connection with a settlement of the underlying proceeding, or after the underlying proceeding has been concluded, in accordance with the settlement procedure applicable to the underlying procedure. If an eligible prevailing party and agency counsel agree on a proposed settlement of an award before an application has been filed, the application shall be filed with the proposed settlement.

§ 2610.307 Further proceedings.

(a) Ordinarily, the determination of an award will be made on the basis of the written record. However, on request of either the applicant or agency counsel, or on his or her own initiative, the adjudicative officer may order further proceedings, such as an informal conference, oral argument, additional written submissions or, as to issues other than substantial justification (such as the applicant's eligibility or substantiation of fees and expenses), pertinent discovery or an evidentiary hearing. Such further proceedings shall be held only when necessary for full and fair resolution of the issues arising from the application, and shall be conducted as promptly as possible. Whether or not the position of the Office was substantially justified shall be determined on the basis of the administrative record, as a whole, which is made in the adversary adjudication for which fees and other expenses are sought.

(b) A request that the adjudicative officer order further proceedings under this section shall specifically identify the information sought or the disputed issues and shall explain why the additional proceedings are necessary to resolve the issues.

§ 2610.308 Decision.

The adjudicative officer shall issue an initial decision on the application within 30 days after completion of proceedings on the application. The decision shall include written findings and conclusions on the applicant's eligibility and status as a prevailing party, and an explanation of the reasons for any difference between the amount requested and the amount awarded. The decision shall also include, if at issue, findings on whether the Office's position was substantially justified, whether the applicant unduly protracted the proceedings, or whether special circumstances make an award unjust. If the applicant has sought an award against more than one agency, the decision shall allocate responsibility for payment of any award made among the agencies, and shall explain the reasons for the allocation made.

§ 2610.309 Agency review.

Within 30 days after issuance of an initial decision under this part, either the applicant or agency counsel may seek review of the initial decision on the fee application, or the Director (or his or her designee) may decide to review the initial decision on his or her own initiative, in accordance with the Office's review or appeal procedures applicable to the underlying proceeding. If neither the applicant nor agency counsel seeks review and the Director (or designee) does not take review on his or her own initiative, the initial decision on the application shall become a final decision of the Office of Government Ethics 30 days after it is issued. Whether to review a decision is a matter within the discretion of the Director (or his or her designee, if any). If review is taken, the Office will issue a final decision on the application or remand the application to the adjudicative officer for further proceedings.

§ 2610.310 Judicial review.

Judicial review of final agency decisions on awards may be sought as provided in 5 U.S.C. 504(c)(2).

§ 2610.311 Payment of award.

An applicant seeking payment of an award shall submit a copy of the Office's final decision granting the award, accompanied by a certification that the applicant will not seek review of the decision in the United States courts, to the Associate Director for Administration, Office of Government Ethics, Suite 500, 1201 New York Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20005-3917. The Office will pay the amount awarded to the applicant within 60 days, unless judicial review of the award or of the underlying decision of the adversary adjudication has been sought by the applicant, the Office, or any other party to the proceedings.

SUBCHAPTER B GOVERNMENT ETHICS

PART 2634 EXECUTIVE BRANCH FINANCIAL DISCLOSURE, QUALIFIED TRUSTS, AND CERTIFICATES OF DIVESTITURE

Authority: 5 U.S.C. ch. 131; 26 U.S.C. 1043; Pub. L. 101-410, 104 Stat. 890, 28 U.S.C. 2461 note, as amended by sec. 31001, Pub. L. 104-134, 110 Stat. 1321 and sec. 701, Pub. L. 114-74; Pub. L. 112-105, 126 Stat. 291; E.O. 12674, 54 FR 15159, 3 CFR, 1989 Comp., p. 215, as modified by E.O. 12731, 55 FR 42547, 3 CFR, 1990 Comp., p. 306.

Source: 83 FR 33981, July 18, 2018, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General Provisions
§ 2634.101 Authority.

The regulation in this part is issued pursuant to the authority of the Ethics in Government Act of 1978, as amended; 26 U.S.C. 1043; the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended by the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996 and the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015; the Stop Trading on Congressional Knowledge Act (STOCK Act), as amended; and Executive Order 12674 of April 12, 1989, as modified by Executive Order 12731 of October 17, 1990.

§ 2634.102 Purpose and overview.

(a) The regulation in this part supplements and implements title I of the Act, sections 8(a)-(b) and 11 of the STOCK Act, and section 201(d) of Executive Order 12674 (as modified by Executive Order 12731) with respect to executive branch employees, by setting forth more specifically the uniform procedures and requirements for financial disclosure and for the certification and use of qualified blind and diversified trusts. Additionally, this part implements section 502 of the Reform Act by establishing procedures for executive branch personnel to obtain Certificates of Divestiture, which permit deferred recognition of capital gain in certain instances.

(b) The rules in this part govern both public and confidential (nonpublic) financial disclosure systems. Subpart I of this part contains the rules applicable to the confidential disclosure system.

§ 2634.103 Executive agency supplemental regulations.

(a) The regulation in this part is intended to provide uniformity for executive branch financial disclosure systems. However, an agency may, subject to the prior written approval of the Office of Government Ethics (OGE), issue supplemental regulations implementing this part, if necessary to address special or unique agency circumstances. Such regulations:

(1) Must be consistent with the Act, the STOCK Act, Executive Orders 12674 and 12731, and this part; and

(2) Must not impose additional reporting requirements on either public or confidential filers, unless specifically authorized by the Office of Government Ethics as supplemental confidential reporting.

Note to paragraph (a):

Supplemental regulations will not be used to satisfy the separate requirement of 5 U.S.C. app. (Ethics in Government Act of 1978, section 402(d)(1)) that each agency have established written procedures on how to collect, review, evaluate, and, where appropriate, make publicly available, financial disclosure statements filed with it.

(b) Requests for approval of supplemental regulations under paragraph (a) of this section must be submitted in writing to the Office of Government Ethics, and must set forth the agency's need for any proposed supplemental reporting requirements. See § 2634.901(b) and (c).

(c) Agencies should review all of their existing financial disclosure regulations to determine which of those regulations must be modified or revoked in order to conform with the requirements of this part. Any amendatory agency regulations will be processed in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.

§ 2634.104 Policies.

(a) Title I of the Act requires that high-level Federal officials disclose publicly their personal financial interests, to ensure confidence in the integrity of the Federal Government by demonstrating that they are able to carry out their duties without compromising the public trust. Title I also authorizes the Office of Government Ethics to establish a confidential (nonpublic) financial disclosure system for less senior executive branch personnel in certain designated positions, to facilitate internal agency conflict-of-interest review.

(b) Public and confidential financial disclosure serves to prevent conflicts of interest and to identify potential conflicts, by providing for a systematic review of the financial interests of both current and prospective officers and employees. These reports assist agencies in administering their ethics programs and providing counseling to employees.

(c) Financial disclosure reports are not net worth statements. Financial disclosure systems seek only the information that the President, Congress, or OGE as the supervising ethics office for the executive branch has deemed relevant to the administration and application of the criminal conflict of interest laws, other statutes on ethical conduct or financial interests, and Executive orders or regulations on standards of ethical conduct.

(d) Nothing in the Act, the STOCK Act, or this part requiring reporting of information or the filing of any report will be deemed to authorize receipt of income, honoraria, gifts, or reimbursements; holding of assets, liabilities, or positions; or involvement in transactions that are prohibited by law, Executive order, or regulation.

(e) The provisions of title I of the Act, the STOCK Act, and this part requiring the reporting of information supersede any general requirement under any other provision of law or regulation on the reporting of information required for purposes of preventing conflicts of interest or apparent conflicts of interest. However, the provisions of title I and this part do not supersede the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 7342 (the Foreign Gifts and Decorations Act).

(f) This part is intended to be gender-neutral; therefore, use of the terms he, his, and him include she, hers, and her, and vice versa.

§ 2634.105 Definitions.

For purposes of this part:

(a) Act means the Ethics in Government Act of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-521), as amended, as modified by the Ethics Reform Act of 1989 (Pub. L. 101-194), as amended.

(b) Agency means any executive agency as defined in 5 U.S.C. 105 (any executive department, Government corporation, or independent establishment in the executive branch), any military department as defined in 5 U.S.C. 102, and the Postal Service and the Postal Regulatory Commission. It does not include the Government Accountability Office.

(c) Confidential filer. For the definition of “confidential filer,” see § 2634.904.

(d) Dependent child means, when used with respect to any reporting individual, any individual who is a son, daughter, stepson, or stepdaughter and who:

(1) Is unmarried, under age 21, and living in the household of the reporting individual; or

(2) Is a dependent of the reporting individual within the meaning of section 152 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, see 26 U.S.C. 152.

(e) Designated agency ethics official means the primary officer or employee who is designated by the head of an agency to administer the provisions of title I of the Act and this part within an agency, and in the designated agency ethics official's absence the alternate who is designated by the head of the agency. The term also includes a delegate of such an official, unless otherwise indicated. See part 2638 of this chapter on the appointment and additional responsibilities of a designated agency ethics official and alternate.

(f) Executive branch means any agency as defined in paragraph (b) of this section and any other entity or administrative unit in the executive branch.

(g) Filer is used interchangeably with “reporting individual,” and may refer to a “confidential filer” as defined in paragraph (c) of this section, a “public filer” as defined in paragraph (m) of this section, or a nominee or candidate as described in § 2634.201.

(h) Gift means a payment, advance, forbearance, rendering, free attendance at an event, deposit of money, or anything of value, unless consideration of equal or greater value is received by the donor, but does not include:

(1) Bequests and other forms of inheritance;

(2) Suitable mementos of a function honoring the reporting individual;

(3) Food, lodging, transportation, and entertainment provided by a foreign government within a foreign country or by the United States Government, the District of Columbia, or a State or local government or political subdivision thereof;

(4) Food and beverages, unless they are consumed in connection with a gift of overnight lodging;

(5) Communications to the offices of a reporting individual, including subscriptions to newspapers and periodicals;

(6) Consumable products provided by home-state businesses to the offices of the President or Vice President, if those products are intended for consumption by persons other than the President or Vice President; or

(7) Exclusions and exceptions as described at § 2634.304(c) and (d).

(i) Honorarium means a payment of money or anything of value for an appearance, speech, or article.

(j) Income means all income from whatever source derived. It includes but is not limited to the following items: Earned income such as compensation for services, fees, commissions, salaries, wages, and similar items; gross income derived from business (and net income if the individual elects to include it); gains derived from dealings in property including capital gains; interest; rents; royalties; dividends; annuities; income from the investment portion of life insurance and endowment contracts; pensions; income from discharge of indebtedness; distributive share of partnership income; and income from an interest in an estate or trust. The term includes all income items, regardless of whether they are taxable for Federal income tax purposes, such as interest on municipal bonds. Generally, income means “gross income” as determined in conformity with the Internal Revenue Service principles at 26 CFR 1.61-1 through 1.61-15 and 1.61-21.

(k) Personal hospitality of any individual means hospitality extended for a nonbusiness purpose by an individual, not a corporation or organization, at the personal residence of or on property or facilities owned by that individual or the individual's family.

(l) Personal residence means any property used exclusively as a private dwelling by the reporting individual or his spouse, which is not rented out during any portion of the reporting period. The term is not limited to one's domicile; there may be more than one personal residence, including a vacation home.

(m) Public filer. For the definition of “public filer,” see § 2634.202.

(n) Reimbursement means any payment or other thing of value received by the reporting individual (other than gifts, as defined in paragraph (h) of this section) to cover travel-related expenses of such individual, other than those which are:

(1) Provided by the United States Government, the District of Columbia, or a State or local government or political subdivision thereof;

(2) Required to be reported by the reporting individual under 5 U.S.C. 7342 (the Foreign Gifts and Decorations Act); or

(3) Required to be reported under section 304 of the Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971 (52 U.S.C. 30104) (relating to reports of campaign contributions).

Note to paragraph (n):

Payments which are not made to the individual are not reimbursements for purposes of this part. Thus, payments made to the filer's employing agency to cover official travel-related expenses do not fit this definition of reimbursement. For example, payments being accepted by the agency pursuant to statutory authority such as 31 U.S.C. 1353, as implemented by 41 CFR part 304-1, are not considered reimbursements under this part, because they are not payments received by the reporting individual. On the other hand, travel payments made to the employee by an outside entity for private travel are considered reimbursements for purposes of this part. Likewise, travel payments received from certain nonprofit entities under authority of 5 U.S.C. 4111 are considered reimbursements, even though for official travel, since that statute specifies that such payments must be made to the individual directly (with prior approval from the individual's agency).

(o) Relative means an individual who is related to the reporting individual, as father, mother, son, daughter, brother, sister, uncle, aunt, great uncle, great aunt, first cousin, nephew, niece, husband, wife, grandfather, grandmother, grandson, granddaughter, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, sister-in-law, stepfather, stepmother, stepson, stepdaughter, stepbrother, stepsister, half-brother, half-sister, or who is the grandfather or grandmother of the spouse of the reporting individual, and will be deemed to include the fiancé or fiancée of the reporting individual.

(p) Reporting individual is used interchangeably with “filer,” and may refer to a “confidential filer” as defined in § 2634.904, a “public filer” as defined in § 2634.202, or a nominee or candidate as described in § 2634.201(c) and (d).

(q) Reviewing official means the designated agency ethics official or the delegate, the Secretary concerned, the head of the agency, or the Director of the Office of Government Ethics.

(r) Secretary concerned has the meaning set forth in 10 U.S.C. 101(a)(9) (relating to the Secretaries of the Army, Navy, Air Force, and for certain Coast Guard matters, the Secretary of Homeland Security); and, in addition, means:

(1) The Secretary of Commerce, in matters concerning the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration;

(2) The Secretary of Health and Human Services, with respect to matters concerning the Public Health Service; and

(3) The Secretary of State with respect to matters concerning the Foreign Service.

(s) Special Government employee has the meaning given to that term by the first sentence of 18 U.S.C. 202(a): An officer or employee of an agency who is retained, designated, appointed, or employed to perform temporary duties, with or without compensation, for not to exceed 130 days during any period of 365 consecutive days, either on a full-time or intermittent basis.

(t) STOCK Act means the Stop Trading on Congressional Knowledge Act (Pub. L. 112-105), as amended.

(u) Value means a good faith estimate of the fair market value if the exact value is neither known nor easily obtainable by the reporting individual without undue hardship or expense. In the case of any interest in property, see the alternative valuation options in § 2634.301(e). For gifts and reimbursements, see § 2634.304(e).

Subpart B Persons Required To File Public Financial Disclosure Reports
§ 2634.201 General requirements, filing dates, and extensions.

(a) Incumbents. A public filer as defined in § 2634.202 who, during any calendar year, performs the duties of the position or office, as described in that section, for a period in excess of 60 days must file a public financial disclosure report containing the information prescribed in subpart C of this part, on or before May 15 of the succeeding year.

Example 1:An SES official commences performing the duties of his position on November 15. He will not be required to file an incumbent report for that calendar year.

Example 2:An employee, who is classified at GS-15, is formally detailed to fill an SES position or is temporarily promoted to fill an SES position in an acting capacity, from October 15 through December 31. Having performed the duties of a covered position for more than 60 days during the calendar year, he will be required to file an incumbent report. In addition, he must file a new entrant report the first time he serves more than 60 days in a calendar year in the position, in accordance with § 2634.201(b) and § 2634.204(c)(1).

Example 3:An SES employee terminates her employment with an agency on March 7, 2015. The employee will file a termination report by April 6, 2015, in accordance with § 2634.201(e), but will not file an incumbent report on May 15.

(b) New entrants. (1) Within 30 days of assuming a public filer position or office described in § 2634.202, an individual must file a public financial disclosure report containing the information prescribed in subpart C of this part.

(2) However, no report will be required if the individual:

(i) Has, within 30 days prior to assuming such position, left another position or office for which a public financial disclosure report under the Act was required to be filed; or

(ii) Has already filed such a report as a nominee or candidate for the position.

Example:Y, an employee of the Treasury Department who has previously filed reports in accordance with the rules of this section, terminates employment with that Department on January 10, 2015, and begins employment with the Commerce Department on January 11, 2015, in a Senior Executive Service position. Y is not a new entrant because he has assumed a position described in § 2634.202 within thirty days of leaving another position so described. Accordingly, he need not file a new report with the Commerce Department.

Note to example:

While Y did not have to file a new entrant report with the Commerce Department, that Department should request a copy of the last report which he filed with the Treasury Department, so that Commerce could determine whether or not there would be any conflicts or potential conflicts in connection with Y's new employment. Additionally, Y will have to file an incumbent report covering the 2014 calendar year, in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, due not later than May 15, 2015, with Commerce, which should provide a copy to Treasury so that both may review it.

(c) Nominees. (1) At any time after a public announcement by the President or President-elect of the intention to nominate an individual to an executive branch position, appointment to which requires the advice and consent of the Senate, such individual may, and in any event within five days after the transmittal of the nomination to the Senate must, file a public financial disclosure report containing the information prescribed in subpart C of this part.

(2) This requirement will not apply to any individual who is nominated to a position as:

(i) An officer of the uniformed services; or

(ii) A Foreign Service Officer.

Note to paragraph (c)(2):

Although the statute, 5 U.S.C. app. (Ethics in Government Act of 1978, section 101(b)(1)), exempts uniformed service officers only if they are nominated for appointment to a grade or rank for which the pay grade is 0-6 or below, the Senate confirmation committees have adopted a practice of exempting all uniformed service officers, unless otherwise specified by the committee assigned.

(3) Section 2634.605(c) provides expedited procedures in the case of individuals described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. Those individuals referred to in paragraph (c)(2) of this section as being exempt from filing nominee reports must file new entrant reports, if required by paragraph (b) of this section.

(d) Candidates. A candidate (as defined in section 301 of the Federal Election Campaign Act of 1971, 52 U.S.C. 30101) for nomination or election to the office of President or Vice President (other than an incumbent) must file a public financial disclosure report containing the information prescribed in subpart C of this part, in accordance with the following:

(1) Within 30 days of becoming a candidate or on or before May 15 of the calendar year in which the individual becomes a candidate, whichever is later, but in no event later than 30 days before the election; and

(2) On or before May 15 of each successive year an individual continues to be a candidate. However, in any calendar year in which an individual continues to be a candidate but all elections relating to such candidacy were held in prior calendar years, the individual need not file a report unless the individual becomes a candidate for a vacancy during that year.

Example:P became a candidate for President in January 2015. P will be required to file a public financial disclosure report on or before May 15, 2015. If P had become a candidate on June 1, 2015, P would have been required to file a disclosure report within 30 days of that date.

(e) Termination of employment. (1) On or before the thirtieth day after termination of employment from a public filer position or office described in § 2634.202 but no more than 15 days prior to termination, an individual must file a public financial disclosure report containing the information prescribed in subpart C of this part. If the individual files prior to the termination date and there are any changes between the filing date and the termination date, the individual must update the report.

(2) However, if within 30 days of such termination the individual assumes employment in another position or office for which a public report under the Act is required to be filed, no report will be required by the provisions of this paragraph. See the related Example in paragraph (b) of this section.

(f) Transactions occurring throughout the calendar year. (1) A public filer as defined in § 2634.202 who, during any calendar year, performs, or is reasonably expected to perform, the duties of his position or office, as described in that section, for a period in excess of 60 days must file a transaction report within 30 days of receiving notification of a covered transaction, but not later than 45 days after such transaction. The report must contain the information prescribed in subpart C of this part.

(2) A covered transaction is any purchase, sale, or exchange required to be reported according to the provisions of § 2634.309.

Example:A filer receives a statement on October 10 notifying her of all of the covered transactions executed by her broker on her behalf in September. Although each transaction may have a different due date, if the filer reports all the covered transactions from September on a report filed on or before October 15, the filer will ensure that all transactions have been timely reported.

(g) Extensions generally. The reviewing official may, for good cause shown, grant to any public filer or class thereof an extension of time for filing which must not exceed 45 days. The reviewing official may, for good cause shown, grant an additional extension of time which must not exceed 45 days. The employee must set forth in writing specific reasons why such additional extension of time is necessary. The reviewing official must approve or deny such requests in writing. Such records must be maintained as part of the official report file. For extensions on confidential financial disclosure reports, see § 2634.903(d).

(h) Exceptions for individuals in combat zones. In the case of an individual who is serving in the Armed Forces, or serving in support of the Armed Forces, in an area while that area is designated by the President by Executive order as a combat zone for purposes of section 112 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986:

(1) The date for the filing of any report will be extended so that the date is 180 days after the later of:

(i) The last day of the individual's service in such area during such designated period; or

(ii) The last day of the individual's hospitalization as a result of injury received or disease contracted while serving in such area; and

(2) The exception described in this paragraph will apply automatically to any individual who qualifies for the exception, unless the Secretary of Defense establishes written guidelines for determining eligibility or for requesting an extension under this paragraph.

§ 2634.202 Public filer defined.

The term public filer includes:

(a) The President;

(b) The Vice President;

(c) Each officer or employee in the executive branch, including a special Government employee as defined in 18 U.S.C. 202(a), whose position is classified above GS-15 of the General Schedule prescribed by 5 U.S.C. 5332, or the rate of basic pay for which is fixed, other than under the General Schedule, at a rate equal to or greater than 120% of the minimum rate of basic pay for GS-15 of the General Schedule; each member of a uniformed service whose pay grade is at or in excess of O-7 under 37 U.S.C. 201; and each officer or employee in any other position determined by the Director of the Office of Government Ethics to be of equal classification;

(d) Each employee who is an administrative law judge appointed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3105;

(e) Any employee not otherwise described in paragraph (c) of this section who is in a position in the executive branch which is excepted from the competitive service by reason of being of a confidential or policy-making character, unless excluded by virtue of a determination under § 2634.203;

(f) The Postmaster General, the Deputy Postmaster General, each Governor of the Board of Governors of the United States Postal Service and each officer or employee of the United States Postal Service or Postal Regulatory Commission whose basic rate of pay is equal to or greater than 120% of the minimum rate of basic pay for GS-15 of the General Schedule;

(g) The Director of the Office of Government Ethics and each agency's designated agency ethics official;

(h) Any civilian employee not otherwise described in paragraph (c) of this section who is employed in the Executive Office of the President (other than a special Government employee, as defined in 18 U.S.C. 202(a)) and holds a commission of appointment from the President; and

(i) Anyone whose employment in a position or office described in paragraphs (a) through (h) of this section has terminated, but who has not yet satisfied the filing requirements of § 2634.201(e).

§ 2634.203 Persons excluded by rule.

(a) In general. Any individual or group of individuals described in § 2634.202(e) (relating to positions of a confidential or policy-making character) may be excluded by rule from the public reporting requirements of this subpart when the Director of the Office of Government Ethics determines, in his sole discretion, that such exclusion would not affect adversely the integrity of the Government or the public's confidence in the integrity of the Government.

(b) Exclusion determination for employees at or below the GS-13 grade level. (1) The determination required by paragraph (a) of this section has been made for any individual who, as a factual matter, serves in a position that meets the criteria set forth in this paragraph. The exclusion applies to a position upon a written determination by the designated agency ethics official that the position meets the following criteria:

(i) The position is paid at the GS-13 grade level or below or, in the case of a position not under the General Schedule, both the level of pay and the nature of responsibilities of the position are commensurate with the GS-13 grade level or below; and

(ii) The incumbent in the position does not have a substantial policy-making role with respect to agency programs.

(2) The designated agency ethics official must consider whether the position meets the standards for filing a confidential financial disclosure report enumerated in § 2634.904(a)(4).

(c) Exclusion determination for employees at or below the GS-15 grade level, but above the GS-13 grade level. The exclusion determination required by paragraph (a) of this section may also be made on a case-by-case basis by the Office of Government Ethics. To receive an exclusion determination, an agency must follow the procedures set forth in paragraph (d) of this section and must demonstrate that the employee:

(1) Has a position that has been established at the GS-14 or GS-15 grade level or, in the case of a position not under the General Schedule, both the level of pay and the nature of responsibilities of the position are commensurate with the GS-14 or GS-15 grade level; and

(2) Has no policy-making role with respect to agency programs. In the event that the Office of Government Ethics permits the requested exclusion, the designated agency ethics official must consider whether the position meets the standards for filing a confidential financial disclosure report enumerated in § 2634.904(a)(4).

(d) Procedure. (1) The exclusion of any individual from reporting requirements pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section will be effective as of the time the employing agency files with the Office of Government Ethics the name of the employee, the name of any incumbent in the position, and a position description. Exclusions should be requested prior to due dates for the reports which such employees would otherwise have to file. If the position description changes in a substantive way, the employing agency must provide the Office of Government Ethics with a revised position description.

(2) If the Office of Government Ethics finds that one or more positions has been improperly excluded, it will advise the agency and set a date for the filing of any report that is due.

Example:An agency requests an exclusion for a special assistant, who is a Schedule C appointee whose position description is classified at the GS-14 level. The position description indicates that the employee's duties involve the analysis of policy options and the presentation of findings and recommendations to superiors. On the basis of this position description, the requested exception is denied.

(e) Exclusion determination for employees in Schedule Policy/Career. The exclusion determination required by paragraph (a) of this section has been made for any individual whose position is in Schedule Policy/Career of the excepted service, unless the employee otherwise meets the definition of “public filer” under § 2634.202 other than solely by virtue of § 2634.202(e). The designated agency ethics official must consider whether the position meets the standards for filing a confidential financial disclosure report enumerated in § 2634.904(a)(4).

[83 FR 33981, July 18, 2018, as amended at 91 FR 46243, July 23, 2026]

§ 2634.204 Employment of sixty days or less.

(a) In general. Any public filer or nominee who, as determined by the official specified in this paragraph, is not reasonably expected to perform the duties of an office or position described in § 2634.201(c) or § 2634.202 for more than 60 days in any calendar year will not be subject to the reporting requirements of § 2634.201(b), (c), or (e). This determination will be made by:

(1) The designated agency ethics official or Secretary concerned, in a case to which the provisions of § 2634.201(b) or (e) (relating to new entrant and termination reports) would otherwise apply; or

(2) The Director of the Office of Government Ethics, in a case to which the provisions of § 2634.201(c) (relating to nominee reports) would otherwise apply.

(b) Alternative reporting. Any new entrant who is exempted from filing a public financial report under paragraph (a) of this section and who is a special Government employee is subject to confidential reporting under § 2634.903(b). See § 2634.904(a)(2).

(c) Exception. If the public filer or nominee actually performs the duties of an office or position referred to in paragraph (a) of this section for more than 60 days in a calendar year, the public report otherwise required by:

(1) Section 2634.201(b) or (c) (relating to new entrant and nominee reports) must be filed within 15 calendar days after the sixtieth day of duty; and

(2) Section 2634.201(e) (relating to termination reports) must be filed as provided in that paragraph.

§ 2634.205 Special waiver of public reporting requirements.

(a) General rule. In unusual circumstances, the Director of the Office of Government Ethics may grant a request for a waiver of the public reporting requirements under this subpart for an individual who is reasonably expected to perform, or has performed, the duties of an office or position for fewer than 130 days in a calendar year, but only if the Director determines that:

(1) The individual is a special Government employee, as defined in 18 U.S.C. 202(a), who performs temporary duties either on a full-time or intermittent basis;

(2) The individual is able to provide services specially needed by the Government;

(3) It is unlikely that the individual's outside employment or financial interests will create a conflict of interest; and

(4) Public financial disclosure by the individual is not necessary under the circumstances.

(b) Procedure. (1) Requests for waivers must be submitted to the Office of Government Ethics, via the requester's agency, within 10 days after an employee learns that the employee will hold a position which requires reporting and that the employee will serve in that position for more than 60 days in any calendar year, or upon serving in such a position for more than 60 days, whichever is earlier.

(2) The request must consist of:

(i) A cover letter which identifies the individual and the position, states the approximate number of days in a calendar year which the employee expects to serve in that position, and requests a waiver of public reporting requirements under this section;

(ii) An enclosure which states the reasons for the individual's belief that the conditions of paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section are met in the particular case; and

(iii) The report otherwise required by this subpart, as a factual basis for the determination required by this section. The report must bear the legend: “CONFIDENTIAL: WAIVER REQUEST PENDING PURSUANT TO 5 CFR 2634.205.”

(3) The agency in which the individual serves must advise the Office of Government Ethics as to the justification for a waiver.

(4) In the event a waiver is granted, the report will not be subject to the public disclosure requirements of § 2634.603; however, the waiver request cover letter will be subject to those requirements. In the event that a waiver is not granted, the confidential legend will be removed from the report, and the report will be subject to public disclosure; however, the waiver request cover letter will not then be subject to public disclosure.

Subpart C Contents of Public Reports
§ 2634.301 Interests in property.

(a) In general. Except reports required under § 2634.201(f), each financial disclosure report filed pursuant to this subpart must include a brief description of any interest in property held by the filer at the end of the reporting period in a trade or business, or for investment or the production of income, having a fair market value in excess of $1,000. The report must designate the category of value of the property in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. Each item of real and personal property must be disclosed separately. Note that for Individual Retirement Accounts (IRAs), defined contribution plans, brokerage accounts, trusts, mutual or pooled investment funds and other entities with portfolio holdings, each underlying asset must be separately disclosed, unless the entity qualifies for special treatment under § 2634.312.

(b) Types of property reportable. Subject to the exceptions in paragraph (c) of this section, examples of the types of property required to be reported include, but are not limited to:

(1) Real estate;

(2) Stocks, bonds, securities, and futures contracts;

(3) Mutual funds, exchange-traded funds, and other pooled investment funds;

(4) Pensions and annuities;

(5) Vested beneficial interests in trusts;

(6) Ownership interests in businesses or partnerships;

(7) Deposits in banks or other financial institutions; and

(8) Accounts receivable.

(c) Exceptions. The following property interests are exempt from the reporting requirements under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section:

(1) Any personal liability owed to the filer, spouse, or dependent child by a spouse, or by a parent, brother, sister, or child of the filer, spouse, or dependent child;

(2) Personal savings accounts (defined as any form of deposit in a bank, savings and loan association, credit union, or similar financial institution) in a single financial institution or holdings in a single money market mutual fund, aggregating $5,000 or less in that institution or fund;

(3) A personal residence of the filer or spouse, as defined in § 2634.105(l); and

(4) Financial interests in any retirement system of the United States (including the Thrift Savings Plan) or under the Social Security Act.

(d) Valuation categories. The valuation categories specified for property items are as follows:

(1) None (or less than $1,001);

(2) $1,001 but not more than $15,000;

(3) Greater than $15,000 but not more than $50,000;

(4) Greater than $50,000 but not more than $100,000;

(5) Greater than $100,000 but not more than $250,000;

(6) Greater than $250,000 but not more than $500,000;

(7) Greater than $500,000 but not more than $1,000,000; and

(8) Greater than $1,000,000;

(9) Provided that, with respect to items held by the filer alone or held jointly by the filer with the filer's spouse and/or dependent children, the following additional categories over $1,000,000 will apply:

(i) Greater than $1,000,000 but not more than $5,000,000;

(ii) Greater than $5,000,000 but not more than $25,000,000;

(iii) Greater than $25,000,000 but not more than $50,000,000; and

(iv) Greater than $50,000,000.

(e) Valuation of interests in property. A good faith estimate of the fair market value of interests in property may be made in any case in which the exact value cannot be obtained without undue hardship or expense to the filer. If a filer is unable to make a good faith estimate of the value of an asset, the filer may indicate on the report that the “value is not readily ascertainable.” Value may also be determined by:

(1) The purchase price (in which case, the filer should indicate date of purchase);

(2) Recent appraisal;

(3) The assessed value for tax purposes (adjusted to reflect the market value of the property used for the assessment if the assessed value is computed at less than 100 percent of that market value);

(4) The year-end book value of nonpublicly traded stock, the year-end exchange value of corporate stock, or the face value of corporate bonds or comparable securities;

(5) The net worth of a business partnership;

(6) The equity value of an individually owned business; or

(7) Any other recognized indication of value (such as the last sale on a stock exchange).

Example 1:An official has a $4,000 savings account in Bank A. The filer's spouse has a $2,500 certificate of deposit issued by Bank B and his dependent daughter has a $200 savings account in Bank C. The official does not have to disclose the deposits, as the total value of the deposits in any one bank does not exceed $5,000.

Example 2:Public filer R has a collection of post-impressionist paintings which have been carefully selected over the years. From time to time, as new paintings have been acquired to add to the collection, R has made sales of both less desirable works from his collection and paintings of various schools which he acquired through inheritance. Under these circumstances, R must report the value of all the paintings he retains as interests in property pursuant to this section, as well as income from the sales of paintings pursuant to § 2634.302(b). Recurrent sales from a collection indicate that the collection is being held for investment or the production of income.

Example 3:A reporting individual has investments which her broker holds as an IRA and invests in stocks, bonds, and mutual funds. Each such asset having a value in excess of $1,000 at the close of the reporting period must be separately listed, and the value must be shown.

§ 2634.302 Income.

(a) Noninvestment income. Except reports required under § 2634.201(f), each financial disclosure report filed pursuant to this subpart must disclose the source, type, and the actual amount or value, of earned or other noninvestment income in excess of $200 from any one source which is received by the filer during the reporting period, including:

(1) Salaries, fees, commissions, wages and any other compensation for personal services (other than from United States Government employment);

(2) Retirement benefits (other than from United States Government employment, including the Thrift Savings Plan, or from Social Security);

(3) Any honoraria, and the date services were provided, including payments made or to be made to charitable organizations on behalf of the filer in lieu of honoraria; and

(4) Any other noninvestment income, such as prizes, awards, or discharge of indebtedness.

Note to paragraph (a)(3):

In calculating the amount of an honorarium, subtract any actual and necessary travel expenses incurred by the recipient and one relative. If such expenses are paid or reimbursed by the honorarium source, they shall not be counted as part of the honorarium payment.

Example 1:An official is a participant in the defined benefit retirement plan of Coastal Airlines. Since his retirement from Coastal Airlines, the filer receives a $5,000 pension payment each month. The pension income must be disclosed as employment-related income.

Example 2:An official serves on the board of directors at a bank, for which he receives a $5,000 fee each calendar quarter. He also receives an annual fee of $15,000 for service as trustee of a private trust. In both instances, such fees received or earned during the reporting period must be disclosed, and the actual amount must be shown.

(b) Investment income. Except as indicated in § 2634.309, each financial disclosure report filed pursuant to this subpart must disclose:

(1) The source and type of investment income, characterized as dividends, rent, interest, capital gains, or income from qualified or excepted trusts or excepted investment funds (see § 2634.312), which is received by the filer during the reporting period, and which exceeds $200 in amount or value from any one source. Examples include, but are not limited to, income derived from real estate, collectible items, stocks, bonds, notes, copyrights, pensions, mutual funds, the investment portion of life insurance contracts, loans, and personal savings accounts (as defined in § 2634.301(c)(2)). Note that for entities with portfolio holdings, such as brokerage accounts or trusts, each underlying source of income must be separately disclosed, unless the entity qualifies for special treatment under § 2634.312. The amount or value of income from each reported source must also be disclosed and categorized in accordance with the following table:

(i) None (or less than $201);

(ii) $201 but not more than $1,000;

(iii) Greater than $1,000 but not more than $2,500;

(iv) Greater than $2,500 but not more than $5,000;

(v) Greater than $5,000 but not more than $15,000;

(vi) Greater than $15,000 but not more than $50,000;

(vii) Greater than $50,000 but not more than $100,000;

(viii) Greater than $100,000 but not more than $1,000,000; and

(ix) Greater than $1,000,000;

(x) Provided that, with respect to investment income of the filer alone or joint investment income of the filer with the filer's spouse and/or dependent children, the following additional categories over $1,000,000 will apply:

(A) Greater than $1,000,000 but not more than $5,000,000; and

(B) Greater than $5,000,000.

(2) The source, type, and the actual amount or value of gross income from a business, distributive share of a partnership, joint business venture income, payments from an estate or an annuity or endowment contract, or any other items of income not otherwise covered by paragraphs (a) or (b)(1) of this section which are received by the filer during the reporting period and which exceed $200 from any one source.

Example 1:An official rents out a portion of his residence. He receives rental income of $6,000 from one individual for four months and $12,000 from another individual for the remaining eight months of the year covered by his incumbent financial disclosure report. He must identify the property, specify the type of income (rent), and indicate the category of the total amount of rent received. (He must also disclose the asset information required by § 2634.301.)

Example 2:An official has an ownership interest in a fast-food restaurant, from which she receives $25,000 in annual income. She must specify on her financial disclosure report the type of income, such as partnership distributive share or gross business income, and indicate the actual amount of such income. (Additionally, she must describe the business and categorize its asset value, pursuant to § 2634.301.)

Example 3:A reporting individual owned stock in XYZ, a publicly-traded corporation. During the reporting period, she received $85 in dividends and, when she sold her shares, $175 in capital gains. The individual must disclose XYZ Corporation because the stock generated more than $200 in income. She also must specify the type of income (dividends and capital gains), and indicate the category of the total amount of income received. (She must also disclose the asset information required by § 2634.301.)

§ 2634.303 Purchases, sales, and exchanges.

(a) In general. Except for reports required under § 2634.201(f) and as indicated in § 2634.310(b), each financial disclosure report filed pursuant to this subpart must include a brief description, the date, and value (using the categories of value in § 2634.301(d)(2) through (9)) of any purchase, sale, or exchange by the filer during the reporting period, in which the amount involved in the transaction exceeds $1,000. The acquisition of an asset through inheritance is not considered a transaction for purposes of this section. Reportable transactions include:

(1) Of real property, other than a personal residence of the filer or spouse, as defined in § 2634.105(l); and

(2) Of stocks, bonds, commodity futures, mutual fund shares, and other forms of securities.

(b) Exceptions. The following transactions need not be reported under paragraph (a) of this section:

(1) Transactions solely by and between the reporting individual, the reporting individual's spouse, or the reporting individual's dependent children;

(2) Transactions involving Treasury bills, notes, and bonds; money market mutual funds or accounts; and bank accounts (as defined in § 2634.301(c)(2)), provided they occur at rates, terms, and conditions available generally to members of the public;

(3) Transactions involving holdings of trusts and investment funds described in § 2634.312(b) and (c);

(4) Transactions which occurred at a time when the reporting individual was not a public financial disclosure filer or was not a Federal Government officer or employee; and

(5) Transactions fully disclosed in any public financial disclosure report filed during the calendar year pursuant to § 2634.309.

Example 1:An employee sells her personal residence in Virginia for $650,000 and purchases a personal residence in the District of Columbia for $800,000. She did not rent out any portion of the Virginia property and does not intend to rent out the property in DC. She need not report the sale of the Virginia residence or the purchase of the DC residence.

Example 2:An official sells his beach home in Maryland for $350,000. Because he has rented it out for one month every summer, it does not qualify as a personal residence. He must disclose the sale under this section and any capital gain over $200 realized on the sale under § 2634.302.

Example 3:An official sells a ranch to his dependent daughter. The official need not report the sale because it is a transaction between the reporting individual and a dependent child; however, any capital gain, except for that portion attributable to a personal residence, is required to be reported under § 2634.302.

Example 4:An official sells an apartment building and realizes a loss of $100,000. He must report the sale of the building if the sale price of the property exceeds $1,000; however, he need not report anything under § 2634.302, as the sale did not result in a capital gain.

Example 5:An official buys shares in an S&P 500 mutual fund worth $12,000 in the 401(k) account that he has with a previous employer. He must disclose the purchase under this section. To make the purchase, he sold $12,000 worth of shares in a money market fund also held in the 401(k). He does not need to disclose the sale of the money market fund shares.

Example 6:An official sells her interest in a private business for $75,000. She must disclose the sale under this section, and she must disclose any capital gain over $200 realized on the sale under § 2634.302.

§ 2634.304 Gifts and reimbursements.

(a) Gifts. Except reports required under § 2634.201(f) and as indicated in § 2634.310(b), each financial disclosure report filed pursuant to this subpart must contain the identity of the source, a brief description, and the value of all gifts aggregating more than $525 in value which are received by the filer during the reporting period from any one source. For in-kind travel-related gifts, include a travel itinerary, dates, and nature of expenses provided.

Note 1 to paragraph (a):

Under the Ethics in Government Act, 5 U.S.C. 13104(a)(2)(A) and (B), the reporting thresholds for gifts, reimbursements, and travel expenses are tied to the dollar amount for the “minimal value” threshold for foreign gifts established by the Foreign Gifts and Decorations Act, 5 U.S.C. 7342(a)(5). The General Services Administration (GSA), in consultation with the Secretary of State, redefines the value every 3 years. As of 2026, the amount was set at $525. In paragraph (d) of this section, the Office of Government Ethics sets the aggregation exception amount and redefines the value every 3 years. As of 2026, the amount was set at $210. The Office of Government Ethics will update this part in 2029 and every three years thereafter to reflect the new amounts.

(b) Reimbursements. Except as indicated in §§ 2634.309 and 2634.310(b), each financial disclosure report filed pursuant to this subpart must contain the identity of the source, a brief description (including a travel itinerary, dates, and the nature of expenses provided), and the value of any travel-related reimbursements aggregating more than $525 in value, which are received by the filer during the reporting period from any one source. The filer is not required to report travel reimbursements received from the filer's non-Federal employer.

(c) Exclusions. Reports need not contain any information about gifts and reimbursements to which the provisions of this section would otherwise apply which are received from relatives (see § 2634.105(o)) or during a period in which the filer was not an officer or employee of the Federal Government. Additionally, any food, lodging, or entertainment received as “personal hospitality of any individual,” as defined in § 2634.105(k), need not be reported. See also exclusions specified in the definitions of gift and reimbursement, at § 2634.105(h) and (n).

(d) Aggregation exception. Any gift or reimbursement with a fair market value of $210 or less need not be aggregated for purposes of the reporting rules of this section. However, the acceptance of gifts, whether or not reportable, is subject to the restrictions imposed by Executive Order 12674, as modified by Executive Order 12731, and the implementing regulations on standards of ethical conduct.

Example 1: An official accepts a print, a pen and pencil set, and a letter opener from a community service organization he has worked with solely in his private capacity. He determines, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, that these gifts are valued as follows: Gift 1—Print: $310; Gift 2—Pen and pencil set: $225; Gift 3—Letter opener: $20. The official must disclose Gifts 1 and 2, since together they aggregate more than $525 in value from the same source. Gift 3 need not be aggregated, because its value does not exceed $210.

Example 2: An official receives the following gifts from a single source: 1. Dinner for two at a local restaurant—$200. 2. Round-trip taxi fare to meet donor at the restaurant—$25. 3. Dinner at donor's city residence—(value uncertain). 4. Round-trip airline transportation and hotel accommodations to visit Epcot Center in Florida—$600. 5. Weekend at donor's country home, including duck hunting and tennis match—(value uncertain). Based on the minimal value threshold established as of 2026, the official need only disclose Gift 4. Gift 1 falls within the exclusion in § 2634.105(h)(4) for food and beverages not consumed in connection with a gift of overnight lodging. Gifts 3 and 5 need not be disclosed because they fall within the exception for personal hospitality of an individual. Gift 2 need not be aggregated and reported, because its value does not exceed $210.

Example 3: A non-Federal organization asks an official to speak at an out-of-town meeting on a matter that is unrelated to her official duties and her agency. She accepts the invitation and travels on her own time to the event. The round-trip airfare costs $600. Based on the minimal value threshold established as of 2026, the official must disclose the value of the plane ticket whether the organization pays for the ticket directly or reimburses her for her purchase of the ticket.

(e) Valuation of gifts and reimbursements. The value to be assigned to a gift or reimbursement is its fair market value in the United States. For most reimbursements, this will be the amount actually received. For gifts, the value should be determined in one of the following manners:

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(4) of this section, if the gift is readily available in the market, the value is its retail price. The filer need not contact the donor, but may contact a retail establishment selling similar items to determine the present cost in the market.

(2) If the item is not readily available in the market, such as a piece of art, a handmade item, or an antique, the filer may make a good faith estimate of the value of the item.

(3) The term “readily available in the market” means that an item generally is available for retail purchase.

(4) The market value of a ticket entitling the holder to attend an event which includes food, refreshments, entertainment, or other benefits is the face value of the ticket, which may exceed the actual cost of the food and other benefits.

Example 1 to paragraph (e):Items such as a pen and pencil set, letter opener, leather case, or engraved pen are generally available in the market and can be determined by researching the retail price for each item online.

(f) Waiver rule in the case of certain gifts. In unusual cases, the value of a gift as defined in § 2634.105(h) need not be aggregated for reporting threshold purposes under this section, and therefore the gift need not be reported on a public financial disclosure report, if the Director of the Office of Government Ethics grants a publicly available waiver to a public filer.

(1) Standard. If the Director receives a written request for a waiver, the Director will issue a waiver upon determining that:

(i) Both the basis of the relationship between the grantor and the grantee and the motivation behind the gift are personal; and

(ii) No countervailing public purpose requires public disclosure of the nature, source, and value of the gift.

Example 1 to paragraph (f)(1):The Secretary of Education and her spouse receive the following two wedding gifts: (A) A crystal decanter valued at $540 from the Secretary's former college roommate and lifelong friend, who is a real estate broker in Wyoming; and (B) A gift of a print valued at $500 from a business partner of the spouse, who owns a catering company. Under these circumstances, the Director of OGE may grant a request for a waiver of the requirement to report on a public financial disclosure report each of these gifts.

(2) Public disclosure of waiver request. If approved in whole or in part, the cover letter requesting the waiver and the waiver will be subject to the public disclosure requirements in § 2634.603. Enclosures to the cover letter, required by paragraph (3)(ii) of this section, are not covered by § 2634.603.

(3) Procedure. (i) A public filer seeking a waiver under this section must submit a request to the designated agency ethics official for the employee's agency. The designated agency ethics official must sign a cover letter that identifies the filer and the filer's position and states that a waiver is requested under this section. To the extent practicable, the designated agency ethics official should avoid including other personal identifying information about the employee in the cover letter.

(ii) In an enclosure to the cover letter, the filer must set forth:

(A) The identity and occupation of the donor;

(B) A statement that the relationship between the donor and the filer is personal in nature;

(C) An explanation of all relevant circumstances surrounding the gift, including whether any donor is a prohibited source, as defined in § 2635.203(d), or represents a prohibited source and whether the gift was given because of the employee's official position; and

(D) A brief description of the gift and the value of the gift.

(iii) With respect to the information required in paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section, if a gift has more than one donor, the filer shall provide the necessary information for each donor.

(iv) The Director will approve or disapprove any request for a waiver in writing. In the event that a waiver is granted, the Director will avoid including personal information about the filer to the extent practicable.

[83 FR 33981, July 18, 2018, as amended at 85 FR 36716, June 18, 2020; 88 FR 37754, June 9, 2023; 91 FR 67766, Oct. 28, 2026]

§ 2634.305 Liabilities.

(a) In general. Except reports required under § 2634.201(f), each financial disclosure report filed pursuant to this subpart must identify and include a brief description of the filer's liabilities exceeding $10,000 owed to any creditor at any time during the reporting period, and the name of the creditors to whom such liabilities are owed. The report also must designate the category of value of the liabilities in accordance with § 2634.301(d) based on the greatest amount owed to the creditor during the period, except that the amount of a revolving charge account is based on the balance at the end of the reporting period.

(b) Exceptions. The following are not required to be reported under paragraph (a) of this section:

(1) Personal liabilities owed to a spouse or to the parent, brother, sister, or child of the filer, spouse, or dependent child; and

(2) Any loan secured by a personal motor vehicle, household furniture, or appliances, provided that the loan does not exceed the purchase price of the item which secures it; and

(c) Limited exception for mortgages on personal residences. (1) The President, the Vice President, and a filer nominated for or appointed by the President to a position that requires the advice and consent of the Senate, other than those identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, must disclose a mortgage on a personal residence.

(2) Other public filers are not required to disclose a mortgage on a personal residence. Such filers include individuals who are nominated or appointed by the President to a Senate-confirmed position as a Foreign Service Officer below the rank of ambassador or a special Government employee.

Example 1: A career official in the Senior Executive Service has the following debts outstanding during the reporting period:

1. Mortgage on personal residence—$200,000.

2. Mortgage on rental property—$150,000.

3. VISA Card—$1,000.

4. Loan balance of $15,000, secured by family automobile purchased for $16,200.

5. Loan balance of $10,500, secured by antique furniture purchased for $8,000.

6. Loan from parents—$20,000.

7. A personal line of credit up to $20,000 on which no draws have been made.

The loans indicated in items 2 and 5 must be disclosed in the official's annual financial disclosure report. Loan 1 is exempt from disclosure under paragraph (c) of this section because it is secured by the personal residence and the filer is not covered by the STOCK Act provision requiring reporting. Loan 3 need not be disclosed under paragraph (a) of this section because it is considered to be a revolving charge account with an outstanding liability that does not exceed $10,000 at the end of the reporting period. Loan 4 need not be disclosed under paragraph (b)(2) of this section because it is secured by a personal motor vehicle which was purchased for more than the value of the loan. Loan 6 need not be disclosed because the creditors are persons specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. Loan 7 need not be disclosed because the filer has not drawn on the line of credit and, as a result, had no outstanding liability associated with the line of credit during the reporting period.

Example 2:An incumbent official has $15,000 of outstanding debt in an American Express account in July. On December 31, the outstanding liability is $7,000. The liability does not need to be disclosed in the official's annual financial disclosure report because it does not exceed $10,000 at the end of the reporting period.

Example 3:A Secretary of a Department has an outstanding home improvement loan in the amount of $25,000, which is secured by her home. This liability must be disclosed on the annual financial disclosure report.

§ 2634.306 Agreements and arrangements.

Except reports required under § 2634.201(f), each financial disclosure report filed pursuant to this subpart must identify the parties to and the date of, and must briefly describe the terms of, any agreement or arrangement of the filer in existence at any time during the reporting period with respect to:

(a) Future employment;

(b) A leave of absence from employment during the period of the reporting individual's Government service;

(c) Continuation of payments by a former employer other than the United States Government; and

(d) Continuing participation in an employee welfare or benefit plan maintained by a former employer, other than the United States Government.

§ 2634.307 Outside positions.

(a) In general. Except reports required under § 2634.201(f), each financial disclosure report filed pursuant to this subpart must identify all positions held at any time by the filer during the reporting period, as an officer, director, trustee, general partner, proprietor, representative, executor, employee, or consultant of any corporation, company, firm, partnership, trust, or other business enterprise, any nonprofit organization, any labor organization, or any educational or other institution other than the United States.

(b) Exceptions. The following need not be reported under paragraph (a) of this section:

(1) Positions held in any religious, social, fraternal, or political entity; and

(2) Positions solely of an honorary nature, such as those with an emeritus designation.

Example 1:An official recently terminated her role as the managing member of a limited liability corporation upon appointment to a position in the executive branch. The managing member position must be disclosed in the official's new entrant financial disclosure report pursuant to this section.

Example 2:An official is a member of the board of his church. The official does not need to disclose the position in his financial disclosure report.

Example 3:An official is an officer in a fraternal organization that exists for the purpose of performing service work in the community. The official does not need to disclose this position in her financial disclosure report.

Example 4:An official is the ceremonial Parade Marshal for a local town's annual Founders' Day event and, in that capacity, leads a parade and serves as Master of Ceremonies for an awards ceremony at the town hall. The official does not need to disclose this position in her financial disclosure report.

Example 5:An official recently terminated his role as a campaign manager for a candidate for the Office of the President of the United States upon appointment to a noncareer position in the executive branch. The official does not need to disclose the campaign manager position in his financial disclosure report.

Example 6:Immediately prior to her recent appointment to a position in an agency, an official terminated her employment as a corporate officer. In connection with her employment, she served for several years as the corporation's representative to an association that represents members of the industry in which the corporation operates. She does not need to disclose her role as her employer's representative to the association because she performed her representative duties in her capacity as a corporate officer.

Example 7:An official holds a position on the board of directors of the local food bank. The official must disclose the position in his financial disclosure report.

§ 2634.308 Filer's sources of compensation exceeding $5,000 in a year

(a) In general. A public filer required to file a report as a New Entrant or a Nominee, pursuant to § 2634.201(b) or (c), must identify the filer's sources of compensation which exceed $5,000 in any one calendar year. This requirement includes compensation paid to another person, such as an employer, in exchange for the filer's services (e.g., payments to a law firm exceeding $5,000 in any one calendar year in exchange for the services of a partner or associate attorney). The filer must also briefly describe the nature of the duties performed or services rendered (e.g., “legal services”).

(b) Exceptions. (1) The name of a source of compensation may be excluded only if that information is specifically determined to be confidential as a result of a privileged relationship established by law and if the disclosure is specifically prohibited by law or regulation, by a rule of a professional licensing organization, or by a client agreement that at the time of engagement of the filer's services expressly provided that the client's name would not be disclosed publicly to any person. If the filer excludes the name of any source, the filer must indicate in the report that such information has been excluded, the number of sources excluded, and, if applicable, a citation to the statute, regulation, rule of professional conduct, or other authority pursuant to which disclosure of the information is specifically prohibited.

(2) The report need not contain any information with respect to any person for whom services were provided by any firm or association of which the filer was a member, partner, or employee, unless the filer was directly involved in the provision of such services.

(3) The President, the Vice President, and a candidate referred to in § 2634.201(d) are not required to report this information.

Example:A nominee who is a partner or employee of a law firm and who has worked on a matter involving a client from which the firm received over $5,000 in fees during a calendar year must report the name of the client only if the value of the services rendered by the nominee exceeded $5,000. The name of the client would not normally be considered confidential, unless the matter potentially involved an investigation or enforcement action involving the client by the government and the client's name has never been disclosed publicly in connection with the representation. As a result, the nominee must disclose the client's identity unless it is protected by statute, a court order, is under seal, or is considered confidential because: (1) The client is the subject of a non-public proceeding or investigation and the client has not been identified in a public filing, statement, appearance, or official report; (2) disclosure of the client's name is specifically prohibited by a rule of professional conduct that can be enforced by a professional licensing body; or (3) a privileged relationship was established by a written confidentiality agreement, entered into at the time that the filer's services were retained, that expressly prohibits disclosure of the client's identity.

§ 2634.309 Periodic reporting of transactions.

(a) In general. Each financial disclosure report filed pursuant to § 2634.201(f) must include a brief description, the date, and value (using the categories of value in § 2634.301(d)(2) through (9)) of any purchase, sale, or exchange of stocks, bonds, commodity futures, and other forms of securities by the filer during the reporting period, in which the amount involved in the transaction exceeds $1,000.

(b) Exceptions. The following transactions need not be reported under paragraph (a) of this section:

(1) Transactions solely by and between the reporting individual, the reporting individual's spouse, or the reporting individual's dependent children;

(2) Transactions of excepted investment funds as defined in § 2634.312(c);

(3) Transactions involving Treasury bills, notes, and bonds; money market mutual funds or accounts; and bank accounts (as defined in § 2634.301(c)(2)), provided they occur at rates, terms, and conditions available generally to members of the public;

(4) Transactions involving holdings of trusts and investment funds described in § 2634.312(b) and (c); and

(5) Transactions which occurred at a time when the reporting individual was not a public financial disclosure filer or was not a Federal Government officer or employee.

§ 2634.310 Reporting periods.

(a) Incumbents. Each financial disclosure report filed pursuant to § 2634.201(a) must include a full and complete statement of the information required to be reported under this subpart, for the preceding calendar year (except for §§ 2634.303 and 2634.304, relating to transactions and gifts/reimbursements, for which the reporting period does not include any portion of the previous calendar year during which the filer was not a Federal employee). In the case of §§ 2634.306 and 2634.307, the reporting period also includes the current calendar year up to the date of filing.

(b) New entrants, nominees, and candidates. Each financial disclosure report filed pursuant to § 2634.201(b) through (d) must include a full and complete statement of the information required to be reported under this subpart, except for § 2634.303 (relating to purchases, sales, and exchanges of certain property) and § 2634.304 (relating to gifts and reimbursements). The following special rules apply:

(1) Interests in property. For purposes of § 2634.301, the report must include all interests in property specified by that section which are held on or after a date which is fewer than 31 days before the date on which the report is filed.

(2) Income. For purposes of § 2634.302, the report must include all income items specified by that section which are received during the period beginning on January 1 of the preceding calendar year and ending on the date on which the report is filed, except as otherwise provided by § 2634.606 relating to updated disclosure for nominees.

(3) Liabilities. For purposes of § 2634.305, the report must include all liabilities specified by that section which are owed during the period beginning on January 1 of the preceding calendar year and ending fewer than 31 days before the date on which the report is filed.

(4) Agreements and arrangements. For purposes of § 2634.306, the report will include only those agreements and arrangements which still exist at the time of filing.

(5) Outside positions. For purposes of § 2634.307, the report must include all such positions held during the preceding two calendar years and the current calendar year up to the date of filing.

(6) Certain sources of compensation. For purposes of § 2634.308, the report must also identify the filer's sources of compensation which exceed $5,000 during either of the preceding two calendar years or during the current calendar year up to the date of filing.

(c) Termination reports. Each financial disclosure report filed under § 2634.201(e) must include a full and complete statement of the information required to be reported under this subpart, covering the preceding calendar year if an incumbent report required by § 2634.201(a) has not been filed and covering the portion of the calendar year in which such termination occurs up to the date the individual left such office or position.

(d) Periodic reporting of transactions. Each financial disclosure report filed under § 2634.201(f) must include a full and complete statement of the information required to be reported according to the provisions of § 2634.309. The report must be filed within 30 days of receiving notification of a covered transaction, but not later than 45 days after the date such transaction was executed.

Example:A filer receives a statement on October 10 notifying her of all of the covered transactions executed by her broker on her behalf in September. Although each transaction may have a different due date, if the filer reports all the covered transactions from September on a report filed on or before October 15, the filer will ensure that all transactions have been timely reported.

§ 2634.311 Spouses and dependent children.

(a) Special disclosure rules. Each report required by the provisions of subpart B of this part must also include the following information with respect to the spouse or dependent children of the reporting individual:

(1) Income. For purposes of § 2634.302:

(i) With respect to a spouse, the source but not the amount of earned income (other than honoraria) which exceeds $1,000 from any one source; and if earned income is derived from a spouse's self-employment in a business or profession, the nature of the business or profession but not the amount of the earned income;

(ii) With respect to a spouse, the source and the actual amount or value of any honoraria received by the spouse (or payments made or to be made to charity on the spouse's behalf in lieu of honoraria) which exceed $200 from any one source, and the date on which the services were provided; and

(iii) With respect to a spouse or dependent child, the type and source, and the amount or value (category or actual amount, in accordance with § 2634.302), of all other income exceeding $200 from any one source, such as investment income from interests in property (if the property itself is reportable according to § 2634.301).

Example 1:The spouse of a filer is employed as a teller at Bank X and earns $50,000 per year. The report must disclose that the spouse is employed by Bank X. The amount of the spouse's earnings need not be disclosed.

Example 2:The spouse of a reporting individual is self-employed as a pediatrician. The report must disclose her self-employment as a physician, but need not disclose the amount of income.

(2) Gifts and reimbursements. For purposes of § 2634.304, gifts and reimbursements received by a spouse or dependent child, unless the gift was given to the spouse or dependent child totally independent of their relationship to the filer.

(3) Interests in property, transactions, and liabilities. For purposes of §§ 2634.301, 2634.303, 2634.305, and 2634.309, all information concerning property interests, transactions, or liabilities referred to by those sections of a spouse or dependent child.

(b) Exception. For reports filed as a new entrant, nominee, or candidate under § 2634.201(b) through (d), no information regarding gifts and reimbursements or transactions is required for a spouse or dependent child.

(c) Divorce and separation. A reporting individual need not report any information about:

(1) A spouse living separate and apart from the reporting individual with the intention of terminating the marriage or providing for permanent separation;

(2) A former spouse or a spouse from whom the reporting individual is permanently separated; or

(3) Any income or obligations of the reporting individual arising from dissolution of the reporting individual's marriage or permanent separation from a spouse.

(d) Unusual circumstances. In very rare cases, certain interests in property, transactions, and liabilities of a spouse or a dependent child are excluded from reporting requirements, provided that each requirement of this paragraph is strictly met.

(1) The filer must certify without qualification that the item represents the spouse's or dependent child's sole financial interest or responsibility, and that the filer has no knowledge regarding that item;

(2) The item must not be in any way, past or present, derived from the income, assets or activities of the filer; and

(3) The filer must not derive, or expect to derive, any financial or economic benefit from the item.

Note to paragraph (d):

The exception described in paragraph (d) is not available to most filers. A filer who files a joint tax return with a spouse will normally be deemed to derive a financial or economic benefit from every financial interest of the spouse, and the filer will not be able to rely on this exception. If a filer and the filer's spouse cohabitate, share any expenses, or are jointly responsible for the care of children, the filer will be deemed to derive an economic benefit from every financial interest of the spouse.

Example:The spouse of a filer shares in paying expenses or taxes of the marriage or family (for example, any such item as: A household item, food, clothing, vacation, automobile maintenance or fuel, any child-related expense, income tax, or real estate tax, etc.). The spouse of a filer has a brokerage account. The spouse does not share any information about the holdings and does not want the information disclosed on a financial disclosure statement. The filer must disclose the holdings in the spouse's brokerage account because the filer is deemed to derive a financial or economic benefit from any asset of the filer's spouse who shares in paying expenses or taxes of the marriage or family.

§ 2634.312 Trusts, estates, and investment funds.

(a) In general. (1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, each financial disclosure report must include the information required by this subpart about the holdings of and income from the holdings of any trust, estate, investment fund or other financial arrangement from which income is received by, or with respect to which a beneficial interest in principal or income is held by, the filer, the filer's spouse, or dependent child.

(2) Information about the underlying holdings of a trust is required if the filer, filer's spouse, or dependent child currently is entitled to receive income from the trust or is entitled to access the principal of the trust. If a filer, filer's spouse, or dependent child has a beneficial interest in a trust that either will provide income or the ability to access the principal in the future, the filer should determine whether there is a vested interest in the trust under controlling state law. However, no information about the underlying holdings of the trust is required for a nonvested beneficial interest in the principal or income of a trust.

Note to paragraph (a):

Nothing in this section requires the reporting of the holdings or income of a revocable inter vivos trust (also known as a “living trust”) with respect to which the filer, the filer's spouse, or dependent child has only a remainder interest, whether or not vested, provided that the grantor of the trust is neither the filer, the filer's spouse, nor the filer's dependent child. Furthermore, nothing in this section requires the reporting of the holdings or income of a revocable inter vivos trust from which the filer, the filer's spouse, or dependent child receives any discretionary distribution, provided that the grantor of the trust is neither the filer, the filer's spouse, nor the filer's dependent child.

(b) Qualified trusts and excepted trusts. (1) A filer should not report information about the holdings of or income from holdings of, any qualified blind trust (as defined in § 2634.402) or any qualified diversified trust (as defined in § 2634.402). For a qualified blind trust, a public financial disclosure report must disclose the category of the aggregate amount of the trust's income attributable to the beneficial interest of the filer, the filer's spouse, or dependent child in the trust. For a qualified diversified trust, a public financial disclosure report must disclose the category of the aggregate amount of income with respect to such a trust which is actually received by the filer, the filer's spouse, or dependent child, or applied for the benefit of any of them.

(2) In the case of an excepted trust, a filer should indicate the general nature of its holdings, to the extent known, but will not otherwise need to report information about the trust's holdings or income from holdings. The category of the aggregate amount of income from an excepted trust which is received by the filer, the filer's spouse, or dependent child must be reported on public financial disclosure reports. For purposes of this part, the term “excepted trust” means a trust:

(i) Which was not created directly by the filer, spouse, or dependent child; and

(ii) The holdings or sources of income of which the filer, spouse, or dependent child have no specific knowledge through a report, disclosure, or constructive receipt, whether intended or inadvertent.

(c) Excepted investment funds. (1) No information is required under paragraph (a) of this section about the underlying holdings of or income from underlying holdings of an excepted investment fund as defined in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, except that the fund itself must be identified as an interest in property and/or a source of income. Filers must also disclose the category of value of the fund interest held; aggregate amount of income from the fund which is received by the filer, the filer's spouse, or dependent child; and value of any transactions involving shares or units of the fund.

(2) For purposes of financial disclosure reports filed under the provisions of this part, an “excepted investment fund” means a widely held investment fund (whether a mutual fund, regulated investment company, common trust fund maintained by a bank or similar financial institution, pension or deferred compensation plan, or any other pooled investment fund), if:

(i)(A) The fund is publicly traded or available; or

(B) The assets of the fund are widely diversified; and

(ii) The filer neither exercises control over nor has the ability to exercise control over the financial interests held by the fund.

(3) A fund is widely diversified if it does not have a stated policy of concentrating its investments in any industry, business, or single country other than the United States or bonds of a single state within the United States.

Note to paragraph (c):

The fact that an investment fund qualifies as an excepted investment fund is not relevant to a determination as to whether the investment qualifies for an exemption to the criminal conflict of interest statute at 18 U.S.C. 208(a), pursuant to part 2640 of this chapter. Some excepted investment funds qualify for exemptions pursuant to part 2640, while other excepted investment funds do not qualify for such exemptions. If an employee holds an excepted investment fund that is not exempt from 18 U.S.C. 208(a), the ethics official may need additional information from the filer to determine if the holdings of the fund create a conflict of interest and should advise the employee to monitor the fund's holdings for potential conflicts of interest.

§ 2634.313 Special rules.

(a) Political campaign funds. Political campaign funds, including campaign receipts and expenditures, need not be included in any report filed under this part. However, if the individual has authority to exercise control over the fund's assets for personal use rather than campaign or political purposes, that portion of the fund over which such authority exists must be reported.

(b) Reporting standards. (1) A filer may attach to the financial disclosure report, a copy of a statement which, in a clear and concise fashion, readily discloses all information that the filer would otherwise have been required to enter, but only if authorized by the designated agency ethics official or for reports that are reviewed by the Office of Government Ethics, the Director. The filer must annotate the report clearly to the extent necessary to identify information required by this part, including, when required, the identification of assets as excepted investment funds and the identification of income types. In addition, the statement must identify all income required to be disclosed for the entire reporting period. Any statement attached to a financial disclosure report and its contents may be subject to public release. A filer who attaches a statement to a reporting form is solely responsible for redacting personal information not otherwise subject to disclosure prior to filing the financial disclosure report (e.g., account numbers, addresses, etc.).

(2) In lieu of reporting the category of amount or value of any item listed in any report filed pursuant to this subpart, a filer may report the actual dollar amount of such item.

Subpart D Qualified Trusts
§ 2634.401 Overview.

(a) Purpose. The Ethics in Government Act of 1978 created two types of qualified trusts, the qualified blind trust and the qualified diversified trust, that may be used by employees to reduce real or apparent conflicts of interest. The primary purpose of an executive branch qualified trust is to confer on an independent trustee and any other designated fiduciary the sole responsibility to administer the trust and to manage trust assets without participation by, or the knowledge of, any interested party or any representative of an interested party. This responsibility includes the duty to decide when and to what extent the original assets of the trust are to be sold or disposed of, and in what investments the proceeds of sale are to be reinvested. Because the requirements set forth in the Ethics in Government Act and this part assure true “blindness,” employees who have a qualified trust cannot be influenced in the performance of their official duties by their financial interests in the trust assets. Their official actions, under these circumstances, should be free from collateral attack arising out of real or apparent conflicts of interest.

(b) Scope. Two characteristics of the qualified trust assure that true “blindness” exists: The independence of the trustee and the restriction on communications between the independent trustee and the interested parties. In order to serve as a trustee for an executive branch qualified trust, an entity must meet the strict requirements for independence set forth in the Ethics in Government Act and this part. Restrictions on communications also reinforce the independence of the trustee from the interested parties. During both the establishment of the trust and the administration of the trust, communications are limited to certain reports that are required by the Act and to written communications that are pre-screened by the Office of Government Ethics. No other communications, even about matters not connected to the trust, are permitted between the independent trustee and the interested parties.

§ 2634.402 Definitions.

As used in this subpart:

(a) Director means the Director of the Office of Government Ethics.

(b) Employee means an officer or employee of the executive branch of the United States.

(c) Independent trustee means a trustee who meets the requirements of § 2634.405 and who is approved by the Director under this subpart.

(d) Interested party means the President, the Vice President, an employee, a nominee or candidate as described in § 2634.201, and the spouse and any minor or dependent child of the President, Vice President, employee, or a nominee or candidate as described in § 2634.201, in any case in which the employee, spouse, or minor or dependent child has a beneficial interest in the principal or income of a trust proposed for certification under this subpart or certified under this subpart.

(e) Qualified blind trust means a trust in which the interested party has a beneficial interest and which:

(1) Is certified pursuant to § 2634.407 by the Director;

(2) Has a portfolio as specified in § 2634.406(a);

(3) Follows the model trust document prepared by the Office of Government Ethics; and

(4) Has an independent trustee as defined in § 2634.405.

(f) Qualified diversified trust means a trust in which the interested party has a beneficial interest and which:

(1) Is certified pursuant to § 2634.407 by the Director;

(2) Has a portfolio as specified in § 2634.406(b);

(3) Follows the model trust document prepared by the Office of Government Ethics; and

(4) Has an independent trustee as defined in § 2634.405.

(g) Qualified trust means a trust described in the Ethics in Government Act of 1978 and this part and certified by the Director under this subpart. There are two types of qualified trusts, the qualified blind trust and the qualified diversified trust.

§ 2634.403 General description of trusts.

(a) Qualified blind trust. (1) The qualified blind trust is the most universally adaptable qualified trust. An interested party may put most types of assets (such as cash, stocks, bonds, mutual funds, or real estate) into a qualified blind trust.

(2) In the case of a qualified blind trust, 18 U.S.C. 208 and other Federal conflict of interest statutes and regulations apply to the assets that an interested party transfers to the trust until such time as he or she is notified by the independent trustee that such asset has been disposed of or has a value of less than $1,000. Because the interested party knows what assets he or she placed in the trust and there is no requirement that these assets be diversified, the possibility still exists that the interested party could be influenced in the performance of official duties by those interests.

(b) Qualified diversified trust. (1) An interested party may put only readily marketable securities into a qualified diversified trust. In addition, the portfolio must meet the diversification requirements of § 2634.406(b)(2).

(2) In the case of a qualified diversified trust, the conflict of interest laws do not apply to the assets that an interested party transfers to the trust. Because the assets that an interested party puts into this trust must meet the diversification requirements set forth in this part, the diversification achieves “blindness” with regard to the initial assets.

(3) Special notice for Presidential appointees—(i) In general. In any case in which the establishment of a qualified diversified trust is contemplated with respect to an individual whose nomination is being considered by a Senate committee, that individual must inform the committee of the intention to establish a qualified diversified trust at the time of filing a financial disclosure report with the committee.

(ii) Applicability. Paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section is not applicable to members of the uniformed services or Foreign Service officers. The special notice requirement of this section will not preclude an individual from seeking the certification of a qualified blind trust or qualified diversified trust after the Senate has given its advice and consent to a nomination.

(c) Conflict of interest laws. In the case of each type of trust, the conflict of interest laws do not apply to the assets that the independent trustee or any other designated fiduciary adds to the trust.

§ 2634.404 Summary of procedures for creation of a qualified trust.

(a) Consultation with the Office of Government Ethics. Any interested party (or that party's representative) who is considering setting up a qualified blind or qualified diversified trust must contact the Office of Government Ethics prior to beginning the process of creating the trust. The Office of Government Ethics is the only entity that has the authority to certify a qualified trust. Because an interested party must propose, for the approval of the Office of Government Ethics, an entity to serve as the independent trustee, the Office of Government Ethics will explain the requirements that an entity must meet in order to qualify as an independent trustee. Such information is essential in order for the interested party to interview entities for the position of independent trustee. The Office of Government Ethics will also explain the restrictions on the communications between the interested parties and the proposed trustee.

(b) Selecting an independent trustee. After consulting with the Office of Government Ethics, the interested party may interview entities who meet the requirements of § 2634.405(a) in order to find one to serve as an independent trustee. At an interview, the interested party may ask general questions about the institution, such as how long it has been in business, its policies and philosophy in managing assets, the types of clients it serves, its prior performance record, and the qualifications of the personnel who would be handling the trust. Because the purpose of a qualified trust is to give an independent trustee the sole responsibility to manage the trust assets without the interested party having any knowledge of the identity of the assets in the trust, the interested party may communicate his or her general financial interests and needs to any institution which he or she interviews. For example, the interested party may communicate a preference for maximizing income or long-term capital gain or for balancing safety of capital with growth. The interested party may not give more specific instructions to the proposed trustee, such as instructing it to maintain a specific allocation between stocks and bonds, or choosing stocks in a particular industry.

(c) The proposed independent trustee. (1) The entity selected by an interested party as a possible trustee must contact the Office of Government Ethics to receive guidance on the qualified trust program. The Office of Government Ethics will ask the proposed trustee to submit a letter describing its past and current contacts, including banking and client relationships, with the interested party, spouse, and minor or dependent children. The extent of these contacts will determine whether the proposed trustee is independent under the Act and this part.

(2) In addition, an interested party may select an investment manager or other fiduciary. Other proposed fiduciaries selected by an interested party, such as an investment manager, must meet the independence requirements.

(d) Approval of the independent trustee. If the Director determines that the proposed trustee meets the requirements of independence, the Director will approve, in writing, that entity as the trustee for the qualified trust.

(e) Confidentiality agreement. If any person other than the independent trustee or designated fiduciary has access to information that may not be shared with an interested party or that party's representative, that person must file a Confidentiality Agreement with the Office of Government Ethics. Persons filing a Confidentiality Agreement must certify that they will not make prohibited contacts with an interested party or that party's representative.

(f) Drafting the trust instrument. The representative of the interested party will use the model documents provided by the Office of Government Ethics to draft the trust instrument. There are two annexes to the model trust document: An annex describing any current, permissible banking or client relationships between any interested parties and the independent trustee or other fiduciaries and an annex listing the initial assets that the interested party transfers to the trust. Any deviations from the model trust documents must be approved by the Director.

(g) Certification of the trust. The representative then presents the unexecuted trust instrument to the Office of Government Ethics for review. If the Director finds that the instrument conforms to one of the model documents, the Director will certify the qualified trust. After certification, the interested party and the independent trustee will sign the trust instrument. They will submit a copy of the executed instrument to the Office of Government Ethics within 30 days of execution. The interested party will then transfer the assets to the trust.

Note to paragraph (g):

Existing qualified trusts approved under any State law or by the legislative or judicial branches of the Federal Government of the United States will not be recertified by the Director. Individuals with existing qualified trusts who are required to file a financial disclosure report upon entering the executive branch, becoming a nominee for a position appointed by the President and subject to confirmation by the Senate, or becoming a candidate for President or Vice President must file a complete financial disclosure form that includes a full disclosure of items in the trust. After filing a complete form, the individual may establish a qualified trust under the policies and provisions of this rule.

§ 2634.405 Standards for becoming an independent trustee or other fiduciary.

(a) Eligible entities. An interested party must select an entity that meets the requirements of this part to serve as an independent trustee or other fiduciary. The type of entity that is allowed to serve as an independent trustee is a financial institution, not more than 10 percent of which is owned or controlled by a single individual, which is:

(1) A bank, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1841(c); or

(2) An investment adviser, as defined in 15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)(11).

Note to paragraph (a):

By the terms of paragraph (3)(A)(i) of section 102(f) of the Act, an individual who is an attorney, a certified public accountant, a broker, or an investment advisor is also eligible to serve as an independent trustee. However, experience of the Office of Government Ethics over the years dictates the necessity of limiting service as a trustee or other fiduciary to the financial institutions referred to in this paragraph, to maintain effective administration of trust arrangements and preserve confidence in the Federal qualified trust program. Accordingly, under its authority pursuant to paragraph (3)(D) of section 102(f) of the Act, the Office of Government Ethics will not approve proposed trustees or other fiduciaries who are not financial institutions, except in unusual cases where compelling necessity is demonstrated to the Director, in his or her sole discretion.

(b) Orientation. After the interested party selects a proposed trustee, that proposed trustee should contact the Office of Government Ethics for an orientation about the qualified trust program.

(c) Independence requirements. The Director will determine that a proposed trustee is independent if:

(1) The entity is independent of and unassociated with any interested party so that it cannot be controlled or influenced in the administration of the trust by any interested party;

(2) The entity is not and has not been affiliated with any interested party, and is not a partner of, or involved in any joint venture or other investment or business with, any interested party; and

(3) Any director, officer, or employee of such entity:

(i) Is independent of and unassociated with any interested party so that such director, officer, or employee cannot be controlled or influenced in the administration of the trust by any interested party;

(ii) Is not and has not been employed by any interested party, not served as a director, officer, or employee of any organization affiliated with any interested party, and is not and has not been a partner of, or involved in any joint venture or other investment with, any interested party; and

(iii) Is not a relative of any interested party.

(d) Required documents. In order to make this determination, the proposed trustee must submit the following documentation to the Director:

(1) A letter describing its past and current contacts, including banking and client relationships, with the interested party, spouse, or minor or dependent child; and

(2) A Certificate of Independence, which follows the model Certificate of Independence prepared by the Office of Government Ethics. Any variation from the model document must be approved by the Director.

(e) Determination. If the Director determines that the current relationships, if any, between the interested party and the independent trustee do not violate the independence requirements, these relationships will be disclosed in an annex to the trust instrument. No additional relationships with the independent trustee may be established unless they are approved by the Director.

(f) Approval of the trustee. If the Director determines that the proposed trustee meets applicable requirements, the Office of Government Ethics will send the interested parties and their representatives a letter indicating its approval of a proposed trustee.

(g) Revocation. The Director may revoke the approval of a trustee or any other designated fiduciary pursuant to the rules of subpart E of this part.

(h) Adding fiduciaries. An independent trustee may employ or consult other entities, such as investment counsel, investment advisers, accountants, and tax preparers, to assist in any capacity to administer the trust or to manage and control the trust assets, if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) When any interested party or any representative of an interested party learns about such employment or consultation, the person must sign the trust instrument as a party, subject to the prior approval of the Director;

(2) Under all the facts and circumstances, the person is determined pursuant to the requirements for eligible entities under paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section to be independent of an interested party with respect to the trust arrangement;

(3) The person is instructed by the independent trustee or other designated fiduciary not to disclose publicly or to any interested party information which might specifically identify current trust assets or those assets which have been sold or disposed of from trust holdings, other than information relating to the sale or disposition of original trust assets in the case of the blind trust; and

(4) The person is instructed by the independent trustee or other designated fiduciary to have no direct communication with respect to the trust with any interested party or any representative of an interested party, and to make all indirect communications with respect to the trust only through the independent trustee, pursuant to § 2634.408(a).

§ 2634.406 Initial portfolio.

(a) Qualified blind trust. (1) An interested party may not place any asset in the blind trust that any interested party would be prohibited from holding by the Act, by the implementing regulations, or by any other applicable Federal law, Executive order, or regulation.

(2) Except as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, an interested party may put most types of assets (such as cash, stocks, bonds, mutual funds, or real estate) into a qualified blind trust.

(b) Qualified diversified trust. (1) The initial portfolio may not contain securities of entities having substantial activities in an employee's primary area of Federal responsibility. If requested by the Director, the designated agency ethics official for the employee's agency must certify whether the proposed portfolio meets this standard.

(2) The initial assets of a diversified trust must comprise a well-diversified portfolio of readily marketable securities.

(i) A portfolio will be well diversified if:

(A) The value of the securities concentrated in any particular or limited economic or geographic sector is no more than 20 percent of the total; and

(B) The value of the securities of any single entity (other than the United States Government) is no more than five percent of the total.

(ii) A security will be readily marketable if:

(A) Daily price quotations for the security appear regularly in media, including websites, that publish the information; and

(B) The trust holds the security in a quantity that does not unduly impair liquidity.

(iii) The interested party or the party's representative must provide the Director with a detailed list of the securities proposed for inclusion in the portfolio, specifying their fair market value and demonstrating that these securities meet the requirements of this paragraph. The Director will determine whether the initial assets of the trust proposed for certification comprise a widely diversified portfolio of readily marketable securities.

(c) Hybrid qualified trust. A qualified trust may contain both a blind portfolio of assets and a diversified portfolio of assets. The Office of Government Ethics refers to this arrangement as a hybrid qualified trust.

§ 2634.407 Certification of qualified trust by the Office of Government Ethics.

(a) General. After the Director approves the independent trustee, the interested party or a representative will prepare the trust instrument for review by the Director. The representative of the interested party will use the model documents provided by the Office of Government Ethics to draft the trust instrument. Any deviations from the model trust documents must be approved by the Director. No trust will be considered qualified for purposes of the Act until the Office of Government Ethics certifies the trust prior to execution.

(b) Certification procedures. (1) After the Director has approved the trustee, the interested party or the party's representative must submit the following documents to the Office of Government Ethics for review:

(i) A copy of the proposed, unexecuted trust instrument;

(ii) A list of the assets which the interested party proposes to place in the trust; and

(iii) In the case of a pre-existing trust as described in § 2634.409 which the interested party asks the Office of Government Ethics to certify, a copy of the pre-existing trust instrument and a list of that trust's assets categorized as to value in accordance with § 2634.301(d).

(2) In order to assure timely trust certification, the interested parties and their representatives will be responsible for the expeditious submission to the Office of Government Ethics of all required documents and responses to requests for information.

(3) The Director will indicate that he or she has certified the trust in a letter to the interested parties or their representatives. The interested party and the independent trustee may then execute the trust instrument.

(4) Within 30 days after the trust is certified under this section by the Director, the interested party or that party's representative must file with the Director a copy of the executed trust instrument and all annexed schedules (other than those provisions which relate to the testamentary disposition of the trust assets), including a list of the assets which were transferred to the trust, categorized as to value of each asset in accordance with § 2634.301(d).

(5) Once a trust is classified as a qualified blind or qualified diversified trust in the manner discussed in this section, § 2634.312(b) applies less inclusive financial disclosure requirements to the trust assets.

(c) Certification standard. A trust will be certified for purposes of this subpart only if:

(1) It is established to the Director's satisfaction that the requirements of section 102(f) of the Act and this subpart have been met; and

(2) The Director determines that approval of the trust arrangement as a qualified trust is appropriate to assure compliance with applicable laws and regulations.

(d) Revocation. The Director may revoke certification of a trust pursuant to the rules of subpart E of this part.

§ 2634.408 Administration of a qualified trust.

(a) General rules on communications between the independent fiduciaries and the interested parties. (1) There must be no direct or indirect communications with respect to the qualified trust between an interested party or the party's representative and the independent trustee or any other designated fiduciary with respect to the trust unless:

(i) In the case of the blind trust, the proposed communication is approved in advance by the Director and it relates to:

(A) A distribution of cash or other unspecified assets of the trust;

(B) The general financial interest and needs of the interested party including, but not limited to, a preference for maximizing income or long-term capital gain;

(C) Notification to the independent trustee by the employee that the employee is prohibited by a subsequently applicable statute, Executive order, or regulation from holding an asset, and to direction to the independent trustee that the trust may not hold that asset; or

(D) Instructions to the independent trustee to sell all of an asset which was initially placed in the trust by an interested party, and which in the determination of the employee creates a real or apparent conflict due to duties the employee subsequently assumed (but nothing herein requires such instructions); or

(ii) In the case of the diversified trust, the proposed communication is approved in advance by the Director and it relates to:

(A) A distribution of cash or other unspecified assets of the trust;

(B) The general financial interest and needs of the interested party including, but not limited to, a preference for maximizing income or long-term capital gain; or

(C) Information, documents, and funds concerning income tax obligations arising from sources other than the property held in trust that are required by the independent trustee to enable him to file, on behalf of an interested party, the personal income tax returns and similar tax documents which may contain information relating to the trust.

(2) The person initiating a communication approved under paragraphs (a)(1)(i) or (a)(1)(ii) of this section must file a copy of the communication with the Director within five days of the date of its transmission.

Note to paragraph (a):

By the terms of paragraph (3)(C)(vi) of section 102(f) of the Act, communications which solely consist of requests for distributions of cash or other unspecified assets of the trust are not required to be in writing. Further, there is no statutory mechanism for pre-screening of proposed communications. However, experience of the Office of Government Ethics over the years dictates the necessity of prohibiting any oral communications between the trustee and an interested party with respect to the trust and pre-screening all proposed written communications, to prevent inadvertent prohibited communications and preserve confidence in the Federal qualified trust program. Accordingly, under its authority pursuant to paragraph (3)(D) of section 102(f) of the Act, the Office of Government Ethics will not approve proposed trust instruments that do not contain language conforming to this policy, except in unusual cases where compelling necessity is demonstrated to the Director, in his or her sole discretion.

(b) Required reports from the independent trustee to the interested parties—(1) Quarterly reports. The independent trustee must, without identifying specifically an asset or holding, report quarterly to the interested parties and their representatives the aggregate market value of the assets representing the interested party's interest in the trust. The independent trustee must follow the model document for this report and must file a copy of the report, within five days of the date of its transmission, with the Director.

(2) Annual report. In the case of a qualified blind trust, the independent trustee must, without identifying specifically an asset or holding, report annually to the interested parties and their representatives the aggregate amount of the trust's income attributable to the interested party's beneficial interest in the trust, categorized in accordance with § 2634.302(b) to enable the employee to complete the public financial disclosure form. In the case of a qualified diversified trust, the independent trustee must, without identifying specifically an asset or holding, report annually to the interested parties and their representatives the aggregate amount actually distributed from the trust to the interested party or applied for the party's benefit. Additionally, in the case of the blind trust, the independent trustee must report on Schedule K-1 the net income or loss of the trust and any other information necessary to enable the interested party to complete an individual tax return. The independent trustee must follow the model document for each report and must file a copy of the report, within five days of the date of its transmission, with the Director.

(3) Report of sale of asset. In the case of the qualified blind trust, the independent trustee must promptly notify the employee and the Director when any particular asset transferred to the trust by an interested party has been completely disposed of or when the value of that asset is reduced to less than $1,000. The independent trustee must file a copy of the report, within five days of the date of its transmission, with the Director.

(c) Communications regarding trust and beneficiary taxes. The Act establishes special tax filing procedures to be used by the independent trustee and the trust beneficiaries in order to maintain the substantive separation between trust beneficiaries and trust administrators.

(1) Trust taxes. Because a trust is a separate entity distinct from its beneficiaries, an independent trustee must file an annual fiduciary tax return for the trust (IRS Form 1041). The independent trustee is prohibited from providing the interested parties and their representatives with a copy of the trust tax return.

(2) Beneficiary taxes. The trust beneficiaries must report income received from the trust on their individual tax returns.

(i) For beneficiaries of qualified blind trusts, the independent trustee sends a modified K-1 summarizing trust income in appropriate categories to enable the beneficiaries to file individual tax returns. The independent trustee is prohibited from providing the interested parties or their representatives with the identity of the assets.

(ii) For beneficiaries of qualified diversified trusts, the Act requires the independent trustee to file the individual tax returns on behalf of the trust beneficiaries. The interested parties must give the independent trustee a power of attorney to prepare and file, on their behalf, the personal income tax returns and similar tax documents which may contain information relating to the trust. Appropriate Internal Revenue Service power of attorney forms will be used for this purpose. The beneficiaries must transmit to the trustee materials concerning taxable transactions and occurrences outside of the trust, pursuant to the requirements in each trust instrument which detail this procedure. This communication must be approved in advance by the Director in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.

(iii) Some qualified trust beneficiaries may pay estimated income taxes.

(A) In order to pay the proper amount of estimated taxes each quarter, the beneficiaries of a qualified blind trust will need to receive information about the amount of income, if any, generated by the trust each quarter. To assist the beneficiaries, the independent trustee is permitted to send, on a quarterly basis, information about the amount of income generated by the trust in that quarter. This communication must be approved in advance by the Director in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.

(B) In order to pay the proper amount of estimated taxes each quarter, the independent trustee of a qualified diversified trust will need to receive information about the amount of income, if any, earned by the beneficiaries on assets that are not in the trust. To assist the independent trustee, the beneficiaries are permitted to send, on a quarterly basis, information about the amount of income they earned in that quarter on assets that are outside of the trust. This communication must be approved in advance by the Director in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.

(d) Responsibilities of the independent trustee and other fiduciaries. (1) Any independent trustee or any other designated fiduciary of a qualified trust may not knowingly and willfully, or negligently:

(i) Disclose any information to an interested party or that party's representative with respect to the trust that may not be disclosed under title I of the Act, the implementing regulations, or the trust instrument;

(ii) Acquire any holding:

(A) Directly from an interested party or that party's representative without the prior written approval of the Director; or

(B) The ownership of which is prohibited by, or not in accordance with, title I of the Act, the implementing regulations, the trust instrument, or with other applicable statutes and regulations;

(iii) Solicit advice from any interested party or any representative of that party with respect to such trust, which solicitation is prohibited by title I of the Act, the implementing regulations, or the trust instrument; or

(iv) Fail to file any document required by the implementing regulations or the trust instrument.

(2) The independent trustee and any other designated fiduciary, in the exercise of their authority and discretion to manage and control the assets of the trust, may not consult or notify any interested party or that party's representative.

(3) The independent trustee may not acquire by purchase, grant, gift, exercise of option, or otherwise, without the prior written approval of the Director, securities, cash, or other property from any interested party or any representative of an interested party.

(4) Certificate of Compliance. An independent trustee and any other designated fiduciary must file, with the Director by May 15 following any calendar year during which the trust was in existence, a properly executed Certificate of Compliance that follows the model Certificate of Compliance prepared by the Office of Government Ethics. Any variation from the model must be approved by the Director.

(5) In addition, the independent trustee and such fiduciary must maintain and make available for inspection by the Office of Government Ethics, as it may from time to time direct, the trust's books of account and other records and copies of the trust's tax returns for each taxable year of the trust.

(e) Responsibilities of the interested parties and their representatives. (1) Interested parties to a qualified trust and their representatives may not knowingly and willfully, or negligently:

(i) Solicit or receive any information about the trust that may not be disclosed under title I of the Act, the implementing regulations or the trust instrument; or

(ii) Fail to file any document required by this subpart or the trust instrument.

(2) The interested parties and their representatives may not take any action to obtain, and must take reasonable action to avoid receiving, information with respect to the holdings and the sources of income of the trust, including a copy of any trust tax return filed by the independent trustee, or any information relating to that return, except for the reports and information specified in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.

(3) In the case of any qualified trust, the interested party must, within 30 days of transferring an asset, other than cash, to a previously established qualified trust, file a report with the Director, which identifies each asset, categorized as to value in accordance with § 2634.301(d).

(4) Any portfolio asset transferred to the trust by an interested party must be free of any restriction with respect to its transfer or sale, except as fully described in schedules attached to the trust instrument, and as approved by the Director.

(5) During the term of the trust, the interested parties may not pledge, mortgage, or otherwise encumber their interests in the property held by the trust.

(f) Amendment of the trust. The independent trustee and the interested parties may amend the terms of a qualified trust only with the prior written approval of the Director and upon a showing of necessity and appropriateness.

§ 2634.409 Pre-existing trusts.

An interested party may place a pre-existing irrevocable trust into a qualified trust, which may then be certified by the Office of Government Ethics. This arrangement should be considered in the case of a pre-existing trust whose terms do not permit amendments that are necessary to satisfy the rules of this subpart. All of the relevant parties (including the employee, any other interested parties, the trustee of the pre-existing trust, and all of the other parties and beneficiaries of the pre-existing trust) will be required pursuant to section 102(f)(7) of the Act to enter into an umbrella trust agreement. The umbrella trust agreement will specify that the pre-existing trust will be administered in accordance with the provisions of this subpart. A parent or guardian may execute the umbrella trust agreement on behalf of a required participant who is a minor child. The Office of Government Ethics has prepared model umbrella trust agreements that the interested party can use in this circumstance. The umbrella trust agreement will be certified as a qualified trust if all of the requirements of this subpart are fulfilled under conditions where required confidentiality with respect to the trust can be assured.

§ 2634.410 Dissolution.

Within 30 days of dissolution of a qualified trust, the interested party must file a report of the dissolution with the Director and a list of assets of the trust at the time of the dissolution, categorized as to value in accordance with § 2634.301(d).

§ 2634.411 Reporting on financial disclosure reports.

An employee who files a public or confidential financial disclosure report must report the trust on the financial disclosure report.

(a) Public financial disclosure report. If the employee files a public financial disclosure report, the employee must report the trust as an asset, including the overall category of value of the trust. Additionally, in the case of a qualified blind trust, the employee must disclose the category of value of income earned by the trust. In the case of a qualified diversified trust, the employee must report the category of value of income received from the trust by the employee, the employee's spouse, or dependent child, or applied for the benefit of any of them.

(b) Confidential financial disclosure report. In the case of a confidential financial disclosure report, the employee must report the trust as an asset.

§ 2634.412 Sanctions and enforcement.

Section 2634.702 sets forth civil sanctions, as provided by sections 102(f)(6)(C)(i) and (ii) of the Act and as adjusted in accordance with the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act, which apply to any interested party, independent trustee, or other trust fiduciary who violates the obligations under the Act, its implementing regulations, or the trust instrument. Subpart E of this part delineates the procedure which must be followed with respect to the revocation of trust certificates and trustee approvals.

§ 2634.413 Public access.

(a) Documents subject to public disclosure requirements. The following qualified trust documents filed by a public filer, nominee, or candidate are subject to the public disclosure requirements of § 2634.603:

(1) The executed trust instrument and any amendments (other than those provisions which relate to the testamentary disposition of the trust assets), and a list of the assets which were transferred to the trust, categorized as to the value of each asset;

(2) The identity of each additional asset (other than cash) transferred to a qualified trust by an interested party during the life of the trust, categorized as to the value of each asset;

(3) The report of the dissolution of the trust and a list of the assets of the trust at the time of the dissolution, categorized as to the value of each asset;

(4) In the case of a blind trust, the lists provided by the independent trustee of initial assets placed in the trust by an interested party which have been sold or whose value is reduced to less than $1,000; and

(5) The Certificates of Independence and Compliance.

(b) Documents exempt from public disclosure requirements. The following documents are exempt from the public disclosure requirements of § 2634.603 and also may not be disclosed to any interested party:

(1) Any document (and the information contained therein) filed under the requirements of § 2634.408(a) and (c); and

(2) Any document (and the information contained therein) inspected under the requirements of § 2634.408(d)(4) (other than a Certificate of Compliance).

§ 2634.414 OMB control number.

The various model trust documents and Certificates of Independence and Compliance referenced in this subpart, together with the underlying regulatory provisions, are all approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3209-0007.

Subpart E Revocation of Trust Certificates and Trustee Approvals
§ 2634.501 Purpose and scope.

(a) Purpose. This subpart establishes the procedures of the Office of Government Ethics for enforcement of the qualified blind trust, qualified diversified trust, and independent trustee provisions of title I of the Ethics in Government Act of 1978, as amended, and the regulation issued thereunder (subpart D of this part).

(b) Scope. This subpart applies to all trustee approvals and trust certifications pursuant to §§ 2634.405 and 2634.407, respectively.

§ 2634.502 Definitions.

For purposes of this subpart (unless otherwise indicated), the term “trust restrictions” means the applicable provisions of title I of the Ethics in Government Act of 1978, subpart D of this part, and the trust instrument.

§ 2634.503 Determinations.

(a) Violations. If the Office of Government Ethics learns that violations or apparent violations of the trust restrictions exist that may warrant revocations of trust certification or trustee approval previously granted under § 2634.407 or § 2634.405, the Director may, pursuant to the procedure specified in paragraph (b) of this section, appoint an attorney on the staff of the Office of Government Ethics to review the matter. After completing the review, the attorney will submit findings and recommendations to the Director.

(b) Review procedure. (1) In the review of the matter, the attorney will perform such examination and analysis of violations or apparent violations as the attorney deems reasonable.

(2) The attorney will provide an independent trustee and, if appropriate, the interested parties, with:

(i) Notice that revocation of trust certification or trustee approval is under consideration pursuant to the procedures in this subpart;

(ii) A summary of the violation or apparent violations that will state the preliminary facts and circumstances of the transactions or occurrences involved with sufficient particularity to permit the recipients to determine the nature of the allegations; and

(iii) Notice that the recipients may present evidence and submit statements on any matter in issue within 10 business days of the recipient's actual receipt of the notice and summary.

(c) Determination. (1) In making determinations with respect to the violations or apparent violations under this section, the Director will consider the findings and recommendations submitted by the attorney, as well as any written statements submitted by the independent trustee or interested parties.

(2) The Director may take one of the following actions upon finding a violation or violations of the trust restrictions:

(i) Issue an order revoking trust certification or trustee approval;

(ii) Resolve the matter through any other remedial action within the Director's authority;

(iii) Order further examination and analysis of the violation or apparent violation; or

(iv) Decline to take further action.

(3) If the Director issues an order of revocation, parties to the trust instrument will receive prompt written notification. The notice will state the basis for the revocation and will inform the parties of the consequence of the revocation, which will be either of the following:

(i) The trust is no longer a qualified blind or qualified diversified trust for any purpose under Federal law; or

(ii) The independent trustee may no longer serve the trust in any capacity and must be replaced by a successor, who is subject to the prior written approval of the Director.

Subpart F Procedure
§ 2634.601 Report forms.

(a) This section prescribes the required forms for financial disclosure made pursuant to this part.

(1) New entrant, annual, and termination public financial disclosure reports. The Office of Government Ethics provides a form for publicly disclosing the information described in subpart B of this part in connection with new entrant, nominee, incumbent, and termination reports filed pursuant to § 2634.201(a) through (e). That form is the OGE Form 278e (Executive Branch Personnel Public Financial Disclosure Report) or any successor form.

(2) Periodic transaction public financial disclosure reports. The Office of Government Ethics provides a form for publicly disclosing the information described in subpart B of this part in connection with periodic transaction public financial disclosure reports filed pursuant to § 2634.201(f). That form is the OGE Form 278-T (Periodic Transaction Report), or any successor form.

(3) Confidential financial disclosure reports. The Office of Government Ethics also provides a form for confidentially disclosing information described in subpart I of this part in connection with confidential financial disclosure reports filed pursuant to § 2634.903. That form is the OGE Form 450 (Confidential Financial Disclosure Report), or any successor form.

(b) Supplies of the OGE Form 278e, OGE Form 278-T, and OGE Form 450 are to be reproduced locally by each agency. The Office of Government Ethics has published copies on its official website.

(c) Subject to the prior written approval of the Director of the Office of Government Ethics, an agency may require employees to file additional confidential financial disclosure forms which supplement the standard form referred to in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, if necessary because of special or unique agency circumstances. The Director may approve such agency forms when, in his opinion, the supplementation is shown to be necessary for a comprehensive and effective agency ethics program to identify and resolve conflicts of interest. See §§ 2634.103 and 2634.901.

(d) The information collection and recordkeeping requirements have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3209-0001 for the OGE Form 278e, and control number 3209-0006 for OGE Form 450. OGE Form 278-T has been determined not to require an OMB paperwork control number, as the form is used exclusively by current Government employees.

§ 2634.602 Filing of reports.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the reporting individual will file financial disclosure reports required under this part with the designated agency ethics official or the delegate at the agency where the individual is employed, or was employed immediately prior to termination of employment, or in which the individual will serve, unless otherwise directed by the employee's home agency. Detailees will file with their home agency. Reports are due at the times indicated in § 2634.201 (public disclosure) or § 2634.903 (confidential disclosure), unless an extension is granted pursuant to the provisions of subparts B or I of this part. Filers must certify that the information contained in the report is true, correct, and complete to their best knowledge.

(b) The President, the Vice President, any independent counsel, and persons appointed by independent counsel under 28 U.S.C. chapter 40, will file the public financial disclosure reports required under this part with the Director of the Office of Government Ethics.

(c)(1) Each agency receiving the public financial disclosure reports required to be filed under this part by the following individuals must transmit copies to the Director of the Office of Government Ethics:

(i) The Postmaster General;

(ii) The Deputy Postmaster General;

(iii) The Governors of the Board of Governors of the United States Postal Service;

(iv) The designated agency ethics official;

(v) Employees of the Executive Office of the President who are appointed under 3 U.S.C. 105(a)(2)(A) or (B) or 3 U.S.C. 107(a)(1)(A) or (b)(1)(A)(i), and employees of the Office of Vice President who are appointed under 3 U.S.C. 106(a)(1)(A) or (B); and

(vi) Officers and employees in, and nominees to, offices or positions which require confirmation by the Senate, other than members of the uniformed services.

(2) Prior to transmitting a copy of a report to the Director of the Office of Government Ethics, the designated agency ethics official or the delegate must review that report in accordance with § 2634.605, except for the designated agency ethics official's own report, which must be reviewed by the agency head or by a delegate of the agency head.

(3) For nominee reports, the Director of the Office of Government Ethics must forward a copy to the Senate committee that is considering the nomination. See § 2634.605(c) for special procedures regarding the review of such reports.

(d) The Director of the Office of Government Ethics must file the Director's financial disclosure report with the Office of Government Ethics, which will make it immediately available to the public in accordance with this part.

(e) Candidates for President and Vice President identified in § 2634.201(d), other than an incumbent President or Vice President, must file their financial disclosure reports with the Federal Election Commission, which will review and send copies of such reports to the Director of the Office of Government Ethics.

(f) Members of the uniformed services identified in § 2634.202(c) must file their financial disclosure reports with the Secretary concerned, or the Secretary's delegate.

§ 2634.603 Custody of and access to public reports.

(a) Each agency must make available to the public in accordance with the provisions of this section those public reports filed with the agency by reporting individuals described under subpart B of this part.

(b) This section does not require public availability of those reports filed by:

(1) Any individual in the Office of the Director of National Intelligence, the Central Intelligence Agency, the Defense Intelligence Agency, the National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency, or the National Security Agency, or any individual engaged in intelligence activities in any agency of the United States, if the President finds or has found that, due to the nature of the office or position occupied by that individual, public disclosure of the report would, by revealing the identity of the individual or other sensitive information, compromise the national interest of the United States. Individuals referred to in this paragraph who are exempt from the public availability requirement may also be authorized, notwithstanding § 2634.701, to file any additional reports necessary to protect their identity from public disclosure, if the President finds or has found that such filings are necessary in the national interest; or

(2) An independent counsel whose identity has not been disclosed by the Court under 28 U.S.C chapter 40, or any person appointed by that independent counsel under such chapter.

(c) Each agency will, within 30 days after any public report is received by the agency, permit inspection of the report by, or furnish a copy of the report to, any person who makes written application as provided by agency procedure. Agency reviewing officials and the support staffs who maintain the files, the staff of the Office of Government Ethics, and Special Agents of the Federal Bureau of Investigation who are conducting a criminal inquiry into possible conflict of interest violations need not submit an application. The agency may utilize Office of Government Ethics Form 201 for such applications. An application must state:

(1) The requesting person's name, occupation, and address;

(2) The name and address of any other person or organization on whose behalf the inspection or copy is requested; and

(3) That the requesting person is aware of the prohibitions on obtaining or using the report set forth in paragraph (f) of this section.

(d) Applications for the inspection of or copies of public reports will also be made available to the public throughout the period during which the report itself is made available, utilizing the procedures in paragraph (c) of this section.

(e) The agency may require a reasonable fee, established by agency regulation, to recover the direct cost of reproduction or mailing of a public report, excluding the salary of any employee involved. A copy of the report may be furnished without charge or at a reduced charge if the agency determines that waiver or reduction of the fee is in the public interest. The criteria used by an agency to determine when a fee will be reduced or waived will be established by regulation. Agency regulations contemplated by paragraph (e) of this section do not require approval pursuant to § 2634.103.

(f) It is unlawful for any person to obtain or use a public report:

(1) For any unlawful purpose;

(2) For any commercial purpose, other than by news and communications media for dissemination to the general public;

(3) For determining or establishing the credit rating of any individual; or

(4) For use, directly or indirectly, in the solicitation of money for any political, charitable, or other purpose.

Example 1:The deputy general counsel of Agency X is responsible for reviewing the public financial disclosure reports filed by persons within that agency. The agency personnel director, who does not exercise functions within the ethics program, wishes to review the disclosure report of an individual within the agency. The personnel director must file an application to review the report. However, the supervisor of an official with whom the deputy general counsel consults concerning matters arising in the review process need not file such an application.

Example 2:A state law enforcement agent is conducting an investigation which involves the private financial dealings of an individual who has filed a public financial disclosure report. The agent must complete a written application in order to inspect or obtain a copy.

Example 3:A financial institution has received an application for a loan from an official which indicates her present financial status. The official has filed a public financial disclosure statement with her agency. The financial institution cannot be given access to the disclosure form for purposes of verifying the information contained on the application.

(g)(1) Any public report filed with an agency or transmitted to the Director of the Office of Government Ethics under this section will be retained by the agency, and by the Office of Government Ethics when it receives a copy. The report will be made available to the public for a period of six years after receipt. After the six-year period, the report must be destroyed unless needed in an ongoing investigation, except that in the case of an individual who filed the report pursuant to § 2634.201(c) as a nominee and was not subsequently confirmed by the Senate, or who filed the report pursuant to § 2634.201(d) as a candidate and was not subsequently elected, the report, unless needed in an ongoing investigation, must be destroyed one year after the individual either is no longer under consideration by the Senate or is no longer a candidate for nomination or election to the Office of President or Vice President. See also the OGE/GOVT-1 Governmentwide executive branch Privacy Act system of records (available for inspection at the Office of Government Ethics or on OGE's website, www.oge.gov), as well as any applicable agency system of records.

(2) For purposes of paragraph (g)(1) of this section, in the case of a reporting individual with respect to whom a trust has been certified under subpart D of this part, a copy of the qualified trust agreement, the list of assets initially placed in the trust, and all other publicly available documents relating to the trust will be retained and made available to the public until the periods for retention of all other reports of the individual have lapsed under paragraph (g)(1) of this section.

(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control numbers 3209-0001 and 3209-0002)

§ 2634.604 Custody of and denial of public access to confidential reports.

(a) Any report filed with an agency under subpart I of this part will be retained by the agency for a period of six years after receipt. After the six-year period, the report must be destroyed unless needed in an ongoing investigation. See also the OGE/GOVT-2 Governmentwide executive branch Privacy Act system of records (available for inspection at the Office of Government Ethics or on OGE's website, www.oge.gov), as well as any applicable agency system of records.

(b) The reports filed pursuant to subpart I of this part are confidential. No member of the public will have access to such reports, except pursuant to the order of a Federal court or as otherwise provided under the Privacy Act. See 5 U.S.C. 552a and the OGE/GOVT-2 Privacy Act system of records (and any applicable agency system); 5 U.S.C. app. (Ethics in Government Act of 1978, section 107(a)); sections 201(d) and 502(b) of Executive Order 12674, as modified by Executive Order 12731; and § 2634.901(d).

§ 2634.605 Review of reports.

(a) In general. The designated agency ethics official will normally serve as the reviewing official for reports submitted to the official's agency. That responsibility may be delegated, except in the case of certification of nominee reports required by paragraph (c) of this section. See also § 2634.105(q). The designated agency ethics official will note on any report or supplemental report the date on which it is received. Except as indicated in paragraph (c) of this section, all reports must be reviewed within 60 days after the date of filing. Reports that are reviewed by the Director of the Office of Government Ethics must be forwarded promptly by the designated agency ethics official to the Director. The Director will review the reports within 60 days from the date on which they are received by the Office of Government Ethics. If additional information is needed, the Director will notify the agency. In the event that additional information must be obtained from the filer, the agency will require that the filer provide that information as promptly as is practical but not more than 30 days after the request. Final certification in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section may, of necessity, occur later, when additional information is being sought or remedial action is being taken under this section.

(b) Responsibilities of reviewing official—(1) Initial review. As a part of the initial review, the reviewing official may request an intermediate review by the filer's supervisor or another reviewer. In the case of a filer who is detailed to another agency for more than 60 days during the reporting period, the reviewing official will coordinate with the ethics official at the agency at which the employee is serving the detail if the report reveals a potential conflict of interest.

(2) Standards of Review. The reviewing official must examine the report to determine, to the reviewing official's satisfaction, that:

(i) Each required part of the report is completed; and

(ii) No interest or position disclosed on the report violates or appears to violate:

(A) Any applicable provision of chapter 11 of title 18, United States Code;

(B) The Act, as amended, and the implementing regulations;

(C) Executive Order 12674, as modified by Executive Order 12731, and the implementing regulations;

(D) Any other applicable Executive Order in force at the time of the review; or

(E) Any other agency-specific statute or regulation which governs the filer.

(3) Signature by reviewing official. If the reviewing official is of the opinion that the report meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the reviewing official will certify it by signature and date. The reviewing official need not audit the report to ascertain whether the disclosures are correct. Disclosures will be taken at “face value” as correct, unless there is a patent omission or ambiguity or the official has independent knowledge of matters outside the report. However, a report which is signed by a reviewing official certifies that the filer's agency has reviewed the report, that the reviewing official is of the opinion that each required part of the report has been completed, and that on the basis of information contained in such report the filer is in compliance with applicable laws and regulations noted in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section.

(4) Requests for, and review based on, additional information. If the reviewing official believes that additional information is required to be reported, the reviewing official will request that any additional information be submitted within 30 days from the date of the request, unless the reviewing official grants an extension in writing. This additional information will be incorporated into the report. If the reviewing official concludes, on the basis of the information disclosed in the report and any additional information submitted, that the report fulfills the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the reviewing official will sign and date the report.

(5) Compliance with applicable laws and regulations. If the reviewing official concludes that information disclosed in the report may reveal a violation of applicable laws and regulations as specified in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, the official must:

(i) Notify the filer of that conclusion;

(ii) Afford the filer a reasonable opportunity for an oral or written response; and

(iii) Determine, after considering any response, whether or not the filer is then in compliance with applicable laws and regulations specified in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section. If the reviewing official concludes that the report does fulfill the requirements, the reviewing official will sign and date the report. If the reviewing official determines that it does not and additional remedial actions are required, the reviewing official must:

(A) Notify the filer of the conclusion;

(B) Afford the filer an opportunity for personal consultation if practicable;

(C) Determine what remedial action under paragraph (b)(6) of this section should be taken to bring the report into compliance with the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section; and

(D) Notify the filer in writing of the remedial action which is needed, and the date by which such action should be taken.

(6) Remedial action. (i) Except in unusual circumstances, which must be fully documented to the satisfaction of the reviewing official, remedial action must be completed not later than three months from the date on which the filer received notice that the action is required.

(ii) Remedial action may include, as appropriate:

(A) Divestiture of a conflicting interest (see subpart J of this part);

(B) Resignation from a position with a non-Federal business or other entity;

(C) Restitution;

(D) Establishment of a qualified blind or diversified trust under the Act and subpart D of this part;

(E) Procurement of a waiver under 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1) or (b)(3);

(F) Recusal; or

(G) Voluntary request by the filer for transfer, reassignment, limitation of duties, or resignation.

(7) Compliance or referral. (i) If the filer complies with a written request for remedial action under paragraph (b)(6) of this section, the reviewing official will memorialize what remedial action has been taken. The official will also sign and date the report.

(ii) If the filer does not comply by the designated date with the written request for remedial action transmitted under paragraph (b)(6) of this section, the reviewing official must, in the case of a public filer under subpart B of this part, notify the head of the agency and the Office of Government Ethics for appropriate action. Where the filer is in a position in the executive branch (other than in the uniformed services or the Foreign Service), appointment to which requires the advice and consent of the Senate, the Director of the Office of Government Ethics shall refer the matter to the President. In the case of the Postmaster General or Deputy Postmaster General, the Director of the Office of Government Ethics shall recommend to the Governors of the Board of Governors of the United States Postal Service the action to be taken. For confidential filers, the reviewing official will follow agency procedures.

(c) Expedited procedure in the case of individuals appointed by the President and subject to confirmation by the Senate. In the case of a report filed by an individual described in § 2634.201(c) who is nominated by the President for appointment to a position that requires the advice and consent of the Senate:

(1) In most cases, the Executive Office of the President will furnish the applicable financial disclosure report form to the nominee. It will forward the completed report to the designated agency ethics official at the agency where the nominee is serving or will serve, or it may direct the nominee to file the completed report directly with the designated agency ethics official.

(2) The designated agency ethics official will complete an accelerated review of the report, in accordance with the standards and procedures in paragraph (b) of this section. If that official concludes that the report reveals no unresolved conflict of interest under applicable laws and regulations, the official will:

(i) Personally certify the report by signature, and date the certification;

(ii) Write an opinion letter to the Director of the Office of Government Ethics, personally certifying that there is no unresolved conflict of interest under applicable laws and regulations;

(iii) Provide a copy of any commitment, agreement, or other undertaking which is reduced to writing in accordance with subpart H of this part; and

(iv) Transmit the letter and the report to the Director of the Office of Government Ethics, within three working days after the designated agency ethics official receives the report.

Note to paragraph (c)(2):

The designated agency ethics official's certification responsibilities in § 2634.605(c) are nondelegable and must be accomplished by him personally, or by the agency's alternate designated agency ethics official, in his absence.

(3) The Director of the Office of Government Ethics will review the report and the letter from the designated agency ethics official. If the Director is satisfied that no unresolved conflicts of interest exist, then the Director will sign and date the report form. The Director will then submit the report with a letter to the appropriate Senate committee, expressing the Director's opinion whether, on the basis of information contained in the report, the nominee has complied with all applicable conflict laws and regulations.

(4) If, in the case of any nominee or class of nominees, the expedited procedure specified in this paragraph cannot be completed within the time set forth in paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section, the designated agency ethics official must inform the Director. When necessary and appropriate, the Director may modify the rule of that paragraph for a nominee or a class of nominees with respect to a particular department or agency.

§ 2634.606 Updated disclosure of advice-and-consent nominees.

(a) General rule. Each individual described in § 2634.201(c) who is nominated by the President for appointment to a position that requires advice and consent of the Senate must submit a letter updating the information in the report previously filed under § 2634.201(c) through the period ending no more than five days prior to the commencement of the first hearing of a Senate Committee considering the nomination to all Senate Committees considering the nomination. The letter must update the information required with respect to receipt of:

(1) Outside earned income; and

(2) Honoraria, as defined in § 2634.105(i).

(b) Timing. The nominee's letter must be submitted to the Senate committees considering the nomination by the agency at or before the commencement of the first committee hearing to consider the nomination. The agency must also transmit copies of the nominee's letter to the designated agency ethics official referred to in § 2634.605(c)(1) and to the Office of Government Ethics.

(c) Additional certification. In each case to which this section applies, the Director of the Office of Government Ethics will, at the request of the committee considering the nomination, submit to the committee an opinion letter of the nature described in § 2634.605(c)(3) concerning the updated disclosure. If the committee requests such a letter, the expedited procedure provided by § 2634.605(c) will govern review of the updated disclosure, which will be deemed a report filed for purposes of that paragraph.

§ 2634.607 Advice and opinions.

To assist employees in avoiding situations in which they might violate applicable financial disclosure laws and regulations:

(a) The Director of the Office of Government Ethics will render formal advisory opinions and informal advisory letters on generally applicable matters, or on important matters of first impression. See also part 2638 of this chapter. The Director will ensure that these advisory opinions and letters are compiled, published, and made available to agency ethics officials and the public.

(b) Designated agency ethics officials will offer advice and guidance to employees as needed, to assist them in complying with the requirements of the Act and this part on financial disclosure.

(c) Employees who have questions about the application of this part or any supplemental agency regulations to particular situations should seek advice from an agency ethics official. Disciplinary action for violating this part will not be taken against an employee who has engaged in conduct in good faith reliance upon the advice of an agency ethics official, provided that the employee, in seeking such advice, has made full disclosure of all relevant circumstances. Where the employee's conduct violates a criminal statute, reliance on the advice of an agency ethics official cannot ensure that the employee will not be prosecuted under that statute. However, good faith reliance on the advice of an agency ethics official is a factor that may be taken into account by the Department of Justice in the selection of cases for prosecution. Disclosures made by an employee to an agency ethics official are not protected by an attorney-client privilege. An agency ethics official is required by 28 U.S.C. 535 to report any information he receives relating to a violation of the criminal code, title 18 of the United States Code.

Subpart G Penalties
§ 2634.701 Failure to file or falsifying reports.

(a) Referral of cases. The head of each agency, each Secretary concerned, or the Director of the Office of Government Ethics, as appropriate, must refer to the Attorney General the name of any individual when there is reasonable cause to believe that such individual has willfully failed to file a public report or information required on such report, or has willfully falsified any information (public or confidential) required to be reported under this part.

(b) Civil action. The Attorney General may bring a civil action in any appropriate United States district court against any individual who knowingly and willfully falsifies or who knowingly and willfully fails to file or report any information required by filers of public reports under subpart B of this part. The court in which the action is brought may assess against the individual a civil monetary penalty in any amount, not to exceed the amounts set forth in table 1 to this paragraph (b), as provided by 5 U.S.C. 13106(a)(1), and as adjusted in accordance with the inflation adjustment procedures prescribed in the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended.

Table 1 to § 2634.701(b)

Date of violation | Penalty

Violation occurring between Sept. 14, 2007 and Nov. 2, 2015 | $50,000

Violation occurring after Nov. 2, 2015 | 75,540

(c) Criminal action. An individual may also be prosecuted under criminal statutes for supplying false information on any financial disclosure report.

(d) Administrative remedies. The President, the Vice President, the Director of the Office of Government Ethics, the Secretary concerned, the head of each agency, and the Office of Personnel Management may take appropriate personnel or other action in accordance with applicable law or regulation against any individual for failing to file public or confidential reports required by this part, for filing such reports late, or for falsifying or failing to report required information. This may include adverse action under 5 CFR part 752, if applicable.

[83 FR 33981, July 18, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 6054, Feb. 26, 2019; 85 FR 2280, Jan. 15, 2020; 86 FR 7636, Feb. 1, 2021; 87 FR 2524, Jan. 18, 2022; 88 FR 1140, Jan. 9, 2023; 89 FR 1440, Jan. 10, 2024; 90 FR 3611, Jan. 15, 2025]

§ 2634.702 Breaches by trust fiduciaries and interested parties.

(a) The Attorney General may bring a civil action in any appropriate United States district court against any individual who knowingly and willfully violates the provisions of § 2634.408(d)(1) or (e)(1). The court in which the action is brought may assess against the individual a civil monetary penalty in any amount, not to exceed the amounts set forth in table 1 to this paragraph (a), as provided by section 5 U.S.C. 13104(f)(6)(C)(i) and as adjusted in accordance with the inflation adjustment procedures prescribed in the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended.

Table 1 to § 2634.702(a)

Date of violation | Penalty

Violation occurring between Sept. 29, 1999 and Nov. 2, 2015 | $11,000

Violation occurring after Nov. 2, 2015 | 25,132

(b) The Attorney General may bring a civil action in any appropriate United States district court against any individual who negligently violates the provisions of § 2634.408(d)(1) or (e)(1). The court in which the action is brought may assess against the individual a civil monetary penalty in any amount, not to exceed the amounts set forth in table 2 to this paragraph (b), as provided by 5 U.S.C. 13104(f)(6)(C)(ii) and as adjusted in accordance with the inflation adjustment procedures of the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended.

Table 2 to § 2634.702(b)

Date of violation | Penalty

Violation occurring between Sept. 29, 1999 and Nov. 2, 2015 | $5,500

Violation occurring after Nov. 2, 2015 | 12,567

[90 FR 3611, Jan. 15, 2025]

§ 2634.703 Misuse of public reports.

(a) The Attorney General may bring a civil action against any person who obtains or uses a report filed under this part for any purpose prohibited by 5 U.S.C. 13107(c)(1), as incorporated in § 2634.603(f). The court in which the action is brought may assess against the person a civil monetary penalty in any amount, not to exceed the amounts set forth in table 1 to this paragraph (a), as provided by 5 U.S.C. 13107(c)(2) and as adjusted in accordance with the inflation adjustment procedures prescribed in the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended.

Table 1 to § 2634.703(a)

Date of violation | Penalty

Violation occurring between Sept. 29, 1999 and Nov. 2, 2015 | $11,000

Violation occurring after Nov. 2, 2015 | 25,132

(b) This remedy shall be in addition to any other remedy available under statutory or common law.

[90 FR 3612, Jan. 15, 2025]

§ 2634.704 Late filing fee.

(a) In general. In accordance with section 104(d) of the Act, any reporting individual who is required to file a public financial disclosure report by the provisions of this part must remit a late filing fee of $200 to the appropriate agency, payable to the U.S. Treasury, if such report is filed more than 30 days after the later of:

(1) The date such report is required to be filed pursuant to the provisions of this part; or

(2) The last day of any filing extension period granted pursuant to § 2634.201(g).

(b) Exceptions. (1) The designated agency ethics official may waive the late filing fee if the designated agency ethics official determines that the delay in filing was caused by extraordinary circumstances. These circumstances include, but are not limited to, the agency's failure to notify a filer of the requirement to file the public financial disclosure report, which made the delay reasonably necessary.

(2) Employees requesting a waiver of the late filing fee from the designated agency ethics official must request the waiver in writing. The designated agency ethics official's determination must be made in writing to the employee with a copy maintained by the agency. The designated agency ethics official may consult with the Office of Government Ethics prior to approving any waiver of the late filing fee.

(c) Procedure. (1) Each report received by the agency must be marked with the date of receipt. For any report which has not been received by the end of the period specified in paragraph (a) of this section, the agency will advise the delinquent filer, in writing, that:

(i) Because the financial disclosure report is more than 30 days overdue, a $200 late filing fee will become due at the time of filing, by reason of section 104(d) of the Act and § 2634.704;

(ii) The filer is directed to remit to the agency, with the completed report, the $200 fee, payable to the United States Treasury;

(iii) If the filer fails to remit the $200 fee when filing a late report, it will be subject to agency debt collection procedures; and

(iv) If extraordinary circumstances exist that would justify a request for a fee waiver, pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, such request and any supporting documentation must be submitted immediately.

(2) Upon receipt from the reporting individual of the $200 late filing fee, the collecting agency will note the payment in its records, and will then forward the money to the U.S. Treasury for deposit as miscellaneous receipts, in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3302 and Part 5 of Volume 1 of the Treasury Financial Manual. If payment is not forthcoming, agency debt collection procedures may be utilized, which may include salary or administrative offset, initiation of a tax refund offset, or other authorized action.

(d) Late filing fee not exclusive remedy. The late filing fee is in addition to other sanctions which may be imposed for late filing. See § 2634.701.

(e) Confidential filers. The late filing fee does not apply to confidential filers. Late filing of confidential reports will be handled administratively under § 2634.701(d).

(f) Date of filing. The date of filing for purposes of determining whether a public financial disclosure report is filed more than 30 days late under this section will be the date of receipt by the agency, which should be noted on the report in accordance with § 2634.605(a). The 30-day grace period on imposing a late filing fee is adequate allowance for administrative delays in the receipt of reports by an agency.

Subpart H Ethics Agreements
§ 2634.801 Scope.

This subpart applies to ethics agreements made by any reporting individual under either subpart B or I of this part, to resolve potential or actual conflicts of interest.

§ 2634.802 Requirements.

(a) Ethics agreement defined. The term ethics agreement will include, for the purposes of this subpart, any oral or written promise by a reporting individual to undertake specific actions in order to alleviate an actual or apparent conflict of interest, such as:

(1) Recusal;

(2) Divestiture of a financial interest;

(3) Resignation from a position with a non-Federal business or other entity;

(4) Procurement of a waiver pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1) or (b)(3); or

(5) Establishment of a qualified blind or diversified trust under the Act and subpart D of this part.

(b) Time limit. The ethics agreement will specify that the individual must complete the action which he or she has agreed to undertake within a period not to exceed three months from the date of the agreement (or of Senate confirmation, if applicable). Exceptions to the three-month deadline can be made in cases of unusual hardship, as determined by the Office of Government Ethics, for those ethics agreements which are submitted to it (see § 2634.803), or by the designated agency ethics official for all other ethics agreements.

Example:An official of the ABC Aircraft Company is nominated to a Department of Defense position requiring the advice and consent of the Senate. As a condition of assuming the position, the individual has agreed to divest himself of his ABC Aircraft stock which he recently acquired while he was an officer with the company. However, the Securities and Exchange Commission prohibits officers of public corporations from deriving a profit from the sale of stock in the corporation in which they hold office within six months of acquiring the stock, and directs that any such profit must be returned to the issuing corporation or its stock holders. Since meeting the usual three-month time limit specified in this subpart for satisfying an ethics agreement might entail losing any profit that could be realized on the sale of this stock, the nominee requests that the limit be extended beyond the six-month period imposed by the Commission. Written approval must be obtained from the Office of Government Ethics to extend the three-month period.

§ 2634.803 Notification of ethics agreements.

(a) Nominees to positions requiring the advice and consent of the Senate. (1) In the case of a nominee referred to in § 2634.201(c), the designated agency ethics official will include with the report submitted to the Office of Government Ethics any ethics agreement which the nominee has made.

(2) A designated agency ethics official must immediately notify the Office of Government Ethics of any ethics agreement of a nominee which is made or becomes known to the designated agency ethics official after the submission of the nominee's report to the Office of Government Ethics. This requirement includes an ethics agreement made between a nominee and the Senate confirmation committee. The nominee must immediately report to the designated agency ethics official any ethics agreement made with the committee.

(3) The Office of Government Ethics must immediately apprise the designated agency ethics official and the Senate confirmation committee of any ethics agreements made directly between the nominee and the Office of Government Ethics.

(4) Any ethics agreement approved by the Office of Government Ethics during its review of a nominee's financial disclosure report may not be modified without prior approval from the Office of Government Ethics.

(b) Incumbents and other reporting individuals. Incumbents and other reporting individuals may be required to enter into an ethics agreement with the designated agency ethics official for the employee's agency. Where an ethics agreement has been made with someone other than the designated agency ethics official, the officer or employee involved must promptly apprise the designated agency ethics official of the agreement.

§ 2634.804 Evidence of compliance.

(a) Requisite evidence of action taken. (1) For ethics agreements of nominees to positions requiring the advice and consent of the Senate, evidence of any action taken to comply with the terms of such ethics agreements must be submitted to the designated agency ethics official. The designated agency ethics official will promptly notify the Office of Government Ethics and the Senate confirmation committee of actions taken to comply with the ethics agreement.

(2) In the case of incumbents and all other reporting individuals, evidence of any action taken to comply with the terms of an ethics agreement must be sent promptly to the designated agency ethics official.

(b) The following materials and any other appropriate information constitute evidence of the action taken:

(1) Recusal. A copy of a recusal statement listing and describing the specific matters or subjects to which the recusal applies, a statement of the method by which the agency will enforce the recusal. A recusal statement is not required for a general affirmation that the filer will comply with ethics laws.

Example:A new employee of a Federal safety board owns stock in Nationwide Airlines. She has entered into an ethics agreement to recuse herself from participating in any accident investigations involving that company's aircraft until such time as she can complete a divestiture of the asset. She sends an email to the designated agency ethics official recusing herself from Nationwide Airline matters. She sends an email to her supervisor and subordinates to notify them of the recusal and to request that they do not refer matters involving Nationwide Airlines to her. She also sends a copy of that email to the designated agency ethics official.

(2) Divestiture or resignation. Written notification that the divestiture or resignation has occurred.

(3) Waivers. A copy of any waivers issued pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1) or (b)(3) and signed by the appropriate supervisory official.

(4) Blind or diversified trusts. Information required by subpart D of this part to be submitted to the Office of Government Ethics for its certification of any qualified trust instrument. If the Office of Government Ethics does not certify the trust, the designated agency ethics official and, as appropriate, the Senate confirmation committee should be informed immediately.

§ 2634.805 Retention.

Records of ethics agreements and actions described in this subpart will be maintained by the agency. In addition, copies of such record will be maintained by the Office of Government Ethics with respect to filers whose reports are certified by the Office of Government Ethics.

Subpart I Confidential Financial Disclosure Reports
§ 2634.901 Policies of confidential financial disclosure reporting.

(a) The confidential financial reporting system set forth in this subpart is designed to complement the public reporting system established by title I of the Act. High-level officials in the executive branch are required to report certain financial interests publicly to ensure that every citizen can have confidence in the integrity of the Federal Government. It is equally important in order to guarantee the efficient and honest operation of the Government that other, less senior, executive branch employees, whose Government duties involve the exercise of significant discretion in certain sensitive areas, report their financial interests and outside business activities to their employing agencies, to facilitate the review of possible conflicts of interest. These reports assist an agency in administering its ethics program and counseling its employees. Such reports are filed on a confidential basis.

(b) The confidential reporting system seeks from employees only that information which is relevant to the administration and application of criminal conflict of interest laws, administrative standards of conduct, and agency-specific statutory and program-related restrictions. The basic content of the reports required by § 2634.907 reflects that certain information is generally relevant to all agencies. However, depending upon an agency's authorized activities and any special or unique circumstances, additional information may be necessary. In these situations, and subject to the prior written approval of the Director of the Office of Government Ethics, agencies may formulate supplemental reporting requirements by following the procedures of §§ 2634.103 and 2634.601(b).

(c) This subpart also allows an agency to request, on a confidential basis, additional information from persons who are already subject to the public reporting requirements of this part. The public reporting requirements of the Act address Governmentwide concerns. The reporting requirements of this subpart allow agencies to confront special or unique agency concerns. If those concerns prompt an agency to seek more extensive reporting from employees who file public reports, it may proceed on a confidential, nonpublic basis, with prior written approval from the Director of the Office of Government Ethics, under the procedures of §§ 2634.103 and 2634.601(b).

(d) The reports filed pursuant to this subpart are specifically characterized as “confidential,” and are required to be withheld from the public, pursuant to section 107(a) of the Act. Section 107(a) leaves no discretion on this issue with the agencies. See also § 2634.604. Further, Executive Order 12674 as modified by Executive Order 12731 provides, in section 201(d), for a system of nonpublic (confidential) executive branch financial disclosure to complement the Act's system of public disclosure. The confidential reports provided for by this subpart contain sensitive commercial and financial information, as well as personal privacy-protected information. These reports and the information which they contain are, accordingly, exempt from being released to the public, under exemptions 3(A) and (B), 4, and 6 of the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3)(A) and (B), (b)(4), and (b)(6). Additional FOIA exemptions may apply to particular reports or portions of reports. Agency personnel will not publicly release the reports or the information which these reports contain, except pursuant to an order issued by a Federal court, or as otherwise provided under applicable provisions of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a), and in the OGE/GOVT-2 Governmentwide executive branch Privacy Act system of records, as well as any applicable agency records system. If an agency statute requires the public reporting of certain information and, for purposes of convenience, an agency chooses to collect that information on the confidential report form filed under this subpart, only the special statutory information may be released to the public, pursuant to the terms of the statute under which it was collected.

(e) Executive branch agencies hire or use the paid and unpaid services of many individuals on an advisory or other less than full-time basis as special Government employees. These employees may include experts and consultants to the Government, as well as members of Government advisory committees. It is important for those agencies that utilize such services, and for the individuals who provide the services, to anticipate and avoid real or apparent conflicts of interest. The confidential financial disclosure system promotes that goal, with special Government employees among those required to file confidential reports.

(f) For additional policies and definitions of terms applicable to both the public and confidential reporting systems, see §§ 2634.104 and 2634.105.

§ 2634.902 [Reserved]
§ 2634.903 General requirements, filing dates, and extensions.

(a) Incumbents. A confidential filer who holds a position or office described in § 2634.904(a) and who performs the duties of that position or office for a period in excess of 60 days during the calendar year (including more than 60 days in an acting capacity) must file a confidential report as an incumbent, containing the information prescribed in §§ 2634.907 and 2634.908 on or before February 15 of the following year. This requirement does not apply if the employee has left Government service or has left a covered position prior to the due date for the report. No incumbent reports are required of special Government employees described in § 2634.904(a)(2), but who must file new entrant reports under paragraph (b) of this section upon each appointment or reappointment. For confidential filers under § 2634.904(a)(3), consult agency supplemental regulations.

(b) New entrants. (1) Not later than 30 days after assuming a new position or office described in § 2634.904(a) (which also encompasses the reappointment or redesignation of a special Government employee, including one who is serving on an advisory committee), a confidential filer must file a confidential report containing the information prescribed in §§ 2634.907 and 2634.908. For confidential filers under § 2634.904(a)(3), consult agency supplemental regulations.

(2) However, no report will be required if the individual:

(i) Has, within 30 days prior to assuming the position, left another position or office referred to in § 2634.904(a) or in § 2634.202, and has previously satisfied the reporting requirements applicable to that former position, but a copy of the report filed by the individual while in that position should be made available to the appointing agency, and the individual must comply with any agency requirement for a supplementary report for the new position;

(ii) Has already filed such a report in connection with consideration for appointment to the position. The agency may request that the individual update such a report if more than six months has expired since it was filed; or

(iii) Is not reasonably expected to perform the duties of an office or position referred to in § 2634.904(a) for more than 60 days in the following 12-month period, as determined by the designated agency ethics official or delegate. That may occur most commonly in the case of an employee who temporarily serves in an acting capacity in a position described by § 2634.904(a)(1). If the individual actually performs the duties of such position for more than 60 days in the 12-month period, then a confidential financial disclosure report must be filed within 15 calendar days after the sixtieth day of such service in the position. Paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section does not apply to new entrants filing as special Government employees under § 2634.904(a)(2).

(3) Notwithstanding the filing deadline prescribed in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, agencies may at their discretion, require that prospective entrants into positions described in § 2634.904(a) file their new entrant confidential financial disclosure reports prior to serving in such positions, to ensure that there are no insurmountable ethics concerns. Additionally, a special Government employee who has been appointed to serve on an advisory committee must file the required report before any advice is rendered by the employee to the agency, or in no event, later than the first committee meeting.

(c) Advisory committee definition. For purposes of this subpart, the term advisory committee will have the meaning given to that term under section 3 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app). Specifically, it means any committee, board, commission, council, conference, panel, task force, or other similar group which is established by statute or reorganization plan, or established or utilized by the President or one or more agencies, in the interest of obtaining advice or recommendations for the President or one or more agencies or officers of the Federal Government. Such term includes any subcommittee or other subgroup of any advisory committee, but does not include the Advisory Commission on Intergovernmental Relations, the Commission on Government Procurement, or any committee composed wholly of full-time officers or employees of the Federal Government.

(d) Extensions—(1) Agency extensions. The agency reviewing official may, for good cause shown, grant to any employee or class of employees a filing extension or several extensions totaling not more than 90 days.

(2) Certain service during period of national emergency. In the case of an active duty military officer or enlisted member of the Armed Forces, a Reserve or National Guard member on active duty under orders issued pursuant to title 10 or title 32 of the United States Code, a commissioned officer of the Uniformed Services (as defined in 10 U.S.C. 101), or any other employee, who is deployed or sent to a combat zone or required to perform services away from the employee's permanent duty station in support of the Armed Forces or other governmental entities following a declaration by the President of a national emergency, the date of filing will be extended to 90 days after the last day of:

(i) The employee's service in the combat zone or away from the employee's permanent duty station; or

(ii) The employee's hospitalization as a result of injury received or disease contracted while serving during the national emergency.

(3) Agency procedures. Each agency may prescribe procedures to provide for the implementation of the extensions provided for by this paragraph.

(e) Termination reports not required. An employee who is required to file a confidential financial disclosure report is not required to file a termination report upon leaving the filing position.

§ 2634.904 Confidential filer defined.

(a) The term confidential filer includes:

(1) Each officer or employee in the executive branch whose position is classified at GS-15 or below of the General Schedule prescribed by 5 U.S.C. 5332, or the rate of basic pay for which is fixed, other than under the General Schedule, at a rate which is less than 120% of the minimum rate of basic pay for GS-15 of the General Schedule; each officer or employee of the United States Postal Service or Postal Rate Commission whose basic rate of pay is less than 120% of the minimum rate of basic pay for GS-15 of the General Schedule; each member of a uniformed service whose pay grade is less than 0-7 under 37 U.S.C. 201; and each officer or employee in any other position determined by the designated agency ethics official to be of equal classification; if:

(i) The agency concludes that the duties and responsibilities of the employee's position require that employee to participate personally and substantially (as defined in §§ 2635.402(b)(4) and 2640.103(a)(2) of this chapter) through decision or the exercise of significant judgment, and without substantial supervision and review, in taking a Government action regarding:

(A) Contracting or procurement;

(B) Administering or monitoring grants, subsidies, licenses, or other federally conferred financial or operational benefits;

(C) Regulating or auditing any non-Federal entity; or

(D) Other activities in which the final decision or action will have a direct and substantial economic effect on the interests of any non-Federal entity; or

(ii) The agency concludes that the duties and responsibilities of the employee's position require the employee to file such a report to avoid involvement in a real or apparent conflict of interest, or to carry out the purposes behind any statute, Executive order, rule, or regulation applicable to or administered by the employee. Positions which might be subject to a reporting requirement under this subparagraph include those with duties which involve investigating or prosecuting violations of criminal or civil law.

Example 1:A contracting officer develops the requests for proposals for data processing equipment of significant value which is to be purchased by his agency. He works with substantial independence of action and exercises significant judgment in developing the requests. By engaging in this activity, he is participating personally and substantially in the contracting process. The contracting officer should be required to file a confidential financial disclosure report.

Example 2:An agency environmental engineer inspects a manufacturing plant to ascertain whether the plant complies with permits to release a certain effluent into a nearby stream. Any violation of the permit standards may result in civil penalties for the plant, and in criminal penalties for the plant's management based upon any action which they took to create the violation. If the agency engineer determines that the plant does not meet the permit requirements, he can require the plant to terminate release of the effluent until the plant satisfies the permit standards. Because the engineer exercises substantial discretion in regulating the plant's activities, and because his final decisions will have a substantial economic effect on the plant's interests, the engineer should be required to file a confidential financial disclosure report.

Example 3:A GS-13 employee at an independent grant making agency conducts the initial agency review of grant applications from nonprofit organizations and advises the Deputy Assistant Chairman for Grants and Awards about the merits of each application. Although the process of reviewing the grant applications entails significant judgment, the employee's analysis and recommendations are reviewed by the Deputy Assistant Chairman, and the Assistant Chairman, before the Chairman decides what grants to award. Because his work is subject to “substantial supervision and review,” the employee is not required to file a confidential financial disclosure report unless the agency determines that filing is necessary under § 2634.904(a)(1)(ii).

Example 4:As a senior investigator for a criminal law enforcement agency, an employee often leads investigations, with substantial independence, of suspected felonies. The investigator usually decides what information will be contained in the agency's report of the suspected misconduct. Because he participates personally and substantially through the exercise of significant judgment in investigating violations of criminal law, the investigator should be required to file a confidential financial disclosure report.

(2) Unless required to file public financial disclosure reports by subpart B of this part, all executive branch special Government employees who:

(i) Have a substantial role in the formulation of agency policy;

(ii) Serve on a Federal Advisory Committee; or

(iii) Meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section.

Example 1:A consultant to an agency periodically advises the agency regarding important foreign policy matters. The consultant must file a confidential report if he is retained as a special Government employee and not an independent contractor.

Example 2:A special Government employee serving as a member of an advisory committee (who is not a private group representative) attends four committee meetings every year to provide advice to an agency about pharmaceutical matters. No compensation is received by the committee member, other than travel expenses. The advisory committee member must file a confidential disclosure report because she is a special Government employee.

(3) Each public filer referred to in § 2634.202 on public disclosure who is required by agency regulations and forms issued in accordance with §§ 2634.103 and 2634.601(b) to file a supplemental confidential financial disclosure report which contains information that is more extensive than the information required in the reporting individual's public financial disclosure report under this part.

(4) Any employee who, notwithstanding the employee's exclusion from the public financial reporting requirements of this part by virtue of a determination under § 2634.203, is covered by the criteria of paragraph (a)(1) of this section.

(b) Any individual or class of individuals described in paragraph (a) of this section, including special Government employees unless otherwise noted, may be excluded from all or a portion of the confidential reporting requirements of this subpart, when the agency head or designee determines that the duties of a position make remote the possibility that the incumbent will be involved in a real or apparent conflict of interest.

Example 1:A special Government employee who is a draftsman prepares the drawings to be used by an agency in soliciting bids for construction work on a bridge. Because he is not involved in the contracting process associated with the construction, the likelihood that this action will create a conflict of interest is remote. As a result, the special Government employee is not required to file a confidential financial disclosure report.

Example 2:An agency has just hired aGS-5 Procurement Assistant who is responsible for typing and processing procurement documents, answering status inquiries from the public, performing office support duties such as filing and copying, and maintaining an on-line contract database. The Assistant is not involved in contracting and has no other actual procurement responsibilities. Thus, the possibility that the Assistant will be involved in a real or apparent conflict of interest is remote, and the Assistant is not required to file.

§ 2634.905 Use of alternative procedures.

Agencies are encouraged to consider whether an alternative procedure would allow the agency to more effectively assess possible conflicts of interest. With the prior written approval of OGE, an agency may use an alternative procedure in lieu of filing the OGE Form 450. The alternative procedure may be an agency-specific form to be filed in place thereof. An agency must submit for approval a description of its proposed alternative procedure to OGE.

Example 1:A nonsupervisory auditor at an agency is regularly assigned to cases involving possible loan improprieties by financial institutions. Prior to undertaking each enforcement review, the auditor reviews the file to determine if she has a conflict of interest. After determining that she has no conflict of interest, she signs and dates a certification which verifies that she has reviewed the file and has made such a determination. She then files the certification with the head of her auditing division at the agency. On the other hand, if she cannot execute the certification, she informs the head of her auditing division. In response, the division will either reassign the case or review the conflicting interest to determine whether a waiver would be appropriate. This alternative procedure, if approved by the Office of Government Ethics in writing, may be used in lieu of requiring the auditor to file a confidential financial disclosure report.

Example 2:To reduce its workload, an agency proposes that employees may file a statement certifying there has been no change in reportable information and no change in the filer's position and duties and attaching the most recent OGE Form 450. This alternative procedure, if approved by the Office of Government Ethics in writing, may be used in lieu of requiring the filer to complete an OGE Form 450.

§ 2634.906 Review of confidential filer status.

The head of each agency, or an officer designated by the head of the agency for that purpose, will review any complaint by an individual that the individual's position has been improperly determined by the agency to be one which requires the submission of a confidential financial disclosure report pursuant to this subpart. A decision by the agency head or designee regarding the complaint will be final.

§ 2634.907 Report contents.

(a) Other than the reports described in § 2634.904(a)(3), each confidential financial disclosure report must comply with instructions issued by the Office of Government Ethics and include on the standardized form prescribed by OGE (see § 2634.601) the information described in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section for the filer. Each report must also include the information described in paragraph (h) of this section for the filer's spouse and dependent children.

(b) Noninvestment income. Each financial disclosure report must disclose the source of earned or other noninvestment income in excess of $1,000 received by the filer from any one source during the reporting period, including:

(1) Salaries, fees, commissions, wages and any other compensation for personal services (other than from United States Government employment);

(2) Any honoraria, including payments made or to be made to charitable organizations on behalf of the filer in lieu of honoraria; and

Note to 1 paragraph (b)(2):

In determining whether an honorarium exceeds the $1,000 threshold, subtract any actual and necessary travel expenses incurred by the filer and one relative, if the expenses are paid or reimbursed by the filer. If such expenses are paid or reimbursed by the honorarium source, they will not be counted as part of the honorarium payment.

(3) Any other noninvestment income, such as prizes, scholarships, awards, gambling income or discharge of indebtedness.

Example 1 to paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(3):A filer teaches a course at a local community college, for which she receives a salary of $3,000 per year. She also received, during the previous reporting period, a $1,250 award for outstanding local community service. She must disclose both.

(c) Assets and investment income. Each financial disclosure report must disclose separately:

(1) Each item of real and personal property having a fair market value in excess of $1,000 held by the filer at the end of the reporting period in a trade or business, or for investment or the production of income, including but not limited to:

(i) Real estate;

(ii) Stocks, bonds, securities, and futures contracts;

(iii) Sector mutual funds, sector exchange-traded funds, and other pooled investment funds;

(iv) Pensions and annuities;

(v) Vested beneficial interests in trusts;

(vi) Ownership interest in businesses and partnerships; and

(vii) Accounts receivable.

(2) The source of investment income (dividends, rents, interest, capital gains, or the income from qualified or excepted trusts or excepted investment funds (see paragraph (i) of this section)), which is received by the filer during the reporting period, and which exceeds $1,000 in amount or value from any one source, including but not limited to income derived from:

(i) Real estate;

(ii) Collectible items;

(iii) Stocks, bonds, and notes;

(iv) Copyrights;

(v) Vested beneficial interests in trusts and estates;

(vi) Pensions;

(vii) Sector mutual funds (see definition at § 2640.102(q) of this chapter);

(viii) The investment portion of life insurance contracts;

(ix) Loans;

(x) Gross income from a business;

(xi) Distributive share of a partnership;

(xii) Joint business venture income; and

(xiii) Payments from an estate or an annuity or endowment contract.

Note 2 to paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2):

For Individual Retirement Accounts (IRAs), brokerage accounts, trusts, mutual or pension funds, and other entities with portfolio holdings, each underlying asset must be separately disclosed, unless the entity qualifies for special treatment under paragraph (i) of this section.

(3) Exceptions. The following assets and investment income are excepted from the reporting requirements of paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section:

(i) A personal residence, as defined in § 2634.105(l);

(ii) Accounts (including both demand and time deposits) in depository institutions, including banks, savings and loan associations, credit unions, and similar depository financial institutions;

(iii) Money market mutual funds and accounts;

(iv) U.S. Government obligations, including Treasury bonds, bills, notes, and savings bonds;

(v) Government securities issued by U.S. Government agencies;

(vi) Financial interests in any retirement system of the United States (including the Thrift Savings Plan) or under the Social Security Act;

(vii) Financial interest in any diversified fund held in any pension plan established or maintained by State government or any political subdivision of a State government for its employees;

(viii) A diversified fund in an employee benefit plan; and

(ix) Diversified mutual funds and unit investment trusts.

Note 3 to paragraphs (c)(3)(vii) through (ix):

For purposes of this section, “diversified” means that the fund does not have a stated policy of concentrating its investments in any industry, business, single country other than the United States, or bonds of a single State within the United States and, in the case of an employee benefit plan, means that the plan's independent trustee has a written policy of varying plan investments. Whether a fund meets this standard may be determined by checking the fund's prospectus or by calling a broker or the manager of the fund.

Example 1 to paragraph (c):A filer owns a beach house which he rents out for several weeks each summer, receiving annual rental income of approximately $5,000. He must report the rental property, as well as the city and state in which it is located.

Example 2 to paragraph (c):A filer's investment portfolio consists of several stocks, U.S. Treasury bonds, several cash bank deposit accounts, an account in the Government's Thrift Savings Plan, and shares in sector mutual funds and diversified mutual funds. He must report the name of each sector mutual fund in which he owns shares, and the name of each company in which he owns stock, valued at over $1,000 at the end of the reporting period or from which he received income of more than $1,000 during the reporting period. He need not report his diversified mutual funds, U.S. Treasury bonds, bank deposit accounts, or Thrift Savings Plan holdings.

(d) Liabilities. Each financial disclosure report filed pursuant to this subpart must identify liabilities in excess of $10,000 owed by the filer at any time during the reporting period, and the name and location of the creditors to whom such liabilities are owed, except:

(1) Personal liabilities owed to a spouse or to the parent, brother, sister, or child of the filer, spouse, or dependent child;

(2) Any mortgage secured by a personal residence of the filer or the filer's spouse;

(3) Any loan secured by a personal motor vehicle, household furniture, or appliances, provided that the loan does not exceed the purchase price of the item which secures it;

(4) Any revolving charge account;

(5) Any student loan; and

(6) Any loan from a bank or other financial institution on terms generally available to the public.

Example 1 to paragraph (d):A filer owes $2,500 to his mother-in-law and $12,000 to his best friend. He also has a $15,000 balance on his credit card, a $200,000 mortgage on his personal residence, and a car loan. Under the financial disclosure reporting requirements, he need not report the debt to his mother-in-law, his credit card balance, his mortgage, or his car loan. He must, however, report the debt of over $10,000 to his best friend.

(e) Positions with non-Federal organizations—(1) In general. Each financial disclosure report filed pursuant to this subpart must identify all positions held at any time by the filer during the reporting period, other than with the United States, as an officer, director, trustee, general partner, proprietor, representative, executor, employee, or consultant of any corporation, company, firm, partnership, trust, or other business enterprise, any nonprofit organization, any labor organization, or any educational or other institution.

(2) Exceptions. The following positions are excepted from the reporting requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section:

(i) Positions held in religious, social, fraternal, or political entities; and

(ii) Positions solely of an honorary nature, such as those with an emeritus designation.

Example 1 to paragraph (e):A filer holds outside positions as the trustee of his family trust, the secretary of a local political party committee, and the “Chairman” of his town's Lions Club. He also is a principal of a tutoring school on weekends. The individual must report his outside positions as trustee of the family trust and as principal of the school. He does not need to report his positions as secretary of the local political party committee or “Chairman” because each of these positions is excepted from disclosure.

Example 2 to paragraph (e):An official recently terminated her role as the managing member of a limited liability corporation upon appointment to a position in the executive branch. The managing member position must be disclosed in the official's new entrant financial disclosure report pursuant to this section.

Example 3 to paragraph (e):An official is a member of the board of his church. The official does not need to disclose the position in his financial disclosure report.

Example 4 to paragraph (e):An official is an officer in a fraternal organization that exists for the purpose of performing service work in the community. The official does not need to disclose this position in her financial disclosure report.

Example 5 to paragraph (e):An official is the ceremonial Parade Marshal for a local town's annual Founders' Day event and, in that capacity, leads a parade and serves as Master of Ceremonies for an awards ceremony at the town hall. The official does not need to disclose this position in her financial disclosure report.

Example 6 to paragraph (e):An official recently terminated his role as a campaign manager for a candidate for the Office of the President of the United States upon appointment to a noncareer position in the executive branch. The official does not need to disclose the campaign manager position in his financial disclosure report.

Example 7 to paragraph (e):Immediately prior to her recent appointment to a position in an agency, an official terminated her employment as a corporate officer. In connection with her employment, she served for several years as the corporation's representative to an incorporated association that represents members of the industry in which the corporation operates. She does not need to disclose her role as her employer's representative to the association because she performed her representative duties in her capacity as a corporate officer.

Example 8 to paragraph (e):An official holds a position on the board of directors of a local food bank. The official must disclose the position in his financial disclosure report.

(f) Agreements and arrangements. Each financial disclosure report filed pursuant to this subpart must identify the parties to, and must briefly describe the terms of, any agreement or arrangement of the filer in existence at any time during the reporting period with respect to:

(1) Future employment (including the date on which the filer entered into the agreement for future employment);

(2) A leave of absence from employment during the period of the filer's Government service;

(3) Continuation of payments by a current or former employer other than the United States Government; and

(4) Continuing participation in an employee welfare or benefit plan maintained by a current or former employer other than the United States Government. Confidential filers are not required to disclose continuing participation in a defined contribution plan, such as a 401(k) plan, to which a former employer is no longer making contributions.

Note 4 to paragraph (f)(4):

Even if the agreement is not reportable, the filer must disclose any reportable asset, such as a sector fund or a stock, held in the account.

Example 1 to paragraph (f):A filer plans to retire from Government service in eight months. She has negotiated an arrangement for part-time employment with a private-sector company, to commence upon her retirement. On her financial disclosure report, she must identify the future employer, and briefly describe the terms of, this agreement and disclose the date on which she entered into the agreement.

Example 2 to paragraph (f):A new employee has entered a position which requires the filing of a confidential form. During his Government tenure, he will continue to receive deferred compensation from his former employer and will continue to participate in its pension plan. He must report the receipt of deferred compensation and the participation in the defined benefit plan.

Example 3 to paragraph (f):An employee has a defined contribution plan with a former employer. The employer no longer makes contributions to the plan. In the account, the employee holds shares worth $15,000 in an S&P 500 Index fund and shares worth $7,000 in an U.S. Financial Services fund. The employee does not need to disclose either the agreement to continue to participate in the plan or the S&P 500 Index Fund. The employee must disclose the U.S. Financial Services Fund sector fund.

(g) Gifts and travel reimbursements. (1) Disclosure of Gifts and Travel Reimbursements. Each annual financial disclosure report filed pursuant to this subpart must contain a brief description of all gifts and travel reimbursements aggregating more than $525 in value which are received by the filer during the reporting period from any one source, as well as the identity of the source. For travel-related items, the report must include a travel itinerary, the dates, and the nature of expenses provided. Special government employees are not required to report the travel reimbursements received from their non-Federal employers.

(2) Aggregation exception. Any gift or travel reimbursement with a fair market value of $210 or less need not be aggregated for purposes of the reporting rules of this section. However, the acceptance of gifts, whether or not reportable, is subject to the restrictions imposed by Executive Order 12674, as modified by Executive Order 12731, and the implementing regulations on standards of ethical conduct.

Note 5 to paragraph (g)(2):

The Office of Government Ethics sets these amounts every 3 years using the same disclosure thresholds as those for public financial disclosure filers. As of 2026, the reporting thresholds were set at $525 and the aggregation threshold was set at $210. The Office of Government Ethics will update this part in 2029 and every three years thereafter to reflect the new amounts.

(3) Valuation of gifts and travel reimbursements. The value to be assigned to a gift or travel reimbursement is its fair market value. For most reimbursements, this will be the amount actually received. For gifts, the value should be determined in one of the following manners:

(i) If the gift is readily available in the market, the value will be its retail price. The filer need not contact the donor, but may contact a retail establishment selling similar items to determine the present cost in the market.

(ii) If the item is not readily available in the market, such as a piece of art, the filer may make a good faith estimate of the value of the item.

(iii) The term “readily available in the market” means that an item generally is available for retail purchase.

(4) New entrants, as described in § 2634.903(b), need not report any information on gifts and travel reimbursements.

(5) Exceptions. Reports need not contain any information about:

(i) Gifts and travel reimbursements received from relatives (see § 2634.105(o)).

(ii) Gifts and travel reimbursements received during a period in which the filer was not an officer or employee of the Federal Government.

(iii) Any food, lodging, or entertainment received as “personal hospitality of any individual,” as defined in § 2634.105(k).

(iv) Any payments for legal expenses from a legal expense fund or the provision of pro bono legal services, as defined in subpart J of part 2635 of this chapter, or any payments for legal expenses or the provision of pro bono legal services that otherwise qualify for a gift exclusion or gift exception in subpart B of part 2635 of this chapter, if the confidential filer is an anonymous whistleblower as defined by § 2635.1003 of this chapter.

(v) Any exclusions specified in the definitions of “gift” and “reimbursement” at § 2634.105(h) and (n).

Example 1 to Paragraph (g):A filer accepts a laptop bag, a t-shirt, and a cell phone from a community service organization he has worked with solely in his private capacity. He determines that the value of these gifts is: Gift 1—Laptop bag: $230; Gift 2—T-shirt: $20; Gift 3—Cell phone: $340. The filer must disclose Gift 1 and Gift 3 because, together, they aggregate more than $525 in value from the same source. He need not aggregate or report Gift 2 because the gift's value does not exceed $210.

(h) Disclosure rules for spouses and dependent children—(1) Noninvestment income. (i) Each financial disclosure report required by the provisions of this subpart must disclose the source of earned income in excess of $1,000 from any one source, which is received by the filer's spouse during the reporting period. If earned income is derived from a spouse's self-employment in a business or profession, the report must disclose the nature of the business or profession. The filer is not required to report other noninvestment income received by the spouse such as prizes, scholarships, awards, gambling income, or a discharge of indebtedness.

(ii) Each report must disclose the source of any honoraria received by the spouse (or payments made or to be made to charity on the spouse's behalf in lieu of honoraria) in excess of $1,000 from any one source during the reporting period.

Example 1 to paragraph (h)(1):A filer's husband has a seasonal part-time job as a sales clerk at a department store, for which he receives a salary of $1,000 per year, and an honorarium of $1,250 from the state university. The filer need not report her husband's outside earned income because it did not exceed $1,000. She must, however, report the source of the honorarium because it exceeded $1,000.

(2) Assets and investment income. Each confidential financial disclosure report must disclose the assets and investment income described in paragraph (c) of this section and held by the spouse or dependent child of the filer.

(3) Liabilities. Each confidential financial disclosure report must disclose all information concerning liabilities described in paragraph (d) of this section and owed by a spouse or dependent child.

(4) Gifts and travel reimbursements. (i) Each annual confidential financial disclosure report must disclose gifts and reimbursements described in paragraph (g) of this section and received by a spouse or dependent child which are not received totally independently of their relationship to the filer.

(ii) A filer who is a new entrant as described in § 2634.903(b) is not required to report information regarding gifts and reimbursements received by a spouse or dependent child.

(5) Divorce and separation. A filer need not report any information about:

(i) A spouse living separate and apart from the filer with the intention of terminating the marriage or providing for permanent separation;

(ii) A former spouse or a spouse from whom the filer is permanently separated; or

(iii) Any income or obligations of the filer arising from dissolution of the filer's marriage or permanent separation from a spouse.

Example 1 to paragraph (h)(5):A filer and her husband are living apart in anticipation of divorcing. The filer need not report any information about her spouse's sole assets and liabilities, but she must continue to report their joint assets and liabilities.

(6) Unusual circumstances. In very rare cases, certain interests in property, transactions, and liabilities of a spouse or a dependent child are excluded from reporting requirements, provided that each requirement of this paragraph is strictly met.

(i) The filer must certify without qualification that the item represents the spouse's or dependent child's sole financial interest or responsibility, and that the filer has no knowledge regarding that item;

(ii) The item must not be in any way, past or present, derived from the income, assets or activities of the filer; and

(iii) The filer must not derive, or expect to derive, any financial or economic benefit from the item.

Note 6 to paragraph (h)(6):

The exception described in paragraph (6) of this section is not available to most filers. One who prepares or files a joint tax return with a spouse will normally derive a financial or economic benefit from assets held by the spouse, and will also be presumed to have knowledge of such items; therefore one could not avail oneself of this exception after preparing or filing a joint tax return. If the filer and the spouse cohabitate and share household expenses, the filer will be deemed to derive an economic benefit from the item, unless the item is beyond the filer's control.

Example 1 to paragraph (h)(6):The spouse of a filer has a managed account with a brokerage firm. The filer knows the account exists but the spouse does not share any information about the holdings and does not want the information disclosed on a financial disclosure statement. The filer must disclose the holdings in the spouse's managed account because the spouse shares in paying expenses (for example, household, vacation, or child related).

(i) Trusts, estates, and investment funds—(1) In general. (i) Except as otherwise provided in this section, each confidential financial disclosure report must include the information required by this subpart about the holdings of any trust, estate, investment fund or other financial arrangement from which income is received by, or with respect to which a beneficial interest in principal or income is held by, the filer, the filer's spouse, or dependent child.

(ii) Information about the underlying holdings of a trust is required if the filer, filer's spouse, or dependent child currently is entitled to receive income from the trust or is entitled to access the principal of the trust. If a filer, filer's spouse, or dependent child has a beneficial interest in a trust that either will provide income or the ability to access the principal in the future, the filer should determine whether there is a vested interest in the trust under controlling state law. However, no information about the underlying holdings of the trust is required for a nonvested beneficial interest in the principal or income of a trust.

Note 7 to paragraph (i)(1):

Nothing in this section requires the reporting of the holdings of a revocable inter vivos trust (also known as a “living trust”) with respect to which the filer, the filer's spouse or dependent child has only a remainder interest, whether or not vested, provided that the grantor of the trust is neither the filer, the filer's spouse, nor the filer's dependent child. Furthermore, nothing in this section requires the reporting of the holdings of a revocable inter vivos trust from which the filer, the filer's spouse or dependent child receives any discretionary distribution, provided that the grantor of the trust is neither the filer, the filer's spouse, nor the filer's dependent child.

(2) Qualified trusts and excepted trusts. (i) A filer should not report information about the holdings of any qualified blind trust (as defined in § 2634.402) or any qualified diversified trust (as defined in § 2634.402).

(ii) In the case of an excepted trust, a filer should indicate the general nature of its holdings, to the extent known, but does not otherwise need to report information about the trust's holdings. For purposes of this part, the term “excepted trust” means a trust:

(A) Which was not created directly by the filer, spouse, or dependent child; and

(B) The holdings or sources of income of which the filer, spouse, or dependent child have no specific knowledge through a report, disclosure, or constructive receipt, whether intended or inadvertent.

(3) Excepted investment funds. (i) No information is required under paragraph (i)(1) of this section about the underlying holdings of an excepted investment fund as defined in paragraph (i)(3)(ii) of this section, except that the fund itself must be identified as an interest in property and/or a source of income.

(ii) For purposes of financial disclosure reports filed under the provisions of this subpart, an “excepted investment fund” means a widely held investment fund (whether a mutual fund, regulated investment company, common trust fund maintained by a bank or similar financial institution, pension or deferred compensation plan, or any other investment fund), if:

(A)(1) The fund is publicly traded or available; or

(2) The assets of the fund are widely diversified; and

(B) The filer neither exercises control over nor has the ability to exercise control over the financial interests held by the fund.

(iii) A fund is widely diversified if it does not have a stated policy of concentrating its investments in any industry, business, single country other than the United States, or bonds of a single State within the United States.

Note 8 to paragraph (i)(3):

The fact that an investment fund qualifies as an excepted investment fund is not relevant to a determination as to whether the investment qualifies for an exemption to the criminal conflict of interest statute at 18 U.S.C. 208(a), pursuant to part 2640 of this chapter. Some excepted investment funds qualify for exemptions pursuant to part 2640, while other excepted investment funds do not qualify for such exemptions. If an employee holds an excepted investment fund that is not exempt from 18 U.S.C. 208(a), the ethics official may need additional information from the filer to determine if the holdings of the fund create a conflict of interest and should advise the employee to monitor the fund's holdings for potential conflicts of interest.

(j) Special rules. (1) Political campaign funds, including campaign receipts and expenditures, need not be included in any report filed under this subpart. However, if the individual has authority to exercise control over the fund's assets for personal use rather than campaign or political purposes, that portion of the fund over which such authority exists must be reported.

(2) With permission of the designated agency ethics official, a filer may attach to the reporting form a copy of a statement which, in a clear and concise fashion, readily discloses all information which the filer would otherwise have been required to enter on the concerned part of the report form.

(k) For reports of confidential filers described in § 2634.904(a)(3), each supplemental confidential financial disclosure report will include only the supplemental information:

(1) Which is more extensive than that required in the reporting individual's public financial disclosure report under this part; and

(2) Which has been approved by the Office of Government Ethics for collection by the agency concerned, as set forth in supplemental agency regulations and forms, issued under §§ 2634.103 and 2634.601(b) (see § 2634.901(b) and (c)).

[83 FR 33981, July 18, 2018, as amended at 85 FR 36716, June 18, 2020; 88 FR 33809, May 25, 2023; 88 FR 37754, June 9, 2023; 91 FR 67767, Oct. 28, 2026]

§ 2634.908 Reporting periods.

(a) Incumbents. Each confidential financial disclosure report filed under § 2634.903(a) must include the information required to be reported under this subpart for the preceding calendar year, or for any portion of that period not covered by a previous confidential or public financial disclosure report filed under this part.

(b) New entrants. Each confidential financial disclosure report filed under § 2634.903(b) must include the information required to be reported under this subpart for the following reporting periods:

(1) Noninvestment income for the preceding 12 months;

(2) Assets held on the date of filing. New entrant filers are not required to report assets no longer held at the time of appointment, even if the assets previously produced income before the filers were appointed to their confidential positions;

(3) Liabilities owed on the date of filing;

(4) Positions with non-Federal organizations for the preceding 12 months; and

(5) Agreements and arrangements held on the date of filing.

§ 2634.909 Procedures, penalties, and ethics agreements.

(a) The provisions of subpart F of this part govern the filing procedures and forms for, and the custody and review of, confidential disclosure reports filed under this subpart.

(b) For penalties and remedial action which apply in the event that the reporting individual fails to file, falsifies information, or files late with respect to confidential financial disclosure reports, see subpart G of this part.

(c) Subpart H of this part on ethics agreements applies to both the public and confidential reporting systems under this part.

Subpart J Certificates of Divestiture
§ 2634.1001 Overview.

(a) Scope. 26 U.S.C. 1043 and the rules of this subpart allow an eligible person to defer paying capital gains tax on property sold to comply with conflict of interest requirements. To defer the gains, an eligible person must obtain a Certificate of Divestiture from the Director of the Office of Government Ethics before selling the property. This subpart describes the circumstances when an eligible person may obtain a Certificate of Divestiture and establishes the procedure that the Office of Government Ethics uses to issue Certificates of Divestiture.

(b) Purpose. The purpose of section 1043 and this subpart is to minimize the burden that would result from paying capital gains tax on the sale of assets to comply with conflict of interest requirements. Minimizing this burden aids in attracting and retaining highly qualified personnel in the executive branch and ensures the confidence of the public in the integrity of Government officials and decision-making processes.

§ 2634.1002 Role of the Internal Revenue Service.

The Internal Revenue Service (IRS) has jurisdiction over the tax aspects of a divestiture made pursuant to a Certificate of Divestiture. Eligible persons seeking to defer capital gains:

(a) Must follow IRS requirements for reporting dispositions of property and electing under section 1043 not to recognize capital gains; and

(b) Should consult a personal tax advisor or the IRS for guidance on these matters.

§ 2634.1003 Definitions.

For purposes of this subpart:

(a) Eligible person means:

(1) Any officer or employee of the executive branch of the Federal Government, except a person who is a special Government employee as defined in 18 U.S.C. 202;

(2) The spouse or any minor or dependent child of the individual referred to in paragraph (1) of this definition; and

(3) Any trustee holding property in a trust in which an individual referred to in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition has a beneficial interest in principal or income.

(b) Permitted property means:

(1) An obligation of the United States; or

(2) A diversified investment fund. A diversified investment fund is a diversified mutual fund (including diversified exchange-traded funds) or a diversified unit investment trust, as defined in 5 CFR 2640.102(a), (k) and (u);

(3) Provided, however, a permitted property cannot be any holding prohibited by statute, regulation, rule, or Executive order. As a result, requirements applicable to specific agencies and positions may limit an eligible person's choices of permitted property. An employee seeking a Certificate of Divestiture should consult the appropriate designated agency ethics official to determine whether a statute, regulation, rule, or Executive order may limit choices of permitted property.

§ 2634.1004 General rule.

(a) The Director of the Office of Government Ethics may issue a Certificate of Divestiture for specific property in accordance with the procedures of § 2634.1005 if:

(1) The Director determines that divestiture of the property by an eligible person is reasonably necessary to comply with 18 U.S.C. 208, or any other Federal conflict of interest statute, regulation, rule, or Executive order; or

(2) A congressional committee requires divestiture as a condition of confirmation.

(b) The Director of the Office of Government Ethics cannot issue a Certificate of Divestiture for property that already has been sold.

Example 1:An employee is directed to divest shares of stock, a limited partnership interest, and foreign currencies. If the sale of these assets will result in capital gains under the Internal Revenue Code, the employee may request and receive a Certificate of Divestiture.

Example 2:An employee of the Department of Commerce is directed to divest his shares of XYZ stock acquired through the exercise of options held in an employee benefit plan. The employee explains that the gain from the sale of the stock will be treated as ordinary income. Because only capital gains realized under Federal tax law are eligible for deferral under section 1043, a Certificate of Divestiture cannot be issued for the sale of the XYZ stock.

Example 3:During her Senate confirmation hearing, a nominee to a Department of Defense (DOD) position is directed to divest stock in a DOD contractor as a condition of her confirmation. Eager to comply with the order to divest, the nominee sells her stock immediately after the hearing and prior to being confirmed by the Senate. Once she is a DOD employee, she requests a Certificate of Divestiture for the stock. Because the Office of Government Ethics cannot issue a Certificate of Divestiture for property that has already been divested, the employee's request for a Certificate of Divestiture must be denied.

§ 2634.1005 How to obtain a Certificate of Divestiture.

(a) Employee's request to the designated agency ethics official. An employee seeking a Certificate of Divestiture must submit a written request to the designated agency ethics official at his or her agency. The request must contain:

(1) A full and specific description of the property that will be divested. For example, if the property is corporate stock, the request must include the number of shares for which the eligible person seeks a Certificate of Divestiture;

(2) A brief description of how the eligible person acquired the property;

(3) A statement that the eligible person holding the property has agreed to divest the property; and

(4)(i) The date that the requirement to divest first applied; or

(ii) The date the employee first agreed that the eligible person would divest the property in order to comply with conflict of interest requirements.

(b) Designated agency ethics official's submission to the Office of Government Ethics. The designated agency ethics official must forward to the Director of the Office of Government Ethics the employee's written request described in paragraph (a) of this section. In addition, the designated agency ethics official must submit:

(1) A copy of the employee's most recent Incumbent financial disclosure report, or New Entrant report, if an Incumbent report has not been filed, and any subsequent Periodic Transaction reports, as required by this part. If the employee is not required to file a financial disclosure report, the designated agency ethics official must obtain from the employee, and submit to the Office of Government Ethics, a listing of the employee's interests that would be required to be disclosed on a confidential financial disclosure report excluding gifts and travel reimbursements. For purposes of this listing, the reporting period is the preceding 12 months from the date the requirement to divest first applied or the date the employee first agreed that the eligible person would divest the property;

(2) An opinion that describes why divestiture of the property is reasonably necessary to comply with 18 U.S.C. 208, or any other Federal conflict of interest statute, regulation, rule, or Executive order;

(3) If applicable, a statement identifying any factors that, in the opinion of the designated agency ethics official, weigh against the issuance of a certificate of divestiture; and

(4) A brief description of the employee's position or a citation to a statute that sets forth the duties of the position.

(c) Divestitures required by a congressional committee. In the case of a divestiture required by a congressional committee as a condition of confirmation, the designated agency ethics official must submit appropriate evidence that the committee requires the divestiture. A transcript of congressional testimony or a written statement from the designated agency ethics official concerning the committee's custom regarding divestiture are examples of evidence of the committee's requirements.

(d) Divestitures for property held in a trust. In the case of divestiture of property held in a trust, the employee must submit a copy of the trust instrument, as well as a list of the trust's current holdings, unless the holdings are listed on the employee's most recent financial disclosure report. In certain cases involving divestiture of property held in a trust, the Director may not issue a Certificate of Divestiture unless the parties take actions which, in the opinion of the Director, are appropriate to exclude, to the extent practicable, parties other than eligible persons from benefitting from the deferral of capital gains. Such actions may include, as permitted by applicable State law, division of the trust into separate portfolios, special distributions, dissolution of the trust, or anything else deemed feasible by the Director, in his or her sole discretion.

Example:An employee has a 90% beneficial interest in an irrevocable trust created by his grandfather. His four adult children have the remaining 10% beneficial interest in the trust. A number of the assets held in the trust must be sold to comply with conflicts of interest requirements. Due to State law, no action can be taken to separate the trust assets. Because the adult children have a small interest in the trust and the assets cannot be separated, the Director may consider issuing a Certificate of Divestiture to the trustee for the sale of all of the conflicting assets.

(e) Time requirements. A request for a Certificate of Divestiture does not extend the time in which an employee otherwise must divest property required to be divested pursuant to an ethics agreement, or prohibited by statute, regulation, rule, or Executive order. Therefore, an employee must submit his or her request for a Certificate of Divestiture as soon as possible once the requirement to divest becomes applicable. The Office of Government Ethics will consider requests submitted beyond the applicable time period for divestiture. If the designated agency ethics official submits a request to the Office of Government Ethics beyond the applicable time period for divestiture, he must explain the reason for the delay. See §§ 2634.802 and 2635.403 for rules relating to the time requirements for divestiture.

(f) Response by the Office of Government Ethics. After reviewing the materials submitted by the employee and the designated agency ethics official, and making a determination that all requirements have been met, the Director will issue a Certificate of Divestiture. The certificate will be sent to the designated agency ethics official who will then forward it to the employee.

§ 2634.1006 Rollover into permitted property.

(a) Reinvestment of proceeds. In order to qualify for deferral of capital gains, an eligible person must reinvest the proceeds from the sale of the property divested pursuant to a Certificate of Divestiture into permitted property during the 60-day period beginning on the date of the sale. The proceeds may be reinvested into one or more types of permitted property.

Example 1:A recently hired employee of the Department of Transportation receives a Certificate of Divestiture for the sale of a large block of stock in an airline. He may split the proceeds of the sale and reinvest them in an S&P Index Fund, a diversified Growth Stock Fund, and U.S. Treasury bonds.

Example 2:The Secretary of Treasury sells certain stock after receiving a Certificate of Divestiture and is considering reinvesting the proceeds from the sale into U.S. Treasury securities. However, because the Secretary of the Treasury is prohibited by 31 U.S.C. 329 from being involved in buying obligations of the United States Government, the Secretary cannot reinvest the proceeds in such securities. However, she may invest the proceeds in a diversified mutual fund. See the definition of permitted property at § 2634.1003(b).

(b) Internal Revenue Service reporting requirements. An eligible person who elects to defer the recognition of capital gains from the sale of property pursuant to a Certificate of Divestiture must follow Internal Revenue Service rules for reporting the sale of the property and the reinvestment transaction.

§ 2634.1007 Cases in which Certificates of Divestiture will not be issued.

The Director of the Office of Government Ethics, in his or her sole discretion, may deny a request for a Certificate of Divestiture in cases where an unfair or unintended benefit would result. Examples of such cases include:

(a) Employee benefit plans. The Director will not issue a Certificate of Divestiture if the property is held in a pension, profit-sharing, stock bonus, or other employee benefit plan and can otherwise be rolled over into an eligible tax-deferred retirement plan within the 60-day reinvestment period.

(b) Tax-Deferred and Tax-Advantaged Accounts. The Director will not issue a Certificate of Divestiture if the property is held in an Individual Retirement Account, college savings plan (529 plan), or other tax-deferred or tax-advantaged account (e.g., 401(k), 403(b), 457 plans, etc.), which allow the account holder to exchange the property for permissible property without incurring a capital gain.

(c) Complete divestiture. The Director will not issue a Certificate of Divestiture unless the employee agrees to divest all of the property that presents a conflict of interest, as well as other similar or related property that presents a conflict of interest under a Federal conflict of interest statute, regulation, rule, or Executive order. However, any property that qualifies for a regulatory exemption at part 2640 of this chapter need not be divested for a Certificate of Divestiture to be issued.

Example:A Department of Agriculture employee owns shares of stock in Better Workspace, Inc. valued at $25,000. As part of his official duties, the employee is assigned to evaluate bids for a contract to renovate office space at his agency. The Department's designated agency ethics official discovers that Better Workspace is one of the companies that has submitted a bid and directs the employee to sell his stock in the company. Because Better Workspace is a publicly traded security, the employee could retain up to $15,000 of the stock under the regulatory exemption for interests in securities at § 2640.202(a) of this chapter. He would be able to request a Certificate of Divestiture for the $10,000 of Better Workspace stock that is not covered by the exemption. Alternatively, he could request a Certificate of Divestiture for the entire $25,000 worth of stock. If he chooses to sell his stock down to an amount permitted under the regulatory exemption, the Office of Government Ethics will not issue additional Certificates of Divestiture if the value of the stock goes above $15,000 again.

(d) Property acquired under improper circumstances. The Director will not issue a Certificate of Divestiture:

(1) If the eligible person acquired the property at a time when its acquisition was prohibited by statute, regulation, rule, or Executive order; or

(2) If circumstances would otherwise create the appearance of a conflict with the conscientious performance of Government responsibilities.

§ 2634.1008 Public access to a Certificate of Divestiture.

A Certificate of Divestiture issued pursuant to the provisions of this subpart is available to the public in accordance with the rules of § 2634.603.

PART 2635 STANDARDS OF ETHICAL CONDUCT FOR EMPLOYEES OF THE EXECUTIVE BRANCH

Authority: 5 U.S.C. 7301, 7351, 7353; 5 U.S.C. ch. 131; E.O. 12674, 54 FR 15159, 3 CFR, 1989 Comp., p. 215, as modified by E.O. 12731, 55 FR 42547, 3 CFR, 1990 Comp., p. 306.

Source: 57 FR 35042, Aug. 7, 1992, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General Provisions

Source: 89 FR 43695, May 17, 2024, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2635.101 Basic obligation of public service.

(a) Public service is a public trust. Each employee has a responsibility to the United States Government and its citizens to place loyalty to the Constitution, laws, and ethical principles above private gain. To ensure that every citizen can have complete confidence in the integrity of the Federal Government, each employee must respect and adhere to the principles of ethical conduct set forth in this section, as well as the implementing standards contained in this part and in supplemental agency regulations.

(b) General principles. The following general principles apply to every employee and may form the basis for the standards contained in this part. When a situation is not covered by the standards set forth in this part, employees must apply the principles set forth in this section in determining whether their conduct is proper.

(1) Public service is a public trust, requiring employees to place loyalty to the Constitution, the laws, and ethical principles above private gain.

(2) Employees shall not hold financial interests that conflict with the conscientious performance of duty.

(3) Employees shall not engage in financial transactions using nonpublic Government information or allow the improper use of such information to further any private interest.

(4) An employee shall not, except as permitted by subpart B of this part, solicit or accept any gift or other item of monetary value from any person or entity seeking official action from, doing business with, or conducting activities regulated by the employee's agency, or whose interests may be substantially affected by the performance or nonperformance of the employee's duties.

(5) Employees shall put forth honest effort in the performance of their duties.

(6) Employees shall not knowingly make unauthorized commitments or promises of any kind purporting to bind the Government.

(7) Employees shall not use public office for private gain.

(8) Employees shall act impartially and not give preferential treatment to any private organization or individual.

(9) Employees shall protect and conserve Federal property and shall not use it for other than authorized activities.

(10) Employees shall not engage in outside employment or activities, including seeking or negotiating for employment, that conflict with official Government duties and responsibilities.

(11) Employees shall disclose waste, fraud, abuse, and corruption to appropriate authorities.

(12) Employees shall satisfy in good faith their obligations as citizens, including all just financial obligations, especially those—such as Federal, State, or local taxes—that are imposed by law.

(13) Employees shall adhere to all laws and regulations that provide equal opportunity for all Americans regardless of, for example, race, color, religion, sex (including pregnancy, gender identity, and sexual orientation), national origin, age, genetic information, or disability.

(14) Employees shall endeavor to avoid any actions creating the appearance that they are violating the law or the ethical standards set forth in this part. Whether particular circumstances create an appearance that the law or these standards have been violated shall be determined from the perspective of a reasonable person with knowledge of the relevant facts.

(c) Related statutes. In addition to the standards of ethical conduct set forth in this part, there are conflict of interest statutes that prohibit certain conduct. Criminal conflict of interest statutes of general applicability to all employees, 18 U.S.C. 201, 203, 205, 208, and 209, are summarized in the appropriate subparts of this part and must be taken into consideration in determining whether conduct is proper. Citations to other generally applicable statutes relating to employee conduct are set forth in subpart I of this part, and employees are further cautioned that there may be additional statutory and regulatory restrictions applicable to them generally or as employees of their specific agencies. Because an employee is considered to be on notice of the requirements of any statute, an employee should not rely upon any description or synopsis of a statutory restriction, but should refer to the statute itself and obtain the advice of an agency ethics official as needed.

§ 2635.102 Definitions.

The definitions listed in this section are used throughout this part. Additional definitions appear in the subparts or sections of subparts to which they apply. For purposes of this part:

(a) Agency means an executive agency as defined in 5 U.S.C. 105 and the Postal Service and the Postal Regulatory Commission. It does not include the Government Accountability Office or the government of the District of Columbia.

(b) Agency designee refers to any employee who, by agency regulation, instruction, or other issuance, has been delegated authority to make any determination, give any approval, or take any other action required or permitted by this part with respect to another employee. An agency may delegate these authorities to any number of agency designees necessary to ensure that determinations are made, approvals are given, and other actions are taken in a timely and responsible manner. Any provision that requires a determination, approval, or other action by the agency designee will, when the conduct in issue is that of the head of the agency, be deemed to require that such determination, approval, or action be made or taken by the head of the agency in consultation with the designated agency ethics official.

(c) Agency ethics official refers to the designated agency ethics official, the alternate designated agency ethics official, any deputy ethics official, and any additional ethics official who has been delegated authority to assist in carrying out the responsibilities of an agency's ethics program. The responsibilities of agency ethics officials are described in § 2638.104 of this chapter.

(d) Agency programs or operations refers to any program or function carried out or performed by an agency, whether pursuant to statute, Executive order, or regulation.

(e) Corrective action includes any action necessary to remedy a past violation or prevent a continuing violation of this part, including but not limited to restitution, change of assignment, recusal, divestiture, termination of an activity, waiver, the creation of a qualified diversified or blind trust, or counseling.

(f) Designated agency ethics official refers to the official designated under § 2638.104(a) of this chapter.

(g) Disciplinary action includes those disciplinary actions referred to in Office of Personnel Management regulations at 5 CFR chapter I and instructions implementing provisions of title 5 of the United States Code or provided for in comparable provisions applicable to employees not subject to title 5, including but not limited to reprimand, suspension, demotion, and removal. In the case of a military officer, comparable provisions may include those in the Uniform Code of Military Justice.

(h) Employee means any officer or employee of an agency, including a special Government employee. It includes officers but not enlisted members of the uniformed services. It includes employees of a State or local government or other organization who are serving on detail to an agency, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3371, et seq. For purposes other than subparts B and C of this part, it does not include the President or Vice President. Status as an employee is unaffected by pay or leave status or, in the case of a special Government employee, by the fact that the individual does not perform official duties on a given day.

(i) Head of an agency means, in the case of an agency headed by more than one person, the chair or comparable member of such agency.

(j) Person means an individual, corporation and subsidiaries it controls, company, association, firm, partnership, society, joint stock company, or any other organization or institution, including any officer, employee, or agent of such person or entity. For purposes of this part, a corporation will be deemed to control a subsidiary if it owns 50 percent or more of the subsidiary's voting securities. The term is all-inclusive and applies to commercial ventures and nonprofit organizations as well as to foreign, State, and local governments, including the government of the District of Columbia. It does not include any agency or other entity of the Federal Government or any officer or employee thereof when acting in an official capacity on behalf of that agency or entity.

(k) Special Government employee means those executive branch officers or employees specified in 18 U.S.C. 202(a). A special Government employee is retained, designated, appointed, or employed to perform temporary duties either on a full-time or intermittent basis, with or without compensation, for a period not to exceed 130 days during any consecutive 365-day period.

(l) Supplemental agency regulation means a regulation issued pursuant to § 2635.105.

§ 2635.103 Applicability to enlisted members of the uniformed services.

The provisions of this part are not applicable to enlisted members of the uniformed services. However, each agency with jurisdiction over enlisted members of the uniformed services may issue regulations defining the ethical conduct obligations of enlisted members under its jurisdiction. Such regulations or policies, if issued, should be consistent with Executive Order 12674, April 12, 1989, as modified, and may prescribe the full range of statutory and regulatory sanctions, including those available under the Uniform Code of Military Justice, for failure to comply with such regulations.

§ 2635.104 Applicability to employees on detail.

(a) Details to other agencies. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, employees on detail, including uniformed officers on assignment, from their employing agencies to another agency for a period in excess of 30 calendar days will be subject to any supplemental agency regulations of the agency to which they are detailed rather than to any supplemental agency regulations of their employing agencies.

(b) Details to the legislative or judicial branch. Employees on detail, including uniformed officers on assignment, from their employing agencies to the legislative or judicial branch for a period in excess of 30 calendar days will be subject to the ethical standards of the branch or entity to which detailed. For the duration of any such detail or assignment, employees will not be subject to the provisions of this part, except this section, or, except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, to any supplemental agency regulations of their employing agencies, but will remain subject to the conflict of interest prohibitions in title 18 of the United States Code.

(c) Details to non-Federal entities. Except to the extent exempted in writing pursuant to this paragraph (c), an employee detailed to a non-Federal entity remains subject to this part and to any supplemental agency regulation of their employing agency. When an employee is detailed pursuant to statutory authority to an international organization or to a State or local government for a period in excess of six months, the designated agency ethics official may grant a written exemption from subpart B of this part based on their determination that the entity has adopted written ethical standards covering solicitation and acceptance of gifts which will apply to the employee during the detail and which will be appropriate given the purpose of the detail.

(d) Applicability of special agency statutes. Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, employees who are subject to an agency statute which restricts their activities or financial holdings specifically because of their status as an employee of that agency will continue to be subject to any provisions in the supplemental agency regulations of the employing agency that implement that statute.

§ 2635.105 Supplemental agency regulations.

In addition to the regulations set forth in this part, employees must comply with any supplemental agency regulations issued by their employing agencies under this section.

(a) An agency that wishes to supplement this part must prepare and submit to the Office of Government Ethics, for its concurrence and joint issuance, any agency regulations that supplement the regulations contained in this part. Supplemental agency regulations which the agency determines are necessary and appropriate, in view of its programs and operations, to fulfill the purposes of this part must be:

(1) In the form of a supplement to the regulations in this part; and

(2) In addition to the substantive provisions of this part.

(b) After concurrence and co-signature by the Office of Government Ethics, the agency must submit its supplemental agency regulations to the Federal Register for publication and codification at the expense of the agency in this title. Supplemental agency regulations issued under this section are effective only after concurrence and co-signature by the Office of Government Ethics and publication in the Federal Register.

(c) This section applies to any supplemental agency regulations or amendments thereof issued under this part. It does not apply to:

(1) A handbook or other issuance intended merely as an explanation of the standards contained in this part or in supplemental agency regulations;

(2) An instruction or other issuance the purpose of which is to:

(i) Delegate to an agency designee authority to make any determination, give any approval or take any other action required or permitted by this part or by supplemental agency regulations; or

(ii) Establish internal agency procedures for documenting or processing any determination, approval or other action required or permitted by this part or by supplemental agency regulations, or for retaining any such documentation; or

(3) Regulations or instructions that an agency has authority, independent of this part, to issue, such as regulations implementing an agency's gift acceptance statute, protecting categories of nonpublic information, or establishing standards for use of Government vehicles.

(d) Employees of a State or local government or other organization who are serving on detail to an agency, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3371, et seq., are subject to any requirements, in addition to those in this part, established by a supplemental agency regulation issued under this section to the extent that such regulation expressly provides.

§ 2635.106 Disciplinary and corrective action.

(a) Except as provided in § 2635.107, a violation of this part or of supplemental agency regulations may be cause for appropriate corrective or disciplinary action to be taken under applicable Governmentwide regulations or agency procedures. Such action may be in addition to any action or penalty prescribed by law.

(b) It is the responsibility of the employing agency to initiate appropriate disciplinary or corrective action in individual cases. However, corrective action may be ordered or disciplinary action recommended by the Director of the Office of Government Ethics under the procedures at part 2638 of this chapter.

(c) A violation of this part or of supplemental agency regulations, as such, does not create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law by any person against the United States, its agencies, its officers or employees, or any other person. Thus, for example, an individual who alleges that an employee has failed to adhere to laws and regulations that provide equal opportunity regardless of race, color, religion, sex (including pregnancy, gender identity, and sexual orientation), national origin, age, genetic information, or disability is required to follow applicable statutory and regulatory procedures, including those of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.

§ 2635.107 Ethics advice.

(a) As required by § 2638.104(a) and (d) of this chapter, each agency has a designated agency ethics official and an alternate designated agency ethics official; these are the employees who have the primary responsibility for directing the daily activities of an agency's ethics program. Acting directly or through other officials, the designated agency ethics official is responsible for providing ethics advice and counseling regarding the application of this part.

(b) Employees who have questions about the application of this part or any supplemental agency regulations to particular situations should seek advice from an agency ethics official. Disciplinary action for violating this part or any supplemental agency regulations will not be taken against an employee who has engaged in conduct in good faith reliance upon the advice of an agency ethics official, provided that the employee, in seeking such advice, has made full disclosure of all relevant circumstances. When the employee's conduct violates a criminal statute, reliance on the advice of an agency ethics official cannot ensure that the employee will not be prosecuted under that statute. However, good faith reliance on the advice of an agency ethics official is a factor that may be taken into account by the Department of Justice in the selection of cases for prosecution. Disclosures made by an employee to an agency ethics official are not protected by an attorney-client privilege. Agency ethics officials are required by 28 U.S.C. 535 to report any information they receive relating to a violation of the criminal code, title 18 of the United States Code.

Subpart B Gifts From Outside Sources

Source: 89 FR 43695, May 17, 2024, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2635.201 Overview and considerations for declining otherwise permissible gifts.

(a) Overview. This subpart contains standards that prohibit an employee from soliciting or accepting any gift from a prohibited source or any gift given because of the employee's official position, unless the item is excluded from the definition of a gift (see § 2635.203(b)) or falls within one of the exceptions set forth in this subpart.

(b) Considerations for declining otherwise permissible gifts. (1) Every employee has a fundamental responsibility to the United States and its citizens to place loyalty to the Constitution, laws, and ethical principles above private gain. An employee's actions should promote the public's trust that this responsibility is being met. For this reason, employees should consider declining otherwise permissible gifts if they believe that a reasonable person with knowledge of the relevant facts would question the employee's integrity or impartiality as a result of accepting the gift.

(2) Employees who are considering whether acceptance of a gift would lead a reasonable person with knowledge of the relevant facts to question their integrity or impartiality may consider, among other relevant factors, whether:

(i) The gift has a high market value;

(ii) The timing of the gift creates the appearance that the donor is seeking to influence an official action;

(iii) The gift was provided by a person who has interests that may be substantially affected by the performance or nonperformance of the employee's official duties; and

(iv) Acceptance of the gift would provide the donor with significantly disproportionate access.

(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) of this section, an employee who accepts a gift that qualifies for an exception under § 2635.204 does not violate this subpart or the Principles of Ethical Conduct set forth in § 2635.101(b).

(4) Employees who have questions regarding this subpart, including whether the employee should decline a gift that would otherwise be permitted under an exception found in § 2635.204, should seek advice from an agency ethics official.

Example 1 to paragraph (b): An employee of the Peace Corps is in charge of making routine purchases of office supplies. After a promotional presentation to highlight several new products, a vendor offers to buy the employee lunch, which costs less than $20. The employee is concerned that a reasonable person may question their impartiality by accepting the free lunch, as the timing of the offer indicates that the donor may be seeking to influence an official action and the company has interests that may be substantially affected by the performance or nonperformance of the employee's duties. The employee concludes that appearance considerations weigh against accepting the gift.

§ 2635.202 General prohibition on solicitation or acceptance of gifts.

(a) Prohibition on soliciting gifts. Except as provided in this subpart, an employee may not, directly or indirectly:

(1) Solicit a gift from a prohibited source; or

(2) Solicit a gift to be given because of the employee's official position.

(b) Prohibition on accepting gifts. Except as provided in this subpart, an employee may not, directly or indirectly:

(1) Accept a gift from a prohibited source; or

(2) Accept a gift given because of the employee's official position.

(c) Relationship to illegal gratuities statute. A gift accepted pursuant to an exception found in this subpart will not constitute an illegal gratuity otherwise prohibited by 18 U.S.C. 201(c)(1)(B), unless it is accepted in return for being influenced in the performance of an official act. As more fully described in § 2635.205(d)(1), an employee may not solicit or accept a gift if to do so would be prohibited by the Federal bribery statute, 18 U.S.C. 201(b).

Example 1 to paragraph (c): A Government contractor who specializes in information technology software has offered an employee of the Department of Energy's information technology acquisition division a $15 gift card to a local restaurant if the employee will recommend to the agency's contracting officer that the agency select the contractor's products during the next acquisition. Even though the gift card is less than $20, the employee may not accept the gift under § 2635.204(a) because it is conditional upon official action by the employee. Pursuant to this paragraph (c) and § 2635.205(a), notwithstanding any exception to the rules in this part, an employee may not accept a gift in return for being influenced in the performance of an official act.

§ 2635.203 Definitions.

For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:

(a) Agency has the meaning set forth in § 2635.102(a). However, for purposes of this subpart, an executive department, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 101, may, by supplemental agency regulation, designate as a separate agency any component of that department which the department determines exercises distinct and separate functions.

(b) Gift includes any gratuity, favor, discount, entertainment, hospitality, loan, forbearance, or other item having monetary value. It includes services as well as gifts of training, transportation, local travel, lodgings, and meals, whether provided in-kind, by purchase of a ticket, payment in advance, or reimbursement after the expense has been incurred. The term excludes the following:

(1) Modest items of food and non-alcoholic refreshments, such as soft drinks, coffee, and donuts, offered other than as part of a meal;

(2) Greeting cards and items with little intrinsic value, such as plaques, certificates, and trophies, which are intended primarily for presentation;

Example 1 to paragraph (b)(2): After giving a speech at the facility of a pharmaceutical company, a Government employee is presented with a glass paperweight in the shape of a pill capsule with the name of the company's latest drug and the date of the speech imprinted on the side. The employee may accept the paperweight because it is an item with little intrinsic value which is intended primarily for presentation.

Example 2 to paragraph (b)(2): After participating in a panel discussion hosted by an international media company, a Government employee is presented with an inexpensive portable music player emblazoned with the media company's logo. The portable music player has a market value of $25. The employee may not accept the portable music player as it has a significant independent use as a music player rather than being intended primarily for presentation.

Example 3 to paragraph (b)(2): After giving a speech at a conference held by a national association of miners, a Department of Commerce employee is presented with a block of granite that is engraved with the association's logo, a picture of the Appalachian Mountains, the date of the speech, and the employee's name. The employee may accept this item because it is similar to a plaque, is designed primarily for presentation, and has little intrinsic value.

(3) Loans from banks and other financial institutions on terms generally available to the public;

(4) Opportunities and benefits, including favorable rates, commercial discounts, and free attendance or participation available to the public or to a class consisting of all Government employees or all uniformed military personnel, whether or not restricted on the basis of geographic considerations;

(5) Rewards and prizes given to competitors in contests or events, including random drawings, open to the public unless the employee's entry into the contest or event is required as part of the employee's official duties;

Example 1 to paragraph (b)(5): A Government employee is attending a free trade show on official time. The trade show is held in a public shopping area adjacent to the employee's office building. The employee voluntarily enters a drawing at an individual vendor's booth, which is open to the public, by filling in an entry form on the vendor's display table and dropping it into the contest box. The employee may accept the resulting prize because entry into the contest was not required by or related to their official duties.

Example 2 to paragraph (b)(5): Attendees at a conference, which is not open to the public, are entered in a drawing for a weekend getaway to Bermuda as a result of being registered for the conference. A Government employee who attends the conference in an official capacity could not accept the prize under paragraph (b)(5) of this section, as the event is not open to the public.

(6) Pension and other benefits resulting from continued participation in an employee welfare and benefits plan maintained by a current or former employer;

(7) Anything which is paid for by the Government or secured by the Government under Government contract;

Example 1 to paragraph (b)(7): An employee at the Occupational Safety and Health Administration is assigned to travel away from their duty station to conduct an investigation of a collapse at a construction site. The employee's agency is paying for relevant travel expenses, including airfare. The employee may accept and retain travel promotional items, such as frequent flyer miles, received as a result of this official travel, to the extent permitted by 5 U.S.C. 5702 note and 41 CFR part 301-53.

(8) Free attendance to an event provided by the sponsor of the event to:

(i) An employee who is assigned to present information on behalf of the agency at the event on any day when the employee is presenting;

(ii) An employee whose presence on any day of the event is deemed to be essential by the agency to the presenting employee's participation in the event, provided that the employee is accompanying the presenting employee; and

(iii) One guest of the presenting employee on any day when the employee is presenting, provided that others in attendance will generally be accompanied by a guest, the offer of free attendance for the guest is unsolicited, and the agency designee, orally or in writing, has authorized the presenting employee to accept;

Example 1 to paragraph (b)(8): An employee of the Department of the Treasury who is assigned to participate in a panel discussion of economic issues as part of a one-day conference may accept the sponsor's waiver of the conference fee. Under the separate authority of § 2635.204(a), the employee may accept a token of appreciation that has a market value of $20 or less.

Example 2 to paragraph (b)(8): An employee of the Securities and Exchange Commission is assigned to present the agency's views at a roundtable discussion of an ongoing working group. The employee may accept free attendance to the meeting under paragraph (b)(8) of this section because the employee has been assigned to present information at the meeting on behalf of the agency. If it is determined by the agency that it is essential that other employees accompany the presenting employee to the roundtable discussion, the accompanying employees may also accept free attendance to the meeting under paragraph (b)(8)(ii) of this section.

Example 3 to paragraph (b)(8): An employee of the United States Trade and Development Agency is invited to attend a cocktail party hosted by a prohibited source. The employee believes that there will be an opportunity to discuss official matters with other attendees while at the event. Although the employee may voluntarily discuss official matters with other attendees, the employee has not been assigned to present information on behalf of the agency. The employee may not accept free attendance to the event under paragraph (b)(8) of this section.

(9) Any gift accepted by the Government under specific statutory authority, including:

(i) Travel, subsistence, and related expenses accepted by an agency under the authority of 31 U.S.C. 1353 in connection with an employee's attendance at a meeting or similar function relating to the employee's official duties which take place away from the employee's duty station, provided that the agency's acceptance is in accordance with the implementing regulations at 41 CFR chapter 304; and

(ii) Other gifts provided in-kind which have been accepted by an agency under its agency gift acceptance statute; and

(10) Anything for which market value is paid by the employee.

(c) Market value means the cost that a member of the general public would reasonably expect to incur to purchase the gift. An employee who cannot ascertain the market value of a gift may estimate its market value by reference to the retail cost of similar items of like quality. The market value of a gift of a ticket entitling the holder to food, refreshments, entertainment, or any other benefit is deemed to be the face value of the ticket.

Example 1 to paragraph (c): An employee who has been given a watch inscribed with the corporate logo of a prohibited source may determine its market value based on the observation that a comparable watch, not inscribed with a logo, generally sells for about $50.

Example 2 to paragraph (c): During an official visit to a factory operated by a well-known athletic footwear manufacturer, an employee of the Department of Labor is offered a commemorative pair of athletic shoes manufactured at the factory. Although the cost incurred by the donor to manufacture the shoes was $17, the market value of the shoes would be the $100 that the employee would have to pay for the shoes on the open market.

Example 3 to paragraph (c): A prohibited source has offered a Government employee a ticket to a charitable event consisting of a cocktail reception to be followed by an evening of chamber music. Even though the food, refreshments, and entertainment provided at the event may be worth only $20, the market value of the ticket is its $250 face value.

Example 4 to paragraph (c): A company offers an employee of the Federal Communication Commission (FCC) free attendance for two to a private skybox at a ballpark to watch a major league baseball game. The skybox is leased annually by the company, which has business pending before the FCC. The skybox tickets provided to the employee do not have a face value. To determine the market value of the tickets, the employee must add the face value of two of the most expensive publicly available tickets to the game and the market value of any food, parking, or other tangible benefits provided in connection with the gift of attendance that are not already included in the cost of the most expensive publicly available tickets.

Example 5 to paragraph (c): An employee of the Department of Agriculture is invited to a reception held by a prohibited source. There is no entrance fee to the reception event or to the venue. To determine the market value of the gift, the employee must add the market value of any entertainment, food, beverages, or other tangible benefit provided to attendees in connection with the reception, but need not consider the cost incurred by the sponsor to rent or maintain the venue where the event is held. The employee may rely on a per-person cost estimate provided by the sponsor of the event, unless the employee or an agency designee has determined that a reasonable person would find that the estimate is clearly implausible.

(d) Prohibited source means any person who:

(1) Is seeking official action by the employee's agency;

(2) Does business or seeks to do business with the employee's agency;

(3) Conducts activities regulated by the employee's agency;

(4) Has interests that may be substantially affected by the performance or nonperformance of the employee's official duties; or

(5) Is an organization a majority of whose members are described in paragraphs (d)(1) through (4) of this section.

(e) A gift is given because of the employee's official position if the gift is from a person other than an employee and would not have been given had the employee not held the status, authority, or duties associated with the employee's Federal position.

Note 1 to paragraph (e):

Gifts between employees are subject to the limitations set forth in subpart C of this part.

Example 1 to paragraph (e): When free season tickets are offered by an opera guild to all members of the Cabinet, the gift is offered because of their official positions.

Example 2 to paragraph (e): Employees at a regional office of the Department of Justice (DOJ) work in Government-leased space at a private office building, along with various private business tenants. A major fire in the building during normal office hours causes a traumatic experience for all occupants of the building in making their escape, and it is the subject of widespread news coverage. A corporate hotel chain, which does not meet the definition of a prohibited source for DOJ, seizes the moment and announces that it will give a free night's lodging to all building occupants and their families, as a public goodwill gesture. Employees of DOJ may accept, as this gift is not being given because of their Government positions. The donor's motivation for offering this gift is unrelated to the DOJ employees' status, authority, or duties associated with their Federal positions, but instead is based on their mere presence in the building as occupants at the time of the fire.

(f) A gift which is solicited or accepted indirectly includes a gift:

(1) Given with the employee's knowledge and acquiescence to the employee's parent, sibling, spouse, child, dependent relative, or a member of the employee's household because of that person's relationship to the employee; or

(2) Given to any other person, including any charitable organization, on the basis of designation, recommendation, or other specification by the employee, except the employee has not indirectly solicited or accepted a gift by the raising of funds or other support for a charitable organization if done in accordance with § 2635.808.

Example 1 to paragraph (f)(2): An employee who must decline a gift of a personal computer pursuant to this subpart may not suggest that the gift be given instead to one of five charitable organizations whose names are provided by the employee.

(g) Free attendance includes waiver of all or part of the fee for an event or the provision of food, refreshments, entertainment, instruction, or materials furnished to all attendees as an integral part of the event. It does not include travel expenses, lodgings, or entertainment collateral to the event. It does not include meals taken other than in a group setting with all other attendees, unless the employee is a presenter at the event and is invited to a separate meal for participating presenters that is hosted by the sponsor of the event. When the offer of free attendance has been extended to an accompanying guest, the market value of the gift of free attendance includes the market value of free attendance by both the employee and the guest.

(h) Legal expense fund has the meaning set forth in § 2635.1003.

(i) Pro bono legal services has the meaning set forth in § 2635.1003.

§ 2635.204 Exceptions to the prohibition for acceptance of certain gifts.

Subject to the limitations in § 2635.205, this section establishes exceptions to the prohibitions set forth in § 2635.202(a) and (b). Even though acceptance of a gift may be permitted by one of the exceptions contained in this section, it is never inappropriate and frequently prudent for an employee to decline a gift if acceptance would cause a reasonable person to question the employee's integrity or impartiality. Section 2635.201(b) identifies considerations for declining otherwise permissible gifts.

(a) Gifts of $20 or less. An employee may accept unsolicited gifts having an aggregate market value of $20 or less per source per occasion, provided that the aggregate market value of individual gifts received from any one person under the authority of this paragraph (a) does not exceed $50 in a calendar year. The exception in this paragraph (a) does not apply to gifts of cash or of investment interests such as stock, bonds, or certificates of deposit. When the market value of a gift or the aggregate market value of gifts offered on any single occasion exceeds $20, the employee may not pay the excess value over $20 in order to accept that portion of the gift or those gifts worth $20. When the aggregate value of tangible items offered on a single occasion exceeds $20, the employee may decline any distinct and separate item in order to accept those items aggregating $20 or less.

Example 1 to paragraph (a):An employee of the Securities and Exchange Commission and their spouse have been invited by a representative of a regulated entity to a community theater production, tickets to which have a face value of $30 each. The aggregate market value of the gifts offered on this single occasion is $60, $40 more than the $20 amount that may be accepted for a single event or presentation. The employee may not accept the gift of the evening of entertainment. The couple may attend the play only if the employee pays the full $60 value of the two tickets.

Example 2 to paragraph (a):An employee of the National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency has been invited by an association of cartographers to speak about the agency's role in the evolution of missile technology. At the conclusion of the speech, the association presents the employee a framed map with a market value of $18 and a ceramic mug that has a market value of $15. The employee may accept the map or the mug, but not both, because the aggregate value of these two tangible items exceeds $20.

Example 3 to paragraph (a):On four occasions during the calendar year, an employee of the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) was given gifts worth $10 each by four employees of a corporation that is a DLA contractor. For purposes of applying the yearly $50 limitation on gifts of $20 or less from any one person, the four gifts must be aggregated because a person is defined at § 2635.102(k) to mean not only the corporate entity, but its officers and employees as well. However, for purposes of applying the $50 aggregate limitation, the employee would not have to include the value of a birthday present received from a cousin, who is employed by the same corporation, if the cousin's birthday present can be accepted under the exception at paragraph (b) of this section for gifts based on a personal relationship.

Example 4 to paragraph (a):Under the authority of 31 U.S.C. 1353 for agencies to accept payments from non-Federal sources in connection with attendance at certain meetings or similar functions, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has accepted an association's gift of travel expenses and conference fees for an employee to attend a conference on the long-term effect of radon exposure. While at the conference, the employee may accept a gift basket of $20 or less from one of the companies underwriting the event even though it was not approved in advance by the EPA. Although 31 U.S.C. 1353 is the authority under which the EPA accepted the gift to the agency of travel expenses and conference fees, the gift basket is a gift to the employee rather than to the EPA.

Example 5 to paragraph (a):During off-duty time, an employee of the Department of Defense (DoD) attends a trade show involving companies that are DoD contractors. The employee is offered software worth $15 at X Company's booth, a calendar worth $12 at Y Company's booth, and a deli lunch worth $8 from Z Company. The employee may accept all three of these items because they do not exceed $20 per source, even though they total more than $20 at this single occasion.

Example 6 to paragraph (a):An employee of the Department of Defense (DoD) is being promoted to a higher level position in another DoD office. Six individuals, each employed by a different defense contractor, who have worked with the DoD employee over the years, decide to act in concert to pool their resources to buy the employee a nicer gift than each could buy separately. Each defense contractor employee contributes $20 to buy a desk clock for the DoD employee that has a market value of $120. Although each of the contributions does not exceed the $20 limit, the employee may not accept the $120 gift because it is a single gift that has a market value in excess of $20.

Example 7 to paragraph (a):During a holiday party, an employee of the Department of State is given a $15 store gift card to a national coffee chain by an agency contractor. The employee may accept the card as the market value is less than $20. The employee could not, however, accept a gift card that is issued by a credit card company or other financial institution, because such a card is equivalent to a gift of cash.

(b) Gifts based on a personal relationship. An employee may accept a gift given by an individual under circumstances which make it clear that the gift is motivated by a family relationship or personal friendship rather than the position of the employee. Relevant factors in making such a determination include the history and nature of the relationship and whether the family member or friend personally pays for the gift.

Example 1 to paragraph (b):An employee of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) has been dating an accountant employed by a member bank. As part of its “Work-Life Balance” program, the bank has given each employee in the accountant's division two tickets to a professional basketball game and has urged each to invite a family member or friend to share the evening of entertainment. Under the circumstances, the FDIC employee may accept the invitation to attend the game. Even though the tickets were initially purchased by the member bank, they were given without reservation to the accountant to use as desired, and the invitation to the employee was motivated by their personal friendship.

Example 2 to paragraph (b):Three partners in a law firm that handles corporate mergers have invited an employee of the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) to join them in a golf tournament at a private club at the firm's expense. The entry fee is $500 per foursome. The employee cannot accept the gift of one-quarter of the entry fee even though the employee has developed an amicable relationship with the three partners as a result of the firm's dealings with the FTC. As evidenced in part by the fact that the fees are to be paid by the firm, it is not a personal friendship but a business relationship that is the motivation behind the partners' gift.

Example 3 to paragraph (b):A Peace Corps employee enjoys using a social media site on the internet in a personal capacity outside of work. The employee has used the site to keep in touch with friends, neighbors, coworkers, professional contacts, and other individuals they have met over the years through both work and personal activities. One of these individuals works for a contractor that provides language services to the Peace Corps. The employee was acting in an official capacity when they met the individual at a meeting to discuss a matter related to the contract between their respective employers. Thereafter, the two communicated occasionally regarding contract matters, and later also granted one another access to join their social media networks through their respective social media accounts. However, the pair did not communicate further in their personal capacities, carry on extensive personal interactions, or meet socially outside of work. One day, the individual, whose employer continues to serve as a Peace Corps contractor, contacts the employee to offer a pair of concert tickets worth $30 apiece. Although the employee and the individual are connected through social media, the circumstances do not demonstrate that the gift was clearly motivated by a personal relationship, rather than the position of the employee, and therefore the employee may not accept the gift pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.

(c) Discounts and similar benefits. In addition to those opportunities and benefits excluded from the definition of a gift by § 2635.203(b)(4), an employee may accept:

(1) A reduction or waiver of the fees for membership or other fees for participation in organization activities offered to all Government employees or all uniformed military personnel by professional organizations if the only restrictions on membership relate to professional qualifications; and

(2) Opportunities and benefits, including favorable rates, commercial discounts, and free attendance or participation not precluded by paragraph (c)(3) of this section:

(i) Offered to members of a group or class in which membership is unrelated to Government employment;

(ii) Offered to members of an organization, such as an employees' association or agency credit union, in which membership is related to Government employment if the same offer is broadly available to large segments of the public through organizations of similar size;

(iii) Offered by a person who is not a prohibited source to any group or class that is not defined in a manner that specifically discriminates among Government employees on the basis of type of official responsibility or on a basis that favors those of higher rank or rate of pay; or

(iv) Offered to employees by an established employee organization, such as an association composed of Federal employees or a nonprofit employee welfare organization, because of the employees' Government employment, so long as the employee is part of the class of individuals eligible for assistance from the employee organization as set forth in the organization's governing documents.

Example 1 to paragraph (c)(2):A computer company offers a discount on the purchase of computer equipment to all public and private sector computer procurement officials who work in organizations with over 300 employees. An employee who works as the computer procurement official for a Government agency could not accept the discount to purchase the personal computer under the exception in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section. The employee's membership in the group to which the discount is offered is related to Government employment because membership is based on the employee's status as a procurement official with the Government.

Example 2 to paragraph (c)(2):An employee of the Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC) may accept a discount of $50 on a microwave oven offered by the manufacturer to all members of the CPSC employees' association. Even though the CPSC is currently conducting studies on the safety of microwave ovens, the $50 discount is a standard offer that the manufacturer has made broadly available through a number of employee associations and similar organizations to large segments of the public.

Example 3 to paragraph (c)(2):An Assistant Secretary may not accept a local country club's offer of membership to all members of Department Secretariats which includes a waiver of its $5,000 membership initiation fee. Even though the country club is not a prohibited source, the offer discriminates in favor of higher-ranking officials.

Example 4 to paragraph (c)(2):A nonprofit military relief society provides access to financial counseling services, loans, and grants to all sailors and Marines. A service member may accept financial benefits from the relief society, including to cover legal expenses, because the benefits are offered by an employee organization that was established before the legal matter arose, and because the benefits are being offered because of the employees' Government employment, as set forth in the relief society's governing documents.

(3) An employee may not accept for personal use any benefit to which the Government is entitled as the result of an expenditure of Government funds, unless authorized by statute or regulation (e.g., 5 U.S.C. 5702 note, regarding frequent flyer miles).

Example 1 to paragraph (c)(3):The administrative officer for a field office of U.S. Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE) has signed an order to purchase 50 boxes of photocopy paper from a supplier whose literature advertises that it will give a free briefcase to anyone who purchases 50 or more boxes. Because the paper was purchased with ICE funds, the administrative officer cannot keep the briefcase which, if claimed and received, is Government property.

(d) Awards and honorary degrees—(1) Awards. An employee may accept a bona fide award for meritorious public service or achievement and any item incident to the award, provided that:

(i) The award and any item incident to the award are not from a person who has interests that may be substantially affected by the performance or nonperformance of the employee's official duties, or from an association or other organization if a majority of its members have such interests; and

(ii) If the award or any item incident to the award is in the form of cash or an investment interest, or if the aggregate value of the award and any item incident to the award, other than free attendance to the event provided to the employee and to members of the employee's family by the sponsor of the event, exceeds $200, the agency ethics official has made a written determination that the award is made as part of an established program of recognition.

Example 1 to paragraph (d)(1):Based on a written determination by an agency ethics official that the prize meets the criteria set forth in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, an employee of the National Institutes of Health (NIH) may accept the Nobel Prize for Medicine, including the cash award which accompanies the prize, even though the prize was conferred on the basis of laboratory work performed at NIH.

Example 2 to paragraph (d)(1):A defense contractor, ABC Systems, has an annual award program for the outstanding public employee of the year. The award includes a cash payment of $1,000. The award program is wholly funded to ensure its continuation on a regular basis for the next twenty years and selection of award recipients is made pursuant to written standards. An employee of the Department of the Air Force, who has duties that include overseeing contract performance by ABC Systems, is selected to receive the award. The employee may not accept the cash award because ABC Systems has interests that may be substantially affected by the performance or nonperformance of the employee's official duties.

Example 3 to paragraph (d)(1):An ambassador selected by a nonprofit organization as a recipient of its annual award for distinguished service in the interest of world peace may, together with their spouse and children, attend the awards ceremony dinner and accept a crystal bowl worth $200 presented during the ceremony. However, if the organization has also offered airline tickets for the ambassador and the family to travel to the city where the awards ceremony is to be held, the aggregate value of the tickets and the crystal bowl exceeds $200, and the ambassador may accept only upon a written determination by the agency ethics official that the award is made as part of an established program of recognition.

(2) Established program of recognition. An award and an item incident to the award are made pursuant to an established program of recognition if:

(i) Awards have been made on a regular basis or, if the program is new, there is a reasonable basis for concluding that awards will be made on a regular basis based on funding or funding commitments; and

(ii) Selection of award recipients is made pursuant to written standards.

(3) Honorary degrees. An employee may accept an honorary degree from an institution of higher education, as defined at 20 U.S.C. 1001, or from a similar foreign institution of higher education, based on a written determination by an agency ethics official that the timing of the award of the degree would not cause a reasonable person to question the employee's impartiality in a matter affecting the institution.

Note 1 to paragraph (d)(3):

When the honorary degree is offered by a foreign institution of higher education, the agency may need to make a separate determination as to whether the institution of higher education is a foreign government for purposes of the Emoluments Clause of the U.S. Constitution (U.S. Const., art. I, sec. 9, cl. 8), which forbids employees from accepting emoluments, presents, offices, or titles from foreign governments, without the consent of Congress. The Foreign Gifts and Decorations Act, 5 U.S.C. 7342, however, may permit the acceptance of honorary degrees in some circumstances.

Example 1 to paragraph (d)(3):A well-known university located in the United States wishes to give an honorary degree to the Secretary of Labor. The Secretary may accept the honorary degree only if an agency ethics official determines in writing that the timing of the award of the degree would not cause a reasonable person to question the Secretary's impartiality in a matter affecting the university.

(4) Presentation events. An employee who may accept an award or honorary degree pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) or (3) of this section may also accept free attendance to the event provided to the employee and to members of the employee's family by the sponsor of an event. In addition, the employee may also accept unsolicited offers of travel to and from the event provided to the employee and to members of the employee's family by the sponsor of the event. Travel expenses accepted under this paragraph (d)(4) must be added to the value of the award for purposes of determining whether the aggregate value of the award exceeds $200.

(e) Gifts based on outside business or employment relationships. An employee may accept meals, lodgings, transportation, and other benefits:

(1) Resulting from the business or employment activities of an employee's spouse when it is clear that such benefits have not been offered or enhanced because of the employee's official position;

Example 1 to paragraph (e)(1):A Department of Agriculture employee whose spouse is a computer programmer employed by a Department of Agriculture contractor may attend the company's annual retreat for all of its employees and their families held at a resort facility. However, under § 2635.502, the employee may need to recuse from performing official duties affecting the spouse's employer.

Example 2 to paragraph (e)(1):When the spouses of other clerical personnel have not been invited, an employee of the Defense Contract Audit Agency whose spouse is a clerical worker at a defense contractor may not attend the contractor's annual retreat in Hawaii for corporate officers and members of the board of directors, even though the spouse received a special invitation from the company for them to attend as a couple.

(2) Resulting from the employee's outside business or employment activities when it is clear that such benefits are based on the outside business or employment activities and have not been offered or enhanced because of the employee's official status;

Example 1 to paragraph (e)(2):The members of an Army Corps of Engineers environmental advisory committee that meets six times per year are special Government employees. A member who has a consulting business may accept an invitation to a $50 dinner from a corporate client, an Army construction contractor, unless, for example, the invitation was extended in order to discuss the activities of the advisory committee.

(3) Customarily provided by a prospective employer in connection with bona fide employment discussions. If the prospective employer has interests that could be affected by performance or nonperformance of the employee's duties, acceptance is permitted only if the employee first has complied with the recusal requirements of subpart F of this part applicable when seeking employment; or

Example 1 to paragraph (e)(3):An employee of the Federal Communications Commission with responsibility for drafting regulations affecting all cable television companies wishes to apply for a job opening with a cable television holding company. Once the employee has properly recused from further work on the regulations as required by subpart F of this part, the employee may enter into employment discussions with the company and may accept the company's offer to pay for airfare, hotel, and meals in connection with an interview trip.

(4) Provided by a former employer to attend a reception or similar event when other former employees have been invited to attend, the invitation and benefits are based on the former employment relationship, and it is clear that such benefits have not been offered or enhanced because of the employee's official position.

Example 1 to paragraph (e)(4):An employee of the Department of the Army is invited by a former employer, an Army contractor, to attend its annual holiday dinner party. The former employer traditionally invites both its current and former employees to the holiday dinner regardless of their current employment activities. Under these circumstances, the employee may attend the dinner because the dinner invitation is a result of the employee's former outside employment activities, other former employees have been asked to attend, and the gift is not offered because of the employee's official position.

(5) For purposes of paragraphs (e)(1) through (4) of this section, employment means any form of non-Federal employment or business relationship involving the provision of personal services.

(f) Gifts in connection with political activities permitted by the Hatch Act Reform Amendments. An employee who, in accordance with the Hatch Act Reform Amendments of 1993, at 5 U.S.C. 7323, may take an active part in political management or in political campaigns, may accept meals, lodgings, transportation, and other benefits, including free attendance at events, for the employee and an accompanying guest, when provided, in connection with such active participation, by a political organization described in 26 U.S.C. 527(e). Any other employees, such as a security officers, whose official duties require them to accompany an employee to a political event, may accept meals, free attendance, and entertainment provided at the event by such an organization.

Example 1 to paragraph (f):The Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services may accept an airline ticket and hotel accommodations furnished by the campaign committee of a candidate for the United States Senate in order to give a speech in support of the candidate.

(g) Gifts of free attendance at widely attended gatherings—(1) Authorization. When authorized in writing by the agency designee pursuant to paragraph (g)(3) of this section, an employee may accept an unsolicited gift of free attendance at all or appropriate parts of a widely attended gathering. For an employee who is subject to a leave system, attendance at the event will be on the employee's own time or, if authorized by the employee's agency, on excused absence pursuant to applicable guidelines for granting such absence, or otherwise without charge to the employee's leave account.

(2) Widely attended gatherings. A gathering is widely attended if it is expected that:

(i) A large number of persons will attend;

(ii) Persons with a diversity of views or interests will be present, for example, if it is open to members from throughout the interested industry or profession or if those in attendance represent a range of persons interested in a given matter; and

(iii) There will be an opportunity to exchange ideas and views among invited persons.

(3) Written authorization by the agency designee. The agency designee may authorize an employee or employees to accept a gift of free attendance at all or appropriate parts of a widely attended gathering only if the agency designee issues a written determination after finding that:

(i) The event is a widely attended gathering, as set forth in paragraph (g)(2) of this section;

(ii) The employee's attendance at the event is in the agency's interest because it will further agency programs or operations;

(iii) The agency's interest in the employee's attendance outweighs the concern that the employee may be, or may appear to be, improperly influenced in the performance of official duties; and

(iv) If a person other than the sponsor of the event invites or designates the employee as the recipient of the gift of free attendance and bears the cost of that gift, the event is expected to be attended by more than 100 persons, and the value of the gift of free attendance does not exceed $525.

(4) Determination of agency interest. In determining whether the agency's interest in the employee's attendance outweighs the concern that the employee may be, or may appear to be, improperly influenced in the performance of official duties, the agency designee may consider relevant factors including:

(i) The importance of the event to the agency;

(ii) The nature and sensitivity of any pending matter affecting the interests of the person who extended the invitation and the significance of the employee's role in any such matter;

(iii) The purpose of the event;

(iv) The identity of other expected participants;

(v) Whether acceptance would reasonably create the appearance that the donor is receiving preferential treatment;

(vi) Whether the Government is also providing persons with views or interests that differ from those of the donor with access to the Government; and

(vii) The market value of the gift of free attendance.

(5) Cost provided by person other than the sponsor of the event. The cost of the employee's attendance will be considered to be provided by a person other than the sponsor of the event when such person designates the employee to be invited and bears the cost of the employee's attendance through a contribution or other payment intended to facilitate the employee's attendance. Payment of dues or a similar assessment to a sponsoring organization does not constitute a payment intended to facilitate a particular employee's attendance.

(6) Accompanying guest. When others in attendance will generally be accompanied by a guest of their choice, and when the invitation is from the same person who has invited the employee, the agency designee may authorize an employee to accept an unsolicited invitation of free attendance to one accompanying guest to participate in all or a portion of the event at which the employee's free attendance is permitted under paragraph (g)(1) of this section. The authorization required by this paragraph (g)(6) must be provided in writing.

Example 1 to paragraph (g):An aerospace industry association that is a prohibited source sponsors an industry-wide, two-day seminar for which it charges a fee of $800 and anticipates attendance of approximately 400. An Air Force contractor pays $4,000 to the association so that the association can extend free invitations to five Air Force officials designated by the contractor. The Air Force officials may not accept the gifts of free attendance because the contractor, rather than the association, provided the cost of their attendance; the contractor designated the specific employees to receive the gift of free attendance; and the value of the gift exceeds $525 per employee.

Example 2 to paragraph (g):An aerospace industry association that is a prohibited source sponsors an industry-wide, two-day seminar for which it charges a fee of $25 and anticipates attendance of approximately 50. An Air Force contractor pays $125 to the association so that the association can extend free invitations to five Air Force officials designated by the contractor. The Air Force officials may not accept the gifts of free attendance because the contractor, rather than the association, provided the cost of their attendance; the contractor designated the specific employees to receive the gift of free attendance; and the event was not expected to be attended by more than 100 persons.

Example 3 to paragraph (g):An aerospace industry association that is a prohibited source sponsors an industry-wide, two-day seminar for which it charges a fee of $800 and anticipates attendance of approximately 400. An Air Force contractor pays $4,000 in order that the association might invite any five Federal employees. An Air Force official to whom the sponsoring association, rather than the contractor, extended one of the five invitations could attend if the employee's participation were determined to be in the interest of the agency and the employee received a written authorization.

Example 4 to paragraph (g):An employee of the Department of Transportation is invited by a news organization to an annual press dinner sponsored by an association of press organizations. Tickets for the event cost $525 per person and attendance is limited to 400 representatives of press organizations and their guests. If the employee's attendance is determined to be in the interest of the agency and the agency designee provides a written authorization, the employee may accept the invitation from the news organization because more than 100 persons will attend and the cost of the ticket does not exceed $525. However, if the invitation were extended to the employee and an accompanying guest, the employee's guest could not be authorized to attend for free because the market value of the gift of free attendance would exceed $525.

Example 5 to paragraph (g):An employee of the Department of Energy (DOE) and their spouse have been invited by a major utility executive to a small dinner party. A few other officials of the utility and their spouses or other guests are also invited, as is a representative of a consumer group concerned with utility rates and their spouse. The DOE official believes the dinner party will provide an opportunity to socialize with and get to know those in attendance. The employee may not accept the free invitation under this exception, even if attendance could be determined to be in the interest of the agency. The small dinner party is not a widely attended gathering. Nor could the employee be authorized to accept even if the event were instead a corporate banquet to which forty company officials and their spouses or other guests were invited. In this second case, notwithstanding the larger number of persons expected (as opposed to the small dinner party just noted) and despite the presence of the consumer group representative and spouse who are not officials of the utility, those in attendance would still not represent a diversity of views or interests. Thus, the company banquet would not qualify as a widely attended gathering under those circumstances either.

Example 6 to paragraph (g):An Assistant U.S. Attorney is invited to attend a luncheon meeting of a local bar association to hear a distinguished judge lecture on cross-examining expert witnesses. Although members of the bar association are assessed a $15 fee for the meeting, the Assistant U.S. Attorney may accept the bar association's offer to attend for free, even without a determination of agency interest. The gift can be accepted under the $20 gift exception at paragraph (a) of this section.

Example 7 to paragraph (g):An employee of the Department of the Interior authorized to speak on the first day of a four-day conference on endangered species may accept the sponsor's waiver of the conference fee for the first day of the conference under § 2635.203(b)(8). If the conference is widely attended, the employee may be authorized to accept the sponsor's offer to waive the attendance fee for the remainder of the conference if the agency designee has made a written determination that attendance is in the agency's interest.

Example 8 to paragraph (g):A military officer has been approved to attend a widely attended gathering, pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section, that will be held in the same city as the officer's duty station. The defense contractor sponsoring the event has offered to transport the officer in a limousine to the event. The officer may not accept the offer of transportation because the definition of free attendance set forth in § 2635.203(g) excludes travel, and the market value of the transportation would exceed $20.

(h) Social invitations. An employee may accept food, refreshments, and entertainment, not including travel or lodgings, for the employee and an accompanying guest, at a social event attended by several persons if:

(1) The invitation is unsolicited and is from a person who is not a prohibited source;

(2) No fee is charged to any person in attendance; and

(3) If either the sponsor of the event or the person extending the invitation to the employee is not an individual, the agency designee has made a written determination after finding that the employee's attendance would not cause a reasonable person with knowledge of the relevant facts to question the employee's integrity or impartiality, consistent with § 2635.201(b).

Example 1 to paragraph (h):An employee of the White House Press Office has been invited to a social dinner for current and former White House Press Officers at the home of an individual who is not a prohibited source. The employee may attend even if the invitation is because of the employee's official position.

(i) Meals, refreshments, and entertainment in foreign areas. An employee assigned to duty in, or on official travel to, a foreign area as defined in 41 CFR 300-3.1 may accept unsolicited food, refreshments, or entertainment in the course of a breakfast, luncheon, dinner, or other meeting or event provided:

(1) The market value in the foreign area of the food, refreshments, or entertainment provided at the meeting or event, as converted to U.S. dollars, does not exceed the per diem rate for the foreign area specified in the U.S. Department of State's Maximum Rates of Per Diem Allowances for Travel in Foreign Areas, Per Diem Supplement, section 925 to the Standardized Regulations (GC-FA), available at www.state.gov;

(2) There is participation in the meeting or event by non-U.S. citizens or by representatives of foreign governments or other foreign entities;

(3) Attendance at the meeting or event is part of the employee's official duties to obtain information, disseminate information, promote the export of U.S. goods and services, represent the United States, or otherwise further programs or operations of the agency or the U.S. mission in the foreign area; and

(4) The gift of meals, refreshments, or entertainment is from a person other than a foreign government as defined in 5 U.S.C. 7342(a)(2).

Example 1 to paragraph (i): A number of local business owners in a developing country are eager for a U.S. company to locate a manufacturing facility in their province. An official of the U.S. International Development Finance Corporation may accompany the visiting vice president of the U.S. company to a dinner meeting hosted by the business owners at a province restaurant when the market value of the food and refreshments does not exceed the per diem rate for that country.

(j) Gifts to the President or Vice President. Because of considerations relating to the conduct of their offices, including those of protocol and etiquette, the President or the Vice President may accept any gift on their own behalf or on behalf of any family member, provided that such acceptance does not violate § 2635.205(a) or (b), 18 U.S.C. 201(b) or 201(c)(3), or the Constitution of the United States.

(k) Gifts authorized by supplemental agency regulation. An employee may accept any gift when acceptance of the gift is specifically authorized by a supplemental agency regulation issued with the concurrence of the Office of Government Ethics, pursuant to § 2635.105.

(l) Gifts accepted under specific statutory authority. The prohibitions on acceptance of gifts from outside sources contained in this subpart do not apply to any item which a statute specifically authorizes an employee to accept. Gifts which may be accepted by an employee under the authority of specific statutes include, but are not limited to:

(1) Free attendance, course or meeting materials, transportation, lodgings, food and refreshments, or reimbursements therefor incident to training or meetings when accepted by the employee under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 4111. The employee's acceptance must be approved by the agency in accordance with part 410 of this title; or

(2) Gifts from a foreign government or international or multinational organization, or its representative, when accepted by the employee under the authority of the Foreign Gifts and Decorations Act, 5 U.S.C. 7342. As a condition of acceptance, an employee must comply with requirements imposed by the agency's regulations or procedures implementing that Act.

(m) Gifts of informational materials. (1) An employee may accept unsolicited gifts of informational materials, provided that:

(i) The aggregate market value of all informational materials received from any one person does not exceed $100 in a calendar year; or

(ii) If the aggregate market value of all informational materials from the same person exceeds $100 in a calendar year, an agency designee has made a written determination after finding that acceptance by the employee would not be inconsistent with the standard set forth in § 2635.201(b).

(2) Informational materials are writings, recordings, documents, records, or other items that:

(i) Are educational or instructive in nature;

(ii) Are not primarily created for entertainment, display, or decoration; and

(iii) Contain information that relates in whole or in part to the following categories:

(A) The employee's official duties or position, profession, or field of study;

(B) A general subject matter area, industry, or economic sector affected by or involved in the programs or operations of the agency; or

(C) Another topic of interest to the agency or its mission.

Example 1 to paragraph (m):An analyst at the Agricultural Research Service receives an edition of an agricultural research journal in the mail from a consortium of private farming operations concerned with soil toxicity. The journal edition has a market value of $75. The analyst may accept the gift.

Example 2 to paragraph (m):An inspector at the Mine Safety and Health Administration receives a popular novel with a market value of $25 from a mine operator. Because the novel is primarily for entertainment purposes, the inspector may not accept the gift.

Example 3 to paragraph (m):An employee at the Department of the Army is offered an encyclopedia on cyberwarfare from a prohibited source. The cost of the encyclopedia is far in excess of $100. The agency designee determines that acceptance of the gift would be inconsistent with the standard set out in § 2635.201(b). The employee may not accept the gift under paragraph (m) of this section.

(n) Legal expense funds and pro bono legal services. An employee who seeks legal representation for a matter arising in connection with the employee's past or current official position, the employee's prior position on a campaign of a candidate for President or Vice President, or the employee's prior position on a Presidential Transition Team may accept:

(1) Payments for legal expenses paid out of a legal expense fund that is established and operated in accordance with subpart J of this part; and

(2) Pro bono legal services provided in accordance with subpart J of this part.

[89 FR 43695, May 17, 2024, as amended at 91 FR 67767, Oct. 28, 2026]

§ 2635.205 Limitations on use of exceptions.

Notwithstanding any exception provided in this subpart, other than § 2635.204(j), an employee may not:

(a) Accept a gift in return for being influenced in the performance of an official act;

(b) Use, or permit the use of, the employee's Government position, or any authority associated with public office, to solicit or coerce the offering of a gift;

(c) Accept gifts from the same or different sources on a basis so frequent that a reasonable person would be led to believe the employee is using the employee's public office for private gain;

Example 1 to paragraph (c): A purchasing agent for a Department of Veterans Affairs medical center routinely deals with representatives of pharmaceutical manufacturers who provide information about new company products. Because of a crowded calendar, the purchasing agent has offered to meet with manufacturer representatives during lunch hours Tuesdays through Thursdays, and the representatives routinely arrive at the employee's office bringing a sandwich and a soft drink for the employee. Even though the market value of each of the lunches is less than $6 and the aggregate value from any one manufacturer does not exceed the $50 aggregate limitation in § 2635.204(a) on gifts of $20 or less, the practice of accepting even these modest gifts on a recurring basis is improper.

(d) Accept a gift in violation of any statute; relevant statutes applicable to all employees include, but are not limited to:

(1) 18 U.S.C. 201(b), which prohibits public officials from, directly or indirectly, corruptly demanding, seeking, receiving, accepting, or agreeing to receive or accept anything of value personally or for any other person or entity in return for being influenced in the performance of an official act; being influenced to commit or aid in committing, or to collude in, or allow, any fraud, or make opportunity for the commission of any fraud, on the United States; or for being induced to do or omit to do any action in violation of their official duties. As used in 18 U.S.C. 201(b), the term “public official” is broadly construed and includes regular and special Government employees as well as all other Government officials; and

(2) 18 U.S.C. 209, which prohibits employees, other than special Government employees, from receiving any salary or any contribution to or supplementation of salary from any source other than the United States as compensation for services as a Government employee. The statute contains several specific exceptions to this general prohibition, including an exception for contributions made from the treasury of a State, county, or municipality;

(e) Accept a gift in violation of any Executive order; or

(f) Accept any gift when acceptance of the gift is specifically prohibited by a supplemental agency regulation issued with the concurrence of the Office of Government Ethics, pursuant to § 2635.105.

§ 2635.206 Proper disposition of prohibited gifts.

(a) Unless a gift is accepted by an agency acting under specific statutory authority, an employee who has received a gift that cannot be accepted under this subpart must dispose of the gift in accordance with the procedures set forth in this section. The employee must promptly complete the authorized disposition of the gift. The obligation to dispose of a gift that cannot be accepted under this subpart is independent of an agency's decision regarding corrective or disciplinary action under § 2635.106.

(1) Gifts of tangible items. The employee must promptly return any tangible item to the donor or pay the donor its market value; or, in the case of a tangible item with a market value of $100 or less, the employee may destroy the item. An employee who cannot ascertain the actual market value of an item may estimate its market value by reference to the retail cost of similar items of like quality.

Example 1 to paragraph (a)(1):A Department of Commerce employee received a $25 T-shirt from a prohibited source after providing training at a conference. Because the gift would not be permissible under an exception to this subpart, the employee must either return or destroy the T-shirt or promptly reimburse the donor $25. Destruction may be carried out by physical destruction or by permanently discarding the T-shirt by placing it in the trash.

Example 2 to paragraph (a)(1):To avoid public embarrassment to the seminar sponsor, an employee of the National Park Service did not decline a barometer worth $200 given at the conclusion of a speech on Federal lands policy. To comply with this section, the employee must either promptly return the barometer or pay the donor the market value of the gift. Alternatively, the National Park Service may choose to accept the gift if permitted under specific statutory gift acceptance authority. The employee may not destroy this gift, as the market value is in excess of $100.

(2) Gifts of perishable items. When it is not practical to return a tangible item in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section because the item is perishable, the employee may, at the discretion of the employee's supervisor or the agency designee, give the item to an appropriate charity, share the item within the recipient's office, or destroy the item.

Example 1 to paragraph (a)(2):With approval by the recipient's supervisor, a floral arrangement sent by a disability claimant to a helpful employee of the Social Security Administration may be placed in the office's reception area.

(3) Gifts of intangibles. The employee must promptly reimburse the donor the market value for any entertainment, favor, service, benefit, or other intangible. Subsequent reciprocation by the employee does not constitute reimbursement.

Example 1 to paragraph (a)(3):A Department of Defense employee wishes to attend a charitable event for which they were offered a $300 ticket by a prohibited source. Although attendance is not in the interest of the agency under § 2635.204(g), the employee may attend if they reimburse the donor the $300 face value of the ticket.

(4) Gifts from foreign governments or international organizations. The employee must dispose of gifts from foreign governments or international organizations in accordance with 41 CFR part 102-42.

(b) An agency may authorize disposition or return of gifts at Government expense. Employees may use penalty mail to forward reimbursements required or permitted by this section.

(c) Employees who, on their own initiative, promptly comply with the requirements of this section will not be deemed to have improperly accepted an unsolicited gift. Employees who promptly consult their agency ethics official to determine whether acceptance of an unsolicited gift is proper and who, upon the advice of the ethics official, return the gift or otherwise dispose of the gift in accordance with this section, will be considered to have complied with the requirements of this section on the employee's own initiative.

(d) Employees are encouraged to record any actions they have taken to properly dispose of gifts that cannot be accepted under this subpart, such as by sending an electronic mail message to the appropriate agency ethics official or the employee's supervisor.

Subpart C Gifts Between Employees

Source: 89 FR 43695, May 17, 2024, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2635.301 Overview.

This subpart contains standards that prohibit an employee from giving or contributing to a gift to an official superior, and official superiors are prohibited from knowingly accepting such a gift. Employees also are prohibited from soliciting a contribution from another employee for a gift to an official superior. In addition, employees are prohibited from accepting a gift from an employee who receives less pay. The prohibitions in this subpart apply unless the item is excluded from the definition of a gift (see § 2635.303(a)) or falls within one of the exceptions set forth in this subpart. Gifts from outside sources are subject to the limitations set forth in subpart B of this part.

§ 2635.302 General standards.

(a) Gifts to superiors. Except as provided in this subpart, employees may not:

(1) Directly or indirectly, give a gift to or make a contribution toward a gift for an official superior, and an official superior may not knowingly accept such a gift; or

(2) Solicit a contribution from another employee for a gift to either their own or the other employee's official superior.

(b) Gifts from employees receiving less pay. Except as provided in this subpart, employees may not, directly or indirectly, accept a gift from an employee who receives less pay unless:

(1) There is a personal relationship between the two employees that would justify the gift and the employee receiving the gift is not the official superior of the employee giving the gift; or

(2) The employee giving the gift is the official superior of the employee receiving the gift.

Example 1 to paragraph (b): A GS-13 Department of Homeland Security (DHS) employee has been close personal friends with a neighbor, a GS-15 employee in another government agency, for many years. During their friendship, the GS-13 employee has often allowed the neighbor's family to use their vacation house rent-free. The GS-15 employee recently accepted a position at DHS, and in the new position will be the direct supervisor of the GS-13 employee. Although the personal relationship between the two employees justified the gift of rent-free use of the vacation home before they were both employed at DHS, for the duration of their supervisor-subordinate relationship the GS-13 employee may not allow the GS-15 neighbor to use the vacation house rent-free or give other gifts, except as permitted by the exceptions contained in this subpart.

(c) Limitation on use of exceptions. Notwithstanding any exception provided in this subpart, an official superior may not coerce the offering of a gift from a subordinate.

§ 2635.303 Definitions.

For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:

(a) Gift has the meaning set forth in § 2635.203(b). For purposes of § 2635.203(b) and this paragraph (a) an employee will be deemed to have paid market value for any benefit received as a result of participating in a carpool or other such mutual arrangement between employees if the employee bears a fair proportion of the expense or effort involved.

(b) Indirectly, for purposes of § 2635.302(b), has the meaning set forth in § 2635.203(f). For purposes of § 2635.302(a), it includes a gift:

(1) Given with the employee's knowledge and acquiescence by the employee's parent, sibling, spouse, child, or dependent relative; or

(2) Given by a person other than the employee when circumstances indicate that the employee has promised or agreed to reimburse that person or to give that person something of value in exchange for giving the gift.

(c) Market value has the meaning set forth in § 2635.203(c), subject to paragraph (a) of this section.

(d) Official superior means any other employee, other than the President and the Vice President, including but not limited to an immediate supervisor, whose official responsibilities include directing or evaluating the performance of the employee's official duties or those of any other official superior of the employee. For purposes of this subpart, employees are considered to be the subordinates of any of their official superiors.

(e) Solicit means to request contributions by personal communication or by general announcement.

(f) Voluntary contribution means a contribution given freely, without pressure or coercion. A contribution is not voluntary unless it is made in an amount determined by the contributing employee, except that when an amount for a gift is included in the cost for a luncheon, reception, or similar event, an employee who freely chooses to pay a proportionate share of the total cost in order to attend will be deemed to have made a voluntary contribution. Except in the case of contributions for a gift included in the cost of a luncheon, reception, or similar event, a statement that an employee may choose to contribute less or not at all must accompany any recommendation of an amount to be contributed for a gift to an official superior.

Example 1 to paragraph (f): A supervisory employee of the Agency for International Development has just been reassigned from Washington, DC, to a foreign duty location. As a farewell party, 12 subordinates have decided to take the supervisory employee out to lunch at a restaurant. It is understood that the employees will pay for their own meals and that the cost of the supervisor's lunch will be divided equally among the 12. Even though the amount they will contribute is not determined until the supervisor orders lunch, the contribution made by those who choose to participate in the farewell lunch is voluntary.

§ 2635.304 Exceptions.

The prohibitions set forth in § 2635.302(a) and (b) do not apply to a gift given or accepted under the circumstances described in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section. A contribution or the solicitation of a contribution that would otherwise violate the prohibitions set forth in § 2635.302(a) and (b) may only be made in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.

(a) General exceptions. On an occasional basis, including any occasion on which gifts are traditionally given or exchanged, the following may be given to an official superior or accepted from a subordinate or an employee receiving less pay:

(1) Items, other than cash, with an aggregate market value of $10 or less per occasion;

(2) Items such as food and refreshments to be shared in the office among several employees;

(3) Personal hospitality provided at a residence which is of a type and value customarily provided by the employee to personal friends;

(4) Items given in connection with the receipt of personal hospitality if of a type and value customarily given on such occasions; and

(5) Unless obtained in violation of § 630.912 of this title, leave transferred under subpart I of part 630 of this title to an employee who is not an immediate supervisor.

Example 1 to paragraph (a): Upon returning to work following a vacation at the beach, a claims examiner with the Department of Veterans Affairs may give their supervisor, and the supervisor may accept, a bag of saltwater taffy purchased on the boardwalk for $8.

Example 2 to paragraph (a): An employee of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation whose bank examination responsibilities require frequent travel may not bring their supervisor, and the supervisor may not accept, souvenir coffee mugs from each of the cities the employee visits in the course of performing examination duties, even though each of the mugs costs less than $5. Gifts given on this basis are not occasional.

Example 3 to paragraph (a): The Secretary of Labor has invited the agency's General Counsel to a home dinner party. The General Counsel may bring a $15 bottle of wine to the dinner party and the Secretary may accept this customary gift from the subordinate, even though its cost is in excess of $10.

Example 4 to paragraph (a): For the holidays, an assistant may give their supervisor, and the supervisor may accept, a small succulent plant purchased for $10 or less. The assistant may also invite the supervisor to a New Year's Eve party in their home and the supervisor may attend.

(b) Special, infrequent occasions. A gift appropriate to the occasion may be given to an official superior or accepted from a subordinate or other employee receiving less pay:

(1) In recognition of infrequently occurring occasions of personal significance such as marriage, illness, bereavement, or the birth or adoption of a child; or

(2) Upon occasions that terminate a subordinate-official superior relationship, such as retirement, resignation, or transfer.

Example 1 to paragraph (b): The administrative assistant to the personnel director of the Tennessee Valley Authority may send a $30 floral arrangement to the personnel director who is in the hospital recovering from surgery. The personnel director may accept the gift.

Example 2 to paragraph (b): A chemist employed by the Food and Drug Administration has been invited to the wedding of the lab director who is an official superior. The chemist may give the lab director and the lab director's spouse, and the couple may accept, a place setting in the couple's selected china pattern purchased for $70.

Example 3 to paragraph (b): Upon the occasion of the supervisor's retirement from Federal service, an employee of the Fish and Wildlife Service may give the supervisor a book of wildlife photographs purchased for $19. The retiring supervisor may accept the book.

Example 4 to paragraph (b): An economist at the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau overhears their supervisor talking about their upcoming 50th birthday. Although a 50th birthday may be conventionally seen as a unique “milestone” worthy of additional celebration, the employee may not give their supervisor a $25 bottle of wine as a present because a birthday is not an infrequently occurring occasion.

(c) Voluntary contributions. (1) An employee may solicit voluntary contributions of nominal amounts from fellow employees for an appropriate gift to an official superior and an employee may make a voluntary contribution of a nominal amount to an appropriate gift to an official superior:

(i) On a special, infrequent occasion as described in paragraph (b) of this section; or

(ii) On an occasional basis, for items such as food and refreshments to be shared in the office among several employees.

(2) An employee may accept such gifts to which a subordinate or an employee receiving less pay has voluntarily contributed pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section.

Example 1 to paragraph (c): To mark the occasion of retirement, members of the immediate staff of the Under Secretary of the Army would like to throw a party and provide the Under Secretary with a gift certificate. They may distribute an announcement of the party and list a nominal amount for a retirement gift as a suggested voluntary contribution for the party.

Example 2 to paragraph (c): An employee of the National Endowment for the Arts may not collect contributions for a Christmas gift for the Chairman. Christmas occurs annually and is not an occasion of personal significance.

Example 3 to paragraph (c): Subordinates may not take up a collection for a gift to an official superior on the occasion of the superior's swearing in or promotion to a higher-grade position within the supervisory chain of that organization. These are not events that mark the termination of the subordinate-official superior relationship, nor are they events of personal significance within the meaning of paragraph (b) of this section. However, subordinates may take up a collection and employees may contribute a nominal amount to buy refreshments to be consumed by everyone in the immediate office to mark either such occasion.

Example 4 to paragraph (c): Subordinates may each contribute a nominal amount to a fund to give a gift to an official superior upon the occasion of that superior's transfer or promotion to a position outside the organization.

Example 5 to paragraph (c): An Assistant Secretary at the Department of the Interior is getting married. The Assistant Secretary's assistant has decided that a microwave oven would be a nice gift from the staff and has informed each of the Assistant Secretary's subordinates that they should contribute $5 for the gift. The assistant's method of collection is improper. Although it is permissible to recommend a $5 contribution, the recommendation must be coupled with a statement that the employee whose contribution is solicited is free to contribute less or nothing at all.

§ 2635.305 Disposition of prohibited gifts.

Section 2635.206(a)(1) through (3) may be referenced when determining an appropriate disposition of a gift that may not be accepted under this subpart.

Subpart D Conflicting Financial Interests

Source: 89 FR 43695, May 17, 2024, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2635.401 Overview.

Part 2640 of this chapter interprets and is the implementing regulation for 18 U.S.C. 208. This subpart summarizes the relevant statutory restrictions and some of the regulatory guidance found there. Specifically, this subpart contains two provisions relating to financial interests. One is a recusal requirement and the other is a prohibition on acquiring or continuing to hold specific financial interests. An employee may acquire or hold any financial interest not prohibited by § 2635.403. Notwithstanding that the acquisition or holding of a particular interest is proper, an employee is prohibited in accordance with § 2635.402 from participating in an official capacity in any particular matter in which, to the employee's knowledge, the employee or any person whose interests are imputed to the employee has a financial interest, if the particular matter will have a direct and predictable effect on that interest.

§ 2635.402 Disqualifying financial interests.

(a) Statutory prohibition. An employee is prohibited by criminal statute, 18 U.S.C. 208(a), from participating personally and substantially in an official capacity in any particular matter in which, to the employee's knowledge, the employee or any person whose interests are imputed to the employee under this statute has a financial interest, if the particular matter will have a direct and predictable effect on that interest.

Note 1 to paragraph (a):

Standards applicable when seeking non-Federal employment are contained in subpart F of this part and, if followed, will ensure that an employee does not violate 18 U.S.C. 208(a) or this section when the employee is negotiating for or has an arrangement concerning future employment. In all other cases when the employee's participation would violate 18 U.S.C. 208(a), an employee must recuse from participating in the particular matter in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section or obtain a waiver or determine that an exemption applies, as described in paragraph (d) of this section.

(b) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

(1) Direct and predictable effect. (i) A particular matter will have a direct effect on a financial interest if there is a close causal link between any decision or action to be taken in the matter and any expected effect of the matter on the financial interest. An effect may be direct even though it does not occur immediately. A particular matter will not have a direct effect on a financial interest, however, if the chain of causation is attenuated or is contingent upon the occurrence of events that are speculative or that are independent of, and unrelated to, the matter. A particular matter that has an effect on a financial interest only as a consequence of its effects on the general economy does not have a direct effect within the meaning of this subpart.

(ii) A particular matter will have a predictable effect if there is a real, as opposed to a speculative possibility that the matter will affect the financial interest. It is not necessary, however, that the magnitude of the gain or loss be known, and the dollar amount of the gain or loss is immaterial.

Note 2 to paragraph (b)(1):

If a particular matter involves a specific party or parties, generally the matter will at most only have a direct and predictable effect, for purposes of this subpart, on a financial interest of the employee in or with a party, such as the employee's interest by virtue of owning stock. There may, however, be some situations in which, under the standards of this paragraph (b)(1), a particular matter will have a direct and predictable effect on an employee's financial interests in or with a nonparty. For example, if a party is a corporation, a particular matter may also have a direct and predictable effect on an employee's financial interests through ownership of stock in an affiliate, parent, or subsidiary of that party. Similarly, the disposition of a protest against the award of a contract to a particular company may also have a direct and predictable effect on an employee's financial interest in another company listed as a subcontractor in the proposal of one of the competing offerors.

Example 1 to paragraph (b)(1):An employee of the National Library of Medicine at the National Institutes of Health has just been asked to serve on the technical evaluation panel to review proposals for a new library computer search system. DEF Computer Corporation, a closely held company in which the employee and their spouse own a majority of the stock, has submitted a proposal. Because award of the systems contract to DEF or to any other offeror will have a direct and predictable effect on the financial interests of both the employee and the spouse, the employee cannot participate on the technical evaluation team unless this disqualification has been waived.

Example 2 to paragraph (b)(1):Upon assignment to the technical evaluation panel, the employee in example 1 to this paragraph (b)(1) finds that DEF Computer Corporation has not submitted a proposal. Rather, LMN Corp., with which DEF competes for private sector business, is one of the six offerors. The employee need not recuse from serving on the technical evaluation panel. Any effect on the employee's financial interests as a result of the agency's decision to award or not award the systems contract to LMN would be at most indirect and speculative.

(2) Imputed interests. For purposes of 18 U.S.C. 208(a) and this subpart, the financial interests of the following persons will require the recusal of an employee to the same extent as if they were the employee's own interests:

(i) The employee's spouse;

(ii) The employee's minor child;

(iii) The employee's general partner;

(iv) An organization or entity which the employee serves as officer, director, trustee, general partner, or employee; and

(v) A person with whom the employee is negotiating for or has an arrangement concerning prospective employment. (Employees who are seeking other employment should refer to and comply with the standards in subpart F of this part.)

Example 1 to paragraph (b)(2):An employee of the Department of Education serves without compensation on the board of directors of Kinder World, Inc., a nonprofit corporation that engages in good works. Even though the employee's personal financial interests will not be affected, the employee must recuse from participating in the review of a grant application submitted by Kinder World. Award or denial of the grant will affect the financial interests of Kinder World and its financial interests are imputed to the employee as a member of its board of directors.

Example 2 to paragraph (b)(2):The spouse of an employee of the Food and Drug Administration has obtained a position with a well-established biomedical research company. The company has developed an artificial limb for which it is seeking FDA approval and the employee would ordinarily be asked to participate in the FDA's review and approval process. The spouse is a salaried employee of the company and has no stock or other direct or indirect ownership interest in the company. The spouse's position with the company is such that the granting or withholding of FDA approval will not have a direct and predictable effect on their salary or continued employment with the company. Because the FDA approval process will not affect the spouse's financial interests, this section does not require the employee to recuse from participating in that process. Nevertheless, because the impartiality principle is implicated as a result of the employee's covered relationship with the spouse's employer, as identified at § 2635.502(b)(1)(iii), the employee must follow the procedures established in § 2635.502 before participating in the FDA's review and approval process.

(3) Particular matter. The term particular matter encompasses only matters that involve deliberation, decision, or action that is focused upon the interests of specific persons, or a discrete and identifiable class of persons. Such a matter is covered by this subpart even if it does not involve formal parties and may include governmental action such as legislation or policy-making that is narrowly focused on the interests of such a discrete and identifiable class of persons. The term particular matter, however, does not extend to the consideration or adoption of broad policy options that are directed to the interests of a large and diverse group of persons. The particular matters covered by this subpart include a judicial or other proceeding, application, request for a ruling or other determination, contract, claim, controversy, charge, accusation, or arrest.

Example 1 to paragraph (b)(3):The Internal Revenue Service's amendment of its regulations to change the manner in which depreciation is calculated is not a particular matter, nor is the Social Security Administration's consideration of changes to its appeal procedures for disability claimants.

Example 2 to paragraph (b)(3):Consideration by the Surface Transportation Board of regulations establishing safety standards for trucks on interstate highways involves a particular matter.

(4) Personal and substantial. To participate personally means to participate directly. It includes the direct and active supervision of the participation of a subordinate in the matter. To participate substantially means that the employee's involvement is of significance to the matter. Participation may be substantial even though it is not determinative of the outcome of a particular matter. However, it requires more than official responsibility, knowledge, perfunctory involvement, or involvement on an administrative or peripheral issue. A finding of substantiality should be based not only on the effort devoted to a matter, but also on the importance of the effort. While a series of peripheral involvements may be insubstantial, the single act of approving or participating in a critical step may be substantial. Personal and substantial participation may occur when, for example, an employee participates through decision, approval, disapproval, recommendation, investigation, or the rendering of advice in a particular matter.

(c) Recusal. Unless the employee is authorized to participate in the particular matter by virtue of a waiver or exemption described in paragraph (d) of this section or because the interest has been divested in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, an employee must recuse from participating in a particular matter in which, to the employee's knowledge, the employee or a person whose interests are imputed to the employee has a financial interest, if the particular matter will have a direct and predictable effect on that interest. Recusal is accomplished by not participating in the particular matter.

(1) Notification. Employees who become aware of the need to recuse from participating in a particular matter to which they have been assigned must take whatever steps are necessary to ensure that they do not participate in the matter. Appropriate oral or written notification of their recusal may be made to an agency ethics official, coworkers, or a supervisor to document and help effectuate the recusal. Public filers as defined in subpart F of this part must comply with additional notification requirements set forth in § 2635.607 regarding negotiations for or agreement of future employment or compensation.

(2) Documentation. Employees need not file written recusal statements unless they are required by part 2634 of this chapter to file written evidence of compliance with an ethics agreement with the Office of Government Ethics or a designated agency ethics official, or are specifically directed by an agency ethics official or the person responsible for their assignments to file written recusal statements. However, it is often prudent for employees to create a record of their actions by providing written notice to an agency ethics official, a supervisor, or other appropriate official. In addition, public filers as defined in subpart F of this part must comply with the documentation requirements set forth in § 2635.607 regarding negotiations for or agreement of future employment or compensation.

Example 1 to paragraph (c):An Assistant Secretary of the Department of the Interior owns recreational property that borders on land which is being considered for annexation to a national park. Annexation would directly and predictably increase the value of the Assistant Secretary's vacation property and, thus, the Assistant Secretary must recuse from participating in any way in the Department's deliberations or decisions regarding the annexation. Because the Assistant Secretary is responsible for determining their own work assignments, they may accomplish their recusal merely by ensuring that they do not participate in the particular matter. Because of the level of their position, however, the Assistant Secretary might be wise to establish a record that they have acted properly by providing a written recusal statement to an official superior and by providing written notification of the recusal to subordinates to ensure that they do not raise or discuss any issues related to the annexation with the Assistant Secretary.

(d) Waiver of or exemptions from recusal requirement. An employee who would otherwise be required to recuse under 18 U.S.C. 208(a) may be permitted to participate in a particular matter if the financial interest that would otherwise require recusal is the subject of a regulatory exemption or individual waiver described in this paragraph (d), or results from certain Indian birthrights as described in 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(4).

(1) Regulatory exemptions. Under 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(2), regulatory exemptions of general applicability have been issued by the Office of Government Ethics, based on its determination that particular interests are too remote or too inconsequential to affect the integrity of the services of employees to whom those exemptions apply. See part 2640, subpart B of this chapter.

(2) Individual waivers. An individual waiver enabling the employee to participate in one or more particular matters may be issued under 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1) if, in advance of the employee's participation:

(i) The employee:

(A) Advises the Government official responsible for the employee's appointment (or other Government official to whom authority to issue such a waiver for the employee has been delegated) about the nature and circumstances of the particular matter or matters; and

(B) Makes full disclosure to such official of the nature and extent of the relevant financial interest; and

(ii) Such official determines, in writing, that the employee's financial interest in the particular matter or matters is not so substantial as to be deemed likely to affect the integrity of the services which the Government may expect from such employee. See part 2640, subpart C of this chapter (providing additional guidance).

(3) Federal advisory committee member waivers. An individual waiver may be issued under 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(3) to a special Government employee serving on, or under consideration for appointment to, an advisory committee within the meaning of the Federal Advisory Committee Act if the Government official responsible for the employee's appointment (or other Government official to whom authority to issue such a waiver for the employee has been delegated):

(i) Reviews the financial disclosure report filed by the special Government employee pursuant to 5 U.S.C. chapter 131; and

(ii) Certifies in writing that the need for the individual's services outweighs the potential for a conflict of interest created by the relevant financial interest. See part 2640, subpart C, of this chapter (providing additional guidance).

(4) Consultation and notification regarding waivers. When practicable, an official is required to consult formally or informally with the Office of Government Ethics prior to granting a waiver referred to in paragraph (d)(2) or (3) of this section. A copy of each such waiver is to be forwarded to the Director of the Office of Government Ethics.

(e) Divestiture of a disqualifying financial interest. Upon sale or other divestiture of the asset or other interest that would otherwise require the employee to recuse from participating in a particular matter, 18 U.S.C. 208(a) and paragraph (c) of this section will no longer prohibit the employee's participation in the matter.

(1) Voluntary divestiture. An employee who would otherwise be required to recuse from participating in a particular matter may voluntarily sell or otherwise divest the interest that create the recusal requirement.

(2) Directed divestiture. An employee may be required to sell or otherwise divest the disqualifying financial interest if the continued holding of that interest is prohibited by statute or by agency supplemental regulation issued in accordance with § 2635.403(a), or if the agency determines in accordance with § 2635.403(b) that a substantial conflict exists between the financial interest and the employee's duties or accomplishment of the agency's mission.

(3) Eligibility for special tax treatment. An employee who is directed to divest an interest may be eligible to defer the tax consequences of divestiture under part 2634, subpart J, of this chapter. An employee who divests before obtaining a certificate of divestiture will not be eligible for this special tax treatment.

(f) Official duties that give rise to potential conflicts. When their official duties create a substantial likelihood that they may be assigned to a particular matter from which they would be required to recuse, employees should advise their supervisors or other persons responsible for their assignments of that potential so that conflicting assignments can be avoided, consistent with the agency's needs.

§ 2635.403 Prohibited financial interests.

An employee may not acquire or hold any financial interest that agency employees are prohibited from acquiring or holding by statute, by agency regulation issued in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, or by reason of an agency determination of substantial conflict under paragraph (b) of this section.

(a) Agency regulation prohibiting certain financial interests. An agency may, by supplemental agency regulation, prohibit or restrict the acquisition or holding of a financial interest or a class of financial interests by agency employees, or any category of agency employees, and the spouses and minor children of those employees, based on the agency's determination that the acquisition or holding of such financial interests would cause a reasonable person to question the impartiality and objectivity with which agency programs are administered. When the agency restricts or prohibits the holding of certain financial interests by its employees' spouses or minor children, any such prohibition or restriction must be based on a determination that there is a direct and appropriate nexus between the prohibition or restriction as applied to spouses and minor children and the efficiency of the service.

Note 1 to paragraph (a):

There is no statute of Governmentwide applicability prohibiting employees from holding or acquiring any financial interest. Statutory restrictions, if any, are contained in agency statutes which, in some cases, may be implemented by agency regulations issued independent of this part.

(b) Agency determination of substantial conflict. An agency may prohibit or restrict an individual employee from acquiring or holding a financial interest or a class of financial interests based upon the agency designee's determination that the holding of such interest or interests will:

(1) Require the employee to recuse from particular matters so central or critical to the performance of the employee's official duties that their ability to perform the duties of their position would be materially impaired; or

(2) Adversely affect the efficient accomplishment of the agency's mission because another employee cannot be readily assigned to perform work from which the employee would be recused by reason of the financial interest.

Example 1 to paragraph (b): An Air Force employee who owns $33,778 of stock in a major aircraft engine manufacturer is being considered for promotion to a position that involves responsibility for development of a new fighter airplane. If the agency determined that engineering and other decisions about the Air Force's requirements for the fighter would directly and predictably affect the employee's financial interests, the employee could not, by virtue of 18 U.S.C. 208(a), perform these significant duties of the position while retaining stock in the company. The agency can require the employee to sell the stock as a condition of being selected for the position rather than allowing the employee to recuse from particular matters.

(c) Definition of financial interest. For purposes of this section:

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the term financial interest is limited to financial interests that are owned by the employee or by the employee's spouse or minor children. However, the term is not limited to only those financial interests that would require the employee to recuse under 18 U.S.C. 208(a) and § 2635.402. The term includes any current or contingent ownership, equity, or security interest in real or personal property or a business, and may include an indebtedness or compensated employment relationship. It thus includes, for example, interests in the nature of stocks, bonds, partnership interests, fee and leasehold interests, mineral and other property rights, deeds of trust, and liens, and extends to any right to purchase or acquire any such interest, such as a stock option or commodity future. It does not include a future interest created by someone other than the employee, the employee's spouse, or minor child, or any right as a beneficiary of an estate that has not been settled.

Example 1 to paragraph (c)(1): A regulatory agency has concluded that ownership by its employees of stock in entities regulated by the agency would significantly diminish public confidence in the agency's performance of its regulatory functions and thereby interfere with the accomplishment of its mission. In its supplemental agency regulations, the agency may prohibit its employees from acquiring or continuing to hold stock in regulated entities.

Example 2 to paragraph (c)(1): An agency that insures bank deposits may, by supplemental agency regulation, prohibit its employees who are bank examiners from obtaining loans from banks they examine. Examination of a member bank could have no effect on an employee's fixed obligation to repay a loan from that bank and, thus, would not affect an employee's financial interests so as to require recusal under § 2635.402. Nevertheless, a loan from a member bank is a discrete financial interest within the meaning of paragraph (c) of this section that may, when appropriate, be prohibited by supplemental agency regulation.

(2) The term financial interest includes service, with or without compensation, as an officer, director, trustee, general partner, or employee of any person, including a nonprofit entity, whose financial interests are imputed to the employee under § 2635.402(b)(2)(iii) or (iv).

Example 1 to paragraph (c)(2): The Foundation for the Preservation of Wild Horses maintains herds of horses that graze on public and private lands. Because its costs are affected by Federal policies regarding grazing permits, the Foundation routinely comments on all proposed rules governing use of Federal grasslands issued by the Bureau of Land Management (BLM). BLM may require an employee to resign from their uncompensated position as Vice President of the Foundation as a condition of a promotion to a policy-level position within the Bureau rather than allowing the employee to rely on recusal in particular cases.

(d) Reasonable period to divest or terminate. Whenever an agency directs divestiture of a financial interest under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, the employee will be given a reasonable period of time, considering the nature of their particular duties and the nature and marketability of the interest, within which to comply with the agency's direction. Except in cases of unusual hardship, as determined by the agency, a reasonable period must not exceed 90 days from the date divestiture is first directed. However, as long as the employee continues to hold the financial interest, all restrictions imposed by this subpart remain applicable.

(e) Eligibility for special tax treatment. Employees required to sell or otherwise divest a financial interest may be eligible to defer the tax consequences of divestiture under part 2634, subpart J, of this chapter.

Subpart E Impartiality in Performing Official Duties

Source: 89 FR 43695, May 17, 2024, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2635.501 Overview.

(a) Scope. This subpart is intended to ensure that employees take appropriate steps to avoid an appearance of loss of impartiality in the performance of their official duties in circumstances other than those covered by the criminal conflict of interest statute, 18 U.S.C. 208(a).

(1) The provisions of § 2635.502 are designed to help employees identify and take appropriate steps regarding their participation in particular matters involving specific parties that may cause a reasonable person with knowledge of the relevant facts to question their impartiality. Employees and agencies should analyze such appearance issues, and employees may receive authorization to participate in such matters, using the procedures in this subpart.

(2) Under § 2635.503, an employee who has received a covered payment from a former employer is subject, in the absence of a waiver pursuant to § 2635.503(c), to a two-year period of recusal from participating in particular matters in which that former employer is or represents a party.

(3) An employee is prohibited by 18 U.S.C. 208(a) from participating personally and substantially in an official capacity in any particular matter in which, to the employee's knowledge, the employee has a personal or imputed financial interest, if the particular matter will have a direct and predictable effect on that interest. Section 208(a), its interpreting and implementing regulations under part 2640 of this chapter, and the regulations at subparts D and F of this part, apply when the particular matter would affect the financial interests of one of these persons.

(b) Distinction between authorizations under this subpart and waivers and exemptions under the criminal conflict of interest law. (1) When an employee's participation in a particular matter involving specific parties would raise a question in the mind of a reasonable person about the employee's impartiality, but would not violate 18 U.S.C. 208(a), the agency designee may make a determination, as explained in § 2635.502(d), and authorize the employee to participate in the matter.

(2) When the employee's participation in a particular matter would affect any one of the financial interests described in 18 U.S.C. 208(a), only a statutory waiver or exemption, as described in §§ 2635.402(d) and 2635.605(a), will enable the employee to participate in that matter. The specific requirements for regulatory exemptions and statutory waivers are contained in part 2640, subparts B and C, of this chapter.

(3) An applicable waiver or exemption under part 2640 of this chapter also authorizes an employee's participation in particular matters that would otherwise be restricted by § 2635.502. Specifically, if an employee meets all prerequisites for the application of one of the regulatory exemptions set forth in part 2640, subpart B, of this chapter, that constitutes a determination that the interest of the Government in the employee's participation in a particular matter outweighs the concern that a reasonable person may question the integrity of agency programs and operations. Similarly, if the employee complies with all terms of a statutory waiver granted pursuant to part 2640, subpart C, of this chapter, that also constitutes a determination that the interest of the Government in the employee's participation in a particular matter outweighs the concern that a reasonable person may question the integrity of agency programs and operations. In such cases, the employee is not required to recuse under § 2635.502(e) or request authorization to participate under § 2635.502(d).

Note 1 to § 2635.501:

Even if the employee or agency designee determines that this subpart is not applicable, the employee's supervisor or other individuals responsible for assigning work to the employee may decide not to assign certain work to the employee for other reasons, including to address appearance and impartiality concerns not covered by this subpart.

§ 2635.502 Personal and business relationships.

(a) Consideration of appearances by the employee. In considering whether any of the following would cause a reasonable person to question their impartiality, employees may seek the assistance of their supervisor, an agency ethics official, or the agency designee.

(1) When an employee knows that a particular matter involving specific parties is likely to have a direct and predictable effect on the financial interest of a member of the employee's household, and the employee determines that the circumstances would cause a reasonable person with knowledge of the relevant facts to question the employee's impartiality in the matter, the employee should not participate in the matter unless the employee has received a determination from the agency designee regarding the appearance problem in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section or received an authorization from the agency designee in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.

(2) When an employee knows that a person with whom the employee has a covered relationship is or represents a party to a particular matter involving specific parties, and the employee determines that the circumstances would cause a reasonable person with knowledge of the relevant facts to question their impartiality in the matter, the employee should not participate in the matter unless the employee has received a determination from the agency designee regarding the appearance problem in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section or received an authorization from the agency designee in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.

(3) Employees who are concerned that circumstances other than those specifically described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section would raise a question regarding their impartiality should use the process described in this section to determine whether they should not participate in a particular matter.

(b) Definitions. For purposes of this section:

(1) An employee has a covered relationship with:

(i) A person, other than a prospective employer described in § 2635.603(c), with whom the employee has or seeks a business, contractual, or other financial relationship that involves other than a routine consumer transaction;

Note 1 to paragraph (b)(1)(i):

An employee who is seeking employment within the meaning of § 2635.603 must comply with subpart F of this part rather than with this section.

(ii) A person who is a member of the employee's household, or who is a relative with whom the employee has a close personal relationship;

(iii) A person for whom the employee's spouse, parent, or child is, to the employee's knowledge, serving or seeking to serve as an officer, director, trustee, general partner, agent, attorney, consultant, contractor, or employee;

(iv) Any person for whom the employee has, within the last year, served as officer, director, trustee, general partner, agent, attorney, consultant, contractor, or employee; or

(v) An organization, other than a political party described in 26 U.S.C. 527(e), in which the employee is an active participant. Participation is active if, for example, it involves service as an official of the organization or in a capacity similar to that of a committee or subcommittee chairperson or spokesperson, or participation in directing the activities of the organization. In other cases, significant time devoted to promoting specific programs of the organization, including coordination of fundraising efforts, is an indication of active participation. Payment of dues or the donation or solicitation of financial support does not, in itself, constitute active participation.

(2) Direct and predictable effect has the meaning set forth in § 2635.402(b)(1).

(3) Particular matter involving specific parties has the meaning set forth in § 2640.102(l) of this chapter.

Example 1 to paragraph (b): An employee of the General Services Administration (GSA) has made an offer to purchase a restaurant owned by a local developer. The developer has submitted an offer in response to a GSA solicitation for the lease of office space. Under the circumstances, the GSA employee would be correct in concluding that a reasonable person would be likely to question their impartiality if they were to participate in evaluating that developer's or its competitor's lease proposal.

Example 2 to paragraph (b): An employee of the Department of Labor is providing technical assistance in drafting occupational safety and health legislation that will affect all employers of five or more persons. The employee's spouse is employed as an administrative assistant by a large corporation that will incur additional costs if the proposed legislation is enacted. Because the legislation is not a particular matter involving specific parties, the employee may continue to work on the legislation and need not be concerned that the spouse's employment with an affected corporation would raise a question concerning the employee's impartiality.

Example 3 paragraph (b): An employee of the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) is studying environmental problems created by the use of hazardous substances on a particular section of public land. BLM has a contract with an environmental services company to produce a water quality study of the groundwater under this section of land along with a recommendation about how to remediate any problems that are found. The BLM employee will use the study to help determine the extent of the damage and to recommend a solution to any problems that are revealed. The employee's parent has accepted a job with this environmental services company and will be signing and submitting the report of the company's findings. Under these circumstances, the employee would be correct in concluding that a reasonable person would be likely to question their impartiality if they were to continue participating in the study related to this parcel of public land.

Example 4 to paragraph (b): An engineer has just resigned from a position as vice president of an electronics company in order to accept employment with the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) in a position involving procurement responsibilities. Although the employee did not receive a covered payment in connection with the resignation and has severed all financial ties with the firm, under the circumstances the employee would be correct in concluding that this former service as an officer of the company would be likely to cause a reasonable person to question their impartiality if they were to participate in the administration of an FAA contract for which the firm is a first-tier subcontractor.

Example 5 to paragraph (b): An employee of the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) is a member of a private organization whose purpose is to restore a Victorian-era railroad station, and chairs its annual fundraising drive. Under the circumstances, the employee would be correct in concluding that this active membership in the organization would be likely to cause a reasonable person to question their impartiality if they were to participate in an IRS determination regarding the tax-exempt status of the organization.

Example 6 to paragraph (b): An employee of the Department of Defense (DoD) has responsibility for testing avionics produced by a large Air Force contractor. The employee just learned that their adult child accepted a staff position in the human resources division of that contractor. Although the DoD employee has a covered relationship with the contractor that employs their child, the employee could justifiably conclude that a reasonable person would not be likely to question their impartiality because the child's work is unrelated to the avionics contract.

Example 7 to paragraph (b): An employee of the Department of Defense (DoD) leads the office that is testing a new type of jet engine produced by a multinational conglomerate's aviation division. The employee's lifelong best friend is the head of the conglomerate's aviation division and is responsible for presenting and promoting the new jet engine. Although the DoD employee does not have a covered relationship under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the employee is concerned that, under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, questions regarding their impartiality could be raised. Here, the employee could justifiably conclude that a reasonable person would be likely to question their impartiality if they were to continue performing duties related to this jet engine.

(c) Determination by agency designee. (1) When the agency designee has information concerning a potential appearance problem arising from either the financial interest of a member of the employee's household in a particular matter involving specific parties or a particular matter involving specific parties in which a person with whom the employee has a covered relationship is a party or represents a party, the agency designee may make an independent determination as to whether a reasonable person with knowledge of the relevant facts would be likely to question the employee's impartiality in the matter. Ordinarily, the agency designee's determination will be initiated by information provided by the employee pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section. However, at any time, including after an employee has recused from participating in a particular matter pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section, agency designees may make this determination on their own initiative or when requested by the employee's supervisor or any other person responsible for the employee's assignment.

(2) If the agency designee determines that the employee's impartiality is likely to be questioned, the agency designee must then determine, in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, whether the employee should be authorized to participate in the matter. If the agency designee determines that the employee's participation should not be authorized, the employee must recuse from participating in the particular matter in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.

(3) If the agency designee determines that the employee's impartiality is not likely to be questioned, the agency designee may advise the employee, including an employee who has reached a contrary conclusion under paragraph (a) of this section, that the employee's participation in the matter would be proper.

(d) Authorization by agency designee. When an employee's participation in a particular matter involving specific parties would not violate 18 U.S.C. 208(a), but would raise a question in the mind of a reasonable person about the employee's impartiality, the agency designee may authorize the employee to participate in the matter based on a determination, made in light of all relevant circumstances, that the interest of the Government in the employee's participation outweighs the concern that a reasonable person may question the integrity of the agency's programs and operations.

(1) Factors which may be taken into consideration include:

(i) The nature of the relationship involved;

(ii) The effect that resolution of the matter would have upon the financial interests of the person involved in the relationship;

(iii) The nature and importance of the employee's role in the matter, including the extent to which the employee is called upon to exercise discretion in the matter;

(iv) The sensitivity of the matter;

(v) The difficulty of reassigning the matter to another employee; and

(vi) Adjustments that may be made in the employee's duties that would reduce or eliminate the likelihood that a reasonable person would question the employee's impartiality.

(2) Authorization by the agency designee will be documented in writing at the agency designee's discretion or when requested by the employee. An employee who has been authorized to participate in a particular matter involving specific parties may not thereafter recuse from participating in the matter on the basis of an appearance problem involving the same circumstances that have been considered by the agency designee.

Example 1 to paragraph (d): The Deputy Director of Personnel for the Department of the Treasury and an attorney with the Department's Office of General Counsel are general partners in a real estate partnership. The Deputy Director advises their supervisor, the Director of Personnel, of the relationship upon being assigned to a selection panel for a position for which the partner has applied. If selected, the partner would receive a substantial increase in salary. The agency designee cannot authorize the Deputy Director to participate on the panel under the authority of this section because the Deputy Director is prohibited by criminal statute, 18 U.S.C. 208(a), from participating in a particular matter affecting the financial interest of a person who is their general partner. See § 2635.402.

Example 2 paragraph (d): A new employee of the Securities and Exchange Commission is assigned to an investigation of insider trading by the brokerage house where they have recently been employed. Because of the sensitivity of the investigation, the agency designee may be unable to conclude that the Government's interest in the employee's participation in the investigation outweighs the concern that a reasonable person may question the integrity of the investigation, even though the employee has severed all financial ties with the company. Based on consideration of all relevant circumstances, the agency designee might determine, however, that it is in the interest of the Government for the employee to participate in the review of a routine filing by the particular brokerage house.

Example 3 paragraph (d): An Internal Revenue Service employee involved in a long and complex tax audit learns that their child has just accepted an entry-level management position with a corporation whose taxes are the subject of the audit. Because the audit is essentially complete and because the employee is the only one with an intimate knowledge of the case, the agency designee might determine, after considering all relevant circumstances, that it is in the Government's interest for the employee to complete the audit, which is subject to additional levels of review.

(e) Recusal. Unless the employee is authorized to participate in the matter under paragraph (d) of this section, an employee may not participate in a particular matter involving specific parties when the employee or the agency designee has concluded, in accordance with paragraph (a) or (c) of this section, that the financial interest of a member of the employee's household, or the role of a person with whom the employee has a covered relationship, is likely to raise a question in the mind of a reasonable person about the employee's impartiality. Recusal is accomplished by not participating in the matter. When the covered relationship is with a former employer, this recusal requirement is for a period of one year after the date of the employee's resignation from the position with the former employer.

(1) Notification. Employees who become aware of the need to recuse from participating in a particular matter involving specific parties to which they have been assigned must take whatever steps are necessary to ensure that they do not participate in the matter. Appropriate oral or written notification of their recusal may be made to an agency ethics official, coworkers, or a supervisor to document and help effectuate the recusal.

(2) Documentation. Employees need not file written recusal statements unless they are required by part 2634 of this chapter to file written evidence of compliance with an ethics agreement with the Office of Government Ethics or a designated agency ethics official, or are specifically directed by an agency ethics official or the person responsible for their assignments to file written recusal statements. However, it is often prudent for employees to create a record of their actions by providing written notice to an agency ethics official, a supervisor, or other appropriate official.

(f) Irrelevant considerations. An employee's reputation for honesty and integrity is not a relevant consideration for purposes of any determination required by this section.

Note 2 to § 2635.502:

Nothing in this section should be construed to suggest that employees should not participate in a matter because of their political, religious, or moral views.

§ 2635.503 Covered payments from former employers.

(a) Recusal requirement. Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, an employee must recuse for two years from participating in any particular matter involving specific parties in which the employee's former employer is a party or represents a party if the employee received a covered payment from that person. The two-year period of recusal begins to run on the date that the covered payment is received.

Example 1 to paragraph (a): Following confirmation hearings and one month before their scheduled swearing in, a nominee to the position of Assistant Secretary of a department received a covered payment from their employer. For one year and 11 months after their swearing in, the Assistant Secretary may not participate in any particular matter to which the former employer is a party.

Example 2 paragraph (a): An employee received a covered payment from their former employer, a coal mine operator, prior to entering on duty with the Department of the Interior. For two years thereafter, the employee may not participate in a determination regarding the former employer's obligation to reclaim a particular mining site, because the former employer is a party to the matter. However, the employee may help to draft reclamation legislation affecting all coal mining operations because this legislation does not involve any parties.

Example 3 to paragraph (a): An architect accepts a position with the Army Corps of Engineers and resigns from a private architecture partnership. One month after beginning this new position, the architect receives a covered payment from the partnership. The architect may not participate in any particular matter involving specific parties in which the former partnership is a party until two years after receipt of the covered payment, which will be 25 months after beginning service with the Corps. Because the payment was not received before the architect became an executive branch employee, agency ethics officials must also review the payment to determine whether it constituted a supplementation of salary under 18 U.S.C. 209.

(b) Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

(1) Covered payment means any item, including cash or an investment interest, with a value in excess of $10,000, which is paid:

(i) On the basis of a determination made after it became known to the former employer that the individual was being considered for or had accepted a Government position; and

(ii) Other than pursuant to a qualifying program.

(2)(i) A qualifying program is:

(A) A compensation, partnership, or benefits program that is contained in bylaws, a contract, or other written form, and does not treat individuals entering Government service more favorably than other individuals; or

(B) A program that is not contained in written form, but is demonstrated by a history of similar payments made to others not entering Government service.

(ii) When a program is established in written form, any history of making similar payments to others not entering Government service that is contrary to an express provision of the written plan is not relevant to the evaluation of whether it is a qualifying program.

Example 1 to paragraph (b)(2): The vice president of a small corporation is nominated to be an ambassador. In recognition of service to the corporation, the board of directors votes to pay the departing vice president $50,000 upon confirmation in addition to the regular severance payment provided for by the corporate bylaws. The regular severance payment is not a covered payment because it was made pursuant to a qualifying program. The gratuitous payment of $50,000 is a covered payment, because the corporation had not made similar payments to other departing officers.

(3) Former employer includes any person which the employee served as an officer, director, trustee, general partner, agent, attorney, consultant, contractor, or employee. Payments from an officer, employee, or agent of a former employer will be considered to be payments from the former employer.

Note 1 to paragraph (b)(3):

The definition of former employer includes former clients for whom an employee may have served as an agent, attorney, consultant, or contractor.

(c) Waiver of recusal. The recusal requirement of this section may be waived based on a finding that the amount of the payment was not so substantial as to cause a reasonable person to question the employee's ability to act impartially in a matter in which the former employer is or represents a party. The waiver must be in writing and may be given only by the head of the agency or, when the recipient of the payment is the head of the agency, by the President or the President's designee. Waiver authority may be delegated by the head of an agency to any person who has been delegated authority to issue individual waivers under 18 U.S.C. 208(b) for the employee who is the recipient of the covered payment.

Subpart F Seeking Other Employment

Source: 89 FR 43695, May 17, 2024, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2635.601 Overview.

This subpart contains a recusal requirement that applies to employees when seeking non-Federal employment with persons whose financial interests would be directly and predictably affected by particular matters in which the employees participate personally and substantially. Specifically, it addresses the requirement of 18 U.S.C. 208(a) that an employee not participate personally and substantially in any particular matter that, to the employee's knowledge, will have a direct and predictable effect on the financial interests of a person with whom the employee is negotiating or has any arrangement concerning prospective employment. See § 2635.402 and § 2640.103 of this chapter. Beyond the statutory requirement in 18 U.S.C. 208(a), this subpart also addresses issues of lack of impartiality that require recusal from particular matters affecting the financial interests of a prospective employer when an employee's actions in seeking employment fall short of actual employment negotiations. In addition, this subpart contains the statutory notification requirements that apply to public filers when they negotiate for or have agreements of future employment or compensation. Specifically, it addresses the requirements of section 17 of the Representative Louise McIntosh Slaughter Stop Trading on Congressional Knowledge Act (STOCK Act), Public Law 112-105, 126 Stat. 303, that a public filer must submit a written statement identifying the entity involved in the negotiations or agreement within three business days after commencement of such negotiations or agreement and must submit a notification of recusal whenever there is a conflict of interest or an appearance of a conflict of interest.

§ 2635.602 Applicability and related considerations.

(a) Applicability. (1) To ensure that an employee does not violate 18 U.S.C. 208(a), section 17 of the STOCK Act, or the principles of ethical conduct contained in § 2635.101(b), an employee who is seeking employment or who has an arrangement concerning prospective employment must comply with the applicable recusal requirements of §§ 2635.604 and 2635.606 if particular matters in which the employee will be participating personally and substantially would, to the employee's knowledge, directly and predictably affect the financial interests of a prospective employer or of a person with whom the employee has an arrangement concerning prospective employment. Compliance with this subpart also will ensure that the employee does not violate subpart D or E of this part. In addition, a public filer who negotiates for or has an agreement of future employment or compensation must comply with the requirements of § 2635.607.

(2) An employee who is seeking employment with a person whose financial interests are not, to the employee's knowledge, affected directly and predictably by particular matters in which the employee participates personally and substantially has no obligation to recuse under this subpart. In addition, nothing in this subpart requires an employee, other than a public filer, to notify anyone that the employee is seeking employment unless a notification is necessary to implement a recusal pursuant to § 2635.604(b). A public filer who negotiates for or has an agreement of future employment or compensation must comply with the notification requirements in § 2635.607. An employee may, however, be subject to other statutes that impose requirements on employment contacts or discussions, such as 41 U.S.C. 2103, which is applicable to agency officials involved in certain procurement matters. Employees are encouraged to consult with their ethics officials if they have any questions about how this subpart may apply to them. Ethics officials are not obligated by this subpart to inform supervisors that employees are seeking employment.

Example 1 to paragraph (a): Recently, an employee of the Department of Education submitted a resume to the University of Delaware for a job opening. The employee has begun seeking employment. However, because the employee is not participating in any particular matters affecting the University of Delaware, there is no requirement that anyone be notified that the employee has begun seeking employment.

Example 2 to paragraph (a): The employee in example 1 to this paragraph (a) has been approached about an employment opportunity at the University of Maryland. Because the University of Maryland has applied for grants on which the employee has been assigned to work in the past, the employee wants to make certain that they do not violate the ethics rules. The employee contacts an ethics official to discuss the matter. The employee informs the ethics official that they are not currently participating in any particular matters affecting the University of Maryland. As a result, the ethics official advises the employee that they will have no notification obligations under this subpart. However, the ethics official cautions the employee that, if the employee is assigned to participate in a particular matter affecting the University of Maryland while they are seeking employment with the University, they must take whatever steps are necessary to avoid working on the grant, in accordance with § 2635.604.

(b) Related restrictions—(1) Outside employment while a Federal employee. An employee who is contemplating outside employment to be undertaken concurrently with the employee's Federal employment must abide by any limitations applicable to the employee's outside activities under subparts G and H of this part, including any requirements under supplemental agency regulations to obtain prior approval before engaging in outside employment or activities and any prohibitions under supplemental agency regulations related to outside employment or activities. The employee must also comply with any applicable recusal requirement of this subpart, as well as any applicable recusal requirements under subpart D or E of this part as a result of the employee's outside employment activities.

(2) Post-employment restrictions. An employee who is contemplating employment to be undertaken following the termination of the employee's Federal employment should consult an agency ethics official to obtain advice regarding any post-employment restrictions that may be applicable. The regulation implementing the Governmentwide post-employment statute, 18 U.S.C. 207, is contained in part 2641 of this chapter. Employees are cautioned that they may be subject to additional statutory prohibitions on post-employment acceptance of compensation from contractors, such as 41 U.S.C. 2104.

(3) Interview trips and entertainment. When a prospective employer who is a prohibited source as defined in § 2635.203(d) offers to reimburse an employee's travel expenses, or provide other reasonable amenities incident to employment discussions, the employee may accept such amenities in accordance with § 2635.204(e)(3). When a prospective employer is a foreign government or international organization, the employee must also comply with the Foreign Gifts and Decorations Act, 5 U.S.C. 7342.

§ 2635.603 Definitions.

For purposes of this subpart:

(a) Employment means any form of non-Federal employment or business relationship involving the provision of personal services by the employee, whether to be undertaken at the same time as or subsequent to Federal employment. It includes but is not limited to personal services as an officer, director, employee, agent, attorney, consultant, contractor, general partner, or trustee.

Example 1 to paragraph (a): An employee of the Bureau of Indian Affairs who has announced their intention to retire is approached by Tribal representatives concerning a possible consulting contract with the tribe. The contractual relationship the tribe wishes to negotiate is employment for purposes of this subpart.

Example 2 to paragraph (a): An employee of the Department of Health and Human Services is invited to a meeting with officials of a nonprofit corporation to discuss the possibility of serving as a member of the corporation's board of directors. Service, with or without compensation, as a member of the board of directors constitutes employment for purposes of this subpart.

Example 3 to paragraph (a): An employee at the Department of Energy volunteers without compensation to serve dinners at a homeless shelter each month. The employee's uncompensated volunteer services in this case are not considered an employment or business relationship for purposes of this subpart.

(b) An employee is seeking employment once the employee has begun seeking employment within the meaning of paragraph (b)(1) of this section and until the employee is no longer seeking employment within the meaning of paragraph (b)(2) of this section.

(1) An employee has begun seeking employment if the employee has directly or indirectly:

(i) Engaged in negotiations for employment with any person. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(1)(i), as for 18 U.S.C. 208(a) and section 17 of the STOCK Act, the term negotiations means discussion or communication with another person, or such person's agent or intermediary, mutually conducted with a view toward reaching an agreement regarding possible employment with that person. The term is not limited to discussions of specific terms and conditions of employment in a specific position;

(ii) Made an unsolicited communication to any person, or such person's agent or intermediary, regarding possible employment with that person. However, the employee has not begun seeking employment if that communication was for the sole purpose of requesting a job application; or

(iii) Made a response, other than rejection, to an unsolicited communication from any person, or such person's agent or intermediary, regarding possible employment with that person.

(2) An employee is no longer seeking employment when:

(i) The employee or the prospective employer rejects the possibility of employment and all discussions of possible employment have terminated; or

(ii) Two months have transpired after the employee's dispatch of an unsolicited resume or employment proposal, provided the employee has received no indication of interest in employment discussions from the prospective employer.

(3) For purposes of this paragraph (b), a response that defers discussions until the foreseeable future does not constitute rejection of an unsolicited employment overture, proposal, or resume nor rejection of a prospective employment possibility.

Example 1 to paragraph (b): A paralegal at the Department of the Army is in the third year of law school. The paralegal's neighbor, a partner in a large law firm in the community, invited the paralegal to the law firm for a visit. The paralegal accepted the offer and met with an associate at the firm. The associate shared with the paralegal their experiences looking for a legal position, discussed what they do in their position at the law firm, and explained why they chose that law firm. There was no discussion of possible employment with the firm. The Army paralegal is not seeking employment at this time. The purpose of the visit was informational only.

Example 2 to paragraph (b): An employee of the Defense Contract Audit Agency (DCAA) is auditing the overhead accounts of an Army contractor. While at the contractor's headquarters, the head of the contractor's accounting division tells the employee that the division is thinking about hiring another accountant and asks whether the employee might be interested in leaving DCAA. The DCAA employee asks what kind of work would be involved. The DCAA employee has begun seeking employment because they made a response other than a rejection to the communication regarding possible employment with the Army contractor, although they have not yet begun negotiating for employment.

Example 3 to paragraph (b): The DCAA employee and the head of the contractor's accounting division in example 2 to this paragraph (b) have a meeting to discuss the duties of the position that the accounting division would like to fill and the DCAA employee's qualifications for the position. They also discuss ways the DCAA employee could remedy one of the missing qualifications, and the employee indicates a willingness to obtain the proper qualifications. They do not discuss salary. The employee has engaged in negotiations regarding possible employment with the contractor.

Example 4 to paragraph (b): An employee at the Department of Energy (DOE) lists their job duties and employment experience in a profile on an online, business-oriented social networking service. The employee's profile is not targeted at a specific prospective employer. The employee has not begun seeking employment because the posting of a profile or resume is not an unsolicited communication with any prospective employer.

Example 5 to paragraph (b): The DOE employee in example 4 to this paragraph (b) was recently notified that a representative of a university has viewed their profile. The employee still has not begun seeking employment with the university. Subsequently, a representative of the university contacts the employee through the online forum to inquire whether the employee would be interested in working for the university, to which the employee makes a response other than rejection. At this point, the employee has begun seeking employment with the university until they reject the possibility of employment and all discussions of possible employment have terminated.

Example 6 to paragraph (b): The DOE employee in examples 4 and 5 to this paragraph (b) receives emails from various companies in response to the online profile. The employee does not respond. The employee has not begun seeking employment with the companies because they have not made a response.

Example 7 to paragraph (b): An official of a State Health Department compliments the work of an employee of the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS), and asks the CMS employee to reach out if they are ever interested in leaving Federal service. The employee explains to the State official that they are very happy with their job at CMS and is not interested in another job. The employee thanks the official for the professional compliment, and adds that they'll remember the official's interest if they ever decide to leave the Government. The employee has rejected the unsolicited employment overture and has not begun seeking employment.

Example 8 to paragraph (b): The employee in the example 7 to this paragraph (b) responds by stating that they cannot discuss future employment while they are working on a project affecting the State's health care funding but would like to discuss employment with the State when the project is completed. Because the employee has merely deferred employment discussions until the foreseeable future, they have begun seeking employment with the State Health Department.

Example 9 to paragraph (b): Three months prior to the end of the current administration, a political appointee at a large department receives a telephone call from the managing partner of an international law firm. The managing partner asks if the official would be interested in joining the law firm. The official says, “I am not talking to anyone about employment until I leave the Government.” The official has rejected the unsolicited employment overture and has not begun seeking employment.

Example 10 to paragraph (b): A geologist employed by the U.S. Geological Survey sends a resume to an oil company. The geologist has begun seeking employment with that oil company and will be seeking employment for two months from the date the resume was mailed, provided the geologist does not receive a response indicating an interest in employment discussions. A letter merely acknowledging receipt of the resume is not an indication of interest in employment discussions. However, if the geologist withdraws the application or is notified within the two-month period that the resume has been rejected, they will no longer be seeking employment with the oil company as of the date they make such withdrawal or receive such notification.

(c) Prospective employer means any person with whom the employee is seeking employment. When contacts that constitute seeking employment are made by or with an agent or other intermediary, the term prospective employer means:

(1) A person who uses that agent or other intermediary for the purpose of seeking to establish an employment relationship with the employee if the agent identifies the prospective employer to the employee; and

(2) A person contacted by the employee's agent or other intermediary for the purpose of seeking to establish an employment relationship if the agent identifies the prospective employer to the employee.

Example 1 to paragraph (c): An employee of the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) has retained an employment search firm to help them find another job. The search firm has just reported to the FAA employee that it has given their resume to and had promising discussions with two airport authorities, which the search firm identifies to the employee. Even though the employee has not personally had employment discussions with either airport authority, each airport authority is their prospective employer. The employee began seeking employment with each airport authority upon learning its identity and that it has been given their resume.

Example 2 to paragraph (c): An employee pays for an online resume distribution service, which sends their resume to recruiters that specialize in their field. The online service has just notified the employee that it sent their resume to Software Company A and Software Company B. Even though the employee has not personally had employment discussions with either company, each software company is their prospective employer. The employee began seeking employment with each company upon learning from the online service that Software Company A and Software Company B had been given their resume by the intermediary.

(d) Direct and predictable effect, particular matter, and personal and substantial have the respective meanings set forth in § 2635.402(b)(1), (3), and (4).

(e) Public filer means a person required to file a public financial disclosure report as set forth in § 2634.202 of this chapter.

§ 2635.604 Recusal while seeking employment.

(a) Obligation to recuse. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section or when the employee's participation has been authorized in accordance with § 2635.605, the employee may not participate personally and substantially in a particular matter that, to the employee's knowledge, has a direct and predictable effect on the financial interests of a prospective employer with whom the employee is seeking employment within the meaning of § 2635.603(b). Recusal is accomplished by not participating in the particular matter.

(2) The employee may participate in a particular matter under paragraph (a)(1) of this section when:

(i) The employee's only communication with the prospective employer in connection with the search for employment is the submission of an unsolicited resume or other employment proposal;

(ii) The prospective employer has not responded to the employee's unsolicited communication with a response indicating an interest in employment discussions; and

(iii) The matter is not a particular matter involving specific parties.

Example 1 to paragraph (a): A scientist is employed by the National Science Foundation (NSF) as a special Government employee to serve on a panel that reviews grant applications to fund research relating to deterioration of the ozone layer. The scientist is discussing possible employment with a university that received an NSF grant several years ago to study the effect of fluorocarbons but has no current grant applications pending before NSF. The employee is seeking employment, but does not need to recuse because there is no particular matter that would have a direct and predictable effect on the financial interests of the prospective employer. Recusal would be required if the university submits a new application for the panel's review.

Example 2 to paragraph (a): An employee of the Food and Drug Administration is developing a regulation on research criteria for approving prescription drugs. They begin discussing possible employment with a pharmaceutical company. The employee may not participate personally and substantially in the development of the regulation because they have begun employment discussions with the pharmaceutical company and the regulation is a particular matter of general applicability which would have a direct and predictable effect on the financial interests of the pharmaceutical company.

Example 3 to paragraph (a): A special Government employee of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) is assigned to advise the FDIC on rules applicable to all member banks. The employee mails an unsolicited letter to a member bank offering services as a contract consultant. Although the employee is seeking employment, the employee may participate in this particular matter of general applicability until receipt of some response indicating an interest in discussing the employment proposal. A letter merely acknowledging receipt of the proposal is not an indication of interest in employment discussions.

Example 4 to paragraph (a): An employee of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration is conducting an inspection of one of several textile companies to which they sent an unsolicited resume. The employee may not participate personally and substantially in the inspection because they are seeking employment and the inspection is a particular matter involving specific parties that will affect the textile company.

(b) Notification. Employees who become aware of the need to recuse from participating in a particular matter to which they have been assigned must take whatever steps are necessary to ensure that they do not participate in the matter. Appropriate oral or written notification of their recusal may be made to an agency ethics official, coworkers, or a supervisor to document and help effectuate the recusal. Public filers must comply with additional notification requirements set forth in § 2635.607.

Example 1 to paragraph (b): An employee of the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) is participating in the audit of a contract for laboratory support services. Before sending a resume to a lab which is a subcontractor under the VA contract, the employee should recuse from participating in the audit. Because the employee cannot withdraw from participating in the contract audit without supervisor approval, the employee should notify the supervisor of the need to recuse for ethics reasons so that appropriate adjustments in work assignments can be made.

Example 2 to paragraph (b): An employee of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is contacted in writing by a pharmaceutical company concerning possible employment with the company. The employee is reviewing an application from the same pharmaceutical company, which is seeking FDA approval for a new drug product. Once the employee makes a response that is not a rejection to the company's communication concerning possible employment, the employee must recuse from further participation in the review of the application. When the employee has authority to ask a colleague to assume reviewing responsibilities, they may accomplish recusal by transferring the work to the colleague. However, to ensure that the colleague and others with whom they had been working on the review do not seek their advice regarding the review of the application or otherwise involve them in the matter, it may be necessary for the employee to advise those individuals of the recusal.

(c) Documentation. Employees, other than public filers, need not file written recusal statements unless they are required by part 2634 of this chapter to file written evidence of compliance with an ethics agreement with the Office of Government Ethics or a designated agency ethics official, or are specifically directed by an agency ethics official or the person responsible for their assignments to file written recusal statements. However, it is often prudent for employees to create a record of their actions by providing written notice to an agency ethics official, a supervisor, or other appropriate official. Public filers must comply with the documentation requirements set forth in § 2635.607.

Example 1 to paragraph (c): The General Counsel of a regulatory agency will be engaging in discussions regarding possible employment as corporate counsel of a regulated entity. Matters directly affecting the financial interests of the regulated entity are pending within the Office of General Counsel, but the General Counsel will not be called upon to act in any such matter because signature authority for that particular class of matters has been delegated to an Assistant General Counsel. Because the General Counsel is responsible for assigning work within the Office of General Counsel, they can, in fact, accomplish recusal by simply avoiding any involvement in matters affecting the regulated entity. However, because it is likely to be assumed by others that the General Counsel is involved in all matters within the cognizance of the Office of General Counsel, they would benefit from filing a written recusal statement with an agency ethics official or the Commissioners of the regulatory agency and providing their subordinates with written notification of the recusal. The General Counsel may also be specifically directed by an agency ethics official or the Commissioners to file a written recusal statement. If the General Counsel is a public filer, they must comply with the documentation requirements set forth in § 2635.607.

(d) Agency determination of substantial conflict. When the agency determines that the employee's action in seeking employment with a particular person will require the employee to recuse from matters so central or critical to the performance of the employee's official duties that the employee's ability to perform the duties of the employee's position would be materially impaired, the agency may allow the employee to take annual leave or leave without pay while seeking employment, or may take other appropriate action.

§ 2635.605 Waiver or authorization permitting participation while seeking employment.

(a) Waiver. When, as defined in § 2635.603(b)(1)(i), an employee is engaged in employment negotiations for purposes of 18 U.S.C. 208(a), the employee may not participate personally and substantially in a particular matter that, to the employee's knowledge, has a direct and predictable effect on the financial interests of a prospective employer. The employee may participate in such matters only when the employee has received a written waiver issued under the authority of 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1) or (3). These waivers are described in § 2635.402(d) and part 2640, subpart C, of this chapter. For certain employees, a regulatory exemption under the authority of 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(2) may also apply (see part 2640, subpart B, of this chapter, including § 2640.203(g) and (i)).

Example 1 to paragraph (a): An employee of the Department of Agriculture is negotiating for employment within the meaning of 18 U.S.C. 208(a) and § 2635.603(b)(1)(i) with an orange grower. In the absence of a written waiver issued under 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1), the employee may not take official action on a complaint filed by a competitor alleging that the grower has shipped oranges in violation of applicable quotas.

(b) Authorization by agency designee. When an employee is seeking employment within the meaning of § 2635.603(b)(1)(ii) or (iii) and is not negotiating for employment, a reasonable person would be likely to question the employee's impartiality if the employee were to participate personally and substantially in a particular matter that, to the employee's knowledge, has a direct and predictable effect on the financial interests of any such prospective employer. The employee may participate in such matters only when the agency designee has authorized in writing the employee's participation in accordance with the standards set forth in § 2635.502(d).

Example 1 to paragraph (b): Within the past month, an employee of the Department of Education mailed a resume to a university. The employee is thus seeking employment with the university within the meaning of § 2635.603(b)(1)(ii). In the absence of specific authorization by the agency designee in accordance with § 2635.502(d), the employee may not participate personally and substantially in an assignment to review a grant application submitted by the university.

§ 2635.606 Recusal based on an arrangement concerning prospective employment or otherwise after negotiations.

(a) Employment or arrangement concerning employment. An employee may not participate personally and substantially in a particular matter that, to the employee's knowledge, has a direct and predictable effect on the financial interests of the person by whom the employee is employed or with whom the employee has an arrangement concerning future employment, unless authorized to participate in the matter by a written waiver issued under the authority of 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1) or (3), or by a regulatory exemption under the authority of 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(2). These waivers and exemptions are described in § 2635.402(d) and part 2640, subparts B and C, of this chapter.

Example 1 to paragraph (a): A military officer has accepted a job with a defense contractor that will begin six months after retirement from military service. During the remainder of Government employment, the officer may not participate personally and substantially in the administration of a contract with that particular defense contractor unless a written waiver is issued under the authority of 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1).

Example 2 to paragraph (a): An accountant has just been offered a job with the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) which involves a two-year limited appointment. The accountant's private employer, a large corporation, believes the job will enhance their skills and has agreed to give them a two-year unpaid leave of absence at the end of which they have agreed to return to work for the corporation. During the two-year period that the accountant is to be an OCC employee, they will have an arrangement concerning future employment with the corporation that will require recusal from participating personally and substantially in any particular matter that, to their knowledge, will have a direct and predictable effect on the corporation's financial interests.

(b) Offer rejected or not made. The agency designee for the purpose of § 2635.502(c) may, in an appropriate case, determine that an employee not covered by paragraph (a) of this section who has sought but is no longer seeking employment nevertheless will be subject to a period of recusal upon the conclusion of employment negotiations. Any such determination will be based on a consideration of all the relevant factors, including those listed in § 2635.502(d), and a determination that the concern that a reasonable person may question the integrity of the agency's decision-making process outweighs the Government's interest in the employee's participation in the particular matter.

Example 1 to paragraph (b): An employee of the Securities and Exchange Commission was relieved of responsibility for an investigation of a broker-dealer while seeking employment with the law firm representing the broker-dealer in that matter. The firm did not offer the partnership position the employee sought. Even though the employee is no longer seeking employment with the firm, they may continue to be recused from participating in the investigation based on a determination by the agency designee that the concern that a reasonable person might question whether, in view of the history of the employment negotiations, they could act impartially in the matter outweighs the Government's interest in their participation.

§ 2635.607 Notification requirements for public financial disclosure report filers regarding negotiations for or agreement of future employment or compensation.

(a) Notification regarding negotiations for or agreement of future employment or compensation. A public filer who is negotiating for or has an agreement of future employment or compensation with a non-Federal entity must file a statement notifying an agency ethics official of such negotiation or agreement within three business days after commencement of the negotiation or agreement. This notification statement must be in writing, must be signed by the public filer, and must include the name of the non-Federal entity involved in such negotiation or agreement and the date on which the negotiation or agreement commenced. When a public filer has previously complied with the notification requirement in this section regarding the commencement of negotiations, the filer need not file a separate notification statement when an agreement of future employment or compensation is reached with the previously identified non-Federal entity. There is also no requirement to file another notification when negotiations have been unsuccessful. However, employees may want to do so to facilitate the resumption of their duties.

Example 1 to paragraph (a): An employee of the Merit Systems Protection Board who is a public filer was in private practice prior to Government service. The employee receives a telephone call from a partner in a law firm who inquires as to whether they would be interested in returning to private practice. During this initial telephone call with the law firm partner, the employee indicates that they are interested in resuming private practice. The partner and employee discuss generally the types of issues that would need to be agreed upon if the employee were to consider a possible offer to serve as “of counsel” with the firm, such as salary, benefits, and type of work the employee would perform. The employee has begun negotiating for future employment with the law firm. Within three business days after this initial telephone call, the employee must file written notification of the negotiations with the agency ethics official.

Example 2 to paragraph (a): The employee in the example 1 to this paragraph (a) also negotiates a possible contract with a publisher to begin writing a textbook after leaving Government service. Within three business days after commencing negotiations, the employee must file written notification with the agency ethics official documenting this engagement in negotiations for future compensation with the book publisher.

(b) Notification of recusal. A public filer who files a notification statement pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section must file with an agency ethics official a notification of recusal whenever there is a conflict of interest or appearance of a conflict of interest with the non-Federal entity identified in the notification statement. The notification statement and the recusal statement may be contained in a single document or in separate documents.

(c) Advance filing of notification and recusal statements. When a public filer is seeking employment within the meaning of § 2635.603(b)(1)(ii) or (iii) or is considering seeking employment, the public filer may elect to file the notification statement pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section before negotiations have commenced and before an agreement of future employment or compensation is reached. A public filer may also elect to file the recusal statement pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section before the public filer has a conflict of interest or appearance of a conflict of interest with the non-Federal entity identified in the notification statement. The public filer need not file the document again upon commencing negotiations or reaching an agreement of future employment or compensation. The advance filing of any such document is not construed as a statement that negotiations have or have not commenced or that a conflict of interest does or does not exist. Although the Office of Government Ethics encourages advance filing when a public filer anticipates a realistic possibility of negotiations or an agreement, the failure to make an advance filing does not violate this subpart or the principles of ethical conduct contained in § 2635.101(b).

Example 1 to paragraph (c): An employee of the Federal Labor Relations Authority who is a public filer began negotiating for future employment with a law firm. At the time the employee began negotiating for future employment with the law firm, they were not participating personally and substantially in a particular matter that, to their knowledge, had a direct and predictable effect on the financial interest of the law firm. Although the employee was not required to file a recusal statement because they did not have a conflict of interest or appearance of a conflict of interest with the law firm identified in the notification statement, the Office of Government Ethics encourages the employee to submit a notification of recusal at the same time that they file the notification statement regarding the negotiations for future employment in order to ensure that the requirement of paragraph (b) of this section is satisfied if a conflict of interest or an appearance of a conflict of interest later arises. The agency ethics official should counsel the employee on applicable requirements but is under no obligation to notify the employee's supervisor that the employee is negotiating for employment.

Example 2 to paragraph (c): An employee of the General Services Administration is contacted by a prospective employer regarding scheduling an interview for the following week to begin discussing the possibility of future employment. The employee discusses the matter with the ethics official and chooses to file a notification and recusal statement prior to the interview. The notification and recusal statement contain the identity of the prospective employer and an estimated date of when the interview will occur. The employee has complied with the notification requirement of section 17 of the STOCK Act.

(d) Definition of agreement of future employment or compensation. Agreement of future employment or compensation for the purposes of this section means any arrangement concerning employment that will commence after the termination of Government service. The term also means any arrangement to compensate in exchange for services that will commence after the termination of Government service. The term includes, among other things, an arrangement to compensate for teaching, speaking, or writing that will commence after the termination of Government service.

Subpart G Misuse of Position

Source: 89 FR 43695, May 17, 2024, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2635.701 Overview.

This subpart contains provisions relating to the proper use of official time and authority, and of information and resources to which employees have access because of their Federal employment. This subpart sets forth standards relating to:

(a) Use of public office for private gain;

(b) Use of nonpublic information;

(c) Use of Government property; and

(d) Use of official time.

§ 2635.702 Use of public office for private gain.

An employee may not use their public office for their own private gain; for the endorsement of any product, service, or enterprise (except as otherwise permitted by this part or other applicable law or regulation); or for the private gain of friends, relatives, or persons with whom the employee is affiliated in a nongovernmental capacity, including nonprofit organizations of which the employee is an officer or member, and persons with whom the employee has or seeks employment or business relations. The specific prohibitions set forth in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section apply this general standard, but are not intended to be exclusive or to limit the application of this section.

(a) Inducement or coercion of benefits. Employees may not use or permit the use of their Government position or title, or any authority associated with their public office, in a manner that is intended to coerce or induce another person, including a subordinate, to provide any benefit, financial or otherwise, to the employee or to friends, relatives, or persons with whom the employee is affiliated in a nongovernmental capacity.

Example 1 to paragraph (a): Offering to pursue a relative's consumer complaint over a household appliance, an employee of the Securities and Exchange Commission called the general counsel of the manufacturer and, in the course of discussing the problem, stated that they worked at the SEC and were responsible for reviewing the company's filings. The employee violated the prohibition against use of public office for private gain by invoking their official authority in an attempt to influence action to benefit the relative.

Example 2 to paragraph (a): An employee of the Department of Commerce was asked by a friend to determine why another office within the Department of Commerce had not yet granted an export license to the friend's firm. At a department-level staff meeting, the employee raised as a matter for official inquiry the delay in approval of the particular license and asked that the particular license be expedited. The official used their public office in an attempt to benefit the friend and, in acting as the friend's agent for the purpose of pursuing the export license with the Department of Commerce, may also have violated 18 U.S.C. 205.

(b) Appearance of governmental sanction. Except as otherwise provided in this part, employees may not use or permit the use of their Government position or title, or any authority associated with their public office, in a manner that could reasonably be construed to imply that their agency or the Government sanctions or endorses their personal activities or those of another. When teaching, speaking, or writing in a personal capacity, employees may refer to their official title or position only as permitted by § 2635.807(b). When providing a verbal or written recommendation, employees may only use their official title in response to a request for a recommendation or character reference based upon personal knowledge of the ability or character of an individual with whom they have dealt in the course of Federal employment or whom they are recommending for Federal employment.

Example 1 to paragraph (b): An employee of the Department of the Treasury who is asked to provide a letter of recommendation for a former subordinate or for an individual who worked for their team under a Government contract may provide the recommendation using official stationery and may sign the letter using their official title. If, however, the request is for the recommendation of a personal friend with whom they have not dealt in the Government, the employee should not use official stationery or sign the letter of recommendation using their official title, unless the recommendation is for Federal employment. In writing the letter of recommendation for the personal friend, it may be appropriate for the employee to make a reference to their official position in the body of the letter.

Example 2 to paragraph (b): An employee of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has a personal social media account. Under “occupation,” the employee writes “Analyst at the Environmental Protection Agency.” On the same social media account, the EPA employee occasionally discusses topics related to the environment, such as recycling, biking to work, and organic gardening. Even though the employee is discussing matters related to the EPA's mission and lists their position in the area designated for occupation, these facts alone would not reasonably be construed as implying governmental sanction or endorsement. The same employee may not, for example, redesign the social media account so that it prominently features the official EPA seal and make statements that either assert or imply that their opinions on environmental topics are sanctioned or endorsed by the Government.

(c) Endorsements. Employees may not use or permit the use of their Government position or title or any authority associated with their public office to endorse any product, service, or enterprise except:

(1) In furtherance of statutory authority to promote products, services, or enterprises; or

(2) As a result of documentation of compliance with agency requirements or standards or as the result of recognition for achievement given under an agency program of recognition for accomplishment in support of the agency's mission.

Example 1 to paragraph (c): A Commissioner of the Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC) may not appear in a television commercial and endorse an electrical appliance produced by a former employer, stating that it has been found by the CPSC to be safe for residential use.

Example 2 to paragraph (c): A Foreign Commercial Service officer from the Department of Commerce is asked by a United States telecommunications company to meet with representatives of the government of Spain, which is in the process of procuring telecommunications services and equipment. The company is bidding against five European companies, and the statutory mission of the Department of Commerce includes assisting the export activities of U.S. companies. As part of official duty activities, the Foreign Commercial Service officer may meet with Spanish officials and explain the advantages of procurement from the United States company.

Example 3 to paragraph (c): The Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency may sign a letter to an oil company indicating that its refining operations are in compliance with Federal air quality standards even though the Administrator knows that the company has routinely displayed letters of this type in television commercials portraying it as a “trustee of the environment for future generations.”

Example 4 to paragraph (c): An Assistant Attorney General may not use their official title or refer to their Government position in a book jacket endorsement of a novel about organized crime written by an author whose work they admire. Nor may they do so in a book review published in a newspaper.

(d) Performance of official duties affecting a private interest. To ensure that the performance of their official duties does not give rise to an appearance of use of public office for private gain or of giving preferential treatment, employees whose duties would affect the financial interests of a friend, relative, or person with whom they are affiliated in a nongovernmental capacity must comply with any applicable requirements of § 2635.502.

(e) Use of terms of address and ranks. Nothing in this section prohibits an employee who is ordinarily addressed using a general term of address, such as “The Honorable” or “Judge,” or a rank, such as a military or ambassadorial rank, from using that term of address or rank in connection with a personal activity.

§ 2635.703 Use of nonpublic information.

(a) Prohibition. Employees may not engage in financial transactions using nonpublic information, nor allow the improper use of nonpublic information to further their own private interests or those of another, whether through advice or recommendation, or by knowing unauthorized disclosure.

(b) Definition of nonpublic information. For purposes of this section, nonpublic information is information that the employee gains by reason of Federal employment and that the employee knows or reasonably should know has not been made available to the general public. It includes information that the employee knows or reasonably should know:

(1) Is routinely exempt from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552 or otherwise protected from disclosure by statute, Executive order, or regulation;

(2) Is designated as confidential by an agency; or

(3) Has not actually been disseminated to the general public and is not authorized to be made available to the public on request.

Example 1 to paragraph (b): A Navy employee learns in the course of official duties that a small corporation will be awarded a Navy contract for electrical test equipment. The employee may not take any action to purchase stock in the corporation or its suppliers, and may not advise friends or relatives to do so until after public announcement of the award. Such actions could violate Federal securities statutes as well as this section.

Example 2 to paragraph (b): A General Services Administration employee involved in evaluating proposals for a construction contract cannot disclose the terms of a competing proposal to a friend employed by a company bidding on the work. Prior to award of the contract, bid or proposal information is nonpublic information specifically protected by 41 U.S.C. 2102.

Example 3 to paragraph (b): An employee is a member of a source selection team assigned to review the proposals submitted by several companies in response to an Army solicitation for spare parts. As a member of the evaluation team, the employee has access to proprietary information regarding the production methods of Alpha Corporation, one of the competitors. The employee may not use that information to assist Beta Company in drafting a proposal to compete for a Navy spare parts contract. The Federal Acquisition Regulation in 48 CFR parts 3, 14, and 15 restricts the release of information related to procurements and other contractor information that must be protected under 18 U.S.C. 1905 and 41 U.S.C. 2102.

Example 4 to paragraph (b): An employee of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission inadvertently includes a document that is exempt from disclosure with a group of documents released in response to a Freedom of Information Act request. Regardless of whether the document is used improperly, the employee's disclosure does not violate this section because it was not a knowing unauthorized disclosure made for the purpose of furthering a private interest.

Example 5 to paragraph (b): An employee of the Army Corps of Engineers is actively involved in the activities of an organization whose goals relate to protection of the environment. The employee may not, other than as permitted by agency procedures, give the organization or a newspaper reporter nonpublic information about long-range plans to build a particular dam.

§ 2635.704 Use of Government property.

(a) Standard. Employees have a duty to protect and conserve Government property and may not use such property, or allow its use, for other than authorized purposes.

(b) Definitions. For purposes of this section:

(1) Government property includes any form of real or personal property in which the Government has an ownership, leasehold, or other property interest as well as any right or other intangible interest that is purchased with Government funds, including the services of contractor personnel. The term includes but is not limited to office supplies, telephone and other telecommunications equipment and services, Government mail, computers and other electronic devices, printing and reproduction facilities, Government records, Government email and social media accounts, and Government vehicles.

(2) Authorized purposes are those purposes for which Government property is made available to members of the public or those purposes authorized in accordance with law or regulation. Authorized purposes include but are not limited to those uses of Government property that are in accordance with an agency's limited or de minimis personal use policy.

Example 1 to paragraph (b): As permitted under their agency's de minimis personal use policy, an employee may send an email from a Government email account to a former college roommate to schedule lunch for the following day.

Example 2 to paragraph (b): An employee of the Commodity Futures Trading Commission whose office computer provides access to a commercial service providing information for investors may not use that service for personal investment research.

Example 3 to paragraph (b): In accordance with Office of Personnel Management regulations at part 251 of this title, an attorney employed by the Department of Justice may be permitted to use their office computer and agency photocopy equipment to prepare a paper to be presented at a conference sponsored by a professional association of which they are a member.

§ 2635.705 Use of official time.

(a) Use of an employee's own time. Unless authorized in accordance with law or regulations to use such time for other purposes, employees must use official time in an honest effort to perform official duties. Employees not under a leave system, including Presidential appointees exempted under 5 U.S.C. 6301(2), have an obligation to expend an honest effort and a reasonable proportion of their time in the performance of official duties.

Example 1 to paragraph (a): A disability claims examiner of the Social Security Administration may use official time to engage in certain representational activities on behalf of the employee union of which they are a member. Under 5 U.S.C. 7131, this is a proper use of official time even though it does not involve performance of assigned duties as a disability claims examiner.

Example 2 to paragraph (a): A pharmacist employed by the Department of Veterans Affairs has been granted an excused absence to participate as a speaker in a conference on drug abuse sponsored by the professional association to which they belong. Even if an excused absence granted by an agency in accordance with Governmentwide personnel guidance would allow employees to be absent from their official duties without charge to their annual leave accounts, such absence would not be on official time.

(b) Use of a subordinate's time. Employees may not encourage, direct, coerce, or request a subordinate to use official time to perform activities other than those required in the performance of official duties or authorized in accordance with law or regulation.

Example 1 to paragraph (b): A supervisory employee of the Department of Housing and Urban Development may not ask an assistant to run personal errands for the employee during duty hours. Further, directing or coercing a subordinate to perform such activities during nonduty hours constitutes an improper use of public office for private gain in violation of § 2635.702(a). However, when an arrangement is entirely voluntary and appropriate compensation is paid, a subordinate may provide services to the superior during nonduty hours. For example, a subordinate who enjoys calligraphy may prepare invitations for an upcoming party that the superior is organizing with friends and family at home on personal time for appropriate compensation. When the compensation is not adequate, however, the arrangement would involve a gift to the superior in violation of the standards in subpart C of this part.

Subpart H Outside Activities

Source: 89 FR 43695, May 17, 2024, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2635.801 Overview.

(a) This subpart contains provisions relating to outside employment, outside activities, and personal financial obligations of employees that are in addition to the principles and standards set forth in other subparts of this part. Several of the provisions in this subpart apply to uncompensated as well as to compensated outside activities.

(b) Employees who wish to engage in outside employment or other outside activities must comply with all relevant provisions of this subpart, including, when applicable:

(1) The prohibition on outside employment or any other outside activity that conflicts with the employee's official duties;

(2) Any agency-specific requirement for prior approval of outside employment or activities;

(3) The limitations on receipt of outside earned income by certain Presidential appointees and other noncareer employees;

(4) The limitations on paid and unpaid service as an expert witness;

(5) The limitations on paid and unpaid teaching, speaking, and writing; and

(6) The limitations on fundraising activities.

(c) Outside employment and other outside activities of an employee must also comply with applicable provisions set forth in other subparts of this part and in supplemental agency regulations. These include the principle that an employee must endeavor to avoid actions creating an appearance of violating any of the ethical standards in this part and the prohibition against use of official position for an employee's private gain or for the private gain of any person with whom the employee has employment or business relations or is otherwise affiliated in a nongovernmental capacity.

Example 1 to paragraph (c): An employee of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) who was and is expected again to be instrumental in formulating new OSHA safety standards applicable to manufacturers that use chemical solvents has been offered a consulting contract to provide advice to an affected company in restructuring its manufacturing operations to comply with the OSHA standards. The employee should not enter into the consulting arrangement even though they are not currently working on OSHA standards affecting this industry and the consulting contract can be expected to be completed before they again work on such standards. Even though the consulting arrangement would not be a conflicting activity within the meaning of § 2635.802, it would create an appearance that the employee had used their official position to obtain the compensated outside business opportunity and it would create the further appearance of using public office for the private gain of the manufacturer.

(d) In addition to the provisions of this subpart and other subparts of this part, an employee who wishes to engage in outside employment or other outside activities must comply with applicable statutes and regulations. Relevant provisions of law, many of which are listed in subpart I of this part, may include:

(1) 18 U.S.C. 201(b), which prohibits a public official from seeking, accepting or agreeing to receive or accept anything of value in return for being influenced in the performance of an official act or for being induced to take or omit to take any action in violation of official duty;

(2) 18 U.S.C. 201(c), which prohibits a public official, otherwise than as provided by law for the proper discharge of official duty, from seeking, accepting, or agreeing to receive or accept anything of value for or because of any official act;

(3) 18 U.S.C. 203(a), which prohibits an individual from seeking, accepting, or agreeing to receive or accept compensation for any representational services, rendered personally or by another at a time when the individual is an employee, in relation to any particular matter in which the United States is a party or has a direct and substantial interest, before any department, agency, or other specified entity. This statute contains several exceptions, as well as standards for special Government employees that limit the scope of the restriction;

(4) 18 U.S.C. 205, which prohibits an employee, whether or not for compensation, from acting as agent or attorney for anyone in a claim against the United States or from acting as agent or attorney for anyone, before any department, agency, or other specified entity, in any particular matter in which the United States is a party or has a direct and substantial interest. It also prohibits receipt of any gratuity, or any share of or interest in a claim against the United States, in consideration for assisting in the prosecution of such claim. This statute contains several exceptions, as well as standards for special Government employees that limit the scope of the restrictions;

(5) 18 U.S.C. 209, which prohibits an employee, other than a special Government employee, from receiving any salary or any contribution to or supplementation of salary from any source other than the United States as compensation for services as a Government employee. The statute contains several exceptions that limit its applicability;

(6) The Emoluments Clause of the United States Constitution, article I, section 9, clause 8, which prohibits anyone holding an office of profit or trust under the United States from accepting any gift, office, title, or emolument, including salary or compensation, from any foreign government except as authorized by Congress. In addition, 18 U.S.C. 219 generally prohibits any public official from being or acting as an agent of a foreign principal, including a foreign government, corporation, or person, if the employee would be required to register as a foreign agent under 22 U.S.C. 611 et seq.;

(7) The Hatch Act Reform Amendments, 5 U.S.C. 7321 through 7326, which govern the political activities of executive branch employees; and

(8) The Ethics in Government Act of 1978 limitations on outside employment, 5 U.S.C. chapter 131, subchapter III, which restrict the amount of outside earned income that a covered noncareer employee may receive, prohibit a covered noncareer employee from receiving compensation for specified activities, and provide that a covered noncareer employee may not allow their name to be used by any firm or other entity that provides professional services involving a fiduciary relationship. Implementing regulations are contained in §§ 2636.305 through 2636.307 of this chapter.

§ 2635.802 Conflicting outside employment and activities.

(a) Employees may not engage in outside employment or any other outside activity that conflicts with their official duties. An activity conflicts with an employee's official duties:

(1) If it is prohibited by statute or by an agency supplemental regulation; or

(2) If, under the standards set forth in §§ 2635.402 and 2635.502, it would require the employee's recusal from matters so central or critical to the performance of their official duties that the employee's ability to perform the duties of the Government position would be materially impaired.

(b) Employees are cautioned that even though an outside activity may not be prohibited under this section, it may violate other principles or standards set forth in this part or require the employee to recuse from participating in certain particular matters under either subpart D or E of this part.

Example 1 to paragraph (b): A biochemist, who conducts research at the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), has an outside consulting business providing technical guidance on the handling of hazardous materials. The biochemist would like to apply for a different EPA position, for which the principal duty would be writing regulations on the handling of hazardous materials. If the biochemist gets the position, the work would have a direct and predictable effect on the outside consulting business. Because the biochemist would be required to recuse from duties critical to the performance of official duties on a basis so frequent as to materially impair their ability to perform the duties of the position, they could not continue to operate the outside consulting business.

Example 2 to paragraph (b): An employee of the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) reviews applications for recognition of tax-exempt status. Several years ago, the employee became involved with a neighborhood group that transports stray animals to nearby adoption centers. As its activities expanded, the group created a formal organization, and submitted an application for recognition of tax-exempt status by the IRS. Under the circumstances, the employee should be recused from participating in any IRS determination regarding the tax-exempt status of this organization. However, the employee's involvement with the organization would not be prohibited by this section, because the outside activity would have a limited effect on official duties and would not require recusal from matters so central or critical to the performance of official duties that the ability to perform the duties of the position would be materially impaired.

§ 2635.803 Prior approval for outside employment and activities.

When required by agency supplemental regulation, employees must obtain prior approval before engaging in outside employment or activities. When it is determined to be necessary or desirable for the purpose of administering its ethics program, an agency may, by supplemental regulation, require employees or any category of employees to obtain prior approval before engaging in specific types of outside activities, including outside employment. Whether or not prior approval is required by agency supplemental regulations, employees have a continuing responsibility to ensure that their outside activities do not conflict with their official duties.

§ 2635.804 Outside earned income limitations applicable to certain Presidential appointees.

This section implements the outside earned income limitations applicable to certain Presidential appointees. The outside earned income limitations applicable to covered noncareer employees, as defined in § 2636.303(a) of this chapter, are implemented in §§ 2636.301 through 2636.304 of this chapter.

(a) Presidential appointees to full-time noncareer positions. A Presidential appointee to a full-time noncareer position may not receive any outside earned income for outside employment, or for any other outside activity, performed during that Presidential appointment.

(b) Definitions. For purposes of this section:

(1) Outside earned income has the meaning set forth in § 2636.303(b) of this chapter, except that § 2636.303(b)(7) does not apply.

(2) Presidential appointee to a full-time noncareer position means any employee who is appointed by the President to a full-time position described in 5 U.S.C. 5312 through 5317 or to a position that, by statute or as a matter of practice, is filled by Presidential appointment, other than:

(i) A position filled under the authority of 3 U.S.C. 105 or 107(a) for which the rate of basic pay is less than that for GS-9, step 1 of the General Schedule;

(ii) A position, within a White House operating unit, that is designated as not normally subject to change as a result of a Presidential transition;

(iii) A position within the uniformed services; or

(iv) A position in which a member of the Foreign Service is serving that does not require advice and consent of the Senate.

Example 1 to paragraph (b)(2): A career Department of Justice employee who is detailed to a policy-making position in the White House Office that is ordinarily filled by a noncareer employee is not a Presidential appointee to a full-time noncareer position.

Example 2 to paragraph (b)(2): A Department of Energy employee appointed under § 213.3301 of this title to a Schedule C position is appointed by the agency and, thus, is not a Presidential appointee to a full-time noncareer position.

§ 2635.805 Service as an expert witness.

(a) Restriction. Employees may not serve, other than on behalf of the United States, as an expert witness, with or without compensation, in any proceeding before a court or agency of the United States in which the United States is a party or has a direct and substantial interest, unless the employee's participation is authorized by the agency under paragraph (c) of this section. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the restriction in this paragraph (a) applies to special Government employees only if they have participated as an employee or special Government employee in the particular proceeding or in the particular matter that is the subject of the proceeding.

(b) Additional restriction applicable to certain special Government employees. (1) In addition to the restriction described in paragraph (a) of this section, special Government employees described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section may not serve, other than on behalf of the United States, as an expert witness, with or without compensation, in any proceeding before a court or agency of the United States in which their employing agency is a party or has a direct and substantial interest, unless the employee's participation is authorized by the agency under paragraph (c) of this section.

(2) The restriction in paragraph (b)(1) of this section applies to special Government employees who:

(i) Are appointed by the President;

(ii) Serve on a commission established by statute; or

(iii) Have served or are expected to serve for more than 60 days in a period of 365 consecutive days.

(c) Authorization to serve as an expert witness. Provided that the employee's testimony will not violate any of the principles or standards set forth in this part, authorization to provide expert witness service otherwise prohibited by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section may be given by the designated agency ethics official of the agency in which the employee serves when:

(1) After consultation with the agency representing the Government in the proceeding or, if the Government is not a party, with the Department of Justice and the agency with the most direct and substantial interest in the matter, the designated agency ethics official determines that the employee's service as an expert witness is in the interest of the Government; or

(2) The designated agency ethics official determines that the subject matter of the testimony does not relate to the employee's official duties within the meaning of § 2635.807(a)(2)(i).

(d) Fact witness. Nothing in this section prohibits an employee from serving as a fact witness when subpoenaed by an appropriate authority.

§ 2635.806 [Reserved]
§ 2635.807 Teaching, speaking, and writing.

(a) Compensation for teaching, speaking, or writing. Except for teaching certain courses as permitted by paragraph (a)(3) of this section, an employee, including a special Government employee, may not receive compensation from any source other than the Government for teaching, speaking, or writing that occurs while the person is a Government employee and that relates to the employee's official duties.

(1) Relationship to other limitations on receipt of compensation. The compensation prohibition contained in this section is in addition to any other limitation on receipt of compensation set forth in this chapter, including:

(i) The requirement contained in § 2636.307 of this chapter that covered noncareer employees obtain advance authorization before engaging in teaching for compensation; and

(ii) The prohibitions and limitations in § 2635.804 and in § 2636.304 of this chapter on receipt of outside earned income applicable to certain Presidential appointees and to other covered noncareer employees.

(2) Definitions. For purposes of this paragraph (a):

(i) Teaching, speaking, or writing relates to the employee's official duties if:

(A) The activity is undertaken as part of the employee's official duties;

(B) The circumstances indicate that the invitation to engage in the activity was extended to the employee primarily because of their official position rather than their expertise on the particular subject matter;

(C) The invitation to engage in the activity or the offer of compensation for the activity was extended to the employee, directly or indirectly, by a person who has interests that may be affected substantially by performance or nonperformance of the employee's official duties;

(D) The information conveyed through the activity draws substantially on ideas or official data that are nonpublic information as defined in § 2635.703(b); or

(E) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(E)(4) of this section, the subject of the activity deals in significant part with:

(1) Any matter to which the employee presently is assigned or to which the employee had been assigned during the previous one-year period;

(2) Any ongoing or announced policy, program, or operation of the agency; or

(3) In the case of a noncareer employee as defined in § 2636.303(a) of this chapter, the general subject matter area, industry, or economic sector primarily affected by the programs and operations of the employee's agency.

(4) The restrictions in paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(E)(2) and (3) of this section do not apply to a special Government employee. The restriction in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(E)(1) of this section applies only during the current appointment of a special Government employee; except that if the special Government employee has not served or is not expected to serve for more than 60 days during the first year or any subsequent one-year period of that appointment, the restriction applies only to particular matters involving specific parties in which the special Government employee has participated or is participating personally and substantially.

Note 1 to paragraph (a)(2)(i):

Paragraph (a)(2)(i)(E) of this section does not preclude an employee, other than a covered noncareer employee, from receiving compensation for teaching, speaking, or writing on a subject within the employee's discipline or inherent area of expertise based on the employee's educational background or experience even though the teaching, speaking, or writing deals generally with a subject within the agency's areas of responsibility.

Example 1 to paragraph (a)(2)(i):The Director of the Division of Enforcement at the Commodity Futures Trading Commission has a keen interest in stamp collecting and has spent years developing a personal collection as well as studying the field generally. The Director is asked by an international society of philatelists to give a series of four lectures on how to assess the value of American stamps. Because the subject does not relate to the Director's official duties, it is permissible for the Director to accept compensation for the lecture series. The Director could not, however, accept a similar invitation from a commodities broker.

Example 2 to paragraph (a)(2)(i):A scientist at the National Institutes of Health (NIH), whose principal area of Government research is the molecular basis of the development of cancer, could not be compensated for writing a book which focuses specifically on the research conducted in this position at NIH, which thus relates to the scientist's official duties. However, the scientist could receive compensation for writing or editing a textbook on the treatment of all cancers, provided that the book does not focus on recent research at NIH, but rather conveys scientific knowledge gleaned from the scientific community as a whole. The book might include a chapter, among many other chapters, which discusses the molecular basis of cancer development. Additionally, the book could contain brief discussions of recent developments in cancer treatment, even though some of those developments are derived from NIH research, as long as it is available to the public.

Example 3 to paragraph (a)(2)(i):On personal time, a National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) employee prepared a consumer's guide to purchasing a safe automobile that focuses on automobile crash worthiness statistics gathered and made public by NHTSA. The employee may not receive royalties or any other form of compensation for the guide. The guide deals in significant part with the programs or operations of NHTSA and, therefore, relates to the employee's official duties. On the other hand, the employee could receive royalties from the sale of a consumer's guide to values in used automobiles even though it contains a brief, incidental discussion of automobile safety standards developed by NHTSA.

Example 4 to paragraph (a)(2)(i):An employee of the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) may not receive compensation for a book which focuses specifically on the regulation of the securities industry in the United States, because that subject concerns the regulatory programs or operations of the SEC. The employee may, however, write a book about the advantages of investing in various types of securities as long as the book contains only an incidental discussion of any program or operation of the SEC.

Example 5 to paragraph (a)(2)(i):An employee of the Department of Commerce who works in the Department's employee relations office is an acknowledged expert in the field of Federal employee labor relations, and participates in Department negotiations with employee unions. The employee may receive compensation from a private training institute for a series of lectures which describe the decisions of the Federal Labor Relations Authority concerning unfair labor practices, provided that the lectures do not contain any significant discussion of labor relations cases handled at the Department of Commerce, or the Department's labor relations policies. Federal Labor Relations Authority decisions concerning Federal employee unfair labor practices are not a specific program or operation of the Department of Commerce and thus do not relate to the employee's official duties. However, an employee of the FLRA could not give the same presentations for compensation.

Example 6 to paragraph (a)(2)(i):A program analyst employed at the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) may receive royalties and other compensation for a book about the history of the environmental movement in the United States even though it contains brief references to the creation and responsibilities of the EPA. A covered noncareer employee of the EPA, however, could not receive compensation for writing the same book because it deals with the general subject matter area affected by EPA programs and operations. Neither employee could receive compensation for writing a book that focuses on specific EPA regulations or otherwise on its programs and operations.

Example 7 to paragraph (a)(2)(i):An attorney in private practice has been given a one-year appointment as a special Government employee to serve on an advisory committee convened for the purpose of surveying and recommending modification of procurement regulations that deter small businesses from competing for Government contracts. Because service under this appointment is not expected to exceed 60 days, the attorney may accept compensation for an article about the anticompetitive effects of certain regulatory certification requirements even though those regulations are being reviewed by the advisory committee. The regulations which are the focus of the advisory committee deliberations are not a particular matter involving specific parties. Because the information is nonpublic, the attorney could not, however, accept compensation for an article which recounts advisory committee deliberations that took place in a meeting closed to the public in order to discuss proprietary information provided by a small business.

Example 8 to paragraph (a)(2)(i): A biologist who is an expert in marine life is employed for more than 60 days in a year as a special Government employee by the National Science Foundation (NSF) to assist in developing a program of grants by the NSF for the study of coral reefs. The biologist may continue to receive compensation for speaking, teaching, and writing about marine life generally and coral reefs specifically. However, during the term of the appointment as a special Government employee, the biologist may not receive compensation for an article about the NSF program being developed. Only the latter would concern a matter to which the special Government employee is assigned.

Example 9 to paragraph (a)(2)(i):An expert on international banking transactions has been given a one-year appointment as a special Government employee to assist in analyzing evidence in the Government's fraud prosecution of owners of a failed savings and loan association. It is anticipated that the expert will serve fewer than 60 days under that appointment. Nevertheless, during this appointment, the expert may not accept compensation for an article about the fraud prosecution, even though the article does not reveal nonpublic information. The prosecution is a particular matter that involves specific parties.

(ii) Agency has the meaning set forth in § 2635.102(a), except that any component of a department designated as a separate agency under § 2635.203(a) will be considered a separate agency.

(iii) Compensation, for purposes of this paragraph (a):

(A) Includes any form of consideration, remuneration, or income, including royalties, given for or in connection with the employee's teaching, speaking, or writing.

(B) Compensation does not include:

(1) Items offered by any source that could be accepted from a prohibited source under subpart B of this part;

(2) Meals or other incidents of attendance such as waiver of attendance fees or course materials furnished as part of the event at which the teaching or speaking takes place;

(3) Copies of books or of publications containing articles, reprints of articles, tapes of speeches, and similar items that provide a record of the teaching, speaking, or writing activity; or

(4) Travel expenses for certain individuals as described in paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(C) of this section.

(C) For employees other than covered noncareer employees as defined in § 2636.303(a) of this chapter, compensation does not include travel expenses, consisting of transportation, lodging or meals, incurred in connection with the teaching, speaking, or writing activity. For covered noncareer employees as defined in § 2636.303(a) of this chapter, compensation does include transportation, lodging, and meals, whether provided in kind, by purchase of a ticket, by payment in advance, or by reimbursement after the expense has been incurred, unless such travel expenses are accepted under specific statutory authority, such as 31 U.S.C. 1353, 5 U.S.C. 4111, or 5 U.S.C. 7342, or an agency gift acceptance statute.

Note 2 to paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(C):

Independent of paragraph (a) of this section, other authorities, including but not limited to 18 U.S.C. 209, in some circumstances may limit or entirely preclude an employee's acceptance of travel expenses. In addition, employees who file financial disclosure reports should be aware that, subject to applicable thresholds and exclusions, travel and travel reimbursements accepted from sources other than the United States Government must be reported on their financial disclosure reports.

Example 1 to paragraph (a)(2)(iii):A GS-15 employee of the Forest Service has developed and marketed, in a private capacity, a speed-reading technique for which popular demand is growing. The employee is invited to speak about the technique by a representative of an organization that will be substantially affected by a regulation on land management which the employee is in the process of drafting for the Forest Service. The representative offers to pay the employee a $200 speaker's fee and to reimburse all travel expenses. The employee may accept the travel reimbursements, but not the speaker's fee. The speaking activity is related to official duties under paragraph (a)(2)(i)(C) of this section and the fee is prohibited compensation for such speech; travel expenses incurred in connection with the speaking engagement, on the other hand, are not prohibited compensation for a GS-15 employee.

Example 2 to paragraph (a)(2)(iii):Solely because of their recent appointment to a Cabinet-level position, a Government official is invited by the Chief Executive Officer of a major international corporation to attend, in their personal capacity, firm meetings to be held in Aspen for the purpose of addressing senior corporate managers on the importance of recreational activities to a balanced lifestyle. The firm offers to reimburse the official's travel expenses. The official may not accept the offer. The speaking activity is related to official duties under paragraph (a)(2)(i)(B) of this section and, because the official is a covered noncareer employee as defined in § 2636.303(a) of this chapter, the travel expenses are prohibited compensation.

Example 3 to paragraph (a)(2)(iii):A GS-14 attorney at the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) who played a lead role in a recently concluded merger case is invited to speak about the case, in a private capacity, at a conference in New York. The attorney has no public speaking responsibilities on behalf of the FTC apart from the judicial and administrative proceedings to which they are assigned. The sponsors of the conference offer to reimburse the attorney for expenses incurred in connection with the travel to New York. They also offer the attorney, as compensation for time and effort, a free trip to San Francisco. The attorney may accept the travel expenses to New York, but not the expenses to San Francisco. The lecture relates to official duties under paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(E)(1) and (2) of this section, but because the attorney is not a covered noncareer employee as defined in § 2636.303(a) of this chapter, the expenses associated with the travel to New York are not a prohibited form of compensation. The travel expenses to San Francisco, on the other hand, not incurred in connection with the speaking activity, are a prohibited form of compensation. If the attorney were a covered noncareer employee, the travel expenses to New York as well as the travel expenses to San Francisco would be barred.

Example 4 to paragraph (a)(2)(iii):An advocacy group dedicated to improving treatments for severe pain asks the National Institutes of Health (NIH) to provide a conference speaker who can discuss recent advances in the agency's research on pain. The group also offers to pay the employee's travel expenses to attend the conference. After performing the required conflict of interest analysis, NIH authorizes acceptance of the travel expenses under 31 U.S.C. 1353 and the implementing General Services Administration regulation, as codified under 41 CFR chapter 304, and authorizes an employee to undertake the travel. At the conference the advocacy group, as agreed, pays the employee's hotel bill, and provides several of the employee's meals. Subsequently the group reimburses the agency for the cost of the employee's airfare and some additional meals. All of the payments by the advocacy group are permissible. Because the employee is speaking officially and the expense payments are accepted under 31 U.S.C. 1353, they are not prohibited compensation under paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section. The same result would obtain with respect to expense payments made by non-Government sources properly authorized under an agency gift acceptance statute, the Government Employees Training Act, 5 U.S.C. 4111, or the Foreign Gifts and Decorations Act, 5 U.S.C. 7342.

(iv) Receive means that there is actual or constructive receipt of the compensation by the employee so that the employee has the right to exercise dominion and control over the compensation and to direct its subsequent use. Receipt of compensation is attributable to the time that the teaching, speaking, or writing occurs when there is actual or constructive receipt of the compensation by the employee. If the employee has an enforceable agreement to receive compensation for writing undertaken during Government service, then compensation is received while the individual is an employee even though actual payment may be deferred until after Government service. Compensation received by an employee includes compensation which is:

(A) Paid to another person, including a charitable organization, on the basis of designation, recommendation, or other specification by the employee; or

(B) Paid with the employee's knowledge and acquiescence to the employee's parent, sibling, spouse, child, or dependent relative.

(v) Particular matter involving specific parties has the meaning set forth in § 2640.102(l) of this chapter.

(vi) Personal and substantial participation has the meaning set forth in § 2635.402(b)(4).

(3) Exception for teaching certain courses. Notwithstanding that the activity would relate to their official duties under paragraph (a)(2)(i)(B) or (E) of this section, employees may accept compensation for teaching a course requiring multiple presentations by the employee if the course is offered as part of:

(i) The regularly established curriculum of:

(A) An institution of higher education as defined at 20 U.S.C. 1001 or from a similar foreign institution of higher education;

Note 3 to paragraph (a)(3)(i)(A):

When the course is offered as part of the regularly established curriculum of a foreign institution of higher education, the agency may need to make a separate determination as to whether the institution of higher education is a foreign government for purposes of the Emoluments Clause of the U.S. Constitution (U.S. Const., art. I, sec. 9, cl. 8), which forbids employees from accepting emoluments, presents, offices, or titles from foreign governments, without the consent of Congress.

(B) An elementary school as defined at 20 U.S.C. 7801(19); or

(C) A secondary school as defined at 20 U.S.C. 7801(45); or

(ii) A program of education or training sponsored and funded by the Federal Government or by a State or local government which is not offered by an entity described in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section.

Example 1 to paragraph (a)(3):An employee of the Cost Accounting Standards Board who teaches an advanced accounting course as part of the regular business school curriculum of an accredited university may receive compensation for teaching the course even though a substantial portion of the course deals with cost accounting principles applicable to contracts with the Government.

Example 2 to paragraph (a)(3):An attorney employed by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) may accept compensation for teaching a course at a state college on the subject of EEOC enforcement of Federal employment discrimination law. The attorney could not accept compensation for teaching the same seminar as part of a continuing education program sponsored by a bar association because the subject of the course is focused on the operations or programs of the EEOC, and the sponsor of the course is not an accredited educational institution.

Example 3 to paragraph (a)(3):An employee of the National Endowment for the Humanities (NEH) is invited by a private university to teach a course that is a survey of Government policies in support of artists, poets, and writers. As part of official duty activities, the employee administers a grant that the university has received from the NEH. The employee may not accept compensation for teaching the course because the university has interests that may be substantially affected by the performance or nonperformance of the employee's duties. Likewise, an employee may not receive compensation for any teaching that is undertaken as part of official duties or that involves the use of nonpublic information.

(b) Reference to official position. Employees who are engaged in teaching, speaking, or writing as outside employment or as an outside activity may not use or permit the use of their official title or position to identify themselves in connection with a teaching, speaking, or writing activity, or to promote any book, seminar, course, program, or similar undertaking, except that:

(1) Employees may include or permit the inclusion of their title or position as one of several biographical details when such information is given to identify them in connection with their teaching, speaking, or writing, provided that their title or position is given no more prominence than other significant biographical details;

(2) Employees may use or permit the use of their title or position in connection with an article published in a scientific or professional journal, provided that the title or position is accompanied by a reasonably prominent disclaimer satisfactory to the agency stating that the views expressed in the article do not necessarily represent the views of the agency or the United States; and

(3) Employees who are ordinarily addressed using a general term of address, such as “The Honorable” or “Judge,” or a rank, such as a military or ambassadorial rank, may use or permit the use of that term of address or rank in connection with their teaching, speaking, or writing.

Note 4 to paragraph (b):

Reference to official title and position other than in a teaching, speaking, or writing capacity may be made only as permitted by § 2635.702(b). In addition, some agencies may have policies requiring advance agency review, clearance, or approval of certain speeches, books, articles, or similar products to determine whether the product contains an appropriate disclaimer, discloses nonpublic information, or otherwise complies with this section.

Example 1 to paragraph (b):A meteorologist employed with the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) is asked by a local university to teach a graduate course on hurricanes. The university may include the meteorologist's Government title and position together with other information about the meteorologist's education and previous employment in course materials setting forth biographical data on all teachers involved in the graduate program. However, the meteorologist's title or position may not be used to promote the course, for example, by featuring the meteorologist's Government title, Senior Meteorologist, NOAA, in bold type under their name. In contrast, the meteorologist's title may be used in this manner when NOAA authorized speaking in an official capacity.

Example 2 to paragraph (b):A doctor just employed by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC) has written a paper based on earlier independent research into cell structures. Incident to the paper's publication in the Journal of the American Medical Association, the doctor may be given credit for the paper, as Dr. M. Wellbeing, Associate Director, Centers for Disease Control, provided that the article also contains a disclaimer, concurred in by the CDC, indicating that the paper is the result of the doctor's independent research and does not represent the findings of the CDC.

Example 3 to paragraph (b):An employee of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) has been asked to give a speech in a private capacity, without compensation, to the annual meeting of a committee of the American Bankers Association on the need for banking reform. The employee may be described in an introduction at the meeting as an employee of the FDIC provided that other pertinent biographical details are mentioned as well.

§ 2635.808 Fundraising activities.

Employees may engage in fundraising only in accordance with the restrictions in part 950 of this title on the conduct of charitable fundraising in the Federal workplace and in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. This section addresses fundraising as defined in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, and does not cover all scenarios in which an employee might seek to collect donations from a fellow employee. For example, employees of an office might decide to collect money for a coworker whose family was displaced by a flood; the permissibility of such collections should be analyzed under subpart C of this part, not this section.

(a) Definitions. For purposes of this section:

(1) Fundraising means the raising of funds for a nonprofit organization, other than a political organization as defined in 26 U.S.C. 527(e), through:

(i) Solicitation of funds or sale of items; or

(ii) Participation in the conduct of an event by an employee when any portion of the cost of attendance or participation may be taken as a charitable tax deduction by a person incurring that cost.

(2) Participation in the conduct of an event means active and visible participation in the promotion, production, or presentation of the event and includes serving as honorary chairperson, sitting at a head table during the event, and standing in a reception line. The term does not include mere attendance at an event provided that, to the employee's knowledge, the employee's attendance is not used by the nonprofit organization to promote the event. While the term generally includes any public speaking during the event, it does not include the delivery of an official speech as defined in paragraph (a)(3) of this section or any seating or other participation appropriate to the delivery of such a speech. Waiver of a fee for attendance at an event by a participant in the conduct of that event does not constitute a gift for purposes of subpart B of this part.

Example 1 to paragraph (a)(2): The Secretary of Transportation has been asked to serve as master of ceremonies for an All-Star Gala. Tickets to the event cost $150 and are tax deductible as a charitable donation, with proceeds to be donated to a local hospital. By serving as master of ceremonies, the Secretary would be participating in fundraising.

(3) Official speech means a speech given by an employee in an official capacity on a subject matter that relates to the employee's official duties, provided that the employee's agency has determined that the event at which the speech is to be given provides an appropriate forum for the dissemination of the information to be presented and provided that the employee does not request donations or other support for the nonprofit organization. Subject matter relates to an employee's official duties if it focuses specifically on the employee's official duties, on the responsibilities, programs, or operations of the employee's agency as described in § 2635.807(a)(2)(i)(E), or on matters of Administration policy on which the employee has been authorized to speak.

Example 1 to paragraph (a)(3): The Secretary of Labor is invited to speak at a banquet honoring a distinguished labor leader, the proceeds of which will benefit a nonprofit organization that assists homeless families. The Secretary devotes a major portion of the speech to the Administration's Points of Light initiative, an effort to encourage citizens to volunteer their time to help solve serious social problems. Because the Secretary is authorized to speak on Administration policy, these remarks at the banquet are an official speech. However, the Secretary would be engaged in fundraising if the official speech concluded with a request for donations to the nonprofit organization.

Example 2 to paragraph (a)(3): A charitable organization is sponsoring a two-day tennis tournament at a country club in the Washington, DC, area to raise funds for recreational programs for children with learning disabilities. The organization has invited the Secretary of Education to give a speech on federally funded special education programs at the awards dinner to be held at the conclusion of the tournament, and the agency has determined that the dinner is an appropriate forum for the particular speech. The Secretary may speak at the dinner and, under § 2635.203(b)(8), may partake of the meal provided at the dinner.

(4) Personally solicit means to request or otherwise encourage donations or other support either through person-to-person contact or through the use of one's name or identity in correspondence or by permitting its use by others. It does not include the solicitation of funds through the media or through either oral remarks, or the contemporaneous dispatch of like items of mass-produced correspondence, if such remarks or correspondence are addressed to a group consisting of many persons, unless it is known to the employee that the solicitation is targeted at subordinates or at persons who are prohibited sources within the meaning of § 2635.203(d). It does not include behind-the-scenes assistance in the solicitation of funds, such as drafting correspondence, stuffing envelopes, or accounting for contributions.

Example 1 to paragraph (a)(4): An employee of the Department of Energy (DOE) who signs a letter soliciting funds for a local private school does not “personally solicit” funds when 500 copies of the letter, which makes no mention of the employee's DOE position and title, are mailed to members of the local community, even though some individuals who are employed by DOE contractors may receive the letter.

(b) Fundraising in an official capacity. Employees may participate in fundraising in an official capacity if, in accordance with a statute, Executive order, regulation, or otherwise as determined by the agency, they are authorized to engage in the fundraising activity as part of their official duties. When authorized to participate in an official capacity, employees may use their official title, position, and authority.

Example 1 to paragraph (b): Because participation in an official capacity is authorized under part 950 of this title, the Secretary of the Army may sign a memorandum to all Army personnel encouraging them to donate to the Combined Federal Campaign.

(c) Fundraising in a personal capacity. An employee may engage in fundraising in a personal capacity provided that the employee does not:

(1) Personally solicit funds or other support from a subordinate or from any person:

(i) Known to the employee, if the employee is other than a special Government employee, to be a prohibited source within the meaning of § 2635.203(d), unless the circumstances make clear that the solicitation is motivated by a family relationship or personal friendship that would justify the solicitation; or

(ii) Known to the employee, if the employee is a special Government employee, to be a prohibited source within the meaning of § 2635.203(d)(4) that is a person whose interests may be substantially affected by performance or nonperformance of the employee's official duties, unless the circumstances make clear that the solicitation is motivated by a family relationship or personal friendship that would justify the solicitation;

(2) Use or permit the use of the employee's official title, position, or any authority associated with the employee's public office to further the fundraising effort, except that an employee who is ordinarily addressed using a general term of address, such “The Honorable,” or a rank, such as a military or ambassadorial rank, may use or permit the use of that term of address or rank for such purposes; or

(3) Engage in any action that would otherwise violate this part.

Note 1 to paragraph (c):

This section does not prohibit fundraising for a political party, candidate for partisan political office, or partisan political group. However, there are statutory restrictions that apply to political fundraising. For example, under the Hatch Act Reform Amendments of 1993, at 5 U.S.C. 7323(a), employees may not knowingly solicit, accept, or receive a political contribution from any person, except under limited circumstances. In addition, employees are prohibited by 18 U.S.C. 607 from soliciting or receiving political contributions in Federal offices, and, except as permitted by the Hatch Act Reform Amendments, are prohibited by 18 U.S.C. 602 from knowingly soliciting political contributions from other employees.

Example 1 to paragraph (c): A nonprofit organization is sponsoring a golf tournament to raise funds for underprivileged children. The Secretary of the Navy may not enter the tournament with the understanding that the organization intends to attract participants by offering other entrants the opportunity, in exchange for a donation in the form of an entry fee, to spend the day playing 18 holes of golf in a foursome with the Secretary of the Navy.

Example 2 to paragraph (c): An employee of the Merit Systems Protection Board may not use the agency's photocopier to reproduce fundraising literature for their child's private school. Such use of the photocopier would violate the standards at § 2635.704 regarding use of Government property.

Example 3 to paragraph (c): An Assistant Attorney General may not sign a letter soliciting funds for a homeless shelter as “P.J. Doe, Assistant Attorney General.” The Assistant Attorney General also may not sign a letter with just a “P.J. Doe” signature soliciting funds from a prohibited source, unless the letter is one of many identical, mass-produced letters addressed to a large group when the solicitation is not known to the Assistant Attorney General to be targeted at persons who are either prohibited sources or subordinates.

Example 4 to paragraph (c): An employee of the Department of Commerce is running a half marathon to raise money for a nonprofit organization engaged in cancer research, and is looking for people to sponsor the race. The employee plans to target specific individuals they think will want to contribute, including a close friend with whom they regularly meet for dinner. Notwithstanding the fact that the friend is employed by a corporation that is a prohibited source, the employee may ask the friend to sponsor the race because the solicitation is motivated by a personal friendship that would justify the solicitation.

Example 5 to paragraph (c): The employee in example 4 to this paragraph (c) knows that a subordinate employee has expressed an interest in this cause and sends the subordinate a direct link to the online sponsorship page. The employee has “personally solicited” a subordinate in violation of paragraph (c)(1) of this section.

Example 6 to paragraph (c): The employee in example 4 to this paragraph (c) decides that rather than targeting specific individuals for contributions, it would be preferable to post a general request and a link to information about the race on their personal social media account. Because this request may be viewed by any person with whom the employee is connected through the social media network and does not reference or target any specific individual, it is not considered a personal solicitation of any subordinate or prohibited source that is connected to the employee.

§ 2635.809 Just financial obligations.

Employees must satisfy in good faith their obligations as citizens, including all just financial obligations, especially those such as Federal, State, or local taxes that are imposed by law. For purposes of this section, a just financial obligation includes any financial obligation acknowledged by the employee or reduced to judgment by a court. In good faith means an honest intention to fulfill any just financial obligation in a timely manner. In the event of a dispute between an employee and an alleged creditor, this section does not require an agency to determine the validity or amount of the disputed debt or to collect a debt on the alleged creditor's behalf.

Subpart I Related Statutory Authorities

Source: 89 FR 43695, May 17, 2024, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2635.901 General.

In addition to the Standards of Ethical Conduct set forth in subparts A through H of this part, there are a number of statutes that establish standards to which an employee's conduct must conform. The list set forth in § 2635.902 references some of the more significant of those statutes. It is not comprehensive and includes only references to statutes of general applicability. While it includes references to several of the basic conflict of interest statutes whose standards are explained in more detail throughout this part, it does not include references to statutes of more limited applicability, such as statutes that apply only to officers and employees of the Department of Defense.

§ 2635.902 Related statutes.

(a) The prohibition against solicitation or receipt of bribes (18 U.S.C. 201(b)).

(b) The prohibition against solicitation or receipt of illegal gratuities (18 U.S.C. 201(c)).

(c) The prohibition against seeking or receiving compensation for certain representational services before the Government (18 U.S.C. 203).

(d) The prohibition against assisting in the prosecution of claims against the Government or acting as agent or attorney before the Government (18 U.S.C. 205).

(e) The post-employment restrictions applicable to former employees (18 U.S.C. 207 and the regulation at part 2641 of this chapter).

(f) The prohibition on certain former agency officials' acceptance of compensation from a contractor (41 U.S.C. 2104).

(g) The prohibition against participating in matters affecting an employee's own financial interests or the financial interests of other specified persons or organizations (18 U.S.C. 208 and the regulation at part 2640 of this chapter).

(h) The actions required of certain agency officials when they contact, or are contacted by, offerors or bidders regarding non-Federal employment (41 U.S.C. 2103).

(i) The prohibition against receiving salary or any contribution to or supplementation of salary as compensation for Government service from a source other than the United States (18 U.S.C. 209).

(j) The prohibition against gifts to superiors (5 U.S.C. 7351).

(k) The prohibition against solicitation or receipt of gifts from specified prohibited sources (5 U.S.C. 7353).

(l) The prohibition against fraudulent access and related activity in connection with computers (18 U.S.C. 1030).

(m) The provisions governing receipt and disposition of foreign gifts and decorations (5 U.S.C. 7342).

(n) [Reserved]

(o) The prohibitions against certain political activities (5 U.S.C. 7321 through 7326 and 18 U.S.C. 602, 603, 606, and 607).

(p) The prohibitions against disloyalty and striking (5 U.S.C. 7311 and 18 U.S.C. 1918).

(q) The general prohibition (18 U.S.C. 219) against acting as the agent of a foreign principal required to register under the Foreign Agents Registration Act (22 U.S.C. 611 through 621).

(r) The prohibition against employment of a person convicted of participating in or promoting a riot or civil disorder (5 U.S.C. 7313).

(s) The prohibition against employment of an individual who habitually uses intoxicating beverages to excess (5 U.S.C. 7352).

(t) The prohibition against misuse of a Government vehicle (31 U.S.C. 1344).

(u) The prohibition against misuse of the franking privilege (18 U.S.C. 1719).

(v) The prohibition against fraud or false statements in a Government matter (18 U.S.C. 1001).

(w) The prohibition against concealing, mutilating, or destroying a public record (18 U.S.C. 2071).

(x) The prohibition against counterfeiting or forging transportation requests (18 U.S.C. 508).

(y) The restrictions on disclosure of certain sensitive Government information under the Freedom of Information Act and the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552 and 552a).

(z) The prohibitions against disclosure of classified information (18 U.S.C. 798 and 50 U.S.C. 783(a)).

(aa) The prohibition against disclosure of proprietary information and certain other information of a confidential nature (18 U.S.C. 1905).

(bb) The prohibitions on disclosing and obtaining certain procurement information (41 U.S.C. 2102).

(cc) The prohibition against unauthorized use of documents relating to claims from or by the Government (18 U.S.C. 285).

(dd) The prohibition against certain personnel practices (5 U.S.C. 2302).

(ee) The prohibition against interference with civil service examinations (18 U.S.C. 1917).

(ff) The restrictions on use of public funds for lobbying (18 U.S.C. 1913).

(gg) The prohibition against participation in the appointment or promotion of relatives (5 U.S.C. 3110).

(hh) The prohibition against solicitation or acceptance of anything of value to obtain public office for another (18 U.S.C. 211).

(ii) The prohibition against conspiracy to commit an offense against or to defraud the United States (18 U.S.C. 371).

(jj) The prohibition against embezzlement or conversion of Government money or property (18 U.S.C. 641).

(kk) The prohibition against failing to account for public money (18 U.S.C. 643).

(ll) The prohibition against embezzlement of the money or property of another person that is in the possession of an employee by reason of their employment (18 U.S.C. 654).

Subpart J Legal Expense Funds

Source: 88 FR 33809, May 25, 2023, unless otherwise noted.

§ 2635.1001 Overview.

This subpart contains standards for an employee's acceptance of payments for legal expenses through a legal expense fund and an employee's acceptance of pro bono legal services. Legal expenses covered by this subpart are those for a matter arising in connection with the employee's past or current official position, the employee's prior position on a campaign of a candidate for President or Vice President, or the employee's prior position on a Presidential Transition Team.

§ 2635.1002 Applicability and related considerations.

(a) Applicability. This subpart applies to an employee who seeks to accept payments for legal expenses from a legal expense fund or the provision of pro bono legal services. The legal expenses or the provision of pro bono legal services must be for a matter arising in connection with the employee's past or current official position, the employee's prior position on a campaign of a candidate for President or Vice President, or the employee's prior position on a Presidential Transition Team.

(b) Not covered by this subpart. The following types of payments for legal expenses or pro bono legal services are not covered by this subpart:

(1) Personal matters. Payments for legal expenses or the provision of pro bono legal services related to matters that do not arise in connection with the employee's past or current official position, the employee's prior position on a campaign of a candidate for President or Vice President, or the employee's prior position on a Presidential Transition Team, such as a matter that is primarily personal in nature, are not covered by this subpart. Personal matters include, but are not limited to, tax planning, personal injury litigation, protection of property rights, family law matters, and estate planning or probate matters.

Example 1 to paragraph (b)(1): A Department of Homeland Security employee wants to set up a legal expense fund in connection with the employee's divorce and custody proceeding. This is a personal matter and the employee may not establish a legal expense fund under this subpart, but may use other gift exceptions and exclusions in accordance with subparts B and C of this part as appropriate.

(2) Gifts acceptable according to a gift exclusion or exception. Payments for legal expenses or the provision of pro bono legal services that otherwise qualify for a gift exclusion or exception other than § 2635.204(n) are not covered by this subpart.

Example 1 to paragraph (b)(2): A Central Intelligence Agency employee is facing administrative disciplinary action due to an issue with the employee's security clearance and would like to seek financial assistance to pay for an attorney. Even though this matter arose in connection with their official position, if the employee's parents offer to cover the legal expenses, that donation is not subject to this subpart, as it would be subject to the gift exception at § 2635.204(b).

Note 1 to paragraph (b): Acceptance of legal expense payments or pro bono legal services not covered by this subpart must be analyzed under subparts B and C of this part.

(c) Related considerations—(1) Gifts between employees. Acceptance of legal expense payments or the provision of pro bono legal services from another employee must be analyzed under 18 U.S.C. 205 and subpart C of this part.

(2) Impartiality. (i) An employee beneficiary may not knowingly participate in a particular matter involving specific parties, consistent with the periods of disqualification detailed in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, if any person described below is a party or represents a party:

(A) The trustee;

(B) An individual, entity, or organization donating pro bono legal services pursuant to § 2635.1009 (pro bono legal services provider); or

(C) An individual or entity that made a donation of $250 or more in a calendar year to the legal expense fund.

(ii) The employee beneficiary's period of disqualification from particular matters involving specific parties involving the trustee runs from the assumption of the trustee position until two years after the trustee's resignation, if the trustee resigns, or two years after the termination of the trust. The employee's period of disqualification from particular matters involving specific parties involving each pro bono legal services provider runs from the commencement of pro bono legal services until two years after the last date pro bono services were provided. The period of disqualification for each donor begins to run on the date the most recent legal expense fund donation is received from that donor until two years after the donation.

Example 1 to paragraph (c)(2): A donor contributed to a Social Security Administration (SSA) employee's legal expense fund. Three months after this contribution was made, the donor submitted a disability claim. The employee may not participate in evaluating the disability claim because the claim falls within the two-year mandatory recusal period.

(3) Misuse of position. Legal expense fund payments must be solicited and accepted consistent with the provisions in subpart G of this part relating to the use of public office for private gain, use of nonpublic information, use of Government property, and use of Government time. The mere reference to the employee's official position in a solicitation would generally not violate subpart G of this part.

Example 1 to paragraph (c)(3): A Transportation Security Administration (TSA) employee retains legal counsel due to an investigation into inappropriate behavior in their department, and the employee establishes a legal expense fund in accordance with this subpart. Neither the employee nor the legal expense fund's trustee may use the TSA agency seal in materials or otherwise imply the Government endorses the legal expense fund, or use nonpublic details of the investigation to solicit contributions to the legal expense fund. Agency seals frequently are protected by law or require licensing for use. Further, the employee may not task subordinates with any work relating to administration of the legal expense fund. However, the employee may note in a solicitation that they are an employee of TSA, and that the matter arose in the course of their official duties.

(4) Financial disclosure. In addition to the legal expense fund reporting requirements outlined in § 2635.1007, an employee beneficiary who is a public or confidential filer, other than a confidential filer who is an anonymous whistleblower, under part 2634 of this chapter must report gifts of legal expense payments accepted from sources other than the United States Government, including gifts of pro bono services, on the employee's financial disclosure report, subject to applicable thresholds and exclusions.

§ 2635.1003 Definitions.

For purposes of this subpart:

Anonymous whistleblower means an employee who makes or intends to make a disclosure or report, or who engages in an activity protected under 5 U.S.C. 2302(b)(8), 5 U.S.C. 2302(b)(9), 5 U.S.C. 416, 50 U.S.C. 3517, 50 U.S.C. 3033, or 28 CFR 27.1, and who seeks to remain anonymous.

Arising in connection with the employee's past or current official position means the employee's involvement in the legal matter would not have arisen had the employee not held the status, authority, or duties associated with the employee's past or current Federal position.

Example 1 to the definition of “arising in connection with the employee's past or current official position”: A Department of Transportation employee is being investigated by the Inspector General for potential misuse of Government resources while on official travel. The Internal Revenue Service (IRS) is separately investigating the employee for misreporting household income on the employee's personal taxes. The employee may use this subpart to establish a legal expense fund concerning the Inspector General investigation because the legal matter arose in connection with their official position. However, this subpart would not apply to the unrelated IRS investigation because that legal matter did not arise in connection with the employee's official position.

Example 2 to the definition of “arising in connection with the employee's past or current official position”: A junior employee at the Environmental Protection Agency is challenging their proposed termination due to misuse of Government property. All of the employee's alleged misconduct occurred outside official duty hours. Because the employee would not be subject to the Standards of Conduct had the employee not held their official position, the employee may establish a legal expense fund in accordance with this subpart.

Arising in connection with the employee's prior position on a campaign means the employee's involvement in the legal matter would not have arisen had the employee not held the status, authority, or duties associated with the employee's prior position on a campaign of a candidate for President or Vice President.

Arising in connection with the employee's prior position on a Presidential Transition Team means the employee's involvement in the legal matter would not have arisen had the employee not held the status, authority, or duties associated with the employee's prior position as a member of the staff of a Presidential Transition Team.

Employee beneficiary means an employee as defined by § 2635.102(h) for whose benefit a legal expense fund is established under this subpart.

Legal expense fund means a fund established to receive contributions and to make distributions of legal expense payments.

Legal expense payment or payment for legal expenses means anything of value received by an employee under circumstances that make it clear that the payment is intended to defray costs associated with representation in a legal, congressional, or administrative proceeding.

Pro bono legal services means legal services provided without charge or for less than market value as defined in § 2635.203(c) to an employee who seeks legal representation for a matter arising in connection with the employee's past or current official position, the employee's prior position on a campaign of a candidate for President or Vice President, or the employee's prior position on a Presidential Transition Team.

§ 2635.1004 Establishment.

(a) Structure. A legal expense fund must be established as a trust that conforms to the requirements of this part and applicable state law. To the extent the requirements of this part and applicable state law are incompatible, the Director of the Office of Government Ethics may permit such deviations from this part as necessary to ensure compatibility with applicable state law.

(b) Grantor. The legal expense fund must be established by the employee beneficiary.

(c) Trustee. A legal expense fund must be administered by a trustee who is not:

(1) The employee beneficiary;

(2) A spouse, parent, or child of the employee beneficiary;

(3) Any other employee of the Federal executive, legislative, or judicial branches;

(4) An agent of a foreign government as defined in 5 U.S.C. 7342(a)(2);

(5) A foreign national;

(6) A lobbyist as defined by 2 U.S.C. 1602(10) who is currently registered pursuant to 2 U.S.C. 1603(a); or

(7) A person who has interests that may be substantially affected by the performance or nonperformance of the employee beneficiary's official duties.

(d) Employee beneficiary. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, a legal expense fund must be established for the benefit of a single, named employee beneficiary.

(2) A legal expense fund for the benefit of an anonymous whistleblower may be established without disclosing the identity of the anonymous whistleblower to anyone other than the trustee so long as the legal expense fund is created for the purpose of funding expenses in connection with the whistleblowing activity or the facts that underlie that activity.

(e) Filing and approval of legal expense fund trust document required. An employee beneficiary may not solicit or accept contributions or make distributions through a legal expense fund before:

(1) Filing the legal expense fund document in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section; and

(2) Receiving approval for the legal expense fund in accordance with paragraph (g)(1) or (g)(3) of this section.

(f) Filing of legal expense fund trust document. (1) The employee beneficiary, or the trustee or representative of the employee beneficiary, must file the legal expense fund trust document with the designated agency ethics official at the agency where the employee beneficiary is employed.

(2) An employee beneficiary who is an anonymous whistleblower may choose to file a legal expense fund trust document anonymously through the employee beneficiary's trustee or representative with the Office of Government Ethics only. The Office of Government Ethics will not receive reports containing classified material; if needed, an OGE employee with a security clearance will review any classified documents in a secure agency space, consistent with the current practice for other ethics documents containing classified material.

(g) Approval of legal expense fund trust document. (1) Designated agency ethics official approval. The designated agency ethics official must determine, based on the submitted trust document and information regarding the trustee, whether to approve a legal expense fund trust document filed by an employee beneficiary, other than an anonymous whistleblower choosing to file with the Office of Government Ethics, within 30 calendar days of filing.

(i) Standard for approval. The designated agency ethics official must approve a legal expense fund that is, based on the submitted trust document and information regarding the trustee, in compliance with this subpart.

(ii) Transmission of trust documents to the Office of Government Ethics. Following approval, the signed legal expense fund trust document must be forwarded to the Office of Government Ethics within seven calendar days.

(iii) Exception for anonymous whistleblowers. The Office of Government Ethics will serve as the approving authority for anonymous whistleblowers who choose to file a legal expense fund trust document anonymously with the Office of Government Ethics only.

(2) Office of Government Ethics review. Following approval by the designated agency ethics official, the Office of Government Ethics will conduct a secondary review of the legal expense fund trust documents of the employee beneficiaries listed in paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section within 30 calendar days of receipt.

(i) Standard for review. The Office of Government Ethics will review the legal expense fund trust document to determine whether it conforms to the requirements established by this subpart. If defects are ascertained, the Office of Government Ethics will bring them to the attention of the approving agency and the employee beneficiary or the employee beneficiary's trustee or representative, who will have 30 calendar days to take necessary corrective action.

(ii) Employee beneficiaries requiring secondary Office of Government Ethics review. The Office of Government Ethics will review the legal expense fund trust documents of the following employee beneficiaries:

(A) The Postmaster General;

(B) The Deputy Postmaster General;

(C) The Governors of the Board of Governors of the United States Postal Service;

(D) Employees of the White House Office and the Office of the Vice President; and

(E) Officers and employees in offices and positions which require confirmation by the Senate, other than members of the uniformed services and Foreign Service Officers below the rank of Ambassador.

(3) Review for designated agency ethics officials. When the employee beneficiary is a designated agency ethics official, the Office of Government Ethics will conduct the sole review and approval. The Office of Government Ethics will review the legal expense fund trust document to determine whether it conforms to the requirements established by this subpart.

(4) Right to Appeal. If the approval of a legal expense fund has been denied, or an employee's legal expense fund request has not been acted upon within 30 days, the requester may appeal by mail or email to the Director of the U.S. Office of Government Ethics. Requests sent by mail should be addressed to the address for the Office of Government Ethics that can be found at www.oge.gov. The envelope containing the request and the letter itself should both clearly indicate that the subject is a legal expense fund appeal. Email requests should be sent to LEF@oge.gov and should indicate in the subject line that the message contains a legal expense fund appeal. Appeals should be submitted within 60 days of denial by the designated agency ethics official or 90 days of submission to the designated agency ethics official, in the case of a request that has not been acted upon. In the case of legal expense funds for anonymous whistleblowers and designated agency ethics officials, OGE staff will conduct the initial review, and the Director will serve as the appeal authority.

(h) Amendments. The trust document may only be amended if the trustee and employee beneficiary file the amended legal expense fund trust document in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section and seek approval in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section.

(i) One legal expense fund. No employee beneficiary may establish or maintain more than one legal expense fund at any one time. An employee may not later establish a second legal expense fund for the same legal matter.

(j) Conforming existing legal expense funds. In order for an employee beneficiary who has an existing legal expense fund to receive legal expense payments from the existing legal expense fund, the employee beneficiary must comply with §§ 2635.1005(b), 2635.1006, and 2635.1007 by February 20, 2024.

(k) Public access. Approved legal expense fund trust documents will be made available by the Office of Government Ethics to the public on its website within 30 calendar days of receipt. The trust fund documents will be sortable by employee beneficiary's name, agency, and position, as well as type of document and document date. Legal expense fund trust documents filed by anonymous whistleblowers will not be made available to the public. Legal expense fund trust documents that are made available to the public will not include any information that would identify individuals whose names or identities are otherwise protected from public disclosure by law. Only sensitive personal information such as fee schedules, personal addresses, and account numbers will be redacted.

§ 2635.1005 Administration.

(a) Trustee's duties and powers. A trustee of a legal expense fund is responsible for:

(1) Operating the legal expense fund trust consistent with this part and applicable state law;

(2) Operating as a fiduciary for the employee beneficiary in relation to the legal expense fund property and the legal expense fund purpose;

(3) Providing information to the employee beneficiary as necessary to comply with the Ethics in Government Act, 5 U.S.C. 13104(a)(2), part 2634 of this chapter, and this part; and

(4) Notifying donors and payees whose contributions and distributions, respectively, are reportable that their names will be disclosed on the OGE website.

(b) Limitation on role of the employee beneficiary. An employee beneficiary may not exercise control over the legal expense fund property.

§ 2635.1006 Contributions and use of funds.

(a) Contributions. A legal expense fund may only accept contributions of payments for legal expenses from permissible donors listed in paragraph (b) of this section.

(b) Permissible donors. A permissible donor includes:

(1) An individual who is not:

(i) An agent of a foreign government as defined in 5 U.S.C. 7342(a)(2);

(ii) A foreign national;

(iii) A lobbyist as defined by 2 U.S.C. 1602(10) who is currently registered pursuant to 2 U.S.C. 1603(a);

(iv) Acting on behalf of, or at the direction of, another individual or entity in making a donation;

(v) Donating anonymously;

(vi) Seeking official action by the employee beneficiary's agency;

(vii) Doing business or seeking to do business with the employee beneficiary's agency;

(viii) Conducting activities regulated by the employee beneficiary's agency other than regulations or actions affecting the interests of a large and diverse group of persons;

Example 1 to paragraph (b)(1)(viii): A donor contributed to a Department of State employee's legal expense fund. The donor has recently applied to renew their United States Passport. Because the Department of State's passport renewal office affects the interests of a large and diverse group of people, the donation is permissible under paragraph (b)(1)(viii) of this section.

(ix) Substantially affected by the performance or nonperformance of the employee beneficiary's official duties; or

(x) An officer or director of an entity that is substantially affected by the performance or nonperformance of the employee beneficiary's official duties.

(2) A national committee of a political party as defined by 52 U.S.C. 30101(14) and (16) or, for former members of a campaign of a candidate for President or Vice President, the campaign, provided that the donation is not otherwise prohibited by law and the entity is not substantially affected by the performance or nonperformance of an employee beneficiary's official duties; or

(3) An organization, established for more than two years, that is:

(i) described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, and

(ii) not substantially affected by the performance or nonperformance of an employee beneficiary's official duties.

Note 1 to paragraph (b): Acceptance of a legal expense payment from another employee must be analyzed under subpart C of this part.

(c) Contribution limits. A legal expense fund may not accept more than $10,000 from any single permissible donor per calendar year.

Note 2 to paragraph (c): As discussed in § 2635.1002(b)(2), payments for legal expenses or the provision of pro bono legal services that otherwise qualify for a gift exclusion or exception other than § 2635.204(n) in subpart B of this part are not covered by this subpart.

(d) Use of funds. Legal expense fund payments must be used only for the following purposes:

(1) An employee beneficiary's expenses related to those legal proceedings arising in connection with the employee's past or current official position, the employee's prior position on a campaign of a candidate for President or Vice President, or the employee's prior position on a Presidential Transition Team;

(2) Expenses incurred in soliciting for and administering the fund; and

(3) Expenses for the discharge of Federal, state, and local tax liabilities that are incurred as a result of the creation, operation, or administration of the fund.

Example 1 to paragraph (d): An employee beneficiary's attorney determines it is necessary to employ an expert witness related to a legal proceeding arising in connection with the employee beneficiary's official position. Funds may be distributed from the legal expense fund to pay fees and expenses for the expert witness.

§ 2635.1007 Reporting requirements.

(a) Quarterly reports. An employee beneficiary must file quarterly reports that include the following information until the trust is terminated or an employment termination report is filed as set forth in paragraph (d) of this section.

(1) Contributions. For contributions of $250 or more during the quarterly reporting period, an employee beneficiary must report the donor's name, city and state of residence, employer, date(s) of contribution, and contribution amount. For the report due January 30, an employee beneficiary must also disclose contributions from a single donor of $250 or more for the prior calendar year unless the contributions have been disclosed on a prior quarterly report.

(2) Distributions. For distributions of $250 or more during the quarterly reporting period, an employee beneficiary must report the payee's name, date(s) of distribution, amount, and purpose of the distribution. For the report due January 30, an employee beneficiary must also disclose distributions to a single source of $250 or more for the prior calendar year unless the distributions have been disclosed on a prior quarterly report.

(b) Filing of reports. (1) The employee beneficiary must file all reports required in this section with the designated agency ethics official at the agency where the employee beneficiary is employed. The trustee or a representative of the employee beneficiary may file a report on behalf of the employee beneficiary.

(2) An employee beneficiary who is an anonymous whistleblower may choose to file reports anonymously through the employee beneficiary's trustee or representative with the Office of Government Ethics. The Office of Government Ethics will not receive reports containing classified material; if needed, an OGE employee with a security clearance will review any classified documents in a secure agency space, consistent with the current practice for other ethics documents containing classified material.

(c) Reporting periods and due dates. Quarterly reports must cover the following reporting periods and comply with the following due dates:

(1) January 1 to March 31, with the report due on April 30.

(2) April 1 to June 30, with the report due on July 30.

(3) July 1 to September 30, with the report due on October 30.

(4) October 1 to December 31, with the report due on January 30 of the following year.

(5) If the scheduled due date falls on a Saturday, Sunday or Federal Holiday, the report will instead be due the next business day.

(d) Employment termination report. If the employee beneficiary is leaving executive branch employment, the employee beneficiary must file an employment termination report no later than their last day of employment. No contributions may be accepted for or distributions paid by the legal expense fund between the date of the filing and the employee beneficiary's termination date. The report must include the following:

(1) A report of contributions received and distributions made as required by paragraph (a) of this section between the end of the last quarterly reporting period and the date of the report; and

(2) A statement as to whether the trust will be terminated or remain in force after the employee beneficiary terminates their executive branch employment.

(e) Extensions. For each quarterly report, a single extension of 30 calendar days may be granted by the employee beneficiary's designated agency ethics official, or the Director of the Office of Government Ethics if filing with the Office of Government Ethics, for good cause upon written request by the employee beneficiary or the trustee.

(f) Review of reports. (1) Designated agency ethics official review. The designated agency ethics official must review reports within 30 calendar days of filing.

(i) Standard for review. The designated agency ethics official will review the report to determine that:

(A) The information required under paragraph (a) of this section is reported for each contribution and distribution; and

(B) Contributions to and distributions from the trust are in compliance with § 2635.1006.

(ii) Transmission of reports to the Office of Government Ethics. Following review, all reports must be forwarded in unclassified format to the Office of Government Ethics within seven calendar days.

(iii) Office of Government Ethics review for anonymous whistleblowers. The Office of Government Ethics will serve as the reviewing authority for anonymous whistleblowers who choose to file reports anonymously with the Office of Government Ethics only.

(2) Office of Government Ethics review. Following review by the designated agency ethics official, the Office of Government Ethics will conduct a secondary review of the reports of the employee beneficiaries listed in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section within 30 calendar days of receipt.

(i) Standard for review. The Office of Government Ethics will review the report to determine whether it conforms to the requirements established by this subpart. If defects are ascertained, the Office of Government Ethics will bring them to the attention of the reviewing agency and the employee beneficiary or the employee beneficiary's trustee or representative, who will have 30 calendar days to take necessary corrective action.

(ii) Employee beneficiaries requiring secondary Office of Government Ethics review. The Office of Government Ethics will review the reports of the following employee beneficiaries:

(A) The Postmaster General;

(B) The Deputy Postmaster General;

(C) The Governors of the Board of Governors of the United States Postal Service;

(D) Employees of the White House Office and the Office of the Vice President; and

(E) Officers and employees in offices and positions which require confirmation by the Senate, other than members of the uniformed services and Foreign Service Officers below the rank of Ambassador.

(3) Review for designated agency ethics official. When the employee beneficiary is a designated agency ethics official, the Office of Government Ethics will conduct the sole review. OGE will review the report to determine that:

(i) The information required under paragraph (a) of this section is reported for each contribution and distribution; and

(ii) Contributions to and distributions from the trust are in compliance with § 2635.1006.

(g) Public access. Quarterly and employment termination reports will be made available by the Office of Government Ethics to the public on its website within 30 calendar days of receipt. The reports will be sortable by employee beneficiary's name, agency, and position, as well as type of document and document date. Quarterly and employment termination reports that are made available to the public by the Office of Government Ethics will not include any information that would identify individuals whose names or identities are otherwise protected from public disclosure by law. The reports filed by anonymous whistleblowers will not be made available to the public.

(h) Noncompliance. (1) Receipt of impermissible contributions. If the legal expense fund receives a contribution that is not permissible under § 2635.1006, the contribution must be returned to the donor as soon as practicable but no later than the next reporting due date as described in paragraph (c) of this section. If the donation cannot be returned to the donor due to the donor's death or the trustee's inability to locate the donor, then the contribution must be donated to a 501(c)(3) organization meeting the requirements in § 2635.1008(c).

(2) Late filing of required documents and reports. If a report or other required document is filed after the due date, the employee beneficiary forfeits the ability to accept contributions or make distributions through the trust until the report or other required document is filed.

Example 1 to paragraph (h)(2): A Department of Labor employee establishes a legal expense fund in accordance with this subpart. Because the employee filed the trust document on February 15, the first quarterly report is due on April 30. However, the employee did not submit the first quarterly report until May 15. The employee is prohibited from accepting contributions or making distributions through the trust from May 1 until May 15. Once the employee files the quarterly report, the employee may resume accepting contributions and making distributions.

(3) Continuing or other significant noncompliance. In addition to the remedies in paragraphs (h)(1) and (2) of this section, the Office of Government Ethics has the authority to determine that an employee beneficiary may not accept contributions and make distributions through the trust or terminate the trust if there is continuing or other significant noncompliance with this subpart.

§ 2635.1008 Termination of a legal expense fund.

(a) Voluntary termination. A legal expense fund may be voluntarily terminated only for the following reasons:

(1) The purpose of the trust is fulfilled or no longer exists; or

(2) At the direction of the employee beneficiary.

(b) Mandatory termination. An employee's legal expense fund must be terminated within 90 days of the resolution of the legal matter for which the legal expense fund was created or within 90 days of the last expenditure made in relation to the legal matter for which it was created, whichever is later.

(c) Excess funds. Within 90 calendar days of termination of the legal expense fund, the trustee must distribute any excess funds to an organization or organizations described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code. Funds from the legal expense fund may not be donated to an organization that was established by the trustee or the employee beneficiary, an organization in which the trustee or the employee beneficiary, their spouse, or their child is an officer, director, or employee, or an organization with which the employee has a covered relationship within the meaning of § 2635.502(b)(1). The trustee has sole discretion to select the 501(c)(3) organization. If practicable, the trustee may return the excess funds to the donors on a pro-rata basis rather than donating the funds to a 501(c)(3) organization.

(d) Trust termination report. After the trust is terminated, the employee beneficiary must file a trust termination report that contains the information required by § 2635.1007(d)(1) for the period of the last quarter report through the trust termination date. The report also must indicate the organization to which the excess funds were donated or if the excess funds were returned to donors. The report is due 30 calendar days following the termination date of the trust. Trust termination reports should be filed in accordance with the procedures outlined in § 2635.1007(b).

(e) Exception for anonymous whistleblowers. An employee beneficiary who is an anonymous whistleblower may choose to file the trust termination report anonymously through the employee beneficiary's trustee or representative with the Office of Government Ethics.

§ 2635.1009 Pro bono legal services.

(a) Acceptance of permissible pro bono legal services. An employee may solicit or accept the provision of pro bono legal services for legal matters arising in connection with the employee's past or current official position, the employee's prior position on a campaign of a candidate for President or Vice President, or the employee's prior position on a Presidential Transition Team from:

(1) Any individual who:

(i) Is not an agent of a foreign government as defined in 5 U.S.C. 7342(a)(2);

(ii) Is not a foreign national;

(iii) Is not a lobbyist as defined by 2 U.S.C. 1602(10) who is currently registered pursuant to 2 U.S.C. 1603(a); and

(iv) Does not have interests that may be substantially affected by the performance or nonperformance of the employee's official duties; and

(2) An organization or entity that does not have interests that may be substantially affected by the performance or nonperformance of an employee's official duties.

Note 1 to paragraph (a): Pursuant to § 2634.907(g) of this chapter, an employee who is a public or confidential filer under part 2634 of this chapter must report gifts of pro bono legal services on the employee's financial disclosure report, subject to applicable thresholds and exclusions.

(b) Provision of outside legal services. An employee may solicit or accept payment for legal services for legal matters arising in connection with the employee's past or current official position, the employee's prior position on a campaign of a candidate for President or Vice President, or the employee's prior position on a Presidential Transition Team from an organization, established for more than two years, that is described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code. The organization, the legal services provider that the organization pays for legal services, and the individual attorney providing legal services must meet the requirements described in paragraph (a) of this section. The term “pro bono services” includes the provision of outside legal services as described in this section.

(c) Role of designated agency ethics official. The designated agency ethics official must determine whether the organization, the legal services provider that the organization pays for legal services, and the individual attorney providing legal services meet the requirements described in paragraph (a) of this section.

Example 1 to paragraph (c): A Department of Justice employee is an eyewitness in an Inspector General investigation and is called to testify before Congress. A local law firm offers to represent the employee at no cost. The employee consults with an agency ethics official, who determines that the attorney who would represent the employee is neither an agent of a foreign government nor a lobbyist. However, the law firm is representing a party in a case to which the employee is assigned. The ethics official determines that the law firm is a person who has interests that may be substantially affected by the performance or nonperformance of the employee's official duties. Accordingly, the employee may not accept the offer of pro bono legal services from the law firm.

Example 2 to paragraph (c): A Securities and Exchange Commission employee is harassed by a supervisor and files a complaint. A nonprofit legal aid organization focusing on harassment cases offers pro bono legal services to the employee at no cost. The employee consults with an agency ethics official, who determines that the attorney who would represent the employee is neither an agent of a foreign government nor a lobbyist, and neither the attorney nor the nonprofit legal aid organization has interests that may be substantially affected by the performance or nonperformance of the employee's official duties. Accordingly, the employee may accept the offer of pro bono legal services from the nonprofit legal aid organization.

Example 3 to paragraph (c): A registered 501(c)(3) organization whose mission focuses on assisting those experiencing workplace harassment offers to pay for legal services for the Securities and Exchange Commission employee from the preceding example. The legal services themselves are performed by attorneys outside the organization. The employee confers with an agency ethics official who determines that the 501(c)(3) organization has been in operation for more than two years, neither the organization nor the attorneys performing legal services have interests that may be substantially affected by the performance or nonperformance of the employee's official duties, and the attorneys performing the legal services are neither agents of foreign governments nor lobbyists. Accordingly, the employee may accept the legal services even though they are provided by attorneys outside of the 501(c)(3) organization.

Example 4 to paragraph (c): A Department of State employee is asked to testify in a legal proceeding relating to a prior position at the Department of Justice. An attorney at a large national law firm offers pro bono services to the employee. The employee confers with an agency ethics official who determines that although the attorney offering representation is neither an agent of a foreign government nor a lobbyist, the law firm is currently registered pursuant to 2 U.S.C. 1603(a), some members of the firm are registered lobbyists, and the firm has business before other parts of the Department of State. However, neither the attorney nor the law firm has interests that may be substantially affected by the performance or nonperformance of the employee's official duties. Accordingly, the employee may accept the offer of pro bono legal services.

(d) Appeal process. An employee may appeal to the Office of Government Ethics in matters when the agency is the party opponent in the legal action. An employee may appeal the designated agency ethics official's determination that the pro bono legal services are prohibited; or a failure by the designated agency ethics official to provide a determination regarding whether the pro bono legal services are prohibited within 30 days. Appeals should be submitted within 60 days of denial by the designated agency ethics official, or within 90 days of submission to the designated agency ethics official, in the case of a request that has not been acted upon.

PART 2636 LIMITATIONS ON OUTSIDE EARNED INCOME, EMPLOYMENT AND AFFILIATIONS FOR CERTAIN NONCAREER EMPLOYEES

Authority: 5 U.S.C. ch. 131; Pub. L. 101-410, 104 Stat. 890, 28 U.S.C. 2461 note, as amended by sec. 31001, Pub. L. 104-134, 110 Stat. 1321 and sec. 701, Pub. L. 114-74; E.O. 12674, 54 FR 15159, 3 CFR, 1989 Comp., p. 215, as modified by E.O. 12731, 55 FR 42547, 3 CFR, 1990 Comp., p. 306.

Source: 56 FR 1723, Jan. 17, 1991, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General Provisions
§ 2636.101 Purpose.

This part is issued under authority of title VI of the Ethics Reform Act of 1989 (Pub. L. 101-194, as amended), to implement the 15 percent outside earned income limitation at 5 U.S.C. app. 501(a) and the limitations at 5 U.S.C. app. 502 on outside employment and affiliations, which are applicable to certain noncareer employees.

[63 FR 43068, Aug. 12, 1998]

§ 2636.102 Definitions.

The definitions listed below are of general applicability to this part. Additional definitions of narrower applicability appear in the subparts or sections of subparts to which they apply. For purposes of this part:

(a) Agency ethics official refers to the designated agency ethics official and to any deputy ethics official described in § 2638.204 of this subchapter to whom authority to issue advisory opinions under § 2636.103 of this part has been delegated by the designated agency ethics official.

(b) Designated agency ethics official refers to the official described in § 2638.201 of this subchapter.

(c) Employee means any officer or employee of the executive branch, other than a special Government employee as defined in 18 U.S.C. 202. It includes officers but not enlisted members of the uniformed services as defined in 5 U.S.C. 2101(3). It does not include the President or Vice President.

(d) Executive branch includes each executive agency as defined in 5 U.S.C. 105 and any other entity or administrative unit in the executive branch. However, it does not include any agency that is defined by 5 U.S.C. app. 109(11) as within the legislative branch.

(e) The terms he, his, and him include “she,” “hers” and “her.”

[56 FR 1723, Jan. 17, 1991, as amended at 63 FR 43068, Aug. 12, 1998]

§ 2636.103 Advisory opinions.

(a) Request for an advisory opinion. (1) An employee may request an advisory opinion from an agency ethics official as to whether specific conduct which has not yet occurred would violate any provision contained in this part.

(2) An advisory opinion may not be obtained for the purpose of establishing whether a noncareer employee who is subject to the restrictions in subpart C of this part may receive compensation for teaching. An advisory opinion issued under this section may not be substituted for the advance written approval required by § 2636.307 of this part.

(3) The employee's request for an advisory opinion shall be submitted in writing, shall be dated and signed, and shall include all information reasonably available to the employee that is relevant to the inquiry. Where, in the opinion of the agency ethics official, complete information has not been provided, that official may request the employee to furnish additional information necessary to issue an opinion.

(b) Issuance of advisory opinion. As soon as practicable after receipt of all necessary information, the agency ethics official shall issue a written opinion as to whether the conduct in issue would violate any provision contained in this part. Where conduct which would not violate this part would violate another statute relating to conflicts of interest or applicable standards of conduct, the advisory opinion shall so state and shall caution the employee against engaging in the conduct.

(1) For the purpose of issuing an advisory opinion, the agency ethics official may request additional information from agency sources, including the requesting employee's supervisor, and may rely upon the accuracy of information furnished by the requester or any agency source unless he has reason to believe that the information is fraudulent, misleading or otherwise incorrect.

(2) A copy of the request and advisory opinion shall be retained for a period of 6 years.

(c) Good faith reliance on an advisory opinion. An employee who engages in conduct in good faith reliance upon an advisory opinion issued to him under this section shall not be subject to civil or disciplinary action for having violated this part. Where an employee engages in conduct in good faith reliance upon an advisory opinion issued by an ethics official of his agency to another, neither the Office of Government Ethics nor the employing agency shall initiate civil or disciplinary action under this part for conduct that is indistinguishable in all material aspects from the conduct described in the advisory opinion. However, an advisory opinion issued under this section shall not insulate the employee from other civil or disciplinary action if his conduct violates any other laws, rule, regulation or lawful management policy or directive. Where an employee has actual knowledge or reason to believe that the opinion is based on fraudulent, misleading, or otherwise incorrect information, the employee's reliance on the opinion will not be deemed to be in good faith.

(d) Revision of an ethics opinion. Nothing in this section prohibits an agency ethics official from revising an ethics opinion on a prospective basis where he determines that the ethics opinion previously issued is incorrect, either as a matter of law or because it is based on erroneous information.

[56 FR 1723, Jan. 17, 1991, as amended at 63 FR 43068, Aug. 12, 1998; 72 FR 16987, Apr. 6, 2007]

§ 2636.104 Civil, disciplinary, and other action.

(a) Civil action. Except when the employee engages in conduct in good faith reliance upon an advisory opinion issued under § 2636.103, an employee who engages in any conduct in violation of the prohibitions, limitations, and restrictions contained in this part may be subject to civil action under 5 U.S.C. 13145(a), and a civil monetary penalty of not more than the amounts set in table 1 to this paragraph (a), as adjusted in accordance with the inflation adjustment procedures prescribed in the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended, or the amount of the compensation the individual received for the prohibited conduct, whichever is greater.

Table 1 to § 2636.104(a)

Date of violation | Penalty

Violation occurring between Sept. 29, 1999 and Nov. 2, 2015 | $11,000

Violation occurring after Nov. 2, 2015 | 25,132

(b) Disciplinary and corrective action. An agency may initiate disciplinary or corrective action against an employee who violates any provision of this part, which may be in addition to any civil penalty prescribed by law. When an employee engages in conduct in good faith reliance upon an advisory opinion issued under § 2636.103 of this subpart, an agency may not initiate disciplinary or corrective action for violation of this part. Disciplinary action includes reprimand, suspension, demotion and removal. Corrective action includes any action necessary to remedy a past violation or prevent a continuing violation of this part, including but not limited to restitution or termination of an activity. It is the responsibility of the employing agency to initiate disciplinary or corrective action in appropriate cases. However, the Director of the Office of Government Ethics may order corrective action or recommend disciplinary action under the procedures at part 2638 of this subchapter. The imposition of disciplinary action is at the discretion of the employing agency.

[56 FR 1723, Jan. 17, 1991, as amended at 63 FR 43068, Aug. 12, 1998; 64 FR 47097, Aug. 30, 1999; 81 FR 41790, June 28, 2016; 82 FR 8133, Jan. 24, 2017; 83 FR 2331, Jan. 17, 2018; 84 FR 6055, Feb. 26, 2019; 85 FR 2281, Jan. 15, 2020; 86 FR 7637, Feb. 1, 2021; 87 FR 2525, Jan. 18, 2022; 88 FR 1141, Jan. 9, 2023; 89 FR 1441, Jan. 10, 2024; 90 FR 3612, Jan. 15, 2025]

B Subpart B [Reserved]
Subpart C Outside Earned Income Limitation and Employment and Affiliation Restrictions Applicable to Certain Noncareer Employees
§ 2636.301 General standards.

A covered noncareer employee shall not:

(a) Receive outside earned income in excess of the 15 percent limitation described in § 2636.304 of this subpart;

(b) Receive compensation or allow the use of his name in violation of the restrictions relating to professions involving a fiduciary relationship described in § 2636.305 of this subpart;

(c) Receive compensation for serving as an officer or board member in violation of the restriction described in § 2636.306 of this subpart; or

(d) Receive compensation for teaching without having first obtained advance authorization as required by § 2636.307 of this subpart.

§ 2636.302 Relationship to other laws and regulations.

The limitations and restrictions contained in this section are in addition to any limitations and restrictions imposed upon an employee by applicable standards of conduct or by reason of any statute or regulation relating to conflicts of interest. Even though conduct or the receipt of compensation is not prohibited by this subpart, an employee should accept compensation or engage in the activity for which compensation is offered only after determining that it is otherwise permissible. In particular, a covered noncareer employee should accept compensation only after determining that its receipt does not violate section 102 of Executive Order 12674, as amended, which prohibits a covered noncareer employee who is also a Presidential appointee to a full-time noncareer position from receiving any outside earned income for outside employment or for any other activity performed during that Presidential appointment.

[56 FR 1723, Jan. 17, 1991, as amended at 63 FR 43069, Aug. 12, 1998]

§ 2636.303 Definitions.

For purposes of this section:

(a) Covered noncareer employee means an employee, other than a Special Government employee as defined in 18 U.S.C. 202, who occupies a position classified above GS-15 of the General Schedule or, in the case of positions not under the General Schedule, for which the rate of basic pay is equal to or greater than 120 percent of the minimum rate of basic pay payable for GS-15 of the General Schedule, and who is:

(1) Appointed by the President to a position described in the Executive Schedule, 5 U.S.C. 5312 through 5317, or to a position that, by statute or as a matter of practice, is filled by Presidential appointment, other than:

(i) A position within the uniformed services; or

(ii) A position within the foreign service below the level of Assistant Secretary or Chief of Mission;

(2) A noncareer member of the Senior Executive Service or of another SES-type system, such as the Senior Foreign Service;

(3) Appointed to a Schedule C position or to a position under an agency-specific statute that establishes appointment criteria essentially the same as those set forth in § 213.3301 of this title for Schedule C positions; or

(4) Appointed to a noncareer executive assignment position or to a position under an agency-specific statute that establishes appointment criteria essentially the same as those for noncareer executive assignment positions.

For purposes of applying this definition to an individual who holds a General Schedule or other position that provides several rates of pay or steps per grade, his rate of basic pay shall be the rate of pay for the lowest step of the grade at which he is employed.

Example 1.A Schedule C appointee to a position with the United States Information Agency who holds a GS-15 position and who is compensated at the rate for GS-15, Step 9 is not a covered noncareer employee even though the pay he receives in a calendar year exceeds the annual pay for a position above GS-15. Notwithstanding that he is compensated at Step 9, the basic rate of pay for the GS-15 position he holds is the rate in effect for GS-15, Step 1 of the General Schedule, which is lower than the rate for a position above GS-15.

Example 2.An employee of the Environmental Protection Agency who has been a career GS-15 employee for 10 years and who is offered a non-career SES position with the Federal Aviation Administration will, if he accepts the offer, become a covered noncareer employee by reason of that appointment, regardless of his former status.

Example 3.A Department of Justice employee who holds a Schedule A appointment is not a covered noncareer employee even though he does not have competitive status within the meaning of § 212.301 of this title.

(b) Outside earned income and compensation both mean wages, salaries, honoraria, commissions, professional fees and any other form of compensation for services other than salary, benefits and allowances paid by the United States Government. Neither term includes:

(1) Items that may be accepted under applicable standards of conduct gift regulations if they were offered by a prohibited source;

(2) Income attributable to service with the military reserves or national guard;

(3) Income from pensions and other continuing benefits attributable to previous employment or services;

(4) Income from investment activities where the individual's services are not a material factor in the production of income;

(5) Copyright royalties, fees, and their functional equivalent, from the use or sale of copyright, patent and similar forms of intellectual property rights, when received from established users or purchasers of those rights;

(6) Actual and necessary expenses incurred by the employee in connection with an outside activity. Where such expenses are paid or reimbursed by another person, the amount of any such payment shall not be counted as compensation or outside earned income. Where such expenses are not paid or reimbursed, the amount of compensation or earned income shall be determined by subtracting the actual and necessary expenses incurred by the employee from any payment received for the activity; or

(7) Compensation for:

(i) Services rendered prior to January 1, 1991, or prior to becoming a covered noncareer employee;

(ii) Services rendered in satisfaction of a covered noncareer employee's obligation under a contract entered into prior to January 1, 1991; or

(iii) Services which the covered noncareer employee first undertook to provide prior to January 1, 1991, where the standards of the applicable profession require the employee to complete the case or other undertaking.

Example 1.A covered noncareer employee is a limited partner in a partnership that invests in commercial real estate. Because he does not take an active role in the management of the partnership, his share of the partnership income is neither “outside earned income” nor “compensation.”

Example 2.A covered noncareer employee of the Civil Rights Commission serves without compensation as a member of the Board of Visitors for a university. The roundtrip airfare and hotel expenses paid by the university to permit him to attend quarterly meetings of the Board are neither “outside earned income” or “compensation.”

Example 3.Where a covered noncareer employee pays for transcripts of a hearing in which he is providing pro bono legal representation, reimbursements for those expenses by a legal aid organization are neither “outside earned income” nor “compensation.”

Example 4.During the term of his appointment, a Deputy Assistant Secretary of Labor enters into a contract to write a book of fictional short stories. Royalties based on actual sales of the book after publication are investment income attributable to the property interest he retains in the book and, as such, are neither “outside earned income” nor “compensation.”

(c) Receive means that the employee has the right to exercise dominion and control over the compensation or outside earned income and direct its subsequent use. Compensation or outside earned income is received by an employee if it is for his conduct and:

(1) If it is paid to any other person on the basis of designation, recommendation or other specification by the employee; or

(2) If, with the employee's knowledge and acquiescence, it is paid to his parent, sibling, spouse, child or dependent relative.

Compensation that is prohibited by § 2636.305 through § 2636.307 of this subpart is received while an individual is an employee if it is for conduct by him that occurs while an employee, even though actual payment may be deferred until after Federal employment has terminated. Also, compensation or outside earned income donated to a charitable organization is received by the employee.

[56 FR 1723, Jan. 17, 1991, as amended at 63 FR 43069, Aug. 12, 1998; 64 FR 2422, Jan. 14, 1999; 72 FR 16987, Apr. 6, 2007]

§ 2636.304 The 15 percent limitation on outside earned income.

(a) Limitation applicable to individuals who are covered noncareer employees on January 1 of any calendar year. A covered noncareer employee may not, in any calendar year, receive outside earned income attributable to that calendar year which exceeds 15 percent of the annual rate of basic pay for level II of the Executive Schedule under 5 U.S.C. 5313, as in effect on January 1 of such calendar year. The effective date of a change in the rate for level II of the Executive Schedule shall be the date on which a new rate of basic pay for level II first becomes applicable to any level II position.

Note:

Notwithstanding the 15 percent limitation described in this section, a covered noncareer employee who is a Presidential appointee to a full-time noncareer position is prohibited by section 102 of Executive Order 12674, as amended, from receiving any outside earned income for outside employment or any other activity performed during that Presidential appointment.

Example 1.Notwithstanding that the compensation he will receive would not exceed 15 percent of the rate for level II of the Executive Schedule, a covered noncareer employee of the Department of Energy may not receive any compensation for teaching a university course unless he first receives the authorization required by § 2636.307 of this subpart.

(b) Limitation applicable to individuals who become covered noncareer employees after January 1 of any calendar year. The outside earned income limitation that applies to an individual who becomes a covered noncareer employee during a calendar year shall be determined on a pro rata basis. His outside earned income while so employed in that calendar year shall not exceed 15 percent of the annual rate of basic pay for level II of the Executive Schedule in effect on January 1 of the calendar year divided by 365 and multiplied by the number of days during that calendar year that he holds the covered noncareer position.

Example 1. A former college professor received an appointment to a noncareer Senior Executive Service position on November 1, 1991. The rate of basic pay in effect for Executive Level II on January 1, 1991 was $125,100. For the 61 day period from November 1, 1991 through December 31, 1991, the amount of outside income he may earn is limited to $3,129. That amount is determined as follows:

Step 1. The rate of basic pay for Executive Level II as in effect on January 1 of that year ($125,100) is divided by 365. That quotient is $342;

Step 2. The dollar amount determined by Step 1 ($342) is then multiplied by the 61 days the employee held the covered noncareer position. That product is $20,862;

Step 3. The dollar amount determined by Step 2 ($20,862) is multiplied by .15 or 15 percent. The product ($3,129) is the maximum outside earned income the employee may have in the particular year attributable to the period of his service in a covered noncareer position.

(c) Computation principle. For purposes of any computation required by this section, any amount of $.50 or more shall be rounded up to the next full dollar and any amount less than $.50 shall be rounded down to the next full dollar.

(d) Year to which outside earned income is attributable. Regardless of when it is paid, outside earned income is attributable to the calendar year in which the services for which it is paid were provided.

§ 2636.305 Compensation and other restrictions relating to professions involving a fiduciary relationship.

(a) Applicable restrictions. A covered noncareer employee shall not:

(1) Receive compensation for:

(i) Practicing a profession which involves a fiduciary relationship; or

(ii) Affiliating with or being employed to perform professional duties by a firm, partnership, association, corporation, or other entity which provides professional services involving a fiduciary relationship; or

(2) Permit his name to be used by any firm, partnership, association, corporation, or other entity which provides professional services involving a fiduciary relationship.

Example 1.A covered noncareer employee of the White House Office who is an attorney may not receive compensation for drafting a will for her friend. She may, however, participate in her bar association's pro bono program by providing free legal services for the elderly, provided her participation in the program is otherwise proper. For example, 18 U.S.C. 205 would prohibit her from representing her pro bono client in a hearing before the Social Security Administration.

Example 2.An accountant named C.B. Debit who is offered a covered noncareer appointment must terminate his partnership in the accounting firm of Delight, Waterhose and Debit upon appointment. Because his deceased father, J.R. Debit, was the founding partner for whom the firm is named, the name Debit need not be deleted from the firm's name. However, the name C.B. Debit may not appear on the firm's letterhead after the individual enters on duty as a covered noncareer employee.

(b) Definitions. For purposes of this section:

(1) Profession means a calling requiring specialized knowledge and often long and intensive preparation including instruction in skills and methods as well as in the scientific, historical or scholarly principles underlying such skills and methods. It is characteristic of a profession that those in the profession, through force of organization or concerted opinion, establish and maintain high standards of achievement and conduct, and commit its practitioners to continued study of the field. Consulting and advising with respect to subject matter that is generally regarded as the province of practitioners of a profession shall be considered a profession.

(2) Profession which involves a fiduciary relationship means a profession in which the nature of the services provided causes the recipient of those services to place a substantial degree of trust and confidence in the integrity, fidelity and specialized knowledge of the practitioner. Such professions are not limited to those whose practitioners are legally defined as fiduciaries and include practitioners in such areas as law, insurance, medicine, architecture, financial services and accounting. A covered noncareer employee who is uncertain whether a particular field of endeavor is a profession which involves a fiduciary relationship may request an advisory opinion under § 2636.103.

Example 1.In view of the standards of the profession which require a licensed real estate broker to act in the best interests of his clients, the selling of real estate by a licensed broker involves the practice of a profession involving a fiduciary relationship.

Example 2.A covered noncareer employee may receive the customary fee for serving as the executor of his mother's estate, provided he does not violate the applicable limitation on the amount of outside earned income he may receive. Although the executor of an estate has fiduciary obligations, serving as an executor in these circumstances does not involve the practice of a profession and, therefore, is not prohibited. He could not, however, serve for compensation as attorney for the estate.

[56 FR 1723, Jan. 17, 1991, as amended at 58 FR 69176, Dec. 30, 1993]

§ 2636.306 Compensation restriction applicable to service as an officer or member of a board.

(a) Applicable restriction. A covered noncareer employee shall not receive compensation for serving as an officer or member of the board of any association, corporation or other entity. Nothing in this section prohibits uncompensated service with any entity.

(b) Definition. For purposes of this section, the phrase “association, corporation or other entity” is not limited to for-profit entities, but includes nonprofit entities, such as charitable organizations and professional associations, as well as any unit of state or local government.

Example 1.A covered noncareer employee of the Environmental Protection Agency may not serve with compensation on the board of directors of his sister's closely-held computer software corporation.

Example 2.A covered noncareer employee of the Department of the Navy may serve without compensation as an officer of a charitable organization that operates a hospice.

Example 3.A covered noncareer employee of the Coast Guard appointed to serve as a member of the board of education of the county in which she is a resident may not receive compensation for that service.

§ 2636.307 Requirement for advance authorization to engage in teaching for compensation.

(a) Authorization requirement. A covered noncareer employee may receive compensation for teaching only when specifically authorized in advance by the designated agency ethics official.

(b) Definition. For purposes of this section “teaching” means any activity that involves oral presentation or personal interaction, the primary function of which is to instruct or otherwise impart knowledge or skill. It is not limited to teaching that occurs in a formal setting, such as a classroom, but extends to instruction on an individual basis or in an informal setting.

(c) Request for authorization. An employee may request authorization to engage in compensated teaching activities by forwarding a written request to the designated agency ethics official. The request shall describe the employee's official duties, the subject matter of the teaching activity, the entity sponsoring the course, and the student, class or audience to be taught. In addition, it shall set forth the terms of the compensation arrangement and identify the source of the payment. The request shall be accompanied by any contract or employment agreement and any literature describing, publicizing or otherwise promoting the class, classes or course.

(d) Standard for authorization. Compensated teaching may be approved by the designated agency ethics official only when:

(1) The teaching will not interfere with the performance of the employee's official duties or give rise to an appearance that the teaching opportunity was extended to the employee principally because of his official position;

(2) The employee's receipt of compensation does not violate any of the limitations and prohibitions on honoraria, compensation or outside earned income contained in this part; and

(3) Neither the teaching activity nor the employee's receipt of compensation therefor will violate applicable standards of conduct or any statute or regulation related to conflicts of interests.

(e) Determination and authorization. The determination by the designated agency ethics official to grant or deny authorization to engage in teaching for compensation shall be in writing and shall be final. The authority of the designated agency ethics official to authorize compensated teaching may not be delegated to any person other than the alternate designated agency ethics official described in § 2638.202(b).

PART 2638 EXECUTIVE BRANCH ETHICS PROGRAM

Authority: 5 U.S.C. App. 101-505; E.O. 12674, 54 FR 15159, 3 CFR, 1989 Comp., p. 215, as modified by E.O. 12731, 55 FR 42547, 3 CFR, 1990 Comp., p. 306.

Source: 81 FR 76273, Nov. 2, 2016, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A Mission and Responsibilities
§ 2638.101 Mission.

(a) Mission. The primary mission of the executive branch ethics program is to prevent conflicts of interest on the part of executive branch employees.

(b) Breadth. The executive branch ethics program works to ensure that public servants make impartial decisions based on the interests of the public when carrying out the governmental responsibilities entrusted to them, serve as good stewards of public resources, and loyally adhere to the Constitution and laws of the United States. In the broadest sense of the term, “conflicts of interest” stem from financial interests; business or personal relationships; misuses of official position, official time, or public resources; and the receipt of gifts. The mission is focused on both conflicts of interest and the appearance of conflicts of interest.

(c) Conflicts-based program. The executive branch ethics program is a conflicts-based program, rather than a solely disclosure-based program. While transparency is an invaluable tool for promoting and monitoring ethical conduct, the executive branch ethics program requires more than transparency. This program seeks to ensure the integrity of governmental decision making and to promote public confidence by preventing conflicts of interest. Taken together, the systems in place to identify and address conflicts of interest establish a foundation on which to build and sustain an ethical culture in the executive branch.

§ 2638.102 Government ethics responsibilities of employees.

Consistent with the fundamental principle that public service is a public trust, every employee in the executive branch plays a critical role in the executive branch ethics program. As provided in the Standards of Conduct at part 2635 of this chapter, employees must endeavor to act at all times in the public's interest, avoid losing impartiality or appearing to lose impartiality in carrying out official duties, refrain from misusing their offices for private gain, serve as good stewards of public resources, and comply with the requirements of government ethics laws and regulations, including any applicable financial disclosure requirements. Employees must refrain from participating in particular matters in which they have financial interests and, pursuant to § 2635.402(f) of this chapter, should notify their supervisors or ethics officials when their official duties create the substantial likelihood of such conflicts of interest. Collectively, the charge of employees is to make ethical conduct the hallmark of government service.

§ 2638.103 Government ethics responsibilities of supervisors.

Every supervisor in the executive branch has a heightened personal responsibility for advancing government ethics. It is imperative that supervisors serve as models of ethical behavior for subordinates. Supervisors have a responsibility to help ensure that subordinates are aware of their ethical obligations under the Standards of Conduct and that subordinates know how to contact agency ethics officials. Supervisors are also responsible for working with agency ethics officials to help resolve conflicts of interest and enforce government ethics laws and regulations, including those requiring certain employees to file financial disclosure reports. In addition, supervisors are responsible, when requested, for assisting agency ethics officials in evaluating potential conflicts of interest and identifying positions subject to financial disclosure requirements.

§ 2638.104 Government ethics responsibilities of agency ethics officials.

(a) Appointment of a Designated Agency Ethics Official. Each agency head must appoint a Designated Agency Ethics Official (DAEO). The DAEO is the employee with primary responsibility for directing the daily activities of the agency's ethics program and coordinating with the Office of Government Ethics.

(b) Qualifications necessary to serve as DAEO. The following are necessary qualifications of an agency's DAEO:

(1) The DAEO must be an employee at an appropriate level in the organization, such that the DAEO is able to coordinate effectively with officials in relevant agency components and gain access to the agency head when necessary to discuss important matters related to the agency's ethics program.

(2) The DAEO must be an employee who has demonstrated the knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to manage a significant agency program, to understand and apply complex legal requirements, and to generate support for building and sustaining an ethical culture in the organization.

(3) On an ongoing basis, the DAEO must demonstrate the capacity to serve as an effective advocate for the executive branch ethics program, show support for the mission of the executive branch ethics program, prove responsive to the Director's requests for documents and information related to the ethics program, and serve as an effective liaison with the Office of Government Ethics.

(4) In any agency with 1,000 or more employees, any DAEO appointed after the effective date of this regulation must be an employee at the senior executive level or higher, unless the agency has fewer than 10 positions at that level.

(c) Responsibilities of the DAEO. Acting directly or through other officials, the DAEO is responsible for taking actions authorized or required under this subchapter, including the following:

(1) Serving as an effective liaison to the Office of Government Ethics;

(2) Maintaining records of agency ethics program activities;

(3) Promptly and timely furnishing the Office of Government Ethics with all documents and information requested or required under subpart B of this part;

(4) Providing advice and counseling to prospective and current employees regarding government ethics laws and regulations, and providing former employees with advice and counseling regarding post-employment restrictions applicable to them;

(5) Carrying out an effective government ethics education program under subpart C of this part;

(6) Taking appropriate action to resolve conflicts of interest and the appearance of conflicts of interest, through recusals, directed divestitures, waivers, authorizations, reassignments, and other appropriate means;

(7) Consistent with § 2640.303 of this chapter, consulting with the Office of Government Ethics regarding the issuance of waivers pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 208(b);

(8) Carrying out an effective financial disclosure program, by:

(i) Establishing such written procedures as are appropriate relative to the size and complexity of the agency's financial disclosure program for the filing, review, and, when applicable, public availability of financial disclosure reports;

(ii) Requiring public and confidential filers to comply with deadlines and requirements for financial disclosure reports under part 2634 of this chapter and, in the event of noncompliance, taking appropriate action to address such noncompliance;

(iii) Imposing late fees in appropriate cases involving untimely filing of public financial disclosure reports;

(iv) Making referrals to the Inspector General or the Department of Justice in appropriate cases involving knowing and willful falsification of financial disclosure reports or knowing and willful failure to file financial disclosure reports;

(v) Reviewing financial disclosure reports, with an emphasis on preventing conflicts of interest;

(vi) Consulting, when necessary, with financial disclosure filers and their supervisors to evaluate potential conflicts of interest;

(vii) Timely certifying financial disclosure reports and taking appropriate action with regard to financial disclosure reports that cannot be certified; and

(viii) Using the information disclosed in financial disclosure reports to prevent and resolve potential conflicts of interest.

(9) Assisting the agency in its enforcement of ethics laws and regulations when agency officials:

(i) Make appropriate referrals to the Inspector General or the Department of Justice;

(ii) Take disciplinary or corrective action; and

(iii) Employ other means available to them.

(10) Upon request of the Office of Inspector General, providing that office with ready and active assistance with regard to the interpretation and application of government ethics laws and regulations, as well as the procedural requirements of the ethics program;

(11) Ensuring that the agency has a process for notifying the Office of Government Ethics upon referral, made pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 535, to the Department of Justice regarding a potential violation of a conflict of interest law, unless such notification would be prohibited by law;

(12) Providing agency officials with advice on the applicability of government ethics laws and regulations to special Government employees;

(13) Requiring timely compliance with ethics agreements, pursuant to part 2634, subpart H of this chapter;

(14) Conducting ethics briefings for certain agency leaders, pursuant to § 2638.305;

(15) Prior to any Presidential election, preparing the agency's ethics program for a potential Presidential transition; and

(16) Periodically evaluating the agency's ethics program and making recommendations to the agency regarding the resources available to the ethics program.

(d) Appointment of an Alternate Designated Agency Ethics Official. Each agency head must appoint an Alternate Designated Agency Ethics Official (ADAEO). The ADAEO serves as the primary deputy to the DAEO in the administration of the agency's ethics program. Together, the DAEO and the ADAEO direct the daily activities of an agency's ethics program and coordinate with the Office of Government Ethics. The ADAEO must be an employee who has demonstrated the skills necessary to assist the DAEO in the administration of the agency's ethics program.

(e) Program support by additional ethics officials and other individuals. Subject to approval by the DAEO or the agency head, an agency may designate additional ethics officials and other employees to assist the DAEO in carrying out the responsibilities of the ethics program, some of whom may be designated “deputy ethics officials” for purposes of parts 2635 and 2636 of this chapter. The agency is responsible for ensuring that these employees have the skills and expertise needed to perform their assigned duties related to the ethics program and must provide appropriate training to them for this purpose. Although the agency may appoint such officials as are necessary to assist in carrying out functions of the agency's ethics program, they will be subject to the direction of the DAEO with respect to the functions of the agency's ethics program described in this chapter. The DAEO retains authority to make final decisions regarding the agency's ethics program and its functions, subject only to the authority of the agency head and the Office of Government Ethics.

(f) Ethics responsibilities that may be performed only by the DAEO or ADAEO. In addition to any items reserved for action by the DAEO or ADAEO in other parts of this chapter, only the DAEO or ADAEO may carry out the following responsibilities:

(1) Request approval of supplemental agency regulations, pursuant to § 2635.105 of this chapter;

(2) Recommend a separate component designation, pursuant to § 2641.302(e) of this chapter;

(3) Request approval of an alternative means for collecting certain public financial disclosure reports, pursuant to § 2638.204(c);

(4) Request determinations regarding public reporting requirements, pursuant to §§ 2634.202(c), 2634.203, 2634.205, and 2634.304(f) of this chapter;

(5) Make determinations, other than exceptions in individual cases, regarding the means the agency will use to collect public or confidential financial disclosure reports, pursuant to §§ 2638.204 and 2638.205;

(6) Request an alternative procedure for filing confidential financial disclosure reports, pursuant to § 2634.905(a) of this chapter;

(7) Request a formal advisory opinion on behalf of the agency or a prospective, current, or former employee of that agency, pursuant to § 2638.209(d); and

(8) Request a certificate of divestiture, pursuant to § 2634.1005(b) of this chapter.

§ 2638.105 Government ethics responsibilities of lead human resources officials.

(a) The lead human resources official, as defined in § 2638.603, acting directly or through delegees, is responsible for:

(1) Promptly notifying the DAEO of all appointments to positions that require incumbents to file public or confidential financial disclosure reports, with the notification occurring prior to appointment whenever practicable but in no case occurring more than 15 days after appointment; and

(2) Promptly notifying the DAEO of terminations of employees in positions that require incumbents to file public financial disclosure reports, with the notification occurring prior to termination whenever practicable but in no case occurring more than 15 days after termination.

(b) The lead human resources official may be assigned certain additional ethics responsibilities by the agency.

(1) If an agency elects to assign such responsibilities to human resources officials, the lead human resources official is responsible for coordinating, to the extent necessary and practicable, with the DAEO to support the agency's ethics program;

(2) If the lead human resources official is responsible for conducting ethics training pursuant to subpart C of this part, that official must follow the DAEO's directions regarding applicable requirements, procedures, and the qualifications of any presenters, consistent with the requirements of this chapter;

(3) If the lead human resources official is responsible for issuing the required government ethics notices in written offers of employment, pursuant to § 2638.303, or providing supervisory ethics notices, pursuant to § 2638.306, that official must comply with any substantive and procedural requirements established by the DAEO, consistent with the requirements of this chapter; and

(4) To the extent applicable, the lead human resources official is required to provide the DAEO with a written summary and confirmation regarding procedures for implementing certain requirements of subpart C of this part by January 15 each year, pursuant to § 2638.310.

(c) Nothing in this section prevents an agency head from delegating the duties described in paragraph (b) of this section to another agency official. In the event that an agency head delegates the duties described in paragraph (b) of this section to an agency official other than the lead human resources official, the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section will apply to that official.

§ 2638.106 Government ethics responsibilities of Inspectors General.

An agency's Inspector General has authority to conduct investigations of suspected violations of conflict of interest laws and other government ethics laws and regulations. An Inspector General is responsible for giving due consideration to a request made pursuant to section 403 of the Ethics in Government Act of 1978 (the “Act”) by the Office of Government Ethics for investigation of a possible violation of a government ethics law or regulation. Inspectors General provide the Office of Government Ethics notification of certain referrals to the Department of Justice, pursuant to § 2638.206. Inspectors General may consult with the Director for legal guidance on the application of government ethics laws and regulations, except that the Director may not make any finding as to whether a provision of title 18, United States Code, or any criminal law of the United States outside of such title, has been or is being violated. Nothing in this section will be construed to limit or otherwise affect the authority of an Inspector General under section 6 of the Inspector General Act of 1978, as amended, including the authority under section 6(a)(2) to make such investigations and reports relating to the administration of the programs and operations of the applicable establishment as are, in the judgment of the Inspector General, necessary or desirable.

§ 2638.107 Government ethics responsibilities of agency heads.

The agency head is responsible for, and will exercise personal leadership in, establishing and maintaining an effective agency ethics program and fostering an ethical culture in the agency. The agency head is also responsible for:

(a) Designating employees to serve as the DAEO and ADAEO and notifying the Director in writing within 30 days of such designation;

(b) Providing the DAEO with sufficient resources, including staffing, to sustain an effective ethics program;

(c) Requiring agency officials to provide the DAEO with the information, support, and cooperation necessary for the accomplishment of the DAEO's responsibilities;

(d) When action is warranted, enforcing government ethics laws and regulations through appropriate referrals to the Inspector General or the Department of Justice, investigations, and disciplinary or corrective action;

(e) Requiring that violations of government ethics laws and regulations, or interference with the functioning of the agency ethics program, be appropriately considered in evaluating the performance of senior executives;

(f) Requiring the Chief Information Officer and other appropriate agency officials to support the DAEO in using technology, to the extent practicable, to carry out ethics program functions such as delivering interactive training and tracking ethics program activities;

(g) Requiring appropriate agency officials to submit to the Office of Government Ethics, by May 31 each year, required reports of travel accepted by the agency under 31 U.S.C. 1353 during the period from October 1 through March 31;

(h) Requiring appropriate agency officials to submit to the Office of Government Ethics, by November 30 each year, required reports of travel accepted by the agency under 31 U.S.C. 1353 during the period from April 1 through September 30; and

(i) Prior to any Presidential election, supporting the agency's ethics program in preparing for a Presidential transition.

§ 2638.108 Government ethics responsibilities of the Office of Government Ethics.

The Office of Government Ethics is the supervising ethics office for the executive branch, providing overall leadership and oversight of the executive branch ethics program designed to prevent and resolve conflicts of interest. The Office of Government Ethics has the authorities and functions established in the Act.

(a) Authorities and functions. Among other authorities and functions, the Office of Government Ethics has the authorities and functions described in this section.

(1) The Office of Government Ethics issues regulations regarding conflicts of interest, standards of conduct, financial disclosure, requirements for agency ethics programs, and executive branch-wide systems of records for government ethics records. In issuing any such regulations, the Office of Government Ethics will, to the full extent required under the Act and any Executive order, coordinate with the Department of Justice and the Office of Personnel Management. When practicable, the Office of Government Ethics will also consult with a diverse group of selected agency ethics officials that represents a cross section of executive branch agencies to ascertain representative views of the DAEO community when developing substantive revisions to this chapter.

(2) The Office of Government Ethics reviews and approves or disapproves agency supplemental ethics regulations.

(3) The Office of Government Ethics issues formal advisory opinions to interested parties, pursuant to § 2638.209. When developing a formal advisory opinion, the Office of Government Ethics will provide interested parties with an opportunity to comment.

(4) The Office of Government Ethics issues guidance and informal advisory opinions, pursuant to § 2638.208. When practicable, the Office of Government Ethics will consult with selected agency ethics officials to ascertain representative views of the DAEO community when developing guidance or informal advisory opinions that the Director determines to be of significant interest to a broad segment of the DAEO community.

(5) The Office of Government Ethics supports agency ethics officials through such training, advice, and counseling as the Director deems necessary.

(6) The Office of Government Ethics provides assistance in interpreting government ethics laws and regulations to executive branch Offices of Inspector General and other executive branch entities.

(7) When practicable, the Office of Government Ethics convenes quarterly executive branch-wide meetings of key agency ethics officials. When the Office of Government Ethics convenes a major executive branch-wide training event, the event normally serves in place of a quarterly meeting.

(8) Pursuant to sections 402(b)(10) and 403 of the Act, the Director requires agencies to furnish the Office of Government Ethics with all information, reports, and records which the Director determines to be necessary for the performance of the Director's duties, except when such a release is prohibited by law.

(9) The Office of Government Ethics conducts reviews of agency ethics programs in order to ensure their compliance with program requirements and to ensure their effectiveness in advancing the mission of the executive branch-wide ethics program. The Office of Government Ethics also conducts single-issue reviews of individual agencies, groups of agencies, or the executive branch ethics program as a whole.

(10) The Office of Government Ethics reviews financial disclosure reports filed by employees, former employees, nominees, candidates for the Office of the President of the United States, and candidates for the Office of the Vice President of the United States who are required to file executive branch financial disclosure reports with the Office of Government Ethics pursuant to sections 101, 103(c), and 103(l) of the Act.

(11) By January 15 each year, the Office of Government Ethics issues year-end reports to agencies regarding their compliance with the obligations, pursuant to section 103(c) of the Act and part 2634 of this chapter:

(i) To timely transmit the annual public financial disclosure reports of certain high-level officials to the Office of Government Ethics; and

(ii) To promptly submit such additional information as is necessary to obtain the Director's certification of the reports.

(12) The Office of Government Ethics oversees the development of ethics agreements between agencies and Presidential nominees for positions in the executive branch requiring Senate confirmation and tracks compliance with such agreements. The Office of Government Ethics also maintains a guide that provides sample language for ethics agreements of Presidential nominees requiring Senate confirmation.

(13) The Office of Government Ethics proactively assists Presidential Transition Teams in support of effective and efficient Presidential transitions and, to the extent practicable, may provide Presidential campaigns with advice and counsel on preparing for Presidential transitions.

(14) The Office of Government Ethics orders such corrective action on the part of an agency as the Director deems necessary, pursuant to subpart D of this part, and such corrective action on the part of individual executive branch employees as the Director deems necessary, pursuant to subpart E of this part.

(15) The Office of Government Ethics makes determinations regarding public financial disclosure requirements, pursuant to §§ 2634.202(c), 2634.203, 2634.205, and 2634.304(f) of this chapter.

(16) The Office of Government Ethics conducts outreach to inform the public of matters related to the executive branch ethics program.

(17) The Director and the Office of Government Ethics take such other actions as are necessary and appropriate to carry out their responsibilities under the Act.

(b) Other authorities and functions. Nothing in this subpart or this chapter limits the authority of the Director or the Office of Government Ethics under the Act.

Subpart B Procedures of the Executive Branch Ethics Program
§ 2638.201 In general.

This subpart establishes certain procedures of the executive branch ethics program. The procedures set forth in this subpart are in addition to procedures established elsewhere in this chapter and in the program advisories and other issuances of the Office of Government Ethics.

§ 2638.202 Furnishing records and information generally.

Consistent with sections 402 and 403 of the Act, each agency must furnish to the Director all information and records in its possession which the Director deems necessary to the performance of the Director's duties, except to the extent prohibited by law. All such information and records must be provided to the Office of Government Ethics in a complete and timely manner.

§ 2638.203 Collection of public financial disclosure reports required to be submitted to the Office of Government Ethics.

The public financial disclosure reports of individuals, other than candidates for elected office and elected officials, whose reports are required by section 103 of the Act to be transmitted to the Office of Government Ethics will be transmitted through the executive branch-wide electronic filing system of the Office of Government Ethics, except in cases in which the Director determines that using that system would be impracticable.

§ 2638.204 Collection of other public financial disclosure reports.

This section establishes the procedure that the executive branch ethics program will use to collect, pursuant to section 101 of the Act, public financial disclosure reports of individuals whose reports are not required by section 103 of the Act to be transmitted to the Office of Government Ethics.

(a) General. Subject to the exclusions and exceptions in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, the public financial disclosure reports required by part 2634 of this chapter will be collected through the executive branch-wide electronic filing system of the Office of Government Ethics.

(b) Exclusions. This section does not apply to persons whose financial disclosure reports are covered by section 105(a)(1) or (2) of the Act, persons whose reports are required by section 103 of the Act to be transmitted to the Office of Government Ethics, or such other persons as the Director may exclude from the coverage of this section in the interest of the executive branch ethics program.

(c) Authorization to collect public reports in paper format or through a legacy electronic filing system. Upon written request signed by the DAEO or ADAEO and by the Chief Information Officer, the Director of the Office of Government Ethics may authorize an agency in the interest of the executive branch ethics program to collect public financial disclosure reports in paper format or through a legacy electronic filing system other than the executive branch-wide electronic filing system of the Office of Government Ethics. The Director may rescind any such authorization based on a written determination that the rescission promotes the efficiency or effectiveness of the executive branch ethics program, but only after providing the agency with advance written notice and an opportunity to respond. The rescission will become effective on January 1 of a subsequent calendar year, but not less than 24 months after notice is provided.

(d) Exceptions in cases of extraordinary circumstances or temporary technical difficulties. Based on a determination that extraordinary circumstances or temporary technical difficulties make the use of an electronic filing system impractical, the DAEO or ADAEO may authorize an individual to file a public financial disclosure report using such alternate means of filing as are authorized in the program advisories of the Office of Government Ethics. To the extent practicable, agencies should limit the number of exceptions they grant under this paragraph each year. The Director may suspend an agency's authority to grant exceptions under this paragraph when the Director is concerned that the agency may be granting exceptions unnecessarily or in a manner that is inconsistent with § 2638.601(c). Nothing in this paragraph limits the authority of the agency to excuse an employee from filing electronically to the extent necessary to provide reasonable accommodations under the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112), as amended, or other applicable legal authority.

§ 2638.205 Collection of confidential financial disclosure reports.

This section establishes the procedure that the executive branch will use to collect confidential financial disclosure reports from employees of the executive branch. To the extent not inconsistent with part 2634 of this chapter or with the approved forms, instructions, and other guidance of the Office of Government Ethics, the DAEO of each agency will determine the means by which the agency will collect confidential financial disclosure reports, including a determination as to whether the agency will collect such reports in either paper or electronic format. Nothing in this paragraph limits the authority of the agency to provide reasonable accommodations under the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112), as amended, or other applicable legal authority.

§ 2638.206 Notice to the Director of certain referrals to the Department of Justice.

This section establishes the requirement to provide the Director with notice of certain referrals.

(a) Upon any referral made pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 535 to the Department of Justice regarding a potential violation of a conflict of interest law, the referring office must notify the Director of the referral by filing a completed OGE Form 202 with the Director, unless prohibited by law.

(b) In order to ensure effective coordination of this section, the Office of Government Ethics will obtain the concurrence of the Chairperson of the Council of the Inspectors General on Integrity and Efficiency before implementing substantive changes to the OGE Form 202.

(c) If an agency's procedures authorize an official outside the Office of Inspector General to make a referral covered by this section, that official must provide the Inspector General and the DAEO with copies of documents provided to the Director pursuant this section, unless prohibited by law.

§ 2638.207 Annual report on the agency's ethics program.

(a) By February 1 of each year, an agency must file with the Office of Government Ethics, pursuant to section 402(e)(1) of the Act, a report containing such information about the agency's ethics program as is requested by the Office of Government Ethics. The report must be filed electronically and in a manner consistent with the instructions of the Office of Government Ethics.

(b) In order to facilitate the collection of required information by agencies, the Office of Government Ethics will provide agencies with advance notice regarding the contents of the report prior to the beginning of the reporting period for information that would be expected to be tracked over the course of the reporting period. Otherwise, it will provide as much notice as practicable, taking into consideration the effort required to collect the information.

§ 2638.208 Written guidance on the executive branch ethics program.

This section describes several means by which the Office of Government Ethics provides agencies, employees, and the public with written guidance regarding its legal interpretations, program requirements, and educational offerings. Normally, written guidance is published on the official website of the Office of Government Ethics, www.oge.gov.

(a) Legal advisories. The Office of Government Ethics issues legal advisories, which are memoranda regarding the interpretation of government ethics laws and regulations. They are intended primarily to provide education and notice to executive branch ethics officials; prospective, current, and former executive branch employees; and individuals who interact with the executive branch.

(b) Program advisories. The Office of Government Ethics issues program advisories, which are memoranda regarding the requirements or procedures applicable to the executive branch ethics program and individual agency ethics programs. They are intended primarily to instruct agencies on uniform procedures for the executive branch ethics program.

(c) Informal advisory opinions. Upon request or upon its own initiative, the Office of Government Ethics issues informal advisory opinions. Informal advisory opinions address subjects that in the opinion of the Director do not meet the criteria for issuance of formal advisory opinions. They are intended primarily to provide guidance to individuals and illustrate the application of government ethics laws and regulations to specific circumstances.

[86 FR 63308, Nov. 16, 2021]

§ 2638.209 Formal advisory opinions.

This section establishes the formal advisory opinion service of the Office of Government Ethics.

(a) General. The Office of Government Ethics renders formal advisory opinions pursuant to section 402(b)(8) of the Act. A formal advisory opinion will be issued when the Director determines that the criteria and requirements established in this section are met.

(b) Subjects of formal advisory opinions. Formal advisory opinions may be rendered on matters of general applicability or important matters of first impression concerning the application of the Act; Executive Order 12674 of April 12, 1989, as modified by Executive Order 12731 of October 17, 1990; 18 U.S.C. 202-209; and regulations interpreting or implementing these authorities. In determining whether to issue a formal advisory opinion, the Director will consider:

(1) The unique nature of the question and its precedential value;

(2) The potential number of employees throughout the government affected by the question;

(3) The frequency with which the question arises;

(4) The likelihood or presence of inconsistent interpretations on the same question by different agencies; and

(5) The interests of the executive branch ethics program.

(c) Role of the formal advisory opinion service. The formal advisory opinion service of the Office of Government Ethics is not intended to replace the government ethics advice and counseling programs maintained by executive branch agencies. Normally, formal advisory opinions will not be issued with regard to the types of questions appropriately directed to an agency's DAEO. If a DAEO receives a request that the DAEO believes might appropriately be answered by the Office of Government Ethics through a formal advisory opinion, the DAEO will consult informally with the General Counsel of the Office of Government Ethics for instructions as to whether the matter should be referred to the Office of Government Ethics or retained by the agency for handling. Except in unusual circumstances, the Office of Government Ethics will not render formal advisory opinions with respect to hypothetical situations posed in requests for formal advisory opinions. At the discretion of the Director, however, the Office of Government Ethics may render formal advisory opinions on certain proposed activities or financial transactions.

(d) Eligible persons. Any person may request an opinion with respect to a situation in which that person is directly involved, and an authorized representative may request an opinion on behalf of that person. However, an employee will normally be required to seek an opinion from the agency's DAEO before requesting a formal advisory opinion from the Office of Government Ethics. In addition, a DAEO may request a formal advisory opinion on behalf of the agency or a prospective, current, or former employee of that agency.

(e) Submitting a request for a formal advisory opinion. The request must be submitted either by electronic mail addressed to ContactOGE@oge.gov or by mail, through either the United States Postal Service or a private shipment service, to the Director of the Office of Government Ethics, Suite 500, 1201 New York Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20005-3917. Personal deliveries will not be accepted.

(f) Requirements for request. The request must include:

(1) An express statement indicating that the submission is a request for a formal advisory opinion;

(2) The name, street address, and telephone number of the person requesting the opinion;

(3) The name, street address, and telephone number of any representative of that person;

(4) All material facts necessary for the Director to render a complete and correct opinion;

(5) The date of the request and the signature of either the requester or the requester's representative; and

(6) In the case of a request signed by a representative, a written designation of the representative that is dated and signed by the requester.

(g) Optional materials. At the election of the requester, the request may also include legal memoranda or other material relevant to the requested formal advisory opinion.

(h) Additional information. The Director may request such additional information or documentation as the Director deems necessary to the development of a formal advisory opinion, from either the requester or other sources. If the requester or the requester's representative fails to cooperate with such a request, the Office of Government Ethics normally will close the matter without issuing a formal advisory opinion.

(i) Comments from interested parties. The Office of Government Ethics will, to the extent practicable, solicit written comments on a request by posting a prominent notice on its official Web site. Any such notice will summarize relevant information in the request, provide interested parties 30 days to submit written comments, and include instructions for submitting written comments. Written comments submitted after the deadline will be considered only at the discretion of the Director.

(j) Consultation with the Department of Justice. Whenever the Office of the Government Ethics is considering rendering a formal advisory opinion, the Director will consult with the Office of Legal Counsel of the Department of Justice sufficiently in advance to afford that office an opportunity to review the matter. In addition, whenever a request involves an actual or apparent violation of any provision of 18 U.S.C. 202-209, the Director will consult with the Criminal Division of the Department of Justice. If the Criminal Division determines that an investigation or prosecution will be undertaken, the Director will take no further action on the request, unless the Criminal Division makes a determination not to prosecute.

(k) Consultation with other executive branch officials. The Director will consult with such other executive branch officials as the Director deems necessary to ensure thorough consideration of issues and information relevant to the request by the Office of Government Ethics. In the case of a request submitted by a prospective or current employee, the Director will share a copy of the request with the DAEO of the employee's agency.

(l) Publication. The Office of Government Ethics will publish each formal advisory opinion on its official Web site. Prior to publishing a formal advisory opinion on its Web site, the Office of Government Ethics will delete information that identifies individuals involved and that is unnecessary to a complete understanding of the opinion.

(m) Reliance on formal advisory opinions. (1) Any formal advisory opinion referred to in this section or any provisions or finding of a formal advisory opinion involving the application of the Act or the regulations promulgated pursuant to the Act or Executive order may be relied upon by:

(i) Any person directly involved in the specific transaction or activity with respect to which such advisory opinion has been rendered; and

(ii) Any person directly involved in any specific transaction or activity which is indistinguishable in all its material aspects from the transaction or activity with respect to which such formal advisory opinion was rendered.

(2) Any person who relies upon any provision or finding of any formal advisory opinion in accordance with this paragraph and who acts in good faith in accordance with the provisions and findings of such opinion will not, as a result of such act, be subject to prosecution under 18 U.S.C. 202-209 or, when the opinion is exculpatory, be subject to any disciplinary action or civil action based upon legal authority cited in that opinion.

§ 2638.210 Presidential transition planning.

Prior to any Presidential election, each agency has a responsibility to prepare its agency ethics program for a Presidential transition. Such preparations do not constitute support for a particular candidate and are not reflective of a belief regarding the likely outcome of the election; rather, they reflect an understanding that agencies are responsible for ensuring the continuity of governmental operations.

(a) Preparing the ethics program for a transition. The agency head or the DAEO must, not later than 12 months before any Presidential election, evaluate whether the agency's ethics program has an adequate number of trained agency ethics officials to effectively support a Presidential transition.

(b) Support by the Office of Government Ethics. In connection with any Presidential election, the Office of Government Ethics will:

(1) Prior to the election, offer training opportunities for agency ethics officials on counseling departing noncareer appointees on post-employment restrictions, reviewing financial disclosure reports, drafting ethics agreements for Presidential nominees, and counseling new noncareer appointees on conflict of interest laws and the Standards of Conduct; and

(2) After the election, in the event of a Presidential transition, proactively assist the Presidential Transition Team in preparing for Presidential nominations, coordinate with agency ethics officials, and develop plans to implement new initiatives related to government ethics.

Subpart C Government Ethics Education
§ 2638.301 In general.

Every agency must carry out a government ethics education program to teach employees how to identify government ethics issues and obtain assistance in complying with government ethics laws and regulations. An agency's failure to comply with any of the education or notice requirements set forth in this subpart does not exempt an employee from applicable government ethics requirements.

§ 2638.302 Definitions.

The following definitions apply to the format of the various types of training required in this subpart. The agency may deviate from these prescribed formats to the extent necessary to provide reasonable accommodations to participants under the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112), as amended, or other applicable legal authority.

(a) Live. A training presentation is considered live if the presenter personally communicates a substantial portion of the material at the same time as the employees being trained are receiving the material, even if part of the training is prerecorded or automated. The training may be delivered in person or through video or audio technology. The presenter must respond to questions posed during the training and provide instructions for participants to submit questions after the training.

Example 1.An agency ethics official provides a presentation regarding government ethics and takes questions from participants who are assembled in a training room with the ethics official. At the end of the session, the ethics official provides contact information for participants who wish to pose additional questions. This training is considered live.

Example 2.An agency ethics official provides a presentation to a group of employees in an auditorium. She presents an introduction and a brief overview of the material that will be covered in the training. She has participants watch a prerecorded video regarding government ethics. She stops the video frequently to elaborate on key concepts and offer participants opportunities to pose questions before resuming the video. At the end of the session, she recaps key concepts and answers additional questions. She then provides contact information for employees who wish to pose additional questions. This training is considered live.

Example 3.The ethics official in Example 2 arranges for several Senate-confirmed public filers stationed outside of headquarters to participate in the live training via streaming video or telephone. For these remote participants, the ethics official also establishes a means for them to pose questions during the training, such as by emailing questions to her assistant. She also provides these remote participants with instructions for contacting the ethics office to pose additional questions after the training. This training is also considered live for the remote participants.

Example 4.Agency ethics officials present training via a telephone conference. A few dozen agency employees dial into the conference call. The ethics officials take questions that are submitted by email and provide contact information for employees who wish to pose additional questions later. This training is considered live.

Example 5.Several Senate-confirmed public filers required to complete live training in a particular year are stationed at various facilities throughout the country. For these filers, an ethics official schedules a 20-minute conference call, emails them copies of the written materials and a link to a 40-minute video on government ethics, and instructs them to view the video before the conference call. During the conference call, the ethics official recaps key concepts, takes questions, and provides his contact information in case participants have additional questions. The public filers then confirm by email that they watched the video and participated in the conference call. This training is considered live because a substantial portion of the training was live.

(b) Interactive. A training presentation is considered interactive if the employee being trained is required to take an action with regard to the subject of the training. The required action must involve the employee's use of knowledge gained through the training and may not be limited to merely advancing from one section of the training to another section. Training that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section will also satisfy the requirements of this paragraph.

Example 1.An automated system allows employees to view a prerecorded video in which an agency ethics official provides training. At various points, the system poses questions and an employee selects from among a variety of possible answers. The system provides immediate feedback as to whether the selections are correct or incorrect. When the employee's selections are incorrect, the system displays the correct answer and explains the relevant concepts. This training is considered interactive.

Example 2.If, instead of a video, the training described in Example 1 were to include animated or written materials interspersed with questions and answers, the training would still be considered interactive.

Example 3.A DAEO emails materials to employees who are permitted under part 2638 to complete interactive training. The materials include a written training presentation, questions, and space for employees to provide written responses. Employees are instructed to submit their answers to agency ethics officials, who provide individualized feedback. This training is considered interactive.

Example 4.A DAEO emails materials to employees who are permitted under part 2638 to complete interactive training. The materials include a written training presentation, questions, and an answer key. The DAEO also distributes instructions for contacting an ethics official with any questions about the subjects covered. This training meets the minimum requirements to be considered interactive, even though the employees are not required to submit their answers for review and feedback. However, any DAEO who uses this minimally interactive format is encouraged to provide employees with other opportunities for more direct and personalized feedback.

§ 2638.303 Notice to prospective employees.

Written offers of employment for positions covered by the Standards of Conduct must include the information required in this section to provide prospective employees with notice of the ethical obligations associated with the positions.

(a) Content. The written offer must include, in either the body of the offer or an attachment:

(1) A statement regarding the agency's commitment to government ethics;

(2) Notice that the individual will be subject to the Standards of Conduct and the criminal conflict of interest statutes as an employee;

(3) Contact information for an appropriate agency ethics office or an explanation of how to obtain additional information on applicable ethics requirements;

(4) Where applicable, notice of the time frame for completing initial ethics training; and

(5) Where applicable, a statement regarding financial disclosure requirements and an explanation that new entrant reports must be filed within 30 days of appointment.

(b) DAEO's authority. At the election of the DAEO, the DAEO may specify the language that the agency will use in the notice required under paragraph (a) of this section or may approve, disapprove, or revise language drafted by other agency officials.

(c) Tracking. Each agency must establish written procedures, which the DAEO must review each year, for issuing the notice required in this section. In the case of an agency with 1,000 or more employees, the DAEO must review any submissions under § 2638.310 each year to confirm that the agency has implemented an appropriate process for meeting the requirements of this section.

§ 2638.304 Initial ethics training.

Each new employee of the agency subject to the Standards of Conduct must complete initial ethics training that meets the requirements of this section.

(a) Coverage. (1) This section applies to each employee appointed to a position in an agency who was not an employee of the agency immediately prior to that appointment. This section also permits Presidential nominees for Senate-confirmed positions to complete the initial ethics training prior to appointment.

(2) The DAEO may exclude a non-supervisory position at or below the GS-8 grade level, or the equivalent, from the requirement to complete the training presentation described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, provided that:

(i) The DAEO signs a written determination that the duties of the position do not create a substantial likelihood that conflicts of interest will arise;

(ii) The position does not meet the criteria set forth at § 2634.904 of this chapter; and

(iii) The agency provides an employee described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section who is appointed to the position with the written materials required under paragraph (e)(2) of this section within 3 months of appointment.

(b) Deadline. Except as provided in this paragraph, each new employee must complete initial ethics training within 3 months of appointment.

(1) In the case of a Presidential nominee for a Senate-confirmed position, the nominee may complete the ethics training before or after appointment, but not later than 3 months after appointment.

(2) In the case of a special Government employee who is reasonably expected to serve for no more than 60 days in a calendar year on a board, commission, or committee, the agency may provide the initial ethics training at any time before, or at the beginning of, the employee's first meeting of the board, commission, or committee.

(c) Duration. The duration of the training must be sufficient for the agency to communicate the basic ethical obligations of federal service and to present the content described in paragraph (e) of this section.

(d) Format. Employees covered by this section are required to complete interactive initial ethics training.

(e) Content. The following content requirements apply to initial ethics training.

(1) Training presentation. The training presentation must focus on government ethics laws and regulations that the DAEO deems appropriate for the employees participating in the training. The presentation must address concepts related to the following subjects:

(i) Financial conflicts of interest;

(ii) Impartiality;

(iii) Misuse of position; and

(iv) Gifts.

(2) Written materials. In addition to the training presentation, the agency must provide the employee with either the following written materials or written instructions for accessing them:

(i) The summary of the Standards of Conduct distributed by the Office of Government Ethics or an equivalent summary prepared by the agency;

(ii) Provisions of any supplemental agency regulations that the DAEO determines to be relevant or a summary of those provisions;

(iii) Such other written materials as the DAEO determines should be included; and

(iv) Instructions for contacting the agency's ethics office.

(f) Tracking. Each agency must establish written procedures, which the DAEO must review each year, for initial ethics training. In the case of an agency with 1,000 or more employees, the DAEO must review any submissions under § 2638.310 each year to confirm that the agency has implemented an appropriate process for meeting the requirements of this section.

Example 1.The DAEO of a large agency decides that the agency's ethics officials will conduct live initial ethics training for high-level employees and certain procurement officials. The DAEO directs ethics officials to cover concepts related to financial conflicts of interest, impartiality, misuse of position, and gifts during the live training sessions. She also coordinates with the agency's Chief Information Officer to develop computerized training for all other new employees, and she directs her staff to include concepts related to financial conflicts of interest, impartiality, misuse of position, and gifts in the computerized training. The computerized training poses multiple-choice questions and provides feedback when employees answer the questions. At the DAEO's request, the agency's human resources officials distribute the required written materials as part of the onboarding procedures for new employees. The computerized training automatically tracks completion of the training, and the ethics officials use sign-in sheets to track participation in the live training. After the end of the calendar year, the DAEO reviews the materials submitted by the Office of Human Resources under § 2638.310 to confirm that the agency has implemented procedures for identifying new employees, distributing the written materials, and providing their initial ethics training. The agency's program for initial ethics training complies with the requirements of § 2638.304.

Example 2.The agency head, the DAEO, and the lead human resources official of an agency with more than 1,000 employees have agreed that human resources officials will conduct initial ethics training. The DAEO provides the lead human resources official with written materials for use during the training, approves the content of the presentations, and trains the human resources officials who will conduct the initial ethics training. After the end of the calendar year, the lead human resources official provides the DAEO with a copy of the agency's procedures for identifying new employees and providing initial ethics training, and the lead human resources official confirms that there is a reasonable basis for concluding that the procedures have been implemented. The DAEO reviews these procedures and finds them satisfactory. The agency has complied with its tracking obligations with regard to initial ethics training.

§ 2638.305 Additional ethics briefing for certain agency leaders.

In addition to other applicable requirements, each individual covered by this section must complete an ethics briefing to discuss the individual's immediate ethics obligations. Although the ethics briefing is separate from the initial ethics training, the agency may elect to combine the ethics briefing and the initial ethics training, provided that the requirements of both this section and § 2638.304 are met.

(a) Coverage. This section applies to Senate-confirmed Presidential nominees and appointees, except for those in positions identified in § 2634.201(c)(2) of this chapter.

(b) Deadline. The following deadlines apply to the ethics briefing.

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, each individual covered by this section must complete the ethics briefing after confirmation but not later than 15 days after appointment. The DAEO may grant an extension of the deadline not to exceed 30 days after appointment.

(2)(i) In extraordinary circumstances, the DAEO may grant an additional extension to an individual by issuing a written determination that an extension is necessary. The determination must describe the extraordinary circumstances necessitating the extension, caution the individual to be vigilant for conflicts of interest created by any newly acquired financial interests, remind the individual to comply with any applicable ethics agreement, and be accompanied by a copy of the ethics agreement(s). The DAEO must send a copy of the determination to the individual before expiration of the time period established in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. The agency must conduct the briefing at the earliest practicable date thereafter. The written determination must be retained with the record of the individual's briefing.

(ii) In the case of a special Government employee who is expected to serve for no more than 60 days in a calendar year on a board, commission, or committee, the agency must provide the ethics briefing before the first meeting of the board, commission, or committee.

(c) Qualifications of presenter. The employee conducting the briefing must have knowledge of government ethics laws and regulations and must be qualified, as the DAEO deems appropriate, to answer the types of basic and advanced questions that are likely to arise regarding the required content.

(d) Duration. The duration of the ethics briefing must be sufficient for the agency to communicate the required content.

(e) Format. The ethics briefing must be conducted live.

(f) Content. The ethics briefing must include the following activities.

(1) If the individual acquired new financial interests reportable under section 102 of the Act after filing the nominee financial disclosure report, the agency ethics official must appropriately address the potential for conflicts of interest arising from those financial interests.

(2) The agency ethics official must counsel the individual on the basic recusal obligation under 18 U.S.C. 208(a).

(3) The agency ethics official must explain the recusal obligations and other commitments addressed in the individual's ethics agreement and ensure that the individual understands what is specifically required in order to comply with each of them, including any deadline for compliance. The ethics official and the individual must establish a process by which the recusals will be achieved, which may consist of a screening arrangement or, when the DAEO deems appropriate, vigilance on the part of the individual with regard to recusal obligations as they arise in particular matters.

(4) The agency ethics official must provide the individual with instructions and the deadline for completing initial ethics training, unless the individual completes the initial ethics training either before or during the ethics briefing.

(g) Tracking. The DAEO must maintain a record of the date of the ethics briefing for each current employee covered by this section.

Example 1.A group of ethics officials conducts initial ethics training for six Senate-confirmed Presidential appointees within 15 days of their appointments. At the end of the training, ethics officials meet individually with each of the appointees to conduct their ethics briefings. The agency and the appointees have complied with both § 2638.304 and § 2638.305.

Example 2.The Senate confirms a nominee for a position as an Assistant Secretary. After the nominee's confirmation but several days before her appointment, the nominee completes her initial ethics briefing during a telephone call with an agency ethics official, and the ethics official records the date of the briefing. The agency and the nominee have complied with § 2638.305. During the telephone call, the ethics official also discusses the content required for initial ethics training and provides the nominee with instructions for accessing the required written materials online. The agency and the nominee have also complied with § 2638.304.

§ 2638.306 Notice to new supervisors.

The agency must provide each employee upon initial appointment to a supervisory position with the written information required under this section.

(a) Coverage. This requirement applies to each civilian employee who is required to receive training pursuant to 5 CFR 412.202(b).

(b) Deadline. The agency must provide the written materials required by this section within 1 year of the employee's initial appointment to the supervisory position.

(c) Written materials. The written materials must include contact information for the agency's ethics office and the text of § 2638.103. In addition, a copy of, a hyperlink to, or the address of a Web site containing the Principles of Ethical Conduct must be included, as well as such other information as the DAEO deems necessary for new supervisors.

(d) Tracking. Each agency must establish written procedures, which the DAEO must review each year, for supervisory ethics notices. In the case of an agency with 1,000 or more employees, the DAEO must review any submissions under § 2638.310 each year to confirm that the agency has implemented an appropriate process for meeting the requirements of this section.

§ 2638.307 Annual ethics training for confidential filers and certain other employees.

Each calendar year, employees covered by this section must complete ethics training that meets the following requirements.

(a) Coverage. In any calendar year, this section applies to the following employees, unless they are public filers:

(1) Each employee who is required to file an annual confidential financial disclosure report pursuant to § 2634.904 of this chapter during that calendar year, except an employee who ceases to be a confidential filer before the end of the calendar year;

(2) Employees appointed by the President and employees of the Executive Office of the President;

(3) Contracting officers described in 41 U.S.C. 2101; and

(4) Other employees designated by the head of the agency.

(b) Deadline. The employee must complete required annual ethics training before the end of the calendar year.

(c) Duration. Agencies must provide employees with 1 hour of duty time to complete interactive training and review any written materials.

(d) Format. The following formatting requirements apply.

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, employees covered by this section are required to complete interactive training.

(2) If the DAEO determines that it is impracticable to provide interactive training to a special Government employee covered by this section who is expected to work no more than 60 days in a calendar year, or to an employee who is an officer in the uniformed services serving on active duty for no more 30 consecutive days, only the requirement to provide the written materials required by this section will apply to that employee each year. The DAEO may make the determination as to individual employees or a group of employees.

(e) Content. The following content requirements apply to annual ethics training for employees covered by this section.

(1) Training presentation. The training presentation must focus on government ethics laws and regulations that the DAEO deems appropriate for the employees participating in the training. The presentation must address concepts related to the following subjects:

(i) Financial conflicts of interest;

(ii) Impartiality;

(iii) Misuse of position; and

(iv) Gifts.

(2) Written materials. In addition to the training presentation, the agency must provide the employee with either the following written materials or written instructions for accessing them:

(i) The summary of the Standards of Conduct distributed by the Office of Government Ethics or an equivalent summary prepared by the agency;

(ii) Provisions of any supplemental agency regulations that the DAEO determines to be relevant or a summary of those provisions;

(iii) Such other written materials as the DAEO determines should be included; and

(iv) Instructions for contacting the agency's ethics office.

(f) Tracking. The following tracking requirements apply to training conducted pursuant to this section. An employee covered by this section must confirm in writing the completion of annual ethics training and must comply with any procedures established by the DAEO for such confirmation. If the DAEO or other presenter has knowledge that an employee completed required training, that individual may record the employee's completion of the training, in lieu of requiring the employee to provide written confirmation. In the case of an automated system that delivers interactive training, the DAEO may deem the employee to have confirmed the completion of the training if the system tracks completion automatically.

§ 2638.308 Annual ethics training for public filers.

Each calendar year, public filers and other employees specified in this section must complete ethics training that meets the following requirements.

(a) Coverage. In any calendar year, this section applies to each employee who is required to file an annual public financial disclosure report pursuant to § 2634.201(a) of this chapter during that calendar year, except for an employee who ceases to be a public filer during that calendar year.

(b) Deadline. A public filer must complete required annual ethics training before the end of the calendar year.

(c) Qualifications of presenter. The employee conducting any live training presentation must have knowledge of government ethics laws and regulations and must be qualified, as the DAEO deems appropriate, to answer the types of basic and advanced questions that are likely to arise regarding the required content.

(d) Duration. The duration of training must be sufficient for the agency to communicate the required content, but at least 1 hour. Agencies must provide employees with 1 hour of duty time to complete interactive training and review any written materials.

(e) Format. The annual ethics training must meet the following formatting requirements.

(1) Employees whose pay is set at Level I or Level II of the Executive Schedule must complete 1 hour of live training each year, unless a matter of vital national interest makes it necessary for an employee to complete interactive training in lieu of live training in a particular year.

(2) Other civilian employees identified in section 103(c) of the Act who are stationed in the United States must complete live training once every 2 years and interactive training in alternate years. In extraordinary circumstances, the DAEO may grant written authorization for an employee who is required to complete live training in a particular year to complete interactive training.

(3) All other employees covered by this section must complete interactive training.

(f) Content. The following content requirements apply to annual ethics training for employees covered by this section.

(1) Training presentation. The training presentation must focus on government ethics laws and regulations that the DAEO deems appropriate for the employees participating in the training. The presentation must address concepts related to the following subjects:

(i) Financial conflicts of interest;

(ii) Impartiality;

(iii) Misuse of position; and

(iv) Gifts.

(2) Written materials. In addition to the training presentation, the agency must provide the employee with either the following written materials or written instructions for accessing them:

(i) The summary of the Standards of Conduct distributed by the Office of Government Ethics or an equivalent summary prepared by the agency;

(ii) Provisions of any supplemental agency regulations that the DAEO determines to be relevant or a summary of those provisions;

(iii) Such other written materials as the DAEO determines should be included; and

(iv) Instructions for contacting the agency's ethics office.

(g) Tracking. The following tracking requirements apply to training conducted pursuant to this section. An employee covered by this section must confirm in writing the completion of annual ethics training and must comply with any procedures established by the DAEO for such confirmation. If the DAEO or other presenter has knowledge that an employee completed required training, that individual may record the employee's completion of the training, in lieu of requiring the employee to provide written confirmation. In the case of an automated system that delivers interactive training, the DAEO may deem the employee to have confirmed the completion of the training if the system tracks completion automatically.

Example 1.The DAEO of a small agency distributes the written materials for annual training by emailing a link to a Web site that contains the required materials. He then conducts a live training session for all of the agency's public filers. He spends the first 15 minutes of the training addressing concepts related to financial conflicts of interest, impartiality, misuse of position, and gifts. Because several participants are published authors, he spends the next 15 minutes covering restrictions on compensation for speaking, teaching, and writing. He then spends 20 minutes discussing hypothetical examples related to the work of the agency and 10 minutes answering questions. The training meets the content requirements of this section. Further, because live training satisfies the requirements for interactive training, this training meets the formatting requirements for all public filers, including those required to complete interactive training.

Example 2.An ethics official personally appears at each monthly senior staff meeting to conduct a 10-minute training session on government ethics. Across the year, he addresses concepts related to financial conflicts of interest, impartiality, misuse of position, gifts, and other subjects related to government ethics laws and regulations, although no one session covers all of these subjects. During each meeting, he distributes a one-page handout summarizing the key points of his presentation, takes questions, and provides contact information for employees who wish to pose additional questions. He records the names of the public filers in attendance at each meeting. Once a year, he emails them the required written materials, as well as the one-page summaries. While many of these public filers do not attend all 12 meetings, each attends at least six sessions during the calendar year. Although some of the filers missed the sessions that addressed gifts, they all received the handout summarizing the presentation on gifts. The training satisfies the annual training requirement for the public filers who attended the meetings, including those required to complete interactive training. Moreover, because the ethics official recorded the names of the public filers who attended, the filers are not required to separately confirm their completion of the training.

Example 3.One of the Presidentially appointed, Senate-confirmed employees in Example 2 was required to complete live training that year. Because she attended only four senior staff meetings during the year, she completed only 40 minutes of annual ethics training. The DAEO allows the employee to spend 20 minutes reviewing the handouts and written materials and send an email confirming that she completed her review before the end of the calendar year. This arrangement satisfies the requirements for live annual training because a substantial portion of the training was live.

§ 2638.309 Agency-specific ethics education requirements.

The DAEO may establish additional requirements for the agency's ethics education program, with or without a supplemental agency regulation under § 2635.105 of this chapter.

(a) Groups of employees. The DAEO may establish specific government ethics training requirements for groups of agency employees.

(b) Employees performing ethics duties. The DAEO has an obligation to ensure that employees performing assigned ethics duties have the necessary expertise with regard to government ethics laws and regulations. If the DAEO determines that employees engaged in any activities described in §§ 2638.104 and 2638.105 require training, the DAEO may establish specific training requirements for them either as a group or individually.

(c) Procedures. The DAEO may establish specific procedures for training that the DAEO requires under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, including any certification procedures the DAEO deems necessary. Agency employees must comply with the requirements and procedures that the DAEO establishes under this section.

§ 2638.310 Coordinating the agency's ethics education program.

In an agency with 1,000 or more employees, any office that is not under the supervision of the DAEO but has been delegated responsibility for issuing notices, pursuant to § 2638.303 or § 2638.306, or conducting training, pursuant to § 2638.304, must submit the following materials to the DAEO by January 15 each year:

(a) A written summary of procedures that office has established to ensure compliance with this subpart; and

(b) Written confirmation that there is a reasonable basis for concluding that the procedures have been implemented.

Subpart D Correction of Executive Branch Agency Ethics Programs
§ 2638.401 In general.

The Office of Government Ethics has authority, pursuant to sections 402(b)(9) and 402(f)(1) of the Act, to take the action described in this subpart with respect to deficiencies in agency ethics programs. Agency ethics programs comprise the matters described in this subchapter for which agencies are responsible.

§ 2638.402 Informal action.

If the Director has information indicating that an agency ethics program is not compliant with the requirements set forth in applicable government ethics laws and regulations, the Director is authorized to take any or all of the measures described in this section. The Director may:

(a) Contact agency ethics officials informally to identify the relevant issues and resolve them expeditiously;

(b) Issue a notice of deficiency to make the agency aware of its possible noncompliance with an applicable government ethics law or regulation;

(c) Require the agency to respond in writing to the notice of deficiency;

(d) Require the agency to provide such additional information or documentation as the Director determines to be necessary;

(e) Issue an initial decision with findings as to the existence of a deficiency in the agency's ethics program;

(f) Require the agency to correct or, at the Director's discretion, satisfactorily mitigate any deficiency in its ethics program;

(g) Provide the agency with guidance on measures that would correct or satisfactorily mitigate any program deficiency;

(h) Monitor the agency's efforts to correct or satisfactorily mitigate the deficiency and require the agency to submit progress reports; or

(i) Take other actions authorized under the Act to resolve the matter informally.

§ 2638.403 Formal action.

If the Director determines that informal action, pursuant to § 2638.402, has not produced an acceptable resolution, the Director may issue an order directing the agency to take specific corrective action.

(a) Before issuing such an order, the Director will:

(1) Advise the agency in writing of the deficiency in its ethics program;

(2) Describe the action that the Director is considering taking;

(3) Provide the agency with 30 days to respond in writing; and

(4) Consider any timely written response submitted by the agency.

(b) If the Director is satisfied with the agency's response, no order will be issued.

(c) If the Director decides to issue an order, the order will describe the corrective action to be taken.

(d) If the agency does not comply with the order within a reasonable time, the Director will:

(1) Notify the head of the agency of intent to furnish a report of noncompliance to the President and the Congress;

(2) Provide the agency 14 calendar days within which to furnish written comments for submission with the report of noncompliance; and

(3) Report the agency's noncompliance to the President and to the Congress.

Subpart E Corrective Action Involving Individual Employees
§ 2638.501 In general.

This subpart addresses the Director's limited authority, pursuant to sections 402(b)(9) and 402(f)(2) of the Act, to take certain actions with regard to individual employees if the Director suspects a violation of a noncriminal government ethics law or regulation. Section 402(f)(5) of the Act prohibits the Director from making any finding regarding a violation of a criminal law. Therefore, the Director will refer possible criminal violations to an Inspector General or the Department of Justice, pursuant to § 2638.502. If, however, the Director is concerned about a possible violation of a noncriminal government ethics law or regulation by an employee, the Director may notify the employee's agency, pursuant to § 2638.503. In the rare circumstance that an agency does not address a matter after receiving this notice, the Director may use the procedures in § 2638.504 to issue a nonbinding recommendation of a disciplinary action or an order to terminate an ongoing violation. Nothing in this subpart relieves an agency of its primary responsibility to ensure compliance with government ethics laws and regulations.

§ 2638.502 Violations of criminal provisions related to government ethics.

Consistent with section 402(f) of the Act, nothing in this subpart authorizes the Director or any agency official to make a finding as to whether a provision of title 18, United States Code, or any other criminal law of the United States outside of such title, has been or is being violated. If the Director has information regarding the violation of a criminal law by an individual employee, the Director will notify an Inspector General or the Department of Justice.

§ 2638.503 Recommendations and advice to employees and agencies.

The Director may make such recommendations and provide such advice to employees or agencies as the Director deems necessary to ensure compliance with applicable government ethics laws and regulations. The Director's authority under this section includes the authority to communicate with agency heads and other officials regarding government ethics and to recommend that the agency investigate a matter or consider taking disciplinary or corrective action against individual employees.

§ 2638.504 Violations of noncriminal provisions related to government ethics.

In the rare case that consultations made pursuant to § 2638.503 have not resolved the matter, the Director may use the procedures in this section if the Director has reason to believe that an employee is violating, or has violated, any noncriminal government ethics law or regulation. Any proceedings pursuant to this section will be conducted in accordance with applicable national security requirements.

(a) Agency investigation. The Director may recommend that the agency head or the Inspector General conduct an investigation. If the Director determines thereafter that an agency head has not conducted an investigation within a reasonable time, the Director will notify the President.

(b) Initiating further proceedings. Following an investigation pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section or a determination by the Director that an investigation has not been conducted within a reasonable time, the Director may either initiate further proceedings under this section or close the involvement of the Office of Government Ethics in the matter.

(1) If the Director initiates further proceedings, the Director will notify the employee in writing of the suspected violation, the right to respond orally and in writing, and the right to be represented. The notice will include instructions for submitting a written response and requesting an opportunity to present an oral response, copies of this section and sections 401-403 of the Act, and copies of the material relied upon by the Office of Government Ethics.

(2) If the Director is considering issuing an order directing the employee to take specific action to terminate an ongoing violation, the Director will also provide notice of the potential issuance of an order and the right to request a hearing, pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section.

(c) Employee's response. The employee will be provided with a reasonable opportunity to present an oral response to the General Counsel of the Office of Government Ethics within 30 calendar days of the date of the employee's receipt of the notice described in paragraph (b) of this section. If the employee fails to timely request an opportunity to present an oral response or fails to cooperate with reasonable efforts to schedule the oral response, only a timely submitted written response will be considered.

(d) General Counsel's recommendation. After affording the employee 30 calendar days to respond, the General Counsel will provide the Director with a written recommendation as to the action warranted by the circumstances. However, if the employee has timely exercised an applicable right to request a hearing pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section, the provisions of paragraph (g) will apply instead of the provisions of this paragraph.

(1) If the employee has not had an opportunity to comment on any newly obtained material relied upon for the recommendation, the General Counsel will provide the employee with an opportunity to comment on that material before submitting the recommendation to the Director.

(2) The recommendation will include findings of fact and a conclusion as to whether it is more likely than not that a violation has occurred. The General Counsel will provide the Director with copies of the material relied upon for the recommendation, including any timely written response and a transcript of any oral response of the employee.

(3) In the case of an ongoing violation, the General Counsel may recommend an order directing the employee to take specific action to terminate the violation, provided that the employee has been afforded the notice required under paragraph (f) of this section and an opportunity for a hearing.

(e) Decisions and orders of the Director. After reviewing the recommendation of the General Counsel pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section or, in the event of a hearing, the recommendation of the administrative law judge pursuant to paragraph (g)(7) of this section, the Director may issue a decision and, if applicable, an order. The authority of the Director to issue decisions and orders under this paragraph may not be delegated to any other official. The Director's decision will include written findings and conclusions with respect to all material issues and will be supported by substantial evidence of record.

(1) A copy of the decision and order will be furnished to the employee and, if applicable, the employee's representative. Copies will also be provided to the DAEO and the head of the agency or, where the employee is the head of an agency, to the President. The Director's decision and any order will be posted on the official Web site of the Office of Government Ethics, except to the extent prohibited by law.

(2) The Director's decision may include a nonbinding recommendation that appropriate disciplinary or corrective action be taken against the employee. If the agency head does not take the action recommended within a reasonable period of time, the Director may notify the President.

(3) In the case of an ongoing violation, the Director may issue an order directing the employee to take specific action to terminate the violation, provided that the employee has been afforded the notice required under paragraph (f) of this section and an opportunity for a hearing.

(f) Notice of the right to request a hearing regarding an order to terminate a violation. Before an order to terminate an ongoing violation may be recommended or issued under this section, the employee must be provided with written notice of the potential issuance of an order, the right to request a hearing, and instructions for requesting a hearing.

(1) If the employee submits a written request for a hearing within 30 calendar days of the date of the employee's receipt of the notice, the hearing will be conducted pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section;

(2) If the employee does not submit a written request for a hearing within 30 days of receipt of the notice, the General Counsel may issue a recommendation, pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section, in lieu of a hearing after first considering any timely response of the employee, pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section; and

(3) If the employee timely submits written requests for both a hearing, pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section, and an oral response, pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, only a hearing will be conducted, pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section.

(g) Hearings. If, after receiving a notice required pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section, the employee submits a timely request for a hearing, an administrative law judge who has been appointed under 5 U.S.C. 3105 will serve as the hearing officer, and the following procedures will apply to the hearing. An employee of the Office of Government Ethics will be assigned to provide the administrative law judge with logistical support in connection with the hearing.

(1) The General Counsel of the Office of Government Ethics will designate attorneys to present evidence and argument at the hearing in support of a possible finding that the employee is engaging in an ongoing violation. The General Counsel will serve as Advisor to the Director and will not, in connection with the presentation of evidence and argument against the employee, direct or supervise these attorneys. Any attorney who presents evidence, argument, or testimony against the employee at the hearing will be recused from assisting the Director or the General Counsel in connection with the contemplated order.

(2) The administrative law judge will issue written instructions for the conduct of the hearing, including deadlines for submitting lists of proposed witnesses and exchanging copies of documentary evidence. The hearing will be conducted informally, and the administrative law judge may make such rulings as are necessary to ensure that the hearing is conducted equitably and expeditiously.

(3) The parties to the hearing will be the employee and the attorneys of the Office of Government Ethics designated to present evidence and arguments supporting a finding that a violation is ongoing, respectively. The parties will not engage in ex parte communications with the administrative law judge, unless the administrative law judge authorizes limited ex parte communications regarding scheduling and logistical matters.

(4) If either party requests assistance in securing the appearance of an approved witness who is an employee, the administrative law judge may, at his or her discretion, notify the General Counsel, who will assist the Director in requesting that the head of the employing agency produce the witness, pursuant to section 403(a)(1) of the Act. The Director will notify the President if an agency head fails to produce the approved witness.

(5) The hearing will be conducted on the record and witnesses will be placed under oath and subject to cross-examination. Following the hearing, the administrative law judge will provide each party with a copy of the hearing transcript.

(6) Hearings will generally be open to the public, but the administrative law judge may issue a written order closing, in whole or in part, the hearing in the best interests of national security, the employee, a witness, or an affected person. The order will set forth the reasons for closing the hearing and, along with any objection to the order by a party, will be made a part of the record. Unless specifically excluded by the administrative law judge, the DAEO of the employee's agency will be permitted to attend a closed hearing. If the administrative law judge denies a request by a party or an affected person to close the hearing, in whole or in part, that denial will be immediately appealable by the requester. The requester must file a notice of appeal with the Director within 3 working days. In the event that such a notice is filed, the hearing will be held in abeyance pending resolution of the appeal. The notice of appeal, exclusive of attachments, may not exceed 10 pages of double-spaced type. The Director will afford the parties and, if not a party, the requester the opportunity to make an oral presentation in person or via telecommunications technology within 3 working days of the filing of the appeal. The oral presentation will be conducted on the record. If the appellant or either party is unavailable to participate in the oral presentation within the 3-working-day period, the Director will convene the oral presentation without that party or affected person. The Director will issue a decision on the appeal within 3 working days of the oral presentation. If the Director is unavailable during this time period, the Director may designate a senior executive of the Office of Government Ethics to hear the oral presentation and decide the appeal. The notice of appeal, the record of the oral presentation, the decision on the appeal, and any other document considered by the Director or the Director's designee in connection with the appeal will be made a part of the record of the hearing.

(7) After closing the record, the administrative law judge will certify the entire record to the Director for decision. When so certifying the record, the administrative law judge will make a recommended decision, which will include his or her written findings of fact and conclusions of law with respect to material issues. After considering the certified record, the Director may issue a decision and an order, pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section.

(h) Dismissal. The Director may dismiss a proceeding under this section at any time, without a finding as to the alleged violation, upon a finding that:

(1) The employee or the agency has taken appropriate action to address the Director's concerns;

(2) The employee has undertaken, or agreed in writing to undertake, measures the Director deems satisfactory; or

(3) A question has arisen involving the potential application of a criminal law.

(i) Notice procedure. The notices required by paragraphs (b)(1) and (f) of this section may be delivered by U.S. mail, electronic mail, or personal delivery. There will be a rebuttable presumption that notice sent by U.S. mail is received within 5 working days. If the agency does not promptly provide the Office of Government Ethics with an employee's contact information upon request, the notice may be sent to the agency's DAEO, who will bear responsibility for promptly delivering that notice to the employee and promptly notifying the Director after its delivery.

Subpart F General Provisions
§ 2638.601 Authority and purpose.

(a) Authority. The regulations of this part are issued pursuant to the authority of titles I and IV of the Ethics in Government Act of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-521, as amended) (“the Act”).

(b) Purpose. These executive branch regulations supplement and implement titles I, IV and V of the Act and set forth more specifically certain procedures provided in those titles, and furnish examples, where appropriate.

(c) Agency authority. Subject only to the authority of the Office of Government Ethics as the supervising ethics office for the executive branch, all authority conferred on agencies in this subchapter B of chapter XVI of title 5 of the Code of Federal Regulations is sole and exclusive authority.

§ 2638.602 Agency regulations.

Each agency may, subject to the prior approval of the Office of Government Ethics, issue regulations not inconsistent with this part and this subchapter, using the procedures set forth in § 2635.105 of this chapter.

§ 2638.603 Definitions.

For the purposes of this part:

Act means the Ethics in Government Act of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-521, as amended).

ADAEO or Alternate Designated Agency Ethics Official means an officer or employee who is designated by the head of the agency as the primary deputy to the DAEO in coordinating and managing the agency's ethics program in accordance with the provisions of § 2638.104.

Agency or agencies means any executive department, military department, Government corporation, independent establishment, board, commission, or agency, including the United States Postal Service and Postal Regulatory Commission, of the executive branch.

Agency head means the head of an agency. In the case of a department, it means the Secretary of the department. In the case of a board or commission, it means the Chair of the board or commission.

Confidential filer means an employee who is required to file a confidential financial disclosure report pursuant to § 2634.904 of this chapter.

Conflict of interest laws means 18 U.S.C. 202-209, and conflict of interest law means any provision of 18 U.S.C. 202-209.

Corrective action means any action necessary to remedy a past violation or prevent a continuing violation of this part, including but not limited to restitution, change of assignment, disqualification, divestiture, termination of an activity, waiver, the creation of a qualified diversified or blind trust, or counseling.

DAEO or Designated Agency Ethics Official means an officer or employee who is designated by the head of the agency to coordinate and manage the agency's ethics program in accordance with the provisions of § 2638.104.

Department means a department of the executive branch.

Director means the Director of the Office of Government Ethics.

Disciplinary action means those disciplinary actions referred to in Office of Personnel Management regulations and instructions implementing provisions of title 5 of the United States Code or provided for in comparable provisions applicable to employees not subject to title 5.

Employee means any officer or employee of an agency, including a special Government employee. It includes officers but not enlisted members of the uniformed services. It includes employees of a state or local government or other organization who are serving on detail to an agency, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3371, et seq. It does not include the President or Vice President. Status as an employee is unaffected by pay or leave status or, in the case of a special Government employee, by the fact that the individual does not perform official duties on a given day.

Executive branch includes each executive agency as defined in 5 U.S.C. 105 and any other entity or administrative unit in the executive branch. However, it does not include any agency, entity, office, or commission that is defined by or referred to in 5 U.S.C. app. sections 109(8)-(11) of the Act as within the judicial or legislative branch.

Government ethics laws and regulations include, among other applicable authorities, the provisions related to government ethics or financial disclosure of the following authorities:

(1) Chapter 11 of title 18 of the United States Code;

(2) The Ethics in Government Act of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-521, as amended);

(3) The Stop Trading on Congressional Knowledge Act of 2012 (STOCK Act) (Pub. L. 112-105, as amended);

(4) Executive Order 12674 (Apr. 12, 1989) as amended by Executive Order 12731 (Oct. 17, 1990); and

(5) Subchapter B of this chapter.

Lead human resources official means the agency's chief policy advisor on all human resources management issues who is charged with selecting, developing, training, and managing a high-quality, productive workforce. For agencies covered by the Chief Human Capital Officers Act of 2002 (Pub. L. 107-296), the Chief Human Capital Officer is the lead human resources official.

Person includes an individual, partnership, corporation, association, government agency, or public or private organization.

Principles of Ethical Conduct means the collection of general principles set forth in § 2635.101(b) of this chapter.

Public filer means an employee, former employee, or nominee who is required to file a public financial disclosure report, pursuant to § 2634.202 of this chapter.

Senior executive means a career or noncareer appointee in the Senior Executive Service or equivalent federal executive service. It also includes employees in Senior Level (SL) and Senior Technical (ST) positions. In addition, it includes equivalent positions in agencies that do not have a federal executive service.

Special Government employee means an employee who meets the definition at 18 U.S.C. 202(a). The term does not relate to a specific category of employee, and 18 U.S.C. 202(a) is not an appointment authority. The term describes individuals appointed to positions in the executive branch, the legislative branch, any independent agency of the United States, or the District of Columbia who are covered less expansively by conflict of interest laws at 18 U.S.C. 202-209. As a general matter, an individual appointed to a position in the legislative or executive branch who is expected to serve for 130 days or less during any period of 365 consecutive days is characterized as a special Government employee. The appointment of special Government employees is not administered or overseen by the Office of Government Ethics but is carried out under legal authorities administered by the Office of Personnel Management and other agencies.

Standards of Conduct means the Standards of Ethical Conduct for Employees of the Executive Branch set forth in part 2635 of this chapter.

§ 2638.604 Key program dates.

Except as amended by program advisories of the Office of Government Ethics, the following list summarizes key deadlines of the executive branch ethics program:

(a) January 15 is the deadline for:

(1) The Office of Government Ethics to issue its year-end status reports, pursuant to § 2638.108(a)(11); and

(2) In an agency with 1,000 or more employees, any office not under the supervision of the DAEO that provides notices or training required under subpart C of this part to provide a written summary and confirmation, pursuant to § 2638.310.

(b) February 1 is the deadline for the DAEO to submit the annual report on the agency's ethics program, pursuant to § 2638.207.

(c) February 15 is the deadline for employees to file annual confidential financial disclosure reports, pursuant to § 2634.903(a) of this chapter.

(d) May 15 is the deadline for employees to file annual public financial disclosure reports, pursuant to § 2634.201(a) of this chapter.

(e) May 31 is the deadline for the agency to submit required travel reports to the Office of Government Ethics, pursuant to § 2638.107(g).

(f) July 1 is the deadline for the DAEO to submit a letter stating whether components currently designated should remain designated, pursuant to § 2641.302(e)(2) of this chapter.

(g) November 30 is the deadline for the agency to submit required travel reports to the Office of Government Ethics, pursuant to § 2638.107(h).

(h) December 31 is the deadline for completion of annual ethics training for employees covered by §§ 2638.307 and 2638.308.

(i) By the deadline specified in the request is the deadline, pursuant to § 2638.202, for submission of all documents and information requested by the Office of Government Ethics in connection with a review of the agency's ethics program, except when the submission of the information or reports would be prohibited by law.

(j) Prior to appointment whenever practicable but in no case more than 15 days after appointment is the deadline, pursuant to § 2638.105(a)(1), for the lead human resources official to notify the DAEO that the agency has appointed a confidential or public financial disclosure filer.

(k) Prior to termination whenever practicable but in no case more than 15 days after termination is the deadline, pursuant to § 2638.105(a)(2), for the lead human resources official to notify the DAEO of the termination of a public financial disclosure filer.

(l) Within 15 days of appointment is the deadline for certain agency leaders to complete ethics briefings, pursuant to § 2638.305(b).

(m) Within 30 days of designation is the deadline for the agency head to notify the Director of the designation of any DAEO or ADAEO, pursuant to § 2638.107(a).

(n) Within 3 months of appointment is the deadline for new employees to complete initial ethics training, pursuant to § 2638.304(b).

(o) Within 1 year of appointment is the deadline for new supervisors to receive supervisory ethics notices, pursuant to § 2638.306(b).

(p) Not later than 12 months before any Presidential election is the deadline for the agency head or the DAEO to evaluate whether the agency's ethics program has an adequate number of trained agency ethics officials to deliver effective support in the event of a Presidential transition, pursuant to § 2638.210(a).

PART 2640 INTERPRETATION, EXEMPTIONS AND WAIVER GUIDANCE CONCERNING 18 U.S.C. 208 (ACTS AFFECTING A PERSONAL FINANCIAL INTEREST)

Authority: 5 U.S.C. App. (Ethics in Government Act of 1978); 18 U.S.C. 208; E.O. 12674, 54 FR 15159, 3 CFR, 1989 Comp., p. 215, as modified by E.O. 12731, 55 FR 42547, 3 CFR, 1990 Comp., p. 306.

Source: 61 FR 66841, Dec. 18, 1996, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General Provisions
§ 2640.101 Purpose.

18 U.S.C. 208(a) prohibits an officer or employee of the executive branch, of any independent agency of the United States, of the District of Columbia, or Federal Reserve bank director, officer, or employee, or any special Government employee from participating in an official capacity in particular matters in which he has a personal financial interest, or in which certain persons or organizations with which he is affiliated have a financial interest. The statute is intended to prevent an employee from allowing personal interests to affect his official actions, and to protect governmental processes from actual or apparent conflicts of interests. However, in certain cases, the nature and size of the financial interest and the nature of the matter in which the employee would act are unlikely to affect an employee's official actions. Accordingly, the statute permits waivers of the disqualification provision in certain cases, either on an individual basis or pursuant to general regulation. Section 208(b)(2) provides that the Director of the Office of Government Ethics may, by regulation, exempt from the general prohibition, financial interests which are too remote or too inconsequential to affect the integrity of the services of the employees to which the prohibition applies. The regulations in this part describe those financial interests. This part also provides guidance to agencies on the factors to consider when issuing individual waivers under 18 U.S.C. 208 (b)(1) or (b)(3), and provides an interpretation of 18 U.S.C. 208(a).

§ 2640.102 Definitions.

For purposes of this part:

(a) Diversified means that the fund, trust or plan does not have a stated policy of concentrating its investments in any industry, business, single country other than the United States, or bonds of a single State within the United States and, in the case of an employee benefit plan, means that the plan's trustee has a written policy of varying plan investments.

Note to paragraph (a):

A mutual fund is diversified for purposes of this part if it does not have a policy of concentrating its investments in an industry, business, country other than the United States, or single State within the United States. Whether a mutual fund meets this standard may be determined by checking the fund's prospectus or by calling a broker or the manager of the fund. An employee benefit plan is diversified if the plan manager has a written policy of varying assets. This policy might be found in materials describing the plan or may be obtained in a written statement from the plan manager. It is important to note that a mutual fund or employee benefit plan that is diversified for purposes of this part may not necessarily be an excepted investment fund (EIF) for purposes of reporting financial interests pursuant to 5 CFR 2634.310(c) and 2634.907(i)(3). In some cases, an employee may have to report the underlying assets of a fund or plan on his financial disclosure statement even though an exemption set forth in this part would permit the employee to participate in a matter affecting the underlying assets of the fund or plan. Conversely, there may be situations in which no exemption in this part is applicable to the assets of a fund or plan which is properly reported as an EIF on the employee's financial disclosure statement.

(b) Employee means an officer or employee of the executive branch of the United States, or of any independent agency of the United States, a Federal Reserve bank director, officer, or employee, an officer or employee of the District of Columbia, or any other individual subject to requirements of 18 U.S.C. 208. The term also includes a special Government employee as defined in 18 U.S.C. 202.

(c) Employee benefit plan means a plan as defined in section 3(3) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, 29 U.S.C. 1002(3), and that has more than one participant. An employee benefit plan is any plan, fund or program established or maintained by an employer or an employee organization, or both, to provide its participants medical, disability, death, unemployment, or vacation benefits, training programs, day care centers, scholarship funds, prepaid legal services, deferred income, or retirement income.

(d) He, his, and him include she, hers, and her.

(e) Holdings means portfolio of investments.

(f) Independent trustee means a trustee who is independent of the sponsor and the participants in a plan, or is a registered investment advisor.

(g) Institution of higher education means an educational institution as defined in 20 U.S.C. 1141(a).

(h) Issuer means a person who issues or proposes to issue any security, or has any outstanding security which it has issued.

(i) Long-term Federal Government security means a bond or note, except for a U.S. Savings bond, with a maturity of more than one year issued by the United States Treasury pursuant to 31 U.S.C. chapter 31.

(j) Municipal security means direct obligation of, or obligation guaranteed as to principal or interest by, a State (or any of its political subdivisions, or any municipal corporate instrumentality of one or more States), or the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, or any other possession of the United States.

(k) Mutual fund means an entity which is registered as a management company under the Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 et seq.). For purposes of this part, the term mutual fund includes open-end and closed-end mutual funds and registered money market funds.

(l) Particular matter involving specific parties includes any judicial or other proceeding, application, request for a ruling or other determination, contract, claim, controversy, investigation, charge, accusation, arrest or other particular matter involving a specific party or parties. The term typically involves a specific proceeding affecting the legal rights of the parties, or an isolatable transaction or related set of transactions between identified parties.

(m) Particular matter of general applicability means a particular matter that is focused on the interests of a discrete and identifiable class of persons, but does not involve specific parties.

(n) Pension plan means any plan, fund or program maintained by an employer or an employee organization, or both, to provide retirement income to employees, or which results in deferral of income for periods extending to, or beyond, termination of employment.

(o) Person means an individual, corporation, company, association, firm, partnership, society or any other organization or institution.

(p) Publicly traded security means a security as defined in paragraph (r) of this section and which is:

(1) Registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission pursuant to section 12 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78l) and listed on a national or regional securities exchange or traded through NASDAQ;

(2) Issued by an investment company registered pursuant to section 8 of the Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended (15 U.S.C. 80a-8); or

(3) A corporate bond registered as an offering with the Securities and Exchange Commission under section 12 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78l) and issued by an entity whose stock is a publicly traded security.

Note to paragraph (p):

National securities exchanges include the American Stock Exchange and the New York Stock Exchange. Regional exchanges include Boston, Cincinnati, Intermountain (Salt Lake City), Midwest (Chicago), Pacific (Los Angeles and San Francisco), Philadelphia (Philadelphia and Miami), and Spokane stock exchanges.

(q) Sector mutual fund or sector unit investment trust means a mutual fund or unit investment trust that concentrates its investments in an industry, business, single country other than the United States, or bonds of a single State within the United States.

(r) Security means common stock, preferred stock, corporate bond, municipal security, long-term Federal Government security, and limited partnership interest. The term also includes “mutual fund” for purposes of § 2640.202(e) and (f) and § 2640.203(a).

(s) Short-term Federal Government security means a bill with a maturity of one year or less issued by the United States Treasury pursuant to 31 U.S.C. chapter 31.

(t) Special Government employee means those executive branch officers or employees specified in 18 U.S.C. 202(a). A special Government employee is retained, designated, appointed or employed to perform temporary duties either on a full-time or intermittent basis, with or without compensation, for a period not to exceed 130 days during any consecutive 365-day period.

(u) Unit investment trust means an investment company as defined in 15 U.S.C. 80a-4(2) that is a regulated investment company under 26 U.S.C. 851.

(v) United States Savings bond means a savings bond issued by the United States Treasury pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3105.

[61 FR 66841, Dec. 18, 1996, as amended at 67 FR 12445, Mar. 19, 2002; 71 FR 28239, May 16, 2006; 78 FR 14441, Mar. 6, 2013; 81 FR 61100, Sept. 6, 2016]

§ 2640.103 Prohibition.

(a) Statutory prohibition. Unless permitted by 18 U.S.C. 208(b) (1)-(4), an employee is prohibited by 18 U.S.C. 208(a) from participating personally and substantially in an official capacity in any particular matter in which, to his knowledge, he or any other person specified in the statute has a financial interest, if the particular matter will have a direct and predictable effect on that interest. The restrictions of 18 U.S.C. 208 are described more fully in 5 CFR 2635.401 and 2635.402.

(1) Particular matter. The term “particular matter” includes only matters that involve deliberation, decision, or action that is focused upon the interests of specific persons, or a discrete and identifiable class of persons. The term may include matters which do not involve formal parties and may extend to legislation or policy making that is narrowly focused on the interests of a discrete and identifiable class of persons. It does not, however, cover consideration or adoption of broad policy options directed to the interests of a large and diverse group of persons. The particular matters covered by this part include a judicial or other proceeding, application or request for a ruling or other determination, contract, claim, controversy, charge, accusation or arrest.

Example 1:The Overseas Private Investment Corporation decides to hire a contractor to conduct EEO training for its employees. The award of a contract for training services is a particular matter.

Example 2:The spouse of a high level official of the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) requests a meeting on behalf of her client (a major U.S. corporation) with IRS officials to discuss a provision of IRS regulations governing depreciation of equipment. The spouse will be paid a fee by the corporation for arranging and attending the meeting. The consideration of the spouse's request and the decision to hold the meeting are particular matters in which the spouse has a financial interest.

Example 3:A regulation published by the Department of Agriculture applicable only to companies that operate meat packing plants is a particular matter.

Example 4:A change by the Department of Labor to health and safety regulations applicable to all employers in the United States is not a particular matter. The change in the regulations is directed to the interests of a large and diverse group of persons.

Example 5:The allocation of additional resources to the investigation and prosecution of white collar crime by the Department of Justice is not a particular matter. Similarly, deliberations on the general merits of an omnibus bill such as the Tax Reform Act of 1986 are not sufficiently focused on the interests of specific persons, or a discrete and identifiable group of persons to constitute participation in a particular matter.

Example 6:The recommendations of the Council of Economic Advisors to the President about appropriate policies to maintain economic growth and stability are not particular matters. Discussions about economic growth policies are directed to the interests of a large and diverse group of persons.

Example 7:The formulation and implementation of the response of the United States to the military invasion of a U.S. ally is not a particular matter. General deliberations, decisions and actions concerning a response are based on a consideration of the political, military, diplomatic and economic interests of every sector of society and are too diffuse to be focused on the interests of specific individuals or entities. However, at the time consideration is given to actions focused on specific individuals or entities, or a discrete and identifiable class of individuals or entities, the matters under consideration would be particular matters. These would include, for example, discussions whether to close a particular oil pumping station or pipeline in the area where hostilities are taking place, or a decision to seize a particular oil field or oil tanker.

Example 8:A legislative proposal for broad health care reform is not a particular matter because it is not focused on the interests of specific persons, or a discrete and identifiable class of persons. It is intended to affect every person in the United States. However, consideration and implementation, through regulations, of a section of the health care bill limiting the amount that can be charged for prescription drugs is sufficiently focused on the interests of pharmaceutical companies that it would be a particular matter.

(2) Personal and substantial participation. To participate “personally” means to participate directly. It includes the direct and active supervision of the participation of a subordinate in the matter. To participate “substantially” means that the employee's involvement is of significance to the matter. Participation may be substantial even though it is not determinative of the outcome of a particular matter. However, it requires more than official responsibility, knowledge, perfunctory involvement, or involvement on an administrative or peripheral issue. A finding of substantiality should be based not only on the effort devoted to the matter, but also on the importance of the effort. While a series of peripheral involvements may be insubstantial, the single act of approving or participating in a critical step may be substantial. Personal and substantial participation may occur when, for example, an employee participates through decision, approval, disapproval, recommendation, investigation or the rendering of advice in a particular matter.

Example 1 to paragraph (a)(2):An agency's Office of Enforcement is investigating the allegedly fraudulent marketing practices of a major corporation. One of the agency's personnel specialists is asked to provide information to the Office of Enforcement about the agency's personnel ceiling so that the Office can determine whether new employees can be hired to work on the investigation. The employee personnel specialist owns $20,000 worth of stock in the corporation that is the target of the investigation. She does not have a disqualifying financial interest in the matter (the investigation and possible subsequent enforcement proceedings) because her involvement is on a peripheral personnel issue and her participation cannot be considered “substantial” as defined in the statute.

(3) Direct and predictable effect. (i) A particular matter will have a “direct” effect on a financial interest if there is a close causal link between any decision or action to be taken in the matter and any expected effect of the matter on the financial interest. An effect may be direct even though it does not occur immediately. A particular matter will not have a direct effect on a financial interest, however, if the chain of causation is attenuated or is contingent upon the occurrence of events that are speculative or that are independent of, and unrelated to, the matter. A particular matter that has an effect on a financial interest only as a consequence of its effects on the general economy does not have a direct effect within the meaning of this part.

(ii) A particular matter will have a “predictable” effect if there is a real, as opposed to a speculative, possibility that the matter will affect the financial interest. It is not necessary, however, that the magnitude of the gain or loss be known, and the dollar amount of the gain or loss is immaterial.

Example 1:An attorney at the Department of Justice is working on a case in which several large companies are defendants. If the Department wins the case, the defendants may be required to reimburse the Federal Government for their failure to adequately perform work under several contracts with the Government. The attorney's spouse is a salaried employee of one of the companies, working in a division that has no involvement in any of the contracts. She does not participate in any bonus or benefit plans tied to the profitability of the company, nor does she own stock in the company. Because there is no evidence that the case will have a direct and predictable effect on whether the spouse will retain her job or maintain the level of her salary, or whether the company will undergo any reorganization that would affect her interests, the attorney would not have a disqualifying financial interest in the matter. However, the attorney must consider, under the requirements of § 2635.502 of this chapter, whether his impartiality would be questioned if he continues to work on the case.

Example 2:A special Government employee (SGE) whose principal employment is as a researcher at a major university is appointed to serve on an advisory committee that will evaluate the safety and effectiveness of a new medical device to regulate arrhythmic heartbeats. The device is being developed by Alpha Medical Inc., a company which also has contracted with the SGE's university to assist in developing another medical device related to kidney dialysis. There is no evidence that the advisory committee's determinations concerning the medical device under review will affect Alpha Medical's contract with the university to develop the kidney dialysis device. The SGE may participate in the committee's deliberations because those deliberations will not have a direct and predictable effect on the financial interests of the researcher or his employer.

Example 3:The SGE in the preceding example is instead asked to serve on an advisory committee that has been convened to conduct a preliminary evaluation of the new kidney dialysis device developed by Alpha Medical under contract with the employee's university. Alpha's contract with the university requires the university to undertake additional testing of the device to address issues raised by the committee during its review. The committee's actions will have a direct and predictable effect on the university's financial interest.

Example 4:An engineer at the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) was formerly employed by Waste Management, Inc., a corporation subject to EPA's regulations concerning the disposal of hazardous waste materials. Waste Management is a large corporation, with less than 5% of its profits derived from handling hazardous waste materials. The engineer has a vested interest in a defined benefit pension plan sponsored by Waste Management which guarantees that he will receive payments of $500 per month beginning at age 62. As an employee of EPA, the engineer has been assigned to evaluate Waste Management's compliance with EPA hazardous waste regulations. There is no evidence that the engineer's monitoring activities will affect Waste Management's ability or willingness to pay his pension benefits when he is entitled to receive them at age 62. Therefore, the EPA's monitoring activities will not have a direct and predictable effect on the employee's financial interest in his Waste Management pension. However, the engineer should consider whether, under the standards set forth in 5 CFR 2635.502, a reasonable person would question his impartiality if he acts in a matter in which Waste Management is a party.

(b) Disqualifying financial interests. For purposes of 18 U.S.C. 208(a) and this part, the term financial interest means the potential for gain or loss to the employee, or other person specified in section 208, as a result of governmental action on the particular matter. The disqualifying financial interest might arise from ownership of certain financial instruments or investments such as stock, bonds, mutual funds, or real estate. Additionally, a disqualifying financial interest might derive from a salary, indebtedness, job offer, or any similar interest that may be affected by the matter.

Example 1:An employee of the Department of the Interior owns transportation bonds issued by the State of Minnesota. The proceeds of the bonds will be used to fund improvements to certain State highways. In her official position, the employee is evaluating an application from Minnesota for a grant to support a State wildlife refuge. The employee's ownership of the transportation bonds does not create a disqualifying financial interest in Minnesota's application for wildlife funds because approval or disapproval of the grant will not in any way affect the current value of the bonds or have a direct and predictable effect on the State's ability or willingness to honor its obligation to pay the bonds when they mature.

Example 2:An employee of the Bureau of Land Management owns undeveloped land adjacent to Federal lands in New Mexico. A portion of the Federal land will be leased by the Bureau to a mining company for exploration and development, resulting in an increase in the value of the surrounding privately owned land, including that owned by the employee. The employee has a financial interest in the lease of the Federal land to the mining company and, therefore, cannot participate in Bureau matters involving the lease unless he obtains an individual waiver pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1).

Example 3:A special Government employee serving on an advisory committee studying the safety and effectiveness of a new arthritis drug is a practicing physician with a specialty in treating arthritis. The drug being studied by the committee would be a low cost alternative to current treatments for arthritis. If the drug is ultimately approved, the physician will be able to prescribe the less expensive drug. The physician does not own stock in, or hold any position, or have any business relationship with the company developing the drug. Moreover, there is no indication that the availability of a less expensive treatment for arthritis will increase the volume and profitability of the doctor's private practice. Accordingly, the physician has no disqualifying financial interest in the actions of the advisory committee.

(c) Interests of others. The financial interests of the following persons will serve to disqualify an employee to the same extent as the employee's own interests:

(1) The employee's spouse;

(2) The employee's minor child;

(3) The employee's general partner;

(4) An organization or entity which the employee serves as officer, director, trustee, general partner, or employee; and

(5) A person with whom the employee is negotiating for, or has an arrangement concerning, prospective employment.

Example 1:An employee of the Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC) has two minor children who have inherited shares of stock from their grandparents in a company that manufactures small appliances. Unless an exemption is applicable under § 2640.202 or he obtains a waiver under 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1), the employee is disqualified from participating in a CPSC proceeding to require the manufacturer to remove a defective appliance from the market.

Example 2:A newly appointed employee of the Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) is a general partner with three former business associates in a partnership that owns a travel agency. The employee knows that his three general partners are also partners in another partnership that owns a HUD-subsidized housing project. Unless he receives a waiver pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1) permitting him to act, the employee must disqualify himself from particular matters involving the HUD-subsidized project which his general partners own.

Example 3:The spouse of an employee of the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) works for a consulting firm that provides support services to colleges and universities on research projects they are conducting under grants from HHS. The spouse is a salaried employee who has no direct ownership interest in the firm such as through stockholding, and the award of a grant to a particular university will have no direct and predictable effect on his continued employment or his salary. Because the award of a grant will not affect the spouse's financial interest, section 208 would not bar the HHS employee from participating in the award of a grant to a university to which the consulting firm will provide services. However, the employee should consider whether her participation in the award of the grant would be barred under the impartiality provision in the Standards of Ethical Conduct for Employees of the Executive Branch at 5 CFR 2635.502.

(d) Disqualification. Unless the employee is authorized to participate in the particular matter by virtue of an exemption or waiver described in subpart B or subpart C of this part, or the interest has been divested in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, an employee shall disqualify himself from participating in a particular matter in which, to his knowledge, he or any other person specified in the statute has a financial interest, if the particular matter will have a direct and predictable effect on that interest. Disqualification is accomplished by not participating in the particular matter.

(1) Notification. An employee who becomes aware of the need to disqualify himself from participation in a particular matter to which he has been assigned should notify the person responsible for his assignment. An employee who is responsible for his own assignments should take whatever steps are necessary to ensure that he does not participate in the matter from which he is disqualified. Appropriate oral or written notification of the employee's disqualification may be made to coworkers by the employee or a supervisor to ensure that the employee is not involved in a matter from which he is disqualified.

(2) Documentation. An employee need not file a written disqualification statement unless he is required by part 2634 of this chapter to file written evidence of compliance with an ethics agreement with the Office of Government Ethics, is asked by an agency ethics official or the person responsible for his assignment to file a written disqualification statement, or is required to do so by agency supplemental regulation issued pursuant to 5 CFR 2635.105. However, an employee may elect to create a record of his actions by providing written notice to a supervisor or other appropriate official.

Example 1:The supervisor of an employee of the Department of Education asks the employee to attend a meeting on his behalf on developing national standards for science education in secondary schools. When the employee arrives for the meeting, she realizes one of the participants is the president of Education Consulting Associates (ECA), a firm which has been awarded a contract to prepare a bulletin describing the Department's policies on science education standards. The employee's spouse has a subcontract with ECA to provide the graphics and charts that will be used in the bulletin. Because the employee realizes that the meeting will involve matters relating to the production of the bulletin, the employee properly decides that she must disqualify herself from participating in the discussions. After withdrawing from the meeting, the employee should notify her supervisor about the reason for her disqualification. She may elect to put her disqualification statement in writing, or to simply notify her supervisor orally. She may also elect to notify appropriate coworkers about her need to disqualify herself from this matter.

(e) Divestiture of a disqualifying financial interest. Upon sale or other divestiture of the asset or other interest that causes his disqualification from participation in a particular matter, an employee is no longer prohibited from acting in the particular matter.

(1) Voluntary divestiture. An employee who would otherwise be disqualified from participation in a particular matter may voluntarily sell or otherwise divest himself of the interest that causes the disqualification.

(2) Directed divestiture. An employee may be required to sell or otherwise divest himself of the disqualifying financial interest if his continued holding of that interest is prohibited by statute or by agency supplemental regulation issued in accordance with § 2635.403(a) of this chapter, or if the agency determines in accordance with § 2635.403(b) of this chapter that a substantial conflict exists between the financial interest and the employee's duties or accomplishment of the agency's mission.

(3) Eligibility for special tax treatment. An employee who is directed to divest an interest may be eligible to defer the tax consequences of divestiture under subpart J of part 2634 of this chapter. An employee who divests before obtaining a certificate of divestiture will not be eligible for this special tax treatment.

(f) Official duties that give rise to potential conflicts. Where an employee's official duties create a substantial likelihood that the employee may be assigned to a particular matter from which he is disqualified, the employee should advise his supervisor or other person responsible for his assignments of that potential so that conflicting assignments can be avoided, consistent with the agency's needs.

[61 FR 66841, Dec. 18, 1996, as amended at 67 FR 12445, Mar. 19, 2002]

Subpart B Exemptions Pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(2)
§ 2640.201 Exemptions for interests in mutual funds, unit investment trusts, and employee benefit plans.

(a) Diversified mutual funds and unit investment trusts. An employee may participate in any particular matter affecting one or more holdings of a diversified mutual fund or a diversified unit investment trust where the disqualifying financial interest in the matter arises because of the ownership of an interest in the fund or trust.

Example 1 to paragraph (a):An employee owns shares worth $100,000 in several mutual funds whose portfolios contain stock in a small computer company. Each mutual fund prospectus describes the fund as a “management company,” but does not characterize the fund as having a policy of concentrating its investments in any particular industry, business, single country (other than the U.S.) or bonds of a single State. The employee may participate in agency matters affecting the computer company.

Example 2 to paragraph (a):A nonsupervisory employee of the Department of Energy owns shares valued at $75,000 in a mutual fund that expressly concentrates its holdings in the stock of utility companies. The employee may not rely on the exemption in paragraph (a) of this section to act in matters affecting a utility company whose stock is a part of the mutual fund's portfolio because the fund is not a diversified fund as defined in § 2640.102(a). The employee may, however, seek an individual waiver under 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1) permitting him to act.

(b) Sector mutual funds. (1) An employee may participate in any particular matter affecting one or more holdings of a sector mutual fund or a sector unit investment trust where the affected holding is not invested in the sector in which the fund or trust concentrates, and where the disqualifying financial interest in the matter arises because of ownership of an interest in the fund or unit investment trust.

(2)(i) An employee may participate in a particular matter affecting one or more holdings of a sector mutual fund or a sector unit investment trust where the disqualifying financial interest in the matter arises because of ownership of an interest in the fund or the unit investment trust and the aggregate market value of interests in any sector fund or funds and any sector unit investment trust or trusts does not exceed $50,000.

(ii) For purposes of calculating the $50,000 de minimis amount in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, an employee must aggregate the market value of all sector mutual funds and sector unit investment trusts in which he has a disqualifying financial interest and that concentrate in the same sector and have one or more holdings that may be affected by the particular matter.

Example 1 to paragraph (b):An employee of the Federal Reserve owns shares in the mutual fund described in the preceding example. In addition to holdings in utility companies, the mutual fund contains stock in certain regional banks and bank holding companies whose financial interests would be affected by an investigation in which the Federal Reserve employee would participate. The employee is not disqualified from participating in the investigation because the banks that would be affected are not part of the sector in which the fund concentrates.

Example 2 to paragraph (b):A health scientist administrator employed in the Public Health Service at the Department of Health and Human Services is assigned to serve on a Departmentwide task force that will recommend changes in how Medicare reimbursements will be made to health care providers. The employee owns $35,000 worth of shares in the XYZ Health Sciences Fund, a sector mutual fund invested primarily in health-related companies such as pharmaceuticals, developers of medical instruments and devices, managed care health organizations, and acute care hospitals. The health scientist administrator may participate in the recommendations.

Example 3 to paragraph (b):The spouse of the employee in the previous Example owns $40,000 worth of shares in ABC Specialized Portfolios: Healthcare, a sector mutual fund that also concentrates its investments in health-related companies. The two funds focus on the same sector and both contain holdings that may be affected by the particular matter. Because the aggregated value of the two funds exceeds $50,000, the employee may not rely on the exemption.

(c) Employee benefit plans. An employee may participate in:

(1) Any particular matter affecting one or more holdings of an employee benefit plan, where the disqualifying financial interest in the matter arises from membership in:

(i) The Thrift Savings Plan for Federal employees described in 5 U.S.C. 8437;

(ii) A pension plan established or maintained by a State government or any political subdivision of a State government for its employees; or

(iii) A diversified employee benefit plan, provided:

(A) The investments of the plan are administered by an independent trustee, and the employee, or other person specified in section 208(a) does not participate in the selection of the plan's investments or designate specific plan investments (except for directing that contributions be divided among several different categories of investments, such as stocks, bonds or mutual funds, which are available to plan participants); and

(B) The plan is not a profit-sharing or stock bonus plan.

Note to paragraph (c)(1):

Employee benefit plans that are tax deferred under 26 U.S.C. 401(k) are not considered profit-sharing plans for purposes of this section. However, for the exemption to apply, 401(k) plans must meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(1)(iii)(A) of this section.

(2) Particular matters of general applicability, such as rulemaking, affecting the State or local government sponsor of a State or local government pension plan described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section where the disqualifying financial interest in the matter arises because of participation in the plan.

Example 1:An attorney terminates his position with a law firm to take a position with the Department of Justice. As a result of his employment with the firm, the employee has interests in a 401(k) plan, the assets of which are invested primarily in stocks chosen by an independent financial management firm. He also participates in a defined contribution pension plan maintained by the firm, the assets of which are stocks, bonds, and financial instruments. The plan is managed by an independent trustee. Assuming that the manager of the pension plan has a written policy of diversifying plan investments, the employee may act in matters affecting the plan's holdings. The employee may also participate in matters affecting the holdings of his 401(k) plan if the individual financial management firm that selects the plan's investments has a written policy of diversifying the plan's assets. Employee benefit plans that are tax deferred under 26 U.S.C. 401(k) are not considered profit-sharing or stock bonus plans for purposes of this part.

Example 2:An employee of the Department of Agriculture who is a former New York State employee has a vested interest in a pension plan established by the State of New York for its employees. She may participate in an agency matter that would affect a company whose stock is in the pension plan's portfolio. She also may participate in a matter of general applicability affecting all States, including the State of New York, such as the drafting and promulgation of a rule requiring States to expend additional resources implementing the Food Stamp program. Unless she obtains an individual waiver under 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1), she may not participate in a matter involving the State of New York as a party, such as an application by the State for additional Federal funding for administrative support services, if that matter would affect the State's ability or willingness to honor its obligation to pay her pension benefits.

(d) Matters affecting mutual funds and unit investment trusts. In addition to participation in the particular matters affecting the holdings of mutual funds and unit investment trusts as permitted under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, an employee may participate in any particular matter of general applicability affecting a mutual fund or unit investment trust where the disqualifying financial interest arises because of the ownership of an interest in the mutual fund or unit investment trust.

[61 FR 66841, Dec. 18, 1996; 62 FR 1361, Jan. 9, 1997, as amended at 67 FR 12445, Mar. 19, 2002; 70 FR 69043, Nov. 14, 2005; 78 FR 14442, Mar. 6, 2013]

§ 2640.202 Exemptions for interests in securities.

(a) De minimis exemption for matters involving parties. An employee may participate in any particular matter involving specific parties in which the disqualifying financial interest arises from the ownership by the employee, his spouse or minor children of securities issued by one or more entities affected by the matter, if:

(1) The securities are publicly traded, or are long-term Federal Government, or are municipal securities; and

(2) The aggregate market value of the holdings of the employee, his spouse, and his minor children in the securities of all entities does not exceed $15,000.

Example 1 to paragraph (a):An employee owns 100 shares of publicly traded stock valued at $3,000 in XYZ Corporation. As part of his official duties, the employee is evaluating bids for performing computer maintenance services at his agency and discovers that XYZ Corporation is one of the companies that has submitted a bid. The employee is not required to recuse himself from continuing to evaluate the bids.

Example 2 to paragraph (a):In the preceding example, the employee and his spouse each own $8,000 worth of stock in XYZ Corporation, resulting in ownership of $16,000 worth of stock by the employee and his spouse. The exemption in paragraph (a) of this section would not permit the employee to participate in the evaluation of bids because the aggregate market value of the holdings of the employee, spouse and minor children in XYZ Corporation exceeds $15,000. The employee could, however, seek an individual waiver under 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1) in order to participate in the evaluation of bids.

Example 3 to paragraph (a):An employee is assigned to monitor XYZ Corporation's performance of a contract to provide computer maintenance services at the employee's agency. At the time the employee is first assigned these duties, he owns publicly traded stock in XYZ Corporation valued at less than $15,000. During the time the contract is being performed, however, the value of the employee's stock increases to $17,500. When the employee knows that the value of his stock exceeds $15,000, he must disqualify himself from any further participation in matters affecting XYZ Corporation or seek an individual waiver under 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1). Alternatively, the employee may divest the portion of his XYZ stock that exceeds $15,000. This can be accomplished through a standing order with his broker to sell when the value of the stock exceeds $15,000.

(b) De minimis exemption for matters affecting nonparties. An employee may participate in any particular matter involving specific parties in which the disqualifying financial interest arises from the ownership by the employee, his spouse, or minor children of securities issued by one or more entities that are not parties to the matter but that are affected by the matter, if:

(1) The securities are publicly traded, or are long-term Federal Government or municipal securities; and

(2) The aggregate market value of the holdings of the employee, his spouse and minor children in the securities of all affected entities (including securities exempted under paragraph (a) of this section) does not exceed $25,000.

Example 1 to paragraph (b):A Food and Drug Administration advisory committee is asked to review a new drug application from Alpha Drug Co. for a new lung cancer drug. A member of the advisory committee owns $20,000 worth of stock in Mega Drug Co., which manufactures the only similar lung cancer drug on the market. If approved, the Alpha Drug Co.'s drug would directly compete with the drug sold by the Mega Drug Co., resulting in decreased sales of its lung cancer drug. The committee member may participate in the review of the new drug.

(c) De minimis exemption for matters of general applicability. (1) An employee may participate in any particular matter of general applicability, such as rulemaking, in which the disqualifying financial interest arises from the ownership by the employee, his spouse or minor children of securities issued by one or more entities affected by the matter, if:

(i) The securities are publicly traded, or are municipal securities, the market value of which does not exceed:

(A) $25,000 in any one such entity; and

(B) $50,000 in all affected entities; or

(ii) The securities are long-term Federal Government securities, the market value of which does not exceed $50,000.

(2) For purposes of this paragraph (b), the value of securities owned by the employee, his spouse, and minor children must be aggregated in applying the exemption.

Example 1 to paragraph (c):The Bureau of Export Administration at the Department of Commerce is in the process of formulating a regulation concerning exportation of portable computers. The regulation will affect all domestic companies that sell portable computers. An employee of the Department who is assisting in drafting the regulation owns $17,000 worth of stock in CompAmerica and $20,000 worth of stock in XYZ Computer Inc. Even though the employee owns $37,000 worth of stock in companies that will be affected by the regulation, she may participate in drafting the regulation because the value of the securities she owns does not exceed $25,000 in any one affected company and the total value of stock owned in all affected companies does not exceed $50,000.

(d) Exemption for certain Federal Government securities. An employee may participate in any particular matter in which the disqualifying financial interest arises from the ownership of short-term Federal Government securities or from U.S. Savings bonds.

(e) Exemption for interests of tax-exempt organizations. An employee may participate in any particular matter in which the disqualifying financial interest arises from the ownership of publicly traded or municipal securities, or long-term Federal Government securities by an organization which is tax-exempt pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 501(c) (3) or (4), and of which the employee is an unpaid officer, director, or trustee, or an employee, if:

(1) The matter affects only the organization's investments, not the organization directly;

(2) The employee plays no role in making investment decisions for the organization, except for participating in the decision to invest in several different categories of investments such as stocks, bonds, or mutual funds; and

(3) The organization's only relationship to the issuer, other than that which arises from routine commercial transactions, is that of investor.

Example 1:An employee of the Federal Reserve is a director of the National Association to Save Trees (NAST), an environmental organization that is tax-exempt under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code. The employee knows that NAST has an endowment fund that is partially invested in the publicly traded stock of Computer Inc. The employee's position at the Federal Reserve involves the procurement of computer software, including software marketed by Computer Inc. The employee may participate in the procurement of software from Computer Inc. provided that he is not involved in selecting NAST's investments, and that NAST has no relationship to Computer Inc. other than as an investor in the company and routine purchaser of Computer Inc. software.

(f) Exemption for certain interests of general partners. An employee may participate in any particular matter in which the disqualifying financial interest arises from:

(1) The ownership of publicly traded securities, long-term Federal Government securities, or municipal securities by the employee's general partner, provided:

(i) Ownership of the securities is not related to the partnership between the employee and his general partner, and

(ii) The value of the securities does not exceed $200,000; or

(2) Any interest of the employee's general partner if the employee's relationship to the general partner is as a limited partner in a partnership that has at least 100 limited partners.

Example 1:An employee of the Department of Transportation is a general partner in a partnership that owns commercial property. The employee knows that one of his partners owns stock in an aviation company valued at $100,000 because the stock has been pledged as collateral for the purchase of the commercial property by the partnership. In the absence of an individual waiver under 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1), the employee may not act in a matter affecting the aviation company. Because the stock has been pledged as collateral, ownership of the securities is related to the partnership between the employee and his general partner.

Example 2:An employee of the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC) has a limited partnership interest in Ambank Partners, a large partnership with more than 500 limited partners. The partnership assets are invested in the securities of various financial institutions. Ambank's general partner is Capital Investment Services, an investment firm whose pension plan for its own employees is being examined by the PBGC for possible unfunded liabilities. Even though the employee's general partner (Capital Investment Services) has a financial interest in PBGC's review of the pension plan, the employee may participate in the review because his relationship with his general partner is that of a limited partner in a partnership that has at least 100 limited partners.

[61 FR 66841, Dec. 18, 1996; 62 FR 1361, Jan. 9, 1997, as amended at 67 FR 12445, Mar. 19, 2002]

§ 2640.203 Miscellaneous exemptions.

(a) Hiring decisions. An employee may participate in a hiring decision involving an applicant who is currently employed by a corporation that issues publicly traded securities, if the disqualifying financial interest arises from:

(1) Ownership of publicly traded securities issued by the corporation; or

(2) Participation in a pension plan sponsored by the corporation.

(b) Employees on leave from institutions of higher education. An employee on a leave of absence from an institution of higher education may participate in any particular matter of general applicability affecting the financial interests of the institution from which he is on leave, provided that the matter will not have a special or distinct effect on that institution other than as part of a class.

Example 1:An employee at the Department of Defense (DOD) is on a leave of absence from his position as a tenured Professor of Engineering at the University of California (UC) at Berkeley. While at DOD, he is assigned to assist in developing a regulation which will contain new standards for the oversight of grants given by DOD. Even though the University of California at Berkeley is a DOD grantee, and will be affected by these new monitoring standards, the employee may participate in developing the standards because UC Berkeley will be affected only as part of the class of all DOD grantees. However, if the new standards would affect the employee's own financial interest, such as by affecting his tenure or his salary, the employee could not participate in the matter unless he first obtains an individual waiver under section 208(b)(1).

Example 2:An employee on leave from a university could not participate in the development of an agency program of grants specifically designed to facilitate research in jet propulsion systems where the employee's university is one of just two or three universities likely to receive a grant under the new program. Even though the grant announcement is open to all universities, the employee's university is among the very few known to have facilities and equipment adequate to conduct the research. The matter would have a distinct effect on the institution other than as part of a class.

(c) Multi-campus institutions of higher education. An employee may participate in any particular matter affecting one campus of a State multi-campus institution of higher education, if the employee's disqualifying financial interest is employment in a position with no multi-campus responsibilities at a separate campus of the same multi-campus institution.

Example 1:A special Government employee (SGE) member of an advisory committee convened by the National Science Foundation is a full-time professor in the School of Engineering at one campus of a State university. The SGE may participate in formulating the committee's recommendation to award a grant to a researcher at another campus of the same State university system.

Example 2:A member of the Board of Regents at a State university is asked to serve on an advisory committee established by the Department of Health and Human Services to consider applications for grants for human genome research projects. An application from another university that is part of the same State system will be reviewed by the committee. Unless he receives an individual waiver under section 208(b)(1) or (b)(3), the advisory committee member may not participate in matters affecting the second university that is part of the State system because as a member of the Board of Regents, he has duties and responsibilities that affect the entire State educational system.

(d) Exemptions for financial interests arising from Federal Government employment or from Social Security or veterans' benefits. An employee may participate in any particular matter where the disqualifying financial interest arises from Federal Government or Federal Reserve Bank salary or benefits, or from Social Security or veterans' benefits, except an employee may not:

(1) Make determinations that individually or specially affect his own salary and benefits; or

(2) Make determinations, requests, or recommendations that individually or specially relate to, or affect, the salary or benefits of any other person specified in section 208.

Example 1:An employee of the Office of Management and Budget may vigorously and energetically perform the duties of his position even though his outstanding performance would result in a performance bonus or other similar merit award.

Example 2:A policy analyst at the Defense Intelligence Agency may request promotion to another grade or salary level. However, the analyst may not recommend or approve the promotion of her general partner to the next grade.

Example 3:An engineer employed by the National Science Foundation may request that his agency pay the registration fees and appropriate travel expenses required for him to attend a conference sponsored by the Engineering Institute of America. However, the employee may not approve payment of his own travel expenses and registration fees unless he has been delegated, in advance, authority to make such approvals in accordance with agency policy.

Example 4:A GS-14 attorney at the Department of Justice may review and make comments about the legal sufficiency of a bill to raise the pay level of all Federal employees paid under the General Schedule even though her own pay level, and that of her spouse who works at the Department of Labor, would be raised if the bill were to become law.

Example 5:An employee of the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) may assist in drafting a regulation that will provide expanded hospital benefits for veterans, even though he himself is a veteran who would be eligible for treatment in a hospital operated by the VA.

Example 6:An employee of the Office of Personnel Management may participate in discussions with various health insurance providers to formulate the package of benefits that will be available to Federal employees who participate in the Government's Federal Employees Health Benefits Program, even though the employee will obtain health insurance from one of these providers through the program.

Example 7:An employee of the Federal Supply Service Division of the General Services Administration (GSA) may participate in GSA's evaluation of the feasibility of privatizing the entire Federal Supply Service, even though the employee's own position would be eliminated if the Service were privatized.

Example 8:Absent an individual waiver under section 208(b)(1), the employee in the preceding example could not participate in the implementation of a GSA plan to create an employee-owned private corporation which would carry out Federal Supply Service functions under contract with GSA. Because implementing the plan would result not only in the elimination of the employee's Federal position, but also in the creation of a new position in the new corporation to which the employee would be transferred, the employee would have a disqualifying financial interest in the matter arising from other than Federal salary and benefits, or Social Security or veterans benefits.

Example 9:A career member of the Senior Executive Service (SES) at the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) may serve on a performance review board that makes recommendations about the performance awards that will be awarded to other career SES employees at the IRS. The amount of the employee's own SES performance award would be affected by the board's recommendations because all SES awards are derived from the same limited pool of funds. However, the employee's activities on the board involve only recommendations, and not determinations that individually or specially affect his own award. Additionally, 5 U.S.C. 5384(c)(2) requires that a majority of the board's members be career SES employees.

Example 10:In carrying out a reorganization of the Office of General Counsel (OGC) of the Federal Trade Commission, the Deputy General Counsel is asked to determine which of five Senior Executive Service (SES) positions in the OGC to abolish. Because her own position is one of the five SES positions being considered for elimination, the matter is one that would individually or specially affect her own salary and benefits and, therefore, the Deputy may not decide which position should be abolished.

Note to paragraph (d):

This exemption does not permit an employee to take any action in violation of any other statutory or regulatory requirement, such as the prohibition on the employment of relatives at 5 U.S.C. 3110.

(e) Commercial discount and incentive programs. An employee may participate in any particular matter affecting the sponsor of a discount, incentive, or other similar benefit program if the disqualifying financial interest arises because of participation in the program, provided:

(1) The program is open to the general public; and

(2) Participation in the program involves no other financial interest in the sponsor, such as stockholding.

Example 1:An attorney at the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation who is a member of a frequent flier program sponsored by Alpha Airlines may assist in an action against Alpha for failing to make required payments to its employee pension fund, even though the agency action will cause Alpha to disband its frequent flier program.

(f) Mutual insurance companies. An employee may participate in any particular matter affecting a mutual insurance company if the disqualifying financial interest arises because of an interest as a policyholder, unless the matter would affect the company's ability to pay claims required under the terms of the policy or to pay the cash value of the policy.

Example 1:An administrative law judge at the Department of Labor receives dividends from a mutual insurance company which he takes in the form of reduced premiums on his life insurance policy. The amount of the dividend is based upon the company's overall profitability. Nevertheless, he may preside in a Department hearing involving a major corporation insured by the same company even though the insurance company will have to pay the corporation's penalties and other costs if the Department prevails in the hearing.

Example 2:An employee of the Department of Justice is assigned to prosecute a case involving the fraudulent practices of an issuer of junk bonds. While developing the facts pertinent to the case, the employee learns that the mutual life insurance company from which he holds a life insurance policy has invested heavily in these junk bonds. If the Government succeeds in its case, the bonds will be worthless and the corresponding decline in the insurance company's investments will impair the company's ability to pay claims under the policies it has issued. The employee may not continue assisting in the prosecution of the case unless he obtains an individual waiver pursuant to section 208(b)(1).

(g) Exemption for employment interests of special Government employees serving on advisory committees. A special Government employee serving on an advisory committee within the meaning of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app.) may participate in any particular matter of general applicability where the disqualifying financial interest arises from his non-Federal employment or non-Federal prospective employment, provided that the matter will not have a special or distinct effect on the employee or employer other than as part of a class. For purposes of this paragraph, “disqualifying financial interest” arising from non-Federal employment does not include the interests of a special Government employee arising from the ownership of stock in his employer or prospective employer.

Example 1:A chemist employed by a major pharmaceutical company has been appointed to serve on an advisory committee established to develop recommendations for new standards for AIDS vaccine trials involving human subjects. Even though the chemist's employer is in the process of developing an experimental AIDS vaccine and therefore will be affected by the new standards, the chemist may participate in formulating the advisory committee's recommendations. The chemist's employer will be affected by the new standards only as part of the class of all pharmaceutical companies and other research entities that are attempting to develop an AIDS vaccine.

Example 2:The National Cancer Institute (NCI) has established an advisory committee to evaluate a university's performance of an NCI grant to study the efficacy of a newly developed breast cancer drug. An employee of the university may not participate in the evaluation of the university's performance because it is not a matter of general applicability.

Example 3:An engineer whose principal employment is with a major Department of Defense (DOD) contractor is appointed to serve on an advisory committee established by DOD to develop concepts for the next generation of laser-guided missiles. The engineer's employer, as well as a number of other similar companies, has developed certain missile components for DOD in the past, and has the capability to work on aspects of the newer missile designs under consideration by the committee. The engineer owns $20,000 worth of stock in his employer. Because the exemption for the employment interests of special Government employees serving on advisory committees does not extend to financial interests arising from the ownership of stock, the engineer may not participate in committee matters affecting his employer unless he receives an individual waiver under section 208(b)(1) or (b)(3), or determines whether the exemption for interests in securities at § 2640.202(b) applies.

(h) Directors of Federal Reserve Banks. A Director of a Federal Reserve Bank or a branch of a Federal Reserve Bank may participate in the following matters, even though they may be particular matters in which he, or any other person specified in section 208(a), has a disqualifying financial interest:

(1) Establishment of rates to be charged for all advances and discounts by Federal Reserve Banks;

(2) Consideration of monetary policy matters, regulations, statutes and proposed or pending legislation, and other matters of broad applicability intended to have uniform application to banks within the Reserve Bank district;

(3) Approval or ratification of extensions of credit, advances or discounts to a depository institution that has not been determined to be in a hazardous financial condition by the President of the Reserve Bank; or

(4) Approval or ratification of extensions of credit, advances or discounts to a depository institution that has been determined to be in a hazardous financial condition by the President of the Reserve Bank, provided that the disqualifying financial interest arises from the ownership of stock in, or service as an officer, director, trustee, general partner or employee, of an entity other than the depository institution, or its parent holding company or subsidiary of such holding company.

(i) Medical products. A special Government employee serving on an advisory committee within the meaning of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app.) may participate in Federal advisory committee matters concerning medical products if the disqualifying financial interest arises from:

(1) Employment with a hospital or other similar medical facility whose only interest in the medical product or device is purchase of it for use by, or sale to, its patients; or

(2) The use or prescription of medical products for patients.

(j) Nonvoting members of standing technical advisory committees established by the Food and Drug Administration. A special Government employee serving as a nonvoting representative member of an advisory committee established by the Food and Drug Administration pursuant to the requirements of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. app.) and appointed under a statutory authority requiring the appointment of representative members, may participate in any particular matter affecting a disqualifying financial interest in the class which the employee represents. Nonvoting representative members of Food and Drug Administration advisory committees are described in 21 CFR 14.80(b)(2), 14.84, 14.86, and 14.95(a).

Example 1:The FDA's Medical Devices Advisory Committee is established pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 360c(b), which requires that each panel of the Committee include one nonvoting industry representative and one nonvoting consumer representative. An industry representative on the Ophthalmic Devices Panel of this Committee has been appointed as a special Government employee, in accordance with the procedures described at 14 CFR 14.84. The special Government employee may participate in Panel discussions concerning the premarket approval application for a silicone posterior chamber intraocular lens manufactured by MedInc, even though she is employed by, and owns stock in, another company that manufactures a competing product. However, a consumer representative who serves as a special Government employee on the same Panel may not participate in Panel discussions if he owns $30,000 worth of stock in MedInc unless he first obtains an individual waiver under 18 U.S.C. 208 (b)(1) or (b)(3).

(k) Employees of the Tennessee Valley Authority. An employee of the Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA) may participate in developing or approving rate schedules or similar matters affecting the general cost of electric power sold by TVA, if the disqualifying financial interest arises from use of such power by the employee or by any other person specified in section 208(a).

(l) Exemption for financial interests of non-Federal government employers in the decennial census. An employee of the Bureau of the Census at the United States Department of Commerce, who is also an employee of a State, local, or tribal government, may participate in the decennial census notwithstanding the disqualifying financial interests of the employee's non-Federal government employer in the census provided that the employee:

(1) Does not serve in a State, local, or tribal government position which is filled through public election;

(2) Was hired for a temporary position under authority of 13 U.S.C. 23; and

(3) Is serving in a Local Census Office or an Accuracy and Coverage Evaluation function position as an enumerator, crew leader, or field operations supervisor.

(m) Official participation in nonprofit organizations. An employee may participate in any particular matter where the disqualifying financial interest is that of a nonprofit organization in which the employee serves (or is seeking or has an arrangement to serve), solely in an official capacity, as an officer, director or trustee.

Note to paragraph (m):

Nothing in this paragraph shall be deemed independent authority for an agency to assign an employee to serve in an official capacity with a particular nonprofit organization. Agencies will make such determinations based on an evaluation of their own statutory authorities and missions. Individual agency decisions to permit (or not permit) an employee to serve in an official capacity necessarily involve a range of legal, policy, and managerial considerations, and nothing in this paragraph is intended to interfere with an agency's discretion to assign official duties and limit such assignments as the agency deems appropriate.

[61 FR 66841, Dec. 18, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 23128, Apr. 29, 1997; 65 FR 16513, Mar. 29, 2000; 78 FR 14442, Mar. 6, 2013]

§ 2640.204 Prohibited financial interests.

None of the exemptions set forth in §§ 2640.201, 2640.202, or 2640.203 apply to any financial interest held or acquired by an employee, his spouse, or minor child in violation of a statute or agency supplemental regulation issued in accordance with 5 CFR 2635.105, or that is otherwise prohibited under 5 CFR 2635.403(b).

Example 1 to § 2640.204:The Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), in a regulation that supplements part 2635 of this chapter, prohibits certain employees from owning stock in commercial banks. If an OCC employee purchases stock valued at $2,000 in contravention of the regulation, the exemption at § 2640.202(a) for interests arising from the ownership of no more than $15,000 worth of publicly traded stock will not apply to the employee's participation in matters affecting the bank.

[61 FR 66841, Dec. 18, 1996, as amended at 67 FR 12446, Mar. 19, 2002]

§ 2640.205 Employee responsibility.

Prior to taking official action in a matter which an employee knows would affect his financial interest or the interest of another person specified in 18 U.S.C. 208(a), an employee must determine whether one of the exemptions in §§ 2640.201, 2640.202, or 2640.203 would permit his action notwithstanding the existence of the disqualifying interest. An employee who is unsure whether an exemption is applicable in a particular case, should consult an agency ethics official prior to taking action in a particular matter.

§ 2640.206 Existing agency exemptions.

An employee who, prior to January 17, 1997, acted in an official capacity in a particular matter in which he had a financial interest, will be deemed to have acted in accordance with applicable regulations if he acted in reliance on an exemption issued by his employing Government agency pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(2), as in effect prior to November 30, 1989.

Subpart C Individual Waivers
§ 2640.301 Waivers issued pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1).

(a) Requirements for issuing an individual waiver under 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1). Pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1), an agency may determine in an individual case that a disqualifying financial interest in a particular matter or matters is not so substantial as to be deemed likely to affect the integrity of the employee's services to the Government. Upon making that determination, the agency may then waive the employee's disqualification notwithstanding the financial interest, and permit the employee to participate in the particular matter. Waivers issued pursuant to section 208(b)(1) should comply with the following requirements:

(1) The disqualifying financial interest, and the nature and circumstances of the particular matter or matters, must be fully disclosed to the Government official responsible for appointing the employee to his position (or other Government official to whom authority to issue such a waiver for the employee has been delegated);

(2) The waiver must be issued in writing by the Government official responsible for appointing the employee to his position (or other Government official to whom the authority to issue such a waiver for the employee has been delegated);

(3) The waiver should describe the disqualifying financial interest, the particular matter or matters to which it applies, the employee's role in the matter or matters, and any limitations on the employee's ability to act in such matters;

(4) The waiver shall be based on a determination that the disqualifying financial interest is not so substantial as to be deemed likely to affect the integrity of the employee's services to the Government. Statements concerning the employee's good character are not material to, nor a basis for making, such a decision;

(5) The waiver must be issued prior to the employee taking any action in the matter or matters; and

(6) The waiver may apply to both present and future financial interests, provided the interests are described with sufficient specificity.

Note to paragraph (a):

The disqualifying financial interest, the particular matter or matters to which the waiver applies, and the employee's role in such matters do not need to be described with any particular degree of specificity. For example, if a waiver were to apply to all matters which an employee would undertake as part of his official duties, the waiver document would not have to enumerate those duties. The information contained in the waiver, however, should provide a clear understanding of the nature and identity of the disqualifying financial interest, the matters to which the waiver will apply, and the employee's role in such matters.

(b) Agency determination concerning substantiality of the disqualifying financial interest. In determining whether a disqualifying financial interest is sufficiently substantial to be deemed likely to affect the integrity of the employee's services to the Government, the responsible official may consider the following factors:

(1) The type of interest that is creating the disqualification (e.g. stock, bonds, real estate, other securities, cash payment, job offer, or enhancement of a spouse's employment);

(2) The identity of the person whose financial interest is involved, and if the interest is not the employee's, the relationship of that person to the employee;

(3) The dollar value of the disqualifying financial interest, if it is known or can be estimated (e.g. the amount of cash payment which may be gained or lost, the salary of the job which will be gained or lost, the predictable change in either the market value of the stock or the actual or potential profit or loss or cost of the matter to the company issuing the stock, the change in the value of real estate or other securities);

(4) The value of the financial instrument or holding from which the disqualifying financial interest arises (e.g. the face value of the stock, bond, other security or real estate) and its value in relationship to the individual's assets. If the disqualifying financial interest is that of a general partner or organization specified in section 208, this information must be provided only to the extent that it is known by the employee; and

(5) The nature and importance of the employee's role in the matter, including the extent to which the employee is called upon to exercise discretion in the matter.

(6) Other factors which may be taken into consideration include:

(i) The sensitivity of the matter;

(ii) The need for the employee's services in the particular matter; and

(iii) Adjustments that may be made in the employee's duties that would reduce or eliminate the likelihood that the integrity of the employee's services would be questioned by a reasonable person.

§ 2640.302 Waivers issued pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(3).

(a) Requirements for issuing an individual waiver under 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(3). Pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(3), an agency may determine in an individual case that the prohibition of 18 U.S.C. 208(a) should not apply to a special Government employee serving on, or an individual being considered for, appointment to an advisory committee established under the Federal Advisory Committee Act, notwithstanding the fact that the individual has one or more financial interests that would be affected by the activities of the advisory committee. The agency's determination must be based on a certification that the need for the employee's services outweighs the potential for a conflict of interest created by the financial interest involved. Waivers issued pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(3) should comply with the following requirements:

(1) The advisory committee upon which the individual is serving, or will serve, is an advisory committee within the meaning of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, 5 U.S.C. app.;

(2) The waiver must be issued in writing by the Government official responsible for the individual's appointment (or other Government official to which authority to issue such waivers has been delegated) after the official reviews the financial disclosure report filed by the individual pursuant to the Ethics in Government Act of 1978;

(3) The waiver must include a certification that the need for the individual's services on the advisory committee outweighs the potential for a conflict of interest;

(4) The facts upon which the certification is based should be fully described in the waiver, including the nature of the financial interest, and the particular matter or matters to which the waiver applies;

(5) The waiver should describe any limitations on the individual's ability to act in the matter or matters;

(6) The waiver must be issued prior to the individual taking any action in the matter or matters; and

(7) The waiver may apply to both present and future financial interests of the individual, provided the interests are described with sufficient specificity.

(b) Agency certification concerning need for individual's services. In determining whether the need for an individual's services on an advisory committee outweighs the potential for a conflict of interest created by the disqualifying financial interest, the responsible official may consider the following factors:

(1) The type of interest that is creating the disqualification (e.g. stock, bonds, real estate, other securities, cash payment, job offer, or enhancement of a spouse's employment);

(2) The identity of the person whose financial interest is involved, and if the interest is not the individual's, the relationship of that person to the individual;

(3) The uniqueness of the individual's qualifications;

(4) The difficulty of locating a similarly qualified individual without a disqualifying financial interest to serve on the committee;

(5) The dollar value of the disqualifying financial interest, if it is known or can be estimated (e.g. the amount of cash payment which may be gained or lost, the salary of the job which will be gained or lost, the predictable change in either the market value of the stock or the actual or potential profit or loss or cost of the matter to the company issuing the stock, the change in the value of real estate or other securities);

(6) The value of the financial instrument or holding from which the disqualifying financial interest arises (e.g. the face value of the stock, bond, other security or real estate) and its value in relationship to the individual's assets. If the disqualifying financial interest is that of a general partner or organization specified in section 208, this information must be provided only to the extent that it is known by the employee; and

(7) The extent to which the disqualifying financial interest will be affected individually or particularly by the actions of the advisory committee.

§ 2640.303 Consultation and notification regarding waivers.

When practicable, an official is required to consult formally or informally with the Office of Government Ethics prior to granting a waiver referred to in §§ 2640.301 and 2640.302. A copy of each such waiver is to be forwarded to the Director of the Office of Government Ethics.

§ 2640.304 Public availability of agency waivers.

(a) Availability. A copy of an agency waiver issued pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 208 (b)(1) or (b)(3) shall be made available upon request to the public by the issuing agency. Public release of waivers shall be in accordance with the procedures set forth in section 105 of the Ethics in Government Act of 1978, as amended. Those procedures are described in 5 CFR 2634.603.

(b) Limitations on availability. In making a waiver issued pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 208 (b)(1) or (b)(3) publicly available, an agency:

(1) May withhold from public disclosure any information contained in the waiver that would be exempt from disclosure pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552; and

(2) Shall withhold from public disclosure information in a waiver issued pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(3) concerning an individual's financial interestwhich is more extensive than that required to be disclosed by the individual in his financial disclosure report under the Ethics in Government Act of 1978, as amended, or which is otherwise subject to a prohibition on public disclosure under law.

PART 2641 POST-EMPLOYMENT CONFLICT OF INTEREST RESTRICTIONS

Authority: 5 U.S.C. ch. 131; 18 U.S.C. 207; E.O. 12674, 54 FR 15159, 3 CFR, 1989 Comp., p. 215, as modified by E.O. 12731, 55 FR 42547, 3 CFR, 1990 Comp., p. 306.

Source: 73 FR 36186, June 25, 2008, unless otherwise noted.

Subpart A General Provisions
§ 2641.101 Purpose.

18 U.S.C. 207 prohibits certain acts by former employees (including current employees who formerly served in “senior” or “very senior” employee positions) which involve, or may appear to involve, the unfair use of prior Government employment. None of the restrictions of section 207 prohibits any former employee, regardless of Government rank or position, from accepting employment with any particular private or public employer. Rather, section 207 prohibits a former employee from providing certain services to or on behalf of non-Federal employers or other persons, whether or not done for compensation. These restrictions are personal to the employee and are not imputed to others. (See, however, the note following § 2641.103 concerning 18 U.S.C. 2.)

(a) This part 2641 explains the scope and content of 18 U.S.C. 207 as it applies to former employees of the executive branch or of certain independent agencies (including current employees who formerly served in “senior” or “very senior” employee positions). Although certain restrictions in section 207 apply to former employees of the District of Columbia, Members and elected officials of the Congress and certain legislative staff, and employees of independent agencies in the legislative and judicial branches, this part is not intended to provide guidance to those individuals.

(b) Part 2641 does not address post-employment restrictions that may be contained in laws or authorities other than 18 U.S.C. 207. These restrictions include those in 18 U.S.C. 203 and 41 U.S.C. 423(d).

§ 2641.102 Applicability.

Since its enactment in 1962, 18 U.S.C. 207 has been amended several times. As a consequence of these amendments, former executive branch employees are subject to varying post-employment restrictions depending upon the date they terminated Government service (or service in a “senior” or “very senior” employee position).

(a) Employees terminating on or after January 1, 1991. Former employees who terminated or employees terminating Government service (or service in a “senior” or “very senior” employee position) on or after January 1, 1991, are subject to the provisions of 18 U.S.C. 207 as amended by the Ethics Reform Act of 1989, title I, Public Law 101-194, 103 Stat. 1716 (with amendments enacted by Act of May 4, 1990, Pub. L. 101-280, 104 Stat. 149) and by subsequent amendments. This part 2641 provides guidance concerning section 207 to these former employees.

(b) Employees terminating between July 1, 1979 and December 31, 1990. Former employees who terminated service between July 1, 1979, and December 31, 1990, are subject to the provisions of section 207 as amended by the Ethics in Government Act of 1978, title V, Public Law 95-521, 92 Stat. 1864 (with amendments enacted by Act of June 22, 1979, Pub. L. 96-28, 93 Stat. 76). Regulations providing guidance concerning 18 U.S.C. 207 to these employees were last published in the 2008 edition of title 5 of the Code of Federal Regulations, revised as of January 1, 2008.

(c) Employees terminating prior to July 1, 1979. Former employees who terminated service prior to July 1, 1979, are subject to the provisions of 18 U.S.C. 207 as enacted in 1962 by the Act of October 23, 1962, Public Law 87-849, 76 Stat. 1123.

Note to § 2641.102:

The provisions of this part 2641 reflect amendments to 18 U.S.C. 207 enacted subsequent to the Ethics Reform Act of 1989 and before July 25, 2008. An employee who terminated Government service (or service in a “senior” or “very senior” employee position) between January 1, 1991, and July 25, 2008 may have become subject, upon termination, to a version of the statute that existed prior to the effective date of one or more of those amendments. Those amendments concerned: (1) changes, effective in 1990, 1996, and 2004 concerning the rate of basic pay triggering “senior employee” status for purposes of section 207(c); (2) the reinstatement and subsequent amendment of the Presidential waiver authority in section 207(k); (3) the length of the restriction set forth in section 207(f) as applied to a former United States Trade Representative or Deputy United States Trade Representative; (4) the addition of section 207(j)(7), an exception to section 207(c) and (d); (5) a change to section 207(j)(2)(B), an exception to section 207(c) and (d); (6) the addition of assignees under the Information Technology Exchange Program to the categories of “senior employee” for purposes of section 207(c); (7) the addition of section 207(l), applicable to former private sector assignees under the Information Technology Exchange Program; (8) a change to the length of the restriction set forth in section 207(d); and (9) the addition of a cross-reference in section 207(j)(1)(B) to a revised exception in the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act.

§ 2641.103 Enforcement and penalties.

(a) Enforcement. Criminal and civil enforcement of the provisions of 18 U.S.C. 207 is the responsibility of the Department of Justice. An agency is required to report to the Attorney General any information, complaints or allegations of possible criminal conduct in violation of title 18 of the United States Code, including possible violations of section 207 by former officers and employees. See 28 U.S.C. 535. When a possible violation of section 207 is referred to the Attorney General, the referring agency shall concurrently notify the Director of the Office of Government Ethics of the referral in accordance with 5 CFR 2638.603.

(b) Penalties and injunctions. 18 U.S.C. 216 provides for the imposition of one or more of the following penalties and injunctions for a violation of section 207:

(1) Criminal penalties. 18 U.S.C. 216(a) sets forth the maximum imprisonment terms for felony and misdemeanor violations of section 207. Section 216(a) also provides for the imposition of criminal fines for violations of section 207. For the amount of the criminal fines that may be imposed, see 18 U.S.C. 3571.

(2) Civil penalties. 18 U.S.C. 216(b) authorizes the Attorney General to take civil actions to impose civil penalties for violations of section 207 and sets forth the amounts of the civil fines.

(3) Injunctive relief. 18 U.S.C. 216(c) authorizes the Attorney General to seek an order from a United States District Court to prohibit a person from engaging in conduct which violates section 207.

(c) Other relief. In addition to any other remedies provided by law, the United States may, pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 218, void or rescind contracts, transactions, and other obligations of the United States in the event of a final conviction pursuant to section 207, and recover the amount expended or the thing transferred or its reasonable value.

Note to § 2641.103:

A person or entity who aids, abets, counsels, commands, induces, or procures commission of a violation of section 207 is punishable as a principal under 18 U.S.C. 2.

§ 2641.104 Definitions.

For purposes of this part:

Agency means any department, independent establishment, commission, administration, authority, board or bureau of the United States or Government corporation. The term includes any independent agency not in the legislative or judicial branches.

Agency ethics official means the designated agency ethics official (DAEO) or the alternate DAEO, appointed in accordance with 5 CFR 2638.202(b), and any deputy ethics official described in 5 CFR 2638.204.

Department means one of the executive departments listed in 5 U.S.C. 101.

Designated agency ethics official (DAEO) means the official designated under 5 CFR 2638.201 to coordinate and manage an agency's ethics program.

Employee means, for purposes of determining the individuals subject to 18 U.S.C. 207, any officer or employee of the executive branch or any independent agency that is not a part of the legislative or judicial branches. The term does not include the President or the Vice President, an enlisted member of the Armed Forces, or an officer or employee of the District of Columbia. The term includes an individual appointed as an employee or detailed to the Federal Government under the Intergovernmental Personnel Act (5 U.S.C. 3371-3376) or specifically subject to section 207 under the terms of another statute. It encompasses senior employees, very senior employees, special Government employees, and employees serving without compensation. (This term is redefined elsewhere in this part, as necessary, when the term is used for other purposes.)

Executive branch includes an executive department as defined in 5 U.S.C. 101, a Government corporation, an independent establishment (other than the Government Accountability Office), the Postal Service, the Postal Regulatory Commission, and also includes any other entity or administrative unit in the executive branch.

Former employee means an individual who has completed a period of service as an employee. Unless otherwise indicated, the term encompasses a former senior employee and a former very senior employee. An individual becomes a former employee at the termination of Government service, whereas an individual becomes a former senior employee or a former very senior employee at the termination of service in a senior or very senior employee position.

Example 1 to the definition of former employee:An individual served as an employee of the Agency for International Development, an agency within the executive branch. Since he was, therefore, an “employee” as that term is defined in this section by virtue of having served in the executive branch, he became a “former employee” when he terminated Government service to pursue his hobbies.

Example 2 to the definition of former employee:An individual served as an employee of the Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA). Since the TVA is a corporation owned or controlled by the Government of the United States, she served as an employee in the “executive branch” as that term is defined in this section. She became a “former employee,” therefore, when she terminated Government service to do some traveling.

Example 3 to the definition of former employee:An individual terminated a GS-14 position in the executive branch to accept a position in the legislative branch. He did not become a “former employee” when he terminated service in the executive branch since he did not terminate “Government service” as that term is defined in this section.

Example 4 to the definition of former employee:An individual is appointed by the President to serve as a special Government employee on the Oncological Drug Advisory Committee at the Department of Health and Human Services. The special Government employee meets with the committee five days per year. She does not terminate Government service at the end of each meeting of the committee and therefore does not at that time become a “former employee.” She becomes a “former employee” when her appointment terminates, provided that she is not reappointed without break in service to the same or another Federal Government position.

Example 5 to the definition of former employee:An individual is a Major in the U.S. Army Reserve. The Major earns points toward retirement by participating in weekend drills and performing active duty for training for two weeks each year. The Major is not a special Government employee when he performs weekend drills, but is considered to be one while on active duty for training. The Major is considered to be a “former employee” when he terminates each period of active duty for training.

Example 6 to the definition of former employee:A foreign service officer served as a “senior employee” of the Department of State. After retiring, and with no break in service, he accepted a civil service appointment on a temporary basis, at the GS-15 level. Since he did not terminate Government service, he did not become a “former employee” when he retired from the foreign service. He did, however, become a “former senior employee.”

Former senior employee is an individual who terminates service in a senior employee position (without successive Government service in another senior position).

Former very senior employee is an individual who terminates service in a very senior employee position (without successive Government service in another very senior employee position).

Government corporation means, for purposes of determining the individuals subject to 18 U.S.C. 207, a corporation that is owned or controlled by the Government of the United States. For purposes of identifying or determining individuals with whom post-employment contact is restricted, matters to which the United States is a party or has a direct and substantial interest, decisions which a former senior or very senior employee cannot seek to influence on behalf of a foreign entity, and whether a former employee is acting on behalf of the United States, it means a corporation in which the United States has a proprietary interest as distinguished from a custodial or incidental interest as shown by the functions, financing, control, and management of the corporation.

Government service means a period of time during which an individual is employed by the Federal Government without a break in service. As applied to a special Government employee (SGE), Government service refers to the period of time covered by the individual's appointment or appointments (or other act evidencing employment with the Government), regardless of any interval or intervals between days actually served. See example 4 to the definition of former employee in this section. In the case of Reserve officers of the Armed Forces or officers of the National Guard of the United States who are not otherwise employees of the United States, Government service shall be considered to end upon the termination of a period of active duty or active duty for training during which they served as SGEs. See example 5 to the definition of former employee in this section.

He, his, and him include she, hers, and her, and vice versa.

Judicial branch means the Supreme Court of the United States; the United States courts of appeals; the United States district courts; the Court of International Trade; the United States bankruptcy courts; any court created pursuant to Article I of the United States Constitution, including the United States Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces, the United States Claims Court, and the United States Tax Court, but not including a court of a territory or possession of the United States; the Federal Judicial Center; and any other agency, office, or entity in the judicial branch.

Legislative branch means the Congress; it also means the Office of the Architect of the Capitol, the United States Botanic Garden, the Government Accountability Office, the Government Printing Office, the Library of Congress, the Office of Technology Assessment, the Congressional Budget Office, the United States Capitol Police, and any other agency, entity, office, or commission established in the legislative branch.

Person includes an individual, corporation, company, association, firm, partnership, society, joint stock company, or any other organization, institution, or entity, including any officer, employee, or agent of such person or entity. Unless otherwise indicated, the term is all-inclusive and applies to commercial ventures and nonprofit organizations as well as to foreign, State and local governments. The term includes the “United States” as that term is defined in § 2641.301(a)(1).

Senior employee means an employee, other than a very senior employee, who is:

(1) Employed in a position for which the rate of pay is specified in or fixed according to 5 U.S.C. 5311-5318 (the Executive Schedule);

(2) Employed in a position for which the employee is paid at a rate of basic pay which is equal to or greater than 86.5 percent of the rate of basic pay for level II of the Executive Schedule; or, for a period of two years following November 24, 2003, was employed on November 23, 2003 in a position for which the rate of basic pay was equal to or greater than the rate of basic pay payable for level 5 of the Senior Executive Service; for purposes of this paragraph, “rate of basic pay” does not include locality-based adjustments or additional pay such as bonuses, awards and various allowances;

(3) Appointed by the President to a position under 3 U.S.C. 105(a)(2)(B);

(4) Appointed by the Vice President to a position under 3 U.S.C. 106(a)(1)(B);

(5) An active duty commissioned officer of the uniformed services serving in a position for which the pay grade (as specified in 37 U.S.C. 201) is pay grade O-7 or above; or

(6) Assigned from a private sector organization under chapter 37 of 5 U.S.C. (Information Technology Exchange Program).

Example 1 to the definition of senior employee:A former administrative law judge serves on a commission created within the executive branch to adjudicate certain claims arising from a recent military operation. The position is uncompensated but the judge receives travel expenses. The judge is not employed in a position for which the rate of pay is specified in or fixed according to the Executive Schedule, is not serving in a position to which he was appointed by the President or Vice President under 3 U.S.C. 105(a)(2)(B) or 106(a)(1)(B), and is not employed in a position for which his rate of basic pay is equal to or greater than 86.5 percent of the rate of basic pay for level II of the Executive Schedule. He is not a senior employee.

Example 2 to the definition of senior employee:A doctor is hired to fill a “senior-level” position and is initially compensated pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 5376 at a rate of basic pay slightly less than 86.5 percent of the rate of basic pay payable for level II of the Executive Schedule. If both the annual pay adjustment provided for in 5 CFR 534.504 and the periodic pay adjustment authorized in 5 CFR 534.503 result in a rate of basic pay equal to or above 86.5 percent of the rate of basic pay payable for level II of the Executive Schedule, the doctor will become a senior employee.

Example 3 to the definition of senior employee:A criminal investigator in the Office of the Inspector General at the Department of Housing and Urban Development is a GS-15 employee but also receives Law Enforcement Availability Pay (LEAP), pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 5545a. Even if the sum of the employee's LEAP payment plus the employee's basic pay for GS-15 equaled 86.5 percent of the rate of basic pay for level II of the Executive Schedule, LEAP is not considered part of an employee's “rate of basic pay” for purposes of section 207(c), and therefore the employee would not be a “senior employee.”

Special Government employee means an officer or employee of the executive branch or an independent agency, as specified in 18 U.S.C. 202(a). A special Government employee is retained, designated, appointed, or employed to perform temporary duties either on a full-time or intermittent basis, with or without compensation, for a period not to exceed 130 days during any period of 365 consecutive days.

State means one of the fifty States of the United States and the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and any territory or possession of the United States.

Very senior employee means an employee who is:

(1) Employed in a position which is either listed in 5 U.S.C. 5312 or for which the rate of pay is equal to the rate of pay payable for level I of the Executive Schedule;

(2) Employed in a position in the Executive Office of the President which is either listed in 5 U.S.C. 5313 or for which the rate of pay is equal to the rate of pay payable for level II of the Executive Schedule;

(3) Appointed by the President to a position under 3 U.S.C. 105(a)(2)(A); or

(4) Appointed by the Vice President to a position under 3 U.S.C. 106(a)(1)(A).

§ 2641.105 Advice.

(a) Agency ethics officials. Current or former employees or others who have questions about 18 U.S.C. 207 or about this part 2641 should seek advice from a designated agency ethics official or another agency ethics official. The agency in which an individual formerly served has the primary responsibility to provide oral or written advice concerning a former employee's post-employment activities. An agency ethics official, in turn, may consult with other agencies, such as those before whom a post-employment communication or appearance is contemplated, and with the Office of Government Ethics.

(b) Office of Government Ethics. The Office of Government Ethics (OGE) will provide advice to agency ethics officials and others concerning 18 U.S.C. 207 and this part 2641. OGE may provide advice orally or through issuance of a written advisory opinion and shall, as appropriate, consult with the agency or agencies concerned and with the Department of Justice.

(c) Effect of advice. Reliance on the oral or written advice of an agency ethics official or the OGE cannot ensure that a former employee will not be prosecuted for a violation of 18 U.S.C. 207. However, good faith reliance on such advice is a factor that may be taken into account by the Department of Justice (DOJ) in the selection of cases for prosecution. In the case in which OGE issues a formal advisory opinion in accordance with subpart C of 5 CFR part 2638, the DOJ will not prosecute an individual who acted in good faith in accordance with that opinion. See 5 CFR 2638.309.

(d) Contacts to seek advice. A former employee will not be deemed to act on behalf of any other person in violation of 18 U.S.C. 207 when he contacts an agency ethics official or other employee of the United States for the purpose of seeking guidance concerning the applicability or meaning of section 207 as applied to his own activities.

(e) No personal attorney-client privilege. A current or former employee who discloses information to an agency ethics official, to a Government attorney, or to an employee of the Office of Government Ethics does not personally enjoy an attorney-client privilege with respect to such communications.

§ 2641.106 Applicability of certain provisions to Vice President.

Subsections 207(d) (relating to restrictions on very senior personnel) and 207(f) (restrictions with regard to foreign entities) of title 18, United States Code, apply to a Vice President, to the same extent as they apply to employees and former employees covered by those provisions. See §§ 2641.205 and 2641.206. There are no other restrictions in 18 U.S.C. 207 applicable to a Vice President.

Subpart B Prohibitions
§ 2641.201 Permanent restriction on any former employee's representations to United States concerning particular matter in which the employee participated personally and substantially.

(a) Basic prohibition of 18 U.S.C. 207(a)(1). No former employee shall knowingly, with the intent to influence, make any communication to or appearance before an employee of the United States on behalf of any other person in connection with a particular matter involving a specific party or parties, in which he participated personally and substantially as an employee, and in which the United States is a party or has a direct and substantial interest.

(b) Exceptions and waivers. The prohibition of 18 U.S.C. 207(a)(1) does not apply to a former employee who is:

(1) Acting on behalf of the United States. See § 2641.301(a).

(2) Acting as an elected State or local government official. See § 2641.301(b).

(3) Communicating scientific or technological information pursuant to procedures or certification. See § 2641.301(e).

(4) Testifying under oath. See § 2641.301(f). (Note that this exception from § 2641.201 is generally not available for expert testimony. See § 2641.301(f)(2).)

(5) Acting on behalf of an international organization pursuant to a waiver. See § 2641.301(h).

(6) Acting as an employee of a Government-owned, contractor-operated entity pursuant to a waiver. See § 2641.301(i).

(c) Commencement and length of restriction. 18 U.S.C. 207(a)(1) is a permanent restriction that commences upon an employee's termination from Government service. The restriction lasts for the life of the particular matter involving specific parties in which the employee participated personally and substantially.

(d) Communication or appearance—(1) Communication. A former employee makes a communication when he imparts or transmits information of any kind, including facts, opinions, ideas, questions or direction, to an employee of the United States, whether orally, in written correspondence, by electronic media, or by any other means. This includes only those communications with respect to which the former employee intends that the information conveyed will be attributed to himself, although it is not necessary that any employee of the United States actually recognize the former employee as the source of the information.

(2) Appearance. A former employee makes an appearance when he is physically present before an employee of the United States, in either a formal or informal setting. Although an appearance also may be accompanied by certain communications, an appearance need not involve any communication by the former employee.

(3) Behind-the-scenes assistance. Nothing in this section prohibits a former employee from providing assistance to another person, provided that the assistance does not involve a communication to or an appearance before an employee of the United States.

Example 1 to paragraph (d):A former employee of the Federal Bureau of Investigation makes a brief telephone call to a colleague in her former office concerning an ongoing investigation. She has made a communication. If she personally attends an informal meeting with agency personnel concerning the matter, she will have made an appearance.

Example 2 to paragraph (d):A former employee of the National Endowment for the Humanities (NEH) accompanies other representatives of an NEH grantee to a meeting with the agency. Even if the former employee does not say anything at the meeting, he has made an appearance (although that appearance may or may not have been made with the intent to influence, depending on the circumstances).

Example 3 to paragraph (d):A Government employee administered a particular contract for agricultural research with Q Company. Upon termination of her Government employment, she is hired by Q Company. She works on the matter covered by the contract, but has no direct contact with the Government. At the request of a company vice president, she prepares a paper describing the persons at her former agency who should be contacted and what should be said to them in an effort to increase the scope of funding of the contract and to resolve favorably a dispute over a contract clause. She may do so.

Example 4 to paragraph (d):A former employee of the National Institutes of Health (NIH) prepares an application for an NIH research grant on behalf of her university employer. The application is signed and submitted by another university officer, but it lists the former employee as the principal investigator who will be responsible for the substantive work under the grant. She has not made a communication. She also may sign an assurance to the agency that she will be personally responsible for the direction and conduct of the research under the grant, pursuant to § 2641.201(e)(2)(iv). Moreover, she may personally communicate scientific or technological information to NIH concerning the application, provided that she does so under circumstances indicating no intent to influence the Government pursuant to § 2641.201(e)(2) or she makes the communication in accordance with the exception for scientific or technological information in § 2641.301(e).

Example 5 to paragraph (d):A former employee established a small government relations firm with a highly specialized practice in certain environmental compliance issues. She prepared a report for one of her clients, which she knew would be presented to her former agency by the client. The report is not signed by the former employee, but the document does bear the name of her firm. The former employee expects that it is commonly known throughout the industry and the agency that she is the author of the report. If the report were submitted to the agency, the former employee would be making a communication and not merely confining herself to behind-the-scenes assistance, because the circumstances indicate that she intended the information to be attributed to herself.

(e) With the intent to influence—(1) Basic concept. The prohibition applies only to communications or appearances made by a former Government employee with the intent to influence the United States. A communication or appearance is made with the intent to influence when made for the purpose of:

(i) Seeking a Government ruling, benefit, approval, or other discretionary Government action; or

(ii) Affecting Government action in connection with an issue or aspect of a matter which involves an appreciable element of actual or potential dispute or controversy.

Example 1 to paragraph (e)(1):A former employee of the Administration on Children and Families (ACF) signs a grant application and submits it to ACF on behalf of a nonprofit organization for which she now works. She has made a communication with the intent to influence an employee of the United States because her communication was made for the purpose of seeking a Government benefit.

Example 2 to paragraph (e)(1):A former Government employee calls an agency official to complain about the auditing methods being used by the agency in connection with an audit of a Government contractor for which the former employee serves as a consultant. The former employee has made a communication with the intent to influence because his call was made for the purpose of seeking Government action in connection with an issue involving an appreciable element of dispute.

(2) Intent to influence not present. Certain communications to and appearances before employees of the United States are not made with the intent to influence, within the meaning of paragraph (e)(1) of this section, including, but not limited to, communications and appearances made solely for the purpose of:

(i) Making a routine request not involving a potential controversy, such as a request for publicly available documents or an inquiry as to the status of a matter;

(ii) Making factual statements or asking factual questions in a context that involves neither an appreciable element of dispute nor an effort to seek discretionary Government action, such as conveying factual information regarding matters that are not potentially controversial during the regular course of performing a contract;

(iii) Signing and filing the tax return of another person as preparer;

(iv) Signing an assurance that one will be responsible as principal investigator for the direction and conduct of research under a Federal grant (see example 4 to paragraph (d) of this section);

(v) Filing a Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) Form 10-K or similar disclosure forms required by the SEC;

(vi) Making a communication, at the initiation of the Government, concerning work performed or to be performed under a Government contract or grant, during a routine Government site visit to premises owned or occupied by a person other than the United States where the work is performed or would be performed, in the ordinary course of evaluation, administration, or performance of an actual or proposed contract or grant; or

(vii) Purely social contacts (see example 4 to paragraph (f) of this section).

Example 1 to paragraph (e)(2):A former Government employee calls an agency to ask for the date of a scheduled public hearing on her client's license application. This is a routine request not involving a potential controversy and is not made with the intent to influence.

Example 2 to paragraph (e)(2):In the previous example, the agency's hearing calendar is quite full, as the agency has a significant backlog of license applications. The former employee calls a former colleague at the agency to ask if the hearing date for her client could be moved up on the schedule, so that her client can move forward with its business plans more quickly. This is a communication made with the intent to influence.

Example 3 to paragraph (e)(2):A former employee of the Department of Defense (DOD) now works for a firm that has a DOD contract to produce an operator's manual for a radar device used by DOD. In the course of developing a chapter about certain technical features of the device, the former employee asks a DOD official certain factual questions about the device and its properties. The discussion does not concern any matter that is known to involve a potential controversy between the agency and the contractor. The former employee has not made a communication with the intent to influence.

Example 4 to paragraph (e)(2):A former medical officer of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) sends a letter to the agency in which he sets out certain data from safety and efficacy tests on a new drug for which his employer, ABC Drug Co., is seeking FDA approval. Even if the letter is confined to arguably “factual” matters, such as synopses of data from clinical trials, the communication is made for the purpose of obtaining a discretionary Government action,i.e., approval of a new drug. Therefore, this is a communication made with the intent to influence.

Example 5 to paragraph (e)(2):A former Government employee now works for a management consulting firm, which has a Government contract to produce a study on the efficiency of certain agency operations. Among other things, the contract calls for the contractor to develop a range of alternative options for potential restructuring of certain internal Government procedures. The former employee would like to meet with agency representatives to present a tentative list of options developed by the contractor. She may not do so. There is a potential for controversy between the Government and the contractor concerning the extent and adequacy of any options presented, and, moreover, the contractor may have its own interest in emphasizing certain options as opposed to others because some options may be more difficult and expensive for the contractor to develop fully than others.

Example 6 to paragraph (e)(2):A former employee of the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) prepares his client's tax return, signs it as preparer, and mails it to the IRS. He has not made a communication with the intent to influence. In the event that any controversy should arise concerning the return, the former employee may not represent the client in the proceeding, although he may answer direct factual questions about the records he used to compile figures for the return, provided that he does not argue any theories or positions to justify the use of one figure rather than another.

Example 7 to paragraph (e)(2):An agency official visits the premises of a prospective contractor to evaluate the testing procedure being proposed by the contractor for a research contract on which it has bid. A former employee of the agency, now employed by the contractor, is the person most familiar with the technical aspects of the proposed testing procedure. The agency official asks the former employee about certain technical features of the equipment used in connection with the testing procedure. The former employee may provide factual information that is responsive to the questions posed by the agency official, as such information is requested by the Government under circumstances for its convenience in reviewing the bid. However, the former employee may not argue for the appropriateness of the proposed testing procedure or otherwise advocate any position on behalf of the contractor.

(3) Change in circumstances. If, at any time during the course of a communication or appearance otherwise permissible under paragraph (e)(2) of this section, it becomes apparent that circumstances have changed which would indicate that any further communication or appearance would be made with the intent to influence, the former employee must refrain from such further communication or appearance.

Example 1 to paragraph (e)(3):A former Government employee accompanies another employee of a contractor to a routine meeting with agency officials to deliver technical data called for under a Government contract. During the course of the meeting, an unexpected dispute arises concerning certain terms of the contract. The former employee may not participate in any discussion of this issue. Moreover, if the circumstances clearly indicate that even her continued presence during this discussion would be an appearance made with the intent to influence, she should excuse herself from the meeting.

(4) Mere physical presence intended to influence. Under some circumstances, a former employee's mere physical presence, without any communication by the employee concerning any material issue or otherwise, may constitute an appearance with the intent to influence an employee of the United States. Relevant considerations include such factors as whether:

(i) The former employee has been given actual or apparent authority to make any decisions, commitments, or substantive arguments in the course of the appearance;

(ii) The Government employee before whom the appearance is made has substantive responsibility for the matter and does not simply perform ministerial functions, such as the acceptance of paperwork;

(iii) The former employee's presence is relatively prominent;

(iv) The former employee is paid for making the appearance;

(v) It is anticipated that others present at the meeting will make reference to the views or past or present work of the former employee;

(vi) Circumstances do not indicate that the former employee is present merely for informational purposes, for example, merely to listen and record information for later use;

(vii) The former employee has entered a formal appearance in connection with a legal proceeding at which he is present; and

(viii) The appearance is before former subordinates or others in the same chain of command as the former employee.

Example 1 to paragraph (e)(4):A former Regional Administrator of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) becomes a consultant for a company being investigated for possible enforcement action by the regional OSHA office. She is hired by the company to coordinate and guide its response to the OSHA investigation. She accompanies company officers to an informal meeting with OSHA, which is held for the purpose of airing the company's explanation of certain findings in an adverse inspection report. The former employee is introduced at the meeting as the company's compliance and governmental affairs adviser, but she does not make any statements during the meeting concerning the investigation. She is paid a fee for attending this meeting. She has made an appearance with the intent to influence.

Example 2 to paragraph (e)(4):A former employee of an agency now works for a manufacturer that seeks agency approval for a new product. The agency convenes a public advisory committee meeting for the purpose of receiving expert advice concerning the product. Representatives of the manufacturer will make an extended presentation of the data supporting the application for approval, and a special table has been reserved for them in the meeting room for this purpose. The former employee does not participate in the manufacturer's presentation to the advisory committee and does not even sit in the section designated for the manufacturer. Rather, he sits in the back of the room in a large area reserved for the public and the media. The manufacturer's speakers make no reference to the involvement or views of the former employee with respect to the matter. Even though the former employee may be recognized in the audience by certain agency employees, he has not made an appearance with the intent to influence because his presence is relatively inconspicuous and there is little to identify him with the manufacturer or the advocacy of its representatives at the meeting.

(f) To or before an employee of the United States—(1) Employee of the United States. For purposes of this paragraph, an “employee of the United States” means the President, the Vice President, and any current Federal employee (including an individual appointed as an employee or detailed to the Federal Government under the Intergovernmental Personnel Act (5 U.S.C. 3371-3376)) who is detailed to or employed by any:

(i) Agency (including a Government corporation);

(ii) Independent agency in the executive, legislative, or judicial branch;

(iii) Federal court; or

(iv) Court-martial.

(2) To or before. Except as provided in paragraph (f)(3) of this section, a communication “to” or appearance “before” an employee of the United States is one:

(i) Directed to and received by an entity specified in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) through (f)(1)(iv) of this section even though not addressed to a particular employee, e.g., as when a former employee mails correspondence to an agency but not to any named employee; or

(ii) Directed to and received by an employee in his capacity as an employee of an entity specified in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) through (f)(1)(iv) of this section, e.g., as when a former employee directs remarks to an employee representing the United States as a party or intervenor in a Federal or non-Federal judicial proceeding. A former employee does not direct his communication or appearance to a bystander who merely happens to overhear the communication or witness the appearance.

(3) Public commentary. (i) A former employee who addresses a public gathering or a conference, seminar, or similar forum as a speaker or panel participant will not be considered to be making a prohibited communication or appearance if the forum:

(A) Is not sponsored or co-sponsored by an entity specified in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) through (f)(1)(iv) of this section;

(B) Is attended by a large number of people; and

(C) A significant proportion of those attending are not employees of the United States.

(ii) In the circumstances described in paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section, a former employee may engage in exchanges with any other speaker or with any member of the audience.

(iii) A former employee also may permit the broadcast or publication of a commentary provided that it is broadcast or appears in a newspaper, periodical, or similar widely available publication.

Example 1 to paragraph (f):A Federal Trade Commission (FTC) employee participated in the FTC's decision to initiate an enforcement proceeding against a particular company. After terminating Government service, the former employee is hired by the company to lobby key Members of Congress concerning the necessity of the proceeding. He may contact Members of Congress or their staff since a communication to or appearance before such persons is not made to or before an “employee of the United States” as that term is defined in paragraph (f)(1) of this section.

Example 2 to paragraph (f):In the previous example, the former FTC employee arranges to meet with a Congressional staff member to discuss the necessity of the proceeding. A current FTC employee is invited by the staff member to attend and is authorized by the FTC to do so in order to present the agency's views. The former employee may not argue his new employer's position at that meeting since his arguments would unavoidably be directed to the FTC employee in his capacity as an employee of the FTC.

Example 3 to paragraph (f):The Department of State granted a waiver pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1) to permit one of its employees to serve in his official capacity on the Board of Directors of a private association. The employee participates in a Board meeting to discuss what position the association should take concerning the award of a recent contract by the Department of Energy (DOE). When a former DOE employee addresses the Board to argue that the association should object to the award of the contract, she is directing her communication to a Department of State employee in his capacity as an employee of the Department of State.

Example 4 to paragraph (f):A Federal Communications Commission (FCC) employee participated in a proceeding to review the renewal of a license for a television station. After terminating Government service, he is hired by the company that holds the license. At a cocktail party, the former employee meets his former supervisor who is still employed by the FCC and begins to discuss the specifics of the license renewal case with him. The former employee is directing his communication to an FCC employee in his capacity as an employee of the FCC. Moreover, as the conversation concerns the license renewal matter, it is not a purely social contact and satisfies the element of the intent to influence the Government within the meaning of paragraph (e) of this section.

Example 5 to paragraph (f):A Federal Trade Commission economist participated in her agency's review of a proposed merger between two companies. After terminating Government service, she goes to work for a trade association that is interested in the proposed merger. She would like to speak about the proposed merger at a conference sponsored by the trade association. The conference is attended by 100 individuals, 50 of whom are employees of entities specified in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) through (f)(1)(iv) of this section. The former employee may speak at the conference and may engage in a discussion of the merits of the proposed merger in response to a question posed by a Department of Justice employee in attendance.

Example 6 to paragraph (f):The former employee in the previous example may, on behalf of her employer, write and permit publication of an op-ed piece in a metropolitan newspaper in support of a particular resolution of the merger proposal.

Example 7 to paragraph (f):ABC Company has a contract with the Department of Energy which requires that contractor personnel work closely with agency employees in adjoining offices and work stations in the same building. After leaving the Department, a former employee goes to work for another corporation that has an interest in performing certain work related to the same contract, and he arranges a meeting with certain ABC employees at the building where he previously worked on the project. At the meeting, he asks the ABC employees to mention the interest of his new employer to the project supervisor, who is an agency employee. Moreover, he tells the ABC employees that they can say that he was the source of this information. The ABC employees in turn convey this information to the project supervisor. The former employee has made a communication to an employee of the Department of Energy. His communication is directed to an agency employee because he intended that the information be conveyed to an agency employee with the intent that it be attributed to himself, and the circumstances indicate such a close working relationship between contractor personnel and agency employees that it was likely that the information conveyed to contractor personnel would be received by the agency.

(g) On behalf of any other person—(1) On behalf of. (i) A former employee makes a communication or appearance on behalf of another person if the former employee is acting as the other person's agent or attorney or if:

(A) The former employee is acting with the consent of the other person, whether express or implied; and

(B) The former employee is acting subject to some degree of control or direction by the other person in relation to the communication or appearance.

(ii) A former employee does not act on behalf of another merely because his communication or appearance is consistent with the interests of the other person, is in support of the other person, or may cause the other person to derive a benefit as a consequence of the former employee's activity.

(2) Any other person. The term “person” is defined in § 2641.104. For purposes of this paragraph, the term excludes the former employee himself or any sole proprietorship owned by the former employee.

Example 1 to paragraph (g):An employee of the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) participated in the decision to grant a private company the right to explore for minerals on certain Federal lands. After retiring from Federal service to pursue her hobbies, the former employee becomes concerned that BLM is misinterpreting a particular provision of the lease. The former employee may contact a current BLM employee on her own behalf in order to argue that her interpretation is correct.

Example 2 to paragraph (g):The former BLM employee from the previous example later joins an environmental organization as an uncompensated volunteer. The leadership of the organization authorizes the former employee to engage in any activity that she believes will advance the interests of the organization. She makes a communication on behalf of the organization when, pursuant to this authority, she writes to BLM on the organization's letterhead in order to present an additional argument concerning the interpretation of the lease provision. Although the organization did not direct her to send the specific communication to BLM, the circumstances establish that she made the communication with the consent of the organization and subject to a degree of control or direction by the organization.

Example 3 to paragraph (g):An employee of the Administration for Children and Families wrote the statement of work for a cooperative agreement to be issued to study alternative workplace arrangements. After terminating Government service, the former employee joins a nonprofit group formed to promote family togetherness. He is asked by his former agency to attend a meeting in order to offer his recommendations concerning the ranking of the grant applications he had reviewed while still a Government employee. The management of the nonprofit group agrees to permit him to take leave to attend the meeting in order to present his personal views concerning the ranking of the applications. Although the former employee is a salaried employee of the non-profit group and his recommendations may be consistent with the group's interests, the circumstances establish that he did not make the communication subject to the control of the group.

Example 4 to paragraph (g):An Assistant Secretary of Defense participated in a meeting at which a defense contractor pressed Department of Defense (DOD) officials to continue funding the contractor's sole source contract to develop the prototype of a specialized robot. After terminating Government service, the former Assistant Secretary approaches the contractor and suggests that she can convince her former DOD colleagues to pursue development of the prototype robot. The contractor agrees that the former Assistant Secretary's proposed efforts could be useful and asks her to set up a meeting with key DOD officials for the following week. Although the former Assistant Secretary is not an employee of the contractor, the circumstances establish that she is acting subject to some degree of control or direction by the contractor.

(h) Particular matter involving a specific party or parties—(1) Basic concept. The prohibition applies only to communications or appearances made in connection with a “particular matter involving a specific party or parties.” Although the statute defines “particular matter” broadly to include “any investigation, application, request for a ruling or determination, rulemaking, contract, controversy, claim, charge, accusation, arrest, or judicial or other proceeding,” 18 U.S.C. 207(i)(3), only those particular matters that involve a specific party or parties fall within the prohibition of section 207(a)(1). Such a matter typically involves a specific proceeding affecting the legal rights of the parties or an isolatable transaction or related set of transactions between identified parties, such as a specific contract, grant, license, product approval application, enforcement action, administrative adjudication, or court case.

Example 1 to paragraph (h)(1):An employee of the Department of Housing and Urban Development approved a specific city's application for Federal assistance for a renewal project. After leaving Government service, she may not represent the city in relation to that application as it is a particular matter involving specific parties in which she participated personally and substantially as a Government employee.

Example 2 to paragraph (h)(1):An attorney in the Department of Justice drafted provisions of a civil complaint that is filed in Federal court alleging violations of certain environmental laws by ABC Company. The attorney may not subsequently represent ABC before the Government in connection with the lawsuit, which is a particular matter involving specific parties.

(2) Matters of general applicability not covered. Legislation or rulemaking of general applicability and the formulation of general policies, standards or objectives, or other matters of general applicability are not particular matters involving specific parties. International agreements, such as treaties and trade agreements, must be evaluated in light of all relevant circumstances to determine whether they should be considered particular matters involving specific parties; relevant considerations include such factors as whether the agreement focuses on a specific property or territory, a specific claim, or addresses a large number of diverse issues or economic interests.

Example 1 to paragraph (h)(2):A former employee of the Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA) participated personally and substantially in the development of a regulation establishing certain new occupational health and safety standards for mine workers. Because the regulation applies to the entire mining industry, it is a particular matter of general applicability, not a matter involving specific parties, and the former employee would not be prohibited from making post-employment representations to the Government in connection with this regulation.

Example 2 to paragraph (h)(2):The former employee in the previous example also assisted MSHA in its defense of a lawsuit brought by a trade association challenging the same regulation. This lawsuit is a particular matter involving specific parties, and the former MSHA employee would be prohibited from representing the trade association or anyone else in connection with the case.

Example 3 to paragraph (h)(2):An employee of the National Science Foundation formulated policies for a grant program for organizations nationwide to produce science education programs targeting elementary school age children. She is not prohibited from later representing a specific organization in connection with its application for assistance under the program.

Example 4 to paragraph (h)(2):An employee in the legislative affairs office of the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) drafted official comments submitted to Congress with respect to a pending immigration reform bill. After leaving the Government, he contacts DHS on behalf of a private organization seeking to influence the Administration to insist on certain amendments to the bill. This is not prohibited. Generally, legislation is not a particular matter involving specific parties. However, if the same employee had participated as a DHS employee in formulating the agency's position on proposed private relief legislation granting citizenship to a specific individual, this matter would involve specific parties, and the employee would be prohibited from later making representational contacts in connection with this matter.

Example 5 to paragraph (h)(2):An employee of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) drafted a proposed rule requiring all manufacturers of a particular type of medical device to obtain pre-market approval for their products. It was known at the time that only three or four manufacturers currently were marketing or developing such products. However, there was nothing to preclude other manufacturers from entering the market in the future. Moreover, the regulation on its face was not limited in application to those companies already known to be involved with this type of product at the time of promulgation. Because the proposed rule would apply to an open-ended class of manufacturers, not just specifically identified companies, it would not be a particular matter involving specific parties. After leaving Government, the former FDA employee would not be prohibited from representing a manufacturer in connection with the final rule or the application of the rule in any specific case.

Example 6 to paragraph (h)(2):A former agency attorney participated in drafting a standard form contract and certain standard terms and clauses for use in all future contracts. The adoption of a standard form and language for all contracts is a matter of general applicability, not a particular matter involving specific parties. Therefore, the attorney would not be prohibited from representing another person in a dispute involving the application of one of the standard terms or clauses in a specific contract in which he did not participate as a Government employee.

Example 7 to paragraph (h)(2):An employee of the Department of State participated in the development of the United States' position with respect to a proposed treaty with a foreign government concerning transfer of ownership with respect to a parcel of real property and certain operations there. After terminating Government employment, this individual seeks to represent the foreign government before the Department with respect to certain issues arising in the final stage of the treaty negotiations. This bilateral treaty is a particular matter involving specific parties, and the former employee had participated personally and substantially in this matter. Note also that certain employees may be subject to additional restrictions with respect to trade and treaty negotiations or representation of a foreign entity, pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 207(b) and (f).

Example 8 to paragraph (h)(2):The employee in the previous example participated for the Department in negotiations with respect to a multilateral trade agreement concerning tariffs and other trade practices in regard to various industries in 50 countries. The proposed agreement would provide various stages of implementation, with benchmarks for certain legislative enactments by signatory countries. These negotiations do not concern a particular matter involving specific parties. Even though the former employee would not be prohibited under section 207(a)(1) from representing another person in connection with this matter, she must comply with any applicable restrictions in 18 U.S.C. 207(b) and (f).

(3) Specific parties at all relevant times. The particular matter must involve specific parties both at the time the individual participated as a Government employee and at the time the former employee makes the communication or appearance, although the parties need not be identical at both times.

Example 1 to paragraph (h)(3):An employee of the Department of Defense (DOD) performed certain feasibility studies and other basic conceptual work for a possible innovation to a missile system. At the time she was involved in the matter, DOD had not identified any prospective contractors who might perform the work on the project. After she left Government, DOD issued a request for proposals to construct the new system, and she now seeks to represent one of the bidders in connection with this procurement. She may do so. Even though the procurement is a particular matter involving specific parties at the time of her proposed representation, no parties to the matter had been identified at the time she participated in the project as a Government employee.

Example 2 to paragraph (h)(3):A former employee in an agency inspector general's office conducted the first investigation of its kind concerning a particular fraudulent accounting practice by a grantee. This investigation resulted in a significant monetary recovery for the Government, as well as a settlement agreement in which the grantee agreed to use only certain specified accounting methods in the future. As a result of this case, the agency decided to issue a proposed rule expressly prohibiting the fraudulent accounting practice and requiring all grantees to use the same accounting methods that had been developed in connection with the settlement agreement. The former employee may represent a group of grantees submitting comments critical of the proposed regulation. Although the proposed regulation in some respects evolved from the earlier fraud case, which did involve specific parties, the subsequent rulemaking proceeding does not involve specific parties.

(4) Preliminary or informal stages in a matter. When a particular matter involving specific parties begins depends on the facts. A particular matter may involve specific parties prior to any formal action or filings by the agency or other parties. Much of the work with respect to a particular matter is accomplished before the matter reaches its final stage, and preliminary or informal action is covered by the prohibition, provided that specific parties to the matter actually have been identified. With matters such as grants, contracts, and other agreements, ordinarily specific parties are first identified when initial proposals or indications of interest, such as responses to requests for proposals (RFP) or earlier expressions of interest, are received by the Government; in unusual circumstances, however, such as a sole source procurement or when there are sufficient indicia that the Government has explicitly identified a specific party in an otherwise ordinary prospective grant, contract, or agreement, specific parties may be identified even prior to the receipt of a proposal or expression of interest.

Example 1 to paragraph (h)(4):A Government employee participated in internal agency deliberations concerning the merits of taking enforcement action against a company for certain trade practices. He left the Government before any charges were filed against the company. He has participated in a particular matter involving specific parties and may not represent another person in connection with the ensuing administrative or judicial proceedings against the company.

Example 2 to paragraph (h)(4):A former special Government employee (SGE) of the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research served, before leaving the agency, on a “peer review” committee that made a recommendation to the agency concerning the technical merits of a specific grant proposal submitted by a university. The committee's recommendations are nonbinding and constitute only the first of several levels of review within the agency. Nevertheless, the SGE participated in a particular matter involving specific parties and may not represent the university in subsequent efforts to obtain the same grant.

Example 3 to paragraph (h)(4):Prior to filing a product approval application with a regulatory agency, a company sought guidance from the agency. The company provided specific information concerning the product, including its composition and intended uses, safety and efficacy data, and the results and designs of prior studies on the product. After a series of meetings, the agency advised the company concerning the design of additional studies that it should perform in order to address those issues that the agency still believed were unresolved. Even though no formal application had been filed, this was a particular matter involving specific parties. The agency guidance was sufficiently specific, and it was clearly intended to address the substance of a prospective application and to guide the prospective applicant in preparing an application that would meet approval requirements. An agency employee who was substantially involved in developing this guidance could not leave the Government and represent the company when it submits its formal product approval application.

Example 4 to paragraph (h)(4):A Government scientist participated in preliminary, internal deliberations about her agency's need for additional laboratory facilities. After she terminated Government service, the General Services Administration issued a request for proposals (RFP) seeking private architectural services to design the new laboratory space for the agency. The former employee may represent an architectural firm in connection with its response to the RFP. During the preliminary stage in which the former employee participated, no specific architectural firms had been identified for the proposed work.

Example 5 to paragraph (h)(4):In the previous example, the proposed laboratory was to be an extension of a recently completed laboratory designed by XYZ Architectural Associates, and the Government had determined to pursue a sole source contract with that same firm for the new work. Even before the firm was contacted or expressed any interest concerning the sole source contract, the former employee participated in meetings in which specifications for a potential sole source contract with the firm were discussed. The former employee may not represent XYZ before the Government in connection with this matter.

(5) Same particular matter—(i) General. The prohibition applies only to communications or appearances in connection with the same particular matter involving specific parties in which the former employee participated as a Government employee. The same particular matter may continue in another form or in part. In determining whether two particular matters involving specific parties are the same, all relevant factors should be considered, including the extent to which the matters involve the same basic facts, the same or related parties, related issues, the same confidential information, and the amount of time elapsed.

(ii) Considerations in the case of contracts, grants, and other agreements. With respect to matters such as contracts, grants or other agreements:

(A) A new matter typically does not arise simply because there are amendments, modifications, or extensions of a contract (or other agreement), unless there are fundamental changes in objectives or the nature of the matter;

(B) Generally, successive or otherwise separate contracts (or other agreements) will be viewed as different matters from each other, absent some indication that one contract (or other agreement) contemplated the other or that both are in support of the same specific proceeding;

(C) A contract is almost always a single particular matter involving specific parties. However, under compelling circumstances, distinct aspects or phases of certain large umbrella-type contracts, involving separate task orders or delivery orders, may be considered separate individual particular matters involving specific parties, if an agency determines that articulated lines of division exist. In making this determination, an agency should consider the relevant factors as described above. No single factor should be determinative, and any divisions must be based on the contract's characteristics, which may include, among other things, performance at different geographical locations, separate and distinct subject matters, the separate negotiation or competition of individual task or delivery orders, and the involvement of different program offices or even different agencies.

Example 1 to paragraph (h)(5):An employee drafted one provision of an agency contract to procure new software. After she left Government, a dispute arose under the same contract concerning a provision that she did not draft. She may not represent the contractor in this dispute. The contract as a whole is the particular matter involving specific parties and may not be fractionalized into separate clauses for purposes of avoiding the prohibition of 18 U.S.C. 207(a)(1).

Example 2 to paragraph (h)(5):In the previous example, a new software contract was awarded to the same contractor through a full and open competition, following the employee's departure from the agency. Although no major changes were made in the contract terms, the new contract is a different particular matter involving specific parties.

Example 3 to paragraph (h)(5):A former special Government employee (SGE) recommended that his agency approve a new food additive made by Good Foods, Inc., on the grounds that it was proven safe for human consumption. The Healthy Food Alliance (HFA) sued the agency in Federal court to challenge the decision to approve the product. After leaving Government service, the former SGE may not serve as an expert witness on behalf of HFA in this litigation because it is a continuation of the same product approval matter in which he participated personally and substantially.

Example 4 to paragraph (h)(5):An employee of the Department of the Army negotiated and supervised a contract with Munitions, Inc. for four million mortar shells meeting certain specifications. After the employee left Government, the Army sought a contract modification to add another one million shells. All specifications and contractual terms except price, quantity and delivery dates were identical to those in the original contract. The former Army employee may not represent Munitions in connection with this modification, because it is part of the same particular matter involving specific parties as the original contract.

Example 5 to paragraph (h)(5):In the previous example, certain changes in technology occurred since the date of the original contract, and the proposed contract modifications would require the additional shells to incorporate new design features. Moreover, because of changes in the Army's internal system for storing and distributing shells to various locations, the modifications would require Munitions to deliver its product to several de-centralized destination points, thus requiring Munitions to develop novel delivery and handling systems and incur new transportation costs. The Army considers these modifications to be fundamental changes in the approach and objectives of the contract and may determine that these changes constitute a new particular matter.

Example 6 to paragraph (h)(5):A Government employee reviewed and approved certain wiretap applications. The prosecution of a person overheard during the wiretap, although not originally targeted, must be regarded as part of the same particular matter as the original wiretap application. The reason is that the validity of the wiretap may be put in issue and many of the facts giving rise to the wiretap application would be involved.

Example 7 to paragraph (h)(5):The Navy awards an indefinite delivery contract for environmental remediation services in the northeastern U.S. A Navy engineer is assigned as the Navy's technical representative on a task order for remediation of an oil spill at a Navy activity in Maine. The Navy engineer is personally and substantially involved in the task order (e.g., he negotiates the scope of work, the labor hours required, and monitors the contractor's performance). Following successful completion of the remediation of the oil spill in Maine, the Navy engineer leaves Government service and goes to work for the Navy's remediation contractor. In year two of the contract, the Navy issues a task order for the remediation of lead-based paint at a Navy housing complex in Connecticut. The contractor assigns the former Navy engineer to be its project manager for this task order, which will require him to negotiate with the Navy about the scope of work and the labor hours under the task order. Although the task order is placed under the same indefinite delivery contract (the terms of which remain unchanged), the Navy would be justified in determining that the lead-based paint task order is a separate particular matter as it involves a different type of remediation, at a different location, and at a different time. Note, however, that the engineer in this example had not participated personally and substantially in the overall contract. Any former employee who had—for example, by participating personally and substantially in the initial award or subsequent oversight of the umbrella contract—will be deemed to have also participated personally and substantially in any individual particular matters resulting from the agency's determination that such contract is divisible.

Example 8 to paragraph (h)(5):An agency contracts with Company A to install a satellite system connecting the headquarters office to each of its twenty field offices. Although the field offices are located at various locations throughout the country, each installation is essentially identical, with the terms of each negotiated in the main contract. Therefore, this contract should not be divided into separate particular matters involving specific parties.

(i) Participated personally and substantially—(1) Participate. To “participate” means to take an action as an employee through decision, approval, disapproval, recommendation, the rendering of advice, investigation, or other such action, or to purposefully forbear in order to affect the outcome of a matter. An employee can participate in particular matters that are pending other than in his own agency. An employee does not participate in a matter merely because he had knowledge of its existence or because it was pending under his official responsibility. An employee does not participate in a matter within the meaning of this section unless he does so in his official capacity.

(2) Personally. To participate “personally” means to participate:

(i) Directly, either individually or in combination with other persons; or

(ii) Through direct and active supervision of the participation of any person he supervises, including a subordinate.

(3) Substantially. To participate “substantially” means that the employee's involvement is of significance to the matter. Participation may be substantial even though it is not determinative of the outcome of a particular matter. However, it requires more than official responsibility, knowledge, perfunctory involvement, or involvement on an administrative or peripheral issue. A finding of substantiality should be based not only on the effort devoted to a matter, but also on the importance of the effort. While a series of peripheral involvements may be insubstantial, the single act of approving or participating in a critical step may be substantial. Provided that an employee participates in the substantive merits of a matter, his participation may be substantial even though his role in the matter, or the aspect of the matter in which he is participating, may be minor in relation to the matter as a whole. Participation in peripheral aspects of a matter or in aspects not directly involving the substantive merits of a matter (such as reviewing budgetary procedures or scheduling meetings) is not substantial.

Example 1 to paragraph (i):A General Services Administration (GSA) attorney drafted a standard form contract and certain standard terms and clauses for use in future contracts. A contracting officer uses one of the standard clauses in a subsequent contract without consulting the GSA attorney. The attorney did not participate personally in the subsequent contract.

Example 2 to paragraph (i):An Internal Revenue Service (IRS) attorney is neither in charge of nor does she have official responsibility for litigation involving a particular delinquent taxpayer. At the request of a co-worker who is assigned responsibility for the litigation, the lawyer provides advice concerning strategy during the discovery stage of the litigation. The IRS attorney participated personally in the litigation.

Example 3 to paragraph (i):The IRS attorney in the previous example had no further involvement in the litigation. She participated substantially in the litigation notwithstanding that the post-discovery stages of the litigation lasted for ten years after the day she offered her advice.

Example 4 to paragraph (i):The General Counsel of the Office of Government Ethics (OGE) contacts the OGE attorney who is assigned to evaluate all requests for “certificates of divestiture” to check on the status of the attorney's work with respect to all pending requests. The General Counsel makes no comment concerning the merits or relative importance of any particular request. The General Counsel did not participate substantially in any particular request when she checked on the status of all pending requests.

Example 5 to paragraph (i):The OGE attorney in the previous example completes his evaluation of a particular certificate of divestiture request and forwards his recommendation to the General Counsel. The General Counsel forwards the package to the Director of OGE with a note indicating her concurrence with the attorney's recommendation. The General Counsel participated substantially in the request.

Example 6 to paragraph (i):An International Trade Commission (ITC) computer programmer developed software designed to analyze data related to unfair trade practice complaints. At the request of an ITC employee who is considering the merits of a particular complaint, the programmer enters all the data supplied to her, runs the computer program, and forwards the results to the employee who will make a recommendation to an ITC Commissioner concerning the disposition of the complaint. The programmer did not participate substantially in the complaint.

Example 7 to paragraph (i):The director of an agency office must concur in any decision to grant an application for technical assistance to certain nonprofit entities. When a particular application for assistance comes into her office and is presented to her for decision, she intentionally takes no action on it because she believes the application will raise difficult policy questions for her agency at this time. As a consequence of her inaction, the resolution of the application is deferred indefinitely. She has participated personally and substantially in the matter.

(j) United States is a party or has a direct and substantial interest—(1) United States. For purposes of this paragraph, the “United States” means:

(i) The executive branch (including a Government corporation);

(ii) The legislative branch; or

(iii) The judicial branch.

(2) Party or direct and substantial interest. The United States may be a party to or have a direct and substantial interest in a particular matter even though it is pending in a non-Federal forum, such as a State court. The United States is neither a party to nor does it have a direct and substantial interest in a particular matter merely because a Federal statute is at issue or a Federal court is serving as the forum for resolution of the matter. When it is not clear whether the United States is a party to or has a direct and substantial interest in a particular matter, this determination shall be made in accordance with the following procedure:

(i) Coordination by designated agency ethics official. The designated agency ethics official (DAEO) for the former employee's agency shall have the primary responsibility for coordinating this determination. When it appears likely that a component of the United States Government other than the former employee's former agency may be a party to or have a direct and substantial interest in the particular matter, the DAEO shall coordinate with agency ethics officials serving in those components.

(ii) Agency determination. A component of the United States Government shall determine if it is a party to or has a direct and substantial interest in a matter in accordance with its own internal procedures. It shall consider all relevant factors, including whether:

(A) The component has a financial interest in the matter;

(B) The matter is likely to have an effect on the policies, programs, or operations of the component;

(C) The component is involved in any proceeding associated with the matter, e.g., as by having provided witnesses or documentary evidence; and

(D) The component has more than an academic interest in the outcome of the matter.

Example 1 to paragraph (j):An attorney participated in preparing the Government's antitrust action against Z Company. After leaving the Government, she may not represent Z Company in a private antitrust action brought against it by X Company on the same facts involved in the Government action. Nor may she represent X Company in that matter. The interest of the United States in preventing both inconsistent results and the appearance of impropriety in the same factual matter involving the same party, Z Company, is direct and substantial. However, if the Government's antitrust investigation or case is closed, the United States no longer has a direct and substantial interest in the case.

§ 2641.202 Two-year restriction on any former employee's representations to United States concerning particular matter for which the employee had official responsibility.

(a) Basic prohibition of 18 U.S.C. 207(a)(2). For two years after his Government service terminates, no former employee shall knowingly, with the intent to influence, make any communication to or appearance before an employee of the United States on behalf of any other person in connection with a particular matter involving a specific party or parties, in which the United States is a party or has a direct and substantial interest, and which such person knows or reasonably should know was actually pending under his official responsibility within the one-year period prior to the termination of his Government service.

(b) Exceptions and waivers. The prohibition of 18 U.S.C. 207(a)(2) does not apply to a former employee who is:

(1) Acting on behalf of the United States. See § 2641.301(a).

(2) Acting as an elected State or local government official. See § 2641.301(b).

(3) Communicating scientific or technological information pursuant to procedures or certification. See § 2641.301(e).

(4) Testifying under oath. See § 2641.301(f).

(5) Acting on behalf of an international organization pursuant to a waiver. See § 2641.301(h).

(6) Acting as an employee of a Government-owned, contractor-operated entity pursuant to a waiver. See § 2641.301(i).

(c) Commencement and length of restriction. 18 U.S.C. 207(a)(2) is a two-year restriction that commences upon an employee's termination from Government service. See example 9 to paragraph (j) of this section.

(d) Communication or appearance. See § 2641.201(d).

(e) With the intent to influence. See § 2641.201(e).

(f) To or before an employee of the United States See § 2641.201(f).

(g) On behalf of any other person. See § 2641.201(g).

(h) Particular matter involving a specific party or parties. See § 2641.201(h).

(i) United States is a party or has a direct and substantial interest. See § 2641.201(j).

(j) Official responsibility—(1) Definition. “Official responsibility” means the direct administrative or operating authority, whether intermediate or final, and either exercisable alone or with others, and either personally or through subordinates, to approve, disapprove, or otherwise direct Government action. Ordinarily, the scope of an employee's official responsibility is determined by those functions assigned by statute, regulation, Executive order, job description, or delegation of authority. All particular matters under consideration in an agency are under the official responsibility of the agency head and each is under that of any intermediate supervisor who supervises a person, including a subordinate, who actually participates in the matter or who has been assigned to participate in the matter within the scope of his official duties. A nonsupervisory employee does not have official responsibility for his own assignments within the meaning of section 207(a)(2). Authority to direct Government action concerning only ancillary or nonsubstantive aspects of a matter, such as budgeting, equal employment, scheduling, or format requirements does not, ordinarily, constitute official responsibility for the matter as a whole.

(2) Actually pending. A matter is actually pending under an employee's official responsibility if it has been referred to the employee for assignment or has been referred to or is under consideration by any person he supervises, including a subordinate. A matter remains pending even when it is not under “active” consideration. There is no requirement that the matter must have been pending under the employee's official responsibility for a certain length of time.

(3) Temporary duties. An employee ordinarily acquires official responsibility for all matters within the scope of his position immediately upon assuming the position. However, under certain circumstances, an employee who is on detail (or other temporary assignment) to a position or who is serving in an “acting” status might not be deemed to have official responsibility for any matter by virtue of such temporary duties. Specifically, an employee performing such temporary duties will not thereby acquire official responsibility for matters within the scope of the position where he functions only in a limited “caretaker” capacity, as evidenced by such factors as:

(i) Whether the employee serves in the position for no more than 60 consecutive calendar days;

(ii) Whether there is actually another incumbent for the position, who is temporarily absent, for example, on travel or leave;

(iii) Whether there has been no event triggering the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 3345(a); and

(iv) Whether there are any other circumstances indicating that, given the temporary nature of the detail or acting status, there was no reasonable expectation of the full authority of the position.

(4) Effect of leave status. The scope of an employee's official responsibility is not affected by annual leave, terminal leave, sick leave, excused absence, leave without pay, or similar absence from assigned duties.

(5) Effect of disqualification. Official responsibility for a matter is not eliminated through self-disqualification or avoidance of personal participation in a matter, as when an employee is disqualified from participating in a matter in accordance with subparts D, E, or F of 5 CFR part 2635 or part 2640. Official responsibility for a matter can be terminated by a formal modification of an employee's responsibilities, such as by a change in the employee's position description.

(6) One-year period before termination. 18 U.S.C. 207(a)(2) applies only with respect to a particular matter that was actually pending under the former employee's official responsibility:

(i) At some time when the matter involved a specific party or parties; and

(ii) Within his last year of Government service.

(7) Knowledge of official responsibility. A communication or appearance is not prohibited unless, at the time of the proposed post-employment communication or appearance, the former employee knows or reasonably should know that the matter was actually pending under his official responsibility within the one-year period prior to his termination from Government service. It is not necessary that a former employee have known during his Government service that the matter was actually pending under his official responsibility.

Note to paragraph (j):

18 U.S.C. 207(a)(2) requires only that the former employee “reasonably should know” that the matter was pending under his official responsibility. Consequently, when the facts suggest that a particular matter involving specific parties could have been actually pending under his official responsibility, a former employee should seek information from an agency ethics official or other Government official to clarify his role in the matter. See § 2641.105 concerning advice.

Example 1 to paragraph (j):The position description of an Assistant Secretary of Housing and Urban Development specifies that he is responsible for a certain class of grants. These grants are handled by an office under his supervision. As a practical matter, however, the Assistant Secretary has not become involved with any grants of this type. The Assistant Secretary has official responsibility for all such grants as specified in his position description.

Example 2 to paragraph (j):A budget officer at the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) is asked to review NOAA's budget to determine if there are funds still available for the purchase of a new hurricane tracking device. The budget officer does not have official responsibility for the resulting contract even though she is responsible for all budget matters within the agency. The identification of funds for the contract is an ancillary aspect of the contract.

Example 3 to paragraph (j):An Internal Revenue Service (IRS) auditor worked in the office responsible for the tax-exempt status of nonprofit organizations. Subsequently, he was transferred to the IRS office concerned with public relations. When contacted by an employee of his former office for advice concerning a matter involving a certain nonprofit organization, the auditor provides useful suggestions. The auditor's supervisor in the public relations office does not have official responsibility for the nonprofit matter since it does not fall within the scope of the auditor's current duties.

Example 4 to paragraph (j):An information manager at the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) assigns a nonsupervisory subordinate to research an issue concerning a request from a news organization for information concerning past agency activities. Before she commences any work on the assignment, the subordinate terminates employment with the CIA. The request was not pending under the subordinate's official responsibility since a non-supervisory employee does not have official responsibility for her own assignments. (Once the subordinate commences work on the assignment, she may be participating “personally and substantially” within the meaning of 18 U.S.C. 207(a)(1) and § 2641.201(i).)

Example 5 to paragraph (j):A regional employee of the Federal Emergency Management Agency requests guidance from the General Counsel concerning a contractual dispute with Baker Company. The General Counsel immediately assigns the matter to a staff attorney whose workload can accommodate the assignment, then retires from Government two days later. Although the staff attorney did not retrieve the assignment from his in-box prior to the General Counsel's departure, the Baker matter was actually pending under the General Counsel's official responsibility from the time the General Counsel received the request for guidance.

Example 6 to paragraph (j):A staff attorney in the Federal Emergency Management Agency's Office of General Counsel is consulted by procurement officers concerning the correct resolution of a contractual matter involving Able Company. The attorney renders an opinion resolving the question. The same legal question arises later in several contracts with other companies but none of the disputes with such companies is referred to the Office of General Counsel. The General Counsel had official responsibility for the determination of the Able Company matter, but the subsequent matters were never actually pending under his official responsibility.

Example 7 to paragraph (j):An employee of the National Endowment for the Humanities becomes “acting” Division Director of the Division of Education Programs when the Division Director is away from the office for three days to attend a conference. During those three days, the employee has authority to direct Government action in connection with many matters with which she ordinarily would have no involvement. However, in view of the brief time period and the fact that there remains an incumbent in the position of Division Director, the agency ethics official properly may determine that the acting official did not acquire official responsibility for all matters then pending in the Division.

Example 8 to paragraph (j):A division director at the Food and Drug Administration disqualified himself from participating in the review of a drug for Alzheimer's disease, in accordance with subpart E of 5 CFR part 2635, because his brother headed the private sector team which developed the drug. The matter was instead assigned to the division director's deputy. The director continues to have official responsibility for review of the drug. The division director also would have retained official responsibility for the matter had he either asked his supervisor or another division director to oversee the matter.

Example 9 to paragraph (j):The Deputy Secretary of a department terminates Government service to stay home with her newborn daughter. Four months later, she returns to the department to serve on an advisory committee as a special Government employee (SGE). After three months, she terminates Government service once again in order to accept a part-time position with a public relations firm. The 18 U.S.C. 207(a)(2) bar commences when she resigns as Deputy Secretary and continues to run for two years. (Any action taken in carrying out official duties as a member of the advisory committee would be undertaken on behalf of the United States and would, therefore, not be restricted by 18 U.S.C. 207(a)(2). See § 2641.301(a).) A second two-year restriction commences when she terminates from her second period of Government service but it applies only with respect to any particular matter actually pending under her official responsibility during her three-month term as an SGE.

§ 2641.203 One-year restriction on any former employee's representations, aid, or advice concerning ongoing trade or treaty negotiation.

(a) Basic prohibition of 18 U.S.C. 207(b). For one year after his Government service terminates, no former employee shall, on the basis of “covered information,” knowingly represent, aid, or advise any other person concerning an ongoing trade or treaty negotiation in which, during his last year of Government service, he participated personally and substantially as an employee. “Covered information” refers to agency records which were accessible to the employee which he knew or should have known were designated as exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552).

(b) Exceptions and waivers. The prohibition of 18 U.S.C. 207(b) does not apply to a former employee who is:

(1) Acting on behalf of the United States. See § 2641.301(a).

(2) Acting as an elected State or local government official. See § 2641.301(b).

(3) Testifying under oath. See § 2641.301(f).

(4) Acting on behalf of an international organization pursuant to a waiver. See § 2641.301(h).

(5) Acting as an employee at a Government-owned, contractor-operated entity pursuant to a waiver. See § 2641.301(i).

(c) Commencement and length of restriction. 18 U.S.C. 207(b) commences upon an employee's termination from Government service. The restriction lasts for one year or until the termination of the negotiation, whichever occurs first.

(d) Represent, aid, or advise. [Reserved]

(e) Any other person. [Reserved]

(f) On the basis of. [Reserved]

(g) Covered information. [Reserved]

(h) Ongoing trade or treaty negotiation. [Reserved]

(i) Participated personally and substantially. [Reserved]

§ 2641.204 One-year restriction on any former senior employee's representations to former agency concerning any matter, regardless of prior involvement.

(a) Basic prohibition of 18 U.S.C. 207(c). For one year after his service in a senior position terminates, no former senior employee may knowingly, with the intent to influence, make any communication to or appearance before an employee of an agency in which he served in any capacity within the one-year period prior to his termination from a senior position, if that communication or appearance is made on behalf of any other person in connection with any matter on which the former senior employee seeks official action by any employee of such agency. An individual who served in a “very senior employee” position is subject to the broader two-year restriction set forth in 18 U.S.C. 207(d) in lieu of that set forth in section 207(c). See § 2641.205.

(b) Exceptions and waivers. The prohibition of 18 U.S.C. 207(c) does not apply to a former senior employee who is:

(1) Acting on behalf of the United States. See § 2641.301(a).

(2) Acting as an elected State or local government official. See § 2641.301(b).

(3) Acting on behalf of specified entities. See § 2641.301(c).

(4) Making uncompensated statements based on special knowledge. See § 2641.301(d).

(5) Communicating scientific or technological information pursuant to procedures or certification. See § 2641.301(e).

(6) Testifying under oath. See § 2641.301(f).

(7) Acting on behalf of a candidate or political party. See § 2641.301(g).

(8) Acting on behalf of an international organization pursuant to a waiver. See § 2641.301(h).

(9) Acting as an employee of a Government-owned, contractor-operated entity pursuant to a waiver. See § 2641.301(i).

(10) Subject to a waiver issued for certain positions. See § 2641.301(j).

(c) Applicability to special Government employees and Intergovernmental Personnel Act appointees or detailees—(1) Special Government employees. (i) 18 U.S.C. 207(c) applies to an individual as a result of service as a special Government employee (SGE) who:

(A) Served in a senior employee position while serving as an SGE; and

(B) Served 60 or more days as an SGE during the one-year period before terminating service as a senior employee.

(ii) Any day on which work is performed shall count toward the 60-day threshold without regard to the number of hours worked that day or whether the day falls on a weekend or holiday. For purposes of determining whether an SGE's rate of basic pay is equal to or greater than 86.5 percent of the rate of basic pay for level II of the Executive Schedule, within the meaning of the definition of senior employee in § 2641.104, the employee's hourly rate of pay (or daily rate divided by eight) shall be multiplied by 2087, the number of Federal working hours in one year. (In the case of a Reserve officer of the Armed Forces or an officer of the National Guard who is an SGE serving in a senior employee position, 18 U.S.C. 207(c) applies if the officer served 60 or more days as an SGE within the one-year period prior to his termination from a period of active duty or active duty for training.)

(2) Intergovernmental Personnel Act appointees or detailees. 18 U.S.C. 207(c) applies to an individual serving as a senior employee pursuant to an appointment or detail under the Intergovernmental Personnel Act, 5 U.S.C. 3371-3376. An individual is a senior employee if he received total pay from Federal or non-Federal sources equal to or greater than 86.5 percent of the rate of basic pay for level II of the Executive Schedule (exclusive of any reimbursement for a non-Federal employer's share of benefits not paid to the employee as salary), and:

(i) The individual served in a Federal position ordinarily compensated at a rate equal to or greater than 86.5 percent of level II of the Executive Schedule, regardless of what portion of the pay is derived from Federal expenditures or expenditures by the individual's non-Federal employer;

(ii) The individual received a direct Federal payment, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 3374(c)(1), that supplemented the salary that he received from his non-Federal employer; or

(iii) The individual's non-Federal employer received Federal reimbursement equal to or greater than 86.5 percent of level II of the Executive Schedule.

Example 1 to paragraph (c):An employee of a private research institution serves on an advisory committee that convenes periodically to discuss United States policy on foreign arms sales. The expert is compensated at a daily rate which is the equivalent of 86.5 percent of the rate of basic pay for a full-time employee at level II of the Executive Schedule. The individual serves two hours per day for 65 days before resigning from the advisory committee nine months later. The individual becomes subject to 18 U.S.C. 207(c) when she resigns from the advisory committee since she served 60 or more days as a special Government employee during the one-year period before terminating service as a senior employee.

Example 2 to paragraph (c):An individual is detailed from a university to a Federal department under the Intergovernmental Personnel Act to do work that had previously been performed by a GS-15 employee. While on detail, the individual continues to receive pay from the university in an amount $5,000 less than 86.5 percent of the rate of basic pay for level II of the Executive Schedule. In addition, the department pays a $25,000 supplement directly to the individual, as authorized by 5 U.S.C. 3374(c)(1). Since the employee's total pay is equal to or greater than 86.5 percent of the rate of basic pay for level II of the Executive Schedule, and a portion of that compensation is paid directly to the individual by the department, he becomes subject to 18 U.S.C. 207(c) when his detail ends.

(d) Commencement and length of restriction. 18 U.S.C. 207(c) is a one-year restriction. The one-year period is measured from the date when the employee ceases to serve in a senior employee position, not from the termination of Government service, unless the two events occur simultaneously. (In the case of a Reserve officer of the Armed Forces or an officer of the National Guard who is a special Government employee serving in a senior employee position, section 207(c) is measured from the date when the officer terminates a period of active duty or active duty for training.)

Example 1 to paragraph (d):An employee at the Department of Labor (DOL) serves in a senior employee position. He then accepts a GS-15 position at the Federal Labor Relations Authority (FLRA) but terminates Government service six months later to accept a job with private industry. 18 U.S.C. 207(c) commences when he ceases to be a senior employee at DOL, even though he does not terminate Government service at that time. (Any action taken in carrying out official duties on behalf of FLRA while still employed by that agency would be undertaken on behalf of the United States and would, therefore, not be restricted by section 207(c). See § 2641.301(a).)

Example 2 to paragraph (d):In the previous example, the DOL employee accepts a senior employee position at FLRA rather than a GS-15 position. The bar of section 207(c) commences when, six months later, he terminates service in the second senior employee position to accept a job with private industry. (The bar will apply with respect to both the DOL and FLRA. See paragraph (g) of § 2641.204 and examples 2 and 3 to that paragraph.)

(e) Communication or appearance. See § 2641.201(d).

(f) With the intent to influence. See § 2641.201(e).

(g) To or before employee of former agency—(1) Employee. For purposes of this paragraph, a former senior employee may not contact:

(i) Any current Federal employee of the former senior employee's “former agency” as defined in paragraph (g)(2) of this section;

(ii) An individual detailed under the Intergovernmental Personnel Act (5 U.S.C. 3371-3376) to the former senior employee's former agency;

(iii) An individual detailed to the former senior employee's former agency from another department, agency or other entity, including agencies and entities within the legislative or judicial branches;

(iv) An individual serving with the former senior employee's former agency as a collateral duty pursuant to statute or Executive order; and

(v) In the case of a communication or appearance made by a former senior employee who is barred by 18 U.S.C. 207(c) from communicating to or appearing before the Executive Office of the President, the President and Vice President.

(2) Former agency. The term “agency” is defined in § 2641.104. Unless eligible to benefit from the designation of distinct and separate agency components as described in § 2641.302, a former senior employee's former agency will ordinarily be considered to be the whole of any larger agency of which his former agency was a part on the date he terminated senior service.

(i) One-year period before termination. 18 U.S.C. 207(c) applies with respect to agencies in which the former senior employee served within the one-year period prior to his termination from a senior employee position.

(ii) Served in any capacity. Once the restriction commences, 18 U.S.C. 207(c) applies with respect to any agency in which the former senior employee served in any capacity during the one-year period, regardless of his position, rate of basic pay, or pay grade.

(iii) Multiple assignments. An employee can simultaneously serve in more than one agency. A former senior employee will be considered to have served in his own employing entity and in any entity to which he was detailed for any length of time or with which he was required to serve as a collateral duty pursuant to statute or Executive order.

(iv) Effect of organizational changes. If a former senior employee's former agency has been significantly altered by organizational changes after his termination from senior service, it may be necessary to determine whether a successor entity is the same agency as the former senior employee's former agency. The appropriate designated agency ethics official, in consultation with the Office of Government Ethics, shall identify the entity that is the individual's former agency. Whether a successor entity is the same as the former agency depends upon whether it has substantially the same organizational mission, the extent of the termination or dispersion of the agency's functions, and other factors as may be appropriate.

(A) Agency abolished or substantially changed. If a successor entity is not identifiable as substantially the same agency from which the former senior employee terminated, the 18 U.S.C. 207(c) prohibition will not bar communications or appearances by the former senior employee to that successor entity.

(B) Agency substantially the same. If a successor entity remains identifiable as substantially the same entity from which the former senior employee terminated, the 18 U.S.C. 207(c) bar will extend to the whole of the successor entity.

(C) Employing entity is made separate. If an employing entity is made separate from an agency of which it was a part, but it remains identifiable as substantially the same entity from which the former senior employee terminated senior service before the entity was made separate, the 18 U.S.C. 207(c) bar will apply to a former senior employee of that entity only with respect to the new separate entity.

(D) Component designations. If a former senior employee's former agency was a designated “component” within the meaning of § 2641.302 on the date of his termination as senior employee, see § 2641.302(g).

(3) To or before. Except as provided in paragraph (g)(4) of this section, a communication “to” or appearance “before” an employee of a former senior employee's former agency is one:

(i) Directed to and received by the former senior employee's former agency, even though not addressed to a particular employee; or

(ii) Directed to and received by an employee of a former senior employee's former agency in his official capacity, including in his capacity as an employee serving in the agency on detail or, if pursuant to statute or Executive order, as a collateral duty. A former senior employee does not direct his communication or appearance to a bystander who merely happens to overhear the communication or witness the appearance.

(4) Public commentary. (i) A former senior employee who addresses a public gathering or a conference, seminar, or similar forum as a speaker or panel participant will not be considered to make a prohibited communication or appearance if the forum:

(A) Is not sponsored or co-sponsored by the former senior employee's former agency;

(B) Is attended by a large number of people; and

(C) A significant proportion of those attending are not employees of the former senior employee's former agency.

(ii) In the circumstances described in paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section, a former senior employee may engage in exchanges with any other speaker or with any member of the audience.

(iii) A former senior employee also may permit the broadcast or publication of a commentary provided that it is broadcast or appears in a newspaper, periodical, or similar widely-available publication.

Example 1 to paragraph (g):Two months after retiring from a senior employee position at the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA), the former senior employee is asked to represent a poultry producer in a compliance matter involving the producer's storage practices. The former senior employee may not represent the poultry producer before a USDA employee in connection with the compliance matter or any other matter in which official action is sought from the USDA. He has ten months remaining of the one-year bar which commenced upon his termination as a senior employee with the USDA.

Example 2 to paragraph (g):An individual serves for several years at the Commodity Futures Trading Commission (CFTC) as a GS-15. With no break in service, she then accepts a senior employee position at the Export-Import Bank of the United States (Ex-Im Bank) where she remains for nine months until she leaves Government service in order to accept a position in the private sector. Since the individual served in both the CFTC and the Ex-Im Bank within her last year of senior service, she is barred by 18 U.S.C. 207(c) as to both agencies for one year commencing from her termination from the senior employee position at the Ex-Im Bank.

Example 3 to paragraph (g):An individual serves for several years at the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) in a senior employee position. He terminates Government service in order to care for his parent who is recovering from heart surgery. Two months later, he accepts a senior employee position at the Overseas Private Investment Corporation (OPIC) where he remains for nine months until he leaves Government service in order to accept a position in the private sector. The 18 U.S.C. 207(c) bar commences when he resigns from the SEC and continues to run for one year. (Any action taken in carrying out official duties as an employee of OPIC would be undertaken on behalf of the United States and would, therefore, not be restricted by section 207(c). See § 2641.301(a).) A second one-year restriction commences when he resigns from OPIC. The second restriction will apply with respect to OPIC only. Upon his termination from the OPIC position, he will have one remaining month of the section 207(c) restriction arising from his termination of his SEC position. This remaining month of restriction will run concurrently with the first month of the one-year OPIC restriction.

Example 4 to paragraph (g):An architect serves in a senior employee position in the Agency for Affordable Housing. Subsequent to her termination from the position, the agency is abolished and its functions are distributed among three other agencies within three departments, the Department of Housing and Urban Development, the Department of the Interior, and the Department of Justice. None of these successor entities is identifiable as substantially the same entity as the Agency for Affordable Housing, and, accordingly, the 18 U.S.C. 207(c) bar will not apply to the architect.

Example 5 to paragraph (g):A chemist serves in a senior employee position in the Agency for Clean Rivers. Subsequent to his termination from the position, the mission of the Agency for Clean Rivers is expanded and it is renamed the Agency for Clean Water. A number of employees from the Agency for Marine Life are transferred to the reorganized agency. If it is determined that the Agency for Clean Water is substantially the same entity from which the chemist terminated, the section 207(c) bar will apply with respect to the chemist's contacts with all of the employees of the Agency for Clean Water, including those employees who recently transferred from the Agency for Marine Life. He would not be barred from contacting an employee serving in one of the positions that had been transferred from the Agency for Clean Rivers to the Agency for Clean Land.

(h) On behalf of any other person. See § 2641.201(g).

(i) Matter on which former senior employee seeks official action—(1) Seeks official action. A former senior employee seeks official action when the circumstances establish that he is making his communication or appearance for the purpose of inducing a current employee, as defined in paragraph (g) of this section, to make a decision or to otherwise act in his official capacity.

(2) Matter. The prohibition on seeking official action applies with respect to any matter, including:

(i) Any “particular matter involving a specific party or parties” as defined in § 2641.201(h);

(ii) The consideration or adoption of broad policy options that are directed to the interests of a large and diverse group of persons;

(iii) A new matter that was not previously pending at or of interest to the former senior employee's former agency; and

(iv) A matter pending at any other agency in the executive branch, an independent agency, the legislative branch, or the judicial branch.

Example 1 to paragraph (i):A former senior employee at the National Capital Planning Commission (NCPC) wishes to contact a friend who still works at the NCPC to solicit a donation for a local charitable organization. The former senior employee may do so since the circumstances establish that he would not be making the communication for the purpose of inducing the NCPC employee to make a decision in his official capacity about the donation.

Example 2 to paragraph (i):A former senior employee at the Department of Defense wishes to contact the Secretary of Defense to ask him if he would be interested in attending a cocktail party. At the party, the former senior employee would introduce the Secretary to several of the former senior employee's current business clients who have sought the introduction. The former senior employee and the Secretary do not have a history of socializing outside the office, the Secretary is in a position to affect the interests of the business clients, and all expenses associated with the party will be paid by the former senior employee's consulting firm. The former senior employee should not contact the Secretary. The circumstances do not establish that the communication would be made other than for the purpose of inducing the Secretary to make a decision in his official capacity about the invitation.

Example 3 to paragraph (i):A former senior employee at the National Science Foundation (NSF) accepts a position as vice president of a company that was hurt by recent cuts in the defense budget. She contacts the NSF's Director of Legislative and Public Affairs to ask the Director to contact a White House official in order to press the need for a new science policy to benefit her company. The former senior employee made a communication for the purpose of inducing the NSF employee to make a decision in his official capacity about contacting the White House.

§ 2641.205 Two-year restriction on any former very senior employee's representations to former agency or certain officials concerning any matter, regardless of prior involvement.

(a) Basic prohibition of 18 U.S.C. 207(d). For two years after his service in a very senior employee position terminates, no former very senior employee shall knowingly, with the intent to influence, make any communication to or appearance before any official appointed to an Executive Schedule position listed in 5 U.S.C. 5312-5316 or before any employee of an agency in which he served as a very senior employee within the one-year period prior to his termination from a very senior employee position, if that communication or appearance is made on behalf of any other person in connection with any matter on which the former very senior employee seeks official action by any official or employee.

(b) Exceptions and waivers. The prohibition of 18 U.S.C. 207(d) does not apply to a former very senior employee who is:

(1) Acting on behalf of the United States. See § 2641.301(a).

(2) Acting as an elected State or local government official. See § 2641.301(b).

(3) Acting on behalf of specified entities. See § 2641.301(c).

(4) Making uncompensated statements based on special knowledge. See § 2641.301(d).

(5) Communicating scientific or technological information pursuant to procedures or certification. See § 2641.301(e).

(6) Testifying under oath. See § 2641.301(f).

(7) Acting on behalf of a candidate or political party. See § 2641.301(g).

(8) Acting on behalf of an international organization pursuant to a waiver. See § 2641.301(h).

(9) Acting as an employee of a Government-owned, contractor-operated entity pursuant to a waiver. See § 2641.301(i).

(c) Commencement and length of restriction. 18 U.S.C. 207(d) is a two-year restriction. The two-year period is measured from the date when the employee ceases to serve in a very senior employee position, not from the termination of Government service, unless the two events occur simultaneously. See examples 1 and 2 to paragraph (d) of § 2641.204.

(d) Communication or appearance. See§ 2641.201(d).

(e) With the intent to influence. See§ 2641.201(e).

(f) To or before employee of former agency. See § 2641.204(g), except that this section covers only former very senior employees and applies only with respect to the agency or agencies in which a former very senior employee served as a very senior employee, and very senior employees do not benefit from the designation of distinct and separate agency components as referenced in § 2641.204(g)(2).

(g) To or before an official appointed to an Executive Schedule position. See § 2641.204(g)(3) for “to or before,” except that this section covers only former very senior employees and also extends to a communication or appearance before any official currently appointed to a position that is listed in sections 5 U.S.C. 5312-5316.

Note to paragraph (g):

A communication made to an official described in 5 U.S.C. 5312-5316 can include a communication to a subordinate of such official with the intent that the information be conveyed directly to the official and attributed to the former very senior employee.

(h) On behalf of any other person. See § 2641.201(g).

(i) Matter on which former very senior employee seeks official action. See § 2641.204(i), except that this section only covers former very senior employees.

Example 1 to § 2641.205:The former Attorney General may not contact the Assistant Attorney General of the Antitrust Division on behalf of a professional sports league in support of a proposed exemption from certain laws, nor may he contact the Secretary of Labor. He may, however, speak directly to the President or Vice President concerning the issue.

Example 2 to § 2641.205:The former Director of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) is now the Chief Executive Officer of a major computer firm and wishes to convince the new Administration to change its new policy concerning computer chips. The former OMB Director may contact an employee of the Department of Commerce who, although paid at a level fixed according to level III of the Executive Schedule, does not occupy a position actually listed in 5 U.S.C. 5312-5316. She could not contact an employee working in the Office of the United States Trade Representative, an office within the Executive Office of the President (her former agency).

Example 3 to § 2641.205:A senior employee serves in the Department of Agriculture for several years. He is then appointed to serve as the Secretary of Health and Human Services (HHS) but resigns seven months later. Since the individual served as a very senior employee only at HHS, he is barred for two years by 18 U.S.C. 207(d) as to any employee of HHS and any official currently appointed to an Executive Schedule position listed in 5 U.S.C. 5312-5316, including any such official serving in the Department of Agriculture. (In addition, a one-year section 207(c) bar commenced when he terminated service as a senior employee at the Department of Agriculture.)

Example 4 to § 2641.205:The former Secretary of the Department of Labor may not represent another person in a meeting with the current Secretary of Transportation to discuss a proposed regulation on highway safety standards.

Example 5 to § 2641.205:In the previous example, the former very senior employee would like to meet instead with the special assistant to the Secretary of Transportation. The former employee knows that the special assistant has a close working relationship with the Secretary. The former employee expects that the special assistant would brief the Secretary about any discussions at the proposed meeting and refer specifically to the former employee. Because the circumstances indicate that the former employee intends that the information provided at the meeting would be conveyed by the assistant directly to the Secretary and attributed to the former employee, he may not meet with the assistant.

§ 2641.206 One-year restriction on any former senior or very senior employee's representations on behalf of, or aid or advice to, a foreign entity.

(a) Basic prohibition of 18 U.S.C. 207(f). For one year after service in a senior or very senior employee position terminates, no former senior employee or former very senior employee shall knowingly represent a foreign government or foreign political party before an officer or employee of an agency or department of the United States, or aid or advise such a foreign entity, with the intent to influence a decision of such officer or employee. For purposes of describing persons who may not be contacted with the intent to influence, under 18 U.S.C. 207(f) and this section, the phrase “officer or employee” includes the President, the Vice President, and Members of Congress, and the term “department” includes the legislative branch of government.

(b) Exceptions and waivers. The prohibition of 18 U.S.C. 207(f) does not apply to a former senior or former very senior employee who is:

(1) Acting on behalf of the United States. See § 2641.301(a). (Note, however, the limitation in § 2641.301(a)(2)(ii).)

(2) Acting as an elected State or local government official. See § 2641.301(b).

(3) Testifying under oath. See § 2641.301(f).

(4) Acting on behalf of an international organization pursuant to a waiver. See § 2641.301(h).

(5) Acting as an employee of a Government-owned, contractor-operated entity pursuant to a waiver. See § 2641.301(i).

(6) Subject to a waiver issued for certain positions. See § 2641.301(j).

(c) Commencement and length of restriction—(1)Generally. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, 18 U.S.C. 207(f) is a one-year restriction. The one-year period is measured from the date when an employee ceases to be a senior or very senior employee, not from the termination of Government service, unless the two occur simultaneously. See examples 1 and 2 to paragraph (d) of § 2641.204.

(2) U.S. Trade Representative or Deputy U.S. Trade Representative.18 U.S.C. 207(f) is a permanent restriction as applied to a former U.S. Trade Representative or Deputy U.S. Trade Representative.

(d) Represent, aid, or advise. [Reserved]

(e) With the intent to influence. [Reserved]

(f) Decision of employee of an agency. [Reserved]

(g) Foreign entity. [Reserved]

§ 2641.207 One-year restriction on any former private sector assignee under the Information Technology Exchange Program representing, aiding, counseling or assisting in representing in connection with any contract with former agency.

(a) Basic prohibition of 18 U.S.C. 207(l). For one year after the termination of his assignment from a private sector organization to an agency under the Information Technology Exchange Program, 5 U.S.C. chapter 37, no former assignee shall knowingly represent, or aid, counsel or assist in representing any other person in connection with any contract with that agency.

(b) Exceptions and waivers. The prohibition of 18 U.S.C. 207(l) does not apply to a former employee who is:

(1) Acting on behalf of the United States. See § 2641.301(a).

(2) Acting as an elected State or local government official. See § 2641.301(b).

(3) Testifying under oath. See § 2641.301(f).

(4) Acting on behalf of an international organization pursuant to a waiver. See § 2641.301(h).

(5) Acting as an employee of a Government-owned, contractor-operated entity pursuant to a waiver. See § 2641.301(i).

(c) Commencement and length of restriction.18 U.S.C. 207(l) is a one-year restriction. The one-year period is measured from the date when the individual's assignment under the Information Technology Exchange Program terminates.

(d) Represent, aid, counsel, or assist in representing. [Reserved]

(e) In connection with any contract with the former agency. [Reserved]

Subpart C Exceptions, Waivers and Separate Components
§ 2641.301 Statutory exceptions and waivers.

(a) Exception for acting on behalf of United States. A former employee is not prohibited by any of the prohibitions of 18 U.S.C. 207 from engaging in any activity on behalf of the United States.

(1) United States. For purposes of this paragraph, the term “United States” means:

(i) The executive branch (including a Government corporation);

(ii) The legislative branch; or

(iii) The judicial branch.

(2) On behalf of the United States. A former employee will be deemed to engage in the activity on behalf of the United States if he acts in accordance with paragraph (a)(2)(i) or (a)(2)(ii) of this section.

(i) As employee of the United States. A former employee engages in an activity on behalf of the United States when he carries out official duties as a current employee of the United States.

(ii) As other than employee of the United States. (A) Provided that he does not represent, aid, or advise a foreign entity in violation of 18 U.S.C. 207(f), a former employee engages in an activity on behalf of the United States when he serves:

(1) As a representative of the United States pursuant to a specific agreement with the United States to provide representational services to the United States; or

(2) As a witness called by the United States (including a Congressional committee or subcommittee) to testify at a Congressional hearing (even if applicable procedural rules do not require him to declare by oath or affirmation that he will testify truthfully).

(B) A former employee will not be deemed to engage in an activity on behalf of the United States merely because he is performing work funded by the Government, because he is engaging in the activity in response to a contact initiated by the Government, because the Government will derive some benefit from the activity, or because he or the person on whose behalf he is acting may share the same objective as the Government.

Note to paragraph (a)(2)(ii):

See also § 2641.301(f) concerning the permissibility of testimony under oath, including testimony as an expert witness, when a former employee is called as a witness by the United States.

Example 1 to paragraph (a):An employee of the Department of Transportation (DOT) transfers to become an employee of the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC). The PBGC, a wholly owned Government corporation, is a corporation in which the United States has a proprietary interest. The former DOT employee may press the PBGC's point of view in a meeting with DOT employees concerning an airline bankruptcy case in which he was personally and substantially involved while at the DOT. His communications to the DOT on behalf of the PBGC would be made on behalf of the United States.

Example 2 to paragraph (a):A Federal Transit Administration (FTA) employee recommended against the funding of a certain subway project. After terminating Government service, she is hired by a Congressman as a member of his staff to perform a variety of duties, including miscellaneous services for the Congressman's constituents. The former employee may contact the FTA on behalf of a constituent group as part of her official duties in order to argue for the reversal of the subway funding decision in which she participated while still an employee of the FTA. Her communications to the FTA on behalf of the constituent group would be made on behalf of the United States.

Example 3 to paragraph (a):A Postal Service attorney participated in discussions with the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) concerning a dispute over the mailing of health plan brochures. After terminating Government service, the attorney joins a law firm as a partner. He is assigned by the firm's managing partner to represent the Postal Service pursuant to a contract requiring the firm to provide certain legal services. The former senior employee may represent the Postal Service in meetings with OPM concerning the dispute about the health plan brochures. The former senior employee's suggestions to the Postal Service concerning strategy and his arguments to OPM concerning the dispute would be made on behalf of the United States (even though he is also acting on behalf of his law firm when he performs representational services for the United States). A communication to the Postal Service concerning a disagreement about the law firm's fee, however, would not be made on behalf of the United States.

Example 4 to paragraph (a):A former senior employee of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), now an employee of a drug company, is called by a Congressional committee to give unsworn testimony concerning the desirability of instituting cost controls in the pharmaceutical industry. The former senior employee may address the committee even though her testimony will unavoidably also be directed to a current employee of the FDA who has also been asked to testify as a member of the same panel of experts. The former employee's communications at the hearing, provided at the request of the United States, would be made on behalf of the United States.

Example 5 to paragraph (a):A National Security Agency (NSA) analyst drafted the specifications for a contract that was awarded to the Secure Data Corporation to develop prototype software for the processing of foreign intelligence information. After terminating Government service, the analyst is hired by the corporation. The former employee may not attempt to persuade NSA officials that the software is in accord with the specifications. Although the development of the software is expected to significantly enhance the processing of foreign intelligence information and the former employee's opinions might be useful to current NSA employees, his communications would not be made on behalf of the United States.

Example 6 to paragraph (a):A senior employee at the Department of the Air Force specialized in issues relating to the effective utilization of personnel. After terminating Government service, the former senior employee is hired by a contractor operating a Federally Funded Research and Development Center (FFRDC). The FFRDC is not a “Government corporation” as defined in § 2641.104. The former senior employee may not attempt to convince the Air Force of the manner in which Air Force funding should be allocated among projects proposed to be undertaken by the FFRDC. Although the work performed by the FFRDC will be determined by the Air Force, may be accomplished at Government-owned facilities, and will benefit the Government, her communications would not be made on behalf of the United States.

Example 7 to paragraph (a):A Department of Justice (DOJ) attorney represented the United States in a civil enforcement action against a company that had engaged in fraudulent activity. The settlement of the case required that the company correct certain deficiencies in its operating procedures. After terminating Government service, the attorney is hired by the company. When DOJ auditors schedule a meeting with the company's legal staff to review company actions since the settlement, the former employee may not attempt to persuade the auditors that the company is complying with the terms of the settlement. Although the former employee's insights might facilitate the audit, his communications would not be made on behalf of the United States even though the Government's auditors initiated the contact with the former employee.

Note to paragraph (a):

See also example 9 to paragraph (j) of § 2641.202 and example 1 to paragraph (d) of § 2641.204.

(b) Exception for acting on behalf of State or local government as elected official. A former employee is not prohibited by any of the prohibitions of 18 U.S.C. 207 from engaging in any post-employment activity on behalf of one or more State or local governments, provided the activity is undertaken in carrying out official duties as an elected official of a State or local government.

Example 1 to paragraph (b):A former employee of the Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) participated personally and substantially in the evaluation of a grant application from a certain city. After terminating Government service, he was elected mayor of that city. The former employee may contact an Assistant Secretary at HUD to argue that additional funds are due the city under the terms of the grant.

Example 2 to paragraph (b):A former employee of the Federal Highway Administration (FHWA) participated personally and substantially in the decision to provide funding for a bridge across the White River in Arkansas. After terminating Government service, she accepted the Governor's offer to head the highway department in Arkansas. A communication to or appearance before the FHWA concerning the terms of the construction grant would not be made as an elected official of a State or local government.

(c) Exception for acting on behalf of specified entities. A former senior or very senior employee is not prohibited by 18 U.S.C. 207(c) or (d), or §§ 2641.204 or 2641.205, from making a communication or appearance on behalf of one or more entities specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, provided the communication or appearance is made in carrying out official duties as an employee of a specified entity.

(1) Specified entities. For purposes of this paragraph, a specified entity is:

(i) An agency or instrumentality of a State or local government;

(ii) A hospital or medical research organization, if exempted from taxation under 26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3); or

(iii) An accredited, degree-granting institution of higher education, as defined in 20 U.S.C. 1001.

(2) Employee. For purposes of this paragraph, the term “employee” of a specified entity means a person who has an employee-employer relationship with an entity specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. It includes a person who is employed to work part-time for a specified entity. The term excludes an individual performing services for a specified entity as a consultant or independent contractor.

Example 1 to paragraph (c):A senior employee leaves her position at the National Institutes of Health (NIH) and takes a full-time position at the Gene Research Foundation, a tax-exempt organization pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3). As an employee of a 501(c)(3) tax-exempt medical research organization, the former senior employee is not barred by 18 U.S.C. 207(c) from representing the Foundation before the NIH.

Example 2 to paragraph (c):A former senior employee of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) joins a law firm in Richmond, Virginia. The firm is hired by the Commonwealth of Virginia to represent it in discussions with the EPA about an environmental impact statement concerning the construction of a highway interchange. The former senior employee's arguments concerning the environmental impact statement would not be made as an employee of the Commonwealth of Virginia.

Example 3 to paragraph (c):A former senior employee becomes an employee of the ABC Association. The ABC Association is a nonprofit organization whose membership consists of a broad representation of State health agencies and senior State health officials, and it performs services from which certain State governments benefit, including collecting information from its members and conveying that information and views to the Federal Government. However, the ABC Association has not been delegated authority by any State government to perform any governmental functions, and it does not operate under the regulatory, financial, or management control of any State government. Therefore, the ABC Association is not an agency or instrumentality of a State government, and the former senior employee may not represent the organization before his former agency within one year after terminating his senior employee position.

(d) Exception for uncompensated statements based on special knowledge. A former senior or very senior employee is not prohibited by 18 U.S.C. 207(c) or (d), or §§ 2641.204 or 2641.205, from making a statement based on his own special knowledge in the particular area that is the subject of the statement, provided that he receives no compensation for making the statement.

(1) Special knowledge. A former employee has special knowledge concerning a subject area if he is familiar with the subject area as a result of education, interaction with experts, or other unique or particularized experience.

(2) Statement. A statement for purposes of this paragraph is a communication of facts observed by the former employee.

(3) Compensation. Compensation includes any form of remuneration or income that is given in consideration, in whole or in part, for the statement. It does not include the payment of actual and necessary expenses incurred in connection with making the statement.

Example 1 to paragraph (d):A senior employee of the Department of the Treasury was personally and substantially involved in discussions with other Department officials concerning the advisability of a three-phase reduction in the capital gains tax. After Government service, the former senior employee affiliates with a nonprofit group that advocates a position on the three-phase capital gains issue that is similar to his own. The former senior employee, who receives no salary from the nonprofit organization, may meet with current Department officials on the organization's behalf to state what steps had previously been taken by the Department to address the issue. The statement would be permissible even if the nonprofit organization reimbursed the former senior employee for his actual and necessary travel expenses incurred in connection with making the statement.

Example 2 to paragraph (d):A former senior employee becomes a government relations consultant, and he enters into a $5,000 per month retainer agreement with XYZ Corporation for government relations services. He would like to meet with his former agency to discuss a regulatory matter involving his client. Even though he would not be paid by XYZ specifically for this particular meeting, he nevertheless would receive compensation for any statements at the meeting, because of the monthly payments under his standing retainer agreement. Therefore he may not rely on the exception for uncompensated statements based on special knowledge.

(e) Exception for furnishing scientific or technological information. A former employee is not prohibited by 18 U.S.C. 207(a), (c), or (d), or §§ 2641.201, 2641.202, 2641.204, or 2641.205, from making communications, including appearances, solely for the purpose of furnishing scientific or technological information, provided the communications are made either in accordance with procedures adopted by the agency or agencies to which the communications are directed or the head of such agency or agencies, in consultation with the Director of the Office of Government Ethics, makes a certification published in the Federal Register.

(1) Purpose of information. A communication made solely for the purpose of furnishing scientific or technological information may be:

(i) Made in connection with a matter that involves an appreciable element of actual or potential dispute;

(ii) Made in connection with an effort to seek a discretionary Government ruling, benefit, approval, or other action; or

(iii) Inherently influential in relation to the matter in dispute or the Government action sought.

(2) Scientific or technological information. The former employee must convey information of a scientific or technological character, such as technical or engineering information relating to the natural sciences. The exception does not extend to information associated with a nontechnical discipline such as law, economics, or political science.

(3) Incidental references or remarks. Provided the former employee's communication primarily conveys information of a scientific or technological character, the entirety of the communication will be deemed made solely for the purpose of furnishing such information notwithstanding an incidental reference or remark:

(i) Unrelated to the matter to which the post-employment restriction applies;

(ii) Concerning feasibility, risk, cost, speed of implementation, or other considerations when necessary to appreciate the practical significance of the basic scientific or technological information provided; or

(iii) Intended to facilitate the furnishing of scientific or technological information, such as those references or remarks necessary to determine the kind and form of information required or the adequacy of information already supplied.

Example 1 to paragraph (e)(3):After terminating Government service, a former senior employee at the National Security Agency (NSA) accepts a position as a senior manager at a firm specializing in the development of advanced security systems. The former senior employee and another firm employee place a conference call to a current NSA employee to follow up on an earlier discussion in which the firm had sought funding from the NSA to develop a certain proposed security system. After the other firm employee explains the scientific principles underlying the proposed system, the former employee may not state the system's expected cost. Her communication would not primarily convey information of a scientific or technological character.

Example 2 to paragraph (e)(3):If, in the previous example, the former senior employee explained the scientific principles underlying the proposed system, she could also have stated its expected cost as an incidental reference or remark.

(4) Communications made under procedures acceptable to the agency. (i) An agency may adopt such procedures as are acceptable to it, specifying conditions under which former Government employees may make communications solely for the purpose of furnishing scientific or technological information, in light of the agency's particular programs and needs. In promulgating such procedures, an agency may consider, for example, one or more of the following:

(A) Requiring that the former employee specifically invoke the exception prior to making a communication (or series of communications);

(B) Requiring that the designated agency ethics official for the agency to which the communication is directed (or other agency designee) be informed when the exception is used;

(C) Limiting communications to certain formats which are least conducive to the use of personal influence;

(D) Segregating, to the extent possible, meetings and presentations involving technical substance from those involving other aspects of the matter; or

(E) Employing more restrictive practices in relation to communications concerning specified categories of matters or specified aspects of a matter, such as in relation to the pre-award as distinguished from the post-award phase of a procurement.

(ii) The Director of the Office of Government Ethics may review any agency implementation of this exception in connection with OGE's executive branch ethics program oversight responsibilities. See 5 CFR part 2638.

Example 1 to paragraph (e)(4):A Marine Corps engineer participates personally and substantially in drafting the specifications for a new assault rifle. After terminating Government service, he accepts a job with the company that was awarded the contract to produce the rifle. Provided he acts in accordance with agency procedures, he may accompany the President of the company to a meeting with Marine Corps employees and report the results of a series of metallurgical tests. These results support the company's argument that it has complied with a particular specification. He may do so even though the meeting was expected to be and is, in fact, a contentious one in which the company's testing methods are at issue. He may not, however, present the company's argument that an advance payment is due the company under the terms of the contract since this would not be a mere incidental reference or remark within the meaning of paragraph (e)(3) of this section.

(5) Certification for expertise in technical discipline. A certification issued in accordance with this section shall be effective on the date it is executed (unless a later date is specified), provided that it is transmitted to the Federal Register for publication.

(i) Criteria for issuance. A certification issued in accordance with this section may not broaden the scope of the exception and may be issued only when:

(A) The former employee has outstanding qualifications in a scientific, technological, or other technical discipline (involving engineering or other natural sciences as distinguished from a nontechnical discipline such as law, economics, or political science);

(B) The matter requires the use of such qualifications; and

(C) The national interest would be served by the former employee's participation.

(ii) Submission of requests. The individual wishing to make the communication shall forward a written request to the head of the agency to which the communications would be directed. Any such request shall address the criteria set forth in paragraph (e)(5)(i) of this section.

(iii) Issuance. The head of the agency to which the communications would be directed may, upon finding that the criteria specified in paragraph (e)(5)(i) of this section are satisfied, approve the request by executing a certification, which shall be published in the Federal Register. A copy of the certification shall be forwarded to the affected individual. The head of the agency shall, prior to execution of the certification, furnish a draft copy of the certification to the Director of the Office of Government Ethics and consider the Director's comments, if any, in relation to the draft. The certification shall specify:

(A) The name of the former employee;

(B) The Government position or positions held by the former employee during his most recent period of Government service;

(C) The identity of the employer or other person on behalf of which the former employee will be acting;

(D) The restriction or restrictions to which the certification shall apply;

(E) Any limitations imposed by the agency head with respect to the scope of the certification; and

(F) The basis for finding that the criteria specified in paragraph (e)(5)(i) of this section are satisfied, specifically including a description of the matter and the communications that will be permissible or, if relevant, a statement that such information is protected from disclosure by statute.

(iv) Copy to Office of Government Ethics. Once published, the agency shall provide the Director of the Office of Government Ethics with a copy of the certification as published in the Federal Register.

(v) Revocation. The agency head may revoke a certification and shall forward a written notice of the revocation to the former employee and to the OGE Director. Revocation of a certification shall be effective on the date specified in the notice revoking the certification.

(f) Exception for giving testimony under oath or making statements required to be made under penalty of perjury. Subject to the limitation described in paragraph (f)(2) of this section concerning expert witness testimony, a former employee is not prohibited by any of the prohibitions of 18 U.S.C. 207 from giving testimony under oath or making a statement required to be made under penalty of perjury.

(1) Testimony under oath. Testimony under oath is evidence delivered by a witness either orally or in writing, including deposition testimony and written affidavits, in connection with a judicial, quasi-judicial, administrative, or other legally recognized proceeding in which applicable procedural rules require a witness to declare by oath or affirmation that he will testify truthfully.

(2) Limitation on exception for service as an expert witness. The exception described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section does not negate the bar of 18 U.S.C. 207(a)(1), or § 2641.201, to a former employee serving as an expert witness; where the bar of section 207(a)(1) applies, a former employee may not serve as an expert witness except:

(i) If he is called as a witness by the United States; or

(ii) By court order. For this purpose, a subpoena is not a court order, nor is an order merely qualifying an individual to testify as an expert witness.

(3) Statements made under penalty of perjury. A former employee may make any statement required to be made under penalty of perjury, except that he may not:

(i) Submit a pleading, application, or other document as an attorney or other representative; or

(ii) Serve as an expert witness where the bar of 18 U.S.C. 207(a)(1) applies, except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section.

Note to paragraph (f):

Whether compensation of a witness is appropriate is not addressed by 18 U.S.C. 207. However, 18 U.S.C. 201 may prohibit individuals from receiving compensation for testifying under oath in certain forums except as authorized by 18 U.S.C. 201(d). Note also that there may be statutory or other bars on the disclosure by a current or former employee of information from the agency's files or acquired in connection with the individual's employment with the Government; a former employee's agency may have promulgated procedures to be followed with respect to the production or disclosure of such information.

Example 1 to paragraph (f):A former employee is subpoenaed to testify in a case pending in a United States district court concerning events at the agency she observed while she was performing her official duties with the Government. She is not prohibited by 18 U.S.C. 207 from testifying as a fact witness in the case.

Example 2 to paragraph (f):An employee was removed from service by his agency in connection with a series of incidents where the employee was absent without leave or was unable to perform his duties because he appeared to be intoxicated. The employee's supervisor, who had assisted the agency in handling the issues associated with the removal, subsequently left Government. In the ensuing case in Federal court between the employee who had been removed and his agency over whether he had been discriminated against because of his disabling alcoholism, his former supervisor was asked whether on certain occasions the employee had been intoxicated on the job and unable to perform his assigned duties. Opposing counsel objected to the question on the basis that the question required expert testimony and the witness had not been qualified as an expert. The judge overruled the objection on the basis that the witness would not be providing expert testimony but opinions or inferences which are rationally based on his perception and helpful to a clear understanding of his testimony or the determination of a fact in issue. The former employee may provide the requested testimony without violating 18 U.S.C. 207.

Example 3 to paragraph (f):A former senior employee of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is a recognized expert concerning compliance with Clean Air Act requirements. Within one year after terminating Government service, she is retained by a utility company that is the defendant in a lawsuit filed against it by the EPA. While the matter had been pending while she was with the agency, she had not worked on the matter. After the court rules that she is qualified to testify as an expert, the former senior employee may offer her sworn opinion that the utility company's practices are in compliance with Clean Air Act requirements. She may do so although she would otherwise have been barred by 18 U.S.C. 207(c) from making the communication to the EPA.

Example 4 to paragraph (f):In the previous example, an EPA scientist served as a member of the EPA investigatory team that compiled a report concerning the utility company's practices during the discovery stage of the lawsuit. She later terminated Government service to join a consulting firm and is hired by the utility company to assist it in its defense. She may not, without a court order, serve as an expert witness for the company in the matter since she is barred by 18 U.S.C. 207(a)(1) from making the communication to the EPA. On application by the utility company for a court order permitting her service as an expert witness, the court found that there were no extraordinary circumstances that would justify overriding the specific statutory bar to such testimony. Such extraordinary circumstances might be where no other equivalent expert testimony can be obtained and an employee's prior involvement in the matter would not cause her testimony to have an undue influence on proceedings. Without such extraordinary circumstances, ordering such expert witness testimony would undermine the bar on such testimony.

(g) Exception for representing certain candidates or political organizations. Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, a former senior or very senior employee is not prohibited by 18 U.S.C. 207(c) or (d), or §§ 2641.204 or 2641.205, from making a communication or appearance on behalf of a candidate in his capacity as a candidate or an entity specified in paragraphs (g)(1)(ii) through (g)(1)(vi) of this section.

(1) Specified persons or entities. For purposes of this paragraph (g), the specified persons or entities are:

(i) A candidate. A candidate means any person who seeks nomination for election, or election to, Federal or State office or who has authorized others to explore on his own behalf the possibility of seeking nomination for election, or election to, Federal or State office;

(ii) An authorized committee. An authorized committee means any political committee designated in writing by a candidate as authorized to receive contributions or make expenditures to promote the nomination or election of the candidate or to explore the possibility of seeking the nomination or election of the candidate. The term does not include a committee that receives contributions or makes expenditures to promote more than one candidate;

(iii) A national committee. A national committee means the organization which, under the bylaws of a political party, is responsible for the day-to-day operation of the political party at the national level;

(iv) A national Federal campaign committee. A national Federal campaign committee means an organization which, under the bylaws of a political party, is established primarily to provide assistance at the national level to candidates nominated by the party for election to the office of Senator or Representative in, or Delegate or Resident Commissioner to, the Congress;

(v) A State committee. A State committee means the organization which, under the bylaws of a political party, is responsible for the day-to-day operation of the political party at the State level; or

(vi) A political party. A political party means an association, committee, or organization that nominates a candidate for election to any Federal or State elected office whose name appears on the election ballot as the candidate of the association, committee, or organization.

(2) Limitations. The exception in this paragraph (g) shall not apply if the communication or appearance:

(i) Is made at a time the former senior or very senior employee is employed by any person or entity other than:

(A) A person or entity specified in paragraph (g)(1) of this section; or

(B) A person or entity who exclusively represents, aids, or advises persons or entities described in paragraph (g)(1) of this section;

(ii) Is made other than solely on behalf of one or more persons or entities specified in paragraph (g)(1) or (g)(2)(i)(B) of this section; or

(iii) Is made to or before the Federal Election Commission by a former senior or very senior employee of the Federal Election Commission.

Example 1 to paragraph (g):The former Deputy Director of the Office of Management and Budget becomes the full-time head of the President's re-election committee. The former Deputy Director may, within two years of terminating his very senior employee position, represent the re-election committee to the White House travel office in discussions regarding the appropriate amounts of reimbursements by the committee of political travel costs of the President.

Example 2 to paragraph (g):The former U.S. Attorney General is asked by a candidate running for Governor of Alabama to contact the Chairman of the Federal Trade Commission (a position listed in 5 U.S.C. 5314) to seek the dismissal of a pending enforcement action involving the candidate's family business. The former very senior employee's communication to the Chairman would not be made on behalf of the candidate in his capacity as a candidate and, thus, would be barred by 18 U.S.C. 207(d).

Example 3 to paragraph (g):In the previous example, the former Attorney General could contact the Commissioner of Internal Revenue (a position listed in 5 U.S.C. 5314) to urge the review of a tax ruling affecting Alabama's Republican Party since the communication would be made on behalf of a State committee.

Example 4 to paragraph (g):The former Assistant Secretary for Legislative and Intergovernmental Affairs at the Department of Commerce is hired as a consultant by a company that provides advisory services to political candidates and senior executives in private industry. Her only client is a candidate for the U.S. Senate. The former senior employee may not contact the Deputy Secretary of Commerce within one year of her termination from the Department to request that the Deputy Secretary give an official speech in which he would express support for legislation proposed by the candidate. The communication would be prohibited by 18 U.S.C. 207(c) because it would be made when the former senior employee was employed by an entity that did not exclusively represent, aid, or advise persons or entities specified in paragraph (g)(1) of this section.

(h) Waiver for acting on behalf of international organization. The Secretary of State may grant an individual waiver of one or more of the restrictions in 18 U.S.C. 207 where the former employee would appear or communicate on behalf of, or provide aid or advice to, an international organization in which the United States participates. The Secretary of State must certify in advance that the proposed activity is in the interest of the United States.

Note to paragraph (h):

An employee who is detailed under 5 U.S.C. 3343 to an international organization remains an employee of his agency. In contrast, an employee who transfers under 5 U.S.C. 3581-3584 to an international organization is a former employee of his agency.

(i) Waiver for re-employment by Government-owned, contractor-operated entity. The President may grant a waiver of one or more of the restrictions in 18 U.S.C. 207 to eligible employees upon the determination and certification in writing that the waiver is in the public interest and the services of the individual are critically needed for the benefit of the Federal Government. Upon the issuance of a waiver pursuant to this paragraph, the restriction or restrictions waived will not apply to a former employee acting as an employee of the same Government-owned, contractor-operated entity with which he was employed immediately before the period of Government service during which the waiver was granted. If the individual was employed by the Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory, the Los Alamos National Laboratory, or the Sandia National Laboratory immediately before the person's Federal Government employment began, the restriction or restrictions waived shall not apply to a former employee acting as an employee of any one of those three national laboratories after the former employee's Government service has terminated.

(1) Eligible employees. Any current civilian employee of the executive branch, other than an employee serving in the Executive Office of the President, who served as an officer or employee at a Government-owned, contractor-operated entity immediately before he became a Government employee. A total of no more than 25 current employees shall hold waivers at any one time.

(2) Issuance. The President may not delegate the authority to issue waivers under this paragraph. If the President issues a waiver, a certification shall be published in the Federal Register and shall identify:

(i) The employee covered by the waiver by name and position; and

(ii) The reasons for granting the waiver.

(3) Copy to Office of Government Ethics. A copy of the certification shall be provided to the Director of the Office of Government Ethics (OGE).

(4) Effective date. A waiver issued under this section shall be effective on the date the certification is published in the Federal Register.

(5) Reports. Each former employee holding a waiver must submit semiannual reports, for a period of two years after terminating Government service, to the President and the OGE Director.

(i) Submission. The reports shall be submitted:

(A) Not later than six months and 60 days after the date of the former employee's termination from the period of Government service during which the waiver was granted; and

(B) Not later than 60 days after the end of any successive six-month period.

(ii) Content. Each report shall describe all activities undertaken by the former employee during the six-month period that would have been prohibited by 18 U.S.C. 207 but for the waiver.

(iii) Public availability. All reports filed with the OGE Director under this paragraph shall be made available for public inspection and copying.

Note to paragraph (i)(5):

18 U.S.C. 207(k)(5)(D) specifies that an individual who is granted a waiver as described in this paragraph is ineligible for appointment in the civil service unless all reports required by that section have been filed.

(6) Revocation. A waiver shall be revoked when the recipient of the waiver fails to file a report required by paragraph (i)(4) of this section, and the recipient of the waiver shall be notified of such revocation. The revocation shall take effect upon the person's receipt of the notification and shall remain in effect until the report is filed.

(j) Waiver of restrictions of 18 U.S.C. 207(c) and (f) for certain positions. The Director of the Office of Government Ethics may waive application of the restriction of section 18 U.S.C. 207(c) and § 2641.204, with respect to certain positions or categories of positions. When the restriction of 18 U.S.C. 207(c) has been waived by the Director pursuant to this paragraph, the one-year restriction of 18 U.S.C. 207(f) and § 2641.206 also will not be triggered upon an employee's termination from the position.

(1) Eligible senior employee positions. A position which could be occupied by a senior employee is eligible for a waiver of the 18 U.S.C. 207(c) restriction except:

(i) The following positions are ineligible:

(A) Positions for which the rate of pay is specified in or fixed according to 5 U.S.C. 5311-5318 (the Executive Schedule);

(B) Positions for which occupants are appointed by the President pursuant to 3 U.S.C. 105(a)(2)(B); or

(C) Positions for which occupants are appointed by the Vice President pursuant to 3 U.S.C. 106(a)(1)(B).

(ii) Regardless of the position occupied, private sector assignees under the Information Technology Exchange Program, within the meaning of paragraph (6) of the definition of senior employee in section 2641.104, are not eligible to benefit from a waiver.

Example 1 to paragraph (j)(1):The head of a department has authority to fix the annual salary for a category of positions administratively at a rate of compensation not in excess of the rate of compensation provided for level IV of the Executive Schedule (5 U.S.C. 5315). He sets a salary level that does not reference any Executive Schedule salary. The level of compensation is not “specified in” or “fixed according to” the Executive Schedule. If the authority pursuant to which compensation for a position is set instead stated that the position is to be paid at the rate of level IV of the Executive Schedule, the salary for the position would be fixed according to the Executive Schedule.

(2) Criteria for waiver. A waiver of restrictions for a position or category of positions shall be based on findings that:

(i) The agency has experienced or is experiencing undue hardship in obtaining qualified personnel to fill such position or positions as shown by relevant factors which may include, but are not limited to:

(A) Vacancy rates;

(B) The payment of a special rate of pay to the incumbent of the position pursuant to specific statutory authority; or

(C) The requirement that the incumbent of the position have outstanding qualifications in a scientific, technological, technical, or other specialized discipline;

(ii) Waiver of the restriction with respect to the position or positions is expected to ameliorate the recruiting difficulties; and

(iii) The granting of the waiver would not create the potential for the use of undue influence or unfair advantage based on past Government service, including the potential for use of such influence or advantage for the benefit of a foreign entity.

(3) Procedures. A waiver shall be granted in accordance with the following procedures:

(i) Agency recommendation. An agency's designated agency ethics official (DAEO) may, at any time, recommend the waiver of the 18 U.S.C. 207(c) (and section 207(f)) restriction for a position or category of positions by forwarding a written request to the Director addressing the criteria set forth in paragraph (j)(2) of this section. A DAEO may, at any time, request that a current waiver be revoked.

(ii) Action by Office of Government Ethics. The Director of the Office of Government Ethics shall promptly provide to the designated agency ethics official a written response to each request for waiver or revocation. The Director shall maintain a listing of positions or categories of positions in appendix A to this part for which the 18 U.S.C. 207(c) restriction has been waived. The Director shall publish notice in the Federal Register when revoking a waiver.

(4) Effective dates. A waiver shall be effective on the date of the written response to the designated agency ethics official indicating that the request for waiver has been granted. A waiver shall inure to the benefit of the individual who holds the position when the waiver takes effect, as well as to his successors, but shall not benefit individuals who terminated senior service prior to the effective date of the waiver. Revocation of a waiver shall be effective 90 days after the date that the OGE Director publishes notice of the revocation in the Federal Register. Individuals who formerly served in a position for which a waiver of restrictions was applicable will not become subject to 18 U.S.C. 207(c) (or section 207(f)) if the waiver is revoked after their termination from the position.

(k) Miscellaneous statutory exceptions. Several statutory authorities specifically modify the scope of 18 U.S.C. 207 as it would otherwise apply to a former employee or class of former employees. These authorities include:

(1) 22 U.S.C. 3310(c), permitting employees of the American Institute in Taiwan to represent the Institute notwithstanding 18 U.S.C. 207;

(2) 22 U.S.C. 3613(d), permitting the individual who was Administrator of the Panama Canal Commission on the date of its termination to act in carrying out official duties as Administrator of the Panama Canal Authority notwithstanding 18 U.S.C. 207;

(3) 22 U.S.C. 3622(e), permitting an individual who was an employee of the Panama Canal Commission on the date of its termination to act in carrying out official duties on behalf of the Panama Canal Authority;

(4) 25 U.S.C. 450i(j), permitting a former employee who is carrying out official duties as an employee or elected or appointed official of a tribal organization or inter-tribal consortium to act on behalf of the organization or consortium in connection with any matter related to a tribal governmental activity or Federal Indian program or service, if the former employee submits notice of any personal and substantial involvement in the matter during Government service;

(5) 38 U.S.C. 5902(d), permitting a former employee who is a retired officer, warrant officer, or enlisted member of the Armed Forces, while not on active duty, to act on behalf of certain claimants notwithstanding 18 U.S.C. 207 if the claim arises under laws administered by the Secretary of Veterans Affairs;

(6) 50 U.S.C. 405(b), permitting a former part-time member of an advisory committee appointed by the Federal Emergency Management Agency, the Director of National Intelligence, or the National Security Council to engage in conduct notwithstanding 18 U.S.C. 207 except with respect to any particular matter directly involving an agency the former member advised or in which such agency is directly interested;

(7) 50 U.S.C. app. 463, permitting former employees appointed to certain positions under 50 U.S.C. app. 451 et seq. (Military Selective Service Act) to engage in conduct notwithstanding 18 U.S.C. 207; and

(8) Public Law 97-241, title I, section 120, August 24, 1982 (18 U.S.C. 203 note), providing that 18 U.S.C. 207 shall not apply under certain circumstances to private sector representatives on United States delegations to international telecommunications meetings and conferences.

Note to paragraph (k):

Exceptions from 18 U.S.C. 207 may be included in legislation mandating privatization of Governmental entities. See, for example, 42 U.S.C. 2297h-3(c), concerning the privatization of the United States Enrichment Corporation.

(l) Guide to available exceptions and waivers to the prohibitions of 18 U.S.C. 207. This chart lists the exceptions and waivers set forth in 18 U.S.C. 207 and for each exception and waiver identifies the prohibitions of section 207 excepted or subject to waiver. Detailed guidance on the applicability of the exceptions and waivers is contained in the cross-referenced paragraphs of this section.

Exception/waiver | Section 207 Prohibitions affected

(a)(1) | (a)(2) | (b) | (c) | (d) | (f) | (l)

(1) Acting for the United States, see § 2641.301(a) | • | • | • | • | • | • | •

(2) Elected State or local government official, see § 2641.301(b) | • | • | • | • | • | • | •

(3) Acting for specified entities, see § 2641.301(c) | • | •

(4) Special knowledge, see § 2641.301(d) | • | •

(5) Scientific or technological information, see § 2641.301(e) | • | • | • | •

(6) Testimony, see § 2641.301(f) | • | • | • | • | • | • | •

(7) Acting for a candidate or political party, see § 2641.301(g) | • | •

(8) Acting for an international organization, see § 2641.301(h) | • | • | • | • | • | • | •

(9) Employee of a Government-owned, contractor-operated entity, see § 2641.301(i) | • | • | • | • | • | • | •

(10) Waiver for certain positions, see § 2641.301(j) | • | •

§ 2641.302 Separate agency components.

(a) Designation. For purposes of 18 U.S.C. 207(c) only, and § 2641.204, the Director of the Office of Government Ethics may designate agency “components” that are distinct and separate from the “parent” agency and from each other. Absent such designation, the representational bar of section 207(c) extends to the whole of the agency in which the former senior employee served. An eligible former senior employee who served in the parent agency is not barred by section 207(c) from making communications to or appearances before any employee of any designated component of the parent, but is barred as to any employee of the parent or of any agency or bureau of the parent that has not been designated. An eligible former senior employee who served in a designated component of the parent agency is barred from communicating to or making an appearance before any employee of that designated component, but is not barred as to any employee of the parent, of another designated component, or of any other agency or bureau of the parent that has not been designated.

Example 1 to paragraph (a):While employed in the Office of the Secretary of Defense, a former career Senior Executive Service employee was employed in a position for which the rate of basic pay exceeded 86.5 percent of that payable for level II of the Executive Schedule. He is prohibited from contacting the Secretary of Defense and DOD's Inspector General. However, because eligible under paragraph (b) of this section to benefit from component designation procedures, he is not prohibited by 18 U.S.C. 207(c) from contacting the Secretary of the Army. (The Department of the Army is a designated component of the parent, DOD. The Office of the Secretary of Defense and the Office of the DOD Inspector General are both part of the parent, DOD. See the listing of DOD components in appendix B to this part.)

Example 2 to paragraph (a):Because eligible under paragraph (b) of this section to benefit from component designation procedures, a former Navy Admiral who last served as the Vice Chief of Naval Operations is not prohibited by 18 U.S.C. 207(c) from contacting the Secretary of Defense, the Secretary of the Army, or DOD's Inspector General. He is prohibited from contacting the Secretary of the Navy. (The Department of the Navy is a designated component of the parent, DOD. The Office of the Secretary of Defense and the Office of the DOD Inspector General are both part of the parent. See the listing of DOD components in appendix B to this part.)

(b) Eligible former senior employees. All former senior employees are eligible to benefit from this procedure except those who were senior employees by virtue of having been:

(1) Employed in a position for which the rate of pay is specified in or fixed according to 5 U.S.C. 5311-5318 (the Executive Schedule) (see example 1 to paragraph (j)(1) of § 2641.301);

(2) Appointed by the President to a position under 3 U.S.C. 105(a)(2)(B); or

(3) Appointed by the Vice President to a position under 3 U.S.C. 106(a)(1)(B).

Example 1 to paragraph (b):A former senior employee who had served as Deputy Commissioner of the Internal Revenue Service is not eligible to benefit from the designation of components for the Department of the Treasury because the position of Deputy Commissioner is listed in 5 U.S.C. 5316, at a rate of pay payable for level V of the Executive Schedule.

(c) Criteria for designation. A component designation must be based on findings that:

(1) The component is an agency or bureau, within a parent agency, that exercises functions which are distinct and separate from the functions of the parent agency and from the functions of other components of that parent as shown by relevant factors which may include, but are not limited to:

(i) The component's creation by statute or a statutory reference indicating that it exercises functions which are distinct and separate;

(ii) The component's exercise of distinct and separate subject matter or geographical jurisdiction;

(iii) The degree of supervision exercised by the parent over the component;

(iv) Whether the component exercises responsibilities that cut across organizational lines within the parent;

(v) The size of the component in absolute terms; and

(vi) The size of the component in relation to other agencies or bureaus within the parent.

(2) There exists no potential for the use of undue influence or unfair advantage based on past Government service.

(d) Subdivision of components. The Director will not ordinarily designate agencies that are encompassed by or otherwise supervised by an existing designated component.

(e) Procedures. Distinct and separate components shall be designated in accordance with the following procedure:

(1) Agency recommendation. A designated agency ethics official may, at any time, recommend the designation of an additional component or the revocation of a current designation by forwarding a written request to the Director of the Office of Government Ethics addressing the criteria set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.

(2) Agency update. Designated agency ethics officials shall, by July 1 of each year, forward to the OGE Director a letter stating whether components currently designated should remain designated in light of the criteria set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.

(3) Action by the Office of Government Ethics. The Director of the Office of Government Ethics shall, by rule, make or revoke a component designation after considering the recommendation of the designated agency ethics official. The Director shall maintain a listing of all designated agency components in appendix B to this part.

(f) Effective dates. A component designation shall be effective on the date the rule creating the designation is published in the Federal Register and shall be effective as to individuals who terminated senior service either before, on or after that date. Revocation of a component designation shall be effective 90 days after the publication in the Federal Register of the rule that revokes the designation, but shall not be effective as to individuals who terminated senior service prior to the expiration of such 90-day period.

(g) Effect of organizational changes. (1) If a former senior employee served in an agency with component designations and the agency or a designated component that employed the former senior employee has been significantly altered by organizational changes, the appropriate designated agency ethics official shall determine whether any successor entity is substantially the same as the agency or a designated component that employed the former senior employee. Section 2641.204(g)(2)(iv)(A) through (g)(2)(iv)(C) should be used for guidance in determining how the 18 U.S.C. 207(c) bar applies when an agency or a designated component has been significantly altered.

(2) Consultation with Office of Government Ethics. When counseling individuals concerning the applicability of 18 U.S.C. 207(c) subsequent to significant organizational changes, the appropriate designated agency ethics official (DAEO) shall consult with the Office of Government Ethics. When it is determined that appendix B to this part no longer reflects the current organization of a parent agency, the DAEO shall promptly forward recommendations for designations or revocations in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.

Example 1 to paragraph (g):An eligible former senior employee had served as an engineer in the Agency for Transportation Safety, an agency within Department X primarily focusing on safety issues relating to all forms of transportation. The agency had been designated as a distinct and separate component of Department X by the Director of the Office of Government Ethics. Subsequent to his termination from the position, the functions of the agency are distributed among three other designated components with responsibilities relating to air, sea, and land transportation, respectively. The agency's few remaining programs are absorbed by the parent. As the designated component from which the former senior employee terminated is no longer identifiable as substantially the same entity, the 18 U.S.C. 207(c) bar will not affect him.

Example 2 to paragraph (g):A scientist served in a senior employee position in the Agency for Medical Research, an agency within Department X primarily focusing on cancer research. The agency had been designated as a distinct and separate component of Department X by the Director of the Office of Government Ethics. Subsequent to her termination from the position, the mission of the Agency for Medical Research is narrowed and it is renamed the Agency for Cancer Research. Approximately 20% of the employees of the former agency are transferred to various other parts of the Department to continue their work on medical research unrelated to cancer. The Agency for Cancer Research is determined to be substantially the same entity as the designated component in which she formerly served, and the 18 U.S.C. 207(c) bar applies with respect to the scientist's contacts with employees of the Agency for Cancer Research. She would not be barred from contacting an employee who was among the 20% of employees who were transferred to other parts of the Department.

(h) Unauthorized designations. No agency or bureau within the Executive Office of the President may be designated as a separate agency component.

0
Appendix A to Part 2641 Positions Waived From 18 U.S.C. 207(c) and (f)

Pursuant to the provisions of 18 U.S.C. 207(c)(2)(C) and 5 CFR 2641.301(j), each of the following positions is waived from the provisions of 18 U.S.C. 207(c) and 5 CFR 2641.204, as well as the provisions of 18 U.S.C. 207(f) and 5 CFR 2641.206. All waivers are effective as of the date indicated.

Agency: Department of Justice

Positions:

United States Trustee (21) (effective June 2, 1994).

[73 FR 36186, June 25, 2008, as amended at 79 FR 2, Jan. 2, 2014]

Appendix B to Part 2641 Agency Components for Purposes of 18 U.S.C. 207(c)

Pursuant to the provisions of 18 U.S.C. 207(h), each of the following agencies is determined, for purposes of 18 U.S.C. 207(c), and 5 CFR 2641.204, to have within it distinct and separate components as set forth below. Except as otherwise indicated, all designations are effective as of January 1, 1991.

Parent: Department of Commerce

Components

Bureau of the Census.

Bureau of Economic Analysis (effective June 26, 2020).

Bureau of Industry and Security (formerly Bureau of Export Administration) (effective January 28, 1992).

Economic Development Administration.

International Trade Administration.

Minority Business Development Agency (formerly listed as Minority Business Development Administration).

National Institute of Standards and Technology (effective March 6, 2008).

National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration.

National Technical Information Service (effective March 6, 2008).

National Telecommunications and Information Administration.

United States Patent and Trademark Office (formerly Patent and Trademark Office).

Parent: Department of Defense

Components

Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency (DARPA) (effective April 6, 2021).

Department of the Air Force.

Department of the Army.

Department of the Navy.

Defense Information Systems Agency.

Defense Intelligence Agency.

Defense Logistics Agency.

Defense Threat Reduction Agency (effective February 5, 1999).

National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency (formerly National Imagery and Mapping Agency) (effective May 16, 1997).

National Reconnaissance Office (effective January 30, 2003).

National Security Agency.

Parent: Department of Energy

Component

Federal Energy Regulatory Commission.

Parent: Department of Health and Human Services

Components

Administration for Children and Families (effective January 28, 1992).

Administration for Community Living (effective December 4, 2014).

Administration for Strategic Preparedness and Response (effective September 12, 2024).

Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (formerly Agency for Health Care Policy and Research) (effective May 16, 1997).

Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (effective May 16, 1997).

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (effective May 16, 1997).

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (formerly Health Care Financing Administration).

Food and Drug Administration.

Health Resources and Services Administration (effective May 16, 1997).

Indian Health Service (effective May 16, 1997).

National Institutes of Health (effective May 16, 1997).

Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (effective May 16, 1997).

Parent: Department of the Interior

Components [1]

Bureau of Indian Affairs (effective January 28, 1992).

Bureau of Land Management (effective January 28, 1992).

Bureau of Reclamation (effective January 28, 1992).

National Park Service (effective January 28, 1992).

Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement (effective January 28, 1992).

U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (effective January 28, 1992).

U.S. Geological Survey (effective January 28, 1992).

Parent: Department of Justice

Components

Antitrust Division.

Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (effective November 23, 2004).

Bureau of Prisons (including Federal Prison Industries, Inc.).

Civil Division.

Civil Rights Division.

Community Relations Service.

Criminal Division.

Drug Enforcement Administration.

Environment and Natural Resources Division.

Executive Office for United States Attorneys [2] (effective January 28, 1992).

Executive Office for United States Trustees [3] (effective January 28, 1992).

Federal Bureau of Investigation.

Foreign Claims Settlement Commission.

Independent Counsel appointed by the Attorney General.

Office of Justice Programs.

Office of the Pardon Attorney (effective January 28, 1992).

Offices of the United States Attorney (each of 94 offices).

Offices of the United States Trustee (each of 21 offices).

Office on Violence Against Women [4] (effective March 8, 2007).

Tax Division.

United States Marshals Service (effective May 16, 1997).

United States Parole Commission.

Parent: Department of Labor

Components

Bureau of Labor Statistics.

Employee Benefits Security Administration (formerly Pension and Welfare Benefits Administration) (effective May 16, 1997).

Employment and Training Administration.

Mine Safety and Health Administration.

Occupational Safety and Health Administration.

Office of Disability Employment Policy (effective January 30, 2003).

Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs (effective December 29, 2016).

Office of Labor Management Standards (effective December 29, 2016).

Office of Workers' Compensation Programs (effective December 29, 2016).

Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (effective May 25, 2011).

Veterans' Employment and Training Service (effective June 26, 2020).

Wage and Hour Division (effective December 29, 2016).

Parent: Department of State

Component

Foreign Service Grievance Board.

Parent: Department of Transportation

Components

Federal Aviation Administration.

Federal Highway Administration.

Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (effective January 30, 2003).

Federal Railroad Administration.

Federal Transit Administration.

Maritime Administration.

National Highway Traffic Safety Administration.

Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (effective December 29, 2016).

Great Lakes St. Lawrence Seaway Development Corporation (formerly Saint Lawrence Seaway Development Corporation).

Parent: Department of the Treasury

Components

Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau (effective November 23, 2004).

Bureau of Engraving and Printing.

Bureau of the Fiscal Service (effective December 4, 2014).

Comptroller of the Currency.

Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN) (effective January 30, 2003).

Internal Revenue Service.

United States Mint (formerly listed as Bureau of the Mint).

Footnotes—Appendix B to Part 2641

[1] All designated components under the jurisdiction of a particular Assistant Secretary shall be considered a single component for purposes of determining the scope of 18 U.S.C. 207(c) as applied to senior employees serving on the immediate staff of that Assistant Secretary.

[2] The Executive Office for United States Attorneys shall not be considered separate from any Office of the United States Attorney for a judicial district, but only from other designated components of the Department of Justice.

[3] The Executive Office for United States Trustees shall not be considered separate from any Office of the United States Trustee for a region, but only from other designated components of the Department of Justice.

[4] The Office on Violence Against Women shall not be considered separate from the Office of Justice Programs, but only from other designated components of the Department of Justice.

[73 FR 36186, June 25, 2008, as amended at 76 FR 30246, May 25, 2011; 79 FR 71957, Dec. 4, 2014; 80 FR 56894, Sept. 21, 2015; 81 FR 95854, Dec. 29, 2016; 85 FR 38275, June 26, 2020; 86 FR 17692, Apr. 6, 2021; 89 FR 74108, Sept. 12, 2024; 91 FR 65450, Oct. 15, 2026]

2642-2699 PARTS 2642-2699 [RESERVED]